NEET - 2022: Chemistry

NEET 2022 [STUDY MATERIAL - CHEMISTRY]
NEET - 2022
STUDY MATERIAL
CHEMISTRY
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE
PALA
Mutholy Campus, Ph: 04822 - 206100, 206800
Arunapuram Campus, Ph: 04822 - 212415, 210949, 216975
Ernakulam - Ph: 0484 - 2665080, 2665090
www.brilliantpala.org
email: [email protected]
1
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
Page 2
Blank
2
CONTENTS
1. Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry ---------------------------------------------------------------------------- 05
2. Structure of Atoms ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 09
3. Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties ------------------------------------------ 13
4. Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure -------------------------------------------------------------- 17
5. States of Matter ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 23
6. Thermodynamics and Chemical Energetics ---------------------------------------------------------------- 27
7. Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 32
8. Redox Reaction ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 37
9. Hydrogen ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 41
10. The s - Block Elements ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 45
11. The p - Block Elements (XI) ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 50
12. Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles - Part I (Nomenclature) ------------------------ 55
13. Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles - Part II (Reaction Mechanism) ------------ 61
14. Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles - Part III
(Purification and Characterisation of Organic Compounds) ------------------------------------- 68
15. Hydrocarbons.-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 71
16. Environmental Chemistry -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 77
17. The Solid State ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 79
18. Solutions ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 83
19. Electrochemistry ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 87
20. Chemical Kinetics --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 92
21. Surface Chemistry ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 97
22. General principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements ------------------------------------ 101
23. The p Block Elements (Class XII) ------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 109
24. The d and f Block Elements --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 116
25. Coordination Compounds ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 120
26. Halo Alkanes and Halo Arenes ---------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 125
27. Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 132
28. Aldehydes and Ketones --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 141
29. Carboxylic Acids -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 148
30. Nitrogen Compounds ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 156
31. Biomolecules, Polymers and Chemistry in Everyday Life --------------------------------------- 164
32. Stereochemistry -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 172
3
Page 4
Blank
4
CHAPTER - 01
SOME BASIC CONCEPT OF CHEMISTRY
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. The following data are obtained when dinitrogen and dioxygen react together to form different compounds
Experiment Mass of dinitrogen Mass of dioxygen
1 14 g 16 g
2 14 g 32 g
3 28 g 32 g
4 28 g 80 g
Which law of chemical combination is obeyed by the above experimental data?

1) Law of constant proportion
2) Law of multiple proportion
3) Gay Lussac’s law of gaseous volumes
4) Avogadro’s law
2. Among the following which is NOT a postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory?
1) Matter is formed of indivisible atoms
2) Under identical conditions of pressure and temperature, gases combine and give gaseous products
in simple volume ratio
3) During chemical reaction atoms remains conserved and only pass through rearrangement
4) Same atoms have same properties including atomic mass
3. One atom of an element weighs 3.27 × 10–22 g. Its atomic mass is
1) 3.27 × 10–24 u 2) 5.43 × 10–24 u
3) 197 u 4) 197 g
5
4. Naturally occuring bromine consists of the two isotopes listed below
Isotope Isotopic mass (u) Percentage abundance

79
Br 79 51
81
Br 81 49
The average atomic mass of bromine is

1) 79.98 u 2) 80.96 u 3) 79 u 4) 81 u
5. Which of the following has highest mass?
1) 2 g atom of Fe (Atomic mass of Fe = 56 u)
2) 1 atom of Fe
3) 1 mol of Fe
4) 1 g of Fe
6. Vitamin E, known as ‘Beauty Vitamin’ has the molecular formula C29H50O2. Its molecular mass is
1) 430 g 2) 430 u 3) 414 g 4) 414 u
7. Two elements A and B forms two compounds of the molecular formula AB and AB2. 0.02 mol of AB
weighs 4.48 g and 0.2 mol of AB2 weighs 48 g. Then atomic mass of A and B are respectively
1) 16 and 208 2) 208 and 16 3) 56 and 32 4) 32 and 56
8. Number of atoms present in 6.022 × 1023 moles of the compound, Na5P3O10 is
1) 18 NA 2) 18 3) 18 N 2A 4) (18NA)2
9. The volume of O2 required at NTP for the complete combustion of 3.9 g of benzene is
1) 0.84 L 2) 8.4 L 3) 840 L 4) 84 L
10. The mass of BaCO3 produced when excess of CO2 is bubbled through a solution of 0.205 mol Ba(OH)2
is (Atomic mass of Ba = 137)
1) 81 g 2) 20.25 g 4) 162 g 4) 40.4 g
11. 2g of hydrogen and 254 g of iodine reacted to form hydrogen iodide gas. Then select the correct
statement from the following (Atomic mass of I = 127 u)
1) Number of moles of the product, HI formed is 1
2) The volume of HI gas produced at NTP is 44.8 L
3) I2 is the limiting reagent
4) The mass of the product, HI formed is 250 g
12. A gaseous hydrocarbon X, was burnt in excess of oxygen, 0.112 dm3 sample of X at NTP gave 0.88 g
CO2. How many carbon atoms are there in one molecule of X?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
13. Number of gram equivalents present in 0.1 N 100 mL oxalic acid solution is
1) 10 1) 1 3) 0.1 4) 0.01
6
14. 25 g of acetic acid dissolved in 75 g of benzene. Then molality of the solution is

1) 55.5 m 2) 5.55 m
3) 0.055 m 4) 0.0055 m
15. The mass of CaCO3 required to react completely with 25 mL of 0.75 M HCl is
1) 1 g 2) 0.96 g
3) 0.94 g 4) 0.90 g
LEVEL-II
1. Two bulbs A and B of equal volume are kept at constant temperature and pressure. Bulb A contains N2
gas and bulb B contains P4 vapours. Then which of the following statement is correct?
1) Number of molecules of N2 gas in bulb A is greater than that of P4 vapours in bulb B
2) Number of molecules of N2 gas in bulb A is less than that of P4 vapours in bulb B
3) Number of N atoms in bulb A is equal to the number of P atoms in bulb B
4) The number of N atoms in bulb A is less than the number of P atoms in bulb B
1 1
2. Atomic mass of oxygen according to convertional scale is 16 u. If we change the scale from to ,
12 3
the atomic mass will be
1) 16 u 2) 8u 3) 4u 4) 2u
3. Number of valence electrons present in 4.62 g of azide ion is
1) 1.98 NA 2) 1.76 NA
3) 5.94 NA 4) 2.64 NA
4. Raju added 1.71 g of cane sugar to sweeten his tea. Not knowing that Radha added 3.6 g of glucose
by mistake. Then the total number of carbon atoms present in his tea is
1) 9.5 × 1022 2) 1.1 × 1023
3) 4.6 × 1022 4) 5.6 × 1023
5. Vapour density of a mixture of CO and CO2 is 17.68. Then the number of moles of toxic gas present
in 50 moles of the mixture is
1) 33 2) 23 3) 6 4) 27
6. 10 g of CaCO3 is completely decomposed to X and CaO. X is passed through as aqueous solution
containing one mole of sodium carbonate. What is the number of moles of sodium bicarbonate formed?
1) 0.2 2) 0.1 3) 0.01 4) 10
7. 1.5 g of an impure sample of sodium sulphate dissolved in water treated with excess of barium
chloride solution, 1.74 g of BaSO4 were obtained as dry precipitate. Then the percentage purity of the
sample is (Atomic mass of Ba = 137)
1) 80.8 2) 70.7 3) 93.6 4) 99.8
8. For the reaction A  2B 

 C , the amount of C obtained, starting the reaction with 5 moles of A and
8 moles of B is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 8
7
9. 5.00 moles of hydrogen gas, 3.00 moles of white phosphorous and 12.00 moles of oxygen gas are
taken in a sealed flask and allowed to react as follows:
H 2(g)  P4(s)  O2(g) 

 H3PO4
Determine the moles of ortho-phosphoric acid that can be produced, considering that the reaction
occurs in 100% yield
1) 4.83 2) 3.33 3) 6.67 4) 1.18
10. In Haber process, 30 L of dihydrogen and 30 Lof dinitrogen were taken for reacting which yielded only
50% of the expected product. What will be the composition of gaseous mixture under the aforesaid
conditions in the end?
1) 20 L NH3; 10 L N2; 30 L H2 2) 20 L NH3; 25 L N2; 15 L H2
3) 10 L NH3; 20 L N2; 20 L H2 4) 10 L NH3; 25 L N2 ; 15 L H2
11. 0.33 g of a metal on reaction with dilute mineral acid liberates 112 mL of H2 gas at NTP. Then equivalent
mass of the metal is
1) 0.33 2) 33 3) 330 4) 66
12. One litre of N/2 HCl solution was heated in a beaker. When the volume was reduced to 600 mL,
9.125 g of HCl was lost out. The new normality of the solution is
1) 0.04 2) 0.80 3) 0.40 4) 0.20
13. The molality of x% H2SO4 solution is equal to 9. The weight of the solvent present in the solution is
910 g. The value of x is
1) 90 2) 80.3 3) 40 4) 47
14. What volume of a 5.00 M H2SO4 solution should be added to a 150 mL 1.0 M H2SO4 solution to obtain
a solution of sulphuric acid of molarity 2.5?
1) 75 mL 2) 80 mL 3) 90 mL 4) 100 mL
15. A 2.0 g sample of an unknown, monobasic acid was dissolved in water and made upto 100 mL and its
20mL portion required 15 mL of 0.12 M standard NaOH solution to reach the end point. If molar mass
of the acid is 122, the percentage purity of the acid sample is
1) 96 2) 84 3) 78 4) 55
8
CHAPTER - 02
STRUCTURE OF ATOM
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
0
1. A 150 watt bulb emits 8% of the energy per second as light of wave length 4500 A . The number of
photons emitted by the bulb per second is
1) 36.2 10 18 2) 1.75 1014 3) 6.02 1023 4) 27.2 1018

2. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric effect on sodium is 5000A0. Its work function is
1) 4  1019 J 2) 1J 3) 2  1019 J 4) 3  10 10 J
3. According to Bohr’s atomic theory, angular momentum of an electron in the orbit is quantilised. Which
among the following cannot be the value of angular momentum in a Bohr orbit.
5h 3h 2.5 h 1.5 h
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2  2
4. Hydrogen like species produce spectrum by absorbing photons. The level which allows them to
absorb but not to emit is
1) 1s 2) 2s 3) 2p 4) 3d
5. What is wrong about atomic emission spectrum of hydrogen?
1) It is discontinuous spectrum
2) It is dark line spectrum
3) It is bright line spectrum
4) It is obtained by passing heat or electricity through hydrogen gas
6. The hydrogen line spectra provides evidence for the
1) Heisenberg uncertainty principle 2) Wave like property of light
3) Diatomic nature of hydrogen 4) Quantised nature of atomic energy state
7. The radius of the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen is 0.529Ao . The radius of the 3rd orbit of He+ will be
1) 8.46Ao 2) 0.705Ao 3) 1.59Ao 4) 2.38 Ao
8. In Balmer series of lines of hydrogen spectrum, the third line from the red end corresponds to which
of the following inner orbit jumps of the electron for Bohr orbits in an atom of hydrogen?
1) 3  2 2) 5  2 3) 4  1 4) 2  5
9
9. Longest wavelengths in Balmer series of He+1 is
5 9 36 5
1) 9R 2) 5R 3) 5 R 4) 36R
H H H H
10. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers

n l m s
(i) 3 0 0 +½
(ii) 2 2 1 +½
(iii) 4 3 –2 –½
(iv) 1 0 –1 –½
(v) 3 2 3 +½
Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is / are not possible ?
1) (i) (ii) (iii) and (iv) 2) (ii) (iv) and (v) 3) (i) and (iii) 4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
11. Some electrons are identified by quantum numbers n and  as
n 
i) 3 2
ii) 5 0
iii) 4 1
iv) 4 2
v) 4 0
They can be placed in the increasing order of energy in a multi electronic atom as
1) i < v < iii < iv < ii 2) i < v < iii < ii < iv 3) v < i < iii < ii < iv 4) v < i < ii < iii < iv
12. The nodes present in 3p-orbitals are
1) one spherical, one planar 2) two spherical
3) Two planar 4) One planar
13. The no.of electrons present in the l = 2 orbital of Cr is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
14. Which of the following statements in relation to the hydrogen atom is correct ?
1) 3s, 3p, 3d orbitals, all have the same energy
2) 3s and 3p orbitals are of higher energy than 4d orbital
3) 3p orbital is lower in energy than 3d orbital
4) 3s orbital is lower in energy than 3p orbital
15. Spin angular momentum of electron can be calculated by the relation is
h
1)  (   1) h / 2 2) n
2
h h
3) s(s  1) 4) s(s  2)
2 2
10
LEVEL-II
4E
1. The energy of I, II and III energy levels of a certain atom are E, and 2E respectively. A photon of
3
wavelength  is emitted during a transition from III to I. What will be the wavelength of emission for
transition II to I?

1) 2)  3) 2  4) 3 
2
2. An electron in hydrogen atom jumps from one orbit to another orbit in such a way that its kinetic
energy X changes one fourth of its initial. The change in its potential energy is
3 3 3 3
1) x 2) x 3) x 4) x
2 8 4 4
3. Radiation of certain frequency is emitted when electronic transition occurs from n = 4 to n = 2 in He+ which
transition in H atom gives radiation of the same frequency ?
1) n = 4 to n = 2 2) n = 3 to n = 2
3) n = 3 to n = 1 4) n = 2 to n = 1
4. In hydrogen atom an orbit has a diameter of about 16.92A°. What is the maximum number of electrons
that can be accomodated
1) 8 2) 32 3) 50 4) 72
5. The wave motion of an electron in a Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom can be shown by the figure given
below. Find potential energy
1) +1.7eV 2) -1.7eV
3) -3.4 eV 4) -13.1 eV
6. In a sample of hydrogen atoms, electrons jump from 10th excited state to ground state. If X are the
number of different ultraviolet radiations Y are the number of different visible radiations and Z are the
possible number of different infrared radiations . The value Z –(x + y) is (Assuming all the Balmer
lines lie with in visible region)
1) 17 2) 18 3) 19 4) 36
7. What is the ratio of  max and  min for Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum ?
4 3 9 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 4 5 9
8. De broglie wavelength of particle B is double of particle A and mass of particle A is thrice of mass of
particle B. The ratio of velocity of particle A to B is
1) 2 : 3 2) 3 : 2 3) 4 : 3 4) 3 : 4
11
9. If the kinetic energy of a subatomic particle is increased 8-times, its de Broglie wavelength becomes
‘x’ times the original wavelength. The value of ‘x’ is
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 4 8 2
10. If uncertainty in position and momentum are equal, the uncertainty in velocity is
1 h h 1 h h
1) 2) 3) 4)
2m  2 m  
11. The uncertainities in the velocities of two particles A and B are 0.05 and 0.02 ms-1 respectively. The
 x A 
mass of B is 5 time to that of mass A. What is the ratio of uncertainities   in their positions?
 x B 
1) 2 2) 0.25 3) 4 4) 1
12. Which of the following graph represents the radial probability function of 3d electron?
1) 2)
3) 4)
13. A compound of vanadium has a magnetic moment () of 1.73 BM. If the vanadium ion in the compound
is present as Vx+, then the value of x is :
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
14. The significance of  420
1) n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, (4pz)
2) n = 4, l = 2, m = 0, (4dx2-y2)
3) n = 4, l = 2, m = 0, (4dxy)
4) n = 4, l = 2, m = 0, (4dz2)
15. Number of electron exchanges present in d5 and d10 configurations are

1) 10, 0 2) 20, 10 3) 10, 20 4) 15, 10
12
CHAPTER - 03
CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Newland’s law of octaves applies to which of the following set of elements
1) Be, Mg, Ca 2) As, K, Ca 3) B, N, C 4) All of these
2. According to Mendeleev’s predictions for the elements Eka-aluminium and Eka-silicon respectively
are
1) Ge and Ga 2) Ga and Ge 3) Ge and Gd 4) Ga and Gd
3. The third period of the periodic table contains
1) 8 elements 2) 32 elements 3) 3 elements 4) 18 elements
4. Which of the following has the largest ionic radius
1) N3– 2) O2– 3) Na+ 4) Mg2+
5. B has smaller first ionisation enthalpy than Be. Consider the following statements
i) It is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s electron
ii) 2p electron of B is more shielded from the nucleus by the inner core of electrons than the 2s
electron fo Be
iii) 2s electron has more penetrating power than 2p electron
iv) Atomic radius of B is more than Be.
The correct statements are
1) i, ii and iii 2) ii, iii, iv 3) i, iii, iv 4) i, ii and iv
6. Which of the following process require largest amount of energy
 Al   1e 
1) Al g  
2
 Al3  1e 
2) Al(g) 

