Process Control MCQ Final

EI8553 Process Control MCQ Dept of EIE and ICE 2020-21
EI8553 PROCESS CONTROL

Multiple Choice Questions and answers
Unit-I
1. What are the operational objectives that a control system is called upon to achieve? D
[a] Ensuring the stability of the process, or
[b] Suppressing the influence of external disturbances, or
[c] Optimizing the economic performance of a plant, or
[d] A combination of the above.
2. What variables should we measure in order to monitor the operational performance of a plant? A
[a] the variables that represent our control objectives
[b] Controller output
[c] manipulated variable
[d] Setpoint
3. What are the manipulated variables? B
[a] used to control process output
[b] Will affect the quality of the control actions we take.
[c] are measured and unmeasured variables
[d] none of the above
4. How is the information, taken from the measurements, used to adjust the values of the manipulated A
variables?
[a] control law
[b] error
[c] desired value
[d] measuring device
5. ……………..which denote the effect of the surroundings on the chemical process is known as D
[a] Process variables
[b] Controlled variables
[c] measured variables
[d] input variables
6. ……………..which denote the effect of the process on the surroundings B
[a] desired input
[b] output variables
[c] manipulated variables
[d] input variables
7. The input variables can be classified into A
[a] manipulated variable and disturbances
[b] setpoint and desired variables
[c] process variables and controlled variables
[d] Controller output and Control law
8. The output variables can be classified into C
[a] manipulated variable and disturbances
[b] setpoint and desired variables
St. Joseph’s College of Engineering, Chennai-119 1
[c] measured and unmeasured variables

[d] Controller output and Control law
9. What are the operational objectives of Stirred Tank Heater (STR) C
[I] To keep effluent temperature at a desired value
[II] To keep the volume of the liquid in the tank at a desired level.
[a] I
[b] II
[c] I&II
[d] insufficient data
10. The given block diagram is B
[a] open loop system

