26-12-2021

Medical Entrance Exams - 2022

TEST No. 1
(XII Passed Students)

1. Read each question carefully. 8. Each correct answer carries four marks. One mark will be
2. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the deducted for each incorrect answer from the total score.
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
9. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have been filled and
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet. marked correctly.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the
sheet. No change in the answer once marked is allowed.
answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material
in the examination hall. 11. There are two sections in each subject i.e., Section-A & Section-B.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only
the test paper contains all pages and no page is missing. 10 questions out of 15 from Section-B.

Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
 Test No. 1

Physical World, Units and Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line, Motion in a

Physics Plane

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements

Chemistry and Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure.

Botany Cell: The Unit of Life, Cell Cycle and Cell Division, The Living World

Structural Organisation in Animals – Animal Tissues, Biomolecules, Digestion and

Zoology Absorption
 Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

MM : 720 TEST - 1 Time : 3 Hrs.

[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer:

SECTION-A 6. Some physical constants are given in column I and

their dimensional formulae are given in column II.
1. Natural science does not include Match the correct pairs in the columns.
(1) Social sciences
Column I Column II
(2) Physics
(3) Biology A. Gravitational (P) [ML2T–1]
constant
(4) Chemistry
2. 2 metre is the length of path travelled by light in B. Stefan’s constant (Q) [ML0T–3K–4]
vacuum during a time interval of C. Boltzmann’s (R) [M–1L3T–2]
1 constant
(1) of a second
299, 972, 458
D. Planck’s constant (S) [ML2T–2K–1]
1
(2) of a second (1) A(R), B(S), C(Q), D(P)
149, 896, 229
(2) A(P), B(Q), C(R), D(S)
1
(3) of a second (3) A(R), B(Q), C(S), D(P)
299, 792, 854
(4) A(Q), B(R), C(P), D(S)
1
(4) of a second 7. The value of the product of two measured quantities
149, 896, 427
414.4 and 94 upto correct significant figures is
3. Which of the following expresses the most accurate (1) 3.9 × 104 (2) 38953.6
measurement of length of a rod?
(3) 3.6 × 103 (4) 36853.5
(1) 600.1 mm (2) 6.1 mm
8. The value of (994)1/3 according to binomial theorem
(3) 6.15 mm (4) 16.2 mm is
4. If the error in the measurement of area of a sphere (1) 9.46 (2) 9.98
is 2%, then the maximum error in calculation of
(3) 10.1 (4) 9.9
volume will be
(1) 2% 9. The value of 270° in radian is

(2) 1%  2
(1) (2)
3 3
(3) 4%
(4) 3% 3 3
(3) (4)
4 2
5. The resistance of a wire is measured as
(6 ± 0.5%) ohm. The absolute error in measurement 10. Which of the following physical quantity has derived
of resistance is unit?
(1) 0.03 ohm (1) Mass
(2) 0.3 ohm (2) Current
(3) 0.02 ohm (3) Velocity
(4) 0.2 ohm (4) Amount of substance

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-E)

11. The pair of quantities having same dimensions is 17. The position-time graph of a moving particle is as
(1) Acceleration, momentum shown in the figure. The speed of the particle

(2) Work, Torque

(3) Time, frequency
(4) Wavelength, angular velocity
x
12. If force   y ; is dimensionally correct, the
Area
(1) Constant
dimensions of [xy] are
(2) Continuously decreases
(1) [M2L4T–4] (2) [ML3T–4]
(3) Continuously increases
(3) [ML2T–2] (4) [M0L3T–4]
(4) First increases then decreases
13. In a new system of units, unit of mass is taken as 10
kg, unit of length is 60 m and unit of time is 1 minute. 18. The variation of radius of a circle with time is given
The value of 20 N weight of a body in the new unit by the relation r = (2t + 3) m, where t is time in
will be second. The rate of change of area of the circle at t
= 1 s will be
(1) 20 unit
(1) 20 m2/s
(2) 60 unit
(3) 40 unit (2) 10 m2/s

(4) 120 unit (3) 15 m2/s

14. A screw gauge has least count of 0.02 mm and (4) Zero
there are 100 divisions on its circular scale. The 19. The velocity-time graph of a particle moving in a
pitch of the screw gauge is straight line is shown in the figure. The
(1) 0.02 mm (2) 0.01 mm instantaneous acceleration of the particle is
negative at the point
(3) 2 mm (4) 1.0 mm
15. If the percentage error in measurement of a and b
are 3% each, then the maximum percentage error
in calculation of y  ab will be

(1) 3% (2) 9%
(3) 4.5% (4) 1.5%
16. The distance travelled by a person moving from A
to C on the circular path as shown in figure is 471
m. The radius R of the circular path will be nearly (1) A
(2) B
(3) D
(4) C
20. A train of length 225 m is moving towards north with
a velocity of 10 m/s. A parrot flies at speed of 5 m/s
(1) 50 m towards south parallel to the railway track. The time
(2) 100 m taken by parrot to cross the train will be

(3) 40 m (1) 10 s (2) 15 s

(4) 120 m (3) 20 s (4) 5 s

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 Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

21. The variation in velocity of a particle moving along 26. A vector P of magnitude 2 acting in x-y plane is
a straight line is as shown in figure. The distance making an angle 30° with positive x-axis. The vector
travelled by the particle in first 5 s is P will be
(1) iˆ  3 jˆ (2) 3iˆ  ˆj

