CBSE Class 10

Science
Previous Year Question Paper 2020
Series: JBB/1 Set– 1
Code no. 31/1/1

• Please check that this paper contains 15 printed pages.

• Code number given on the right-hand side of the question paper should be
written on the title page of the answer-book by the candidate.
• Please check that this question paper contains 30 questions.
• Please write down the Serial Number of the question in the answer-
book before attempting it.
• 15 minutes of time has been allotted to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30
a.m., the students will read the question paper only and will not write any
answer on the answer-book during this period.

SCIENCE

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:
(i) Question paper comprises three sections - A, B and C.
There are 30 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A - question no. 1 to 14 - all questions or part thereof are of one mark
each. These questions comprise multiple choice questions (MCQ), very short
answer (VSA), and Assertion-Reason type questions. Answers to these questions
should be given in one word or one sentence.

Class X Science www.vedantu.com 1

(iii) Section B - question no. 15 to 24 are short answer type questions, carrying 3
marks each, Answers to these questions should not exceed 50 to 60 words.
(iv) Section C - question no. 25 to 30 are long answer type questions, carrying 5
marks each. Answer to these questions should not exceed
80 to 90 words.
(v) Answer should be brief and to the point. Also, the abovementioned word limit
be adhered to as far as possible.
(vi) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice
has been provided in some questions in each Section.
Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(vii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and
question, wherever necessary.

SECTION - A
1. Name acyclic unsaturated carbon compound. 1 Mark
Ans: Acyclic unsaturated carbon compounds are those which contain double or
triple bonds between carbon atoms and are acyclic in nature. For example:
Butene.

2. The change in magnetic field lines in a coil is the cause of induced electric
current in it. Name the underlying phenomenon. 1 Mark
Ans: According to the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction, the change in
magnetic field lines in a coil is the cause of induced electric current in it.

Answer question numbers 3(a) to 3(d) and 4(a) to 4(d) on the basis of your
understanding of the following paragraphs and the related studied concepts.
3. The growing size of the human population is a cause of concern for all
people. The rate of birth and death in a given population will determine its
size. Reproduction is the process by which organisms increase their
population. The process of sexual maturation for reproduction is gradual

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and takes place while general body growth is still going on. Some degree of
sexual maturation does not necessarily mean that the mind or body is ready
for sexual acts or for having and bringing up children. Various contraceptive
devices are being used by human beings to control the size of the population.
(a) List two common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls. 1 Mark
Ans: Two common signs of sexual maturation in boys and girls are:
1. Pubic, underarm and facial hair development.
2. Common signs of acne development.
(b) What is the result of reckless female foeticide? 1 Mark
Ans: The reckless female foeticide will ultimately result in men: women ratio.
Since due to foeticide the number of females decreases with respect to the number
of males.
(c) Which contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body?
1 Mark
Ans: The oral contraceptive method changes the hormonal balance of the body
so this woman does not ovulate by taking such pills.
(d) Write two factors that determine the size of a population. 1 Mark
Ans: Two factors which determine the size of population are:
1. Birth rate
2. Death rate

4. Human body is made up of five important components, of which water is

the main component. Food as well as potable water are essential for every
human being. The food is obtained from plants through agriculture.
Pesticides are being used extensively for a high yield in the fields. These
pesticides are absorbed by the plants from the soil along with water and
minerals and from the water bodies these pesticides are taken up by the
aquatic animals and plants. As these chemicals are not biodegradable, they
get accumulated progressively at each trophic level. The maximum
concentration of these chemicals gets accumulated in our bodies and greatly
affects the health of our mind and body.