 Al2  1e
3) Al(g) 
4) All require same amount of energy

7. Second successive electron affinity of an element.
1) is always negative (energy is released) 2) is always positive
3) can be positive or negative 4) is always zero
13
8. The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order

1) C,N, S, P 2) N, Si, C, P 3) Si, P, C,N 4) P, Si, N, C
9. Among the following oxides which is least acidic
1) Al2O3 2) B2O3 3) CO2 4) NO2
10. Downwards in a group the electropositive character of elements
1) increases 2) decreases 3) remain same 4) None
LEVEL-II
1. In the modern periodic table, the period indicates the value of
1) Atomic number 2) Atomic mass
3) Principal quantum number 4) Azimuthal quantum number
2. The size of isoelectronic species. F–, Ne and Na+ is affected by
1) Nuclear charge 2) Valence principal quantum number
3) Electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals
4) None of the factors because their size is the same
3. Moseley obtained a straight line graph by plotting
1) Frequency of x-ray produced against the atomic mass of element used
2) Frequency of x-ray produced against the atomic number of element used
3) Square root of frequency of x-ray produced against the atomic number of element used
4) Frequency of x-ray produced against the square root of atomic mass of element used
4. The correct order of atomic radius of C, Cs, Al and S is
1) S < C < Al < Cs 2) S < C < Cs < Al
3) C < S < Cs < Al 4) C < S < Al < Cs
5. An element with one of the following electronic configuration is expected to have maximum difference
between  i H 2 and  i H3 it is
1) 1s2 2s2 2p1 2) 1s2 2s2 2p6

3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p6
6. The five successive ionisation energies of an element are 800, 2427, 3658, 25024 and 32824 kJ/mol
respectively. The number of valence electron is
1) 3 2) 5 3) 1 4) 2
7. Which of the following have least electron affinity.
1) Oxygen 2) Fluorine
3) Nitrogen 4) Carbon
8. The electron affinity codes for halogen is
1) F > Cl > Br > I 2) F < Cl < Br < I
3) F < Cl > Br > I 4) F > Cl < Br < I
14
9. In general properties (magnitude) that decrease and increase down a group in the periodic table
respectively are
1) Electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy
2) Electronegativity and atomic radius
3) Atomic radius and electronegativity
4) Electron gain enthalpy and electronegativity
10. Choose the correct statement
1) IE1 of Na < IE1 of Mg
2) IE3 of Mg > IE3 of Al
3) IE1 of Al < IE1 of Mg
4) All are correct
11. Which among the following graph is incorrect ?
1) 2)
3) 4) All are incorrect
15
12. Which one of the following statements is/are correct

i) Electronegativity of any given element is not constant
ii) Electronegativity of an element depend on the element to which is bound
iii) Group 17 element have very high negative electron gain enthalpy
iv) Energy is always required to remove electrons from an atom
1) i, ii and iii 2) ii, iii, iv 3) i, ii, iv 4) i, ii, iii, iv
13. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
a) Cl > Ar p) Atomic size
b) S > O q) IE
c) Mg > Al r) EA
d) Zn > Cu s) EN
1) a  r,s; b  p, c  p, q; d  s 2) a  r, s; b  p, r; c  p, q; d  p, q
3) a  s; b  r; c  p, q; d  p, q, r 4) a  p, q; b  r, s; c  r, s; d  s
14. Considering the elements B, Al, Mg and K, the correct order of their metallic character is
1) B > Al > Mg > K 2) Al > Mg > B> K 3) Mg > Al > K > B 4) K > Mg > Al > B
15. The correct order of chemical reactivity in terms of oxidising property with standard reduction potential
1) F > Cl > O > N 2) F > O > Cl > N 3) Cl > F > O > N 4) O > F > N > Cl
16
CHAPTER - 04
CHEMICAL BONDING
AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Melting points of alkali metal chlorides follow the order
1) NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl > LiCl 2) LiCl > NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl
3) CsCl > RbCl > KCl > NaCl > LiCl 4) CsCl > RbCl > LiCl > KCl > NaCl
2. Decreasing order of lattice energy of the following compounds is
1) NaCl > MgBr2 > CaO > Al2O3 2) NaCl > CaO > MgBr2 > Al2O3
3) Al2O3 > CaO > MgBr2 > NaCl 4) Al2O3 > MgBr2 > CaO > NaCl
3. In PO34 ion, the formal charge on each oxygen atom and P–O bond order respectively are
1) –0.75, 0.6 2) –0.75, 1.0

3) –0.75, 1.25 4) –3, 1.25
4. The correct order of the O–O bond length in O2, H2O2 and O3 is
1) O 2  O3  H 2O 2 2) O3  H 2O 2  O 2
3) O 2  H 2O 2  O3 4) H 2O 2  O3  O 2
5. Which of the following is not a correct statement?

1) The cannonical structures have no real existence
2) Every AB5 molecules does in fact have square pyramidal structure
3) Multiple bonds are always shorter than corresponding single bonds
4) The electron-deficient molecules can act as Lewis acid
6. Which of the following is a polar molecule?
1) SF4 2) SiF4 3) XeF4 3) BF3
7. Which of the following molecules have dipole moment ?
i) Trans-pent-2ene ii) Cis hex-3ene
iii) 2,2-dimethyl propane iv) 2,2,3,3-tetramethyl butane
1) i and ii 2) i and iii 3) ii and iii 4) iii and iv
17
8. H2O has a non zero dipole moment while BeF2 has zero dipole moment because
1) H2O molecule is linear while BeF2 is bent
2) BeF2 molecule is linear while H2O is bent
3) Fluorine has more electronegativity than oxygen
4) Beryllium has more electronegativity than oxygen
9. Maximum bond angle at nitrogen is present in which of the following?
1) NO 2 2) NO 2 3) NO 3 4) NO 2
10. Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?
1) ClO 3 , CO32 2) SO32 , NO 3 3) ClO3 , SO32 4) CO 32 , SO 32
11. In which of the following molecules all the bonds are not equal?
1) BF3 2) AlF3 3) NF3 4) ClF3
12. The geometry with respect to the central atom of the following molecules N(SiH3)3, N(CH3)3 and
P(SiH3)3 are
1) planar, pyramidal, planar 2) planar, pyramidal, pyramidal
3) pyramidal, pyramidal, pyramidal 4) planar, planar, pyramidal
13. Which one of the following pairs is isostructural (i.e., having the same shape and hybridization)?
1)  BCl3 and BrCl3  2)  NH 3 and NO3  3)  NF3 and BF3  4)  BF4 and NH 4 
   
14. In which of the following molecules/ions BF3 , NO 2 , NH 2 and H 2O , the central atom is sp2 hybrid-
ized?
1) NH 2 and H 2O 2) NO 2 and H 2O 3) BF3 and NO 2 4) NO 2 and NH 2
15. Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with the geometry in column II and assign the correct
code ( X andX are different halogens)
Column I Column II
a) X X  i) T shape
b) X X 3' ii) pentagonal bipyramidal
c) X X '5 iii) Linear
d) X X '7 iv) square pyramidal

v) tetrahedral
Code
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1) iii iv i ii
2) iii i iv ii
3) v iv iii ii
4) iv iii ii i
18
16 Which of the following two are isostructural?
1) NH3, BF3 2) PCl5, ICl5 3) XeF2, IF2 4) CO 32 , SO32
17. The BCl3 is a planar molecule whereas NCl3 is pyramidal because

1) B–Cl bond is more polar than N-Cl bond
2) N–Cl bond is more covalent than B–Cl bond
3) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
4) BCl3 has no lone pair but NCl3 has a lone pair of electrons
18. Among the following ions the p  d overlap could be present in
1) NO 2 2) NO 3 3) PO34 4) CO32
19. In which of the following compounds vacant orbital does not takes part in bonding
1) B2H6 2) Al2Cl6 3) C2H5Cl 4) BeCl2 (solid)
20. According to MO theory,
1) O 2 is paramagnetic and bond order greater than O2
2) O 2 is paramagnetic and bond order less than O2
3) O 2 is diamagnetic and bond order is less than O2
4) O 2 is diamagnetic and bond order is more than O2
LEVEL-II
1. The intermolecular potential energy for the molecules A, B, C and D given below suggests that
1) A–B has the stiffest bond 2) D is more electronegative than other atoms
3) A-A has the largest bond enthalpy 4) A-D has the shortest bond length
19
2. The angular shape of ozoen molecule (O3) consists of

1) 1 sigma and 2 pi bonds 2) 2 sigma and 2 pi bonds
3) 1 sigma and 1 pi bonds 4) 2 sigma and 1 pi bonds
3. The correct statement about ICl5 and ICl 4 is
1) ICl5 is square pyramidal and ICl 4 is tetrahedral
2) ICl5 is square pyramidal and ICl 4 is square planar
3) Both are isostructural
4) ICl5 is trigonal bipyramidal and ICl 4 is tetrahedral
4. Which of the following contains maximum number of lone pairs on the central atom?
1) ClO3 2) XeF4 3) SF4 4) I3
5. Total number of lone pair of electron in I3 ion is
1) 3 2) 6 3) 9 4) 12
6. Molecular shape of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are
1) the same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively
2) the same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively
3) different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectivley
4) different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively
7. The correct order of C–O bond length among CO, CO32 , CO 2 is
1) CO  CO32  CO 2
2) CO32  CO 2  CO
3) CO  CO 2  CO32
4) CO 2  CO 32  CO
8. The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the dipole
moment of NH3(1.5 D) is larger than that of NF3(0.2 D). This is because
1) in NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF3 these are in
opposite directions
2) in NH3 as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions
3) in NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in NF3 these are in
the same direction
4) in NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction
20
9. Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds?

1) NH4Cl 2) HCN 3) H2O2 4) CH4
10. Which of the following is not true about resonance ?
1) The resonance structures are hypothetical
2) The number of unpaired electrons in various resonating structures of a molecule should be the
same
3) Hybrid structure is more energetic than any one of the resonating structures
4) Hybrid structure is more stable than any one of the resonating structures
11. In compounds of type ECl3, where E = B, P, As or Bi, the angles Cl–E–Cl is in order
1) B > P = As = Bi 2) B > P > As > Bi
3) B < P = As = Bi 4) B < P < As < Bi
12. The nodal plane in the  -bond of ethene is located in
1) the molecular plane
2) a plane parallel to the molecular plane
3) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects the carbon-carbon  -bond at right
angle
4) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which contains the carbon-carbon  bond
13. In which of the following ionisation processes the bond energy increases and the magnetic behaviour
changes from paramagnetic to diamagnetic?
1) N 2  N 2 2) O 2  O 2
3) C 2  C 2 4) NO  NO 
14. Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing
in them
1) NO  O 2  C 22  He 2 2) O 2  NO  C 22  He 2
3) C 22  He 2  O 2  NO 4) He 2  O 2  NO  C 22
15. Which one of the following species does not exist under normal conditions?
1) Be 2 2) Be2 3) B2 4) Li 2
16. The relationship between the dissociation energy of N2 and N 2 is
1) Dissociation energy of N 2 > dissociation energy of N2
2) Dissociation energy of N2 = dissociation energy of N 2
3) Dissociation energy of N2 > dissociation energy of N 2
4) Dissociation energy of N2 can either be lower or higher than the dissociation energy of N 2
21
17. Mark the incorrect statement in the following
1) The bond order in the species O2, O 2 and O 2 decreases as O 2  O 2  O 2
2) The bond energy in a diatomic molecule always increases when an electron is lost
3) Electrons in antibonding M.O. contribute to repulsion between two atoms
4) With increase in bond order, bond length decreases and bond strength increases.
18. During the change of O2 to O 2 , the incoming electron goes to the orbital
1) 2p x 2) * 2p x 3)  2p y 4) * 2p z
19. Among H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te, the one with the highest boiling point is
1) H2O because of hydrogen bonding 2) H2Te because of higher molecular weight
3) H2S because of hydrogen bonding 4) H2Se because of lower molecular weight
20. Which one of the following does not have the hydrogen bond?
1) Phenol 2) Liquid NH3 3) Water 4) HCl
22
CHAPTER - 05
STATES OF MATTER
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs :
1) Cl2 and CCl4 2) HCl and He atoms
3) SiF4 and He atoms 4) H2O and alcohol
2. A weather balloon filled with hydrogen at 1 atm and 270 C has volume equal to 12000 litres. On
ascending it reaches a place where temperature is – 230 C and pressure is 0.5 atm. The volume of
the balloon is
1) 24000 litres 2) 20000 litres 3) 10000litres 4) 12000 litres
3. 0.30 g of a gas was found to occupy a volume of 82.0 ml at 270 C and 3 atm pressure . The molecular
mass of the gas
1) 60 2) 30 3) 90 4) 44
4. A 2.24 L cylinder of oxygen at N.T.P. is found to develop a leakage. When the leakage was plugged
the pressure dropped to 570 mm of Hg. The number of moles of gas that escaped will be
1) 0.025 2) 0.050 3) 0.075 4) 0.09
5. 2 L of SO2 gas at 760 mm of Hg are transferred to 10 L flask containing oxygen at a particular
temperature, the partial pressure of SO2 in the flask is
1) 63.33 mm of Hg 2) 152 mm of Hg 3) 760 mm of Hg 4) 1330 mm of Hg
6. An ideal gas will have maximum density when
1) P = 0.5 atm, T = 600 K 2) P = 2 atm, T = 150 K
3) P = 1 atm, T = 300 K 4) P = 1.0 atm, T = 500 K
7. Equal masses of SO2, CH4 and O2 are mixed in empty container at 298 K, when total pressure
2.1 atm. The partial pressure of CH4 in the mixture is
1) 0.5 atm 2) 0.75 atm 3) 1.2 atm 4) 0.6 atm
8. 50 ml of hydrogen diffuses out through a small hole from a vessel in 20 minutes. The time needed for
40 ml of oxygen to diffuse out is
1) 12 min 2) 64 min 3) 8 min 4) 32 min
9. The temperature at which RMS velocity of SO2 molecule is half that of He molecule at 300 K is
1) 150 K 2) 600K 3) 900 K 4) 1200K
23
10. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1) Molecular collision are perfectly elastic.
2) Between collisions molecules travel in straight line with constant velocity.
3) Volume of molecule is not negligible as compared to total volume occupied by the gas.
4) Average KE of molecule is directly proportional to temperature in absolute scale.
11. The kinetic energy for 14 grams of nitrogen gas at 1270 C (mol. Mass of nitrogen = 28 and gas
constant = 8.31 J K-1mol-1 )
1) 1.0 J 2) 4.15J
3) 2493J 4) 3.3J
12. The real gas most closely approaches the behaviour of ideal gas at
1) 15 atm and 200K 2) 1 atm and 273K
3) 0.5 atm and 500K 4) 15 atm and 500K
13. The incorrect statement is :
1) compressibility factor measures the deviation of real gas from ideal behavior.
2) van der Waals constant 'a' measures extent of intermolecular attractive forces for real gas
3) critical temperature is the lowest temperature at which liquifaction of a gas first occurs.
4) Boyle point depends on the nature of real gas
14. For ideal gas, the compressibility factor Z is
1) zero 2) < 1 3) > 1 4) 1
15. The term which accounts for intermolecular forces in van der Waals equation is
1) (V – b) 2) (RT) – 1
3) (P + a/V2) 4) RT
LEVEL- II
1. Which of the following graph is incorrect
1) 2)
3) 4)
24
2. 400 cm3 of oxygen at 270 C were cooled to – 30 C without change in pressure. The contraction in
volume will be
1) 40 cm3 2) 30 cm3 3) 44.4 cm3 4) 360 cm3
3. One litre of a gas weighs 2g at 300K and 1 atm pressure. If the pressure is made 0.75 atm, at which
of the following temperature will one litre of the same gas weigh one gram?
1) 450K 2) 600K 3) 800K 4) 900K
4. At 00 C and one atm pressure, a gas occupies 100 cc. If the pressure is increased to one and half
time and temperature is increased by one -third absolute temperature, then final volume of the gas
will be
1) 80 cc 2) 88.9 cc 3) 66.7 cc 4) 100 cc
5. An evacuated glass vessel weighs 50 g when empty, 144.0 g when filled with a liquid of density
0.47 g/mL and 50.5 g when filled with an ideal gas at 760 mm Hg at 300 K. The molar mass of the
ideal gas is (Given R = 0.0821 L atm K-1 mol-1 )
1) 47.870 2) 130.98 3) 123.75 4) 61.575
6. A bubble of gas released at the bottom of a lake increases to eight times its original volume when it
reaches the surface. Assuming that atmospheric pressure is equivalent to the pressure exerted by a
column of water 10 m height, the depth of the lake is
1) 80 m 2) 90 m 3) 70 m 4) 40 m
7. Two glass bulbs A and B are connected by very small tube having a stop cock. Bulb A has a volume
of 100 ml and contained the gas while bulb B was empty and had a volume of 150 ml. On opening
the stop cock, the pressure of the gas in bulb A will falls down by
1) 80 % 2) 60 % 3) 40 % 4) 20 %
8. A gas LPG cylinder weighs 14.8 kg when empty. When full it weighs 29 kg and show a pressure of
2.5 atm. In the course of use at 270 C, the weight of full cylinder is reduced to 23.2 kg. Find out the
final pressure inside the cylinder
1) 1.48 atm 2) 2.82 atm 34.43 atm 4) 3.56 atm
9. 2.8 g of N2, 0.40 g of H2 and 6.4 g of O2 are placed in a container of 1.0 L capacity at 270 C. The total
pressure in the container is
1) 6.15 atm 2) 12.3 atm
3) 1.123 atm 4) 24.6 atm
10. 2 grams of hydrogen diffuses from a container in 10 minutes. How many grams of oxygen would
diffuse the same container in the same time under similar conditions?
1) 0.5 g 2) 4 g 3) 6 g 4) 8 g
11. The mass of molecule A is twice that of B. The root mean square velocity of molecules A is twice that
of B. If two container of equal volume have same number of molecules, the ratio of pressure PA/PB will
be
1) 8 : 1 2) 1 : 8 3) 4 : 1 4) 1 : 4
12. The average kinetic energy (in joule) of molecules in 8g methane at 27°C
1) 6.21 × 10-20 J/molecule 2) 6.21 × 10-21 J/molecule
3) 6.21 × 10-22 J/molecule 4) 3.1 × 10-22 J/molecule
25
13. In the plot of PV vs P for real and ideal gases, PV increases continuously with increase of pressure
for the gas X and PV first decreases with increase of pressure and reaches a minimum value then
increases continuously with increase of pressure for the gas Y, then X and Y most probably respectively
1) Permanent gas and more liquifiable gas 2) More liquefiable gas and permanent gas
3) Both are early liquefiable gas 4) Both have compressibility factor of one
14. The van der Waals parameters for gases W,X,Y and Z are
2 -2 -1
Gas a(atm L mol ) b(L mol )
W 4.0 0.025
X 8.0 0.02
Y 6.0 0.03
Z 12.0 0. 05
1) W 2) X 3) Y 4) Z
15. The critical temperature of a gas if it gets liquified at 4.1 atm and has a critical volume of 3L
1) 250°C 2) 400°C 3) 127°C 4) 308°C
26
CHAPTER - 06
THERMODYNAMICS AND CHEMICAL ENERGETICS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL-I
1. Which of the following is an intensive property
1) Enthalpy 2) Volume 3) Entropy 4) Density
2. Which one of the following equations correctly represent the first law of thermodynamics for the given
process occuring in an ideal gas
1) Cyclic process q = w
2) isothermal process q = w
3) adiabatic process u   w
4) expansion of a gas into vacuum u  q