1ˆ 3 ˆ 3ˆ 1ˆ
(3) i j (4) i j
2 2 2 2
27. For a body thrown vertically up, which of the
following best represents displacement-time graph?
(1) 20 m (Taking vertically upward direction positive)

(2) 40 m
(3) 10 m
(1) (2)
(4) 50 m
22. A person travels along a straight road for the first
th th
 1 3
  time with speed v1 and for next   time
4 4
with a speed v2. The average speed of the person (3) (4)
will be
v1  v 2 v1  4v 2
(1) (2) 28. A body is thrown vertically up with some velocity (at
2 3
t = 0) crosses a fixed point P in its path at t = 4 s and
v1  3v 2 again at t = 6 s. The velocity of projection of the body
(3) (4) v1 + v2
4 will be
23. Position of a particle moving along x-axis is given by (1) 20 m/s (2) 50 m/s
x = 6t – 3t2, where x is in m and t is in s. Time (t) at (3) 10 m/s (4) 40 m/s
which particle will momentarily come to rest is 29. Two bodies one held 100 cm directly above the
1 other are released simultaneously from the large
(1) s (2) 2 s
2 height and both fall freely under the gravity. The
separation between the bodies just after 2 s will be
1
(3) 1 s (4) s (1) 50 cm (2) 100 cm
4
(3) 80 cm (4) 120 cm
24. Which of the following sets of vectors given below
may have zero resultant? 30. A food packet is released from a helicopter, which
is rising vertically at 2 m/s. The magnitude of
(1) 12, 14, 28 (2) 14, 18, 36
velocity of the food packet after 2 s will be (g = 10
(3) 11, 22, 17 (4) 0.5, 1, 2 m/s2)
25. Wind is blowing with velocity ‘v’ towards north-east. (1) 10 m/s (2) 12 m/s
A man starts running towards north with
(3) 18 m/s (4) 5 m/s
acceleration a. The time after which man will feel the
31. At the top of the trajectory of a particle projected
wind blowing towards east is
obliquely, the velocity and acceleration are directed
v v
(1) (2) (1) Perpendicular to each other
2a a
(2) Inclined to each other at an angle 45°
2v 2v (3) Parallel to each other
(3) (4)
a a
(4) Anti-parallel to each other
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-E)

32. The range of a projectile when launched at angle 2 39. A projectile projected from ground, with velocity v
is R. When launched at angle 3, the range is still making angle 60° with vertical, attains maximum
R. Then value of  should be (speed of projection in height H. The time interval for which projectile
both case is same) remains in air is
(1) 30° (2) 60° H H
(1) (2)
(3) 24° (4) 18º 2g g
33. A body projected horizontally from the top of a tower 8H 4H
with initial velocity 30 m/s hits the ground at an (3) (4)
g g
angle 60° with the horizontal. The vertical
component of velocity at the time of hitting the 40. For motion of an object along x-axis, the velocity v
ground is depends on the position x as v = (2x2 – x) m/s, where
x is in m. The acceleration of the object at x = 1 m
(1) 10 3 m/s (2) 30 3 m/s
will be
(3) 30 m/s (4) 15 m/s (1) 1 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2
34. A person sitting in an open car moving at constant (3) 2 m/s2 (4) Zero
velocity throws a ball vertically up into air. The ball
41. Rain is falling vertically downwards with a speed of
falls (neglect air drag)
6 km/h. A girl moves on a straight road with velocity
(1) Outside the car 8 km/h. The magnitude of velocity of rain with
(2) In the car ahead of the person respect to girl is
(3) In the car to the side of the person (1) 14 km/h (2) 2 km/h
(4) Exactly in the hand which threw it up (3) 10 km/h (4) 6 km/h

gx 2 42. A swimmer wishes to cross a 800 m river flowing at

35. The equation of a projectile is y  3 x  . The 4 km/h. His speed with respect to water is
2
velocity of projection of the projectile will be 3 km/h. The shortest possible time to cross the river
is
(1) 4 m/s (2) 8 m/s
(1) 20 min (2) 16 min
(3) 2 m/s (4) 1 m/s
(3) 12 min (4) 24 min
SECTION-B 43. A body is moving in a circular path with a constant
36. A boat is moving with velocity (4iˆ  6 jˆ) m/s with speed. It has

respect to ground. The water in the river is moving (1) A constant velocity
with (3iˆ  4 jˆ) m/s with respect to ground. The (2) A constant acceleration
velocity of boat with respect to water is (3) An acceleration of constant magnitude

(1) (7iˆ  10 jˆ) m/s (2) (iˆ  2 ˆj ) m/s (4) An acceleration which varies in magnitude with
time
(3) (5iˆ  7 jˆ) m/s (4) (5iˆ  8 jˆ) m/s
44. A particle is projected with an initial velocity
37. The magnitude of resultant of two vectors having v  (2iˆ  4 jˆ) m/s. The equation of trajectory of the
magnitude 12 N and 6 N, can be particle will be (g = 10 m/s2) (Assume horizontal
(1) 2 N (2) 20 N direction as x-axis and vertically upward as positive
y-axis)
(3) 3 N (4) 10 N
5x 2 3 2
38. A force F makes an angle 40° with another force F. (1) y  2x  (2) y  12x  x
The resultant of two forces is 4 4

(1) 2Fsin20° (2) Fcos20° x2 3 2

(3) y  x  (4) y  8 x  x
(3) 2Fcos20° (4) 2Fcos40° 4 4

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 Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