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(a) Why is the maximum concentration of pesticides found in human beings?
1 Mark
Ans: Pesticides are extensively used for good production of crops and these crops
will be consumed by us. Hence these pesticides transfer to the human body.
Therefore the maximum concentration of pesticides found in human beings.
(b) Give one method which could be applied to reduce our intake of
pesticides through food to some extent. 1 Mark
Ans: Before eating food we must ensure to wash it properly so that if there is a
layer of pesticides on the fruit then it gets washed.
(c) Various steps in a food chain represent: 1 Mark
(a) Food web (b) Trophic level
(c) Ecosystem (d) Biomagnification
Ans: The various steps which are represented in the food chain are known as
trophic level Each trophic level represents a class of organism.
Hence the correct option is (b).
(d) With regard to various food chains operating in an ecosystem, man is a:
(a) Consumer (b) Producer
(c) Producer and consumer (d) Producer and decomposer 1 Mark
Ans: According to various food chains operating in the ecosystem, a man is a
consumer which does not produce anything of its own. It only consumes.
Hence the correct option is (a).

5. Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime.

CaO(s ) + H 2O(l) → Ca ( OH )2(aq.)

This reaction can be classified as:

(A) Combination reaction (B) Exothermic reaction
(C) Endothermic reaction (D) Oxidation reaction
Which of the following is a correct option?

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(a) (A) and (C) (b) (C) and (D)
(c) (A), (C) and (D) (d) (A) and (B) 1 Mark
Ans: The above reaction is an exothermic in nature which releases large amounts
of heat and it is an example of a combination reaction.
Hence the correct option is (d).
Or
When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper
sulphate, a black precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained and the sulphuric
acid so formed remains in the solution. The reaction is an example of a:
1 Mark
(a) Combination reaction (b) Displacement reaction
(c) Decomposition reaction (d) Double displacement reaction
Ans: The reaction can be represented as:
H 2S( g ) +CuSO 4(aq.) → CuS(s) +H 2SO 4(aq.)

Thus it is a double displacement reaction.

Hence the correct option is (d).

6. In a double displacement reaction such as the reaction between sodium

sulphate solution and barium chloride solution: 1 Mark
(A) exchange of atoms takes place
(B) exchange of ions takes place
(C) a precipitate is produced
(D) an insoluble salt is produced
The correct option is:
(a) (B) and (D) (b) (A) and (C)
(c) only (B) (d) (B), (C) and (D)
Ans: The reaction can be represented as:

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BaCl2 +NaSO 4 → NaCl+BaSO 4 ( ↓ )

Sodium chloride is not an insoluble salt therefore the correct options are A and
C.
Hence the correct option is (b).

7. Baking soda is a mixture of: 1 Mark

(a) Sodium carbonate and acetic acid
(b) Sodium carbonate and tartaric acid
(c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid
(d) Sodium hydrogen carbonate and acetic acid
Ans: Baking soda is sodium bicarbonate which is NaHCO3 which is a mixture
of sodium hydrogen carbonate and tartaric acid.
Hence the correct option is (c).

8. The chemical formula for plaster of Paris is: 1 Mark

(a) CaSO 4 .2H 2O (b) CaSO 4 .H 2O

1
(c) CaSO 4 . H 2O (d) 2CaSO 4 .H 2O
2
Ans: The correct formula for plaster of Paris is CaSO 4 .2H 2O .

Hence the correct option is (a).

9. The laws of reflection hold true for: 1 Mark

(a) plane mirrors only (b) concave mirrors only
(c) convex mirrors only (d) all reflecting surfaces
Ans: The laws of reflection hold true for all reflecting surfaces.
Hence the correct option is (d).

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 Or
When an object is kept within the focus of a concave mirror, an enlarged
image is formed behind the mirror. This image is: 1 Mark
(a) real (b) inverted
(c) virtual and inverted (d) virtual and erect
Ans: The nature of the image will be virtual and erect.
Hence the correct option is (d).

10. At the time of short circuit, the electric current in the circuit: 1 Mark
(a) vary continuously (b) does not change
(c) reduces substantially (d) increases heavily
Ans: At time of short circuit the current increases heavily which will burn our
devices too.
Hence the correct option is (d).
Or
Two bulbs of 100 W and 40 W are connected in series. The current through
the 100 W bulb is 1A. The current through the 40W bulb will be: 1 Mark
(a) 0.4A (b) 0.6A
(c) 0.8A (d) 1A
Ans: The current will always be equal in series connection. Therefore current will
be 1A.
Hence the correct option is (d).

