Question.

1 Which sub process of Capacity Management focuses on the IT Infrastructure that is

used to support provision? a) Business Capacity Management b) Component Capacity Management
c) Service Capacity Management d) All of the above Show Answer Question. 2 The information
security policy should include all of the following policies EXCEPT a) A charging policy b) A record
retention policy c) A E-mail policy d) An asset disposal policy Show Answer Question. 3 What is the
purpose of Service Design? a) To define the perspective, position, plans, and patterns that a service
provider needs to execute to meet an organization’s business outcomes b) To ensure that new,
modified, or retired services meet the expectations of the business as documented in the service
strategy and service design stages of the lifecycle c) To coordinate and carry out the activities and
processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and customers
d) To plan out the services, governing practices, processes and policies required to realize the
service provider’s strategy and to facilitate the introduction of services into supported
environments Show Answer Question. 4 Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the Service
Asset and Configuration Management (SCAM) process? a) To determine the most appropriate
release-unit level for each asset or component b) To ensure that accurate and reliable information
about assets is available when and where it is needed c) To include details of how assets have been
configured and the relationships between assets d) To ensure that the assets required to deliver
services are properly controlled Show Answer Question. 5 Which statement about IT Operations
Management is CORRECT? a) It is responsible for ensuring that business and IT services provider
strategies and plans are closely aligned b) It is responsible for performing the daily activities
needed to manage IT services and the supporting IT infrastructure c) It is responsible for managing
risks that could seriously impact IT services d) It is responsible for allowing users to make use of IT
services, data or other assets Show Answer Question. 6 Which statement about the scope of Access
Management is CORRECT? a) It involves the implementation of the policies from Information
Security Management b) It is applied to any facet of service management that needs to be closely
managed and that can be automated c) It allows users to make use of IT services, data, or other
assets d) It ensures that access to services is available at the times that were agreed upon Show
Answer Question. 7 Which stages of the ITIL framework represent the revolving lifecycle stages of
the lifecycle hub-and-spoke design? a) Service Design, Service Transition and Continual Service
Improvement b) Service Strategy, Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement c) Service
Design, Service Transition and Service Operation d) Service Strategy, Service Design, and Service
Operation Show Answer Question. 8 Which aspect of service design is reviewed to make sure that
existing roles and responsibilities have the ability to support a new service? a) Design of Service
Solutions b) Design of management information system and tools c) Design of required processes
d) Design of measurement methods and metrics Show Answer Question. 9 Your organization is in
the process of developing multi-level service agreements. Which of the following is NOT a layer
within a multi-layer service level agreement? a) Customer Level b) Corporate Level c) Service Level
d) Strategic Level Show Answer Question. 10 Which of the following is an example of the
management information systems and tools aspect of Service Design? a) Customer and User
Satisfaction Survey b) Service Catalogue c) Financial Information and Budgets d) Service Level
Agreements Show Answer Question. 11 Which aspect of Availability is a measure of how long an IT
service can perform its agreed function without interruption? a) Maintainability b) Reliability c)
Availability d) Serviceability Show Answer Question. 12 Which of the following is the BEST
description of a service? a) A structured collection of activities that are intended to achieve a
specific goal b) A way of delivering value to customers by helping to bring about results customers
want to accomplish without owning the specific costs and risks c) Any capability or resource used
by a service provider to provide utility and warranty to a customer d) Any capability or resource
used by a customer to accomplish a business result Show Answer Question. 13 Which of the
following resource can be used to indicate a breach to a service level target? a) Authority Matrix b)
RACI Matrix c) Pareto Chart d) Service Level Agreement Monitoring (SLAM) chart Show Answer
Question. 14 Which type of service change is BEST described as a pre-authorized change that is low
risk, relatively common, and follows a procedure or work instruction? a) Standard Change b) Minor
Change c) Normal Change d) Emergency Change Show Answer Question. 15 Which design feature
for vital business functions (VBF) refers to an approach used to provide maximum availability of an
IT service? a) Fault Tolerance b) Continuous Availability c) High Availability d) Continuous
Operation Show Answer Question. 16 Which of the following is a major Service Design aspect? a)
Strategies and Strategic Plans b) Request for Changes (RFCs) to resolve operational issues c)
Management Information System and Tools d) Service Level Agreements (SLA) Show Answer
Question. 17 Which of the following Service Design aspects specifically include the Service
Catalogue? a) Design of Technology and Management Architectures b) Design of Measurement
Methods and Metrics c) Design of Management Information System and Tools d) Design of Service
Solutions Show Answer Question. 18 Which of the following activities are included in IT Operations
Management? a) Access Management and IT Service Continuity Management (ITSCM) b)
Application Service Provider (ASP) and Facilities Management c) IT Service Management (ITSM)
and Release and Deployment Management d) IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
Show Answer Question. 19 Which of the following BEST describes an alert? a) A design flaw or
malfunction that causes a failure of one or more IT services or other configuration items (CIs) b) A
notification that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has occurred c)
An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT service d) A change
of state that has significance for the management of an IT service or other configuration item (CI)
Show Answer Question. 20 Which of the following is responsible for negotiating agreements
between the service provider and customer, as well as ensuring that these agreements are met? a)
Supplier Management b) Service Level Agreement (SLA) c) Demand Management d) Service Level
Management (SLM) Show Answer Question. 21 Which of the following is the BEST description of a
function? a) A team or group of people and the tools they use to carry out one or more processes or
activities b) A structured set of activities designed to accomplish a specific objective c) A temporary
organization, with people and other assets required to achieve an objective or other outcome d) A
connection or interaction between the IT service provider and the business Show Answer Question.
22 Which of the following is one of the five major Service Design aspects? a) Measurement Methods
and Metrics b) Standard Operating Procedures c) Vital Business Function d) Shared Service Unit
Show Answer Question. 23 What do the four P’s of Service Design represent? a) People, Process,
Principles and Profit b) People, Process, Products, and Projects c) People, Process, Products and
Partners d) People, Process, Principles and Partners Show Answer Question. 24 What is the
purpose of Service Operation? a) To ensure that new, modified, or retired services meet the
expectations of the business as documented in the service strategy and service design stages of the
lifecycle b) To plan out the services, governing practices, processes, and policies required to realize
the service provider’s strategy and to facilitate the introduction of services into supported
environments c) To define the perspective, position, plans, and patterns that a service provider
needs to execute to meet an organization’s business outcomes d) To coordinate and carry out the
activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users
and customers Show Answer Question. 25 Which of the following is used to manage the lifecycle of
a single change? a) Request for Change (RFC) b) Standard Change c) Change Model d) Change
Record Show Answer Question. 26 Which of the following does NOT describe Application
Management? a) It helps to decide if an application will be bought or built b) It is the software that
provides functions that are required by an IT service c) Any department, group or team that is
involved in managing and supporting operational applications can execute this function d) It is the
function that is responsible for managing applications throughout their lifecycle Show Answer
Question. 27 Which of the following aspects of Service Management would be included in the scope
of Event Management? a) Configuration items (CIs) b) Environmental conditions c) Security d) All
of the above Show Answer Question. 28 Which of the following is an interface with Incident
Management from the Service Design stage of the Service lifecycle? a) Service Level Management
(SLM) b) Access Management c) Problem Management d) Change Management Show Answer
Question. 29 What is the purpose of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)? a) To ensure that new,
modified or retired services meet the expectations of the business as documented in the Service
Strategy and Service Design stages of the lifecycle b) To plan out the services, governing practices,
processes and policies required to realize the service provider’s strategy and to facilitate the
introduction of service into supported environments c) To coordinate and carry out the activities
and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users and
customers d) To ensure that IT services are aligned with changing business needs by identifying
and implementing enhancements to IT services that support business processes Show Answer
Question. 30 Which of the following statements about Serviceability is CORRECT? a) Customers
require Service Level Agreements (SLAs) containing reliability targets b) Maintainability is the
primary service target within SLAs for the business and customers availability c) Reliability and
Maintainability targets within Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) should refer to the end-to-end
service d) All of the above Show Answer Question. 31 Which of the following is MOST strategically
focused on achieving service levels? a) IT Operations Management b) Release and Deployment
Management c) Business Relationship Management d) Service Level Management (SLM) Show
Answer Question. 32 Which type of external stakeholder of an IT service provider is the person or
group who defines and agrees to the service level targets? a) Suppliers b) Customers c) Vendor d)
Users Show Answer Question. 33 Which of the following is a value that is a result of implementing
good Service Transition? a) Reduced frequency and duration of service outages b) Allows the
service provider to promptly and effectively respond to changes in the business environment c)
Improved quality of service d) Improved control of service assets and configurations Show Answer