[b[ feedback system
[c] inferential control
[d] cascade control
11. Which of these industries are examples of the process industry? D
[a] Pharmaceutical
[b] Satellite
[c] Oil and Gas
[d] All the above
12. What are the main reasons for manufacturers to control a process? D
a) Ensure safety
b) Reduce costs
c) Increase efficiency
d) All the above
13. Under what circumstances does an open control loop exist? A
a) Process variable is not measured
b) Process variable is measured and compared to a setpoint
c) Action is taken with regard to process variable conditions
d) None of the above
14. Identify a primary element/sensors in process control? A
a) Resistance Temperature Detectors
b) Control Valve
c) Converter
d) All the above
15. A ____________ is a device that translates a mechanical signal into an electrical signal. A
a) Transducer
b) Converter
c) Regulated Power supply
d) PID Controller
16. A ………….is a device that converts a reading from a transducer into a standard signal and transmits that C
signal to a monitor or controller
a) Transducer
b) Converter
c) Transmitter
d) PID Controller
17. Identify the signal types that are used in the process control industry? B
a) Hydraulic signals
b) Pneumatic signals
c) Electro-magnetic signals
d) None of the above
18. A recorder is a device that records the ________________ of a measurement or control device. A
a) Output
b) Input
c) Both output and input
d) Setpoint
19. Which of the following have the ability to receive input, to perform a mathematical function with the D
input, and produce an output signal?
a) Actuators
b) Transmitters
c) Transducers
d) Controllers
20. Which of the following is the most common final control element in process control industries? C
a) Agitator
b) Pump motor
c) Valve
d) Louver
21. _______________ is a part of final control device that causes a physical change in the final control device D
when signaled to do so.
a) Controller
b) Pump motor
c) Transmitter
d) Actuator
22. The difficulties encountered during the mathematical modeling of a process D
a) From poorly understood chemical or physical phenomena
b) From inaccurate values of various parameters
c) From the size and complexity of the resulting model
d) All the above
23. ----------- is the process by which we approximate nonlinear systems with linear ones. A
a) Linearization
b) Non-linearization
c) Feedback
d) Feedforward
24. Transfer function is ……. A
a) The ratio of Laplace transform of the output to Laplace transform of the input with zero initial
conditions
b) Process variable
c) Setpoint
d) Controller output
25. To find the transfer function for a …………….., it must first be linearized around a steady state and be B
expressed in terms of deviation variables.
a) Linear system
b) Nonlinear system
c) Feedback control system
d) Cascade control system
26. Q(s ) B
In general, the transfer function G(s) will be the ratio of two polynomials G ( s )= . The roots of the
P( s )
polynomial Q(s) ………..
a) Poles of the transfer function
b) Zero of the transfer function
c) Poles and Zero of the transfer function
d) Complex poles
27. A first order system is one whose output is modeled by a ________________ order differential equation. C
a) Zero
b) Type 2
c) First
d) Type zero
28. The ________________ process are characterized by: C
 Their capacity to store material, energy, or momentum
 The resistance associated with the flow of mass, energy, or momentum in reading the capacity.
a) Higher order
b) Second order
c) First order
d) Zero order
29. The characteristics of pure capacitive process, lends the name ………. A
a) Pure integrator
b) Pure inductor
c) Pure filter
d) Pure differentiator
30. Non interacting capacities always result in an ___________ or ___________, C
a) Under damped , overdamped
b) undamped, overdamped
c) overdamped, critically damped
d) none of the above
31. Non interacting capacities never result in_____________ B
a) Undamped
b) Under damped
c) Critically damped
d) Overdamped
32. The response of interacting capacities is always _______ D
a) Undamped
b) Under damped
c) Critically damped
d) Overdamped
33. The overall response of interacting capacities are more ________ than the noninteracting capacities. C
a) Speed
b) Fast
c) Sluggish
d) Quick
Unit-II
1. When a valve is installed in a process with where the differential pressure (drop) across
the valve decreases with increasing flow, the best trim characteristic to choose for the
valve would be:
a) Ported C
b) Quick-opening
c) Equal percentage
d) Linear
2. The correct identities of the four control valve types shown below are (in order
from left to right):
C
[a] Plug, Slide, Rotary, Ball
[b]Globe, Butterfly, Disc, Ball
[c] Ball, Gate, Butterfly, Plug
[d] Diaphragm, Gate, Disc, Globe
3. An air-to-open valve assembly may be formed with which of these actuator/valve
body combinations?
[a] Reverse-acting actuator, direct-acting valve body
D
[b] Direct-acting actuator, direct-acting valve body
[c] Direct-acting actuator, reverse-acting valve body
[d] a or c
4. The main purpose of a control valve positioner is to:
[a] Alter the fail-safe status of the valve
[b] Improve the precision of the valve
B
[c] Alter the characterization of the valve
[d] Increase transmitter accuracy
5. The purpose of valve packing is to:

[a] Help reduce cavitation in the valve trim
[b] Increase stiction
D
[c] Cushion the valve against harm during shipment
[d] Seal process fluid from escaping past the stem

6. Cavitation in a control valve is caused by

[a] process noise
[b] vibration in the piping
D
[c] a laminar flow regime
[d] pressure recovery
7. The proper “fail safe” status of a valve should always be dictated by:
[a] economic savings
[b] the configuration of the positioner
[c] the controller’s action (direct or reverse) D
[d] the nature of the process
8. Which of the following factors to be considered with respect to valve positioned?

[a] Vaccum service
[b] cavitation
D
[c] piping and installation
[d] all the above
9. The type of the pneumatic actuators among the following is _______

[a] Spring and diaphragm actuator
[b] double acting piston actuator D
[c] motor actuator
[d] all these
10. The stem in a valve, which connects the actuator and disk, is responsible for
positioning the disk.
A
[a] True
[b] False
11. The definition of split range control valves implies that they are . . .
[a] designed to be easily disassembled.
[b] easily re-ranged for different characteristics. D
[c] equipped with quick-acting positioners.
[d] calibrated with complementary ranges.
12. For a control valve the common reason that the installed characteristics is different from
inherent characteristics is
[a] deformation of the seat of the valve C
[b] loading of the plug of the valve
[c] change in pressure drop across the valve with lift
[d] leak from the valve gland
13. Choose the correct option.
Statement I: Single seated valves are suitable for small flow rates.
Statement II: With double seated valves, the flow can be shut off completely.
[a] Only statement I is correct A
[b] Only statement II is correct
[c] Both statements I and II are correct
[d] Both statements I and II are false
14. A control valve has to control the inlet flow of cooling water to a cooling jacket on an A
exothermic chemical reactor. We should select
[a] Air to close valve

