School Code : _______________________ Seat No.

:______________________
Manuel S. Enverga University Foundation
COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING
Lucena City
Friday, February 19, 2021 1:00 p.m. – 5:00 p.m.
ENGINEERING SCIENCES & ALLIED SUBJECTS SET A
INSTRUCTION : Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each
item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO
ERASURES ALLOWED. NOTC means – None of the three choices.

MULTIPLE CHOICE :
1. A branch of physical science which deals with state of rest or motion of bodies under the action of forces.
a. Mechanics c. Kinetics
b. Dynamics d. Kinematics
2. A pair of forces equal in magnitude, opposite in direction, and not in the same line is called ______
a. Moment c. Couple
b. Torque d. All of the above
3. A body is said to be in “rotational equilibrium” when.
a. No net torque acts on it d. The forces acting on the body are non-
b. No net force acts on it concurrent
c. Its vector sum of the forces is zero
4. If an object exerts a normal force on a surface, then its normal force is
a. Equal to the weight of the object c. Parallel to the surface
b. Less than the frictional force d. Perpendicular to the surface
5. What is the moment of inertia of a triangle with respect to the base “b”?
a. Bh3/12 c. Bh3/36
3
b. Bh /6 d. Bh3/3
6. The moment of inertia of a circle with respect to its tangent is ______.
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
7. A structured is called ______ if at least one of its individual member is a multiforce member.
a. Truss c. Three-hinged arch
b. Frame d. Bridge
8. Qualification of applicants for registration as PEE who were Assistant/Associate EE under RA 184 is Rule
___ RA 7920.
a. 13 c. 15
b. 14 d. 16
9. The official seal of a Professional Electrical Engineer as provided in Section 4(q) of RA 7920 must have an
outer circle diameter of:
a. 40mm c. 50mm
b. 48mm d. 52mm
10. The program of examination is provided in what particular rule of implementing rules and regulations of
RA 7920.
a. Rule 10 c. Rule 12
b. Rule 11 d. Rule 9
11. Section 4 of Article II states the powers and duties of the Board. What does it mean by quasi-legislative
power?
a. Evaluation c. Supervisory
b. Control d. Rule-making
12. Section 1 Article II states: An electrical engineer shall be fair, impartial and reasonable in rendering
professional service to his clients.
a. Partly false c. Partly true
b. True d. False
13. Under Article I of RA 7920, what refers to any equipment, which produces, modifies, regulates, or
controls the supply of electrical energy?
a. Electrical supply equipment c. Electric plant equipment
b. Power plant equipment d. Power generator
14. In Section 2, Article I of RA 7920, what refers to the power plant mounted on wheels as used in the
railroad transportation industry?
a. Watercraft c. Electrical transit
b. Electrical locomotive d. Electrical substation
15. In article I of RA 7920, what refers to the choice of electrical systems, including planning and detailing
of requirements for protection, control, monitoring, coordination and interlocking of electrical systems
among others?
a. Electric supply equipment c. Power plant design system
b. Electrical design system d. Installation design system
16. What section in RA 7920, defines the Powers and duties of the Board?
a. Section 3 c. Section 5
b. Section4 d. Section 6
17. Section 2(i), Article I of RA 7920 defines the:
a. kW c. substation
b. utilization equipment d. power plant design
18. Under section 2, Article I of RA 7920, states that “industrial buildings” include all of the following
except:
a. School buildings c. Hospitals
b. Stadiums d. Museums
19. Under section 2, Article I of RA 7920, states that “commercial buildings” include all of the following
except:
a. Department store c. Theaters
b. Condominiums d. Display centers
20. All are considered as a practice of electrical engineering profession except one. Which one?
a. Teaching mathematics subjects c. Selling and distribution of electrical
b. Repair of electrical equipment equipment
d. Testing of power plants
21. Communication conductors shall NOT be smaller than which of the following sizes?
a. 2.0mm2 c. 3.5mm2
2
b. 1.25mm d. 5.5mm2
22. Type SE service-entrance cable shall be permitted in interior wiring systems where all of the circuit
conductors of the cable are of the _______type.
I. Rubber-covered II. Thermoplastic III. Metal
a. I, II and III c. II and III only
b. II only d. I and II only
23. The code requires that all energized part of electrical equipment operating at ____ or more shall be
guarded against accidental contacts by approved enclosures. What is this voltage?
a. 24V c. 230V
b. 110V d. 50V
24. What is the minimum insulation resistance of a building’s electrical wiring for circuits using 2.0mm2 or
3.5mm2 conductors?
a. 500,000 ohms c. 1,000,000 ohms
b. 250,000ohms d. 750,000 ohms
25. Branch circuits are classified according to _____
a. Voltage rating of the circuit c. Type of loads connected
b. Number of loads connected d. Maximum permitted ampere rating
26. The circuit conductors between the final overcurrent device protecting the circuit and the outlets.
a. Transmission line c. Branch circuits
b. Transmission media d. Service wires
27. Branch lighting circuits shall be protected by overcurrent devices not rated more than
a. 40A c. 30A
b. 20A d. 50A
28. Which of the following colors identifies the grounded conductors of a branch circuit?
a. Green c. White
b. Black d. Blue
29. A 15-A or a 20-A branch circuit shall be permitted to supply lighting units and other utilization devices.
The rating of any one cord and plug connected appliances shall NOT exceed a certain percentage of the
branch circuit rating. What is this percentage?
a. 80% c. 70%
b. 90% d. 60%
30. A wiring method using knobs, tubes, and flexible non-metallic tubing for the protection and support of
single insulated conductors concealed in hollow spaces of walls and ceilings of buildings.
a. Open wiring on insulators c. Concealed knob and tube wiring
b. Open wiring with knobs, tubes, etc. d. Knob and tube wiring
31. What is the minimum size of aluminum or copper clad aluminum conductors, used as service entrance
conductors?
 a. 8.0mm2 c. 5.5mm2
b. 14.0mm2 d. 3.5mm2