12. Incomplete combustion of coal and petroleum: 1 Mark

(A) increases air pollution.
(B) increases the efficiency of machines.
(C) reduces global warming.

Class X Science www.vedantu.com 7

(D) produce poisonous gases.
The correct option is:
(a) (A) and (B) (b) (A) and (D)
(c) (B) and (C) (d) (C)and (D)
Ans: Incomplete combustion of petrol will increase the air pollution and produce
the poisonous gases consequently.
Hence the correct option is (b).
For question numbers 13 and 14, two statements are given – one labelled
Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to
these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a)Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

13. Assertion (A): Esterification is a process in which a sweet-smelling

substance is produced.
Reason (R): When esters react with sodium hydroxide an alcohol and sodium
salt of carboxylic acid are obtained. 1 Mark
Ans: Esterification is the process by which ester is formed and ester is a sweet
smelling substance. When this ester reacts with sodium hydroxide an alcohol and
sodium salt of carboxylic acid are obtained. Thus Assertion is true but reason is
not correct explanation because ester smell because of volatile in nature.
Hence the correct option is (b).

14. Assertion (A): In the process of nuclear fission, the amount of nuclear
energy generated by the fission of an atom of uranium is so tremendous that

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it produces 10 million times the energy produced by the combustion of an
atom of carbon from coal.
Reason (R): The nucleus of a heavy atom such as uranium, when bombarded
with low energy neutrons, splits apart into lighter nuclei. The mass
difference between the original nucleus and the product nuclei gets
converted to tremendous energy. 1 Mark
Ans: Nuclear fission produces a large amount of energy and this energy is
produced as the result of bombardment of uranium with low energy neutrons.
Thus both are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
Hence the correct option is (a).

SECTION-B
15. 1g of copper powder was taken in a China dish and heated. What change
takes place on heating? When hydrogen gas is passed over this heated
substance, a visible change is seen in it. Give the chemical equations
reactions, the name and the color of the products formed in each case.
3 Marks
Ans: When 1g Copper powder is taken in a china dish and then it is heated, a
black colored substance is formed which is known as copper oxide. The above
reaction can be represented by using the equation as:
Heat
2Cu+O 2  → 2CuO(black)

This is because the copper is being oxidized to copper oxide which is black in
color. Now when hydrogen gas is passed over this heated substance which is
copper oxide then the copper metal is obtained. The reaction can be represented
as:
Heat
CuO(black) +H 2  → Cu (s) + H 2O(l)

Thus we get copper back on heating the copper oxide with hydrogen gas and also
water is formed as a by-product of reaction.

16. List the important products of the Chlor-alkali process. Write one
important use of each. 3 Marks

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Ans: The chlor-alkali process is used in the electrolysis of sodium chloride
( NaCl ) . The important products which are formed during the electrolysis of
sodium chloride are:
2NaCl+2H 2O → 2NaOH + Cl2 + H 2

The important products are sodium hydroxide, chlorine and hydrogen gas. When
the electric current is passed through the aqueous solution of sodium chloride
then hydrogen gas is formed at cathode and chlorine gas is formed at anode. Their
uses are listed below:
(a) Sodium Hydroxide: It is used in manufacturing of soaps and detergents.
(b) Chlorine gas: It is used in pesticides and manufacturing of PVC pipes.
(c) Hydrogen gas: It is used in fuels and reduction reactions also.

How is washing soda prepared from sodium carbonate? Give its chemical
equation. State the type of this salt. Name the type of hardness of water which
can be removed by it? 3 Marks
Ans: Washing soda can be prepared from sodium carbonate by adding ten
molecules of water of crystallization. It is then known as sodium carbonate
decahydrate or we can simply call it a washing soda in common name. The
reaction of adding water of crystallization can be shown as:
Na 2CO3 +10H 2O → Na 2CO3 .10H 2O

Washing soda is a sodium salt and we know that sodium salt is basic in nature.
Therefore sodium carbonate is basic in nature and it is basic salt.
Basically there are two types of hardness in water which are temporary hardness
and permanent hardness. Washing soda is used to remove both types of hardness.
When we add washing soda in water it adds a large amount of carbonate ions in
water which will react with calcium and magnesium ions to form insoluble
precipitates and thus cleansing action is completed.