Question. 34 Service desks can be structured in many ways. How would a Centralized Service Desk
be described? a) Several Service Desks merged into a single location b) A Service Desk that gives the
impression that it is a single centralized Service Desk, but in fact the personnel are scattered or
located in any number (or type) of geographical locations c) A Service Desk that includes two or
more geographically dispersed Service Desks and provides 24-hour follow-the-sun service d) A
Service Desk that is co-located within, or that is physically located to, the users it serves Show
Answer Question. 35 Which step of the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) approach involves
implementing IT Service Management (ITSM) processes? a) Where are we now? b) How do we get
there? c) Where do we want to be? d) How do we keep the momentum going? Show Answer
Question. 36 What can Service Automation improve? a) Accounting and Agreement b) Environment
and Partnership c) Input and Output d) Utility and Warranty Show Answer Question. 37 Which of
the following is a responsibility of the process practitioner? a) Creating or updating records to
prove that activities have been carried out correctly b) Supplying goods or services that are
required to deliver IT Services c) Managing the lifecycle of all incidents d) Appointing people to the
required roles Show Answer Question. 38 Which statements about the Service Knowledge
Management System (SKMS) are CORRECT? a) Configuration data is stored in the configuration
Management Database (CMDB), which is fed through the Configuration Management System (CMS)
to the SKMS. b) The CMS is part of the SKMS c) The SKMS provides support for making informed
decision and delivering services d) All of the above Show Answer Question. 39 Which of the
following is the purpose of Change Management? a) To ensure that changes are documented and
analyzed. b) To make effective use of overall risk by accepting potentially beneficial risks c) To
ensure that requests for change align with the business needs of the service d) To ensure beneficial
changes to be made with minimum disruption to IT Services Show Answer Question. 40 Which of
the following is NOT an output of Service Level Management (SLM)? a) Service Improvement Plan
(SIP) b) Update to Request for Changes (RFCs) c) Up-to-date Service Portfolio d) Updated
requirements for Underpinning Contracts Show Answer Question. 41 Which of the following is NOT
a characteristic of value as created through Services? a) Value is defined by the Service Provider b)
Affordable mix of features c) Value changes over time and circumstance d) Achievement of
objectives Show Answer Question. 42 Which of the following contains details of current and historic
usage of IT Service and Components and also includes scenarios predicting business demands? a)
Configuration Management System b) Capacity Plan c) Configuration Baseline d) Charter Show
Answer Question. 43 Which of the following is defined as the underlying cause of one of more
unplanned interruptions to an IT Service? a) Incident b) Workaround c) Problem d) Event Show
Answer Question. 44 What is the MAIN responsibility of the Service Owner? a) Communicate
process information or changes as appropriate to ensure awareness b) Define all aspects of an IT
Service and its requirements throughout each stage of its lifecycle c) Provide the overall
management of all IT Services d) Deliver a specific IT Service Show Answer Question. 45 Which of
the following is the BEST description of IT Service Management? a) The implementation and
Management of quality IT Services that meet the needs of the business b) An approach that
emphasizes the importance of coordination and control across the various functions, processes and
systems necessary to manage the full lifecycle of IT Services c) The framework of policy, processes,
standards, guidelines and tools that ensures an organization can achieve its Information Security
Management objectives d) A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of Services Show Answer Question. 46 Which of the following describes the
“R” in RACI? a) The person or people responsible for getting the job done b) The person who
controls quality and the end results c) The people who are sought after for information and advice
d) People who are kept up to date on progress Show Answer Question. 47 Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) uses various types of metrics to support its activities. Which type of metric is
frequently associated with application-based metrics? a) Process metrics b) Technology metrics c)
Service metrics d) Improvement metrics Show Answer Question. 48 Which of the following is the
purpose of the Request Fulfillment process? a) To provide users with information on service
availability and the required steps to obtain them b) To manage the lifecycle of all Service Requests
from users c) To allow users to make use of IT Services, data or other assets d) To ensure that
normal service operation is restored as quickly and the business impact is minimized Show Answer
Question. 49 As a category, Event are of ____________types a) Exception b) Informational c)
Informational and exceptions d) None of the above Show Answer Question. 50 In event notification,
a device is interrogated by a management tool, which collects certain targeted data. This is called
polling a) True b) False Show Answer Question. 51 Significance of the events can be categorized as:
a) Informational b) Warning c) Exception d) All of the above Show Answer Question. 52 For your
Event Management to be effective, it should be designed during: a) Service Strategy b) Service
Design c) Service Operation d) Service Transition Show Answer Question. 53 Failed CI cannot be
called as incident if service performance does not degrade a) True b) False Show Answer Question.
54 Incidents can be logged by a) Technical Staff b) User c) Service Desk d) All of the above Show
Answer Question. 55 Focus of Incident Management is on a) Permanent resolution b) Find the
cause and fix it c) Restore ASAP (AS early As Possible) d) Make necessary changes in infrastructure
Show Answer Question. 56 Incident Management team is exempted to follow Change Management
process because they are supposed to fix the reported issues and in the process of fixing the issues,
they are required to make necessary changes a) True b) False Show Answer Question. 57 Urgency,
Severity, Impact and Priority is related as a) Urgency = Priority X Impact b) Priority = Urgency X
Impact c) Severity = Impact X Priority d) All are incorrect Show Answer Question. 58 Category in
Incident management and category in Problem Management should be a) Can be different b)
Doesn’t matter c) Same d) They are independent Show Answer Question. 59 Primary interface with
Request fulfillment process is as below a) Service Desk – Incident – Problem and Change b) Incident
– Problem – Change and Release c) Incident – Capacity – Availability and Service Level Management
(SLM) d) Incident – Release and Configuration Management Show Answer Question. 60 Challenges
faced by Request Fulfillment process come from which combination a) People and Process b)
Process and Technology c) People and Technology d) None of the above Show Answer Question. 61
As per ITIL, a ‘problem’ is defined as the case of one or more incidents a) True b) False Show
Answer Question. 62 Two major processes for Problem Management are a) Error Control and
Problem Control b) Reactive and Proactive c) Error Control and Proactive d) Problem Control and
Reactive Show Answer Question. 63 Known Error database should be owned by a) Configuration
Management as part of CMDB b) Knowledge Management as part of SKMS c) Problem Management
d) Should be owned by Tools group or KM team Show Answer Question. 64 In Service Transition
phase, Problem Management interacts with a) Change Management b) Configuration Management
c) Release and Deployment Management d) All of the above Show Answer Question. 65 In Service
Design, Problem Management deals with a) Supplier Management b) Transition Planning and
Support c) Security Management d) Capacity Management Show Answer Question. 66 Access
Management process is subset of the Availability Management process, whose objective is to ensure
that all those authorized should have access to the documents and information: a) True b) False
Show Answer Question. 67 Service Operations team is accountable to find CI discrepancies while
working on day to day basis a) True b) False Show Answer Question. 68 Service Operations team is
supposed to update the CI status and details based on a) Operations Manager’s approval b)
Configuration Manager’s approval c) Incident Manager’s approval d) Operations Management
function Show Answer Question. 69 Monitoring is performed by Service Operations teams, involved
processes are: a) Supplier – Service Level Management (SLM) – Service Reporting b) Event –
Capacity – Availability c) SLM – Incident – Problem d) Change – Validation – Release Show Answer
Question. 70 Technical Management function has two responsibilities a) Build technical knowledge
and deploy resources to support ITSM lifecycle b) Custodian of technical knowledge and owners of
technically competent resource pool c) Custodian of technical knowledge and deploy resources to
support ITSM lifecycle d) None of the above Show Answer Question. 71 Discovery tools are used to
a) Discover issues in the service line b) Populate and verify the CMS data and to assist in license
management c) Discuss CI attributes of all the CI not live in the network d) Establish and / or
confirm the scope of the service landscape Show Answer Question. 72 Critical Success factors of
Service Operations are a) Management Support b) Business Support c) Staffing Support d) All of the
above Show Answer Question. 73 Effectiveness and Efficiency is the driver in every facet of the
service operations, which of the following statement is true – 1. A measure of whether the objective
has been achieved is called effectiveness, 2. A measure of whether right amount of resources has
been used to deliver an output is called efficiency a) Both 1 and 2 are correct b) Both 1 and 2 are
incorrect c) Statement 1 is correct d) Statement 2 is correct Show Answer Question. 74 Failure of a
Configuration Item not resulting in disruption of service is also called as an incident a) True b) False
Show Answer Question. 75 Knowledge Base and Known Error Database is same a) True b) False
Show Answer Question. 76 Which of the statements are wrong: a) MTBF = Mean time Between
Failures b) MTTR = Mean time to Repair c) MTTR = Mean time to Restore Service d) MTBSI = Mean
time Between System Incidents Show Answer Question. 77 Writing of an equal amount of an asset’s
value each year, usually a fixed percentage of cost, is known as ……. a) Transfer cost b) Discounted
cash flow c) Net Book Value d) Depreciating Show Answer Question. 78 Utility and Warranty can be
explained as Increases performance average and Reduces performance variation a) True b) False
Show Answer Question. 79 Utility is explained as a) It increases gain and it reduces pain b) It
increases gain or it reduces pain c) It creates a balance between gain and pain d) None of the above
statement is correct explanation Show Answer Question. 80 Four P’s of Service Strategy are a)
Perspective – Positions – Plan and Pattern b) Product – Price – Position and Perception c) Product –
Plan – Price and Position d) Perspective – Perception – Position and Price Show Answer Question.