32. Which of the following best describe both Stirling and Ericson engines?
a. Internal combustion engines c. Carnot engines
b. External combustion engines d. Brayton engines
33. At steam point, the temperature of water and its vapor at standard pressure are:
a. Extremes or maximum c. In equilibrium
b. Unity d. Undefined
34. The thermal efficiency of gas-vapor cycle is _______ the thermal efficiency of a steam turbine or gas
turbine.
a. Greater than c. Not comparable
b. Less than d. Equal
35. The change that the system that undergoes from one equilibrium state to another is known as ____.
a. Path c. Enthalpy change
b. Process d. Entropy change
36. Which of the following relations is not applicable in a free expansion process?
a. Heat rejected is zero c. Change in temperature is zero
b. Work done is zero d. Heat supplied is zero
37. What system in which neither mass nor energy cross the boundaries and it is not influenced by the
surroundings?
a. Closed system c. Isolated system
b. Open system d. Non-isolated system
38. What is referred to by control volume?
a. An isolated system c. Fixed region in space
b. Closed system d. Reversible process only
39. Which of the following is used in thermal power plant?
a. Brayton cycle c. Rankine cycle
b. Reversed Carnot cycle d. Otto cycle
40. The elongation and compression of a helical spring is an example of which process?
a. Irreversible process c. Isothermal process
b. Reversible process d. Adiabatic process
41. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. The enthalpy change is:
a. Always negative c. Zero
b. Always positive d. Undefined
42. The state of a thermodynamics system is always defined by its:
a. Absolute temperature c. Properties
b. Process d. Temperature and pressure
43. Entropy is the measure of
a. The internal energy of a gas c. Randomness or disorder
b. The heat capacity of a substance d. The change of enthalpy of a system
44. What system in which there is no exchange of matter with the surrounding or mass does not cross its
boundaries?
a. Open system
b. Closed system
c. Isolated system
d. Nonflows system
45. What is the system program used to translate directly an assembly language to machine language called?
a. Assembler c. Interpreter
b. Compiler d. Debugger
46. What is the standard method for coding data on 80-column, 12-row card?
a. Baudot code c. Hollerith code
b. ASCII d. EBCDIC
47. What refers to the computer’s use of hard disk storage to simulate RAM?
a. Volatile memory
b. ROM
c. Data storage
d. Virtual memory
48. What is a set of instructions that resides on a storage device, such as hard drive, and can loaded into
memory and executed called?
a. Stored program c. Operating program
b. Device program d. Memory-resident program
49. _______ is a software that allow users to have fast and flexible access to information in large
documents, constructing associations among data items needed.
a. Voice mail c. E-mail
b. Internet d. Hypertext
50. Which memory holds the most recently read and frequently read data in memory, making subsequent
retrieval of that data much faster than reading from a tape or disk or even from the main memory?
a. Cache memory c. Static memory
b. Virtual memory d. Dynamic memory
51. A large application or program is divided into modules of equal size called _______.
a. Pages c. Segments
b. Sectors d. Stacks
52. What is the single word memory location used to temporarily hold data during program execution?
a. Accumulator c. Buffer
b. Register d. Stack
53. What refers to the debugging method in which the program is executed one instruction at a time and the
register contents can be examined after each step?