17. A 3 ml ethanol is taken in a test tube and warmed gently in a water bath.
A 5% a solution of alkaline potassium permanganate is added first drop by
drop to this solution, then in excess.

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(i) How is 5% solution of KMnO 4 prepared?

(ii) State the role of alkaline potassium permanganate in this reaction. What
happens when you add it in excess?
(iii) Write the chemical equation of this reaction. 3 Marks
Ans:
(i) 5% solution of KMnO 4 is the solution in which there is 5 g of KMnO 4 is
dissolved in 100 ml solution. Therefore it is ratio of weight of KMnO 4 and the
volume of solution. It can be prepared in the following steps as:
(a)Take 100 ml of distilled water in a beaker.
(b) Now add 5 g of KMnO 4 into beaker gently and thus it from the 5% solution
of KMnO 4 .

(ii) When the alkaline potassium permanganate is added to ethanol then the
ethanol gets oxidized. This is because alkaline potassium permanganate is an
oxidizing agent which will oxidize the alcohol into carboxylic acid. The reaction
between them can be shown as:
C2 H5OH
KMnO 4  → CH 3COOH

Here in the above reaction alkaline potassium permanganate acts as an oxidizing

agent. When we add excess alkaline potassium permanganate then the purple
color will persist.
(iii) The equation for the chemical reaction will be:
KMnO 4 + C2 H 5OH → CH 3COOH

18. A squirrel is in a scary situation. Its body has to prepare for either
fighting or running away. State the immediate changes that take place in its
body so that the squirrel is able to either fight or run? 3 Marks
Ans: There will be some immediate changes that take place in its body for the
squirrel to be ready to fight or run away. These changes are listed below as:
(a) There will be release of adrenaline hormone which will cause an increase in
the pumping rate of the heart and also the breathing rate of squirrels increases.

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(b) There will be a change in blood pressure and the dilation of the pupil which
helps while running.
(c) The hypothalamus of the squirrel activates the sympathetic nervous system
and thus releases the adrenaline from adrenal gland.
(d) At that time the digestive activities and reproductive activities stop for a
moment.
All these changes made squirrels to be active while running or fighting like
situations.
Or
Why is chemical communication better than electrical impulses as a means
of communication between cells in a multicellular organism? 3 Marks
Ans: Chemical communications is better than electrical impulses as means of
communication between cells in a multicellular organism because of the
following reasons:
(a) Chemical communication involves the communication which takes place
through hormones. Thus it does not require any specialized tissue like nervous
tissue which is used for electrical impulses.
(b) Since electric communication is limited to only certain regions. These regions
are connected by nerves while the chemical connection is not specific to some
regions, it is all over the body.
(c) In chemical communication signals are sent persistently and steadily while in
nervous communication it can be done only at certain intervals of time.

19. Define the term pollination. Differentiate between self pollination and
cross pollination. What is the significance of pollination? 3 Marks
Ans: Pollination can be defined as the act of transferring of pollen grains from
the anther of male flower to stigma of female flower. After the pollination the
seeds can be produced which will create offspring.

Self-Pollination Cross Pollination

When the pollen grains transfer from When the pollen grains transfer from
anther of the same flower to the anther of flower to the stigma of
stigma of the same flower then this different flowers then this kind of

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 kind of pollination is called self- pollination is called cross
pollination. pollination.
Here pollinating agents are not Here pollinating agents are necessary
necessary. for the transfer of pollen grains.

Significance of pollination:
The transfer of pollen grains is significant as it helps in fertilization by bringing
male gamete to female egg and thus it helps in the production of seed and which
will ultimately produce new offspring.