3. A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a constant
temperature of 37.00C.As it does so, it absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and w for the process
will be: (R=8.314 J/mol K) (In 7.5=2.01)
1) q = +208J, w = -208 J 2) q = -208 J, w = -208 J
3) q = -208 J, w = +208 J 4) q = +208 J, w = +208 J
4. One mole of a non ideal gas undergoes a change state (2 atm, 3L, 95 K)  (4 atm, 5L, 245 K) when
a change in internal energy, U  30L atm. . The change in enthalpy of process in L atm is
1) 40 2) 42.3
3) 44 4) Not defined because pressure is not constant
5. The heat liberated on complete combustion of 7.8 g benzene is 327 KJ. This heat has been measured
at constant volume and at 270C. Calculate the enthalpy of combustion of benzene at constant pressure.
1) –1467.42 KJ 2) –4672.8 KJ 3) –3273.74 KJ 4) –8462.52 KJ
6. Molar heat capacity at constant pressure of a metal (At mass 27) is 24 JK–1 mol–1. Quantity of heat to
raise the temperature of 10g metal from 25°C to 45°C is
1) 240 J 2) 65.8 J 3) 177.8 J 4) 4800 J
7. The difference in the heat of reaction at constant pressure and at constant volume for combustion of
8g methane at 300 K
1) 4988 J 2) –2494 J 3) –4988 J 4) 2494 J
27
8. 0.1 g of a substance (mol. mass 74) was burnt in a suitable apparatus and the heat evolved was
sufficient to raise the temperature of 100g water by 5°. Enthalpy of combustion of the substance (in
Kcal.mol–1)
1) 370 2) –740 3) 740 4) –370
9. The amount of heat liberated when 20 ml 0.5 M NaOH is mixed with 100 ml 0.1 M HCl is xkJ. The heat
of neutralisation of HCl in kJ mol–1 is
1) +50 x 2) –50 x 3) +100 x 4) –100 x
10. The enthalpies of combustion of C, H2 and ethanol are –393.5, –286 and –1368 kJ respectively. The
heat of formation of ethanol is
1) –277 2) +277 3) –554 4) +554 kJ
11. The enthalpies of solution for copper sulphate pentahydrate and anhydrous copper sulphate are
respectively +11.7 and –65.5 kJ mol–1. The hydration enthalpy of anhydrous copper sulphate is
1) –53.8 2) 53.8
3) –77.2 4) 77.2 kJ
12. Calculate the free energy change at 270C for H2 + Cl2 

 2HCl. Bond enthalpies of H2, Cl2, HCl are
435, 240 and 430 KJ mol respectively. Entropies of H 2, Cl2 and HCl are 131, 223 and
–1
187 JK–1 mol–1

1) –200 KJ 2) +191 KJ 3) –191 KJ 4) Zero
13. For which of the following processes, S is negative
1) 2 moles of ideal gas expands from 2L to 20 L at 600 K
2) 10g ice melts to liquid water at 273 K
3) NaHCO3(s) decomposes to Na2CO3(s), CO2(g) and H2O(l)
4) Steam condenses to liquid water
14. For spontaneous process
1) STotal  0 2) STotal  0 3) STotal  0 4) None of these
15. The value of log10 K for a reaction A  B is:
 Given : r H0 298K  54.07kJmol1, r S0298  10JK 1mol1 and 

 1 1

 R  8.314JK mol ;2.303  8.314  298  5705 
1) 5 2) 10 3) 95 4) 100
LEVEL - II
1. The work done on the system when one mole of an ideal gas is compressed isothermally to a final
volume of 0.01 m3 at constant external pressure of 5 bar is 20 kJ. What is initial volume of the gas?
1) 0.05 m3 2) 0.025 m3 3) 0.04 m3 4) 0.03 m3
2. A gas is allowed to expand in a well-insulated container against a constant external pressure of 2.5
atm from 2.5 L to 4.5 L. The change in internal energy of the gas
1) –506.5 J 2) –5.06 kJ 3) 1136 J 4) Zero
28
3. How much heat is required to change 10g ice at 0°C to steam at 100°C? Latent heat of fusion and
vapourisation for H2O are 80 cal/g and 540 cal/g respectively. Specific heat of water is 1 cal g–1
1) 7200 cal 2) 2400 cal 3) 5400 cal 4) 3800 cal
4. H 0f values of NH 2  OH s  , HN3 g  , N 2 H 4   and NH 4 NO3(s) are respectively (in kJ mol–1), –114, 294,
50.6 and –365.5. The order of increasing stability with respect to decomposition into their elements
will be
1) NH 4 NO3(s)  NH 2  OH s  N 2 H 4(  )  HN3(g)

2) NH 2  OH s   N 2 H 4    HN3(g)  NH 4 NO3(s)
3) HN 3(g)  N 2 H 4(  )  NH 2 OH s   NH 4 NO3(s)
4) HN 3(g )  NH 2  OH s   N 2 H 4(  )  NH 4 NO3(s)
5. A cylinder of cooking gas is assumed to contain 14.2 kg butane (C4H10) combustion of butane is
13
C 4 H10 g   O 2(g) 
 4CO 2(g)  5H 2 O   ; H  2660kJ
2
If a family needs 14000 kJ of energy per day for cooking and assuming that 20% of the gas is wasted
due to incomplete combustion, how long would the cylinder last?
1) 37 days 2) 18 days 3) 25 days 4) 30 days
6. The specific heat at constant volume and constant pressure for a gas are 0.075 and 0.125 cal/g
respectively. The molecular weight and atomicity of the gas is
1) 40u, triatomic 2) 40u, monoatomic 3) 80u, diatomic 4) 80u, polyatomic
7. One mole of an ideal gas is allowed to expand reversibly and adiabatically from a temperature 27°C.
If work done during the process is 3kJ final temperature of the gas is [Cv = 20 JK–1 mol–1]
1) 150 K 2) 200 K 3) 175 K 4) 225 K
8. 1.22 g of benzoic acid on combustion in a Bomb calorimeter was found to raise the temperature of the
calorimeter system from 298 K to 298.5 K. If the heat capacity of calorimeter system is 64.5 kJ, heat
of combustion of benzoic acid at constant volume is
1) –3225 kJmol–1 2) 3225 kJmol–1 3) –3934 kJmol–1 4) +3934 kJmol–1
9. CCl4   boils at 350 K at 1 atm. pressure absorbing 30 kJ mol–1. The change in internal energy when
15.4 g of liquid carbon tetrachloride vaporises at 350 K and 1 atm is
1) 30 kJ 2) 2.71 kJ 3) 27.9 kJ 4) –27.1 kJ
10. Consider the reaction
4NO(g)  O2(g) 
 2N 2 O5(g) ; H  111 kJ
If N 2 O5(s) is formed in the above reaction H will be (Given H for sublimation of N2O5 is 54 kJ/mol)
1) –165 kJ 2) +54 kJ 3) +219 kJ 4) –219 kJ
29
11. H for the formation of ammonia is –45 kJ mol . Bond energies of H–H and N–H bonds are 435 kJ
–1
and 390 kJ mol–1 respectively. Bond energy of N2 will be

1) 854 kJmol–1 2) 945 kJmol–1 3) 985 kJmol–1 4) 845 kJ mol–1
12. Which expansion will produce more change in entropy during reversible and isothermal expansion?
1) 1 mol H2 at 300 K from 2L to 20 L 2) 1 mol N2 at 400 K from 1L to 10 L
3) 1 mol O2 at 500 K from 3L to 30 L 4) All have same S
13. Entropy of vaporisation of acetone is 93 JK–1 mol–1 at its boiling point of 329 K. The heat required to
vaporise 1g of acetone at 329 K
1) 527.5 J 2) 30.6 kJ 3) 5394 J 4) 540 J
14. For the reaction X 2 O 4   

 2XO 2(g) ; U  2.1 kcalmol1 , S  20 cal K 1mol1 at 300 K. Calculate
G and predict whether the reaction is spontaneous at 300 K
1) –2.7 kcal, spontaneous 2) +2.7 Kcal, spontaneous
3) +9.3 kcal, spontaneous 4) –9.3 kcal, spontaneous
15. A reaction has value of H  40 kcal mol–1 at 400 K. Below 400 K the reaction is spontaneous and
above 400 K it is not. The value of G and S at 400 K are respectively
1) 0, –0.1 cal K–1 mol–1 2) 0, 100 cal K–1 mol–1
3) 10 Kcal mol–1, –100 cal K–1 mol–1 4) 0, –100 cal K–1 mol–1
15
16. Consider the following spontaneous reaction C6 H 5 COOH  s   O 2(g) 
 7CO 2(g)  3H 2 O   sign
2
of S, H and G
1) –, –, – 2) –, +, – 3) +, –, – 4) +, +, –
17. Given : PbO2 

 PbO G 298 K  0
SnO2 
 SnO G 298 K  0
Most probable oxidation state of Pb and Sn will be
1) Pb4+, Sn4+ 2) Pb4+, Sn2+ 3) Pb2+, Sn4+ 4) Pb2+, Sn2+
18. Work for the following process ABCD on a monoatomic gas is:
1) w = –2P0V0 ln 2 2) w = +2P0V0ln2 3) w = –P0V0 (1 + ln2) 4) w = -P0V0, ln2

30
19. 2 moles of ideal gas is expanded isothermally and reversibly from 1 litre to 10 litre. Find the enthalpy
change in kJ mol–1
1) 0 2) 11.7 3) –11.7 4) 25
20. White phosphorous is a tetraatomic solid [P4(s)] at room temperature. Find average (P–P) bond
enthalpy in (kJ/mol)
Given H sub lim ation of P4 (s)  59 kJ mol1

H atomisation of P4 (s)  1265 kJ mol1
1) 201 2) 1206 3) 301.5 4) 210.83
31
CHAPTER - 07
CHEMICAL AND IONIC EQUILIBRIUM
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. 

For the equilibrium NH4 SH(s)  4 2 2
 NH3(g)  H2S(g) ,K C  2  10 mol L at 300 K. The value of Kp at
300 K is :
1) 1.15 × 10–1 2) 4.2 × 10–3 3) 2.3 × 10–2 4) 3.45 × 10–1 (atm2)
2. Consider the following gaseous equilibria at the same temperature with equilibrium constants K1 and
K2 respectively :
1 

SO2  O2 
 SO3 (K1 )
2


2SO3 
 2S O2  O2 (K 2 )
K1 and K2 are related as :
1 1
1) K2 = K1 2) K 2  K12 3) K 2  4) K 2  K 2
K1 1
3. 

C(s)  CO2(g) 
 2CO(g) . At equilibrium, 25% of the CO2 got converted into CO. If the equilibrium
pressure is 12 atm, the partial pressure of CO2 at equilibrium is :
1) 0.25 atm 2) 7.2 atm 3) 2.4 atm 4) 9 atm
4. 1 mol of A and 0.5 mol of B were enclosed in a 3 L vessel and heated to constant temperature. The

reaction is A  2B 
 C (all gases). The equilibrium mixture was found to contain 0.3 mol of B. The
KC of the reaction is
1) 0.01 2) 2.5 3) 11 4) 5.5
5. The equilibrium constant of a reaction changes when :
1) More of a reactant or product is added to the equilibrium mixture
2) A catalyst is added to the equilibrium mixture
3) Temperature is changed
4) All of these
32
6. 