 48. A particle is moving in a circle of radius R with

45. If angle between two vectors a and b is rad then constant speed. The time period of particle is T = 2 s.
4
T
angle between vectors 2a and 4b is In a time t  , if the difference between average
3
  speed and magnitude of average velocity of the
(1) rad (2) rad
2 4 particle is 4 m s–1, then the radius R of the circle is
nearly
 
(3) rad (4) rad (1) 14 m (2) 18.6 m
6 3
(3) 2.4 m (4) 7.4 m
46. A mark on the rim of a rotating circular wheel of 0.75
m radius is moving with a speed of 12 m/s. The 49. A ball of mass m and another ball of mass 2m are
angular speed of the rim will be dropped from equal heights. If the time taken by the
balls to reach the ground are t1 and t2 respectively,
(1) 12 rad/s (2) 8 rad/s then (neglect air drag)
(3) 16 rad/s (4) 9 rad/s (1) t1 = t2 (2) 2t1 = t2
47. The velocity of a particle as a function of time t is
(3) t1 = 2t2 (4) t1  2t2
given as v  (3t 2  2t ) m/s. The displacement of the
50. A body is projected with velocity 60 m/s at an angle
particle in first 2 s will be
30° with the horizontal. The velocity vector of the
(1) 12 m particle at t = 1 s will be (Assume horizontal direction
(2) 16 m x-axis and vertical upwards as y-axis)

(3) 20 m (1) (30 3iˆ  30 ˆj ) m/s (2) (20 3iˆ  20 jˆ) m/s

(4) 6 m (3) (30 3iˆ  20 ˆj ) m/s (4) (20 3iˆ  30 ˆj ) m/s

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A (1) All P will be consumed
(2) 4 mole of R will form
51. Which of the following has maximum number of (3) 2 mole of S will form
molecules?
(4) All Q will consumed
(1) 1 g H2 (2) 28 g N2 55. The number of radial nodes in 3p orbital is
(3) 64 g O2 (4) 36 g C2 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3
52. Volume of N2 required at STP to produce 10 moles
56. For a multielectron atom, which among the following
of NH3 through Haber’s process is
orbital has maximum energy?
(1) 112 L (2) 224 L (1) 5f (2) 3d
(3) 145 L (4) 184 L (3) 4s (4) 2p
53. 3.01 × 1022 molecules of glucose (C6H12O6) are 57. Select the incorrect statement among the following.
present in 100 ml of water (density of solution (1) Mathematically the uncertainty principle is
= 1 g/ml). The molality of the solution is presented as x  p 
2
(1) 0.25 m (2) 1 m (2) The value of m for d orbital is non-zero
z2
(3) 1.25 m (4) 0.5 m
(3) Two electrons occupying the same orbital of an
54. In the reaction, atom are distinguished by spin quantum
number
P(g) + 2Q(g)  4R(g) + 3S(l)
(4) Electrons in the 3d orbitals have different spatial
When 1 mole of P and 1 mole of Q are allowed to distribution, consequently their shielding of one
react to the completion of reaction, then another is relatively small

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-E)

58. Paschen series of H-atom spectrum lies in 68. Among NaX, maximum covalent character is shown
(1) UV region (2) Visible region by (X is halogen)
(3) Infrared region (4) Microwave region (1) NaF (2) NaCl
59. The correct order of the increasing radii of the given (3) NaBr (4) NaI
species is
69. In the organic compound
(1) P3– < Cl– < S2– (2) S2– < Cl– < P3–
(3) Cl– < S2– < P3– (4) P3– < S2– < Cl–
60. First ionisation enthalpy among the following is
maximum for the state of hybridization of carbons 2, 4 and 6 are
(1) O (2) C in the following sequence
(3) B (4) N (1) sp3, sp2, sp (2) sp, sp2, sp2
61. The general valence shell electronic configuration (3) sp, sp3, sp2 (4) sp2, sp2, sp2
of d-block elements is
(1) (n – 1)d1–10 ns1–2 (2) nd1–10 ns 1–2 70. The total number of antibonding electrons in N 2 ion

(3) (n – 1)d1–10 ns 0–1 (4) (n – 1)d1–10 ns 0–2 on the basis of molecular orbital theory is
62. Which among the following elements has highest (1) 4 (2) 5
negative electron gain enthalpy? (3) 6 (4) 7
(1) F (2) Cl 71. If the mass percentage of Mg in a biomolecule is
(3) Br (4) I 0.2%, then the minimum possible molecular weight
63. In the structure of XeF4, the number of lone pair of of biomolecule will be
electrons on the central atom is
(1) 24000 u (2) 36000 u
(1) One (2) Two
(3) 12000 u (4) 48000 u
(3) Three (4) Four
72. The molarity of a resulting solution obtained by
64. Consider the following species : O2 , O2 , O22 and mixing 50 ml, 0.1 M HCl solution with 100 ml of
O2 , which one of these will have the lowest bond 0.2 M HCl solution is

order? M M
(1) (2)
4 6
(1) O2 (2) O 2
M M
(3) O 2 (4) O 22  (3)
2
(4)
10
65. Which of the following species contains minimum 73. The percentage purity of calcium carbonate sample
number of -bonds? whose 10 g on complete decomposition gives 4 g
CO2, is
(1) (CN)2 (2)
(1) 98.2% (2) 92.8%

(3) XeO4 (4) H2SO4 (3) 95.6% (4) 90.9%

66. Which of the following pair of species is 74. If 100 g of a metal oxide contains 40 g oxygen then
isostructural? the equivalent weight of metal in the metal oxide is