[b] Air to open valve
[c] Globe valve
[d] Butterfly Valve
15. Match the following:
Valve type Sensitivity
P) Linear 1) Constant
Q) Equal percentage 2) Increasing
R) Quick opening 3) Decreasing A
[a] P-1, Q-2, R-3
[b] P-2, Q-1, R-3
[c] P-3, Q-1, R-2
[d] P-1, Q-3, R-2
16. Choose the correct option.
P) The gain of a quick opening valve is non-linear.
Q) An equal percentage valve is not recommended when the pressure drop across the
control valve varies.
[a] Only P is true A
[b] Only Q is true
[c] Both P and Q are false
[d] Both P and Q are true
17. A fluid flows through an equal percentage valve at a rate of 5 m3/h when the valve is 10
% open. When the valve opens to 20 %, the flow rate increases to 10 m 3/h. What is the
flow rate in m3/h when the valve opens to 30 %? The pressure drop across the valve
remains constant.
B
[a] 15
[b] 20
[c] 30
[d] 10
18. A fluid flows through a linear valve at a rate of 15 m 3/h when the valve is 15 % open.
When the valve opens to 30 %, the flow rate increases to 30 m 3/h. What is the flow rate
in m3/h when the valve opens to 45 %? The pressure drop across the valve remains
constant.
[a] 15 C
[b] 30
[c] 45
[d] 60
19. What is the main purpose of the control valve positioner?

[a] Change the valve characteristic
[b] Improve the precision of the valve B
[c] Minimize cavitation in the valve
[d] Reduce leakage of process fluid
20. Regardless of type, all valves have the following basic parts, with the exception of ___
[a] bonnet B
[b] nipple

[c] actuator
[d] body
21. The body of a valve typically receives inlet and outlet piping through any of the
following types of joints EXCEPT
[a] glued
[b] welded B
[c] threaded
[d] bolted
22. The internal elements of a valve are collectively referred to as a valve’s.

[a] guts
[b] trim B
[c] works
[d] packings
23. The manually operated hand wheel, manual lever, motor operator, solenoid operator,
pneumatic operator, or hydraulic ram are all examples of
[a] a yoke
[b] a stem D
[c] a bonnet
[d] an actuator
24. Which one of the following valve parts is NOT usually considered to be a part of the
pressure boundary.
[a] body
[b] seal rings C
[c] bonnet
[d] disk
25. Most valves use_______ to prevent leakage from the space between the stem and the
bonnet.
[a] o-rings
[b] a liquid seal C
[c] a metal to metal seal
[d] packing
26. A control valve is most likely to experience cavitation when the valve is almost fully
__________ because of a relatively __________ pressure drop across the valve seat.
[a] closed; large
[b] open; large A
[c] open; small
[d] closed; small
27. Check valves are normally used to prevent… B

[a] pump cavitation by keeping non operating systems filled.
[b] pump run out by providing a constant backpressure.
[c] over pressurization of non operating system piping and components.

[d] back flow through non operating components or flow paths.
28. The primary purpose of a pressure relief valve is to……..

[a] maintain system integrity.
[b] reduce system pressure. A
[c] reduce system energy.
[d] maintain system mass.
29. Two pressure valve is the pneumatic OR valve
[a] True A
[b] False
30. Two way valves are used where a pure straightway function is required, that is when
downstream equipment does not need exhausting to the atmosphere via this valve.
[a] True B
[b] False
Unit-III
1. A condition where integral control action drives the output of a controller into Saturation is B
called
(a) self-bias (b) wind-up (c) repeat (d) noise
2. Which phenomenon occurs due to coincidence of two output signals generated manually as C
well as by control algorithm at the time of switching in manual mode?
(a) Proportional band (b) Offset (c) Bumpless transfer (d) ON-OFF control
action
3. Which of the following controller is also known as anticipatory controller? C