Consider the gaseous equilibrium PCl5 
 PCl3  Cl 2 ; H  0 maintained at constant temperature.
The forward reaction is favoured by :
1) Introducing an inert gas at constant volume
2) Introducing an inert gas at constant pressure
3) Introducing more of Cl2 at constant volume
4) Introducing more of PCl3 at constant volume
7. Four homogeneous, gaseous, equilibrium reactions are given below. Choose the reaction in which
both increase in temperature and increase in pressure favour the formation of products


1) 2A  B 
 C  D; H   78 kJ 

2) W  X 
 2Y  3Z; H   92KJ


3) H  G 
 2K ; H   95 KJ 

4) 2M  3N 
 P  2Q; H   105 KJ
8. Ammonium carbamate (NH2COONH4) vapour when heated to 2000C dissociates into a mixture of
NH3 and CO2 gases with a vapour density of 13. From this data, the degree of dissociation of
NH2COONH4 at 2000C is :
1) 0.5 2) 0.75 3) 1.0 4) 1.5
9. If a certain weak acid is only 0.1% ionised in its 0.1 M aq. solution at 298 K, the pKa of the acid at
298 K is :
1) 7 2) 5 3) 4 4) 3
10. When HCl gas is passed through a saturated aq. solution of NaCl :
1) There is no observable change 2) The Ksp of NaCl increases
3) The Ksp of NaCl decreases 4) Some NaCl precipitated
11. In the detection of group II cations in the qualitative analysis of salts, HCl is added before passing H2S.
This is meant
1) To suppress the ionisation of the salt
2) To suppress the ionisation of the H2S
3) To increase the solubility of the salt in water
4) To cause the precipitation of the chlorides of group II cations
12. If the concentration of F– in a saturated aq. solution of CaF2 at room temperature is 4 × 10–3 mol L–1,
the Ksp of CaF2 at this temperature is :
1) 2.56 × 10–7 2) 1.6 × 10–5
3) 3.2 × 10–8 4) 6 × 10–3 (M3)
13. The solubility of AgI in water at a given temperature is 2 × 10–5 mol L–1. Its solubility in a 0.1 M KI
solution at the same temperature is :
1) 4 × 10–9 M 2) 2 × 10–6 M 3) 4 × 10–10 M 4) 2 × 10–4 M
14. For the equilibrium (autoprotolysis of water): 2H2O  H3O  OH , the value of Go at 298 K is
approximately:
1) 80 KJ/mol 2) 100 KJ/mol 3) –80 KJ/mol 4) –100 KJ/mol
33
15. The dissociation constant of a weak monoprotic acid at 298 K is found to the numerically equal to the
dissociation constant of its conjugate base. The pH of a decimolar aq. solution of this acid at 298 K is;
1) 6 2) 5 3) 4 4) 3
16. 1 ml of a 0.1 M aq. solution of a weak monoacidic base is diluted to 100 ml. The pH of the resulting
solution at 298 K is (Given pKb of the base at 298 K = 5)
1) 11 2) 8 3) 9 4) 10
17. Which of the following pairs in aq. solution cannot be a buffer?
1) HCOOH & HCOONa 2) HClO4 & NaClO4
3) NH4OH & NH4Cl 4) H3PO4 & NaH2PO4
18. The Ka of a certain weak acid at 298 K is 1 × 10–4. Inorder to prepare a buffer solution of pH = 5, the
[salt] : [acid] ratio should be
1) 10 : 1 2) 4 : 5 3) 1 : 10 4) 5 : 4
19. Aqueous solutions of HCOONa, C6H5NH3Cl and NaCN are respectively:
1) basic, neutral, basic
2) basic, acidic, basic
3) acidic, basic, neutral
4) acidic, acidic, basic
20. Kb of NH4OH at 298 K is 1 × 10–5. The pH of a 0.01 M aq. solution of NH4Cl a 298 K is
1) 4 2) 4.5 3) 5 4) 5.5
LEVEL-II
1. NH2COONH4(s)   

 2NH3(g) + CO2(g). If the equilibrium pressure for the above reaction at 573 K is
3 atm, the Kp of the reaction at 573 K is
1 4
1) 27 2) 3) 4 4)
27 27
2. Equimolar concentrations of H2 and I2 are heated to equilibrium in a closed container. At equilibrium,
the forward and backward rate constants are found to be equal. What % of the initial concentration of
H2 reacted and got consumed at equilibrium?
1) 60% 2) 50% 3) 40% 4) 33%
3. 

For the reaction AB(g) 
 A (g)  B(g) , at a certain temperature, AB is 33% dissociated at a total
pressure P. The relation between P and Kp is
1) P = 8 KP 2) P = 3KP 3) P = KP 4) P = 4 KP
4.  2C (all gases). 2 moles of A, 3 moles of B and 2 moles of C were

Consider the reaction A  2B 
placed in a sealed 2L container. The reaction proceeds at constant temperature and reaches equilibrium,
the equilibrium concentration of C is found to be 0.5 mol L–1. The KC of the reaction is
1) 0.025 2) 0.05
3) 0.075 4) 0.15
34
5. The standard gibbs energy change at 300 K for the reaction 2A   
 B  C is 4015 J. At a given
instant, the composition of the reaction mixture is [A] = 0.5 M, [B] = 2 M and [C] = 0.5 M. The reaction
proceeds the :
1) Forward direction because Qc < Kc 2) Reverse direction because Qc < Kc
3) Forward direction because Qc > Kc 4) Reverse direction because Qc > Kc
6.  I3 . We started with 1 mol of I 2 and 0.5 mol of I  in a 1L flask. After equilibrium was
I 2  I  
reached, excess of AgNO3 gave 0.25 mol of yellow precipitate (AgI). The value of Kc is
1) 1.11 2) 2.0 3) 1.33 4) 3.3
7. At a particular temperature, the following equilibrium is attained when 50% of each reactant got

converted into products, A(g)  B(g) 
C(g)  D g . If the initial amount of B in moles is doubled, the % of B
converted into products is
1) 33% 2) 75% 3) 50% 4) 66%
8. The dissociation constant (Ka) of a certain weak monoprotic acid at 298 K is 1 × 10–5. The % dissociation
of this acid in its decimolar aqueous solution at 298 K is
1) 10% 2) 1% 3) 5% 4) 2%
9. If the degree of dissociation    of a certain weak monobasic acid in its 0.1 M aq. solution at 298 K is
0.01, the degree of dissociation of this acid in its 0.025 M aq. solution at 298 K is
1) 0.05 2) 0.04 3) 0.03 4) 0.02
10. At 298 K, the Ksp of Hg2Cl2 is 3.2 × 10–17 mol3 L–3. What is the solubility of Hg2Cl2 in water at 298 K?
1) 1.2 × 10–12 M 2) 3 × 10–6 M 3) 2 × 10–6 M 4)1.2 × 10–16 M
11. The Ksp of M(OH)2 is 5 × 10–10 M3 at 298 K. The molar solubility of M(OH)2 in a 0.1 M NaOH solution is:
1) 5 × 10–8 M 2) 5 × 10–9 M 3) 5 × 10–12 M 4) 5 × 10–16 M
12. The Ksp of Ag2CrO4, AgCl, AgBr and AgI at a certain temperature are respectively 1.1 ×10–12,
1.8 × 10–10, 5 × 10–13 and 8.3 × 10–17. Which one of the following silver salts will precipitate last if AgNO3
solution is added to a solution containing equal moles of NaCl, NaBr, NaI and Na2CrO4?
1) AgCl 2) AgBr 3) Ag2CrO4 4) AgI
13. Which of the following fluoro compounds is most likely to behave as a Lewis base?
1) BF3 2) SiF4 3) CF4 4) PF3
14.  CO32  (aq)  H 2 PO 4 (aq) is

The equilibrium constant for the reaction HCO 3 (aq)  HPO 24  aq  
about 10–3. The strongest conjugate base in this reaction is
1) HPO 24  (aq) 2) CO 32  (aq) 3) H 2 PO 4 (aq) 4) HCO 3 (aq)
15. The pH of a 10–7 M aq. solution of HCl at 298 K is

1) 6 2) 7 3) 6.7 4) 7.3
16. When 200 ml of an aq. solution of HCl (pH=2) is mixed with 300 ml of an aq. solution of NaOH
(pH=12), the pH of the resulting solution is
1) 10 2) 2 3) 2.7 4) 11.3
35
17. The pKb value of NH4OH at 298 K is 4.75. An aq. solution of NH4OH is titrated against HCl. The pH of
the solution when half of the NH4OH has been neutralized is
1) 7.5 2) 8.5 3) 9.25 4) 4.75
18. 0.1 mol of CH3NH2 (Kb = 5 × 10–4 at 298 K) is mixed with 0.08 mol of HCl and the volume made upto
1 L by adding water. The pH of the resulting solution is (given : log 4 = 0.6, log 5 = 0.7)
1) 10.1 2) 11 3) 9.1 4) 8.1
19. The Ka of a substituted benzoic acid at 298 K is 1 × 10–4. The pH of a 0.01 M aq. solution of its sodium
salt at 298 K is :
1) 7.5 2) 8 3) 8.5 4) 9
20. A certain weak acid HA has a dissociation constant of 1 × 10–4 at 298 K. The equilibrium constant for its
reaction with the strong base NaOH is :
1) 1 × 10–10 2) 1 × 10–8 3) 1 × 108 4) 1 × 1010
36
CHAPTER - 08
REDOX REACTIONS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. The oxidation state of Pt in [Pt(C2H4)Cl3]– is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 2 4) 1
2. In which of the following, oxidation number of nitrogen is given in the decreasing order
1) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 2) NO, HNO3, NH4Cl, N2
3) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 4) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
3. Select the molecules in which carbon is in zero oxidation state
a) CHCl3 b) CH2Cl2 c) CO
d) C6H12O6 e) CH3COOH
1) a, c 2) a, e 3) b, d, e 4) All
4. Number of electrons to get one mol N2H4 by reduction of NO 3 ions is
1) 8 mol 2) 14 mol 3) 7 mol 4) 5 mol
5. Which of the following is not correct for the reaction, 2Cu2O + Cu2S 
 6Cu + SO2
1) it is a redox reaction 2) Cu is reduced and S is oxidised
3) Cu(I) is oxidant and S of Cu2S is reductant 4) Cu(I) is reductant while S is oxidant
6. In a redox reaction NH3 can act only as a reductant. Therefore in this reaction,
NH 3  HCl 
 NH 4 Cl
1) NH3 is reducing agent 2) HCl is reducing agent
3) NH3 is oxidant 4) NH3 or HCl is not reducing agent
7. How many of the following an decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution
a) SO32  b) NO 2 c) ClO 4
d) S2 e) HCO3 f) C 2 O 24 
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) All
37
8. Equivalent mass of NH3 in the change N 2 

 NH 3 is
M M M
1) 2) 3) 4) M
28 3 6
9. In a galvanic cell, KCl, KNO3 etc can be used in the salt bridge because:
1) It is an inert electrolyte 2) It is highly soluble in water
3) The ionic mobilities are equal 4) Aqueous solution can easily be prepared
10. What is the emf of the following cell reaction;
Sn  Fe 2  
 Sn 2  Fe
0
ESn 2
/ Sn
 0.14 V, E 0Fe2 / Fe  0.44 V
1) +0.3 V 2) –0.3 V 3) +0.58 V 4) –0.58 V

LEVEL-II
1. The sum of oxidation state of all the carbon atoms present in C6H5COOH is
1) –4 2) –3 3) –2 4) +3
2. Considering the change in oxidation state of Bromine and the corresponding different emf values
given below, the species undergoing disproportionation is
BrO 4 
1.82 V
 BrO3 
1.5 V
 HBrO
Br  
1.065 V
Br2 
1.595 V
1) BrO 4 2) BrO 3 3) HBrO 4) Br2
3. In alkaline medium ClO2 oxidises H2O2 to O2 and is itself reduced to Cl–. How many moles of H2O2 are
oxidised by 1 mol of ClO2
1) 3/2 2) 5/2 3) 7/2 4) 1
4. Given that standard reduction potentials of halogens is in the order I < Br < Cl < F. How many of the
following reactions are feasible?
a) 2Cl  Br2 
 Cl 2  2Br 
b) 2I   Cl 2 
 I 2  2Cl
c) 2NaCl  F2 
 2NaF  Cl 2
d) 2NaBr  I 2 
 2NaI  Br2
e) 2KF  Cl2 
 2KCl  F2
1) 3 2) 2 3) 5 4) 4
38
5. In the reaction, 8Al  3Fe3 O 4 

 4Al2 O3  9Fe , number of electrons transferred from reductant to
oxidant is
1) 4 2) 8 3) 16 4) 24
6. 25 ml H2O2 solution were added to excess acid solution of KI. The I2 liberated required 20 ml of 0.1 N
Na2S2O3 solution for titration. What is the mass of H2O2 per litre?
1) 1.36 g 2) 2.26 g 3) 3.5 g 4) 1.95 g
7. E 0Na  / Na  2.71 V
E 0Cl / Cl
 1.36 V
2
The standard free energy change for formation of 1 mole NaCl is

1) 786 kJ 2) –393 kJ
3) 197 kJ 4) –786 kJ
8. 1g sample of H2O2 solution containing x% H2O2 by mass requires x c.c. of acidified KMnO4. Find the
normality of KMnO4
1) 0.588 2) 0.688
3) 0.45 ) 0.25
9. As methanol is converted to methanal and then methanoic acid, the oxidation number of C changes
from
1) 0 to –2 to +2 2) –2 to +2 to 0
3) –2 to 0 to +2 4) +2 to 0 to –2
10. In the balanced equation of the following reaction, what is the ratio between the number of moles of
HNO3 and H2O
 Zn  NO3  2  NH 4 NO3  H 2 O
Zn  HNO3 
1) 3 : 10 2) 4 : 1
3) 10 : 3 4) 3 : 4
11. In bleaching powder (CaOCl2), the oxidation number of the chlorine atoms are
1) –1, 0 2) +1, 0
3) –1, +1 4) –1, –1
12. What is the equivalent weight of As2S3 in the following reaction? (M = Molar mass)
As 2S3  NO3  H 2 O 
 AsO 34  SO 42  NO
M M
1) 2)
4 7
M M
3) 4)
14 28
39
13. In SHE, the pH of the acid solution is

1) 0 2) 1 3) 2 4) 7
14. The values of x and y in the reaction are
xCl 2  OH  
 ClO 3  yCl  H 2 O
1) x = 2, y = 4
2) x = 5, y = 3
3) x = 3, y = 5
4) x = 4, y = 2
15. Which of the following statement is false
1) In Daniell cell, anode is positive and cathode is negative
2) Ecell = Reduction potential of cathode – Reduction potential of anode
3) If Ecell is positive, cell reaction occurs spontaneously
4) Calomel electrode is a secondary standard electrode.
40
CHAPTER - 09
HYDROGEN
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. The oxidation states exhibited by Hydrogen in its vairous compounds is/are
1) –1 only 2) +2 only
3) +1, –1 and 0 4) +1 only
2. Of the following statements regarding dihydrogen, identify the statement which is not correct
1) It is a colourless, odourless, tasteless gas
2) It has very low solubility in water
3) It forms more compounds than any other elements
4) It is a highly reactive gas
3. The conversion of atomic hydrogen into ordinary hydrogen is
1) Exothermic change 2) Endothermic change
3) Nuclear change 4) Photochemical change
4. A deuterium atom
1) Has same atomic mass as hydrogen atom
2) Has same electronic configuration as hydrogen atom
3) Has same nuclear composition as the hydrogen atom
4) Contains one protonmore than a hydrogen atom
5. Which is correct for para hydrogen?
1) Two electrons moving in opposite directions
2) Two electrons moving in same direction
3) Two protons revolving in opposite directions
4) Two protons revolving in same directions
6. Hydrogen accepts an electron to form inert gas configuration. In this it resembles
1) Halogens 2) Alkali metals
3) Chalcogens 4) Alkaline earth metals
41
7. Very pure (>99.9%) hydrogen can be made by which of the following processe?
1) Reaction of salt like hydrides with water
2) Reaction of methane with steam
3) Mixing of natural hydrocarbons having high molecular weight
4) Electrolysis of warm aq. Ba(OH)2 solution using nickel electrode
8. Hydrogen burns in air with a
1) Light bluish flame 2) Yellow flame 3) Green flame 4) Reddish flame
9. Which of the following pair will not produce dihydrogen gas?
1) Cu + HCl (dil) 2) Fe + H2SO4 3) Mg + Steam 4) Na + Alcohol
10. Hydrides of elements of group 3 to 5 are generally called
1) Interstitial hydrides 2) Ionic hydrides
3) Polymeric hydrides 4) Complex hydrides
11. The hydrides used to remove traces of water from organic solvents due to their high reactivity with
water are
1) Ionic hydrides 2) Metallic hydrides
3) Covalent hydrides 4) Interstitial hydrides
12. Both temporary and permanent hardness can be removed on boiling hard water with
1) Ca(OH)2 2) Na2CO3 3) CaCO3 4) CaO
13. Heavy water is
1) Water containing dissolved salt of Ca and Mg 2) Water at 0°C
3) Oxide of deuterium 4) Water at 4°C
14. If dil.H4SO4 is added to 20% cold aqueous solution of BaO2, the product formed is
1) H2O2 2) BaO 3) Ba(OH)2 4) H2SO5
15. The mass percent of H2O2 in ‘30 volume H2O2’ is
1) 4.56% 2) 9.11% 3) 11.39% 4) 13.67%
LEVEL-II
1. Activated hydrogen in obtained by
1) Electrolysis of heavy water
2) Reaction of water with heavy metals
3) Thermal decomposition of water
4) Passing silent electric discharge through hydrogen gas at low pressure
2. The isotopes of hydrogen are
1) Protium, deuterium and tritium 2) Protium and deuterium only
3) Deuterium and tritium only 4) Tritium and protium only
3. Determine the total number of neutrons in three isotopes of hydrogen
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
42
4. The first ionization energy for in kJ mol–1 H, Li, F, Na has one of the following values 1681, 520, 1312,
495. Which of these values corresponds to that of hydrogen?
1) 1681 2) 1312 3) 520 4) 495
5. Hydrogen can be prepared by mixing steam and water gas at 673 K in presence of Fe2O3 and Cr2O3.
This process is called
1) Lane’s process 2) Calgon process
3) Bosch’ process 4) Permutit process
6. Hydrogen is
1) Electropositive
2) Electronegative
3) Both electro positive as well as electronegative
4) Neither electropositive as well as electronegative
7. Reaction of hydrogen with an active metal shows that it is
1) A gas 2) An oxidising agent
3) A reducing agent 4) A combustible gas
8. The correct order of thermal stability of hydrogen halides (HX) is
1) HI > HBr > HCl > HF 2) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
3) HCl < HF < HBr < HI 4) HI > HCl > HF > HBr
9. Non stoichiometric hydrides are
1) Solid solutions
2) Formed by dissolving various amounts of hydrogen
3) Brittle and finely powdered metal hydrides can be prepared
4) all are correct
10. Ice is lighter than water at its melting point because
1) Ice forms mostly heavy water on first melting
2) On melting of ice, H2O molecules shrink is size
3) Ice crystals have hollow hexagonal arrangement of water molecules
4) H2O molecules are more closely packed in solid phase
11. Hard water is not fit for washing purpose because
1) It contains Na2SO4 and KCl 2) Soap is precipitated
3) It contains heavy hydrogen 4) It is acidic in nature
12. Choose the incorrect statement
1) Ordinary water is electrolysed more rapidly than D2O
2) Reaction between H2 and Cl2 is much faster than D2 and Cl2
3) D2O freezes at lower temperature than H2
4) Bond dissociation energy for D2 is greater than H2
43
13. In which of the following reactions hydrogen peroxide is acting as a reducing agent?
1) H 2SO3  H 2 O 2  H 2SO 4  H 2O
2) 2HI  H 2 O2  2H 2 O  I2
3) 2FeCl2  2HCl  H 2 O 2  2FeCl3  2H 2 O
4) Cl2  H 2 O 2  2HCl  O2
14. An organic substance liberates oxygen on heating and turns an acidic solution of KI brown and reduces
acidified KMnO4 solution. The substance is
1) HgO 2) H2O2 3) KNO3 4) Pb(NO3)2
15. 10 ml of H2O2 solution on treatment with KI and titration of liberated I2 required 10 mL of 1N hypo. Thus
concentration of H2O2 is
1) 1N 2) 5.6 volume 3) 17 gL–1 4) All are correct
44
CHAPTER - 10
S-BLOCK ELEMENTS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Most abundant alkali metals are
1) Li, Na 2) Na, K 3) K, Rb 4) Rb, Cs
2. First ionisation potential value of Li and Na is (kJ/mol)
1) 520, 496 2) 496, 899 3) 412, 376 4) 376, 275
3. Based on values of ionisation enthalpy alkali metals are
1) Weak oxidising agents 2) Strong reducing agents
3) Strong oxidising agents 4) Weak reducing agents
4. Which of the following has highest melting point
1) NaCl 2) NaF 3) NaBr 4) NaI
5. Which of the alkali metal has the highest melting point
1) Li 2) Na 3) K 4) Rb
6. Alkali metals have low M.P and B.P due to
1) Weak metallic bond 2) Vander Waals force
3) Covalent bond 4) Dipole Dipole interaction
7. Increasing order of density of alkali metals is
1) Li < K < Na < Rb < Cs 2) Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
3) Cs < Rb < Na < K < Li 4) Cs < Rb < K < Na < Li
8. Order of stability of hydrides of alkali metal MH is
1) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH 2) NaH > LiH > KH > RbH > CsH
3) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH > LiH 4) KH > NaH > LiH > CsH > RbH
9. Which of the following cannot decompose on heating liberating CO2
1) Li2CO3 2) Na2CO3 3) K2CO3 4) Rb2CO3
10. Which of the following is Glauber’s salt
1) Na2SO4.10H2O 2) Na2CO3.10H2O 3) Na3PO4 4) Na(NH4)HPO4
45
11. Washing soda has the formula