(1) BeCl2 and XeF2 (2) NH3 and NO3 (1) 20 (2) 16
(3) 8 (4) 12
(3) ClO3 and NO3 (4) BF3 and NH3
75. The radius of 3rd Bohr’s orbit of H-atom is
67. Which of the following molecules has minimum (Given : radius of first Bohr’s orbit = r0)
dipole moment?
(1) 9r0 (2) 3r0
(1) SO2 (2) NO2
(3) 15r0 (4) 18r0
(3) CO2 (4) ClO2
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76. The orbital angular momentum of electron in ‘p’ 84. Strongest intermolecular H-bonding is present in
orbital is equal to (1) HF (2) NH3
2h (3) H2O (4) HCl
(1) Zero (2)
 85. The correct geometry and hybridization for PCl5 are
(1) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d
h h
(3) (4) (2) Pentagonal bipyramidal, sp3d3
2 2
(3) Octahedral, sp3d2
77. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the
(4) Square pyramidal, sp3d
outermost electron of Zn (Z = 30) is
SECTION-B
1 1
(1) 3, 2, 0,  (2) 4, 1, 0,  86. Minimum bond length among the following is of
2 2
1 1 (1) C – H (2) N – O
(3) 4, 0, 0,  (4) 3, 2,  1,  (3) O – H (4) C – O
2 2
87. The species having bond angle of 90° is
78. The total number of atomic orbitals in the third
(1) SO3 (2) SF6
energy level of an atom is
(1) 3 (2) 9 (3) SF4 (4) NH4

(3) 6 (4) 7 88. The decreasing order of bond angles in CH 4 (1),

H2O (2) and NH3 (3) is
79. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons in
(1) 3 > 2 > 1 (2) 2 > 1 > 3
19 
9 F ion, respectively are
(3) 2 > 3 > 1 (4) 1 > 3 > 2
(1) 9, 10 and 10 (2) 9, 9 and 10 89. Octet rule is not followed in
(3) 10, 9 and 10 (4) 9, 9 and 9 (1) SCl2 (2) BCl3
(3) CCl4 (4) ICl
80. According to the Bohr’s theory, which of the
90. The formal charge on central oxygen atom in
following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give
rise to the highest energetic photon? is
(1) n = 4 to n = 1 (2) n = 5 to n = 4
(1) –1 (2) 0
(3) n = 4 to n = 2 (4) n = 5 to n = 3 (3) –2 (4) +1
81. Maximum number of orbitals in a subshell of an 91. Which among the following has only two -bonds
atom is given by and no -bond?
(1) 2l (2) 2l + 1 (1) C2 (2) B2
(3) Be2 (4) N2
(3) 4l +2 (4) 2l + 2
92. Both ionic and covalent bonds are present in
82. The pair of isoelectronic species among the
(1) CaF2 (2) C2H2
following is
(3) KOH (4) NaCl
(1) N2 and CN (2) O2 and N2 93. The incorrect statement regarding resonance
among the following is
(3) CO and N2 (4) CN and O2 (1) The energy of the resonance hybrid is more
than the energy of any single canonical
83. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle having
structure
mass 0.662 g and moving with velocity 1 m/s is
(2) The canonical forms have no real existence
(h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js)
(3) Resonance averages the bond characteristics
(1) 10–33 m (2) 10–34 m as a whole
(3) 10–31 m (4) 10–30 m (4) The total number of pair and unpaired electrons
in all the canonical forms remains same
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94. Assuming x-axis to be internuclear axis, which of 98. Match the oxide given in Column A with its chemical
the following orbitals do not form  bond on nature given in Column B
overlapping? Column-A Column-B
(1) 2s and 2s (2) 2s and 2px a. NO (i) Acidic
(3) 2px and 2px (4) 2px and 2py b. As2O3 (ii) Basic
95. Element A has 2 electrons in the outermost orbit c. SO3 (iii) Neutral
and element B has 7 electrons in the outermost d. Na2O (iv) Amphoteric
orbit. The possible formula of the compound formed
Which of the following options has all correct pairs?
by elements A and B is
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) AB (2) AB2
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) A2B (4) A2B3
99. An element having Z = 117 belongs to which of the
96. An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen following group?
and oxygen. The elemental analysis of compound
(1) 14th (2) 15th
gives C: 41.38% and H: 3.45%. The empirical
(3) 16th (4) 17th
formula of the compound would be
100. Statement I : Mole fraction is the ratio of moles of a
(1) CHO (2) CH2O
substance to the total moles in the solution.
(3) C2H3O (4) CH3O Statement II : Mole fraction does not depend on
97. How many electrons can fit in an orbital for which temperature of solution.
n = 3 and l = 1? In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) 6 correct answer from the options given below.

(2) 2 (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(3) 8
(3) Both statement I and statement II are true
(4) 10
(4) Both statement I and statement II are false

[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 102. According to IUCN, currently known and described
species of all organisms are between
101. Read the following statements and choose the
(1) 35 - 38 million (2) 3.8 - 4.0 million
option for the set of all the correct ones.
(3) 13 - 14 million (4) 1.7 - 1.8 million
a. All living organisms grow but growth is not a
103. Select the option in which the scientific name is
defining property of living organisms
printed correctly.
b. Reproduction is the fundamental characteristic
(1) Solanum Nigrum (2) Panthera leo
of all living organisms
(3) Mangifera indica (4) Homo sapiens
c. All the living organisms possess metabolic
104. Out of the following, which one is not a taxon
reactions
related to wheat?
d. Self-consciousness is seen in most of the (1) Poales (2) Angiospermae
animals species
(3) Dicotyledonae (4) Triticum
(1) (a), (c) and (d)
105. In both plant and animal cells, the main arena of
(2) (a) and (c) cellular activities is their
(3) (b), (c) and (d) (1) Nucleus (2) Cytoplasm
(4) (b) and (d) (3) Genetic material (4) Nucleoplasm