(a) Pneumatic controller (b) ADC/DAC (c) Derivative controller (d) PI
Controller
4. The control configuration with one measurement and more than one manipulated variables D
(a) Feedforward (b) Ratio control (c) Cascade Control (d) Spilt range
control
5. The control scheme which does not introduce instability in the closed loop response is C
(a) Feedback control (b) Cascade control (c) Feedforward control (d) ON-OFF
control
6. Disturbances arising within the secondary loop are corrected by the secondary controller D
before they can affect the value of the primary controlled output is
(a) Feed forward control
(b) Feedback control
(c) Feed forward control with set point element
(d) Cascade control
7. Identify which time integral performance criteria is suitable for the suppression of small A
errors
(a) IAE (b) ISE (c) ITAE (d) All the above
8. The derivative control action is typically used when controlling A

(A) Temperature Process (B) Flow Process (C) Pressure (D) Fast process
9. The derivative controller should not be used for A

a) slow process b) noisy process c)fast process d)none of the above and
C
10. Differential gap is required in ON/OFF controller to prevent A
a. Excessive cycle
b. Overshoot
c. Undershoot
d. Delay
11. D

12. A
13. B
14. Permanent residual error in the operating point of controlled variable produced by a A
proportional controller when a change in load occur is known as
a. offset
b. gain
c. proportional band
d. neutral zone
15. Offset can be minimized by setting--------- for proportional controller. A
a. larger proportional gain

b. smaller proportional gain
c. larger bandwidth
d. smaller bandwidth
16. ----- Controller affects the stability of the process. A
a. Integral
b. Proportional
c. Derivative
d. PI
17. The time required for the output of a proportional – Integral controller to change an A
amount equal to the amount of proportional response provided by a step change of
actuating signal.
a. Reset time
b. Rate constant
c. Delay time
d. Raise time
18. In PID controller the difference between set point and control variable never gets to zero; A
the effect of integral term grows to a very large number is known as
a.Integral windup
b.bumpless transfer
c. antireset windup
d.derivative kick
19. The output of the control element changes at a fixed rate when the error exceed the neutral A
zone is known as
a. Single speed floating controller
b. On/OFF controller
c. P controller
d. PD controller
20. To which process PD controller is more suitable A
a) integrating process b)fast process c)self regulating process d)flow process
21. When error is constant, the output of derivative controller is C
a) A)constant b)one c)zero d) time constant
22. The term reset control refers to D
a)derivative control
b)proportional control
c)rate control
d)integral control
23. In which of the following controllers Offset will occur A
a. PD controller
b. PI controller
c. PID controller
d. None of the above
24. A controller, essentially, is a C
(a) sensor
(b) clipper
(c) compensator
(d) amplifier
25. _____________ is the reference input minus the primary feedback C

a. manipulated variable
b. zero sequence
c. Actuating signal
d. Primary feedback
26. In an automatic control system which of the following elements is not used? D

a. Error detector
b. final control element
c. sensor
d. oscillator
27. Dead zone is the C
a. Same as time constant
b. Same as transportation lag
c. Maximum change in the variable that does not change the reading of the
instrument
d. None of these
28. In a feedback control system, the controller gets its input from the. D
(A) Load variable
(B) Manipulated variable
(C) Inferred variable
(D) Controlled variable
(E) Dynamic variable
29. The feedback control system: A

a. Cannot make corrections until a measurable error exists
b. Makes a change in output which is the differentiated error
c. Is always superior to a feed forward system in operation
d. Is theoretically capable of perfect control
30. Error required to move the valve from fully open to fully close is known as A
(a)proportional band
(b). Proportional gain
(c). derivative gain
(d). reset rate
31. A ----------- in two-position control causes the manipulated variable to maintain its previous A
value until the controlled variables has moved slightly beyond the set point.
(a). differential gap
(b).cycling
(c).overshoot
(d). undershoot
32. Integral windup occurs when PID system has A
a).Constant error
b)increasing error
c). decreasing error
d).No error
33. ----- Controller removes or reduces the steady state error without the need for manual reset . C
a) P
b) PID
c) PI
d) PD
34. The ---------- action anticipates future errors and introduces appropriate action. B
a. Proportional
b. derivative