20. What are homologous structures? Give an example. Is it necessary that

homologous structures always have a common ancestor? Justify your
answer. 3 Marks
Ans: Homologous structures are those structures which have common basic
structure but they perform different operations or functions. Thus we can say that
homologous structures are similar to each other but they are modified to perform
different functions.
For example: forelimbs of reptiles, amphibians and mammals have the same
structure but they can perform different functions.
The Arms of human beings, wings of birds and the front legs of horses are
homologous structures.
Yes, homologous structures have common ancestors but they are modified to
carry out different operations or activities. The basic structure of the arms of the
humans and wings of the bird are similar in structure but they are modified and
hence perform different operations in different individuals. Arms of human
beings cannot be used for flying while that of birds does. Thus we can say that
they have common ancestors but perform different functions.

21. Why is the Tyndall effect shown by colloidal particles? State four
instances of observing the Tyndall effect. 3 Marks
Ans: The scattering of light in a colloidal dispersion medium by colloidal particle
is known as the Tyndall effect. When the same light is passed through pure
medium then no such scattering of light takes place. Thus it is a property of
colloidal particles to scatter the light when it passes through it. Hence we can say

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that the Tyndall effect is used to determine whether a mixture is a true solution
or a colloidal solution. The instances where we can see this Tyndall effect are
listed below:
(a) The Tyndall effect can be shown when headlights of a car turns on on a foggy
day. The light from the headlight gets scattered by the colloidal particles of the
fog and thus we can see colloidal particles too.
(b) When sunlight passes through the canopy of the forest then we can see the
scattering of light at the top of the tree which is the canopy region.
(c) The Tyndall effect can be visible when light enters a dark room through a hole
and thus we can easily see the light scattered by the particles in the way of the
light.
(d)When we direct the beam of light into the glass full of milk then we can also
see this effect too.
Or
Differentiate between a glass slab and a glass prism. What happens when a
narrow beam of (i) a monochromatic light, and (ii) white light passes through
(a) glass slab and (b) glass prism? 3 Marks
Ans: The difference between glass slab and glass prism is listed as:
Glass Slab Glass Prism
It is a transparent substance in which It is also a transparent substance in
reflecting surfaces are parallel to each which reflecting surfaces are at an
other. angle.
It is rectangular in shape. It has two triangular sides inclined to
each other and a rectangular base.
The direction of incident ray and The direction of incident ray and
emergent ray are parallel to each other. emergent ray are not parallel to each
other.

(i) When the narrow beam of monochromatic light get passed through:
(a) Glass slab: It will deviate from the actual path but we know that the direction
of the incident ray and the emergent ray are parallel to each other.
(b) Glass prism: There is splitting of white into seven colors and the direction of
incident ray and emergent ray are not parallel to each other.

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(ii) When the narrow beam of white light get passed through:
(a) Glass slab: When it strikes the first surface then splitting of white light takes
place and when it strikes on the second surface then it comes out as single white
light.
(b) When it falls on a prism, white light gets dispersed into seven different colors
on the screen placed in front of the prism.

22. Draw a labelled diagram to show (i) reddish appearance of the sun at the
sunrise or the sunset and (ii) white appearance of the sun at noon when it is
overhead. 3 Marks
Ans: When the sun is near the horizon then it appears to be reddish in color
because as the light passes through the atmosphere enters at slant angle and due
to which a large amount of scattering of light takes place. The blue light of the
sky gets scarier than the red light of the sun thus we can see the reddish color of
the sun more precisely. The same phenomena does not happen at noon.

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23. A V-I graph for a nichrome wire is given below. What do you infer from
this graph? Draw a labelled circuit diagram to obtain such a graph.
3 Marks

Ans: From the above we can see that there is a linear relation between the
potential difference(V) and current (A), therefore it gives a straight line between
them. We can depict that when we increase the potential difference across the
nichrome wire then the current also increases in a constant ratio respectively.
Thus we can say that the resistance of nichrome wire is constant. Since there is a
linear relation between the current and potential difference we can say that the
nichrome wire follows the ohm’ law.
According to ohm’s law there is a linear relation between the applied potential
difference and the current passing through wire. It can be represented as:
V∝I
⇒ V=IR
Hence we can draw the circuit diagram of the above graph as:

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Thus the resistance of nichrome wire is R and current passing through it is I. It is
an ohmic device which follows ohm’s law.