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 Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

106. Which amongst the following cell organelles in 111. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
eukaryotes are not single membrane bound?
(1) RNA is the only genetic material in bacteria
(a) Lysosome (b) Vacuole
(2) Some bacteria are resistant to antibiotics due to
(c) Mitochondrion (d) Centrosome plasmid
(e) Chloroplast (f) Golgi complex (3) Mesosomes in bacteria are infoldings of plasma
(g) Ribosome membrane
(1) (c) and (e) only (4) Inclusion bodies are also found in bacteria
(2) (d) and (g) only 112. In three layered envelope of bacterial cells, the
(3) (a), (b) and (f) outermost layer is
(4) (c), (d), (e) and (g) (1) Pellicle (2) Cell wall
107. Identify the option which is correct regarding the (3) Plasma membrane (4) Glycocalyx
cell organelles which are also found within other cell
113. The plasma membrane of prokaryotes and
organelles.
eukaryotes are
(1) These are single membrane bound structures
(1) Similar in structure but different in function
(2) They are composed of ribonucleic acid and
proteins (2) Similar in structure and function
(3) They store proteins and lipids (3) Different in both structure and function
(4) These are formed only in the nucleus (4) Different in structure but similar in function
108. The smallest individual which has nucleic acid either 114. In which of the following processes/functions, there
DNA or RNA is is no role of mesosome?
(1) PPLO (2) Mycoplasma (1) DNA replication
(3) Virus (4) A typical bacteria
(2) Distribution of daughter cells
109. Match the following columns and select the correct
(3) Cell wall formation
option.
(4) Movement of cilia and flagella
Column I Column II
115. All of the following informations regarding
A. White blood cells (i) Branched and long
chromatophores are correct, except
B. Tracheid (ii) Round and oval
(1) They contain genetic materials
C. Mesophyll cells (iii) Amoeboid
(2) These are membranous extensions into the
D. Nerve cells (iv) Elongated
cytoplasm
A B C D
(3) They contain pigments
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) These are found in some photosynthetic
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
prokaryotes
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
116. In prokaryotes, the polysome has ribosomes with
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
sub-units
110. Select the incorrect match from the following.
(1) 50S and 20S attached with mRNA
(1) Vibrio – Comma shaped
(2) 40S and 30S attached with rRNA
(2) Bacillus – Spherical
(3) 50S and 30S attached with mRNA
(3) Blue-green algae – Naked genetic material
(4) 50S and 30S attached with rRNA
(4) Plasmid – Small circular DNA
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-E)

117. Consider the following diagram and select the 122. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
option which is not true regarding the labelled part. (1) Galactans and mannans are found in the cell
wall of algae
(2) Cell wall protects the cell from mechanical
damage
(3) Plants never contain proteins in their cell wall
(4) Primary cell wall of young plant cell is capable
of growth
123. What is true for endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi
complex, lysosomes as well as vacuoles?
(1) They store protein digesting enzymes
(2) These are the sites of protein synthesis
(1) A – Performs the function of packaging
(3) They play important role in osmoregulation
material
(4) They are included in endomembrane system
(2) B – Contains excretory products and other
materials 124. The plastid (i) store oils and fats whereas (ii)

(3) C – Made up of cellulose store proteins.

(4) D – Contains xanthophylls Select the correct option to fill in the blanks (i) and
(ii).
118. Cell membrane is mainly composed of
(i) (ii)
(1) Lipids and cholesterol
(1) Amyloplasts Elaioplasts
(2) Polysaccharides and polypeptides
(2) Chromoplasts Chloroplasts
(3) Lipids and proteins
(3) Aleuroplasts Elaioplasts
(4) Cellulose and phospholipids
(4) Elaioplasts Aleuroplasts
119. The site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis in an
eukaryotic cell is 125. The location in a cell where cytoskeleton is found, is

(1) Cytosol (2) Nucleolus (1) Nuclear membrane (2) Cytoplasm

(3) Centromere (4) Perinuclear space (3) Cell wall (4) Plasma membrane

120. Which of the following organelles are involved in the 126. Which of the following processes occur during cell
formation of spindle fibres and basal body of cycle?
flagella? a. Synthesis of RNA
(1) Centrioles (2) Ribosomes b. DNA replication
(3) Kinetochores (4) Microbodies c. Protein synthesis
121. The arrangement of axonemal microtubules in cilia d. Organelles duplication
and flagella is referred as The correct ones are
(1) 9 + 2 array (1) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) 9 + 0 arrangement (2) Only (b) and (d)
(3) 12 + 1 array (3) Only (b), (c) and (d)
(4) 12 + 2 arrangement (4) Only (a) and (c)

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 Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

127. Read the following statements and choose the 133. Select the correct sequence of different stages of
option which is true for them. karyokinesis.
Statement A : The steps of cell division are (1) Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
themselves under genetic control.
(2) Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase, Telophase
Statement B : Cell growth in terms of cytoplasmic
increase is a continuous process. (3) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
(1) Only statement A is correct (4) Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
(2) Only statement B is correct 134. Read the following events :
(3) Both the statements are correct  Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
 Chromosomes are moved to get aligned at
128. If a yeast cell divides into two daughter cells in 90 spindle equator.
minutes then, how much time it takes to complete
its M phase? During which stage of cell cycle, these events
occur?
(1) Less than 4.5 minutes
(2) More than 85.5 minutes (1) Anaphase