c. Integral
d. single speed floating
35. ----- Control is the satisfactory control for temperature process. D
a).P
b).PI
c).PD
d).PID
36. Which phenomenon occurs due to coincidence of two output signals generated manually as B
well as by control algorithm at the time of switching in manual mode?
a. Bumped Data Transfer
b. Bumpless Transfer
c. Coincidence Data Transfer
Unit-IV
1. What is type of a system? D
a. Number of poles
b. Number of zeros
c. Number of poles and zero
2. What is type? B
a. Number of poles
b. Number of poles at origin
c. Total number of poles and zeros
d. All the above
3. What is the order of the system? C
a. Highest power of s coefficient
b. Highest power of s coefficient in numerator
c. Highest power of s coefficient in the denominator
4. One of the characteristics of integral control C
a. Introduce offset
b. Increase process output
c. Eliminate offset
d. All the above
5. What is controller tuning? A
a. Process of finding optimum controller parameters
b. Finding control schemes
c. Servo response
6. Open loop method of controller tuning is C
a. Ziegler-Nichols method
b. Continuous method of tuning
c. Process reaction curve method
d. All the above
7. Closed loop method of tuning …… B
a. Process reaction curve method

b. Ziegler – Nichols method
c. Cohen-Coon tuning formula
8. Identify time integral error performance criterion C
a. Setpoint
b. Control valve
c. ITAE
d. All the above
9. Difference between feedforward and feedback control scheme…. A
a. Feedforward sensitive to process parameters
b. Feedback is sensitive to Process parameters
c. Both Feedforward and feedback controllers are same
d. All the above
10. The feedforward control scheme measures ……………. D
a. Controlled variable
b. Process Variable
c. Controller output
d. Disturbance input
11. When cascade control will give improved performance than conventional feedback control? A
a. whenever high performance is mandatory in the face of frequent load changes
b. setpoint correction is needed
c. when controller sensitive to process parameters
d. All the above
12. How to select secondary controller in cascade control scheme? A
a. The dynamics of the secondary loop are much faster than those of the primary
controller
b. The dynamics of the secondary loop are much slower than those of the primary
controller
c. The dynamics of the secondary loop with delay
d. All the above
13. Identify the suitable controller for temperature process. D
a. P Controller
b. PI Controller
c. D Controller
d. PID Controller
14. The device which converts analog signal into digital is called ….. D
a. Convertor
b. Integrator
c. Differentiator
d. ADC (Analog to Digital Converter)
15. On comparing the Ziegler-Nichols to Cohen-Coon settings A
a. The proportional gains are a little larger for the C-C settings
b. The proportional gains are smaller for the C-C settings
c. The rest and rate time constant are smaller for ZN settings
d. All the above
16. The effect of proportional control on the response of first order systems. D
a. It remains first order with respect to setpoint and load changes
b. Time constant reduced

c. The static gain decreased
d. All the above
17. The effect of proportional control on the response of second order systems. D
a. It remains second order
b. The static gain decreases
c. Both natural period and damping factor decreases
d. All the above
18. The effect of derivative control action on the closed loop response of a system D
a. Does not change the order of the response
b. The response of the controlled process is slower than that of the original first order
process
c. Produces more robust behaviour by the controlled process
d. All the above
19. Controller output is zero, when the error is constant and thus the controller take no action A
of the error is known as
A. derivative controller mode
B. proportional controller mode
C. integral controller mode
D. on/ off controller mode
20. If proportional band is 25%, the controller gain in proportional controller is A
a.4
b. 2
c. 1
d. 3
21. The technique to get tuning parameters for controllers from sigmoidal curve is known as A
a. Cohen-coon method
b. Z-N method open loop method
c. Z-N closed loop method
d. Auto tuning method
22. The Kc value for P controller in ultimate method is A
a) Ku/2
b) Ku/2.2
c) Ku/1.7
d) Ku/1.2
23. ------ Controller act before the effect of disturbance felt by the system. A
a) feed forward
b) feedback
c) cascade
d) adaptive
24. ------- control is defined as a control system composed of two loops where the set point of C
one loop (the inner loop) is the output of the controller of the other loop (the outer loop)
.
a. feed forward
b. feedback
c .cascade
d. adaptive
25. ----- controller the disturbance affected by secondary variable will be corrected by C
secondary controller, before the influence is felt by primary controller.
a. feed forward
b. feedback
c .cascade
d. adaptive
26. ------is a special type of feed forward control where two disturbances are measured and A
held in a ratio to each other.
a) Ratio controller
b) cascade controller
c) feedback controller
d) feed forward controller
27. --------- is the satisfactory control for liquid level process. B

