Legaledge Test Series: Mock Common Law Admission Test 2022 Mock Clat #34

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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2022

MOCK CLAT #34
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Duration : 120 Minutes Candidate Name : _____________
Max. Marks : 150 Batch : _____________
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INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Test ID: 2490210)
1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.
3. There is negative marking of 0.25 for every incorrect answer. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are
150
4. You have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a BALL PEN
(BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The student has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below:
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods
5. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered incorrect and
no marks will be awarded for the same.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
7. Do not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and, in the spaces, provided for.
8. You are not required to submit the OMR Answer Sheet and Test Paper after the test.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the student, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal prosecution.
11. You have to scan the QR code only after completion of offline test.
12. You cannot leave the examination hall without punching your answers on the portal.
SECTION-A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Passage (Q.1-Q.5): The moment everyone remembers from ‘The Maltese Falcon” comes near the end. when
Brigid O’Shaughnessy (Mary Astor) has been collared for murdering Sam Spade (Bogart)’s partner. She says
she loves Spade. She asks if Spade loves her. She pleads for him to spare her from the law. And he replies, in a
speech some people can quote by heart, “I hope they don’t hang you. precious, by that sweet neck. The chances
are you’ll get off with life. That means if you’re a good girl, you’ll be out in 20 years. I’ll be waiting for you. If
they hang you. I’ll always remember you.”
Cold - Spade is cold and hard. like his name. When he gets the news that his partner has been murdered. he
doesn’t blink an eye. He didn’t like the guy. Beats up Joel Cairo (Lorre) not just because he has to, but because
he carries a perfumed handkerchief. and you know what that meant in a 1941 movie. He turns the rough stuff on
and off Loses patience with Green Street; throws his cigar into the fire; smashes his glass; barks out a threat.
slams the door and then grins to himself in the hallway, amused by his own act. How do Bogart and Huston get
away with making such a dark guy the hero of a film? Because he does his job according to the rules he lives by,
and because we sense (as we always would with Bogart after this role) that the toughness conceals old wounds
and broken dreams.
John Huston had worked as a writer at Warner Bros. before convincing the studio to let him direct. “The Maltese
Falcon” was his first choice. even though it had been filmed twice before by Warners (in 1931 under the same
title and in 1936 as “Satan Met a Lady”). “They were such wretched pictures.” Huston told his biographer.
Lawrence Grobel. He saw Hammett’s vision more clearly; saw that the story was not about plot but about
character; saw that to soften Sam Spade would be deadly; fought the tendency for the studio to pine for a happy
ending.
The plot is the last thing you think of about “The Maltese Falcon.” To describe the plot in a linear and logical
fashion is almost impossible. It’s all style. It isn’t violence or chases, but the way the actors look, move, speak
and embody their characters. Under the style is attitude: hard men. in a hard season. in a society emerging from
Depression and heading for war. For an hourly fee, Sam Spade will negotiate this terrain. Few Hollywood heroes
before 1941 kept such a distance from the conventional pieties of the plot.
1. Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the passage?

(a) The plot of the movie, The Maltese Falcon, is not its main attraction.
(b) Bogart who plays Sam Spade was a cold and ruthless man.
(c) The Maltese Falcon broke some conventional mode of filmmaking.
(d) People find some vulnerability in Sam Spade’s hardened demeanour.
2. The author of the passage will most likely agree with?

(a) It is impossible to portray a movie in linear and logical fashion.
(b) The Warner Bros. studio knew that The Maltese Falcon was about the character, not the story.
(c) Hammett wanted his readers to view Spade as a maverick character.
(d) The Maltese Falcon earned huge profits for its makers.
3. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?

(a) Argumentative (b) Analytical (c) Censuring (d) Lionizing
4. The Maltese Falcon was released in:

(a) Before 1936 (b) 1936 (c) 1941 (d) After 1941
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5. ‘Hollywood heroes before 1941 kept such a distance from the conventional pieties of the plot.’ Which of the
following reflects a similar meaning to the word ‘pieties’ in the context of the passage?
(a) Hypocrisies (b) Wickedness (c) Dissidence (d) Virtues
Passage (Q.6-Q.10): My granddaughter Shivani came to India after almost five years. Born and living in the
US, she was inquisitive about the culture, history and the changing scenario of India, the country of origin of her
parents. I wanted her to like the country. My son and daughter-in-law shifted to the US in the late 1980s. They
frequently visited India but the pandemic had restricted their trips. However, Shivani could not come earlier as
she was in college, then in a new job, followed by the pandemic. Now with the Covid situation improving, they
came to Chandigarh in December.
We went to Amritsar the next day. Shivani and her father, both photography enthusiasts, went to the Golden
Temple, taking photographs of the rising sun and the temple. We joined them later. It was a memorable
experience for her to be in the sanctum sanctorum. While walking around the sarovar, we visited the ‘Guru ka
langar’ hall. She was amazed to see the volunteers preparing meals in huge utensils, serving hundreds of people
at a time, collecting and cleaning the used thalis and glasses, keeping them ready for the next round. People were
sitting together on the floor and eating wholesome vegetarian food, regardless of religion, caste, gender or
ethnicity. She had never seen such voluntarism – kar seva. It made an indelible impression on her young mind.
From the Golden Temple, we walked over to the Jallianwala Bagh, where she took her time to see how history
was created when a peaceful crowd was made the target of shooting by the British-led soldiers, killing and
injuring more than 1,500 hapless people. Here, she got a mixed feeling of pain, anger and pride. From the epitome
of religion to the place of martyrdom, Shivani saw a slice of India’s glorious history. In the afternoon, we drove
to the Attari-Wagah border between India and Pakistan to watch the Beating Retreat ceremony. The atmosphere
was charged with nationalistic fervour and constant shouting of slogans for the country. Just as the sun was about
to set, the bugles sounded on both sides and the flags of the two countries were lowered for the day
simultaneously. This was a climax of heightened nationalistic sensitivity.
The two evenings, we went to traditional dhabas for dinner. We had to manoeuvre our way in small lanes,
between rickshaws, motorcycles and pedestrians. But it was fun and we had simple, delicious, vegetarian food
— hot crisp naans, paranthas, dal and a vegetable. Shivani could not believe that the whole meal cost just $3 per
person. The following day, we returned to Chandigarh. My elder son and daughter-in-law got together for a
family reunion. Before leaving for the US, she mentioned that she had loved every moment and experience of
the trip and said firmly, ‘I have to come regularly every year to see more of India, our great nation.’
The magic of India had worked!
6. In context of the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE?

(a) Shivani came to India after almost five years.
(b) While walking around the altar, the Shivani and her family visited the ‘Guru ka langar’ hall.
(c) Shivani could not believe that the whole meal cost just $3 per person.
(d) The two evenings, Shivani and her family went to traditional dhabas for dinner.
7. All of the following can be inferred from the passage, except

(a) Shivani was enamoured with the Indian culture.
(b) Jallianwala Bagh evoked inconsistent feelings in Shivani.
(c) Beating Retreat ceremony is the highpoint of Attari-Wagah border.
(d) Shivani carried with evanescent memories of the selfless services of the voluntaries.
8. Which of the following best reflects the writing style adopted by the author?
(a) Expository. (b) Narrative. (c) Polemical. (d) Persuasive.
9. ‘The atmosphere was charged with nationalistic fervour and constant shouting of slogans for the country.’
Which of the following is the correct part of speech of the highlighted word?
(a) Adjective. (b) Adverb. (c) Verb. (d) Noun.
10. What is the author trying to communicate through the sentence, ‘The magic of India had worked! With respect
to the daughter’?
(a) Nobody can remain immune to the charms of India.
(b) India can charm tourists with its history.
(c) The purpose was accomplished.
(d) The mission of the author was successful.
Passage (Q.11-Q.15): The climate crisis is set to profoundly alter the world around us. Humans will not be the
only species to suffer from a calamity. Huge waves of die-offs will be triggered across the animal kingdom as
coral reefs turn ghostly white and tropical rainforests collapse. For a period, some researchers suspected that
insects may be less affected, or at least more adaptable, than mammals, birds and other groups of creatures. With
their large, elastic populations and their defiance of previous mass extinction events, surely insects will do better
than most in the teeth of the climate emergency?
Sadly not. At 3.2C of warming, which many scientists still fear the world will get close to by the end of this
century, half of all insect species will lose more than half of their current habitable range. This is about double
the proportion of vertebrates and higher even than for plants, which lack wings or legs to quickly relocate
themselves. This huge contraction in liveable space is being heaped onto the existing woes faced by insects from
habitat loss and pesticide use. “The insects that are still hanging in there are going to get hit by climate change
as well,” says Rachel Warren, a biologist at the University of East Anglia, who in 2018 published research into
what combinations of temperature, rainfall and other climatic conditions each species can tolerate.
Some insects, such as dragonflies, are nimble enough to cope with the creeping change. Unfortunately, most are
not. Butterflies and moths are also often quite mobile, but in different stages of their life cycle they rely on certain
terrestrial conditions and particular plant foods, and so many are still vulnerable. Pollinators such as bees and
flies can generally move only short distances, exacerbating an emerging food security crisis where farmers will
struggle to grow certain foods not just due to a lack of pollination but because, beyond an increase of 3C or so,
vast swaths of land simply become unsuitable for many crops. The area available to grow abundant coffee and
chocolate, for example, is expected to shrivel as tropical regions surge to temperatures unseen in human history.
The climate crisis interlocks with so many other maladies – poverty, racism, social unrest, inequality, the
crushing of wildlife – that it can be easy to overlook how it has viciously ensnared insects. The problem also
feels more intractable. “Climate change is tricky because it’s hard to combat,” says Matt Forister, a professor of
biology at the University of Nevada. Use of chemical is responsible for decrease in number of insects overtime
“Pesticides are relatively straightforward by comparison but climate change can alter the water table, affect the
predators, affect the plants. It’s multifaceted.” Insects are under fire from the poles to the tropics. The Arctic
bumblebee, Bombus Polaris, is found in the northern extremities of Alaska, Canada, Scandinavia and Russia. It
can survive near-freezing temperatures due to dense hair that traps heat and its ability to use conical flowers, like
the Arctic poppy, to magnify the sun’s rays to warm itself up.
11. Which of the accompanying is NOT true, keeping in view the subject of the passage?
(a) Butterflies and Moths are more prone to extinction than dragonflies.
(b) While tropical countries experience temperatures unprecedented in human history, the space accessible to
cultivate bountiful coffee and chocolate is anticipated to increase.
(c) Climate change is difficult to tackle with the woes increasing further in future.
(d) In terms of being more dangerous, climate change gets an upper hand over the use of pesticides.
12. What is the tone of the author in the passage?
(a) Acerbic. (b) Apathetic. (c) Condescending. (d) Disconcerting.
13. Give a suitable title for the passage.
(a) The catastrophic effect of the changing climate.
(b) How the speed of climate change is unbalancing the insect world?
(c) How climate change is proving to be lucrative to the insect world?
(d) The intensity of inimical insects.
14. According to the passage, which one of the following is NOT one of the effects that shall lead to the insect’s
decrease in number, over time?
(a) Destruction of their habitat. (b) Use of chemicals to kill them.
(c) Pollutants in soil and water. (d) Drastic reduction in available living space.
15. Which one of the following assumptions by some researchers made them draw the conclusion which highlighted
the fact that climate change would prove to be the least malicious for the insects.
(a) Their enormous, adaptable numbers and resistance to prior mass extinction occurrence.
(b) Insect species diversity per area tends to decrease with higher latitude and altitude.
(c) They move in hoards to different areas where the climate is more suitable for their existence and proliferation.
(d) Some of them go into hibernation when they encounter inclement weather and after it passes, they revert to
their original form and number.
Passage (Q.16-Q.21): In contrast to India's continued ambiguity over the legality of cryptocurrencies, its stance
on introducing an official digital currency has been reassuringly clear and consistent over time. And, four years
after an inter-ministerial committee recommended that India launch fiat money in digital form, the Reserve Bank
of India has indicated that pilot projects to figure out its viability are likely to be launched soon. In a speech a
few days ago, T. Rabi Sankar, Deputy Governor, RBI, said, 'RBI is currently working towards a phased
implementation strategy and examining use cases which could be implemented with little or no disruption.' The
clarity is welcome, given that the much-awaited Cryptocurrency and Regulation of Official Digital Currency
Bill, 2021, is yet to be introduced. In recent years, the significant rise of private cryptocurrencies such as Bitcoin
and Ether has spooked central banks throughout the world, and pushed the case for official digital currencies.
Mr. Rabi Sankar himself cited a 2021 BIS survey of central banks, which found that 86% were actively
researching the potential for such currencies, 60% were experimenting with the technology, and 14% were
deploying pilot projects. China, having already engaged in pilot projects for its digital RMB, is in fact
planning a major roll-out soon. There has been little doubt, therefore, that India needs a digital rupee. The
important questions are about the details and the timeline.
There are crucial decisions to be made about the design of the currency with regards to how it will be issued, the
degree of anonymity it will have, the kind of technology that is to be used, and so on. It is possible that the
question of the degree of anonymity, especially, will be quite a challenging one. While official digital currencies
can borrow the underlying technology feature of private cryptocurrencies, they significantly differ from the latter
in their philosophy and goals. Also, to be considered are possible impacts of the introduction of an official digital
currency on people, the monetary policy, and the banking system. There are risks to be considered as well, not
the least of which will be those emerging from cyberattacks. What is more, many laws need to be amended to
make the digital rupee a reality. So, while India might have done exceedingly well in digital payments in recent
years - the Deputy Governor said they have grown at a compounded annual growth rate of 55% over the last five
years - the digital rupee will be something else altogether. Notwithstanding all these challenges, it would seem
that the answer to Mr. Rabi Sankar's speech title, 'Central Bank Digital Currency - Is This the Future of Money',
is a yes.
16. What was RBI's intention behind launching pilot projects?
(a) To check the viability of currency in digital form.
(b) To gain the trust of customers.
(c) To check the security risks associated with it.
(d) To check the response of potential customers.
17. Which of the following bills has to be introduced to give clarity on the perspective of digital currency?
(a) Cryptocurrency and Regulation of Official Digital Capitalisation Bill, 2021.
(b) Cryptocurrency and Regulation of Official Digital Currency Bill, 2022.
(c) Cryptocurrency and Regulation of Official Digital Currency Bill, 2021.
(d) Currency and Regulation of Official Digital Currency Bill, 2021.
18. Which of the following was found in the BIS survey of Central banks?
I. 86% of Central Banks were actively researching for the potential of digital currency.
II. 14% of Central Banks were deploying the pilot projects for digital currency.
III. 60% of Central Banks have already issued the digital currency.
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and III (d) Only I
19. Which of the following words can replace the given word- spooked without changing the meaning of the
sentence.
(a) Soothed (b) Startled (c) Frightened (d) Apprehensive
20. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the passage?