(3) 12-15 minutes (2) Metaphase

(4) 50-55 minutes (3) Telophase
129. One of the stages of interphase also known as (4) Prophase
synthesis phase occurs
135. Which event marks the start of the second phase of
(1) Just before Gap 1 phase
mitosis?
(2) During quiescent stage
(1) Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope
(3) Just after Gap 2 phase
(2) Beginning of condensation of chromatin
(4) Between Gap 1 and Gap 2 phases
material
130. A cell undergoing reduction division has 28
chromosomes in its G1 stage. What would be the (3) Alignment of chromosomes at the equator
number of chromosomes in this cell just after (4) Assemblage of nuclear envelope
S phase?
(1) 112 (2) 56 SECTION-B
(3) 28 (4) 14
136. Which of the following events is not associated with
131. Select the incorrect statement regarding the cells
anaphase?
which are in G0 phase.
(1) These cells do not appear to exhibit division (1) Splitting of centromeres

(2) These cells exit G1 phase of cell cycle (2) Formation of cell plate
(3) These cells are in inactive stage of cell division (3) Separation of chromatids
(4) These cells are metabolically inactive and can (4) Movement of chromatids to opposite poles
never proliferate
137. Double metaphasic plate is formed during
132. Mitotic cell division occurs in
(1) Mitosis
(1) Diploid cells only
(2) Meiosis I
(2) Haploid cells only
(3) Gametes only (3) Meiosis II

(4) Both haploid and diploid cells (4) Mitosis and meiosis II

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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-E)

138. Match the following columns and choose the 143. For the first time, Rudolf Virchow told that Omnis
correct option. cellula-e-cellula. It means
Column I Column II (1) All living organisms are composed of cells
(2) Each cell has organelles that function in
A. Metaphase II (i) Duplication of centrioles
coordinated manner
B. Interkinesis (ii) Nucleolus reappears
(3) All cells arise from pre-existing cells
C. Metaphase I (iii) Univalents align
(4) Activities of an organism are the result of
themselves at equator
activities of its constituent cells
D Telophase I (iv) Alignment of bivalents at 144. In which of the following organisms, the outermost
the equator boundary of cell is cell wall?
A B C D (1) Amoeba (2) Mycoplasma
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (3) Blue-green algae (4) Planaria
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) 145. Which of the following taxonomic aids provides
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) information about both plants and animals?
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (1) Flora (2) Museum
139. Which of the following events occurs during the last (3) Botanical garden (4) Herbarium
stage of prophase I of meiosis? 146. The chromosome that is said to be single armed is
(1) Terminalization of chiasmata (1) Metacentric (2) Telocentric
(2) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex (3) Acrocentric (4) Sub-metacentric
(3) Recombination of genetic material 147. Non-staining secondary constriction in some
(4) Pairing of homologous chromosomes chromosomes gives the appearance of a small
140. Which of the following is not a significance of fragment called
mitosis? (1) Microbody (2) Telomere
(1) It brings about reproduction in unicellular (3) Heterochromatin (4) Satellite
organisms
148. A condition in cell division that leads to the formation
(2) It is essential for growth and development in of syncytium is
multicellular organisms
(1) Failure of segregation of chromatids after
(3) It increases genetic variability in the population
metaphase
(4) It produces new cells for healing the wounds
(2) Failure of pairing of homologous chromosomes
141. Select the incorrect statement from the following. during cell division
(1) Unicellular organisms also show independent (3) Karyokinesis not followed by cytokinesis
existence
(4) Lack of nuclear envelope formation in telophase
(2) Some component of cells can also show
149. If crossing over does not occur in meiosis then
independent living
which of the following would be true regarding the
(3) Cell is the fundamental structure of all living
resultant daughter cells?
organisms
(1) All the daughter cells will be genetically different
(4) Plants and animals are multicellular organisms
(2) Four daughter cells will not be formed
142. The contribution of Anton von Leeuwenhoek in the
study of cells was that (3) All the daughter cells will be genetically identical
(1) He first saw and described a live cell (4) Only two genetically different types of daughter
(2) He first described the structure of nucleus cells will be formed

(3) He discovered and studied the cells from slice 150. The process which is not included in taxonomy is
of cork (1) Identification (2) Phylogeny
(4) He described that how do the cells multiply (3) Classification (4) Nomenclature

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 Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A 156. Select the incorrect match.

151. A single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular (1) Smooth, involuntary – Biceps
boundaries constitutes epithelial lining in muscle
(1) Inner surface of hollow organs like fallopian (2) Striated, involuntary – Cardiac muscle
tubes
muscle
(2) Inner surface of bronchioles
(3) Striated, voluntary – Thigh muscle
(3) PCT of nephrons in kidneys
muscle
(4) Walls of blood vessels
(4) Non-striated, – Iris
152. Select the secretion of an endocrine gland among
involuntary muscle
the following
(1) Saliva (2) Insulin 157. Cell junctions called desmosomes facilitate

(3) Milk (4) Trypsin (1) Production of blood cells

153. Tendon is an example of (2) Transport of various substances
(1) Loose connective tissue (3) Anchoring function
(2) Specialized connective tissue (4) Cell to cell cytoplasmic communication in
(3) Fluid connective tissue adjoining cells