24. 3 Marks
(a) Write the mathematical expression for Joule’s law of heating:
Ans: (a) According to Joule’s of heating when a current, I passes through
conductor of resistance r, for time t, then the amount of heat produced in the
conductor will be equal to product of square of current , the resistance and time.
This can be represented as:

H=i 2 rt
The S.I unit of energy is Joules.
(b) Compute the heat generated while transferring 96000 coulomb of charge
in two hours through a potential difference 40 V.
Ans: Here the amount of charge, Q is 9600 C and time for this flow of charge is
2 hr which is equal to 7200 s . Hence we can find the electric current as:
Q
i=
t
9600 40
i= = A
7200 3
Since we know that V=ir the above equation can be reduced as:
H=Vit
It is given that V=40 V , therefore the amount of heat can be calculated as:
40
H=40× ×7200
3
H=3840000 J
H=3.84×106 J

SECTION-C

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25. Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium
to their respective metals. Why? Where are these metals placed in the
reactivity series? How are these metals obtained from their ores? Take an
example to explain the process of extraction along with chemical equations.
5 Marks
Ans: Carbon cannot reduce the oxides of sodium, magnesium and aluminium to
their respective metals because sodium, magnesium and aluminium have higher
affinity towards oxygen then that of carbon. This is because all these are highly
reactive metals and thus it requires a lot of energy to reduce their oxides.
According to the reactivity series of metals which helps in finding the more
reactive elements, it is found that sodium, magnesium and aluminium are more
reactive than carbon and thus placed at higher levels than carbon in the reactivity
series of elements. Therefore being less reactive, carbon is not used for extraction
of sodium, magnesium and aluminium from their ores.
Such metals which are highly reactive than carbon elements are extracted by the
help of electrolytic reduction process. It is also known as electrolysis of the
molten solution of the ore. Thus we can say that sodium can be obtained with the
help of electrolysis of its salt. In electrolysis a sufficient amount of current is
passed through the aqueous solution and thus it breaks into its respective ions and
thus metals get collected at cathode. The reaction can be represented as:

At cathode: Na + + e- → Na

1
At anode: Cl- → Cl2 +e-
2
Therefore we get the pure metal at cathode. This method is basically used for
elements which cannot be reduced by carbon.

26. The position of certain elements in the Modern Periodic Table are shown
below.
1 2 3 to 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Group
Period
1 G H
2 A I B C
3 D E F

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Using the above table answer the following questions giving reasons in each
case:
(i) Which element will form only covalent compounds?
(ii) Which element is a non-metal with valency 2?
(iii) Which element is a metal with valency 2?
(iv) Out of H, C and F which has the largest atomic size?
(v) To which family docs H, C and F belong? 5 Marks
Ans: (i) The element which forms covalent compounds must have valence
electrons greater than three and less than eight. Thus we can say that elements E
and B will have a tendency to form covalent compounds.
(ii) Non-metals are present at the right hand side of the periodic table. They have
a tendency to accept electrons. Thus we can say that element E will be non-metal
and it can accept two electrons to form inert in nature.
(iii) Metals are present on the left hand side of the periodic table and they have a
tendency to lose electrons. Thus we can say that G, A and D are metals. But D
element will have a valency of 2.
(iv) As we go down the group the size of the element increases in the same group.
Hence we can say that out of H, C and F , F has the largest atomic size. The size
of atoms increases as the number of shells increases.
OR
Define atomic size. Give its unit of measurement. In the modern periodic
table what trend is observed in the atomic radius in a group and a period
and why is it so? 5 Marks
Ans: Atomic size: The distance between the centre of the nucleus of an atom and
its outermost shell is known as the atomic size of an atom. The atomic size varies
as the number of shells inside the atom increases. A atom having more number
of shells will have more atomic size than an atom having less number of shells.
The atomic size is the distance between the nucleus of atom to outermost shell,
hence it is measure in Angstrom  A  .
o