81 Financial Management is responsible for a) Budgeting b) Accounting c) Charging d) All of the
above Show Answer Question. 82 Analyzing Pattern of Business Activity is responsibility of a)
Demand Management b) Service Level Management c) Service Portfolio Management d) Capacity
Management Show Answer Question. 83 Service Portfolio categorizes the risk in to following
categories a) Grow the business b) Run the business c) Transform the business d) All of the Above
Show Answer Question. 84 Outcome of existing Service Portfolio analysis leads to a) Retain and
Replace b) Rationalize and Refactor c) Renew and Retire d) All of the Above Show Answer Question.
85 Service Portfolio is sum of a) Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue b) Service Design and
Service Strategy c) Service Catalogue and Service Design d) None of the above Show Answer
Question. 86 Which of the following statements about the Service Owner is INCORRECT? a) Carries
out the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they own b) Contributes to continual
improvement affecting the service they own c) Is a stakeholder in all of the IT processes which
support the service they own d) Is accountable for a specific service within an organization Show
Answer Question. 87 Demand Management is about a) Understanding the Pattern of Business
Activity (PBA) b) Influencing demand c) Both of them d) None of the above Show Answer Question.
88 Continual Service Improvement expect all Service Managers to identify and differentiate
between two basic role: a) Productions Vs Operations b) Productions Vs Project c) Operations Vs
Project d) None of the above Show Answer Question. 89 Core Objective of Service Improvement
should be: a) Increasing Efficiency b) Maximizing Effectiveness c) Optimizing cost of services and
underlying ITSM process d) All the above Show Answer Question. 90 Improvement cannot be
achieved without clear and unambiguous accountabilities a) True b) False Show Answer Question.
91 In Continual Service Improvement (CSI), Deming cycle is critical at following points a)
Implementation of CSI b) Application of CSI to services and service management process c) Both of
the above d) None of the above Show Answer Question. 92 Your measurement framework should
address following as, basic reason to monitor and measure a) Validate, direct, intervene and justify
b) Verify, improve, review and update c) Review, improve, verify and validate d) Validate, review,
improve and measure Show Answer Question. 93 ITIL is compliant to following ISO models: a)
ISO20000 b) ISO27000 c) ISO19770 d) None of the above Show Answer Question. 94 To Support
Continual Service Improvement (CSI) activities, organization needs to collect following types of
metrics a) Technology, Process and Service b) People, Process and Technology c) People, Process
and Partner d) Service, Technology and People Show Answer Question. 95 Service Reporting is
responsibility of a) Service Reporting Process b) Service Level Management c) Both of the above d)
None Show Answer Question. 96 What are various cost involved in Continual Service Improvement
(CSI) implementation a) Labor Cost and expertise cost b) Tooling cost and training cost c) Both of
the above d) None of the above Show Answer Question. 97 Which of the following do Technology
Metrics measure? a) Components b) Processes c) The end to end service d) Customer Satisfaction
Show Answer Question. 98 Which of the following do Service Metrics measure? a) Processes and
functions b) Maturity and cost c) The end to end service d) Infrastructure availability Show Answer
Question. 99 Which of these is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service Improvement
Model? a) Devise a strategy; Design the Solution; Transition into Production; Operate the Solution;
Continually Improve b) Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we
arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going? c) Identify the required business outcomes; Plan
how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented;
Improve the solution d) What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do
we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going? Show Answer Question.
100 An organization has undertaken the first two steps in the 7-Step Improvement Process, and has
found a large gap between what it believes it SHOULD measure, and what it IS ABLE TO measure.
The organization is in the process of drafting SLAs. What is the BEST way of dealing with this
limited measurement capability in the short to medium term? a) SLAs should include targets based
on what should be measured; Monitoring capabilities will then be gradually enhanced to allow the
necessary monitoring and reporting to be introduced b) Work on the SLAs should be suspended
until adequate monitoring capabilities are available to support the required targets c) SLAs should
include targets based on what can currently be measured; SLA targets should be gradually
enhanced as increased monitoring capability becomes available d) Operational Level Agreements
(OLAs) and UCs should be examined, and targets should be included in the SLA to match those in
the OLAs/UCs Show Answer Question. 101 An important beginning point for highlighting Continual
Service Improvement is perform: a) Baseline b) Process Audit c) Process Assessment d) Statistical
Analysis Show Answer Question. 102 Continual Service Improvement is expected to identify faults
or weaknesses in which of the following Lifecycle phases? a) All phases of the Service Lifecycle b)
All phases of the Lifecycle, except Service Strategy c) All phases of the Lifecycle, except CSI d)
Service Design, Service Transition and Service Operation only Show Answer Question. 103 Which of
the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management process? a) To ensure the impact of changes
are better understood b) To ensure standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient
and prompt handling of changes c) To ensure that all changes to Service Assets and Configuration
Items (CIs) are recorded in the Configuration Management System (CMS) d) To deliver and manage
IT services at agreed levels to business users Show Answer Question. 104 Identify the processes
covered as part of Service Transition? a) Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration
Management, Release and Deployment Management b) Change Management, Capacity
Management, Event Management, Service Request Management c) Service Level Management,
Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management d) Service Asset and
Configuration Management, Release and Deployment Management, Request Fulfillment Show
Answer Question. 105 Most important activity of Change Management is a) Change Impact
Assessment b) Deploying Change c) Managing CI during change process d) Managing Known error
Show Answer Question. 106 What are various types of change a) Strategic Change b) Tactical
Change c) Operational Change d) All of the above Show Answer Question. 107 MTRS is defined as a)
Mean time to restore service b) Mean time to resolve service c) Maximum time to resolve service d)
Maximum time to restore service Show Answer Question. 108 Success of Change Management is
measured during a) During post release review after success of release b) During post
implementation review c) During Change impact assessment d) Customer Satisfaction Survey Show
Answer Question. 109 Ideally Change and Release Management should not be handled by same
person a) As they need to work very closely b) Release Management is subset of Change
Management c) As there is conflict of interest d) Both the processes can be handled by same person
Show Answer Question. 110 Change Impact Assessment is done based on a) Technical Impact
Assessment b) Business Impact Assessment c) Financial impact assessment d) All of the above
Show Answer Question. 111 Key activities in Service Asset and Configuration Management process
is a) Planning – Identification – Control – Status Accounting – Verification and Audit b) Plan –
Inform – Control –Account – Verify c) Prepare – Identify – Control – Status Accounting – Validation
and Verification d) Planning – Identification – Control – Status Accounting – Validation and
Verification Show Answer Question. 112 Which statement correctly describes the difference
between Asset Management and Configuration Management? a) Asset Management only deals with
what is owned; Configuration Management deals with everything in the infrastructure b) Asset
Management is a superset of Configuration Management because it includes non-IT assets such as
chairs and tables c) Asset Management deals with the financial aspects of Configuration Items (CIs);
Configuration Management only deals with the technical details of the infrastructure d)
Configuration Management goes much further than Asset Management because it also specifies the
relationships between assets Show Answer Question. 113 Which of the following is NOT a part of
the Release Process? a) Moving software from the DML to the Development Environment b) Moving
software from the DML to the Live Environment c) Moving software from the development to the
Test Environment d) Moving software from the live environment to the DML Show Answer
Question. 114 Items of Information stored in the CMDB relating to a specific CI are known as? a)
Components b) Features c) Attributes d) Characteristics Show Answer Question. 115 Which process
is accountable to manage DML and definitive spares a) SACM b) SPM c) SLM d) CSI Show Answer
Question. 116 DML is foundation for a) Release Management b) Configuration Management c)
Change Management d) Problem Management Show Answer Question. 117 Which of the following
statements is CORRECT? a) The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data
Base b) The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management
System c) The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management
system d) The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management
Database Show Answer Question. 118 In ITIL service lifecycle configuration levels and baseline
points are represented by a) Numbered Triangles b) Sequenced square c) 7 step improvement
model d) DMAIC methodology Show Answer Question. 119 To define and control the components