(4) Dense connective tissue 158. Which of the following is an incorrect match?
154. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t types of cell (1) Chondrocytes – Present in cartilage, a
junctions and their function. specialized connective
(1) Tight junctions – Promote substances from tissue
leaking across a tissue
(2) Osteocytes – Present in bones, a
(2) Adhering – Cement neighbouring specialized connective
junctions cells together tissue

(3) Gap junctions – Facilitate cell to cell (3) Goblet cells – Present in epithelium of
communication alimentary canal

(4) Gap junctions – Connect cytoplasm of (4) Mast cells – Present in blood, a loose
neighbouring cells for connective tissue
rapid transfer of ions
159. A common feature shared by smooth muscle fibres
155. The kind of connective tissue that is found in outer
and cardiac muscle fibres is
ear joints as a support framework, is also found in
the (1) Presence of intercalated discs

(1) Ear ossicles (2) Fusiform appearance

(2) Heart wall (3) Functioning that cannot be directly controlled by

our will
(3) Tip of nose
(4) Presence of multinucleated and branched
(4) Abdominal wall
condition
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-E)

160. Choose the incorrect statement. 165. Select a non-polymeric biomolecule i.e. found in cell
(1) Hydra exhibits cell-tissue level of organisation. membrane and acid insoluble fraction.

(2) Epithelial cells are compactly packed with (1) Nucleotides (2) GLUT-4
abundant intercellular matrix. (3) Lecithin (4) Receptor
(3) In ciliated epithelium, cilia help to move mucus 166. Study the components given in the box below :
in a specific direction.
Na+, K+, H2O, CaCO3, PO34 , SO24
(4) Epithelium of PCT of nephron in kidney has
microvilli. How many of the above given components
represent inorganic constituents of living tissues?
161. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
correct option. (1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 4 (4) 3
Column-I Column-II
167. Read the following statements.
a. Fibroblasts (i) Phagocytic cells
a. -amino acids are substituted methanes.
b. Macrophages (ii) Produce collagen b. The chemical and physical properties of amino
fibres acids depend only on R group.
c. Adipocytes (iii) Store fats c. At different pH, the structures of amino acids
change due to the ionisable nature of –NH2 and
(iv) Present in blood –COOH groups.
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) d. In proteins, there are only twenty types of amino
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii) acids.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
162. Epithelium that is made of more than one layer of
below.
cells and has limited role in secretion and
absorption covers all of the following except (1) b and c are correct
(1) Inner lining of ducts salivary glands (2) a and b are correct

(2) Inner lining of pancreatic ducts (3) a, b and d are correct

(3) Moist surface of buccal cavity (4) a, c and d are correct

(4) Inner surface of hollow organs like trachea and 168. Identify zwitterionic form
large bronchi
163. Hydroxymethyl group containing proteinaceous (1)
amino acid is
(1) Glycine (2) Alanine (2)

(3) Valine (4) Serine

(3)
164. Choose the incorrect match

No. of double
No. of (4)
carbon bonds
Fatty acid atoms (C = C) 169. In all of the given carbon compounds heterocyclic
rings can be found, except
(1) Palmitic acid 16C 0
(1) Cytosine
(2) Oleic acid 18C 1
(2) Cysteine
(3) Linolenic acid 20C 2
(3) Cytidine
(4) Arachidonic acid 20C 4
(4) Uridine

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 Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

170. Select the biomolecule in which phosphate group is 176. Choose the incorrect match.
esterified to the sugar.
(1) Chitin – Homopolymer of modified sugar
(1) Cytidine (2) Lecithin
(3) Phospholipid (4) ADP (2) Cellulose – Homopolymer of glucose

171. Choose a correct statement w.r.t. glycerol. (3) Starch – Holds I2 in helical primary
(1) It’s a fatty acid that has a carboxyl group structure
attached to a methyl group (4) Inulin – Homopolymer of fructose
(2) It is an ester of three fatty acids and alcohol
177. Carefully read the given statements.
(3) It is a simple lipid called trihydroxypropane
a. Enzymes lower the activation energy barrier.
(4) It is a simple unsaturated fatty acid with three
b. Temperature, pH, change in substrate
double bonds
concentration or binding of specific chemicals
172. Choose the set of primary metabolites. that regulate the activity of enzymes are the
(1) Cellulose, Ribose factors that affect enzyme activity.

(2) Chlorophyll, Anthocyanins c. Transition state structures are altered stable

structural states of substrate.
(3) Glucose, Chlorophyll
d. Malonate and oxaloacetic acid, both can
(4) Curcumin, cellulose compete with succinate for active site of
173. Incorrect match w.r.t. proteins and their functions is succinic dehydrogenase.
e. Competitive inhibitors are often used in control
(1) Collagen – Intercellular ground
of bacterial pathogens.
substance
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(2) Insulin – Proteinaceous hormone below.