 
o
1A = 10−10 m

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Trend observed in atomic radius in a group and period in modern periodic table:
Along the periods: When we move along the periods from left to right in a period
the atomic radius of elements gradually decreases. The decrease in atomic radius
is due to an increase in effective nuclear energy and more attraction between the
electron and the nucleus of the atom. Since the shell does not increase and number
of electrons increases which increases the attraction between the electrons and
nucleus of the atom. This attraction will ultimately shrink the size of atoms.
Therefore we can say that along the periods while moving from left to right the
atomic radius decreases generally.
Down the groups: When we move down the group from top to bottom the atomic
radius increases gradually. This is because the number of shells increases at each
down element. Thus the number of shells increases at every element while
moving down the group which ultimately increases the size of the element.
Therefore we can say that the atomic radius increases while moving down the
group.

27. 5 Marks
(a) Why is there a difference in the rate of breathing between aquatic
organisms and terrestrial organisms? Explain.
Ans: One complete breath includes single inhalation and exhalation of air. Thus
rate of breathing is the number of times a complete breath takes place in a minute.
Rate of breathing is different in aquatic organisms and terrestrial organisms. This
is because aquatic organisms like fishes obtain their oxygen from water which is
present in dissolved state through their gills. Since we know that the amount of
dissolved oxygen in water is less as compared to oxygen present in undissolved
form in air. Thus they have high breathing rates to meet the breathing
requirements. They breathe faster than humans to meet the oxygen demand of the
body. Thus it is also seen that swimmers breathe at a faster rate when they swim
across the river. Therefore there is a difference of breathing rates in both aquatic
organisms and terrestrial organisms.
(b) Draw a diagram of the human respiratory system and label - pharynx,
trachea, lungs, diaphragm and alveolar sac on it.
Ans: The human respiratory system can be shown as:

Class X Science www.vedantu.com 20

 Or
5 Marks
(a) Name the organs that form the excretory system in human beings.
Ans: Human excretory system consists of following organs:
1.Two kidneys : Kidneys are located at one on each side of the spine at the level
of the liver. Kidneys are the important organ of the human body and it is present
in pairs. Kidney helps in purification of blood.
2.A urinary bladder: It is a sac-like structure and it stores urine until the process
of expelling the urine. It receives urine from the ureters which are connected to
each kidney separately.
3. Urethra: It is a tube -like structure which arises from the urinary bladder. It is
shorter in females and longer in males. In males, it is a common path for sperms
and urine both.
(b) Describe in brief how urine is produced in the human body.
Ans: The human body produces the waste chemical compounds like urea and uric
acid with the help of urine. These waste are filtered with the help of the kidney.

Class X Science www.vedantu.com 21

Thus we can say that the main role of the kidney is to filter our blood and produce
the waste excreted out in the form of urine.
Basically the kidney contains a basic structure called nephrons which helps in the
filtration process. It has two parts:
1. Bowman’s Capsule: It is a cup shaped structure which consists of a coiled tube
of blood capillary. This helps in the filtration process.
2. Renal Tubule: Now the filtrate obtained from Bowman’s capsule goes into
renal tubule. But some of the substances like amino acids and salts get absorbed
in their initial state. The rest of water which contains only uric acid and urea gets
passed through the tubule.
Now it moves through a duct and moves towards the urinary bladder where it gets
stored and excreted out from the body in the form of urine.

28. 5 Marks
(a) What is the law of dominance of traits? Explain with an example.
Ans: The law of dominance of traits states that in a heterozygous or we can say
in a hybrid condition the allele having the characters expressed over the other
allele is the dominant allele.