1) Na2CO3 2) Na2CO3.10H2O 3) NaHCO3 4) Na2CO3.H2O
12. Which of the following salts on heating give NO2 and O2 gas
1) Mg(NO3)2 2) NaNO3 3) KNO3 4) RbNO3
13. Magnesium metal heated to red hot in N2 and cooled with water, the gas liberated is
1) Ammonia 2) Hydrogen 3) Nitrogen 4) Oxygen
14. Which of the following used as dehydrating agent in the laboratory or in dessicators
1) CaCl2 2) NaCl 3) Na2CO3 4) KNO3
15. Which of the following used as Barium Meal for getting clear X-ray photograph of digestive system
1) BaSO4 2) BaCl2 3) BaF2 4) BaCO3
16. Gypsum on heating (CaSO4.2H2O) to 120°C give a compound - plaster of paris which has the formula
1) CaSO4 2) CaSO4.H2O 3) CaSO4 . ½H2O 4) 2CaSO4.3H2O
17. Raw materials for portland cement are
1) Limestone, clay and gypsum 2) Limestone, sand and gypsum
3) Limestone, Al2O3 and gypsum 4) Limestone, Fe2O3 and gypsum
18. Soda lime is used in decarboxylation reaction of monocarboxylic acids to give alkanes. It has for
formula
1) NaOH + CaO 2) Na2CO3 + CaO 3) K2CO3 + Ca(OH)2 4) NaOH + Ca(OH)2
19. Which of the following carbide on hydrolysis give methane (CH4)
1) Be2C 2) CaC2 3) MgC2 4) SrC2
20. Which of the following give NH3 gas on hydrolysis?
1) Mg3N2 2) NaN3 3) Ba(N3)2 4) Mg(NO3)2
LEVEL-II
1. LiCl is a deliquescent solid so it exist as
1) LiCl.H2O 2) LiCl.2H2O 3) LiCl.3H2O 4) LiCl.5H2O
2. Which is not true for alkali metals
1) ns1 outer E.C. with low IE and most electro positive
2) They have silvery white colour
3) Hydration enthalpy Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+
4) Will not provide colour to oxidising flame
3. Which is incorrect statement about alkali metals
1) They vigorously react with water, least reactive is Li
2) They react with alcohol and acetylene
3) They don’t form ionic hydrides
4) They react with halogens to form ionic compounds except Li
46
4. Which of the following is wrong with respect to oxides and hydroxides and superoxides of alkali metals
1) Stability of peroxides and superoxides increases down the group due to large cation and anion and
strong lattice
2) They are hydrolysed by water
3) Oxides and peroxides have colour but superoxides have not colour and magnetic properties
4) Hydroxides are crystalline solids and strong bases
5. The anomalous behaviour of Li is not due to
1) Small size of Li atoms and ion (76 pm) 2) High IE and high polarising power
3) Increased covalent character 4) Least reactive and hardness
6. Which is not the diagonal relation between Li and Mg
1) Their reaction with water very slow and they form nitrides Li3N and Mg3N2
2) Their carbonate are less stable, decompose on heating
3) They have no solid bicarbonates
4) They are not hard with least melting point
7. Which is false regarding caustic soda, NaOH?
1) Prepared commercially by electrolysis of NaCl in Castner-Kellner cell
2) White translucent solid with m.p. 591 K
3) Crystals are deliquescent
4) Surface of the crystals have no coating when exposed to air
8. Na2CO3.10H2O (washing soda) can be prepared by solvay process (Ammonia soda process). But
K2CO3 (Pearl Ash) can’t be prepared by this method, because
1) KHCO3 more soluble in NaHCO3 2) K2CO3 more soluble
3) KHCO3 can be easily filtered 4) K2CO3 formed is insoluble
9. Match suitably
List-I List-II
1) LiF, CsI a) order of mp and bp
2) H 0f values of fluorides of alkali metals b) Reverse of fluorides
3) H 0f of Cl–, Br–, I– of group 1 c) Become less negative
4) MF > MCl > MBr > MI d) Insoluble in water

Code
a b c d
1) d c b a
2) d c a b
3) c d a b
4) c d b a
47
10. Which is incorrect regarding uses of group 1 members?

1) Li is used in thermo nuclear reactions
2) PbEt4 and PbMe4 are made using Na/Pb alloy
3) Potassium has no vital role in biological systems
4) Liquid sodium is a coolant in breeder nuclear reactors
11. Which statement is wrong?
1) The solubility of NaCl doesn’t increase appreciably with increase in temperature
2) NaHCO3 is a mild antiseptic for skin infections
3) NaHCO3 is used in fire extinguishers
4) NaHCO3 is also called soda Ash
12. Which is incorrect regarding the properties of alkaline earth metals
1) Solubility of group 2 hydroxides increases down the group
2) M + X2 on heating give MX2 and not MX
3) H 0f of oxides are very low and order of stability of carbonate is BeCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3 >
SrCO3 > BaCO3
 M  OH  2  heat
4) MO  H 2O 
13. BeF2 is ionic and soluble in water whereas fluorides of other group 2 are insoluble because
1) ionic character of BeF2
2) hydration enthalpy of Be2+ > lattice enthalpy
3) Covalent character of BeF2
4) lattice enthalpy of BeF2 > hydration enthalpy
14. Diagonal similarity between Be and Al not found is
1) They react with alkali to form Beryllates and aluminates
2) Their chlorides exist as dimer in vapour phase
3) They have greater tendency to form fluoro complex
4) They form linear complexes
15. Hybridisation of Be in BeCl2 in solid state and in vapour state at 1000°C are
1) sp3, sp 2) sp3, sp2 3) sp3, sp3 4) sp, sp3
16. Which statement is correct?
1) All mono oxides of group 2 have rock salt structure
2) Enthalpy of formation the oxides of group 2 are very low
3) BeO is amphoteric
4) Beryllium halides are ionic and insoluble in organic solvents
48
17. Ca 
N2

 A 
H2 O
 C(g)  E
Ca 
P

 B 
H 2O
 D(g)  E
Gases C and D are
1) NH3 and PH3 2) NH3 and P2O3 3) N2 and PH3 4) NH3 and P2O5
18. A compound ‘X’ has the following properties
A) It is used as water softener
B) It gives NaOH with Na2CO3
C) Clear solution turns milky, when CO2 passed
D) It liberate NH3 gas with NH 4 salts
The compound X is
1) Ca(HCO3)2 2) Ca(OH)2 3) CaO 4) CaCO3
19. Which of the following has highest percentage in portland cement
1) Dicalcium silicate (Ca2SiO4) 2) Tricalcium silicate (Ca3SiO5)
3) Tricalcium aluminate (Ca3Al2O3) 4) Gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O)
20. Which is false regarding the salts of oxoacids of group-2
1) BeCO3 is prone to hydrolysis and kept in CO2
2) BeF2 is soluble in H2O
3) Oxalates of calcium is insoluble in H2O
4) Nitrates of group 2 elements will not decompose on heating.
49
CHAPTER - 11
THE p BLOCK ELEMENTS (XI)
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. The occurrences of oxidation states two units less than the group oxidation state in p-block are attrib-
uted to inert pair effect. This is due to
1) Increase in bond enthalpy down the group
2) The reluctance of s-subshell electrons to participate in chemical bonding
3) The shift from non-metallic to metallic character down the group
4) General electronic configuration ns2 np1–6 except for helium
2. Which statements is false?
1) The non metals and metalloids exists only in the p-block of the periodic table
2) The change of non-metallic to metallic character can be best illustrated by the nature of oxides they
form
3) The first member of p-block differs from the rest of the members in two major aspects-smallest
size and lack of d-orbitals
4) Both Boron and Aluminium provide hexafluoro anions, [BF6]3– and [AlF6]3–
3. Select the correct statements?
I) The first member of each group in p-block can form p   p  bonds eg: C=C, C=N, N=O
II) The heavier elements of p-block do form d   d  and d   p 
III) The coordination number in species of heavier elements may be lower than for the first elements in
the same oxidation state incase of oxoanions.
1) I, II, III 2) I, II
3) I, III 4) II, III
4. Which is incorrect regarding Boron?
1) Boron is a fairly rare element and mainly occurs as orthoboric acid, borax and kernite.
2) Nonmetallic, hard and black coloured solid with unusually high m.p. of 2453 K.
3) Exists in many allotropic forms and has two isotopes
4) Compounds of boron are electron rich
50
5. Which is false?
1) Ga with unusually low mp (303 K) is a liquid metal on a warm day
2) Thallium has noble gas plus 14 f-electrons plus ten d-electron core.
3) Down group 13, electronegativity decreases from boron to thallium
4) The atomic radius of Gallium is less than that of Aluminium
6. The correct statements are
I) The decreasing order of first I.E. of group 13 is B  Tl  Ga  Al  In
II) The sum of the first three I.E. for each of the elements is very low
III) The relative stability of +1 oxidation state follows the order Al  Ga  In  Tl
IV) BCl3 easily accept a lone pair of electrons from NH3 to form BCl3 .NH 3
1) All are correct 2) I, III, IV 3) II, III, IV 4) I, IV

7. Which pair is incorrect?

1) Hydrolysis of trichlorides of group is -  M  OH 4  , M  sp3
3
2) Aq.solution of A AlCl3 -  Al  H 2 O 6  , Al  sp3d 2
3) Tl3  E 0  1.26 V - reducing agent
4) Al metal - Passive with con.HNO3

8. Which is incorrect with borax?
1) Its aqueous solution is alkaline
2) Acidification of aqueous borax gives boric acid
3) Strong heating provide borax bead
4) The new formula has no tetranuclear unit
9. Which is incorrect regarding orthoboric acid?
1) White crystalline solid with soapy touch and a mild antiseptic
2) It has a layer structure in which planar BO3 units are joined by H-bond
3) It is a weak monobasic Lewis acid but not a protonic acid
4) On strong heating produces boron
10. Which is/are correct for DIBORANE?
I) Simplest borane, sp3 hybridised, colourless toxic gas
II) Lab preparation is the reaction of NaBH4 with iodine and industrial preparation by the reaction of BF3
with NaH at 450 K
III) The structure contains four 2c - 2e– bonds and three 3c – 2e– bonds
IV) It can undergo cleavage reaction with Lewis base
1) I, II 2) II, III 3) III, IV 4) I, II, IV
51
11. Which is incorrect with group 14 elements?

1) Covalent radii increases from carbon to silicon and thereafter a small increase
2) After the first member, EN values remain same
3) The first IE values have a regular decrease downwards except lead
4) m.p. and b.p. are much lower than group 13
12. Identify the incorrect statement regarding chemical properties of group 14 elements?
1) Stability of +2 state : Si < Ge < Sn < Pb
2
2) SiF62  ,  GeCl6  , Sn  OH 6 
2
don’t exist
3) Among monoxides, CO is neutral, GeO distinctly acidic whereas SnO and PbO are amphoteric
4) Tin decomposes steam and SiCl4 hydrolyses to silicic acid
13. Which is/are correct statements?
I) Among the allotropes of carbon, graphite is thermodynamically most stable
II) Pure CO is obtained by dehydration of HCOOH
III) Fullerenes are the purest form of carbon
IV) SiO2 has no reaction with NaOH and HF
1) I, II, III 2) I, II 3) I, III 4) II, IV
14. How many oxygen atoms are shared in pyrosilicates?
1) Zero 2) One 3) Two 4) Three
15. Which is incorrect?
1) Silicones are organosilicon polymers with repeated R2SiO– units and are water repelling.
2) Hydrolysis followed by condensation of R2SiCl2 yield straight chain silicones
3) Cross linked silicones are prepared from RSiCl3
4) Zeolites are not used as catalyst
LEVEL-II
1. Which is the correct order of atomic radii for group 13 elements?
1) B  Al  Ga  In  Tl 2) B  Al  Ga  In  Tl
3) B  Al  Ga  In  Tl 4) Ga  Al  B  In  Tl
2. Incorrect statement is
1) The most abundant metal is present in cryolite and bauxite
2) Lewis acid order is BF3  BCl3  BBr3  BI3
3) Amorphous boron and Al metal on heating in air from B2O3 (acidic) and Al2O3 (amphoteric)
4) Group 13 elements reacts with halogens to form trihalides except TlI3 solid
52
3. AlCl3 achieves stability by forming the dimer.
Cl Cl
b Cl
a
y
Al x Al z
Cl Cl Cl
The marked bond angles x, y, z and bond lengths ‘a’ and ’b’ are correct with
x y z a b
1) 79 101 118 206 pm 221 pm
2) 101 79 118 206 pm 221 pm
3) 118 101 79 221 pm 206 pm
4) 79 118 101 221pm 206 pm
4. In the following skeleton equation, the coefficients are respectively in the order
 aNa  Al(OH) 4   bH 2
xAl  yNaOH  zH 2O 
x y z a b
1) 2 2 6 2 3
2) 2 2 2 3 6
3) 3 3 2 6 6
4) 2 6 3 2 6
5. When borax is heated in a Bunsen burner flame with cobalt oxide on a loop of platinum wire, a .........
coloured Co(BO2)2 bead is formed
1) blue 2) green 3) violet 4) yellow
6. Which of the following produce boric acid?
1) Acidification of aq. borax 2) Hydrolysis of diborane
3) Hydrolysis of BCl3 4) All the above
 3  X   BH 4  
  
7. 3B2 H 6  6NH 3  12H 2  2Y . X and Y are respectively
 
1) B3 N 3 H 6 ,  BH 2  NH 3  2  2)  BH 2  NH 3  2  , B3 N 3H 6
 
3)  BH  NH 3 3  , B3 N 3 H 6 4) B3 N 3 H 6 ,  BH  NH 3 3 
8. Diborane can react with

1) CO 2) NMe3 3) O2 4) All the above
53
9. Which is correct statement?