I. Digital currency are being used in all the developed countries.
II. The digital payments have grown at a compounded annual growth rate of 55% in the last 5 years.
III. Crucial decisions are required around the degree of anonymity of digital currency.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III (d) II and III
21. What is the strategy of RBI to implement the digital currency?

(a) The strategy is to bring all banks together and work towards the security issues of digital currency
(b) It wants the implementation to be held in a phased manner after examining the use cases
(c) It wants participation of individuals in suggesting different measures to assist its implementation
(d) All the possible challenges should be marked clear before implementation
Passage (Q.22-Q.25): A rapid, technology-driven transformation is taking place within the global economy.
India and China are playing decisive roles in this transformation as emerging advanced technology superstates.
China is five to ten years ahead of India in most respects, but India is ahead in a few areas and is closing the gap
in others. Chinese exports are far larger for manufactures, while India has the lead for business services. There
is growing competition for foreign direct investment featuring large R&D components. Indian multinational
companies, especially when including outward foreign direct investment, are ahead of Chinese companies not
only for business services, but in the pharmaceutical, automotive and steel sectors as well. The likely courses
over the coming two to five years is that it is highly likely that India will continue its 8% to 10% annual growth,
while China is equally likely to experience a "hard landing" adjustment from excessively export-oriented to more
domestically-oriented growth, including slower growth for at least a couple of years.
Both nations face obstacles to continued high growth, but India is on a more balanced growth path, with growing
momentum from private sector investment, including for urgently needed infrastructure. China has had higher,
10% to 11% growth, but half or more of the growth has been accounted for by increased exports of manufactures
and related investment. External and internal pressures to shift toward more domestically-oriented growth,
including through a major revaluation of the yuan, are building, but the restructuring faces formidable obstacles.
The US needs a forceful and comprehensive policy response to this rapid rise of China and India to advanced
technology superstate status. In the short to medium term, economic policy issues will dominate, while over the
longer-term, foreign policy and national security issues will become more important.
22. Which of the followings can be inferred from the lines in the passage, ‘while China is equally likely to experience
a "hard landing" adjustment from excessively export-oriented to more domestically-oriented growth, including
slower growth for at least a couple of years.’?
(a) China will become a more advanced country than any other country in the world, in near future.
(b) China is embracing an undesirably rapid decline in economic growth in the coming years.
(c) China is turning to become a more domestically driven economy rather than export-oriented economy
(d) China will import more than it exports in the coming years.
23. Which of the followings is/are not among the sectors wherein India is ahead of China?
(i) Steel sector.
(ii) Automotive.
(iii) Pharmaceutical.
(iv) Services sectors.
(v) Manufacturing export products.
(a) All, except (v) (b) Only (iv) and (v)
(c) All, except (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) Only (v)
24. Why India is on a balanced growth path compared to China?

(i) India’s impetus is from the growing private sector investment, and a focus on its investments in
infrastructure; whereas, China's growth largely depends on exports of manufactures.
(ii) India's annual growth rate will continue at 8% to 10%; whereas, China's growth rate 10% to 11% likely to
decline.
(iii) A major revaluation of the yuan will lead to downfall of China's economic growth, but Indian currency value
will remain the same.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii) (c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) All (i), (ii), and (iii)
25. Which of the following sentence(s) has/have "respects" used in the same context as used in the passage?
(i) Throughout life, we rely on small groups of people for love, admiration, respect, moral support, and help.
(ii) Religious respects and admiration for the priest led many of the parishioners to ignore the bad things he did.
(iii) In many respects, the conditions proposed by the Bush Administration are similar to those proposed by the
Carter Administration.
(a) Only (i) (b) Only (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) All (i), (ii), and (iii)
Passage (Q.26-Q.30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given after the passage.
Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
In India, the University Grants Commission, UGC, has been the regulatory body responsible for maintaining
standards in higher education, while addressing challenges of globalisation. Processes of UGC mandated
“standardisation” have in particular impacted social sciences and humanities research in Indian universities. Over
the years, UGC has linked institutional funding to ranking and accreditation systems like NAAC and NIRF. In
order to evaluate institutions, these bodies have evolved “objective” criteria, which rank universities based on
faculty research measured by citations in global journal databases like SCOPUS. Even for faculty promotions
and eligibility for research supervision, it is articles published in such databases that are considered valid. In
comparison, importance granted to research outputs like books or other forms is declining.
The insistence of publication in journals fails to distinguish between the varied trajectory of disciplines. It is
more of an imposition of STEM (science, technology, engineering and management) criteria on social sciences
and humanities. While in STEM disciplines, research is often highly objective and quantified, and conclusions
can be published more easily as reports, short studies or articles, in social sciences and humanities research is
subjective, analytical and argumentative. Within social sciences, too, there are some disciplines like economics
where research methods can possibly be more empirical and quantitative. On the other hand, in disciplines like
history, sociology, politics, philosophy, psychology and literature, researchers spend years writing books that
engage with ideas in complex ways. The same is always not possible in a series of articles published over years.
In devaluing books as authentic forms of research, UGC does major disservice to doyens of social sciences and
humanities whose globally acclaimed books have contributed significantly to knowledge building.
Tyranny of “peer review” is another phenomenon that haunts scholars. Since continuous production and
publication has become necessary for professional growth, teachers spend most of their productive time writing
articles and getting them published, thereby missing out on quality engagement with pedagogy and research.
This has led to a surfeit of articles on any possible subject competing with each other for citations. Moreover,
with long review processes associated with journal articles, it is not really as efficient a measure of research
output as is claimed.
While professional growth in universities bases itself on quantified indices, the process of peer review itself is
subjective, and depends upon the knowledge, inclination and availability of time of the particular reviewer. It is
not unheard of getting two opposite reviews for the same article, sometimes even expecting an author to revise
the entire argument that she may be making. Researchers in interdisciplinary areas face even greater challenges
as their reviewers might come from conventional fields.
26. Which of the following reflects the central idea of the passage?
(a) An imposition of STEM criteria by UGC on social sciences and humanities is unjustified, as in STEM
disciplines, research is often highly objective and quantified, and conclusions can be published more easily
as reports, short studies or articles, in social sciences and humanities research is subjective, analytical and
argumentative.
(b) Precise point-based measurements currently applied to measure knowledge production appear to be
misplaced in knowledge ecosystems of the global south.
(c) Parameters measuring industrial productivity, help in assessing the relevance of knowledge created and
disseminated in any societal context, including those with an industrial culture like in Europe and America,
remains unanswered.
(d) Control and governance of knowledge in academia are often not compatible with the educational systems,
especially the UGC mandated “standardisation” in social sciences and humanities research in Indian
universities.
27. What can be inferred from the phrase ‘peer review’?

(a) Peer review is an evaluation of scientific, academic or professional work by others working in the same field.
(b) Peer review is a biased evaluation scientific, academic or professional work by others working in the same
field.
(c) Peer review is what the researchers spend most of their productive time; in writing articles and getting them
published, thereby missing out on quality engagement with pedagogy and research.
(d) Peer review is an evaluation of the articles, journals, academic researches by the students under a professor
from the same field.
28. Why does the author use the word ‘tyranny’ with respect to peer review?
(a) Because of it being a criterion for appraisal of an academician’s progression.
(b) Because it compels the professors to deviate from their purpose.
(c) Because of the inherent feature of the word, peer review.
(d) Because of the despotic approach by the UGC.
29. Which of the following is the best title of the passage?
(a) Indian higher education requires reforms.
(b) Indian higher education is down in the dumps.
(c) UGC: a failed regulatory body.
(d) Peer review.
30. Based on the contents of the passage, the author is

(a) A journalist (b) A reporter
(c) An academician (d) An education minister
SECTION-B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.31–Q.65): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.
Passage (Q.31-Q.35): The world faces unavoidable multiple climate hazards over the next two decades with
global warming of [1] and even temporarily exceeding this warming level would mean additional, severe
impacts, some of which will be irreversible, according to a report by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) that was made public on Monday.
The report, which was to have released last September but was delayed due to the pandemic, builds on previous
assessments by the IPCC by increasing the certainty of a plethora of climate-linked disasters.
“This report is a dire warning about the consequences of inaction,” said Hoesung Lee, Chair of the IPCC. “It
shows that climate change is a grave and mounting threat to our wellbeing and a healthy planet. Our actions
today will shape how people adapt and nature responds to increasing climate risks.”
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/ipcc-report-warns-of-unavoidable-multiple-climate-
hazards/article65092570.ece
31. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about IPCC?