of services and infrastructure and maintain accurate configuration information on the historical,
planned and current state of the services and infrastructure is objective of a) SACM b) SLM c) CSI d)
Change Management Show Answer Question. 120 Various release and deployment approach can be
explained as a) Big bang vs Phased b) Push and pull c) Automated vs manual d) All of the above
Show Answer Question. 121 Release Window is same as Change Window a) True b) False Show
Answer Question. 122 Release planning starts as soon as a) Change is logged b) Change is approved
c) Release management receives specific input to start the release planning d) When all the
required CI is available Show Answer Question. 123 Back-out plan is built and approved by a)
Release Management b) Change Management c) Both of them d) None of them Show Answer
Question. 124 The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service
or service component and its associated documentation is a definition of what? a) A Service Change
b) A Release request c) A Change Request d) A Configuration Control Show Answer Question. 125
Release Management should update KEDB for all error which is released during deployment a)
True b) False Show Answer Question. 126 Service Validation and testing process is responsible for
a) Validation and testing of new or changed services b) Validation and testing of existing services c)
Validation and testing of all CI d) Validation and testing of release unit Show Answer Question. 127
Transition management is all about a) Communication management b) Stakeholder management c)
Both of the above d) None of the above Show Answer Question. 128 Transition is defined as a
change in state, corresponding to a movement of an IT service or other configuration item from
lifecycle to another a) True b) False Show Answer Question. 129 It is important for the operation of
a given application that the version of the software installed on each of the computers on the
network is the same. Which process is responsible for this? a) Change Management b)
Configuration Management c) Network Management d) Release Management Show Answer
Question. 130 Which of the following is a value that is a result of implementing best practices for
Service Operation? a) Meet the goals of the organization’s security policy b) Improved quality of
Service c) Makes sure that IT Services stay aligned to business requirements d) Improved control of
Service Assets and Configurations Show Answer Question. 131 Which Service Design aspect would
benefit the MOST by using a RACI model? a) Design of Service Transitions b) Design of
measurement methods and metrics c) Design of Technology and Management Architectures d)
Design of process required Show Answer Question. 132 Which statement about Business
Relationship Management (BRM) is NOT correct? a) The purpose of BRM is to identify the
customer’s needs including Warranty and Utility b) One of the purposes of BRM is to negotiate
warranty terms with the customer c) BRM focuses on the Services provided to the customer d) BRM
uses Customer Satisfaction as the primary measure of Successfully delivering the Service or
Services Show Answer Question. 133 Which ITIL process aims to trace business-critical services for
which supplementary emergency measures must be taken? a) Problem Management b) Availability
Management c) Capacity Management d) IT Service Continuity Management Show Answer
Question. 134 What is the criterion used by Change Management in determining the category for a
Request for Change? a) Impact b) Urgency c) Priority d) Content Show Answer Question. 135 Which
of the following best describes ‘Reliability’? a) The ability of a CI to remain functional under given
conditions b) The ability of a CI to be retained in, or restored to, an operational state c) The
combination of confidentiality, integrity and maintainability d) The ability of a service to remain
functional even though some components have failed Show Answer Question. 136 Which of the
following lists best describes the key attributes needed by Service Desk Staff? a) Logical;
Methodical; Tenacious; Forthright; Analytical b) Well Presented; Technical Specialist; Numerate;
Good Interpersonal Skills c) Business Aware; Articulate; Methodical; Tolerant; Good Interpersonal
Skills d) Good Interpersonal Skills; Tenacious; Technically Astute; Firm Show Answer Question. 137
What is the use of additional technical expertise in the Incident Management process called? a)
Incident Classification b) Problem Analysis c) Functional Escalation d) Resolution and recovery of
the incident Show Answer Question. 138 Consider the following statements: 1. A service level
agreement is a written agreement between the service provider and the customers. 2. Negotiation
of service levels must involve the customers of the services involved 3. Underpinning contracts
must be capable of supporting targets agreed in SLA’s. Which of the above are correct? a) 1 & 3 only
b) None c) All d) 1 & 2 only Show Answer Question. 139 The name given to the document which
outlines the responsibilities between internal functional areas with respect to assisting in the
provision of an IT Service to the Customer/s is? a) Underpinning Contract b) Service Level
Agreement c) Operational Level Agreement d) Service Level Requirements Show Answer Question.
140 Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the duration of an interruption of a
Configuration Item? a) Availability Manager b) Incident Manager c) Problem Manager d) Service
Level Manager Show Answer Question. 141 The Ishikawa Diagram or Cause & Effect Analysis
(Fishbone) is a technique employed by which ITIL Discipline? a) Capacity Management b) Incident
Management c) Availability Management d) Problem Management Show Answer Question. 142
Typically a Help Desk, Service Desk & Call Centre all provide the same level of service. They are just
different names referring to the single point of contact a) True b) False Show Answer Question. 143
Which of the following is the BEST description of remediation? a) Defines repeatable way of dealing
with a particular category of change b) Supports the assessment, prioritization, authorization and
scheduling of changes c) Involves the actions taken to recover after a failed change or release d)
Specifies a regular, agreed time when changes or releases may be implemented with minimal
impact on services Show Answer Question. 144 Which of the following influences the scope of the
initial Service Design? a) Functional Requirements b) Overall Design Constraints c) Business
Benefits d) All of the above Show Answer Question. 145 Which of the following BEST describes an
outcome? a) A means of delivering value to customers by facilitating the results customers want to
achieve without the ownership of specific costs and risks b) Something that is measured and
reported to help manage a process, IT Service or activity c) A measure of what is achieved or
delivered by a system, person, team, process or IT Service d) The result of carrying out an activity,
following a process or delivering an IT Service Show Answer Question. 146 Which of the following
is NOT an objective of Service Portfolio Management (SPM)? a) Providing a clear service provision
model that conveys how service assets are used to supply services b) To record and trace each of
the service’s investment throughout the Service Lifecycle c) To study the viability of the current
services and determine when they need to be retired d) To control the services offered to its
customers Show Answer Question. 147 Which of the following statements about Service
Automation is CORRECT? a) It negatively affects the classification of elements such as Configuration
Items (CIs) and incidents b) It prevents IT service information from being updated in the Service
Catalogue. c) It is used to improve the RACI model d) It is known to improve the Utility and
Warranty of services Show Answer Question. 148 Which type of metric is used by Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) and tracks the performance of end-to-end services? a) Improvement Metrics b)
Service Metrics c) Process Metrics d) Technology Metrics Show Answer Question. 149 Ensuring that
policies and strategy are actually implemented is an example of which of the following? a)
Governance b) Business case c) Confidentiality d) Control perspective Show Answer Question. 150
Which of the following is NOT a value that is a result of implementing best practices for Continual
Service Improvement? a) Improved control of Service Assets and Configurations b) Steady and
ongoing improvements in service quality c) Recognized opportunities to increase the value of
organizational structures and capabilities d) Ensures that IT services stay aligned to the
requirements of the business Show Answer Question. 151 Which of the following terms means an
unplanned interruption to an IT Service reduction in the quality of an IT Service a) Change b)
Incident c) Impact d) Problem Show Answer Question. 152 Which of the following is the BEST
description of Service Management? a) A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing
value to customers in the form of services b) An approach that emphasizes the importance of
coordination and control across the various functions, processes and systems necessary to manage
the full lifecycle of IT Services c) The functionality offered by a product or service to meet a
particular need d) An assurance that a product or service will meet the agreed requirements Show
Answer Question. 153 What is the responsibility of Application Management? a) Manage
information about IT infrastructure available on a network and corresponding user access rights b)
Provide IT Services using applications running at the service provider’s premises c) Administer
applications throughout their lifecycle d) Track and report the value and ownership of assets
throughout their lifecycle Show Answer Question. 154 Who usually chairs the Change Advisory
Board (CAB)? a) IT Service Continuity Management (ITSM) staff b) Business Relationship Manager
(BRM) c) Problem Manager d) Change Manager Show Answer Question. 155 Which of the following
is used as a reference point for later comparison in the Continual Service Improvement stage of the
Service Lifecycle? a) Asset b) Baseline c) Build d) Configuration Item (CI) Show Answer Question.