1) Al2O3 can be converted to anhydrous AlCl3 by heating with Cl2 gas
2) Al doesn’t react with dil. HCl and Aq. NaOH
3) AlCl3 in the vapour phase has chlorobridge dimeric structure
4) B3N3H6 is inorganic graphite
10. C60, an allotrope of carbon contains
1) 20 hexagons and 12 pentagons 2) 12 hexagons and 20 pentagons
3) 18 hexagons and 14 pentagons 4) 16 hexagons and 16 pentagons
11. The species present in solution when CO2 is dissolved in water are
1) H 2 CO3 , HCO3 , CO32 2) H 2 CO3 , CO 32
3) CO 32 , HCO 3 4) CO2, H2CO3
12. Which are correct for graphite?

I) Carbon atom is sp2
II) Layer structure : Layers held by vander Waal’s force
III) Sliding of one layer over another make it soft
IV) Interlayer distance is 340 pm
1) I, II 2) II, III 3) II, IV 4) I, II, III, IV
13. Which are correct for the uses of CO2?
1) Manufacture of urea 2) Fire extinguisher
3) Solid CO2 (dry ice) as refrigerent 4) All the above
14. Which is not a use of Quartz?
1) Piezoelectric material 2) Accurate clocks
3) Radio, TV and mobile communication 4) Catalyst
15. Which of the following is used to control the chain length of methyl silicone polymer chain?
1)  CH 3 3 SiCl 2) Keisulghur 3) Cristobalite 4) Tridymite
54
CHAPTER - 12
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES - PART-I
(NOMENCLATURE)
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Which one of the following compound is aromatic heterocyclic
1) Benzene 2) Tetrahydrofuran
3) Pyrrole 4) Phenol
2. The group that obtained by replacing a hydrogen atom from alkane is
1) Azo 2) Alkyl 3) Thio 4) Alkenyl
O
3. IUPAC name of the compound is
CH3 C OCH2CH3
1) Ethylmethanoate 2) Methylpropanoate
3) Ethylethanoate 4) Methylethanoate
4. IUPAC name of the compound CH3 CH NH2
CH3
1) Isopropylamine 2) Propan-2-amine
3) 1-Methylethanamine 4) 2-Methylethanamine
5. IUPAC name of the compound CH3COCH2CH2COCl
1) 5-chloropentan-2,5-dione 2) 1-chloropentan-1,5-dione
3) 2-oxopentanoylchloride 4) 4-oxopentanoylchloride
CH3
CH3
6. The correct IUPAC name of
1) 1,2-dimethylcyclohexene 2) 2,3-dimethylcyclohexene
3) 1,6-dimethylcyclohexene 4) 1,6-dimethylcyclohex-2-ene
55
C OCH2CH3
7. IUPAC name of
Cl
1) Ethyl-2-chlorocyclopentanecarboxylate
2) 2-chloroethylcyclopentanecarboxylate
3) 1-chloro-2-ethoxycarbonylcyclopentane
4) 2-chlorocyclopentanoate
8. The correct IUPAC name of CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH2 – C  CH
1) Hex-1-yne-5-ene 2) Hex-1-en-5-yne
3) Hexa-1,5-diene 4) Hexa-5-en-1-yne
9. How many 10, 20, 30 and 40 carbon atoms present in 2,2,3-Trimethyl pentane
1) 10 - 4, 20 - 2, 30 - 1, 40 - 1
2) 10 - 3, 20 - 2, 30 - 1, 40 - 0
3) 10 - 5, 20 - 1, 30 - 1, 40 - 1
4) 10 - 3, 20 - 2, 30 - 2, 40 - 1
10. The correct IUPAC name of CH3 CH CH2OH
C6H5
1) 2-Phenylpropan-1-ol 2) 2-Methylbenzylalcohol
3) 2-Benzenepropan-1-ol 4) Phenylisopropanol
11. Correct IUPAC name of OHC CH2 CH CH2 CHO
CHO
1) 3-Formylpentane-1,5-dial
2) Propane-1,2,3-trial
3) Propane-1,2,3-tricarbaldehyde
4) 2-Formylmethylbutane-1,4-dial
12. IUPAC name of
1) 1-Ethyl-3,3-dimethylcyclohexane 2) 1,1-Dimethyl-3-ethylcyclohexane
3) 3-Ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclohexane 4) 1-Ethyl-3-methylcyclohexane
56
13. The correct IUPAC name of CH3 CH2 C COOH
CH2
1) 2-Methylbutanoic acid 2) 2-Ethylprop-2-enoic acid

3) 2-Carboxybutene 4) None of the above
OH
14. The IUPAC name of is

CH3
1) 3-Methylcyclobut-1-ene-2-ol
2) 4-Methylcyclobut-2-en-1-ol
3) 4-Methoxycyclobut-1-ene-3-ol
4) 2-Methylcyclobut-3-en-1-ol
15. Correct IUPAC name of
1) 3-Propylpent-1-yne 2) 4-Ethylhept-2-yne
3) 4-Propylhept-2-yne 4) 4-Ethynylheptane
LEVEL- II
1. One among the following is the correct IUPAC name for the compound
CH3 CH2 N CHO
1) N-Formylaminoethane 2) N-Ethylformylamine
3) N-Ethylmethanamide 4) Ethylaminomethanal
2. The IUPAC name of
O OH
CH3 C CH2 CH CHO
1) 5-oxo-4-Hydroxy-2-pentanone
2) 4-Hydroxy-5-al-2-pentanone
3) 2-Hydroxy-4-oxopentanal
4) 4-Oxopentanal
57
3. The correct IUPAC name of the compound
O
COOH
OHC
1) 5-Carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanecarboxaldehyde
2) 2-Carboxy-5-formylcyclohexane
3) 4-Formyl-2-oxocyclohexanecarboxylic acid
4) 4-Carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanal
4. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
OH
CN
Br
1) 4-Bromo-3-cyanophenol
2) 2-Bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile
3) 2-Cyano-4-hydroxybromobenzene
4) 6-Bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile
5. IUPAC name of the following compound is
1) 5-Methylcyclohex-4-en-1-one 2) 3-Methylcyclohex-3-en-1-one
3) 1-Methylcyclohex-1-en-5-one 4) 2-Methylcyclohex-1-en-4-one
6. IUPAC name of C CH CH3 is

H5C2
1) 3-Cyclopropyl-3-ethylprop-2-ene 2) 1-Chloropropyl-1-ethylpropene
3) 3-Cyclopropylpent-2-ene 4) (1-ethyl-1-propenoyl)cyclopropane
58
O
H3C
7. IUPAC name of
H3C
CHO
1) 5, 6-dimethyl-4-oxocyclohex-2-ene-1-carbaldehyde
2) 2,3-dimethyl-4-oxocyclohex-5-ene-1-carbaldehyde
3) 4-Formyl-2,3-dimethylcyclohex-2-ene-1-one
4) 4-Formyl-5,6-dimethylcyclohex-2-ene-1-one
8. Which one of the following is not a neo system
CH3 CH3
1) CH3 C CH2 2) CH3 C CH2 CH2
CH3 CH3
CH3
CH3
CH3 C
3) 4) CH2 C CH3
CH3
CH3
CH2 CH2
9. The IUPAC name of the compound
COOH
H2N CH CH CHO
COOH
1) 3-Amino-2-formylbutane-1,4-dioic acid 2) 3-Amino-2,3-dicarboxypropanal

3) 2-Amino-3-formylbutane-1,4-dioic acid 4) 1-Amino-2-formylsuccinic acid
O
CH3
10. IUPAC name of the following compound C N
CH3
1) N, N-Dimethylcyclopropanecarboxamide 2) N-Methylcyclopropanamide
3) Dimethylcyclopropanamide 4) None of the above
59
Cl
11. The IUPAC name of
O
1) 2-Ethyl-3-methylbutanoylchloride 2) 2,3-Dimethylpentanoylchloride
3) 3,4-Dimethylpentanoylchloride 4) 1-Chloro-1-oxo-2,3-dimethylpentane
CH2 C OH
12. IUPAC name of compound C OH
COOH
CH2 C OH
1) 1,2,3-Tricarboxypropan-2-ol
2) 2-Hydroxypropane-1,2,3-tricarboxylic acid
3) 3-Hydroxy-3-carboxypentane-1,5-dioic acid
4) None of the above
13. The IUPAC name of BrCH2 CH CO CH2 CH2 CH3
CONH2
1) 2-(Bromomethyl)-3-oxohexanamide 2) 1-Bromo-2-amino-3-oxohexane
3) 1-Bromo-2-amino-n-propylketone 4) 3-Bromo-2-propylpropanamide
14. The correct IUPAC name
1) Hepta-3,6-dien-1-yne 2) Hepta-1,4-dien-6-yne
3) Hexa-1,4-dien-5-yne 4) Hexa-2,5-dien-1-yne
15. The IUPAC name of compound
HO C O CH3
CH3 C C C H
NH2 Cl
1) 2-Amino-3-chloro-2-methylpent-2-enoic acid
4) All of the above
60
CHAPTER - 13
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES - PART-II
REACTION MECHANISM
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Which of the following represents position isomerism?
1) Alcohol and ether 2) alkanenitrile and carbylamine
3) alkadienes and alkynes 4) n-propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol
2. The type of isomerism exhibited by the compound with M.F. C4H10O are
1) Chain 2) Functional
3) Chain and functional 4) Chain, functional, metamerism, position
3. What type of isomerism is exhibited by the following pairs?
O O
CH3 C O H and H C O CH3
1) functional 2) position
3) chain 4) metamerism
4. Vinyl alcohol and acetaldehyde are
1) Geometrical isomers 2) Tautomers
3) Chain isomers 4) Position isomers
5. Which of the following class of compounds shows metamerism?
1) Ethers 2) Sec.amines 3) Thioethers 4) All
6. In 1, 3-butadiene the single bond length between C2 and C3 is
1) 1.54 A0 2) 1.34 A0 3) 1.29 A0 4) 1.46 A0
7. Consider the following bonds
I) C  C II) C = C III) C – C IV) C = C (aromatic)
The correct sequence of these as per their increasing bond length is
1) IV < III < I < II 2) I < II < IV < III
3) IV < III < II < I 4) III < II < IV < I
61
8. The C–C single bond length in propene is less than 1.54 A0. This shrinkage is due to
1) Resonance 2) Hyperconjugation
3) Inductive effect 4) Electromeric effect
9. In which of the following cases hydrogenation is most exothermic?
1) 2) 3) 4)
10. Which group has maximum –I effect?

1) –NO2 2) –C  N 3) F 4) Cl
11. Shifting of electrons of a multiple bond under the influence of a reagent is called
1) I-effect 2) R-effect
3) E-effect 4) Hyperconjugative effect
12. Which one of the following carbocation is most stable?
1) 2) C6H5 CH2 3) (C6H5)2CH 4) (C6H5)3C
13. The decreasing order of stability of anion is
CH2 CH2 CH2

CH2
P) Q) R) S)
NO2 CN CH3
1) S > R > Q > P 2) P > Q > R > S 3) Q > P > R > S 4) P > Q > S > R
14. Which of the following free radical is most stable?
C C H
1) 2)
3 2
3) CH2 4) CH2 CH CH2
15. Nitration of benzene is a/an

1) Electrophilic substitution 2) Electrophilic addition
3) Nucleophilic substitution 4) Nucleophilic addition
62
16. The decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution of the following compounds is
Cl NO2 CH3
1) 2) 3) 4)
1) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 2) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2

3) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3 4) 4 > 2 > 1 > 3
17. Which alkyl halide is preferentially hydrolysed by SN1 mechanism?
1) CH3Cl 2) CH3–CH2–Cl
3) CH3–CH2–CH2–Cl 4) (CH3)3–C–Cl
18. Chlorination of toluene in presence of sunlight is an example of
1) Free radical substitution
2) Electrophilic substitution
3) Nucleophilic substitution
4) Nucleophilic addition
19. Addition of HCN to carbonyl compounds is
1) Nucleophilic addition 2) Electrophilic addition
3) Free radical addition 4) None
20. The most reactive of the following towards nucleophilic addition is
CHO CHO CHO

CHO
1) 2) 3) 4)
NO2 Cl CH3 O CH3
21. The main product of the reaction CH3 CH CH2 CH3 + KOH (alc) Product is
Cl
1) CH2 – CH2 – CH = CH2 2) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
3) CH3 CH CH2 CH3 4) HO CH2 CH CH2 CH3
OH Cl
63
22. When 3, 3-dimethyl butan-2-ol is heated with H2SO4 the major product obtained is
1) 3, 3-dimethyl but-1-ene
LEVEL-II
1. Which of the following does not shows tautomerism?
NH
N O
1) CH3CHO 2) 3) 4)
H O
NH
2. Which of the following alkene has high heat of hydrogenation?
1) 2) 3) 4)
3. Arrange the following acids in the increasing order of their acidic strength
p) CH3 CH2 CH2 COOH q) CH3 CH2 CH COOH
F
r) s) F CH2 CH2 CH2 COOH
CH3 CH CH2 COOH
1) p < s < r < q 2) p < q < r < s

3) p < q < s < r 4) q < p < r < s
4. Arrange the following halides in the decreasing order of SN1 reactivity
CH2 Cl
Cl
i) CH 3  Cl ii) CH3 CH CH3 iii)
1) iii > ii > i 2) i > ii > iii 3) iii > i > ii 4) ii > iii > i
64
5. Arrange the following halides in the order of E1 reactivity
Cl Cl
p) CH 3  CH 2  Cl q) CH3 CH CH3 r) CH3 C CH3
CH3
1) r > q > p 2) p > q > r 3) q > r > p 4) p > r > q

6. Which one of the following gives keto-enol tautomerism ?
O O
I: II : O III :
CH3
CH3
1) only I 2) only II 3) only III 4) I, II and III

7. The heat of hydrogenation of benzene is –51.0 kcal/mole. If heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexadiene
and cyclohexene are –58 and –29 kcal/mole respectively, then the resonance energy of benzene is
1) 29 kcalmol–1 2) 36 kcalmol–1 3) 58 kcalmol–1 4) 7 kcalmol–1
8. The order of decreasing ease of abstraction of hydrogen atoms in the following molecule in a free
radical reaction is ?
Ha Me
Hb
Hc
1) Ha > Hb > Hc 2) Ha > Hc > Hb 3) Hb > Ha > Hc 4) Hc > Hb > Ha
Br
AlCl3 P
9. + CH3 Br
Benzene (major)
as solvent
The product ‘P’ is
Br Br CH3 Br
CH3
1) 2) 3) 4)
CH3
CH3
65

10. The energy profile diagram for the reaction RX 
OH
 ROH  X  is given as
This reaction is carried out in

1) Water 2) Isopropyl alcohol 3) DMSO 4) Ethanol
11. The following reaction CF3 – CH = CH2 + HCl  products, takes place according to
1) Markovnikov’s rule 2) Anti Markovnikov’s rule
3) Saytzseff’s rule 4) Hoffmann’s rule
CH2 OH
12. In the reaction 

Con.H 2SO4
 P . ‘P’ is
CH2 CH3 CH3 CH3
1) 2) 3) 4)
13. Which of the following represents correct graph for SN1 reaction
1) 2)
3) 4)
66
14. When the concentration of alkylhalide is tripled and the concentration of OH- is reduced to half the rate
of SN1 reaction is increased by ?
1) 3 times 2) 2 times 3) 1.5 times 4) 2.5 times
15. Which one of the following compounds gives SN1 reaction rapidly ?
CH3
1) CH3 CH Br 2) CH3 CH2 Br
CH3 CH3
3) CH3 O CH Br 4) CH3 CH Cl
16. For the reaction