a. Text editing c. Trace
b. Syntax analyzing d. Stacking
54. All parts of the computer hardware organization except one. Which one?
a. Architecture c. Hardware realization
b. Implementation d. Assembler
55. The data manipulated by a program is called _______ depending on its nature and extent.
a. Database c. Input
b. File d. All of the choices
56. A 300N block is at rest on an inclined plane having slope of 4m vertical and 12m horizontal. If the
coefficient of friction between the block and the inclined plane is 0.18, solve the horizontal force needed
that will cause the motion impend?
a. 143.5N c. 163.8N
b. 231.4N d. 204.8N
57. A 400N man climbs at the middle of a 150N ladder leaned against the wall. The top portion of the ladder
is 4m from the ground and its bottom is 2m from the wall. Assuming smooth wall and a stopper at the
bottom of the ladder to prevent slipping, find the reaction at the wall.
a. 137.5N c. 245.6N
b. 145.7N d. 143.5N
58. A steel railroad rails 10m long are laid with clearance of 3mm at a temperature of 15 ⁰C. at what
temperature will the rails just touch? If there were no initial clearance. Assume coefficient of expansion =
11.7 x 10-6/ ⁰C and E = 200GPa.
a. 46.90 ⁰C c. 50.36 ⁰C
b. 56.06 ⁰C d. 40.64 ⁰C.
59. High strength steel band saw, 20mm wide and 0.8mm thick runs over the pulley 600mm in diameter
what minimum diameter of pulleys can be used without exceeding the flexural stress of 400MPa? Note: E =
200GPa.
a. 250cm c. 400mm
b. 325mm d. 150 in
60. An elevator weighs 1000 pounds and is supported by a 5 1/6 inch diameter cable, 1500 feet long. When
the elevator carries a 1500 lb, the cable elongates 6 inches more. What is the modulus of elasticity of the
cable?
a. 4.35 x 107psi c. 3.42 x 107psi
b. 5.87 x 107psi d. 2.34 x 107psi
61. A spherical tank with 10 inches diameter contains oxygen gas at 2,500psi. calculate the required wall
thickness in (mm) under stress of 28,000psi.
a. 6.12mm c. 4.88mm
b. 5.66mm d. 7.21mm
62. What is the temperature is ⁰C of 2 liters of water at 30 ⁰C after 500 calories of heat have been added?
a. 35.70 c. 30.25
b. 38.12 d. 39.75
63. A volume of 450cm3 of air is measured at a pressure of 740mm Hg absolute and a temperature of 20 ⁰C.
What is the volume in cm3 at 760mm Hg absolute and 0 ⁰C?
a. 516.12 c. 408.25
b. 620.76 d. 375.85
64. Assuming compression is according to the law PV = constant. Calculate the initial volume of gas at a
pressure of 2 bar which will occupy a volume of 6m3 when it is compressed to a pressure of 42bar.
 a. 126m3 c. 120m3
b. 130m3 d. 136m3
65. A steam condenser receives 10 kg per second of steam with an enthalpy of 2,570kJ/Kg. Steam
condenses into liquid and leaves with an enthalpy of 160kJ/kg. Cooling water passes through the condenser
with temperature increases from 13 ⁰C to 24 ⁰C. calculate the cooling water flow rate in kg/s.
a. 533 c. 518
b. 523 d. 528
66. Ammonia weighing 22kg is confined inside a cylinder equipped with a piston has an initial pressure
413kPa at 38 ⁰C. If 2900 kJ of heat is added to the ammonia until its pressure and temperature are 413 kPa
and 100 ⁰C, respectively. What is the amount of work done by the fluid in kJ? (note: Molecular weight of
NpjH3 = 17)
a. 667 c. 304
b. 420 d. 502
Cable AB of span L = 210m supports the uniformly distributed load W0 = 80N/m. The horizontal component of
the force exerted by the cable on the supports is limited to 30kN.
67. Find the smallest allowable sag
a. 12.3m c. 13.5m
b. 13.4m d. 14.7m
68. Find the angle the cable makes with the horizontal axis.
a. 15.64deg c. 17.24deg
b. 16.54deg d. 17.84deg
69. Find the maximum force of the cable.
a. 28.12kN c. 31.15kN
b. 29.45kN d. 32.10kN