a) Proportional Control
b) PI
c) PD
d) PID
28. In continuous cycling method, the ultimate gain is equal to ------------------of B

the system
a)Phase margin b)Gain margin c)phase cross over frquency d)delay
29. Effect of measurable external disturbances are reduced by B

a)cascade control
b)feed forward control
c)on-off control
d)none of the above
30. Which time integral performance criteria is used to suppress the error exists for long time A
a)ITAE b)ISE c)IAE d)offset
31. The primary controller in a cascade control system must always be tuned D
(A) faster than the secondary
(B) using the Ziegler-Nichols method
(C) with the same parameters as the master
(D) after the secondary is tuned
32. The ratio between the successive peaks of under damped system is A
a) one-quarter decay ratio
b) one –half decay ratio
c) three-quarter ratio
d) three-fourth ratio
33. The sustained oscillation occur in closed loop tuning techniques only when the phase angle A
is
a) -180 deg
b) 360 deg
c) 270 deg
d) 90 deg
34. The practical significance of the -------- is to measure of how far the system is the brink of A
instability.
a. gain margin
b. phase margin
c. gain cross over frequency
d. phase cross over frequency
35. ----- Controller requires identification of all possible disturbances and their direct impact. A
Cannot cope with unmeasured disturbances.
a) Feed forward controller
b) Cascade controller
c) Feedback controller
d) IMC
36. Reset control action is often expressed in units of D
(A) percent
(B) seconds per rate
(C) minutes
(D) repeats per minute
37. Addition of zero at origin A
a) Improvement in transient response
b) Reduction in steady state error
c) Reduction is settling time
d) Increase in damping constant
38. When derivative action is included in a proportional controller, the proportional band A
A. Remains unchanged
B. Increases
C. Reduces
D. None of the above
39. The quarter-amplitude decay ratio is basically a design criteria specified by Zeigler-Nichols A
method implies that the amplitude of an oscillation must be reduced by a factor of
__________
a) four over a whole period
b) four over an half period
c) four over a quarter period
d) four over a quarter and a half period
40. What should be the value of manipulated variable, if the mismatch between the value of B
controlled variable and the set point is zero?
A. Should be zero
B. Should remain at its previous value
C. Should be equal to the set point
41. In Zeigler Nichols tuning method, the sustained oscillation is obtained by using D
a) PID controller
b) PI controller
c) PD controller
d) Proportional controller alone.

42. There are some disturbances which affects manipulated variable and output variable. D
Suggest suitable control schemes.
a) Feedback +Feed forward Controller
b) Feedback+ cascade Controller
c) Cascade Controller alone
d) Feedback +Feed forward+ Cascade Controller
43. In a relay feedback tuning method, the output and manipulated variable response is shown A
in the Figure. Where a=2 and h=3.1416. What is the value of ultimate gain?
a) 2
b) 3.1416
c) 4
d) 0.5
44. The Performance criteria based on Frequency Response is given below. Choose the correct B
one.
a) A system is stable if the gain is less than one (unity) at the frequency for which the
phase lag is -360° .
b) A system is stable if the gain is less than one (unity) at the frequency for which the
c) A system is stable if the gain is less than one (unity) at the frequency for which the
d) A system is stable if the gain is less than one (unity) at the frequency for which the
45. What is the Control Scheme used in the process shown in the figure B
a) Feedback +Feed forward Controller