(a) It was set up in 1988.
(b) It was established by the United Nations Framework Convention for Climate Change.
(c) IPCC assessments provide a scientific basis for governments at all levels to develop climate related policies.
(d) The Assessment Reports is made by three working groups of scientists.
32. The first IPCC assessment report was published in which of the following years?
(a) 1990 (b) 1995 (c) 2004 (d) 2008
33. Paris agreement was based on which of the following IPCC Report?
(a) 1st Assessment report (b) 2nd Assessment report
(c) 3rd Assessment report (d) 5th Assessment report
34. Which of the following will replace [1] in the above passage?
(a) 0.5°C (b) 1.0°C (c) 1.5°C (d) 2.0°C
35. Which of the following is one of the findings of the current IPCC report?
(a) Warming ocean temperature is causing frequent and severe coral bleaching.
(b) The report identifies India as one of the vulnerable hotspots.
(c) The latest report warns that multiple disasters induced by climate change are likely to emerge in different
parts of the world in the next two decades.
(d) All of the above
Passage (Q.36-Q.40): India has improved its overall IP score from 38.4 per cent to [1] per cent, and the country
is ranked [2] out of 55 countries on the International Intellectual Property Index, according to an annual report
compiled by the influential US Chambers of Commerce on Thursday.
India's overall score has increased from 38.40 percent in the ninth edition to [1] percent in the 10th edition. This
reflects a score increase on indicator 32, said the report Global Innovation Policy Center of the US Chambers of
Commerce.
In July 2021, the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Commerce released a Review of the Intellectual Property
Rights Regime in India. This review is a welcome development and offers a comprehensive and detailed study
of the strengths and weaknesses of India's national IP environment, the report said.
(a) 38.64 (b) 38.74 (c) 38.84 (d) 38.94
(a) 36 (b) 40 (c) 42 (d) 43
38. Which of the following is TRUE about the Global Innovation Policy Center of the US Chambers of Commerce?
(a) It is the world’s largest business federation.
(b) The group was founded in April 1912.
(c) It was formed at the urging of President William Howard Taft and his Secretary of Commerce and Labour
Charles Nagel.
39. Which State of India topped the NITI Aayog’s Innovation Index 2020?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Karnataka (d) Kerala
40. Which of the following is India’s rank in the Global Innovation Index, 2021?
(a) 42nd (b) 43rd (c) 44th (d) 46th
Passage (Q.41-Q.45): [1] is set to implement an international convention on naval passage through two of its
strategic straits, which would allow them to limit the movement of Russian warships between the Mediterranean
Sea and the Black Sea.
Mevlut Cavusoglu, [1] foreign minister said on Sunday that the situation in Ukraine had become a war, a
declaration that authorises Ankara to activate the Montreux Convention and ban Russian war vessels from
entering the Black Sea through the Bosporus and Dardanelles straits.
“In the beginning, it was a Russian attack,” Cavusoglu said in an interview with broadcaster CNN [1].” Now it
has turned into a war.”
“[1] will implement all provisions of Montreux Convention in a transparent manner,” he added.
(a) Turkey (b) Egypt (c) Germany (d) France
42. When was Montreux Convention signed?

(a) 1936 (b) 1940 (c) 1971 (d) 1981
43. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Montreux Agreement?
(a) The international agreement was signed by Australia, Bulgaria, France, Greece, Japan, Romania, Yugoslavia,
the United Kingdom, the Soviet Union and Turkey.
(b) In the event of a war, the pact gives [1] the right to regulate the transit of naval warships.
(c) Any country with coastline on the Black Sea – Romania, Bulgaria, Georgia, Russia or Ukraine – must notify
[1] eight days in advance of its intention to send vessels of war through the straits.
(d) None of the above
44. [1] in the above passage became a member of NATO in which of the following years?
(a) 1949 (b) 1952 (c) 1955 (d) 1960
45. The United Nations General Assembly resolution on Russia was discussed under which of the following rubric?
(a) Uniting for Peace (b) Peace for all
(c) Together for Peace (d) Peace Out
Passage (Q.46-Q.50): India has figured in the top 10 autocratising countries of the world along with El Salvador,
Turkey and Hungary, with projections ominously indicating that there will be a further decline in democracy in
the country, according to the latest report of the [1] on the state of democracy globally.
After being classified as ‘electoral autocracy’ in the last year’s report, India continues to hold on to its dubious
honour even in this year’s report. Consequently, India finds itself in the category of the bottom 40% to 50% of
countries. Much of the slide in India’s democratic credentials has occurred in the years following the rise and
consolidation of power by the BJP and Prime Minister Narendra Modi, after 2014.
Titled Democracy Report 2022: Autocratisation Changing Nature, the Swedish institute’s report notes that a new
wave of democratisation is being seen in 15 countries while 32 countries reel under autocrasation. The countries
are categorised based on V-Dem’s liberal democracy index (LDI), which captures both electoral and liberal
aspects of democracy and goes from the lowest (0) to the highest (1) levels of democracy.
(a) V-Dem Institute (b) Freedom House
(c) Reporters without Border (d) Amnesty International
47. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the report?
(a) The level of democracy enjoyed by the average global citizen in 2021 is down to 1989 levels.
(b) The study states that more than twice as many countries are undergoing autocratisation as are witnessing
democratisation.
(c) India is one of the top ten ‘electoral democracies’ in the world.
(d) The report classifies countries into four regime types based on their score in the Liberal Democratic Index.
48. Which of the following countries has topped the index?
(a) New Zealand (b) Sweden (c) Norway (d) Finland
49. What is India’s rank in the Liberal Democracy index?
(a) 84th (b) 93rd (c) 100th (d) 102nd
50. Which of the following is TRUE about the findings of the report?
(a) Electoral democracies remains the most common regime type, accounting for 60 countries and 44% of the
world population or 3.4 billion people.
(b) Electoral autocracy were the second most common regime, accounting for 55 countries and 16% of the world
population.
(c) The world today has 89 democracies and 90 autocracies.
Passage (Q.51-Q.55): India and Pakistan have discussed the exchange of hydrological and flood data at a
meeting of the Permanent Indus Commission during which the Indian side underscored that all its projects are
fully compliant with the provisions of the Indus Waters Treaty.
During the 117th meeting of the Permanent Indus Commission comprising Indus commissioners of India and
Pakistan, held from March 1-3 in Islamabad, both sides discussed the issue of the Fazilka drain, and Pakistan
assured that all necessary action will continue to be taken to ensure the free flow of Fazilka drain into the river
Sutlej, the Ministry of External Affairs said in a statement.
The Indian delegation was led by [1], the Indian Commissioner for Indus Waters. This was also the first that the
three women members were part of the Indian delegation.
(a) P.K. Saxena (b) N.M. Mishra (c) R.K Singh (d) P.K. Yadav
52. Indus Water Treaty was mediated by who among the following?
(a) World Bank (b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations (d) United States
53. The Indus Water Treaty was Signed by who among the following from Pakistan?
(a) Mohammad Ayub Khan (b) Yahya Khan
(c) Muhammad Zia-ul-Haq (d) Wasim Sajjad
54. Water of which rivers are exclusively awarded to India under the Treaty?
(a) Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab (b) Ravi, Sutlej and Beas
(c) Indus, Ravi and Beas (d) Jhelum, Chenab and Ravi
55. India is allowed to use how much water of the western rivers for irrigation, power generation and transport
purposes?
(a) 12% (b) 18% (c) 20% (d) 22%
Passage (Q.56-Q.60): The Department of Biotechnology has launched a One Health consortium that envisages
carrying out surveillance of important bacterial, viral and parasitic infections of zoonotic as well as
transboundary pathogens in the country.
The project also looks into the use of existing diagnostic tests and the development of additional methodologies
for the surveillance and understanding the spread of emerging diseases, the DBT said in a statement.
Dr Renu Swarup, Secretary, Department of Biotechnology, launched the First ‘One Health’ project of the DBT
through video conferencing on Thursday.
The consortium envisages carrying out surveillance of important bacterial, viral and parasitic infections of
zoonotic as well as transboundary pathogens.
56. The Consortium mentioned in the above passage consists of how many organisations?
(a) 22 (b) 27 (c) 29 (d) 32
57. Department of Biotechnology comes under which Ministry?
(a) Ministry of Health and family welfare
(b) Ministry of Science and Technology
(c) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(d) Ministry of Women and Child Development
58. Which of the following is Correct about the concept of One Health?
(a) One Health is an approach that recognizes that the health of people is closely connected to the health of
animals and our shared environment.
(b) One Health’ vision derives its blueprint from the agreement between the tripartite- plus alliance comprising
the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), the World Organisation for Animal
Health (OIE).
(c) Its purpose is to encourage collaborations in research and sharing of knowledge at multiple levels across
various disciplines.
59. Universal Health Coverage is mentioned under which of the following Sustainable Development Goals?
(a) SDG 2 (b) SDG 3 (c) SDG 4 (d) SDG 6
60. Who is the minister of State for Science and Technology?

(a) C. Subramaniyam (b) Y.S Chaudhry (c) Prithviraj Chavan (d) Jitendra Singh
Passage (Q.61-Q.65): Andhra Pradesh, which is performing well on most indicators considered for
Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) such as housing, electricity, cooking fuel, school attendance and bank
accounts, still lags behind in several key areas like access to drinking water, years of schooling, sanitation, child
adolescent mortality and nutrition.
The findings are part of the baseline report of MPI released by [1] in November 2021.
MPI is a measure which explores poverty beyond income deprivations and is a tool for policymakers working
for the Sustainable Development Goals, 2020 agenda. NITI Aayog released the baseline report of MPI and the
report presented the status of headcount ratios, intensity of poverty, and MPI value of India and all the States
and Union Territories (UTs).
(a) NITI Aayog (b) Ministry of Urban Planning
(c) Ministry of Finance (d) None of the above
62. According to the report which of the following State is Multidimensionally Poorest?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Jharkhand (d) Bihar
63. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Index?