156 Which Service Design aspect considers Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) to help ensure that
the efficiency, effectiveness and cost effectiveness of IT Services are all managed? a) Technology
and Management Architectures. b) Processes required c) Measurement methods and metrics d)
Service Solutions Show Answer Question. 157 Which function is responsible for providing technical
skills in support of IT Services and Management of the IT infrastructure? a) Technical Management
b) Service Management c) Business Service Management d) Service Level Management Show
Answer Question. 158 Which of the following is the single point of contact for IT users on a day-by-
day basis? a) Service Desk b) IT Operations c) Process Manager d) Incident Manager Show Answer
Question. 159 Which of the following items need to be documented in a Pattern of Business Activity
(PBA) profile? a) Marketing plans, Attributes, Requirements and Sales Forecasts b) Business Plans
Classification, Sales Forecasts and Service Asset Requirements c) Classification, Attributes,
Requirements and Service Asset Requirements d) Marketing Forecasts, Business Plans, Production
Plans and new Product Launch Plans Show Answer Question. 160 Which of the following
determines the effect that a loss of service would have on a business and when (during a given time
period) the loss of service is most harmful? a) Business Capacity Management b) Business Case c)
Business Perspective d) Business Impact Analysis Show Answer Question. 161 Which of the
following statements about the process owner is CORRECT? a) Is a part responsible for supplying
goods or service that are required to deliver IT Services b) Is responsible for ensuring that a
process is fit for purpose c) Is responsible for operational management of a process d) Is a process
that is responsible for managing the lifecycle of all Incidents Show Answer Question. 162 Which of
the following is a responsibility of the process practitioner? a) Managing the lifecycle of all incidents
b) Creating or updating records to prove that activities have been carried out correctly c) Supplying
goods or services that are required to deliver IT Services d) Appointing people to the required roles
Show Answer Question. 163 Which of the following is responsible for keeping accurate information
for the organization’s services in transition to a live environment? a) Availability Management b)
Asset Management c) Service Level Management (SLM) d) Service Catalogue Management Show
Answer Question. 164 To what does the term Standard Change refer? a) A pre-authorized change
that is low risk, relatively common and follows a procedure or work instruction b) A change that
has to be applied as soon as possible c) A change that follows the defined steps of the Change
Management process d) The addition, modification or removal of anything that could have an effect
on IT Services Show Answer Question. 165 In the context of service operations managing day to day
activities, which of the following statement is true – 1. Functions are logical concept covering
people and technology to perform tasks from a defined process on an ongoing basis, 2. Departments
are the formal organization formed to perform task from predefined process on an ongoing basis a)
Statement 1 is correct b) Statement 2 is correct c) Statements 1 and 2 are correct d) Statements 1
and 2 are incorrect Show Answer Question. 166 Building stable service operations with good
balance between internal and external focus required a long term planning. The balance referred in
statement refers to a) Stability Vs Responsiveness b) Internal Vs External c) Demand Vs Supply d)
Top down Vs bottoms up Show Answer Question. 167 Service Operation tries to create balance
between a) Cost Vs Quality b) Reactive Vs Proactive c) Internal Vs External Focus d) All of the above
Show Answer Question. 168 In an organization, the purchasing department has relocated internally
– not just the people, but also their IT resources. A Service Desk employee has been commissioned
to relocate this department’s workstations. In which ITIL process is this employee now playing a
role? a) Configuration Management b) Problem Management c) Change Management d) Incident
Management Show Answer Question. 169 Which ITIL process or which ITIL department has
responsibilities that include distributing information to users? a) Change Management b) Customer
Relationship Management c) Incident Management d) Service Desk Show Answer Question. 170
Which statement best describes the role of the Service Desk? a) The primary task of the Service
Desk is to investigate problems b) The Service Desk functions as the first contact for the customer
c) The Service Desk ensures that the telephone is always manned d) The Service Desk ensures that
the agreed IT service is available Show Answer Question. 171 Which activity in the Problem
Management process is responsible for generating Requests for Change (RFCs)? a) Problem
Analysis b) Error Control c) Proactive Problem Management d) Monitoring Show Answer Question.
172 What does Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) mean? a) Average downtime of a service b) Average
uptime of a service c) Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period d)
Average time between two consecutive incidents Show Answer Question. 173 Where are the
statuses of changes recorded? a) in the Known Error database b) in the Definitive Software Library
(DSL) c) in the Change database d) in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) Show
Answer Question. 174 What is a request to replace something within the IT infrastructure called? a)
Replacement Request b) Request for Change c) Service Request d) Request for Release Show
Answer Question. 175 Which subject should be one of the standard items on the agenda of a
meeting of the Change Advisory Board (CAB)? a) Reports from Service Level Management b)
Ongoing or concluded Changes c) The registration of Changes d) The wishes of customers to
implement Changes Show Answer Question. 176 Which ITIL process is responsible for creating the
cost agreements for extra support of the Service Desk? a) Service Level Management b) Incident
Management c) Availability Management d) Financial Management for IT Services Show Answer
Question. 177 For which of the following activities of Configuration Management are audits
regularly implemented? a) Status monitoring b) Planning c) Identification d) Verification Show
Answer Question. 178 Release Management has distributed a defective Release. As a result,
monthly invoicing has come to a standstill. This has very radical consequences for the business and
has been reported as an incident. According to ITIL best practices, what should happen next? a)
Change Management will start a Post Implementation Review (PIR) b) Service Level Management
will start a Service Improvement Program (SIP) c) Problem Management will submit a Request for
Change (RFC) d) Release Management will implement the back-out plan Show Answer Question.
179 According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed repeatedly in
order to ensure good performance. Which of the following answers specifies the correct sequence
for these steps? a) Check – Plan – Act – Do b) Act – Check – Do – Plan c) Do – Plan – Check – Act d)
Plan – Do – Check – Act Show Answer Question. 180 The Deming quality circle is a model for control
based on quality. Which step in this model must be taken first? a) Adjustment b) Implementation c)
Planning d) Measurement Show Answer Question. 181 Information is regularly exchanged between
Problem Management and Change Management. What information is this? a) RFCs from the users
that Problem Management passes on to Change Management b) RFCs from the Service Desk that
Problem Management passes on to Change Management c) Known Errors from Problem
Management, on the basis of which Change Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)
d) RFCs resulting from Known Errors Show Answer Question. 182 Which status is a problem
assigned once its cause has been identified? a) Incident b) Known Error c) Request for Change
(RFC) d) Work-around Show Answer Question. 183 What is the term used for a situation derived
from a series of incidents with the same characteristics? a) Service Call b) Problem c) Change
Request d) Known Error Show Answer Question. 184 What is the first step when registering an
incident? a) Perform matching b) Assign an incident number c) Determine the priority d) Record
the incident data Show Answer Question. 185 Changes are divided into categories. What criterion
defines a category for a change? a) The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial,
significant, etc b) The sequence in which the change is made c) The speed with which the change is
made d) The Request for Change number that the change is assigned Show Answer Question. 186
Which data, for a new Configuration item (CI), is recorded in the Configuration Management
Database (CMDB)? a) The Request for Change number for the Configuration Item b) Repairs to the
Configuration Item c) The impact of the Configuration Item d) The relationship to other
Configuration Items Show Answer Question. 187 When is a Known Error identified? a) When the
incident has been sent to Problem Management b) When the problem is known c) When the
problem has been resolved d) When the cause of the problem is known Show Answer Question. 188
User reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service Desk representative determines that the
PC is defective and indicates that according to the services catalogue, the PC will be replaced within
three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible for having this user’s PC replaced within three
hours? a) Availability Management b) Change Management c) Service Level Management d)
Configuration Management Show Answer Question. 189 Which ITIL process is responsible for
analyzing risks and counter measures? a) Capacity Management b) Service Desk c) Problem
Management d) IT Service Continuity Management Show Answer Question. 190 Which aspects are
described in a Service Level Agreement (SLA)? a) The costs and expected revenue of the services
offered b) The technological developments that can affect the services offered c) The quality,
expressed in quantity and costs, of the services offered d) The company strategy Show Answer
Question. 191 In the Service Level Management Process, what happens during the activity called
“monitoring”? a) Guarding agreements with the customer b) Acquiring customers c) Identifying the
needs of customers d) Guarding negotiations with the customer Show Answer Question. 192
Consider the following statements- 1: An SLA is a contract drawn up by the IT department which