b) Feedback+ Cascade Controller
c) Cascade Controller alone
d) Feedback +Feed forward+ Cascade Controller
Unit-V
1. The cost function can be minimized or maximized in -----method. A
(a) Optimization
(b) Auto tuning
(c) IMC
(d) Smith predictor
2. The control variables in Heat Exchanger process is--------- A
a) Temperature of Process fluid.
b) Changes in process fluid flow rate.
c) Changes in process fluid inlet temperature.
d) Changes in steam pressure, causing a change in steam flow rate.
3. The manipulated variables in CSTR is C
a. Effluent temperature
b. Volume of the liquid
c. Coolant flow rate
d. Fluid inlet temperature
4. When many inputs (manipulated variables) and many controlled variable (measured outputs) A
are present in a loop is called
a. Multivariable control system
b. Multiloop Control system
c. Feedback control system
d. Cascade control system
5. The ----- design procedure is a two step design process that aims to provide a suitable trade- A
off between performance and robustness.
a) IMC
b) Smith Predictor
c) PID
d) Autotunning
6. ------- Controller cancels the long dead time present in the process. B
a) IMC
b) Smith Predictor
c) PID
d) Feed forward
7. In feed forward controller scheme of heat exchanger------- is known as manipulated variable. A
a. Steam flow rate
b. Temperature of the liquid
c. Changes in process inlet fluid flow rate.
d. Changes in process fluid inlet temperature
8. In Feed forward control scheme of CSTR has ………number of manipulated variables. A
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
9. The relationship between the major components in the system has been described by A
a) Process flow diagram
b) Piping and Instrumentation diagram
c) Process and Instrumentation diagram
d) Process flow and piping diagram
10. RGA is known as ---- matrix A
a. Relative gain array
b. Reactive gain array

c. Real gain array
d. Reflex gain array
11. Internal Model Controller (IMC) is A
A. Model dependant method
B. Rule based model
C. Inference system approach
D. Model independent method
12. ______________ Factorize the process model into minimum phase and non- D
minimum phase components.
A. Fuzzy Logic
B. Neural Network
C. PID control
D. Internal Model Control
13. Which of the following terms are associated with CSTR? D
A. Feed flow rate
B. Feed concentration
C. Coolant flow rate
D. All of the above
14. A system with more than one input variable and more than one A
output variable is known as
A. Multivariable control system
B. Optimal Control system
C. Single variable control system
15. Lambda tuning is a form of B
A. Fuzzy logic Control
B. Internal Model Control
C. Optimal Control
D. Both A & C
16. Smith Predictor Control Scheme used for the system having ……………………. A
A. larger delay than time constant of the system
B. small delay system
C. large time constant system
D. no delay

17. D
(A) Pneumatic, in the field (process) area

(B) Pneumatic, on the front of a secondary control panel
(C) Pneumatic, on the front of the main control panel
(D) Electronic, on the front of the main control panel
18. Identify the following instrumentation (P&ID and loop diagram) line A
types, from left to right:
(A) pneumatic, electric, capillary, hydraulic

(B) electric, pneumatic, digital network, filled system
(C) pneumatic, electric, hydraulic, mechanical link
(D) pneumatic, mechanical link, hydraulic, capillary
19. The transfer function G21 indicates the relation between A
A. input-1 to output-2
B. input-1 to output-1
C. nput-2 to output-1
D. input-2 to output-2
20. What does the following symbol indicate? Choose the best option D
A. Timer
B. Temperature indicating controller, locally mounted
C. Temperature indicating controller, not accessible
D. Temperature indicating controller, mounted in the control room, part of
distributed control system
21. A properly designed feedforward control system: B