X
CH3 CH CH2 CH3 alco.KOH CH3 CH CH CH3 + CH2 CH CH2 CH3
(P) (Q)
1) major product is P 2) major product is Q
3) 50% P + 50% Q 4) The product ratio depends on the halogen
17. In the following reaction
C
N 
con H 2SO4
 “X”. The structure of the major product “X” is
conc HNO3
O O
NO2
C NO2 C
N
1) 2) N
H H
O O
C C
3) N 4) NO2 N
H NO2 H
67
CHAPTER - 14
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES - PART-III
PURIFICAITON AND CHARACTERISATION OF
ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. When an organic compound is fused with metallic sodium, nitrogen in the compound is converted to
1) Sodium nitride 2) Sodium nitrate 3) Sodium cyanide 4) Sodium cyanate
2. The sodium fusion extract of orthochloroaniline, prepared using excess of sodium will not contain
1) NaCl 2) NaCN 3) NaOH 4) Na2S
3. Which among the following will give a white precipitate during Lassaigne’s test for halogens?
1) Bromobenzene 2) Chlorobenzene 3) Aniline 4) Fluorobenzene
4. Which of the following compounds does not give a positive result during Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen?
1) Phenyl hydrazine 2) Anthranilic acid 3) Hydroxyl amine 4) Glycine
5. Sodalime test is used for the detection of which element?
1) Phosphorus 2) Nitrogen
3) Sulphur 4) Halogens
6. During Lassaigne’s test for halogens, fusion extract is boiled with HNO3, before adding AgNO3 solution.
The purpose of this is
1) To make the solution acidic 2) To suppress the ionisation of AgNO3
3) To expel any sulphide and cyanide ions 4) To make to silver halide precipitate insoluble
7. The formula of the reagent used for detection of sulphur using the sodium fusion extract is
1) Na 3  Fe  CN 5 NO  2) Na 2  Fe  CN 5 NO 
3) Na 4  Fe  CN 6  4) Na 2  Fe  CN 5 NOS
8. For the detection of sulphur, using lead acetate solution, the fusion extract is acidified with
1) dil.HNO3 2) dil.H2SO4 3) dil. HCl 4) Acetic acid
68
9. When a phosphorus containing organic substance is heated with Na2O2, phosphorus is converted to
1) Phosphoric acid 2) Sodium phosphide
3) Sodium phosphate 4) Sodium hydrogen phosphate
10. Carbon and hydrogen in an organic compound are estimated by
1) Carius method 2) Dumas method 3) Liebig’s method 4) Kjeldahl’s method
11. In Kjeldahl’s method, nitrogen present in a compound is estimated by converting it finally into
1) NH3 2) (NH4)2SO4 3) N2 4) H2N–NH2
12. Naphthalene is a volatile solid. It can be separated from non volatile impurities by
1) Crystallisation 2) Sublimation
3) Fractional crystallisation 4) Distillation
13. Which of the following compounds can be separated from non volatile impurities by steam distillation?
1) Benzamide 2) Benzoic acid 3) Aniline 4) Cinnamic acid
14. The commonly used adsorbent among the following, used in column chromatography?
1) Sand 2) CaCO3 3) Charcoal 4) Silica gel
15. The identity of two solid organic compounds having identical melting point can be established by
1) Undepressed mixed melting point
2) Identical Rf value in TLC
3) Identical Rf value in paper chromatography
4) All the above
LEVEL-II
1. In which of the following compounds, chlorine can be detected directly using AgNO3 solution, without
using sodium fusion extract?
1) Chlorophenyl methane 2) Monochloromethane
3) Dichloromethane 4) Carbon tetrachloride
2. If sodium fusion extract of thiourea is prepared using excess of sodium, the ion that is not present in
the fusion extract is
1) SCN 2) S2 3) CN 4) OH
3. Among the following compounds, which one will not produce a blood red colouration, during Lassaigne’s
test for nitrogen?
SO3H
S CO
1) 2) 3) H2N SO3H 4)
NH
H2N C NH2 SO2
NH2
69
4. The formula of the compound responsible for the canary yellow colour produced during detection of
phosphorus in an organic compound is
1) (NH4)3PO4 2) (NH4)2PO4.12MoO3 3) (NH4)3PO4.12MoO3 4) (NH4)2MoO4
5. The halogen that cannot be detected by additon of AgNO3 solution to the sodium fusion extraction of
the organic compound is
1) Iodine 2) Chlorine 3) Fluorine 4) Bromine
6. Kjeldahl’s method of estimation of nitrogen is not applicable to
1) Amides 2) Azo compounds 3) Amines 4) Amino acids
7. 0.20 of an organic compound on combustion gave 0.5 g CO2. The percentage of carbon in the
compound is
1) 48.25 2) 68.18 3) 58.28 4) 38.81
8. In the estimation of nitrogen by Dumans method. 0.3 g of an organic compound gave 22.4 ml of N2 gas
at NTP. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
1) 9.333 2) 15.50 3) 8.333 4) 12.333
9. 0.24 g of a nitrogeneous compound was treated by Kjeldahl’s method. The liberated ammonia was
absorbed in 25 ml of 0.5 N H2SO4. The excess acid required 38.5 ml of 0.2 N, NaOH for neutralisation.
The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
1) 16.7 2) 30.5 3) 28.0 4) 20.2
10. In the Carius method of estimation, 0.2 g of an organic compound gave 0.287 g of AgCl. The percentage
of chlorine in the compound is
1) 35.5 2) 71 3) 71.7 4) 36.5
11. In Carius method for estimation of sulphur, 0.32 g of an organic compound gave 0.233 g of BaSO4.
The percentage of sulphur in the compound is
1) 15.0 2) 10.0 3) 30.5 4) 20.8
12. 0.262 g of a phosphorus containing organic substance produced 0.111 g magnesium pyrophosphate
by Carius method. What is the percentage of phosphorus in the compound?
1) 11.8 2) 18.1 3) 23.6 4) 35.4
13. In a hydrocarbon 10.5 g of carbon is in combination with 1g of hydrogen. The empirical formula of the
hydrocarbon is
1) C2H3 2) C7H8 3) CH3 4) C4H5
14. Which of the following pairs of compounds cannot be separated from their mixture by steam distillation?
1) Ortho and para nitrophenols 2) Ortho and para hydroxy benzaldehyde
3) Ortho and para hydroxy acetophenones 4) Aniline and nitrobenzene
15. A compound migrates 6.9 cm from the base line in a TLC plate, where as during the same time the
solvents migrates 15.2 cm from the base line. In another similar experiment, on an identical plate, if
the solvent migrates 14.3 cm beyond the base line, the distance, travelled by the same compound
from the base line will be
1) 6.90 cm 2) 6.49 cm 3) 6.70 cm 4) 6.50 cm
70
CHAPTER - 15
HYDROCARBON
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Pure methane can be produced by
1) Wurtz reaction 2) Kolbe’s electrolytic method
3) Soda-lime decarboxylation 4) Reduction of alkene with H2
2. Which one of the following has the least boiling point?
1) 2, 2-dimethylpropane 2) n-butane
3) 2-methylpropane 4) n-pentane
3. In the free radical chlorination of methane, the chain initiating step involves the formation of
1) Chlorine free radical 2) Hydrogen chloride
3) Methyl radical 4) Chloromethyl radical
4. When n-hexane is passed over Cr2O3/Al2O3 at 600°C, .................. is formed
1)hexane 2) hexyne 3) benzene 4) none of these
5. Which of the following represents the correct reaction
1) CH 4  2H 2 O 
Ni
 CO 2  4H 2
2) CH 4  H 2 O 
Ni
 CO  3H 2
3) CH 4  H 2 O 
Ni
 CH 3OH  H 2
4) CH 4  H 2 O 
Ni
 HCHO  2H 2
6. The alkene that exhibits geometrical isomerism is
1) 2-methyl propene 2) 2-butene 3) 2-methyl-2-butene 4) propene
7. When ethyl iodide is treated with alcoholic potash, we get
1) ethyl alcohol 2) ethane 3) acetylene 4) ethylene
8. Which of the following reactions will yield 2,2-dibromopropane?
1) HC  CH  2HBr 2) CH 3CH  CH 2  HBr
3) CH 3C  CH  2HBr 4) CH 3CH  CHBr  HBr

71
9. When one mole of an alkene on reductive ozonolysis produces 2 moles of propanone, the alkene is
1) 3-methyl-1-butene 2) 2,3-dimethyl-1-butene
3) 2,3-dimethyl-2-pentene 4) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
10. Addition of HOCl to ethyne gives
1) Ethyl chloride 2) Vinyl chloride
3) Dichloroacetaldehyde 4) Ethylidene chloride
11. 1-Chlorobutane on reaction with alcoholic Potash gives
1) 1-Butene 2) 2-Butene 3) 1-Butanol 4) 2-Butanol
12. H3C CH CH CH2 + HBr A
CH3
A (Predominantly) is
Br
1) CH3 CH CH2 CH2Br 2) CH3 C CH2 CH3
CH3 CH3
CH CH3 CH3 CH CH CH3

3) CH3 CH 4)
CH3 Br
Br CH3
13. The product(s) obtained via oxymercuration (HgSO4 , H2SO4) demercuration of 1-butyne would be
O
1) 2) CH3CH2CH2CHO
CH3CH2 C CH3
3) CH3CH2CHO + HCHO 4) CH3CH2COOH + HCOOH

14. When but-2-yne is treated with Pd-BaSO4; the product formed will be
1) cis-2-butene 2) trans-2-butene 3) 1-butene 4) 2-hydroxy butane
15. Trans- but-2-ene + Br2 gives
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
H Br Br H Br Br H Br
1) H Br 2) H Br 3) H H 4) Br H
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

72
16. Which of the following catalyst is used for the following conversion?
3CH  CH 
873 K

1) Platinized Asbestos 2) Red hot iron tube

3) Platinized Nickel 4) Iron-molybdenum
17. In the halogenation of aromatic nucleus, the halogen carrier, is used to generate the species:
1) Cl 2) Cl+ 3) Cl– 4) Cl
18. Among the following compounds, the decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution
is
I) II) 3) IV)
CH3 OCH3 CF3
1) III > I > II > IV 2) IV > I > II > III 3) I > II > III > IV 4) II > I > III > IV
19. The reaction C6 H 5 Br  2Na  C 2 H 5 Br 

 C6 H 5C 2 H 5  2NaBr is known as
1) Friedel-Crafts reaction 2) Wurtz reaction
3) Sandmeyer’s reaction 4) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
20. In a reaction of C6H5Y, the major product (> 60%) is m-isomer, so the group Y is
1) –COOH 2) –NH2 3) –OH 4) –Cl
LEVEL-II
1. Sodalime decarboxylation of sodium propionate gives
1) Propane 2) Ethane 3) Methane 4) Butane
2. Iodination of alkane is carried out in the presence of
1) Alcohol 2) HNO3 3) Toluene 4) Zn/HCl
Br   is
alc.KOH
3. The major product of the reaction
1) 2) 3) 4)
73
4. Which of the following is incorrect statement

1) Bond angle in CH4 is109.5°
2) C–C and C–H bond lengths are 154 pm and 112 pm respectively
3) Isobutane < n-pentane < isopentane < neopentane (order of B.P)
4) C6H14 has five structural isomers
5. Which among the following is wrong about conformations of ethane?
1) Stable conformation of ethane is staggered anti
2) ethane has infinite conformations
3) dihedral angle in eclipsed conformation is O
4) Stable conformation of ethane is staggered
6. A reagent used to test unsaturation in alkene is
1) Ammoniacal Cu2Cl2
2) Ammoniacal AgNO3
3) Solution of Br2 in CCl4
4) conc. H2SO4
7. Which is most stable alkene
1) CH2 = CH2 2) CH3 – CH = CH2
CH3 CH3
3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 4)
CH3 C C CH3
8. CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2 
NBS
 X 
Alco
KOH, 
'Y '. 'Y ' is
1) But-3-en-2-ol 2) But-3-en-1-ol 3) 1,2-propadiene 4) 1,3-butadiene

9. Consider the following alkenes with regard to their stability
i) ii) iii) iv)
1) i > iii > ii > iv 2) iii > ii > iv > i 3) i > ii > iv > iii 4) ii > iv > iii > i
10. Consider the following sequence of reaction


CF3CO3H
CH 2Cl2
 A 
H3 O
 B . B is
1) trans-cyclohexane-1,2-diol 2) Cyclohexanol
3) Cis-cyclohexane-1,2-diol 4) Epoxy cyclohexane
74
11. Which of the following reaction is wrong?
1) CH 3  C  C  CH 3   CH 3  COCH 2 CH 3
1. BH 3
2. H 2 O 2 / OH 
2) CH 3  C  C  CH 3   CH 3  COCH 2 CH 3
dil.H 2SO 4
Hg 2
3) CH 3  CH 2  C  CH   CH 3COCH 2 CH 3
1. BH 3
2. H 2 O 2 / OH 
4) C6 H 5C  C  CH 3   C6 H 5COCH 2 CH 3
dil.H 2 O 4
Hg 2
12. Which of these will not react with acetylene?

1) NaOH 2) Ammoniacal AgNO3 3) Na 4) HCl
13. On warming with Ag-powder, chloroform is converted to
1) Ethyne 2) Hexa chloro ethane
3) 1,1,2,2-tetra chloro ethane 4) Ethylene
14. Hydrogenation of the following compound in presence of poisoned Pd as catalyst gives
1) An optically active compound 2) A racemic mixture

3) A diastereomeric mixture 4) An optically inactive compound
15. Which of the following reaction the product is wrong?
Br
1) CH3 CH CH CH2 + HBr CH3 C CH2 CH3
CH3 CH3
Br
2) HO CH CH CH 3 + HBr HO CH 2CH CH 3
3)  
HBr
 Br
4) 
mCPBA O
75
16. 
HCl
major product is
Cl
Cl Cl
Cl
1) 2) 3) 4)
17. Which of the following on reductive ozonolysis will give only glyoxal
1) Ethylene 2) Benzene 3) Toluene 4) Acetylene
18. Among the following the aromatic compound is
1) 2) 3) 4)
19. Identify the wrong statement