states what the customer may and may not do with his computer, 2: A Service Catalogue describes
concisely and specifically the IT services that the IT department can offer a customer. Which of
these statements is correct? a) Both b) Neither c) Only the first d) Only the second Show Answer
Question. 193 Consider the following statements- 1: A change in the IT infrastructure is always the
result of a change of a Service Level, 2: A Service Level Agreement (SLA) exhibits many similarities
to a procedure for drawing up a Request for Change (RFC). Are these statements correct? a) Both b)
Neither c) Only the first d) Only the second Show Answer Question. 194 The performance of the
network in a large computer centre is monitored 24 hours a day. This produces data for which
processes? a) Change Management, Financial Management and Service Level Management b)
Financial Management, Service Desk and Problem Management c) Availability Management,
Capacity Management and Change Management d) Availability Management, Capacity Management
and Problem Management Show Answer Question. 195 When can the building, testing and
implementation of a change begin? a) If it is urgent, as soon as the Request for Change has been
classified b) As soon as there is a back-out plan for the change c) As soon as the impact analysis has
been discussed by the members of the Change Advisory Board d) As soon as the Request for Change
has been formally authorized Show Answer Question. 196 Which of the concepts below belongs to
IT Service Continuity Management? a) Maintainability b) Resilience c) Vulnerability d)
Serviceability Show Answer Question. 197 A major change to an existing service is to be designed
and built and the issue of what Configuration Management is responsible for has been raised. For
which of the following activities does Configuration Management NOT have a responsibility? a)
Controlling the completeness and correctness of all data about the software modules b) Naming
and recording data about software modules c) Quality assurance of the software modules d)
Registering and monitoring the status of the software modules Show Answer Question. 198 When
must a Post Implementation Review take place? a) In case of emergency changes b) If another
incident of the same type occurs again after a Change has been made c) After every Change d) At the
request of the person who submitted the Change request Show Answer Question. 199 Which
activity is not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management? a) Executing impact analyses
of incidents related to the back-out facilities b) Testing back-out arrangements c) Drawing up back-
out scenarios d) Analyzing risks Show Answer Question. 200 When is a back-out plan invoked? a)
When it is found that something went wrong when implementing a Change b) When it is found that
something went wrong when testing a Change c) When it is found that something went wrong
when building a Change d) When it is found that something went wrong when scheduling resources
Show Answer Question. 201 The management of ABC Inc. has insisted that each request for a new
workstation installation be handled with optimum efficiency and effectiveness. Which ITIL process
is designed to achieve this desired outcome? a) Change Management b) Customer Liaison c)
Problem Management d) Service Level Management Show Answer Question. 202 Which of the
examples below is NOT an example of a configuration item? a) A user manual b) A company’s
organization chart c) A systems update procedure d) A unique identification code Show Answer
Question. 203 Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural
errors? a) Availability Management b) Problem Management c) Security Management d) IT Service
Continuity Management Show Answer Question. 204 Nitin calls the Service Desk and reports that
the system is slow. He asks whether he can be given another PC like his colleague’s, which is much
faster. Which term is applicable to this situation? a) Problem b) Incident c) Request for Change d)
Classification Show Answer Question. 205 The cash registers in a supermarket experience network
disruptions daily between 4 p.m. and 6 p.m. Which ITIL process is responsible for solving these
difficulties on a structural basis? a) Availability Management b) Capacity Management c) Incident
Management d) Problem Management Show Answer Question. 206 Which of the following
describes the basic concept of Integrity in the Security Management process? a) The capacity to
verify the correctness of the data b) The correctness of the data c) Protection of the data against
unauthorized access and use d) Access to the data at any moment Show Answer Question. 207
What is meant by the ‘Urgency’ of an incident? a) The degree to which the incident gives rise to a
deviation from the normal service level b) The time needed by IT Services to resolve the incident c)
The relative importance of the incidents when handling them d) The degree to which the solution of
an incident tolerates delay Show Answer Question. 208 What is the key activity of processes
defined in Service Strategy a) How robust business cases will be created to secure strategic
investment in service assets and service management capabilities b) What services are running c)
How to measure and develop SLA’s d) None of the above Show Answer Question. 209 Which of the
following is a benefit of using ITIL? a) That the users can influence the IT organization providing the
IT services b) That the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently c)
That the organization around the IT services can be set up faster d) That it is finally possible to
charge for IT services Show Answer Question. 210 An organization plans on implementing a new
network operating system. Before the actual implementation takes place, the plan of approach for
achieving the implementation is discussed. Under whose leadership is this discussion held? a) The
Service Level Manager b) The Network Manager c) The Change Manager d) The Service Manager
Show Answer Question. 211 The activity that aims to identify the potential damage or loss to an
organization resulting from disruption to critical business processes is: a) Business Impact Analysis
b) Component Failure Impact Analysis c) Root Cause Analysis d) Service Outage Analysis Show
Answer Question. 212 The data in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) can only be
modified after permission is granted to modify the infrastructure. Which process grants such
permission? a) Incident Management b) Service Level Management c) Change Management d)
Configuration Management Show Answer Question. 213 Your Network Department has made an
agreement with an external organization in order to fulfill an agreement with its internal customer.
Where would the agreement with the external organization be specified? a) Service Level
Requirement (SLR) b) Underpinning Contract (UC) c) Operational Level Agreement (OLA) d)
Service Level Agreement (SLA) Show Answer Question. 214 What is the difference between Asset
Management and Configuration Management? a) Asset Management deals with the financial aspects
of Configuration Items b) Configuration Management goes much further than Asset Management,
because it also specifies the relations between the assets c) Asset Management only deals with what
you own; Configuration Management deals with everything in your infrastructure d) Asset
Management is a superset of Configuration Management, as it includes non-it assets such as chairs
and tables Show Answer Question. 215 The Service Level Manager requires confirmation that the
internal Service Desk can answer Customer calls within 10 seconds. In which document might the
Service Desk’s agreement to this requirement be recorded? a) Internal Specification Sheet b)
Operational Level Agreement c) Service Level Agreement d) An underpinning third party contract
Show Answer Question. 216 The sequence of dealing with problems must be based on… a) The
category to which the problem belongs b) The impact of the problem c) The priority of the problem
d) The urgency of the problem Show Answer Question. 217 Release management staff do not carry
out ; a) The planning of rollouts of hardware and software b) The distribution of software
applications to remote locations c) The testing of software to eradicate errors d) The release and
implementation of software into the live environment Show Answer Question. 218 Which of the
following statements about the Service Catalogue is correct? a) It is necessary in order to draw up
an SLA b) It describes only those services that are also included in the Service Level Agreement
(SLA) c) It can be used instead of an SLA d) It describes all services that can be supplied by the IT
management organization Hide Answer Answer : It describes all services that can be supplied by
the IT management organization

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1.Which of the following statement/s is/are correct a) SLAs should define roles responsibilities on
both sides of the agreement b) SLAs should be regularly monitored and reports should be produced
and circulated c) Underpinning contracts should be reviewed before SLAs are signed d) All of the
above ans – All of the above 2. Engagements of type ____________do not qualify for Managed Services
life cycle a) L1 and L2 b) L2 and L3 c) L3 and L4 d) L1 and L4 ans L1 and L4 3. Output of transition
closure is _____ a) Transition Plan b) Estimation Summary c) Lessons Learnt Document d) None of
the above ans: c) Lessons Learnt Document 4.Which is the key report that helps the organization
foresee potential risks a) Daily dashboard b) Service Management Plan (SMP) c) Service
Improvement Plan (SIP) d) None of the above ans: b) Service Management Plan (SMP)
5.Finalization of Transition plan and its sign-off from customer happens in a) Transition Initiation
Phase b) Transition Planning Phase c) Knowledge Acquisition Phase (KAP) d) None of the above
ans: b) Transition Planning Phase 6. Taking ownership of low priority tickets and verifying whether
they met SLA or not is an activity of _____________. a) Knowledge Acquisition Phase b) Secondary
Support Phase c) Primary Support Phase d) None of the above ans: b) Secondary Support Phase
Which documents form the key list of documents form a Service Management process perspective?
a) Service Catalogue b) Training need identification c) Resource Plan d) All of the above ans: Service
Catalogue 7. _____ and _____ project classification codes are used for steady state projects in managed
services a) IT and IA b) IT and MI c) IA and MA d) MA and MI ans: d) MA and MI 8. As per IT Service
Continuity Procedure, Disaster Recovery (DR) drills should be conducted _____________ a) At least
once a year b) Twice a year c) Not required d) None of the above ans: d) None of the above 9.