(a) Kerala registered the lowest population poverty levels.
(b) The National Multidimensional Poverty Index has three equally weighted dimensions – health, education,
and standard of living.
(c) These three dimensions are represented by 12 indicators such as nutrition, school attendance, years of
schooling, drinking water, sanitation, housing, bank accounts among others.
(d) These indicators are in sharp contrast to the indicators used by the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index
2021.
64. Which of the following published the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index 2021?
(a) Oxford Poverty (b) Human Development Initiative
(c) United Nations Development Programme (d) All of the above
65. Which of the following is NOT true about the Global Multi-dimensional Poverty Index 2021?
(a) The Multidimensional Poverty Index was launched in the year 2014.
(b) According to Global MPI 2021, India’s rank is 66 out of 109 countries.
(c) The study finds that on average, poverty levels will be set back 3 to 10 years due to Covid-19.
(d) The data of the index is based on the study of poverty trends in 75 countries.
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.66 – Q.105): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions based on it.
Passage(Q.66-Q.70): The Supreme Court on Thursday dismissed the appeal filed by Loop Telecom and Trading
Limited assailing the decision of TDSAT of dismissing their pleas seeking refund of Entry Fee of Rs 1454.94
crores paid for grant of Unified Access Service Licenses.
The bench of Justices DY Chandrachud, Surya Kant and Vikram Nath observed that Loop Telecom was in pari
delicto with the Department of Telecom and the then officials of the Union government and that they were
beneficiary of the ―First Come First Serve policy which was intended to favour a group of private bidding
entities at the cost of the public exchequer.
On 2 February 2012, the Supreme Court Court by its judgment in Centre for Public Interest Litigation v. Union
of India declared that the policy of the Union government for allocation of 2G spectrum on a ―First Come First
Serve basis was illegal. The judgement resulted in quashing of the UASL's granted by the Union.
Referring to Section 65 of Indian Contract Act, 1872 court observed that in adjudicating a claim of restitution,
the court must determine the illegality which caused the contract to become void and the role the party claiming
restitution has played in it. If the party claiming restitution was equally or more responsible for the illegality (in
comparison to the defendant), there shall be no cause for restitution. (Para 52)
Indian Contract Act, 1872 - Section 56 - Doctrine of Frustration discussed - The applicability of Section 56 of
the Indian Contract Act is not limited to cases of physical impossibility. The doctrine of frustration states that
frustration occurs when an unforeseen event renders performance of a contract impossible or radically different
from that originally contemplated by the parties. No party is considered at fault.
If a contract is found to be frustrated, it is automatically terminated. All future obligations of the parties to the
contract are discharged.
(Source: Case: Loop Telecom and Trading Limited vs Union of India | CA 1447-1467 of 2016 | 3 March 2022
Citation: 2022 LiveLaw (SC) 238)
66. The passage in Para 2 gives reference to an observation made by the court in the present case. It was observed
that Loop Telecom was in pari delicto with the Department of Telecom. What is meant by the expression “in
pari delicto”?
(a) A contract by which one party promises the other party to save from loss which may be caused either by the
conduct of the promissor or by the conduct of any other person.
(b) Both the parties being equally or more responsible for making the contract frustrated.
(c) Loop telecom was equally responsible for the illegality.
(d) Both parties were equally responsible for the illegalities.
67. Shyamlal used to deliver freshly baked bread throughout the province of Hogwarts. He used to pay octroi, a tax
levied by the municipality to enter their territory, at the entry. Shyamlal used to pay the entry tax every time he
entered the province for which receipt is given, until he discovered that municipalities were illegally charging
shyamlal. Octroi is collected only when a person enters the province with goods. Shyamlal files a claim for
monetary reparation. Decide
(a) Shyamlal will succeed as he was illegally charged extra tax.
(b) Shyamlal will succeed as in the present case the party claiming restitution was not responsible for the
illegality.
(c) Shyamlal will not succeed as he was in pari dalicto with the municipality.
(d) Shyamlal will not succeed as he has no contract with the municipality.
68. Continuing with the same scenario as above, what if Shyamlal used to bribe the municipality for not examining
his items on specific occasions under the guise of tax? Can Shyamlal later allege that he was wrongfully charged
an additional tax every time he enters the province?
(a) No, he cannot claim so as he was in pari dalicto with the municipality.
(b) Yes, he can because he was charged an additional tax for entering the province.
(c) No, he cannot claim that he was charged extra because he bribed the authorities under the pretence of tax.
(d) No, he cannot be charged extra because it is against the law.
69. CodeALFA had agreed to construct tunnels for the rail authority on the premise that works be done 24 hours a
day, seven days a week in order to complete the work on schedule. Residents' noise complaints resulted in an
injunction from court that limited labour hours. The rail authority refused to pay the increased fees, claiming that
CodeALFA had not followed the terms of the contract. Decide
(a) The contract stands frustrated as the contract became impossible to perform.
(b) The contract do not stands frustrated as it is not limited to the cases of physical impossibility.
(c) The contract stands frustrated because of a foreseen event.
(d) The contract does not stand frustrated merely because one party is not able to perform the contract.
70. Simran used trivago app to purchase an "All in one travel and seating package" in order to attend a BTS concert
organized by trivago. This allows her to a one-day return train ticket from Bhopal to Delhi, as well as a front-
row seat to the concert. Unfortunately, the event was cancelled due to the rise of a warlike situation between
India and China. Simran claims that her contract with trivago was frustrated. Which of the following assertions
is more likely to be adopted by the court in determining the legal position between Simran and Trivago?
(a) The contract has been frustrated because the common purpose of both parties has been destroyed.
(b) The contract has been frustrated on grounds of common mistake.
(c) Warlike situation terminates the contract and no party is considered at fault.
(d) The contract is not frustrated as Simran can still travel to Delhi.
Passage(Q.71-Q.76): The Supreme Court observed that interest on compensation under the Workmen's
Compensation Act 1923, shall be paid from the date of the accident and not the date of adjudication of the claim.
Ajaya Kumar Das was working as a labourer. Due to an accident, he suffered multiple injuries in his abdomen
and kidney.
A claim for compensation was lodged before the Workmen compensation-cum Assistant Labour Commissioner,
Odisha. Allowing his claim, the Commissioner directed that a compensation of Rs 2, 78,926 must be paid
together with interest at the rate of 12 per cent per annum on the principal sum awarded from the date of accident
till the deposit. Though the High Court refused to interfere with the compensation amount, it held that Das is not
entitled to any other interest on the compensation awarded except the accrued interest.
In appeal, the bench comprising Justices DY Chandrachud and Dinesh Maheshwari noted that Section 4A of
the Workmen's Compensation Act stipulates that the Commissioner shall direct the employer to pay interest of
12% or at a higher rate, not exceeding the lending rates of any scheduled banks specified, if the employer does
not pay the compensation within one month from the date it fell due shall be recovered from the employer by
way of penalty.
“This Court emphasises that the applicant is entitled to interest from the date of accident while rejecting the
submission that the award of interest should be after the expiry of 30 days from the date of accident. Thus, there
was no legal basis for the High Court to delete the order of payment of interest.” the bench observed.
Source: https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/supreme-court-workmen-compensation-act-interest-date-of-
accident-190772
71. Suraj Industries was being sued by its waged workers for denying one of their member’s fair compensation on
getting injured while performing his workerly duties. The court ventured into the question of whether there was
a claim payable in the present case, as the employment status of the waged worker was disputed by the company
as being not contractual, thereby, excluded from the ambit of the law above. How shall the court rule?
(a) The company is correct as the worker is not a contractual employee.
(b) The company is not correct as the worker, contractual or not, deserves compensation.
(c) The workers would be held as correct, since the term worker includes all sorts of workers.
(d) Not discernible as not provided in the principle above.
72. In the above question, if the court discernibly decided that the worker was supposed to receive compensation for
the injury caused to him, the date of compensation to be paid from was to be adjudicated. How shall the court
rule?
(a) Compensation is payable from the date of the medical expenses incurred by the injured party.
(b) Compensation is payable from the date of detection of injury by the company.
(c) Compensation is payable from the date of the incident and the injury taking place.
(d) Not discernible as no law to the same effect has been provided above.
73. While granting interest to an aggrieved employee in a dairy produce factory, the court had instructed the
employer, who had allowed other medical benefits of his employees, to also pay 11.75% interest to his employee
upon the adjudicated claim. Was the court right in doing so?
(a) Yes, as the passage specifies the compound interest limit as 12% to be payable here.
(b) No, as the rate of interest provided above has been incorrectly mentioned.
(c) Yes, as the worker has been treated fairly, otherwise through benefits and amenities.
(d) No, as the employer has been unfairly demanded an exorbitant rate to be payable.
74. In the above case, had the claim been adjudicated the same day as on which the injury occurred, and the interest
thereupon was offered by the employer as 11.5%, which was disbursed by him the same day as well, would the
situation of interest herein be correctly conducted?
(a) Yes, as there was no delay and hence the interest was aptly paid.
(b) No, as the interest should have been paid at 12%.
(c) No, as the interest should have been paid upwards of 12%.
(d) Yes, as the claim was adjudicated and paid quickly, leading to the employee receiving quick relief.
75. Barjatya Industries was being sued by its workers for having risked their lives while making them work during
the pandemic, which also led to three workers asthmic for a period of 4 months, and was now before the Supreme
Court. Therein the Supreme Court had ordered a compensation of 12 lakhs to be given to each person, and 15
lakhs to the severely affected. Moreover, as the claim was due on March 1 st, and was not paid by April 1st, the
interest accrued thereupon had been held to be 12% as well. Can the court direct the company to make such
payment?
(a) No, as the interest accrued thereupon has not become payable yet.
(b) Yes, as the court has ordered fair and just compensation in this case.
(c) No, as the compensation paid herein is unfair as it is too exorbitant for the current scenario.
(d) Yes, as the SC has complete discretion in ordering the compensation that it has deemed fair.
76. In the above case, the court had decided the amount to be compensated on March 1, 2022 and the payment was
scheduled to be made on 30 March 2022, however, the injury herein took place on January 1, 2022 and the
amount was disputed by the company on March 3 2022. Compute the date from when the interest should be
payable.
(a) The interest is payable from March 1, as the amount payable was not known before that.
(b) The interest is payable from January 1, since the injury occurred then.
(c) The interest is payable from March 30, since the payment is to be made then.
(d) The interest is payable from March 3, as the amount was still under contention then.
Passage(Q.77-Q.80): Merely granting protection for long time would not be a ground to extend the benefit of
anticipatory bail to the accused, when the applicant is otherwise disentitled for anticipatory bail", the Gujarat
High Court has held.
Justice Ilesh J. Vora was hearing an application under Section 438 of CrPC seeking pre-arrest bail in connection
with an FIR for offences under Sections 307, 397, 452, 324, 323, 143, 147, 148, 504 and 506(2) of IPC.
The Applicant moved an anticipatory bail which was rejected by the Sessions Court stating that the alleged
offence was prima facie serious and that custodial investigation was necessary.
Noting the Supreme Court's opinion in P Chidambaram vs Directorate of Enforcement [2019 (9) SCC 24]
wherein it was observed, "Ordinarily, arrest is a part of procedure of investigation to secure not only the presence
of the accused, but several other purposes. Power under Section 438 is an extraordinary power and same has to
be exercised sparingly. The privilege of pre-arrest bail should be granted only in exceptional cases. The judicial
discretion conferred upon the Court has to be properly exercised after application of mind as to the nature and
gravity of accusation; possibility of fleeing from justice and other factors to decide whether it is a fit case for
grant of anticipatory bail or not", the Bench refused to grant anticipatory bail to the Applicant.
(SOURCE: Case Title: HIRENBHAI HITESHBHAI PATEL Versus STATE OF GUJARAT : Citation: 2022
LiveLaw (Guj) 49)
77. The Applicant has requested anticipatory bail. Applicant and seven others, armed with a washbasin pipe and a
metal bolt, allegedly assaulted the victim Anand, causing severe head injuries and stealing approximately INR
30,000 in cash. When the first informant attempted to intervene, the Applicant threatened them with dire
consequences if they filed a FIR. The entire incident was recorded on CCTV. Decide
(a) The applicant will be granted anticipatory bail by the trial court because all accused have the right to seek
pre-arrest bail under section 438 of the CrPC.
(b) The applicant will not be granted anticipatory bail because pre-arrest bail should be granted only in
exceptional circumstances.
(c) At the discretion of the court, the applicant will be granted anticipatory bail.
(d) Applicant will not be granted bail as the alleged offence was prima facie serious.
78. Assume, in the same facts as above, that the applicant is a serial offender of petty crimes and thus remains under
the constant surveillance of law and order. Can the applicant use this as a basis for grant of anticipatory bail?
(a) Yes, because he is being surveilled, the applicant has no chance of evading justice.
(b) No, as remaining under a constant surveillance would not be a ground to extend the benefit of anticipatory
bail to the accused.
(c) Yes, it is plausible if the applicant is otherwise eligible for anticipatory bail.
(d) Cannot be determined because the facts do not provide complete information.
79. Choose a statement do not illustrate an anomaly of the context of the passage:
I. The very purpose for the provisions relating to anticipatory bail is to ensure that no person is confined in any
way until and unless held guilty.
II. Protection for long time would be a ground to extend the benefit of anticipatory bail to the accused, when
the applicant is entitled for anticipatory bail.
III. Section 438 confers discretionary and sparing powers on the court to grant an order of anticipatory bail.
IV. If the offence alleged is of serious nature, the personal liberty granted to the accused in for of an anticipatory
bail will be cancelled.
(a) I & II (b) II & IV (c) I, II &IV (d) III
80. Madhu was forced to marry Anuj against her will. However, after the marriage, she confronted Anuj and her in
laws, stating that if she was forced to do anything against her wishes, she would file a FIR for domestic violence
and assault. Madhu arrived home late one day, which drew the attention of all the residents of the society. They
began to talk negatively about Madhu. In retaliatory action, Madhu filed a false domestic violence case against
her husband and in-laws, while feigning burns and bruises. Decide
(a) The husband and in-laws can apply for anticipatory bail.
(b) When in case of domestic violence a FIR is filed, a woman is presumed to be a victim; therefore, in such
cases, arrest is part of the investigation procedure to secure not only the presence of the accused, but also
several other purposes.
(c) Because Madhu filed a completely bogus FIR, the Court's judicial discretion must be properly exercised after
considering the nature and gravity of the accusation.
(d) The grant of anticipatory bail will be based on whether or not the case qualifies for the grant of anticipatory
bail.
Passage(Q.81-Q.85): The Supreme Court observed that the jurisdiction of a Court under the Contempt of Courts
Act would not cease, merely because the order or decree of which contempt is alleged, is executable.
The court added that, irrespective of whether or not a decree is executable, the question to be considered in
determining whether a case for contempt has been made out is, whether, the conduct of the contemnor is such as
would make a fit case for awarding punishment for contempt of Court.
In this regard, the court observed thus:
"Further, it is trite law that the jurisdiction of a Court under the Act, would not cease, merely because the order
or decree of which contempt is alleged, is executable under law, even without having recourse to contempt
proceedings. Contempt jurisdiction could be invoked in every case where the conduct of a contemnor is such as
would interfere with the due course of justice; vide Rama Narang vs. Ramesh Narang – [(2006) 11 SCC 114.
Contempt is a matter which is between the Court passing the order of which contempt is alleged and the
contemnor thus provision of appeal will not be applicable in this regard ; questions as to executability of such
order is a question which concerns the parties inter-se. The power of the Court to invoke contempt jurisdiction,
is not, in any way, altered by the rights of the parties inter-se vide Bank of Baroda vs. Sadruddin Hasan Daya –
[(2004) 1 SCC 360]."
The court observed that when a party which is required to comply with the terms or directions in an order has
not done so within such time as stipulated in the order, two options are available to the party which was required
to comply with such order:
(a) give an explanation to the Court as to the circumstances due to which the party could not comply with the
order of the Court;
(b) seek for further time to comply with the order of the Court.
[Source: Live Law, “Contempt Jurisdiction Would Not Cease Merely Because Order is Executable: Supreme
Court”]
81. Mr. Chaman is a renowned Businessman and owns a huge factory. A case before the Labour Court was filed by
his workmen for deducting salary due to COVID Lockdown. The Labour Court passed interim order directing
Mr. Chaman to return the deducted salary while the matter is pending for final order. However, Mr. Chaman did
not pay the salary and rather filed an Appeal before the High Court. High Court decided in favor of Mr. Chaman,
However, before High Court decided in his favour, the Labour Court held that Mr. Chaman has committed
contempt by not complying with its order. Decide.
(a) Mr. Chaman was not liable for contempt as the order of Labor court was ultimately reversed by High Court
(b) Mr. Chaman will be liable for contempt irrespective of whether or not the High Court set aside the order of
labor court
(c) Mr. Chaman will not be liable for contempt as the non-compliance was not deliberate.
(d) Can’t say as the facts are not complete to decide if the reason for non-compliance was satisfactory or not.
82. Neha and Reema are colleagues. However, one day there was a huge fight between the two which led to physical
altercations between them. In this altercation, Reema was suffered minor injuries and a case of hurt was filed
against Neha. The Court advised the parties to settle the matter outside the court. However when Neha and
Reema failed to settle the matter, the Court invoked its contempt jurisdiction to punish both Neha and Reema.
Decide
(a) Neha and Reema will be liable for contempt since they failed to comply with Court’s order
(b) Neha and Reema will not be liable for contempt as the directions of the Court were mere advisory in nature
and hence not binding.
(c) Neha and Reema will be liable for contempt even when the directions of the court were advisory in nature.
(d) Neha and Reema will not be liable for contempt as whether or not to settle the matter is the discretion of
parties.
83. In the matter Anil Goel versus Income Tax Dept, The Income Tax Tribunal had directed the Income Tax
Department to refund a sum of INR 4 Lakhs to Mr. Goel within a period of 7 days. However, when the Income
Tax Dept. failed to refund the money, a case of contempt was filed by Mr. Goel against the Income Tax Dept.
In the contempt case, the court was satisfied with the reasoning given by the Dept. regarding delay caused in
refunding the money and hence the contempt case was dismissed. Aggrieved by this order, Mr. Goel filed an
Appeal. Decide if the Appeal is maintainable in light of the passage?
(a) The appeal is not maintainable as the contempt proceedings does not involve any third party
(b) The appeal is maintainable because any person aggrieved by any court’s order can file an appeal
(c) The appeal is not maintainable as the contempt proceedings are a matter between the Court and Contemnor
(d) This question can’t be answered since the reason for non-compliance is not provided.
84. In light of your understanding of the passage above, pick the incorrect statement
(a) Power to punish for contempt is an inherent power of every court in the country.
(b) A person faces contempt proceedings only on deliberate failure to comply with Court’s order.
(c) If the Court is satisfied that there is a satisfactory reason for not complying with the order, the court may
drop contempt proceedings.
(d) Power to punish for contempt is a responsibility as well as discretion of the Court.
85. Harish and Radhe are business partners and have been working together for about 20 years now. However, owing
to current financial crisis, there arose some disputes between the two and ultimately the matter reached the Court.
After listening to both parties, the Court directed Harish to pay a sum of INR 2 lakhs to Radhe. However, instead
of paying the sum, both parties settled the matter at INR 50,000. Will such act amount to contempt of the court?
(a) Both Harish and Radhe shall be liable for contempt as there was clear violation of the Court’s direction
(b) Only Harish will be liable for contempt as he violated the court’s direction
(c) None shall be liable for contempt as parties settled the matter and no Court has the jurisdiction to interfere
in a matter which is settled between the parties inter se.
(d) Only Radhe shall be liable for contempt as he should not have interfered with due course of justice by settling
the matter with Harish.
Passage(Q.86-Q.90): Justice Robert H Jackson of the United States Supreme Court, in Brown v. Allen (1953),
famously quipped,
"We are not final because we are infallible, but we are infallible only because we are final."
A slight variation of Justice Jackson's words has emerged in India for Supreme Court of India…. Article 137 of
the Constitution of India confers it the power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it…
It is rare for the Supreme Court to entertain and accept a review petition…. As far back as in 1940, Chief Justice
Gwyer, speaking for the Federal Court in Raja Prithwi Chand Lall Choudhry etc. v. Rai Bahadur Sukhraj Rai &
Ors had observed:
"This Court will not sit as a court of appeal from its own decisions, nor will it entertain applications to review
on the ground only that one of the parties in the case conceives himself to be aggrieved by the decision. It would
in our opinion be intolerable and most prejudicial to the public Interest if cases once decided by the Court could
be re-opened and re-heard: "There is a salutary maxim which ought to be observed by all Courts of last resort
-- Interest reipublicae ut sit finis litium…."
The Supreme Court in Kamlesh Verma v. Mayawati summarised the principles for entertaining review petitions.
(i) Discovery of new and important matter or evidence which, after the exercise of due diligence, was not within
the knowledge of the petitioner or could not be produced by him;
(ii) Mistake or error apparent on the face of the record;
(iii)Any other sufficient reason - which has been interpreted to mean a reason sufficient on grounds at least
analogous to the principles mentioned above.
[ Source- Bar and Bench, “[The Viewpoint] How final are decisions of the Supreme Court,” published on March
07, 2022 <https://www.barandbench.com/view-point/how-final-are-decisions-of-the-supreme-court> ]
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions:
86. Radha and Shyam are married since 2005. However, in the year 2015, certain issues arose between the two and
Radha filed a divorce case on the ground of cruelty. However, the case was opposed by Shyam. The lower court
granted divorce by citing that since Shyam came home drunk every night, it amounts to cruelty in marriage. The
same was approved by High Court. Ultimately, Shyam filed an Appeal before the Supreme Court. Supreme
Court refused to entertain the Appeal. Thereafter, 2 years later, Shyam found love letters belonging to Radha
and Ankit from her Almirah at his house. On the basis of these love letters, he filed a review Petition. Decide if
the Supreme Court will entertain the review petition.
(a) The Supreme Court will entertain the review petition because there is a discovery of new and important
matter or evidence.
(b) The Supreme Court will not entertain the review petition because there is no mistake or error apparent on
the face of record.
(c) The Supreme Court will not entertain the review petition because the new evidence found could have
reasonably be known with due diligence.
(d) The Supreme Court will entertain the review petition in the interest of justice.
87. According to you what should be the most appropriate meaning of “We are not final because we are infallible,
but we are infallible only because we are final”
(a) The sentence means “We are not final because we are right, we are right because we are final.”
(b) The sentence means, “we are not right because we are final, we are final because we are right.”
(c) The sentence means, “if we are right, we are final, if we are not right, we are not final.”
(d) The sentence means, “if we are final, we are right, if we are not final, we are not right.”
88. According to the passage, select the most appropriate reason as to why Courts are reluctant to entertain a review
petition.
(a) Because the Supreme Court is already burdened with a lot of cases and to avoid pendency of cases, it is
reluctant to entertain review petition.
(b) Because the Supreme Court is right and final in all cases.
(c) Because finality of decision and adjudication of rights between the parties to a matter is very important to
ensure that there is no miscarriage of justice and there is end of litigation. Hence, it is allowed only in most
exceptional circumstances.
(d) Because the State and litigants will have to incur a lot of cost to conduct review of all cases.
89. ABC ltd and XYZ Ltd. are two companies engaged in manufacturing of crackers. However, due to a govt’s
notification all production of crackers is banned with immediate effect. It was challenged by both ABC Ltd and
XYZ Ltd before the High Court. High Court refused to entertain the matter citing the reason of public health and
environment. It was challenged before the Supreme Court. However, Supreme Court after an elaborate hearing,
decided in favor of ABC Ltd and XYZ Ltd citing that the two companies were not given a chance to be heard
before the notification was announced by the Govt. Aggrieved by the decision of Supreme Court, the Parliament
decided to review the decision of Supreme Court and passed a law banning production of crackers. Based on the
passage decide if such review was correct.
(a) No, the review is not correct because there was no discovery of new and important material/evidence.
(b) No, the review is not correct because there was no mistake or error apparent on the face of record.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
90. Out of the following options, which of the options qualify to fall under the category of “Mistake or error apparent
on the face of the record”?
(a) Failing to take into consideration the evidence already in the files before the Supreme Court.
(b) Failing to consider that there might be a different opinion on the question of law, which could have been
more acceptable by the majority of public.
(c) Failing to consider the impact a decision might have on the policies of the government in power.
(d) All three above
Passage(Q.91-Q.95): Rajbir Sehrawat. J., contemplated and answered the interesting question asked in the
recruitment test on which the dispute of the petitioner revolves around.
“73. Which of the following schedule of the Constitution is immune from judicial review on the grounds
of violation of fundamental rights?
A) Seventh Schedule B) Ninth Schedule C) Tenth Schedule D) None of the above”
Petitioner sought a correct answer to the above said question asked in Recruitment Test. The petitioner answered
and claimed that ‘D’ (none of the above) is the correct answer. Whereas, respondents communicated that
according to them ‘B’ (9th Schedule) is the correct answer. It was submitted by the petitioner that on account of
wrong answer taken by the respondents; the right of the petitioner to seek public employment has been
jeopardised.
Here were two approaches taken by Court:

 Simple answer - Under Article 31-B of Constitution of India, immunity is provided to the laws included in
the ‘Ninth Schedule’ from being declared as null and void on the ground of such law being violative of
fundamental rights. On the contrary, the Supreme Court has upheld the Article 31-B and accordingly, the
laws included in Ninth Schedule; despite the same being directly violating the fundamental rights of the
citizen affected by such law. “Hence, the answer to the question asked in the above said exam has to be,
necessarily, ‘B’ (Ninth Schedule).”
 Complex answer - While answering the question the Court relied upon the judgment of Supreme Court in R.
Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu, (1999) 7 SCC 580, where it was held that, after 24.4.1973, no amendment
for adding laws to the Ninth Schedule is immune from judicial review and the test would be whether it
violates the basic feature of the Constitution. Essence of certain rights conferred by Part III was also upheld.
However, the Court observed that the complex answer did not satisfy the requirement of the question asked
in the test.
The Court while dismissing the petition did not find any substance in the argument of the petitioner to justify the
answer presented by him. It was held that, “the language of Article 31-B grants immunity to the law included in
the Ninth Schedule from being declared void on the ground of the violation of the fundamental rights; as was,
otherwise, mandated by Article 13 (2). As observed in foregoing paragraphs, Article 31-B which grants this
immunity, as such, has not been set aside by the Hon’ble Supreme Court, till today.”
Court held that article 13(2) states that no state may make laws that take away or abridge an individual's
fundamental rights. If done so then can be challenged and protected by court subject to ninth schedule while
considering other parameters. The Court opined that the question asked needed lots of explanations for being
answered correctly and does not, straightway admitted the precise answer, therefore, this question or a question
analogous thereto, if asked as a multiple choice type of question, has the potential of damaging the right of citizen
to get public employment; like the petitioner of the present case.
(Source: P&H HC | Answer to the question on ‘fundamental rights vis-a-vis judicial review’ considered as
‘National Confusion’ as different interpretation possible, scconline.com)
91. Choose a sentence(s) that present an anomaly with the language of the Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
I. Amendments added to the ninth schedule are not immune from judicial review.
II. The Ninth Schedule contains a list of laws that are not void on violation of fundamental right in court.
III. The Supreme Court has judicially reviewed laws included in the Ninth Schedule in a number of decisions,
held that they directly violate the fundamental rights of the citizens affected by such laws thus such laws are
void.
IV. The Ninth Schedule is an approved schedule, despite the fact that it violates Article 13 (2) of the Indian
Constitution.
(a) I, II and IV (b) III (c) II & III (d) III & IV
92. The government made an amendment in the disaster management act that states that in the event of a pandemic,
no one is allowed to refuse vaccinations that are being administered in the interest of public safety and preventing
the spread of deadly viruses. Some citizens claimed that it violated the fundamental right to health, which is
enshrined in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. Will the petition be able to be sustained?
(a) Yes, the Indian constitution allows for the challenge of any law that violates a fundamental right enshrined
in Part 3 of the constitution.
(b) No, because the law was enacted to benefit the general public and hence the petition won't be sustained.
(c) Yes, because such law will be declared null and void on the grounds that it violates fundamental rights.
(d) No, because the facts are insufficient if it would have been the case of amendment made under ninth schedule,
it would have come under the purview of judicial review.
93. Answer the following question in light of the given information presented in the context of the passage;
Whether an Act or Regulation which, or a part of which, is or has been found by the Supreme Court to be
violative of any of the Articles 14, 19 and 31 can be included in the Ninth Schedule?
(a) Yes, despite the fact that it directly violates the fundamental rights of the citizen affected by such act or
regulation.
(b) It is not at the court's discretion because such acts and laws are protected under Article 31 B of the Indian
Constitution.
(c) yes, because such legislation is not immune from judicial review because it violates fundamental rights.
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient information provided in the passage.
94. Sudhir took the Haryana law recruitment officer examination, and in the revised answer key, a question answered
in the objective type examination shows two alternatives as the correct answer. As a result, additional candidates
were adjusted in the final recruitment list, and Sudhir's rank dropped from AIR 150 to AIR 200. Sudhir, although
being qualified, brought a complaint against the respondent, jeopardising the petitioner's ability to advance in
public service. Decide whether sudhir’s contention is maintainable or not?
(a) Sudhir's complaint is valid since the respondent's later adjustment of two possibilities without offering an
explanation amounts to a breach of the petitioner's right to seek public employment.
(b) Sudhir's claim is invalid because he's a qualified applicant.
(c) Sudhir's claim is true, as his ranking has slipped from 150 to 200.
(d) Sudhir's contention is viable and will be heard by the court on the grounds that the petitioner's right to seek
public employment should not be jeopardised.
95. Assertion: The concept of a universal civil code can only be adopted through the ninth Schedule because the
matter has been in discussion for long as enforcing it would violate the right to religion guaranteed under Part
III of the Indian Constitution.
Reason: laws enacted under Ninth Schedule of the Constitution are immune from judicial review on the grounds
of violation of fundamental rights.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Passage(Q.96-Q.100): In an important verdict on Tuesday, the Karnataka High Court dismissed various
petitions challenging a ban on Hijab in education institutions. The full bench of the HC concluded its hearing in
the Hijab case saying that prescription of school uniform by the State is a reasonable restriction on the students'
rights to wear a dress of their choice under Article 19(1)(a) and thus, the Government Order issued by the
Karnataka government dated February 5 is not violative of their rights.
"The school regulations prescribing dress code for all the students as one homogenous class, serve constitutional
secularism", the Court observed.
It is too farfetched to argue that the school dress code militates against the fundamental freedoms guaranteed
under Articles, 14, 15, 19, 21 & 25 of the Constitution and therefore, the same should be outlawed by the stroke
of a pen", the Court held.
No "reasonable accommodation" can be given for hijab; allowing it can lead to "social-separatedness" and
offends the feel of uniformity, the Petitioners had relied on the 'principle of reasonable accommodation' to
contend that they should be permitted to wear hijab of structure and colour that suit to the prescribed dress code.
A Full Bench of the High Court comprising Chief Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi, Justice Krishna S Dixit and
Justice JM Khazi today held that wearing of hijab is not a part of Essential Religious Practice in Islamic faith
and thus, is not protected under Article 25 of the Constitution. The Court further rejected the reliance placed by
the Petitioners on a judgment of the Constitutional Court of South Africa, in KwaZulu-Natal and Others v Pillay,
which upheld the right of a Hindu girl from South India to wear a nose ring to school.
It held, "Constitutional schemes and socio-political ideologies vary from one country to another, regardless of
textual similarities. A Constitution of a country being the Fundamental Law, is shaped by several streams of
forces such as history, religion, culture, way of life, values and a host of such other factors. In a given fact matrix,
how a foreign jurisdiction treats the case cannot be the sole model readily availing for adoption in our system
which ordinarily treats foreign law & foreign judgments as matters of facts."
(Source: Hijab row: Karnataka HC dismisses petitions, rules wearing Hijab not essential practice, excerpt taken
from The Business Today)
96. Following multiple petitions and challenges, the Army altered policy in 2017 and now permits Sikh soldiers to
wear religious accoutrements and turbans with few restrictions as it is an essential religious practice followed by
Sikhs community. The union government has also agreed to the rule. A petition has been filed in the Supreme
Court, arguing that allowing Sikhs to wear religious accessories in army uniforms would be discriminatory
against other religions. Decide
(a) The petition is maintainable on the grounds that allowing one religious group to wear religious accessories
while denying others constitutes discrimination.
(b) The petition is unsustainable since the union permitted the practise because it was an integral practise in the
Sikh community.
(c) The petition is unconstitutional because authorising such activity infringes fundamental freedoms granted
by Articles 14, 15, 19, 21, and 25 of the Constitution.
(d) According to the paragraph, if it is a necessary activity, it cannot be prohibited because it is protected by
Article 25 of the Constitution.
97. In a new law adopted by the Indian government, the government from the rightist party secured a majority vote.
According to the law, all schools in India, whether governmental and non - governmental, would henceforth be
required to wear exclusively Indian uniforms, with no skirts or shirts permitted. Girls will wear a suit with a
chunni, while boys will wear a kurta and pyjama. The justification offered for implementing such a law is that it
will promote and protect Indian culture from degrading. Is the newly passed legislation in accordance with article
19(1)(a)?
(a) No, as stated in article 19 (1) (a), students have the freedom to wear any dress they like.
(b) Yes, because article 19 (1) (a) also includes some reasonable restrictions.
(c) Yes, because the uniform school dress rule violates the fundamental freedoms protected by Articles 14, 15,
19, 21, and 25 of the Constitution.
(d) No, because the union's goal of instituting a uniform clothing code for all students is consistent with Article
14 of the Indian Constitution.
98. Through an enactment, the government of India forbade women over the age of 16 from wearing western attire.
Decide
(a) The law violates fundamental right guaranteed under article 19 (1) (a).
(b) The law is valid as it allows the state to put some reasonable restriction.
(c) The being violative of fundamental right provided under article 25.
(d) Cannot be ascertained on grounds of incomplete information provided in the facts.
99. Continuing with the similar facts presented above, suppose the law has been enacted without giving any reason
for his enactment. Now select a statement that, in your opinion, best sums up the context of the passage and is
also in line with the pertinent facts given.
(a) Such an act will be declared null and void since it violates the fundamental rights provided by Article 19 (1)
(a) of the Indian Constitution.
(b) Such an act shall be declared null and void to the extent that its provisions violate fundamental rights
demands.
(c) The act will not be fully justified unless the government provides a reasonable explanation for passing such
legislation.
(d) The act is unconstitutional because, according to Article 19 (1) (a), every citizen has the right to dress as he
wishes in public and also violative of article 14 on grounds of discrimination.
100. Assertion: The precedent of a foreign court is not admissible in Indian courts.
Reason: Regardless of linguistic similarities, constitutional frameworks and socio-political ideologies differ
from country to country.
(a) Both A and R are false and R is not correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Passage(Q.101-Q.105): An Ahmedabad trial court’s decision to sentence as many as 38 people to death for
the 2008 bomb blasts that killed 56 people in Gujarat tears to shreds the judicial circumspection urged by
the Supreme Court of India in Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980) on the question of capital punishment.
Judge A.R. Patel accepted the prosecution’s claim that the role played by over three dozen people satisfied
the “rarest of rare” doctrine, while sentencing 11 others to life.
The convicts have already spent 13 years in jail and their defense lawyers intend to appeal. Over the past
several decades, death sentences pronounced by trial courts have mostly been overturned by the higher
judiciary. It is to be hoped that the 38 men will also have their lives spared when their appeals are heard. At
the very least, their cases deserve closer scrutiny and well-considered adjudications.
The fact that all of the 38 are Muslim, while Hindus found guilty of mass murder on the same scale have
been spared the death penalty is bound to raise questions about the true meaning of ‘rarest of rare’. While
sentencing Babu Bajrangi, Maya Kodnani and others for their roles in the Naroda Patiya massacre of 97
Muslims in the 2002 Gujarat riots, judge Jyotsna Yagnik ruled out imposing capital punishment because
she said it went against “human dignity”.
But to stay with Bachan Singh for a minute, what did the Supreme Court majority in 1980 say after weighing
in great detail the arguments for and against the death penalty?
“…[F]or persons convicted of murder, life imprisonment is the rule and death sentence an exception. A real
and abiding concern for the dignity of human life postulates resistance to taking a life through law’s
instrumentality. That ought not to be done save in the rarest of rare cases when the alternative option is
unquestionably foreclosed.” (emphasis added)
Justice Bhagwati wrote: “Death penalty in its actual operation is discriminatory, for it strikes mostly against
the poor and deprived sections of the community and the rich and the affluent usually escape from its clutches.
This circumstance also adds to the arbitrary and capricious nature of the death penalty and renders it
unconstitutional as being violative of (the Indian Constitution’s) Articles 14 (equality before the law) and 21
(protection of life and personal liberty).”
(Source: Death Penalty is State-Sponsored Murder, the Indian Judiciary Must Put a Stop to Executions,
Excerpt taken from The Wire)
101. Para 1 of the passage states that Ahmedabad trial court’s decision to sentence 38 people to death for the
2008 bomb blasts that killed 56 people in Gujarat tears to shreds the judicial circumspection urged by the
Supreme Court of India in Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab (1980) on the question of capital punishment. Chose
a statement most likely to describe correct context of the excerpt?
(a) It was held in Bacchan singh v State of Punjab, trial court’s can only pronounce capital punishment in rarest
of the rare case.
(b) The apex court urged judicial caution in Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab on the issue of capital
punishment.
(c) The apex court cautioned lower judiciary to consider aspect of human dignity while deciding on the issue
of capital punishment.
(d) The apex court ruled that for persons convicted of murder, life imprisonment is the rule and death sentence
an exception.
102. Which of the following, when discussing a case of capital punishment, appears anomaly with the author's point
of view presented in the passage?
(a) The role played by approximately to 38 people in the bomb blast do not passes the "rarest of rare" doctrine
test.
(b) Capital punishment orders issued by trial courts are not plausible to be reversed on appeal.
(c) When deciding on a case of capital punishment, natural justice rules should be considered.
(d) The death penalty should only be used as a last resort when all other options have been exhausted.
103. In a 2015 case of mob lynching, a mob broke into a jail in Dholakpur, Uttar Pradesh, and lynched an accused
rapist who awaiting capital punishment the next day. In the present case, what will the court's decision be?
(a) The court will have to punish the mob as the real and abiding concern for the dignity of human life postulates
resistance to taking a life against law’s instrumentality.
(b) The court cannot punish the mob because the accused is already awarded the death penalty.
(c) Though the conduct of mob will be considered against the instrumentality of law, the act of mob is justified
in light of the immoral act committed by the accused.
(d) Uncertain because the passage does not provide enough information to reach a conclusion.
104. What would be considered an incorrect observation on capital punishment based on the context of the passage?
(a) The order of capital punishment always tends to be reversed by Supreme Court in case of an appeal.
(b) Capital punishment awarded in its actual operation will not be rendered unconstitutional.
(c) Capital punishment in general is considered unconstitutional being violative of article 14 and 21 of
constitution of India.
(d) A genuine and abiding concern for the dignity of human life necessitates resistance to taking a life through
the use of the legal system.
105. Anand was arrested for murder and marital rape of his wife after his in-laws filed a complaint. The bench,
believing that this is a case of the rarest of the rare, sentences the accused Anand to death. Decide
(a) The sentence tears to shreds the judicial circumspection urged by the Supreme Court of India on the question
of capital punishment.
(b) The sentence is valid as the bench opined it to be a perfect case of rarest of the rare case.
(c) The sentence is valid as it is not discriminatory and arbitrary.
(d) The sentence is not valid as it is unconstitutional.
SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING
Passage (Q.106-Q.110): The WHO chief in a recent briefing, noted that 90 million cases of coronavirus have
been reported since the Omicron variant was first identified 10 weeks ago. His statement comes in the context
of many countries easing their restrictive movement measures amid public fatigue. From WHO’s perspective,
the blanket lifting of restrictions poses a problem as most people appear to believe that Omicron is less
threatening compared to previous variants and that two shots of vaccines are an adequate defence against the
virus. He underlined that a narrative that “preventing transmission is no longer possible and no longer necessary”
had taken hold and this was problematic. This was false, he underscored at the briefing, as the virus continues to
evolve and four of the six WHO regions globally are reporting an increasing trend in deaths.
Britain, France, Ireland, the Netherlands and Finland are on the path of easing COVID-19 restrictions. In India
too, with current evidence pointing to a fall in the daily caseload, several States have moved to ease movement
restrictions. WHO has also said that the newly emerged variant, BA.2, is as transmissible as Omicron and that
all measures needed to contain the original Omicron variant are applicable to it too. After facing criticism that it
did not move soon enough in 2020 to alert the world of the magnitude of the calamity that it awaited, WHO,
which takes a global view of the crisis, cannot be faulted for airing concerns from the evidence available so far.
It has also consistently warned that the pandemic cannot be over until all regions of the world are sufficiently
vaccinated and that economic inequity continues to be a driver of the pandemic. The coronavirus, while secular
in its infectiousness, affects nations differently. The richer ones can afford to bear the consequences of disrupted
social activity a little longer than the rest. Just about half the world has been fully vaccinated; unfortunately, so
far, the available vaccines are only equipped to protect against disease rather than infection. WHO must use its
influence to continue to encourage vaccination and step in with advice and expertise to help countries access
necessary doses. Framing the pandemic as a war that humanity must ‘win’ was useful to accelerate the
development of vaccines. However, science is not equipped yet to predict the future trajectory of the coronavirus;
COVID-appropriate behaviour, vaccines and accessible health care remain the only credible defenses.
106. What is the central theme of this passage?