A cable with supports at the same elevation is being designed to carry a uniformly distributed load of 1.50kN/m
along the horizontal. The sag of the cable must be limited to 15kN.
70. Determine the max. Horizontal force of the lowest part of the cable.
a. 9.12kN c. 11.54kN
b. 10.16kN d. 12.56kN
71. Find the maximum allowable span for the cable.
a. 14.72m c. 16.76m
b. 15.43m d. 17.78km
72. Compute the required length of the cable.
a. 13.45m c. 15.45m
b. 14.35m d. 17.25m

A woman is trying to move the crate of weight W = 12kN by pulling on the rope at the angleθ from the
horizontal.
73. Find the smallest possible force that the woman should pull to cause the crate to side. Coefficient fo
static friction of 0.20.
a. 2.15kN c. 2.55kN
b. 2.35kN d. 2.65kN
74. Determine the angle θ.
a. 10.13deg c. 11.31deg
b. 10.82deg d. 12.41deg
75. Determine the horizontal frictional force acting at the bottom of the crate.
a. 2.10kN c. 2.50kN
b. 2.30kN d. 2.70kN

A particle moves in a horizontal line according to S = t4 – 6t3 + 12t2 – 10t + 3.

76. Find the time when the particle is at rest.
a. 0s c. 2s
b. 1s d. 3s
77. Find the time when the velocity is increasing.
a. 1 to 2s b. 2 to 3s c. 3 to 4s d. 4 to 5s
78. Find the time when the speed is decreasing.
a. Less than 0 b. Less than 1
 c. Less than 2 d. Less than 3
o
79. Ethyl alcohol vaporizes at 78 C, what is the change in entropy if 0.25kg vaporizes at its boiling point
considering that the latent heat of vaporization (Lv) is 1.0 x 105J/kg
a. 45J/K c. 85J/K
b. 71J/K d. 95J/K
80. An ideal gas (at STP, standard temperature and pressure) occupies a volume of 22.4 liters. While
absorbing heat from the surroundings, the gas isobarically expands to 32.4liters. what is the change in the
internal energy of the gas?
a. 0.75J c. 2.53J
b. 1.52J d. 4.45J
81. A small gasoline powered engine leaf blower removes heat energy from a high temperature reservoir
and exhaust 700J to a low-temperature reservoir. What is its engine’s thermal efficiency?
a. 12.5% c. 24.5%
b. 16.8% d. 51.5%
82. The thermal efficiency of a Carnot engine is 40% when it is supplied with heat from a reservoir at
727oC. Find the temperature of the reservoir.
a. 300oC c. 457oC
b. 327oC d. 567oC
83. The volumetric flow rate of standard air is 120m /s at drybulb temperature of 18oC. Compute the
3

standard air volume considering that the standard air pressure is 101.325kPa and standard air temperature at
21.11oC.
a. 121.3m3/s c. 304.5m3/s
b. 200.4m3/s d. 405.7m3/s
84. A gaseous mixture has a dew point temperature of 15oC. The total pressure is 143.7kPa. Determine the
amount of water vapor present in a 100 moles of the mixture if the saturation pressure at 15oC is 1.7051kPa.
a. 1.19moles c. 3.10moles
b. 2.10moles d. 3.20moles
85. A sealed tank contains oxygen at 27 C at a pressure of 2 atm. If the temperature increases to 100oC,
o

what will be pressure inside the tank?