Engagements of type L3 can typically follow a) Development Life Cycle b) Maintenance Life Cycle c)
Any valid life cycle as per its scope d) Managed Service Life Cycle ans: Managed Service Life Cycle
10. The typical triggers for revision/change in Service Management Plan are _____________ a) Changes
to scope or Change in service model b) Updates in Veloci-Q (QMS c) Internal and/or External audit
findings d) All of the above ans: d) All of the above 11. What information does CMDB contain for
Configuration Items (CIs a) Attributes b) State c) Relation d) All of the above ans: d) All of the above
Wipro partners with customer to define business and IT transformational initiatives in ______________
type of engagement a) L1 – Staff Augmentation b) L2 – Co Managed c) L3 – Wipro Managed d) L4 –
Consulting ans: d) L4 – Consulting 12. Transition is divided into several tracks for better
management and efficient delivery. __________ is one of tracks of Transition a) Sales Track b) Vendor
Track c) Process Track d) All of the above Ans –c) Process Track 13. Which process is responsible
for Risk assessment and mitigation plan? a) IT Service Continuity Management b) Change
Management c) Service Level Management d) Availability Management Ans- c) Service Level
Management 14. Estimation happens in a) Proposal Preparation b) Change management c) Pre-
sales activities d) Lead qualification Ans- c) Pre-sales activities 15. What should immediately follow
after an RFC is implemented a) Change record b) Post Implementation review c) Impact analysis d)
Change review Ans- a) Change record _____ and _____ project classification codes are used for
transition projects in managed services a) IT and MI b) IA and MA c) IT and IA d) MA and MI Ans- c)
IT and IA 16. Which of the following mandatory documents are required to be maintained in the
standard template a) Service Management Plan (SMP b) ITSM Process Scoping and SLA-KPI
Document c) Service Description Document and Service Delivery Review Report d) All of the above
Ans- All of the above 17. All T&M engagements can’t be considered as Managed Services a) True b)
False Ans- a) True 18. Prevailing managed services execution framework recommends sign-off of
SLA-KPI document with customer a) True b) False Ans- a) True 19. Post Implementation Review
(PIR) is a must after every Change implementation a) True b) False Ans- a) True 20. Removal of
service is not considered as change in scope of engagement a) True b) False Ans- b) False 21. Draft
Execution Process Document is one of the Work items/ Outputs of Primary Support phase a) True
b) False Ans- b) False 22. Contractually signed metrics and its operational definition are captured in
____________ a) SLA – KPI b) Risk Management Plan (FMEA) c) Service Delivery Description (SDD d)
None of the above ans: a) SLA – KPI 23. Customer feedback and complaints is considered trigger for
service Improvements a)True b)False ans :True 24. Activity of reverse transition are a)Reverse
Transition Plan and acceptance criteria sign-off b)Knowledge transfer and execution as per plan
c)Proper termination of contract meeting legal and compliance requirement. d)All of the above Ans
– All of the above. 25. is considered one of the service improvement themes a)Average handling
Time(AHT) reduction b)CSAT improvement c)Ticket Backlog reduction d)All of the above Ans- All
of the above. 26. Is the type of engagement where wipro owns responsibility or accountability for
portion of work within ambit of larger roadmap or team managed by customer a)L1-staff
augmentation b)L2-co managed c)L3-wipro managed d)L4-Consulting ans- L2-co managed 27. Is
considered trigger for Service Improvements a)Customer and Business Objectives b)external and
internal assessment c)service reviews d)All of the above. Ans- d)All of the above. 28. Transition
sequence is an output of ____________Phase a)Due Diligence b)Transition c)Steady state d)Reverse
Transition ans – a)Due Diligence 29. which of the following is a valid billing type in SAP/Cpro for a
program in Wipro a)Profit sharing b)Element base pricing c)Time and Material d)None of the above
ans- d)None of the above project classification codes in OWBS denotes infrastructure transition in
Managed services a)IT b)IA c)MA d)MI Ans – a)IT 30. Reverse Transition is to be carried
out___________ a)When the customer decides to start a new Data centre on its Own. b) When the
customer decides to add new application/elements to the existing portfolio c) When the customer
decides to get services from a different vendor or its internal IT department. d)When the customer
and Wipro decide to work towards a new acquisition. Ans- a)When the customer decides to start a
new Data centre on its Own. 31. The focus of Reverse Transition Is a)Minimum Disruption to
business b)Completion within specified timelines c)Compliance to agreed terms and conditions of
exit d)All of the above Ans – c)Compliance to agreed terms and conditions of exit 32. according to
managed services execution life cycle , termination of contract/SoW typically happens in a)Due
Diligence b)Reverse Transition c)Transition d)None of the above Ans – b)Reverse Transition 33.
creation of draft version of Execution Process Document is one of the activities____ phase
a)Transition Initiation b)Transition Planning c)Knowledge Acquisition d)None of the above ANs –
c)Knowledge Acquisition 34. Outcome based agreements typically includes a)SLA b)OLA
c)Underpinning Contracts (UC) d)All of the above ANs – d)All of the above 35. In a managed service
programme , a typical risk management plan should include risk/s due to ______ a)Business and
Delivery b)Process and Technical c)Contract d)All of the above Ans – d)All of the above 36.
Transition has Multiple tracks. They are__________ a)Technology Track b)Process Track c)People
track d)All of the above Ans – d)All of the above 37. Objective of Quality Audit Is___________ a)To
compute tickets audited to total ticket closed b)Tickets meeting process requirement c)To Measure,
Monitor and control process adherence by support engineer d)Tickets meeting overall process
adherence Ans – c)To Measure, Monitor and control process adherence by support engineer 38.
Delivery handover is gating between due diligence and Transition a)True b)False Ans – b)False 39.
Service Level agreement is between an IT service Provider and another part of the same
organization a)True b)False Ans – a)False 40. Change in Service Level Target or change in any
parameter of agreed SLA is a qualified trigger for change management process a)True b)False Ans –
True ************************************************************************************* One of
the important activity of Reverse Transition is _______________ a) Have sign-off on acceptance criteria
for completion b) Record a Risk Log and maintain the Risk tracker diligently c) Update Service
Management Plan and Execution Process Document d) None of the above Ans : a) Have sign-off on
acceptance criteria for completion Proper termination of contract meeting legal and compliance
requirement is an activity of _________________ a) Due Diligence b) Transition c) Steady State d)
Reverse Transition Ans :Reverse Transition Which of the following can trigger Continual Service
Improvement activity ? a) Take ownership of low priority tickets & check whether they meet
agreed SLA b) BCP requirements for delivery centers c) Raise proactive requests for procuring
laptops, data cards, mobile phones as per the requirement d) Arriving at corrective and preventive
action plans Ans : c) Raise proactive requests for procuring laptops, data cards, mobile phones as
per the requirement. Pulse survey happens __________ a) Monthly b) Annually c) Half yearly d)
Quarterly Ans : d) Quarterly __________________ is typically carried out at the customer’s premises and
is facilitated by a questionnaire that is used to specify the information to be gathered regarding the
applications or infrastructure or both a) Due Diligence b) Reverse Transition c) Steady State d)
None of the above Ans – Due Diligence An engagement where Wipro owns end to end responsibility
and accountability with contractually committed service level objectives and targets, other
performance metrics and accountability for associated risks is called _____________. a) L1 – Staff
Augmentation b) L2 – Co Managed c) L3 – Wipro Managed d) L4 – Consulting Ans- c) L3 – Wipro
Managed As per Wipro’s managed services execution lifecycle, Sign off of first baseline Execution
Process Document (EPD) with customer typically happens in ___________ a) Transition Initiation
Phase b) Transition Closure Phase c) Secondary Support Phase d) Primary Support Phase Ans – c)
Secondary Support Phase _________________ is one of the tracks of Transition a) Delivery Track b)
Execution Track c) Technology Track d) All of the above Ans- c) Technology Track Managed
Services Daily Dashboard records which of following data a) SLA performance b) Operational issues
c) Complaints and Escalations d) All of the above ans- a) SLA performance __________ provides
information about SLA performance, trend of tickets, suppliers’ performance, internal metrics a)
Service Delivery Description (SDD b) System Maintenance Technical Document (SMTD) c) Service
Delivery Report (SDR) d) None of the above Ans- d) None of the above First draft version of Service
Management Plan is an output of ______________ Phase a) Transition Planning b) Secondary Support c)
Transition Initiation d) Knowledge Acquisition Ans- d) Knowledge Acquisition ________________ is a
phase where Wipro team shadows the incumbent or customer team on the floor a) Transition
Initiation b) Transition Planning c) Knowledge Acquisition d) Secondary Support Ans- d) Secondary
Support The Master Transition Plan should be mutually agreed and signed off with the client a)
True b) False Ans- a) True A change in location including STPI to SEZ is considered as change in
scope of engagement a) True b) False Ans – a) True As per prevailing process, Pulse Survey is
conducted every six months a) True b) False Ans- b) False Engagement sign off is given in
a)Secondary support phase b)primary support phase c)Knowledge Acquisition phase (KAP) d)None
of the above ans: d)None of the above Tickets with______ priorities or severities should be
considered while choosing the sample for ticket audit. a)1 b)2 c)3 and 4 d)All of the above ans: All
of the above Which of the following documents should be reviewed periodically/ at regular
intervals a)Service management plan (SMP) b)Service level Agreement and Risk Assessment
Document c)Training plan d)All of the above ans: All of the above Which of the following document
is recommended for sign off with customer as per prevailing managed services execution life cycle?
a)Execution process document (EPD) b)System maintenance Technical Document (SMTD) c)SLA-
KPI document d)All of the above ans: All of the above Document that contains Wipro’s service
offering and related information is a)System maintenance technical Document (SMTD) b)Execution
Process Document (EPD) c)Service Catalogue d)Master Service Agreement (MSA) ans: Service
Catalogue “Gap plug out” is a deliverable of which phase of managed services execution life cycle?