(a) Disease prevention with COVID-appropriate behaviour and vaccination is still necessary.
(b) WHO, this time cannot be faulted for airing concerns from the evidence available so far.
(c) Covid Is the new normal and we need to learn living with it.
(d) Omicron is less threatening compared to previous variants.
107. As per the passage, which of the following approaches can be the most effective course of action to curb the
spread of covid?
(a) Science is not equipped yet to predict the future trajectory of the virus, and we should accept and start living
in this new normal.
(b) As preventing transmission is no longer possible, WHO must use its influence to continue to encourage
vaccination.
(c) Government should focus on improving health facilities and encouraging people to follow covid protocols
like wearing a mask.
(d) Government should provide boost to economy first as pandemic cannot be over until economic inequity
exists.
108. Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?
(a) Earlier WHO faced criticism that it did not move soon enough in 2020 to alert the world of the magnitude
of the virus when it started spreading in China.
(b) Covid affects nations differently and the richer ones can much easily tackle the virus. But if we need to stop
the spread, economic inequity needs to come to an end.
(c) Two shots of vaccines are not an adequate defense against the virus.
(d) Four of the six WHO regions globally are reporting an increasing trend in cases.
109. “WHO, which takes a global view of the crisis, cannot be faulted for airing concerns from the evidence available
so far.” In the context of the statement, which of the following strengthens the author’s opinion?
(a) IIIT Kanpur recently published a report stating that preventing transmission is no longer possible.
(b) WHO has done a lot by providing covid vaccines to poor countries this year.
(c) WHO didn’t warn about a new variant which later caused a large number of deaths.
(d) WHO kept on warning India about incoming third wave, which actually came and peaked in Jan 2022.
110. In the above passage, which of the following is not true about COVID?
(a) Covid has multiple variants.
(b) India, like other countries, is also facing cases of covid.
(c) There exists a vaccine to counter covid infections.
(d) Easing covid restrictions is one of the courses of action which countries are adopting.
Passage (Q.111-Q.115): West Bengal Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee’s outburst against Governor Jagdeep
Dhankhar on Monday was not a first but it brought to the fore, yet again, the role of the Governor in relation
with the elected government and legislature. Mr. Dhankhar and his counterparts in Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra
appear to be testing the limits of their power and confronting the elected governments and legislatures in recent
weeks. Tired of Mr. Dhankhar’s constant tirade against her on Twitter, Ms. Banerjee blocked him on the
platform. The Governor then sent her a message for “dialogue and harmony amongst constitutional
functionaries” but promptly posted that too on Twitter. The Chief Minister said the Governor was trying to treat
the elected government as “bonded labour. Mr. Dhankhar also has withheld assent to the Howrah (Amendment)
Bill 2021, delaying polls to the civic body. He has made allegations of impropriety in welfare schemes,
questioned Government claims about investments in the State, and taken up the cudgels for the Opposition BJP.
In Maharashtra, Governor has stalled the election of Speaker since the post fell vacant. He has taken
umbrage over the amendments in the legislative rules for holding the Speaker’s election through voice
vote instead of secret ballot. The Governor’s view that the State Assembly cannot decide its own rules is
unacceptable to the ruling coalition, but is being cheered by the Opposition BJP. Mr. Koshyari had in the past
batted for the BJP, supporting its demand for a special session of the Assembly on women’s safety and security.
He had refused to accept the recommendation of the Council of Ministers on the nomination of 12 members to
the Legislative Council, until the matter reached the High Court. In Tamil Nadu, governor has not acted upon
the T.N. Admission to Undergraduate Medical Degree Courses Bill, adopted by the Assembly in September
2021.The Bill relates to a question of State-Centre relations, as it proposes to dispense with the NEET Exam in
the State. NEET has been criticised for curtailing State powers, and the Governor’s delay in processing the Bill
is only aggravating the situation. Some of these issues may require debate and discussion before resolution. But
any imperial overtones of Governors can only do harm to the constitutional scheme of things.
111. What is the central idea of this passage?