a. Should be applied to every process

b. Should be employed when its use can be justified economically and technologically
c. Is always easier to adjust than a feedback system
d. Will always result in more economical process operation
22. The most dramatic application of feed forward techniques has occurred in their application to D
a. Heatexchangers
b. Level processes
c. Flow processes
d. Distillation columns
23. ----------- does not require identification and measurement of disturbance and highly reliable C
control method.
(a).Feedforward controller
b).Cascade controller
c.) Feedback controller
d. IMC
24. The energy transfer between the hot fluid and cold fluids is brought about by A
their complete physical mixing in
a. Direct contact heat exchanger
b. Recuperators
c. Boilers
d. Regenerators
25. . In a shell and tube heat exchanger, the inlet temperature of heating /cooling fluid is the B
---------------------------- variable.
a) Load
b) Manipulated
c) Controlled
d) None of these.
26. one examples of heat exchanger are C
(i) Condensers and evaporators in refrigeration units
(ii) Evaporator of an Ice plant and milk chiller of a pasteurizing plant
(iii) Automobile radiators and oil coolers of heat engines
Identify the correct answer
a) i only
b) ii and iii
c) i, ii and iii
d) i and ii
27. This example shows the limitations of PI control for processes with long dead time and A
illustrates the benefits of a control strategy called "--------------------------."
a) smith predictor
b) IMC
c) MPC
d) none of above
28. Deploying the Smith Predictor scheme requires :Adequate settings for the compensator and A
filter dynamics and also
a) A model (Gp) of the process dynamics
b) inverse of the model
c) multiplication of model
d) division of model
29. The IMC-based PID design procedure for a first-order process has resulted in a PI control B
law. The IMC-based procedure shows that only the proportional gain needs to be adjusted.
The integral time is simply set equal to the ………………………….
a) transient time
b) process time constant
c) dead time
d) none of above
30. The powerful IMC framework can be used to design PID-type controllers that can be A
implemented on industrial processes using existing (PID) control equipment.
a) yes
b) no
c) only PI loop
d) none
31. The energy balance equation of a CSTR under transient condition is C
a) an ordinary differential equation
b) an algebraic equation
c) a linear partial differential equation
d) a non linear differential equation
32. In continuous flow stirred tank CSTR reactor, the composition of exit stream A
a) is same as that in reactor
b) is different
c) is the inlet flow rate
d) none of these
33. The types of heat exchanger are D
a) shell type
b) tube type
c) plate heat type
d) all the above
34. The good control system has following features except B
a) good stability
b) slow response
c) good accuracy
d) sufficient power handling capacity
35. The three “elements” in a three-element boiler feed water control system are D
(A) Feedwater flow, water conductivity, and steam flow
(B) Drum level, water pH, and drum temperature
(C) Turbidity, feed water flow, and temperature
(D) Steam flow, drum level, and feed water flow
36. The following P&ID shows an control strategy A

a) cascade loop
b) adaptive loop
c) feedback loop
d)feed forward loop
37. In a P& ID Diagram, XYY CZZLL format is being used.
What XYY represents?
a) X represents a process variable to be measured; YY represents type

of instruments
b) X represents a process variable to be measured; YY represents
Process unit number
c) X represents a process variable to be measured; YY represents loop
number
d) X represents a process variable to be measured; YY represents
instruments area within the plant.

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EI8553 Process Control MCQ Dept of EIE and ICE 2020-21

EI8553 PROCESS CONTROL

[c] measured and unmeasured variables

[a] open loop system

5. The purpose of valve packing is to:

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6. Cavitation in a control valve is caused by

8. Which of the following factors to be considered with respect to valve positioned?

9. The type of the pneumatic actuators among the following is _______

[a] Air to close valve

19. What is the main purpose of the control valve positioner?

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22. The internal elements of a valve are collectively referred to as a valve’s.

27. Check valves are normally used to prevent… B

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[d] back flow through non operating components or flow paths.

28. The primary purpose of a pressure relief valve is to……..

3. Which of the following controller is also known as anticipatory controller? C

8. The derivative control action is typically used when controlling A

9. The derivative controller should not be used for A

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15. Offset can be minimized by setting--------- for proportional controller. A

a. larger proportional gain

25. _____________ is the reference input minus the primary feedback C

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29. The feedback control system: A

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a. Process reaction curve method

b. Time constant reduced

27. --------- is the satisfactory control for liquid level process. B

28. In continuous cycling method, the ultimate gain is equal to ------------------of B

29. Effect of measurable external disturbances are reduced by B

d) Proportional controller alone.

a) Feedback +Feed forward Controller

b. Reactive gain array

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(A) Pneumatic, in the field (process) area

(A) pneumatic, electric, capillary, hydraulic

21. A properly designed feedforward control system: B

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a) X represents a process variable to be measured; YY represents type

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