a)Reverse Transition b)Due Diligence c)Transition d)None of the above ans: Due Diligence EPD
stands for a)Execution process document b)Execution primary document c)Exellent primary
delivery d)Execution process delivered ans:Execution process document A service catalogue
typically contains a)Service Name, Type and description of the service b)Geographies Supported,
Supporting services and Support window c)Business Unit/s supported d)All of the above ans: All of
the above What procedure an individual should follow in Wipro if there is a IT security breach? a)
Raise a SIR b) Inform your manager and take an approval c) Inform IMG and take an approval d)
None of the above Ans: None of the above According to managed services execution life cycle, IT
Services Management in a nutshell comprises of: a) Services Requirements and Service Execution
b) Service requirements and services planning c) Service requirements , services resources,
services planning , services execution d) services resources, services planning , services execution
ANS – C) Service Requirements , services resources, services planning , services execution
Customization of transition readiness audit report (TaAR) and Solution Assurance (SA) acitvities
happen in ————-according to wipro’s managed services execution lifecycle. a) Transition
closure phase b) Secondry support phase c) Transition initiation phase d) None of the above ANS-
Transition initiation phase The document that is used to identify IT service management processes
that are in scope of program is ——— a) ITSM process scoping document b) Execution process
document(EPD) c) Services delivery description (SDD) d) None of the above ANS- None of the
above As per order work bench system(OWBS), a managed services engagement can be either large
program , program or cluster with classification =—————- a) IA b) MA c) MS d) MI ANS-MS
Quality audit helps identify need of training a) True b) False ANS-true Standard SLA library can be
referred for operational definition of most common metrics A)True b)false ANS-True A managed
services programme may deliver for multiple Sows A) True B) False ANS- True Which of the listed
tasks are regarded as proactive? a) Control of Known Errors b) Reviewing incident and problem
analysis reports to identify trends and preventing problems in one service being replicated in
another c) Identifying the root cause of incidents d) All of the above ANS : All of the above Typically
SoW along with which of the following should be considered as Program / Project Catalogue a)
Service Delivery Description (SDD) b) Execution Process Document (EPD) c) System Maintenance
Technical document (SMTD) d) None of the above ANS: None of the above ________ trigger Root
Cause Analysis (RCA a) Customer complaints b) Audit findings c) SLA deviation d) All of the above
ANS : a) Customer complaints ___________ project classification code in OWBS denotes application
managed services project in steady state phase a) IT b) IA c) MA d) MI ANS : c) MA Overall
transition gets broken down into different tracks for better management and efficient delivery.
____________ is one of the tracks of Transition a) Delivery Track b) Tools and Infrastructure Track c)
Transition Track d) All of the above ANS : b) Tools and Infrastructure Track A platform to share the
performance of Managed Services engagements and best practices with the delivery teams is a)
Quality Improvement Council (QIC b) Program Reviews c) Management Review d) Service Delivery
Review ANS : c) Management Review ________________ should be suitably identified, planned and
executed throughout the Service Management life cycle a) Escalations b) Risks c) Service
Improvements d) All of the above ANS : d) All of the above Wipro, typically, owns / assumes total
accountability of tickets (as contractually agreed) in __________________ phase a) Knowledge
Acquisition b) Secondary Support c) Primary Support d) None of the above ANS : c) Primary
Support In context to Managed services SDD is an exhaustive list of _____ a) Towers b) Technology
functions c) Verticals d) None of the above ANS : b) Technology functions A contract between an IT
service provider and an external vendor is a) Operational Level Agreement (OLA b) Underpinning
Contract (UC c) Service Level Agreement (SLA d) None of the above ANS : b) Underpinning Contract
(UC Inputs to Service Management Plan document are a) SoW, Transition Sign off, Delivery Sign off,
ITIL defined metrics b) ITIL process areas, ITIL metrics, Non-transactional Project Plan d) SoW,
EPD, SMTD, ITSM Process Scoping c) None of the above ANS : d) SoW, EPD, SMTD, ITSM Process
Scoping Various sub phases of transition are a) a) Pre Knowledge Acquisition b) Knowledge
Acquisition c) Transition Planning d) Secondary Support e) Primary Support f) Transition Closure
b) a) Transition Planning b) Secondary Support c) KAP d) Primary Support d) Closure c) a)
Transition Initiation b) Transition Planning c) Knowledge Acquisition d) Secondary Support e)
Primary Support f) Transition Closure d) None of the above ANS : c) a) Transition Initiation b)
Transition Planning c) Knowledge Acquisition d) Secondary Support e) Primary Support f)
Transition Closure Ticket audit is an important activity to be carried out in __________ phase of
managed services execution life cycle a) Reverse Transition b) Due Diligence c) Steady State d)
None of the above ANS : c) Steady State ___________ project classification code in OWBS denotes
infrastructure managed services project in steady state phase a) IT b) IA c) MA d) MI ANS : d) MI
The Service Delivery Manager decides the time and stakeholders to whom the CSAT survey is to be
administered. S/he then administers the survey marking a copy to the MQ / SQA Manager a) True
b) False ANS : Due Diligence is typically conducted after submitting Request for Proposal (RFP) a)
True b) False ANS : True Typically, a Non Disclosure Agreement is signed _________________ a) Before
Due Diligence b) At the start of interaction c) During KAP d) During the sales ANS : d) During the
sales RACI stands for a) Request, Agree, Calendar, Invitematrix b) Responsible, Accountable,
Consulted, Informed matrix c) Responsible, Agree, Control, Inform matrix d) Responsibility,
Authority, Career, Integration matrix ANS : b) Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
matrix ____________is “responsible” for project kickoff meeting as per Wipro’s managed services
execution lifecycle a) Wipro b) Customer c) Incumbent Vendor d) None of the above ANS : c)
Incumbent Vendor ___________ is important gating for the transition team to proceed with execution
of transition a) Delivery Handover b) Transition Handover c) Sales Handover d) None of the above
ANS : c) Sales Handover Few triggers for Service Improvements a) Trend Analysis b) Root Cause
Analysis (RCA) c) Audit Assessments d) All of the above ANS : d) All of the above ODC Setup and
Access are activities of _____________ a) Transition Initiation b) Transition Planning c) Knowledge
Acquisition d) None of the above ANS : b) Transition Planning _______________ could be one of the
themes of Continual Service Improvement a) First Call Resolution (FCR) Improvement b)
Productivity Improvement c) Incident Reduction d) All of the above ANS : d) All of the above Overall
transition gets broken down into different tracks for better management and efficient delivery.
____________ is one of the tracks of Transition a) Delivery Track b) Tools and Infrastructure Track c)
Transition Track d) All of the above ANS : b) Tools and Infrastructure Track As per Wipro’s
managed services execution lifecycle, Governance, Review and Escalation Mechanism are decided
in _________________ a) Transition Initiation Phase b) Transition Closure Phase c) Primary Support
Phase d) Transition Planning Phase ANS : d) Transition Planning Phase As per Wipro’s managed
services execution lifecycle, Sign off of final System Maintenance Technical Document (SMTD) with
customer typically happens in _____________ a) Transition Initiation Phase b) Transition Closure
Phase c) Knowledge Acquisition Phase (KAP) d) None of the above ANS: b) Transition Closure
Phase A _________________ should be maintained, monitored, tracked and its summary be part of
Service Reporting. a) ITSM Process Scoping b) Service Management Plan c) Service Improvement
Plan d) None of the above ANS: c) Service Improvement Plan Execution Process Document should
be reviewed by Transition SQA (MQ Manager) / Process Manager a) True b) False ANS : b) False
Request for Proposal (RFP) or Request for Information (RFI) is a input criteria for Pre- Engagement
a) True b) False ANS : True FCR Improvement is considered one of the Service Improvement
Themes a) True b) False ANS : a) True Service Management Planning is initiated during
__________phase of Transition a) Planning b) Knowledge Acquisition c) Primary Support d)
Secondary Support ANS : b) Knowledge Acquisition Boot Camp is part of _______________ sub phase of
Transition. a) Transition Initiation b) Transition Planning c) Knowledge Acquisition d) None of the
above ANS : a) Transition Initiation One of the outputs of Due Diligence Phase is ___________ a)
Service Catalogue b) System Maintenance Technical Document (SMTD) c) Service Level Report d)
Gap plug out ANS : d) Gap plug out _________________ describes the technical activities to be carried out
for the engagement a) Execution Process Document b) Service Description Document c) ITSM
Process Scoping document d) None of the above ANS : b) Service Description Document According
to managed services execution life cycle, termination of contract / SoW typically happens in a) Due
Diligence b) Reverse Transition c) Transition d) None of the above ANS : b) Reverse Transition The
document that captures detailed process workflow and related activities in scope is ______________ a)
ITSM Process scoping document b) Execution Process Document (EPD) c) Service Delivery
Description (SDD d) All of the above ANS : d) All of the above In a Managed Services engagement,
who is the owner of the Program level review? a) Service Delivery Manager b) Technical Manager c)
Project Manager d) Service Delivery Head ANS : d) Service Delivery Head According to managed
services execution lifecycle, Play back session is an activity of _______________ a) Secondary Support
Phase b) Primary Support Phase c) Knowledge Acquisition Phase (KAP d) None of the above ANS :
c) Knowledge Acquisition Phase (KAP _____________ triggers a contract change request a) Change in
scope of geographic location b) Removal / Revision in Service level target c) Line of Business (LOB)
d) All of the above ANS : d) All of the above A Managed Services engagement may consist of multiple
projects in one single delivery a) True b) False ANS : a) True Removal of an existing line of Business
(LOB) is considered change in scope of the engagement a) True b) False ANS : a) True Operational
Level Agreement (OLA) is a contract between an IT service provider and a third party a) True b)
False A Managed Services Program or Cluster can have classification “MA or MI or “IA or IT” per
Order Work Bench System (OWBS a) True b) False ANS : b) False

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