(a) The tussle between chief ministers and the governors of respective states points out to a broader constitutional
issue.
(b) The governor should act in cooperation with Chief Minister of West Bengal in all matters.
(c) The tussle between Chief Minister and the Governor highlights the disruption of all constitutional ethos in
the recent past.
(d) Both West Bengal and Maharashtra are fighting Against BJP.
112. The author is most likely to agree with which of the following statements?
(a) The Governors of majority of the States are currently facing tussle with State Governments
(b) The Centre state tussle is limited to three states.
(c) NEET Exam curtails the powers of the States.
(d) West Bengal is not the only state facing the Centre- State tussle.
113. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author’s argument?
(a) Indian constitution provides that the governor should decide in case of conflict between states and Centre.
(b) State Government is restricting the discussions on the matter in Tamil Nadu.
(c) The Governor of Madhya Pradesh works in cooperation with the State Government.
(d) Other states also face such tussles, and they are very common now.
114. Which of the following strengthens the stance of the Governor of Tamil Nadu?
(a) NEET has lost its relevance in the contemporary world, as its format is archaic.
(b) NEET is very prestigious, and the Central Government has always conducted it with probity.
(c) The governor has taken a very long time to process the bill.
(d) Constitution prescribes that governor can take time as per his discretion to process bills.
115. What purpose does the boldfaced statement in the passage serves?
(a) It is an argument to support how governors are misusing their powers.
(b) It is a premise to support how governors are misusing their powers.
(c) It is a premise supporting that Centre- State tussles in West Bengal are not distinctive.
(d) It is an argument supporting that Centre- State tussles in West Bengal are not distinctive.
Passage (Q.116-Q.120): The findings of the latest study by the PGI, Chandigarh, on drug abuse in Punjab come
as no surprise: substance use in the beleaguered state continues rampantly, with more than three million addicts
— mostly men — in the vicious grip of some harmful drug or the other. More importantly, the survey, which is
aimed at giving muscle to the preventive steps and strategies, indirectly exposes another well-known but bitter
truth: the failure of the successive governments to break the backbone of the drug mafia over the past couple of
decades. Taming the drug lords with quick and deterrent penalties holds the key to preventing the vulnerable
youth from going astray and wasting away.
The youngsters must be steered towards the right path — socially, mentally and physically. Only an able Gennext
can pull the stressed state out of its depths of socio-economic ruin and propel it to the days of resplendent glory
and prosperity. Nothing signifies more the looming dark clouds over Punjab than the exodus of hordes of
promising young men and women to foreign lands. Parents, too, are willing to put everything at stake to send
their wards abroad as they fear for them falling into the trap of substance abuse here. The huge consignments of
drugs smuggled in regularly and little corresponding headway in catching and punishing the influential operators
tells the bleak tale of a Punjab bled dry. The dreams of a bright future in the state are fast turning into nightmares.
The huge burden of substance dependence and addiction inflicting the state is apparent from the fact that 18 of
the 272 most affected districts by drug abuse in the country are in Punjab. But the road map to ending this
menace, including educating students about its ill effects and banning liquor and tobacco sale around schools
and colleges, have hit road bumps. For example, the government’s ‘Tu Mera Buddy’ scheme launched in 2018
to make Punjab ‘nasha mukt’ was later found to have been diluted to being the ‘Buddy Group’, a virtual platform
for learners during the Covid era of online teaching.
116. What is the best representation of the main point of the passage?
(a) Substance abuse has led Punjab to become one of India’s backward states.
(b) Curbing substance abuse is key for the prosperity of the state of Punjab.
(c) Punjab has two faces: one with its able farmers and the other with its addict men.
(d) Punjab would have been one of India’s premier states, if not for substance abuse.
117. Out of the following, which statement would weaken the arguments of the author?
(a) The tax collected due to the transactions of drugs in Punjab form the most of the government's earnings.
(b) Most parents who want to send their children abroad in Punjab work day and night to gather money for it.
(c) The CPM government which was formed in 2012 was able to stop the supply of drugs for a day.
(d) None of the above is correct.
118. For which of the following statements does the passage have some support?
(a) If Punjab becomes a drug free state, less of its youth population would leave the state.
(b) Substance abuse is so prevalent in the state of Punjab that it is not practically possible to root it out.
(c) Women of the state of Punjab don’t do drugs due to the less addictive nature of the drugs on women.
(d) If the situation in Punjab goes more out of control, then it risks losing all of its youth population.
119. Out of the following, which statement has been used as a premise to support the author’s arguments?
i. ‘Tu mera buddy’ scheme was diluted to ‘Buddy group’.
ii. The youth of Punjab are more talented than those of other states.
iii. Punjab’s dream of becoming a prosperous state seems shattered.
(a) Only I (b) Only i and ii
(c) Only i and iii (d) Only ii and iii
120. The structure of the second paragraph of the passage is best represented by:
(a) Some disturbing developments are presented which might spell doom for the concerned state.
(b) Some data are cited to highlight the gravity of the problem of Punjab.
(c) Some additional data are cited to help the readers know that the situation is not as bad as it seems.
(d) Some suggestions are presented and some steps taken by the government are presented later.
Passage (Q.121-Q.124): SADLY, addressing the important issue of proper labelling on packaged food products
— it has a direct bearing on the consumers’ health — in our country tends to be an indeterminately prolonged
affair, plunging, meanwhile, lakhs of people into the financially and mentally straining rut of being disease-
ridden. The authorities drag their feet on striking an acceptable balance between the protection of consumers’
right to precise information of ingredients and the powerfully rich manufacturers’ lobby. It is widely known that
the intake of the addictive ultra-processed food items, being overly packed with harmful sugar, salt, sodium and
fats, is linked to the proliferation of diabetes and heart ailments. That India worrisomely ranks at number two in
such diseases and their prevalence is growing should have goaded the Food Safety Standards Authority of India
to fast-track its decisions. But even eight years down the line, it is still debating whether the labelling should
include a health warning along with the quantity of sugar, salt, sodium and fats (that consumers want) or just
mention their amount (that producers want) on the packet. There is still a long way to a resolution, draft proposal
and final issuance of norms, covering manufacturers, retailers and wholesalers.
Particularly impacted by the inordinate delays in the enforcement of such guidelines are the estimated 1-3 per
cent of the population dependent on information warnings of food allergens such as gluten (a protein present in
wheat, rye, barley), milk, soybean, egg, nuts, seafood etc. The intake of even minuscule quantities of the allergen
may be enough to trigger a flare-up and cause huge misery to the patients and their families. Food allergies cause
nearly 30,000 emergency treatments and 100 to 200 deaths per year in India.
There is much to learn from some western countries that have imposed food labelling rules for over 15 years
now. Equally impressive are the high awareness levels there, ensuring allergen-sensitive hospitality by hotels
and restaurants. Another related field begging for our government’s consideration is the compensation doled out
by Italy to celiac disease patients for their life-long medically prescribed dependence on expensive gluten-free
diet.
121. In context of the passage, which of the following question arises?