a. 2.49atm c. 4.57atm
b. 3.29atm d. 5.22atm
86. The pressure of the nitrogen has thermometer is 78 cm at 0oC. What is the temperature of a liquid in
which the bulb of the thermometer is immersed when the pressure is seen to be 87.7cm?
a. 34oC c. 45oC
b. 40oC d. 50oC
87. A 20 liter sample of gas exerts a pressure of 1 atm at 25oC. It is allowed to expand into a 40 liter vessel
that is held constant at 100oC, compute the final pressure.
a. 0.47atm c. 0.63atm
b. 0.54atm d. 0.87atm
88. What is the horsepower is required to isothermally compressed 800ft3 of air per minute from 14.7psia to
120 psia?
a. 108hp c. 200 hp
b. 190hp d. 203hp
o
89. A small drop of water at 80 F is in contact with the air and has a diameter of 0.0100in. What is the value
of the surface tension. If the pressure within the droplet is 0.082 psig greater than the atmosphere?
a. 0.00492lb/ft c. 0.00246lb/ft
b. 0.00578lb/ft d. 0.00676lb/ft
90. The surface tension of water is 0.07N/m. Find the weight of water supported by surface tension in a
capillarity tube with radius of 0.10mm.
a. 44μN c. 54μN
b. 35μN d. 57μN
o
91. Estimate the height of which water at 21 C will rise in a capillarity tube of diameter 3.05cm. assume it is
a clean glass of θ = 0oC and surface tension σ = 0.0729.
a. 5.56mm b. 7.35mm
 c. 8.35mm d. 9.75mm
92. A solid material in a cube shape floats in oil of density 800kg/m3 with one-third of the block out of the
oil. What is the buoyant force on the buoyant force on the cube whose edge is 0.75cm?
a. 2.207 x 10-3N c. 3.581 x10-3N
b. 1.255 x10-3N d. 3.012 x10-3N
93. A block of wood that weights 71.2N and of specific gravity 0.72is tied by a string to the bottom of a
tank of water in order to have the block totally immersed. Determine the tension in the string.
a. 23.73N c. 47.72N
b. 94.93N d. 50.25N
94. A cylindrical wooden buoy of height 3m and mass 80kg floats vertically in water. If its specific gravity
is 0.80, how much will it be depressed when a body of mass 10kg is placed on its upper surface?
a. 0.30m c. 0.40m
b. 0.35m d. 0.45m
95. A cylindrical tank having a diameter of 1.5m and a height 4m is open at one at end and closed at the
other end. It is placed below the water surface with its open and down. How deep below the surface should
the tank be placed if the depth of the water inside the tank is 1.6m?
a. 5.90cm c. 7.00cm
b. 6.25cm d. 6.00cm
3
96. The density of ice is 917kg/m , and the approximate density of sea water in which an iceberg floats is
1025kg/m3. What fraction of iceberg is beneath the water surface?
a. 0.45 c. 0.29
b. 0.71 d. 0.89
97. A hollow plastic sphere is held below the surface of a fresh water lake by a cable anchored to the bottom
of the lake. The sphere has a volume of 0.300m3, and the tension on the cable is 900N. Calculate the
buoyant force exerted by the water on the sphere.
a. 1.576kN c. 2.943kN
b. 2.567kN d. 3.421kN
98. A barrel contain a 0.150 layer of oil floating on water that is 0.30mm deep. If the density of the oil is
600kg/m3, what is the pressure (gage) at the oil-water interface?
a. 883Pa c. 742Pa
b. 900Pa d. 924Pa
99. An atmospheric pressure of 101.325kPa will be supported by how much height of water?
a. 10.32m c. 13.23m
b. 15.42m d. 15.45m
100. An atmospheric pressure of 101.325kPa will be supported by how much height of mercury (2.g. = 13.6)?
a. 0.56m
b. 0.66m
c. 0.76m
d. 0.86m