Class X Science www.vedantu.com 22

Here in the parent generation one of them is homozygous dominant and the other
one is homozygous recessive allele. The first one gamete has the dominant pea
shape structure while the other one gamete has the recessive structure. After he
fertilization takes place, the first generation F1 would have heterozygous
conditions among the both alleles the ‘R’ character expresses over the ‘r’ allele.
Thus we can say that here ‘R’ is the dominant allele.
(b) Why are the traits acquired during the lifetime of an individual not
inherited? Explain.
Ans: The traits which are inherited during the lifetime cannot be inherited to
successive generations as the changes do not reflect in the DNA of the germ cells.
The traits acquired during the lifetime brings the change in non-reproductive
tissues which cannot be passed to germ cells. Thus we can say these acquired
traits cannot be passed to successive generations.
For example: a swimmer good at swimming cannot pass this acquired trait to
successive generations as it brings changes only in non-reproductive cells which
do not take part in reproduction.

29. Draw a ray diagram in each of the following cases to show the formation
of image, when the object is placed:
(i) between the optical centre and principal focus of a convex lens.
State the signs and values of magnifications in the above-mentioned cases (i)
and (ii). 5 Marks
Ans: (i) Let us suppose O be the object and I be the image then the image can be
formed as:

Class X Science www.vedantu.com 23

The image formed is enlarged and erect. Therefore its magnification will be
positive and since it is enlarged therefore magnification will be greater than one.

(ii) anywhere in front of a concave lens.

Ans: Let us suppose O be the object and I be the image then the image can be
formed as:
The image formed is diminished and erect. Therefore its magnification will be
positive and since it is diminished therefore magnification will be less than one.

(iii) at 2F of a convex lens.

Ans: Let us suppose O be the object and I be the image then the image can be
formed as:
The image will be formed at 2F on the other side of the lens and its magnification
will be the same as that of the object.

Class X Science www.vedantu.com 24

 Or
An object 4.0 cm in size, is placed 25.0 cm in front of a concave mirror of
focal length 15.0 cm. 5 Marks
(i) At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to
obtain a sharp image?
Ans: Here, height of object, h i =4 cm

Object distance u=25 cm

Focal length f=15 cm
We know that:
1 1 1
⇒ = +
f v u
V is the image distance , object distance is taken as negative and focal length of
concave mirror is always negative. Therefore,
1 1 1
⇒ = +
-15 v -25
1 1 1
⇒ = +
v -15 25
1 -5+3
⇒ =
v 75
1 -2
⇒ =
v 75

Class X Science www.vedantu.com 25

v=-37.5 cm
(ii) Find the size of the image.
-v h i
Ans: Magnification, m= =
u ho

- ( -37.5 ) h i
⇒ m= =
-25 4
4×37.5
⇒ hi =
-25
⇒ h i =-6 cm

Therefore height of image will be −6 cm . The image will be real and inverted.
(iii) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image in this case.
Ans:

30. 5 Marks
(a) What is an electromagnet? List any two uses.
Ans: An electromagnet is a type of magnet in which the magnetic field is
produced by passing the electric current. Thus whenever the electric current
passes through the electromagnet then it will behave like a magnet. It is also
known as a temporary magnet. Its magnetism is not permanent in nature.
Uses of electromagnet:
1.It is used in lifting heavy weight objects.

Class X Science www.vedantu.com 26

2.It is used in transformers.
(b) Draw a labelled diagram to show how an electromagnet is made.
Ans:

(c) State the purpose of the soft iron core used in making an electromagnet.
Ans: The soft iron core is used in electromagnets because the soft iron core has
high magnetic properties. Because of its magnetic capability it is used in
electromagnetism. It can provide a strong magnet when it is used as a core
material in the electromagnets.
(d) List two ways of increasing the strength of an electromagnet if the
material of the electromagnet is fixed.
Ans: Ways of increasing the strength of an electromagnet if the material of the
electromagnet is fixed are listed below as:
1. By increasing the number of turns in the coil of electromagnet we can increase
its magnetic strength.
2. By increasing the amount of current we can also increase its strength. But the
amount of current should be increased in the limit of the coil as more current will
burn out the coil. Thus the heating effect of the coil must be remembered while
increasing current.

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