(a) Is proper labelling of packaged food necessary?
(b) Are our food labelling rules new?
(c) Should a label of health warning be there on packaged foods?
(d) Should India be answerable for the inordinate delays in enforcement of labelling on packaged food products
guidelines?
122. According to the passage, which of the following is/are TRUE?
I. Food allergies cause nearly 30,000 emergency treatments.
II. The important issue of proper labelling on packaged food products is theme of the passage.
III. The intake of minuscule quantities of the allergen may not be enough to trigger a flare-up and cause huge
misery to the patients.
(a) Only III (b) I and II (c) I, II and III (d) Only I
123. Chose the correct option based on the appropriate reason for the assertion?
Assertion (A): There is still a long way to a resolution, draft proposal and final issuance of norms, covering
manufacturers, retailers and wholesalers.
Reason (R): India ranks at number two in such diseases and their growing prevalence should have goaded the
Food Safety Standards Authority of India to fast-track its decisions.
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are false.
124. What conclusion can be drawn from the passage?

(a) India is in top list for food safety.
(b) India provides precise information of ingredients on packaged foods.
(c) India is lagging behind in giving health warning on packaged foods.
(d) Consumption of addictive ultra-processed food items with the precise labelling of ingredients leads to less
risk of disease.
Passage (Q.125-Q.129): Religion should be kept a private affair of individual citizens, but that is an ideal case
scenario. Whether we like it or not, elements of religious practices have become part of the culture of believers,
and the harmonious co-existence of such customs with the ones of those who practice no religion is a pre-
condition for a society’s progress. Religion being a general term, the courts have elaborated on this constitutional
proviso and brought essential religious practices under its protection. It is in this background that one should
view the controversy raging in Karnataka about Muslim girl students wearing the hijab (headscarf).
As the Karnataka high court rightly observed while hearing the petition of the girl students, every citizen of this
country should go by reason, the law, and the Constitution; not passion and emotion. This is an advice to all
those who have taken to violent protests and also to those who come up with whatabouteries to argue their points.
They must realize that the Constitution does not mandate banishing of religion; instead, it affords people the
right to practice it. The question is how to make it least obtrusive in a secular system. The situation as of today
is that while sane persons would be busy seeking to address the question as suggested by the high court, vested
interests and extremists have almost hijacked the issue. Protests against the hijab are taking place all across
Karnataka now, and it is highly likely that it shall spread to other states, too.
The Constitution and the law are made with a view to address issues as citizens of a nation, and not as enemies.
It must not be done in a mechanical way in all situations; how a decision would impact the lives of law-abiding
people must be a consideration the court should keep in mind. A total ban on the hijab, which Muslims claim to
be an essential religious practice, will result in Muslim women either avoiding multi-religious and secular
institutions or, worse, becoming dropouts. At the same time, the court cannot give in to the pressure of identity
politics and communalists and allow each one to wear the dress of their choice. It will, thus, be called upon to
come out with a solution that protects the right to practise religion and the right to education while refusing to
yield to the demands of religious obscurantists of all hues. It should ensure that better sense prevails.
125. What is the central idea of this passage?
(a) Religion should be kept a private affair of individual citizens and not a public affair in educational
institutions.
(b) The right of practicing religion and that of education needs to be balanced within the constitutional scheme.
(c) Everyone has right to practice their cultural practices and customs.
(d) The whole controversy is result of extremists and people with vested interests.
126. The author is most likely to agree with which of the following course of action?
(a) A uniform school dress and a prohibition on wearing of religious cloths and symbols in educational
institutions.
(b) People should strictly follow the law and the Constitution to avoid any such conflicts.
(c) People should be allowed to wear dresses of their choices
(d) Various factors need to be composed, and their social impact should also be considered.
127. “The situation as of today is that while sane persons would be busy seeking to address the question as suggested
by the high court, vested interests and extremists have almost hijacked the issue” points out in which of the
following options, the possible logical flaw in the argument of the author?
(a) The argument contains no stated or implied relationship between People having vested interests and
extremists.
(b) The premises of the argument are stated in such a way that they exclude the possibility of drawing any logical
conclusion.
(c) The conclusion is derived without any premise to support the argument.
(d) The author draws a specific conclusion out of one case.
128. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

(a) The author supports the stance taken by the court in this matter.
(b) Author supports that hijab must be allowed in educational institutions.
(c) The author is not in favor of allowing each one to wear the dress of their choice.
(d) The issue can spread to different parts of the country.
129. “Every citizen of this country should go by reason, the law, and the Constitution; not passion and emotion”.
Which of the statement, if true, will weaken the statement?
(a) The author himself has cases of violation of law and constitutional norms.
(b) Religious passion and emotions are the driving forces behind people’s seeking a religion, and the constitution
regards religious sentiments as sacrosanct.
(c) Following law and constitutional norms makes a society free from conflicts.
(d) Religious sentiments defy all possible logic, and people place religion above Constitution, laws or reason.
130. Following question contains 6 statements followed by 4 sets of combinations of 3.

Choose the set in which the statements are logically related.
A. Some weight producing things are tasty.
B. All weight producing things are pastries.
C. Some pastries are weight producing.
D. Some pastries are not tasty.
E. All pastries are tasty.
F. All pastries are weight producing.
(a) ABD (b) ADE (c) EFA (d) ADF
131. Rena travels 10 km North turns left and travels 4km and then again turns right and covers another 5km. He then
turns to right hand side and travels another 4 km. How far is he from the starting point of his journey?
(a) 15 km (b) 4 km (c) 5 km (d) 10 km
Directions (Q.132-Q.135): Study the following information and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a rectangular table and all of them are facing towards
the center of table. All of them like different colour viz. Red, yellow, white, black, pink, violet, orange and green
but not necessarily in the same order. Two persons sit on each side of table. No two successive persons are sitting
together according to alphabetical order. For Example: A does not sit next (adjacent) to B; similarly B does not
sit next (adjacent) to C and so on.
A sits third to left of G who likes green colour. Only one person sits between A and C. The one who likes white
colour sits second to right of C. Only one person sit between A and H. Only one person sits between B and F
who likes pink colour.
The persons who like red and orange colour sit on the same side. E neither like red nor orange colour. Three
persons sit between the one who likes black colour and the one who like red colour. C does not like black colour.
The one who likes yellow colour does not sit with adjacent to F.
132. Who is sitting third to the left of C?
(a) E (b) A (c) F (d) H
133. Who is sitting opposite to D?
(a) A (b) C (c) F (d) E
134. Who among the following likes yellow?
(a) E (b) D (c) C (d) B
135. Who among the following likes black?
(a) E (b) D (c) C (d) B
SECTION - E: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.136-Q.140): Study the information below to answer the questions that follow.
In Year I, it was projected that by the Year 26 Asia’s population would increase by 28%. In the same Year I, the
population of country XYZ in Asia was found to be 200 million and growing at an annual rate of 0.66%. The
country XYZ population was projected to continue to grow until Year 26, when it would reach 260 million. In
Year I, the country XYZ census board found that people under 18 years of age made up 1/5th of the population.
They also found that people of country XYZ having 70 or more ye of age represented 1/10th of the population.
Further, it found that 75.5% of the population of country XYZ lived in cities and the most populous cities were
C1 and C2. These trends are likely to continue to a stage, when 20% of the population is expected to be residing
in the two cities.
136. How many people of country XYZ did the census board find, lived in locations other than cities?
(a) 29.0 million (b) 40.9 million (c) 48.0 million (d) 49.0 million
137. How many people of country XYZ in Year I are with age of 85 or more, if they are 1/4 of the population having
70 or more years of age?
(a) 5 lakh (b) 5 crore (c) 5 million (d) 50 million
138. If in Year 26, people under 18 years make up 1/6 of the population and 70 years and above persons still represent
1/10 of the population, then how many people of country XYZ will be aged between 18 and 69 years?
(a) 167600000 (b) 190660000 (c) 182300000 (d) 141600000
139. How many people are projected to be residents of either city C1 or city C2 by Year 26?
(a) 130000000 (b) 52000000 (c) 26000000 (d) Cannot be determined
140. The projected rate of growth between Year I and Year 26 in the country XYZ population is
(a) Greater than projected rate of increase in Asia’s population.
(b) Less than projected rate of increase in Asia’s population.
(c) Equal to projected rate of increase in Asia’s population.
(d) Cannot be determined
Directions (Q.141-Q.145): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow. The table
shows the investments and profits earned by three persons X, Y and Z in the given years.
- Investments (in Rs.) Profits (in Rs.)

Year ↓ X Y Z X Y Z
2012 15000 18000 12000 1,05,000 - 84000
2013 - 6000 24000 - - 57000
2014 - 9000 - - 27000 42000
2015 22000 26000 - - - -
2016 - - 24000 64000 60000 30000
Note: Except for the year 2016, they invested the amounts for the same period. Some values are missing. You
have to calculate these values as per the given data.
141. If the total profit earned by the three persons at the end of the year 2013 is Rs.1,33,000, then find the ratio of
investment of Z in 2016 to that of X in 2013.
(a) 12:13 (b) 9: 28 (c) 11:13 (d) 4 : 7
142. In the year 2016, the total investment of X and Y is Rs.72,000. X and Y invested their amounts for 8 months and
6 months respectively. Find the number of months for which Z invested his amount.
(a) 7 (b) 9 (c) 8 (d) None of these
143. The total profit earned by all the three persons in 2016 is what percent of that in 2012?
3 8 1 2
(a) 42 7 % (b) 48 9 % (c) 52 9 % (d) 66 3 %
144. If the total investment of X, Y and Z in 2014 is Rs.39,000, then the profit earned by X in that year is what percent
more than that earned by Z in the same year?
1 2 2
(a) 33 3 % (b) 26 3 % (c) 14 7 % (d) None of these
145. If the total profit earned by all the three in 2015 is Rs.5,10,000 and the ratio of investments of X and Y together
to that of Y and Z together is 24 : 29 then find the difference between the profits earned by X and Z
(a) Rs.52,850 (b) Rs.72,300 (c) Rs.58,000 (d) None of these
Directions (Q.146-Q.150): Study the following caselet and answer the questions.
There are a certain number of people living in different cities viz. P, Q, R, S, T and U. 400 people from city R
are above 40 years of age. The number of people whose age is above 40 years from city T is 80% of the people
from city R whose age is above 40 years. The number of people whose age is below 40 years from city T is 50%
more than the people whose age is above 40 years from city T. The number of people whose age is below 40
years from city Q is 50 more than half the number of people whose age is below 40 years from city T. The
number of people whose age is above 40 years from city Q is 30% more than the people whose age is below 40
years from city Q. The total number of people from city Q is equal to the total number of people from city R.
The total number of people from city U is 7/3 times the people from city R whose age is below 40 years. The
ratio of the number of people above 40 years to the number of people below 40 years in city U is 3: 4. The total
number of people above 40 years from all the cities is 1804. The number of people below 40 years from city S
is 3/2 times the number of people above 40 years from the same city. The number of people whose age is above
40 years from cities P and S are equal. The number of people below 40 years from city P is 25 less than the
number of people from city S below 40 years. Consider that no person from any of the cities is exactly of 40
years.
146. What is the total number of people whose age is below 40 years?
(a) 2144 (b) 2028 (c) 2454 (d) 2198
147. What is the ratio of the number of people below 40 years to the number of people above 40 years from city P?
(a) 1:3 (b) 40:53 (c) 57:71 (d) 61:44
148. What percentage of the total number of people who are below 40 years of age is from R?
(a) 40.02% (b) 46.51% (c) 13.16% (d) 27.84%
149. If 45% of the people from city T who are above 40 years are males and 65% of the total number of people from
city T are males, then the number of females from city T who are below 40 years of age will be?
(a) 104 (b) 238 (c) 562 (d) 330
150. By what percentage is the number of people from all the given cities below 40 years of age greater than the total
number of people from all the cities above 40 years of age?
(a) 35.67% (b) 12.42% (c) 29.86% (d) 44.78%

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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2022

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1. Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the passage?

2. The author of the passage will most likely agree with?

3. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage?

4. The Maltese Falcon was released in:

6. In context of the passage, which of the following is NOT TRUE?

7. All of the following can be inferred from the passage, except

20. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the passage?

21. What is the strategy of RBI to implement the digital currency?

24. Why India is on a balanced growth path compared to China?

27. What can be inferred from the phrase ‘peer review’?

30. Based on the contents of the passage, the author is

31. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about IPCC?

42. When was Montreux Convention signed?

60. Who is the minister of State for Science and Technology?

63. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the Index?

Here were two approaches taken by Court:

106. What is the central theme of this passage?

111. What is the central idea of this passage?

121. In context of the passage, which of the following question arises?

124. What conclusion can be drawn from the passage?

128. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

130. Following question contains 6 statements followed by 4 sets of combinations of 3.

- Investments (in Rs.) Profits (in Rs.)

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