(3) GLUT-4 – Enables insulin transport into (1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
cells (2) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
(3) (a), (b), (d) and (e) are correct
(4) Trypsin – Proteolytic enzyme
(4) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
174. The most abundant proteins in whole of the
178. Incorrect match among the following is
biosphere and animal world, respectively are
(1) Collagen and RuBisCO (1) Haem – Prosthetic group of catalase

(2) Glucose and collagen (2) Zn2+ – Co-factor for carboxypeptidase

(3) Starch and glucose (3) NADP – Co-factor that contains vitamin B9
(4) RuBisCO and collagen (4) FMN – Binds to apoenzyme transiently
175. Read the following statements :
179. Dental formula for deciduous teeth of 4-5 years old
Statement I : The right end of polysaccharides is boy is best represented as
called the reducing end.
2123
Statement II: Sucrose is a polysaccharide with right (1)
2123
end as reducing end.
2101
Choose the correct option. (2)
2102
(1) Both the statements are correct
2102
(2) Only statement B is correct (3)
2102
(3) Only statement A is correct
2120
(4)
(4) Both the statements are incorrect 2120
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 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-1 (Code-E)

180. The ‘C’ shaped part of small intestine is called SECTION-B

(1) Colon (2) Jejunum
186. Glucose transport is possible by all of the following
(3) Duodenum (4) Ileum transport mechanisms, except
181. Observe the given figure (1) Facilitated transport via GLUT
(2) Secondary active transport via SGLT
(3) Simple diffusion along concentration gradient
(4) Osmosis against concentration gradient
187. The A of faeces to the outside is called B , a
C process carried out by D movement.

Choose the option that correctly fill the blanks.

A B C D
Choose the option that represents structure
guarding the opening of labelled structure ‘A’ in (1) Egestion Deglutition Involuntary Peristaltic
given figure.
(2) Excretion Defaecation Voluntary Mass
(1) Sphincter of Boyden (2) Pyloric sphincter peristaltic

(3) Sphincter of Oddi (4) Ileo-cecal valve (3) Excretion Deglutition Involuntary Reflex

182. Oblique muscle layer is additionally present in the (4) Egestion Defaecation Voluntary Mass
wall of which of the following part of human peristaltic
alimentary canal?
188. Emetic reflex is controlled by the emetic centre
(1) Oesophagus (2) Stomach located in
(3) Duodenum (4) Colon (1) Hypothalamus
183. Choose a proteolytic enzyme that does not act on (2) Pons
consumed/dietary proteins or their break down
(3) Medulla oblongata
products in human.
(4) Mid brain
(1) Trypsin (2) Pepsin
189. Match column I with column II.
(3) Enterokinase (4) Carboxypeptidase
184. Select the odd one w.r.t. location in mucosa of Column I Column II
alimentary canal.
a. Biliverdin, bilirubin (i) Bile
(1) Crypts of Lieberkuhn (2) Rugae
b. Lipase (ii) Hydrolyses 30% of
(3) Lacteal (4) Brunner’s gland
starch
185. Read the following organisms given in the box
below c. Amylase, pH 6.8 (iii) Digestion of fats

Tapeworm, Roundworm, Hookworm, Threadworm d. Nucleases (iv) Digestion of nucleic

acids
How many of the above mentioned parasites
(v) Maximum
causes inflammation of the intestinal tract?
hydrolysis of starch
(1) 1
Choose the correct option.
(2) 4
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(v), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) 3
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(v)
(4) 2

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 Test-1 (Code-E) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022

190. Intestinal juice called succus entericus contains 195. What is common between pepsin, maltase and
(1) Trypsin, pepsin, enterokinase amylase?
(1) These are produced in intestine
(2) Maltase, lipase, nuclease
(2) These are carbohydrate splitting enzymes
(3) Lipase, nucleosidase, rennin
(3) These are proteinaceous in nature and acts at
(4) Enterokinase, lipase, dipeptidase same temperature
191. Extensive oedema and swelling of body parts are (4) These are proteinaceous enzymes that acts on
symptoms of malnutritional child suffering from substrate at same pH
protein deficiency unaccompanied by calorie 196. A proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants
deficiency. This is seen in which helps in curdling of milk protein is
(1) Marasmus (1) Rennin (2) Trypsin
(2) Kwashiorkor (3) Pepsin (4) Amylase
(3) Rickets 197. Chylomicrons are A globules which are
(4) Eczema transported into B in the villi.
192. Which one of the following is the correct match of Choose the option that correctly fill the blanks A and
the site of action on the given substrate, the enzyme B respectively.
acting upon it and the end product(s)? A B
Substrate Site of Enzyme End product(s) (1) Protein coated fat Blood capillaries
action
(2) Fat coated protein Lacteals
(1) Trypsinogen Stomach Enterokinase Trypsin (3) Protein coated fat Lacteals
(2) Starch Pancreas Amylopsin Maltose (4) Fat coated protein Blood capillaries
(3) Nucleoside Intestine Nucleosidase Nitrogenous 198. If in a ds B-DNA fragment 200 bases are present
base and sugar then what would be its length?
(4) Casein Stomach Renin Calcium para (1) 340 Å (2) 340 nm
caseinate (3) 0.34 nm (4) 34 Å
193. No significant digestive activity occurs in 199. Which of the following is a colorimetric method that
can estimate the presence of carbohydrates, both
a. Large intestine reducing and non-reducing?
b. Oesophagus (1) Fehling’s test (2) Anthrone test
c. Rectum (3) Biuret test (4) Widal test
d. Gall bladder 200. Assertion (A): The Michaelis Menten constant (Km)
Choose the correct option. can be used to compare catalytic efficiency of two
different enzymes.
(1) a, c and d only
Reason (R): The Km value is numerically equal to
(2) a, b and c only the substrate concentration at which ½ of Vmax is
(3) a, b, c and d achieved.

(4) a and c only In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the option given below.
194. Incorrect statement w.r.t. diarrhoea is
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct
(1) It reduces the absorption of food explanation of (A)
(2) There is abnormal frequency of bowel (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
movement explanation of (A)
(3) Increased liquidity of faecal discharge (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) There is inadequate enzyme secretion (4) (A) is true but (R) is false



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