1) The rate of nitration of benzene is same as that of hexadeutrobenzene
2) Sulphonation of benzene is a reversible reaction
3) o-xylene on reductive ozonolysis gives a mixture of glyoxal, methylgloxal and dimethyl glyoxal
4) C6 H 6  CO  HCl 
anhy.AlCl3
 C 6 H 5 COCl
20. Which of the following gives precipitate of AgCl with AgNO3
a) b) c)
Cl Cl H Cl
1) only a 2) only b 3) only c 4) both a and c
76
CHAPTER - 16
ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Bio fuel is obtained from?
1) Bio waste 2) Plastic waste 3) Chemical waste 4) Electronic waste
2. Among the following gases the gases that causes green house effect are
CO2, H2O, CFC, O2, O3, N2
1) CO2, H2O, O2, O3 2) CO2, H2O, CFC, O3 3) CO2, H2O, CFC, O2 4) H2O, O2, O3, N2
3. A substance which causes pollution is known as
1) Catalyst 2) Pollutant 3) Activator 4) Inhibitor
4. Non biodegradable pollutants are created by
1) Natural disasters 2) Humans
3) Excessive use of resources 4) Nature
5. Which of the following disease is caused due to SO2
A) Tears and redness in eye B) Asthma
C) Bronchitis D) Emphysema
1) A and B 2) A and C 3) A and D 4) All
6. Green plants require CO2 for?
1) Respiration 2) Photosynthesis 3) Excretion 4)All of these
7. How can we reduce the rate of global warming?
1) Minimizing automobiles 2) By avoiding burning dry leaves
3) Both 1 and 2 4) None of the above
8. Classical smog is a ................. smog
1) Oxidising 2) Reducing 3) Both 1 and 2 4) Harmless
9. Ozone hole is found over
1) India 2) America 3) Africa 4) Antartica
10. Bad ozone is found in the
1) Mesosphere 2) Troposphere 3) Stratosphere 4) Ionosphere
77
LEVEL-II
1. Human excreta contain bacteria such as Escherichia coli and streptococcus faecalis, which cause
1) Respiratory diseases 2) Gastro intestinal diseases
3) Hyper tension 4) Cancer
2. The prescribed upper limit concentration of lead in drinking water is
1) ~50 ppb 2) ~2ppb 3) ~200 ppb 4) ~500 ppb
3. Eutrophication causes decrease in
A) Dissolve O2 in water
B) Dissolve CO2 in water
C) Biodiversity of aquatic life
1) A & B 2) B & C 3) A & C 4) A, B & C
4. Which of the following is/are herbicides.
1) Sodium chlorate 2) Sodium arsenite
3) Sodium permangante 4) Both 1 and 2
5. What is DDT among the following?
1) Green house gas 2) A fertilizer
3) Biodegradable pollutant 4) Non-biodegradable pollutant
6. Non-biodegradable industrial waste are produced by
1) Thermal power plants 2) Steel plant
3) Fertilizer industries 4) All of these
7. Waste management includes
1) The proper disposal of wastes 2) The oxidation of wastes in open air
3) Dumbing 4) Both 1 and 2
8. Which type of harm in environment will be prevented by stopping use of tetra-chloroethene?
1) Contaminates the ground water 2) Carcinogen
3) Both 1 and 2 4) None of the above
9. Pollution from domestic sewage and animal excreta when dissolved in river water then
1) increases BOD 2) Decreases BOD
3) increases DO 4) Does not affect BOD
10. Green chemistry means such reaction which
1) produce colour during reactions
2) reduce the use and production of Hazardous chemicals
3) related to depletion of ozone layer and green house effect
4) study of chemistry in green plants.
78
CHAPTER - 17
SOLID STATE
QUESTIONS
LEVEL-I
1. From the following statements which one is correct
i) Amorphous solids are true solids, which contain only long range order
ii) Long range order is the arrangement of constituent particles in a regular and periodically repeating
pattern
iii) At sufficiently high temperature, intermolecular forces bring the constituent particles so close that
they cling to one another and occupy fixed positions.
iv) Quartz can be converted into glass by heating into high temperature and readily cooled in room
temperature. This is because quartz contain both long range and short range order.
v) Anisotropy of crystalline solids is due to different arrangement of particles in different direciton
1) i, ii, iv, v 2) i,ii 3) ii, iv, v 4) i, ii, iii
2. Match List 1 with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
1. Ionic solids a. Cu, Rb, brass
2. Covalent solids b. Ar, solid CO2, ice, P4O10, I2, P4
3. Molecular solids c. Diamond, SiC, SiO2(quartz), AlN, Si, graphite
4. Metallic solids d. glass, (quartz glass), rubber, plastics
5. Amorphous solids e. NaCl, (NH4)3PO4, LiBr
1) 1-e, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d, 5-a 2) 1-e, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a, 5-d
3) 1-a, 2-d, 3-e, 4-b, 5-c 4) 1-e, 2-c, 3-d, 4-b, 5-a
3. No.of atoms present in a fcc unit cells is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 6
4. Which of the following is not a characteristic features of poly crystalline solid :
1) They appear amorphous
2) They have micro crystalline structure
3) Individual crystals are randomly oriented
4) Individual crystals are isotropic
79
5. A atoms at the corners, B atoms on the alternate face centre. Find the formula of crystal.
1) A3B2 2) A2B3 3) AB 4) AB3
6. Possible unit cells in two dimensional and three dimensional lattices respectively are
1) 2, 14 2) 5, 14 3) 14, 5 4) 2, 5
7. Which of the following is/are least symmetric crystal system
1) K2Cr2O7 2) CuSO4.5H2O 3) H3BO3 4) All
8. Examples of unit cell with crystallographic dimensions a  b  c,     900 ,   120 is
1) ZnO 2) SnO 2 3) CaCO3 4) TiO 2
9. A solid element ‘X’ forms cubic crystal, in which the atoms occupy each corner, two atoms on each
body diagonal and also one atom at each edge centre. The effective number of ‘X’ atoms in the unit
cell is
1) 12 2) 4 3) 8 4) 28
10. An element crystallises in fcc lattice having edge length 400 pm. What is the maximum diameter of
atom which can be placed in interstitial site without distorting the structure
1) 117 pm 2) 130 pm 3) 135 pm 4) 140 pm
11. Sum of the fractions of the total volume occupied by atoms present in a simple cube and fcc is
1)  6 2)  2 3)

 1 2  4)
  2 1
6 6 8
12. How many unit cells are present in 39 g of potassium that crystallises in body - centred cubic struc-
ture
NA
1) N A 2) 3) 0 .5N A 4) 0 .75N A
4
13. According to Band model, which one is incorrect ?
1) In metals, higher energy of molecular orbitals of valance bond and lower energy of conduction band
are overlap together
2) In semi conductors, silicon has small energy gap than Germanium.
3) Insulators, conductivity K = 10–20 to 10–10 Sm–1
4) Both 1 and 2
14. In NaCl at room temperature number of Schottky defect per 1016 ions is
1) 1 2) 1022 3) 1016 4) 106
15. Which of the following statements are correct
1) InSb, AlP and GaAs are 13-15 compounds
2) ZnS and CdS are 12-16 compounds
3) GaAs has fast response in semiconductor device industry
4) all are correct
80
LEVEL-II
1. A compound alloy of gold and Cu crystallises in a cubic lattice in which the gold atoms occupy at
the corners of a cube and the copper atoms occupy the centres of each of the cube faces. What is
the empirical formula of this compound.
1) AuCu3 2) Au3Cu 3) Au2Cu3 4) AuCu
2. If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic system, simple cube, bcc and fcc, then the ratio of
radius of the spheres in these systems will be respectively:
3a 1 1
1) 1 2 a : : a 2) 1 2 a : 3 a: a
4 2 2 2
3 2
3) 1 2 a : a: a 4) 1a : 3a: 2 a
2 2
3. In a close packed structure, it is found that lattice has oxide ions and half of the octahedral voids are
occupied by ions of ‘A’ and one-eighth of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by ions of B. If the charge
of B is +2 find that of A?
1) +3 2) +2 3) +4 4) +1
4. AB is an ionic solid. If the ratio of ionic radius of A+ and B– is 0.52. What is the co-ordination number of
B?
1) 2 2) 3 3) 6 4) 8
5. The distance between an octahedral and tetrahedral void in fcc lattice would be
3a 3a 3a
1) 3a 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4
6. How many nearest neighbours does potassium have in BCC lattice?
1) 8 2) 6 3) 12 4) 2
7. A compound forms HCP structure. What is the total number of voids in 0.5 mol of it
1) 9.033 × 1023 2) 6.022 ×1023 3) 3 ×1023 4) 6 × 1022
o
8. CsCl is bcc type structure. Find the density of unit cell has edge length is equal to 554 A . GMM =
170g;
NA = 6 × 1023
1) 3.33 g/cm3 2) 1.7 g/cm3 3) 4.7 g/cm3 4) 8.2 g/cm3
9. CsCl crystallises in body centred cubic lattice. If ‘a’ is its edge length then which of the following
expressions is correct
3a
1) rCs  rCl  3a 2) rCs  rCl 
2
3
3) rCs  rCl  a 4) rCs  rCl  3a
2
10. The number of carbon atoms per unit cell of diamond unit cell is :
1) 6 2) 1 3) 4 4) 8
81
11. How many of the following crystal defects can account for cationic vacancies in NaCl? (assume
that all anionic sites are occupied)
i) Frenkel
ii) Schottky
iii) Impurity defect due to crystallisation of molten NaCl containing a little amount of SrCl2
iv) Non stoichiometric defect arising when crystals of NaCl are heated in an atmosphere of sodium
vapour
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
12. Which one of the following statements are correct in context of point defects in a crystal?
1) AgCl has anion Frenkel defect and CaF2 has Schotky defect
2) AgCl has cation Frenkel defect and CaF2 has anion Frenkel defect
3) AgCl as well as CaF2 have anion Frenkel defect
4) AgCl as well as CaF2 have Schottky defect
13. From the following compound/s can act as p-type semiconductor :
1) Germanium is doped with Arsenic
2) Silicon is doped with Gallium
3) Cu1.8O
4) Both 2 and 3
14. From the following, which one is correct matching :
1) CrO2 - Antiferromagnetic
2) F-centre contain NaCl - Paramagnetic
3) MnO2 - Ferromagnetic
4) MgFe2O4 - Diamagnetic
15. The analysis shows that nickel oxide has the formula Ni0.98O. What percentage of Ni present as Ni3+
ions
1) 96% 2) 4% 3) 98% 4) 2%
82
CHAPTER - 18
SOLUTIONS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL-I
1. Which of the following is the correct example of solid solution in which the solute in in gas phase?
1) Copper dissolved in gold 2) Camphor in nitrogen gas
3) Hydrogen in palladium 4) All of these
2. Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol.wt = 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The
molarity of the solution is
1) 1.78 M 2) 2 M 3) 2.05 M 4) 2.22 M
3. The mole fraction of helium in a saturated solution at 0°C is 1.2 × 10–6. Find the pressure of helium
above the solution. Henry’s law constant is 6.8 × 10–6 atm–1
1) 1.176 atm 2) 0.716 atm 3) 0.176 atm 4) 0.567 atm
4. Arrange the decreasing order of solubility of gases in water at 298 K
1) Ar > CO2 > HCHO > CH4 > CH2 = CH–Cl
2) HCHO > CH4 > CH2 = CH – Cl > CO2 > Ar
3) CH 2  CH  CH 4  HCHO  CO 2  Ar
Cl
4) HCHO  CH 2  CH  CO 2  CH 4  Ar
Cl
5. At a given temperature, total vapour pressure (in torr) of a mixture of volatile compounds A and B given
by PTotal = 120 – 75 XB. Hence, vapour pressure of pure A and B respectively (in torr) are
1) 120, 75 2) 120, 195 3) 120, 45 4) 75, 45
6. Which of the following represents correctly, the changes in thermodynamic properties during the
formation of 1 mol of an ideal binary solution
1) H mix   ve, G mix   ve, TSmix  0 2) H mix  0, G mix   ve, TSmix   ve
3) H mix  0, G mix   ve, TSmix   ve 4) H mix   ve, G mix  0, TSmix   ve
83
7. If two liquids A and B form maximum boiling azeotrope at some specific composition then
1) A–B interactions are stronger than those between A–A or B–B
2) Vapour pressure of solution increases because more number of molecules of liquids A and B can
escape from the solution
3) Vapour pressure of solution decreases because less number of molecules of only one type of the
liquids escape from the solution
4) A–B interactions are weaker than those between A–A or B–B
8. The amount of solute (mol.mass = 60) that must be added to 180 g of water so that the vapour
pressure of water is lowered by 10% is
1) 30 g 2) 60 g 3) 120 g 4) 12 g
9. On freezing an aqueous solution of sodium chloride, the solid that starts separating out is
1) ice 2) sodium chloride
3) solution 4) none of these
10. Acetic acid is associated in benzene to form dimer and the percentage of association is 74%. The
Van’t Hoff factor is
1) 0.69 2) 0.63 3) 0.6 4) 0.57
11. Osmotic pressure of 40% urea solution is 1.64 at and that of 3.42% cane sugar solution is 2.46 atm.
When equal voluem of the above solutions are mixed, o.p. of resulting solution is ...........
1) 1.64 atm 2) 2.46 atm
3) 4.1 atm 4) 2.05 atm
12. The freezing point of equimolal aqueous solution will be highest for
1) C6H5NH3Cl (aniline hydrochloride) 2) Ca(NO3)2
3) La (NO3)3 4) C6H12O6 (glucose)
13. The correct representation of van’t Hoff factor in relative lowering of vapour pressure
P nB P in B
1)  2) 
PA in A  n B
0
PA in A  in B
0
P in B P in B
3)  4) 
PA in B  n A
0
PA n A  n B
0
14. Which of the following statement is false

1) Two different solutions of sucrose of same molality prepared in different solvents will have the
same elevation of boiling point
2) The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by the equation   CRT (where C is the molarity of the
solution)
3) Decreasing order of osmotic pressure of 0.01 M aqueous solutions of Barium chloride, potassium
chloride, Acetic acid and Sucrose is BaCl2 > KCl > CH3COOH > Sucrose
4) According to Raoul’ts law, the vapour pressure exerted by a volatile component of a solution is
directly proportional to its mole fraction is the solution.
84
15. Study the following figure and pickout the correct option (s)
1) A white precipitate of AgCl is formed on AgNO3 side

2) A white precipitate of AgCl is formed on BaCl2 side
3) No precipitate is formed on either side
4) Precipitate is formed on either side
LEVEL-II
1. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M
HNO3? The concentrated acid is 70% HNO3
1) 90.0 g conc. HNO3 2) 70.0 g conc. HNO3 3) 54.0 g conc. HNO3 4) 45.0 g conc. HNO3
2. Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause
1) decrese in molality 2) decrease in molarity
3) decrease in mole fraction 4) decrease in % (w/w)
3. The mole fraction of benzene in a solution with toluene is 0.5. The mass % of benzene in the solution
is
1) 46% 2) 31% 3) 25% 4) 75%
4. Henry’s law constant of oxygen is 1.4 × 10–3 atm–1 at 298 K. How much of oxygen is dissolved in 100
ml water at 298 K when the partial pressure of oxygen is 0.5 atm
1) 1.4 g 2) 3.2 g 3) 22.4 mg 4) 2.24 mg
5. The vapour pressure of two liquids X and Y are 80 and 60 torr respectively. The total vapour pressure
of the ideal solution obtained by mixing 3 moles of X and 2 mole of Y would be
1) 68 Torr 2) 140 Torr 3) 48 Torr 4) 72 Torr
6. Which one of the following is non-ideal solution
1) Benzene + toluene 2) n-hexane + n-heptane
3) Ethyl bromide + ethyl iodide 4) CCl4 + CHCl3
7. A solution has a 1 : 4 mole ratio of pentane to hexane. The vapour pressure of the pure hydrocarbon at
30°C are 440 mm Hg for pentane and 120 mm Hg for hexane. The mole fraction of pentane in the
vapour phase at 30°C is
1) 0.2 2) 0.478 3) 0.549 4) 0.786
85
8. Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law?
1) Water - nitric acid 2) Benzene - Methanol
3) Water - Hydrochloric acid 4) Acetone - Chloroform
9. The molal b.p constant for water is 0.513 K kg mol–1. When 0.1 mole of sugar is dissolved in 200 g of
water, the solution boils under a pressure of 1 atm at
1) 100.513°C 2) 100.0513°C 3) 100.256°C 4) 101.025°C
10. A solution containing 0.1 g of a non-volatile organic substance P (molecular weight = 100) in 100 g of
benzene raises the boiling point of benzene by 0.2°C, while a solution containing 0.1 g of another non-
volatile substance Q in the same amount of benzene raises the boiling point of benzene by 0.4°C.
What is the ratio of molecular weights of P and Q?
1) 1 : 4 2) 4 : 1 3) 1 : 2 4) 2 : 1
11. Certain mass (w), of urea was dissolved in 500 g of water and cooled upto –0.5°C whereby 128 g of
ice separates out from the solution. If cryoscopic constant for water be 1.86 Cm–1, the value of w will
be
1) 3 g 2) 6g 3) 12 g 4) 0.6 g
12. A 1.03% solution of glycerine is isotonic with 2% solution of glucose. What will be the molecular mass
of glycerine?
1) 92.7 2) 98.0 3) 90.2 4) 96.4
13. In 100 g of naphthalene, 2.423 g of S was dissolved. Melting point of naphthalene = 80.1°C.
Tf  0.661C. L f  35.7 cal / g of naphthalene. Molecular formula of sulphur added is
1) S4 2) S8 3) S2 4) S6
14. 0.004 M solution of Na2SO4 is isotonic with a 0.010 M solution of glucose at the same temperature.
The apparent degree of dissociation of Na2SO4 is
1) 25% 2) 50% 3) 75% 4) 85%
15. Which has the least freezing point
1) 1% sucrose 2) 1% NaCl 3) 1% CaCl2 4) 1% glucose
86
CHAPTER - 19
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. E0 for Fe2+ + 2e– 

 Fe is –0.44 V and E0 for Zn2++ 2e– 
 Zn is –0.76 V. Thus
1) Zn is more electropositive than Fe
2) Zn is more electronegative than Fe
3) Fe is more electropositive than Zn
4) Fe displaces Zn
2. A solution of Na2SO4 in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The product at the cathode and
anode are respectively
1) O2, H2 2) O2, SO2 3) H2, O2 4) O2, Na
3. If 0.3605 g of a metal is deposited on the electrode by passing 1.2A current for 15 min through its salt.
The valency of the metal is (atomic weight of the metal is 96)
1) 3 2) 5 3) 6 4) 8
4. When a quantity of electricity is passed through CuSO4 solution, 0.16g of copper gets deposited. If the
same quantity of electricity is passed through acidulated water, then the volume of H2 liberated at STP
will be (atomic weight of Cu = 64)
1) 56 cm3 2) 4 cm3 3) 604 cm3 4) 8 cm3
5. The standard oxidation potentials of Zn, Cu, Ag and Ni electrodes are +0.76, –0.34, –0.80 and 0.25 V
respectively. In which of the following cell reaction, standard free energy decrease is maximum?
1) Cu  2Ag  
 Cu 2   2Ag 2) Zn  2Ag  
 Zn 2   2Ag
3) H 2  Ni 2  
 2H   Ni 4) Zn  2H  
 Zn 2   H 2
6. Consider the following cell reaction 2Fe  O 2  4H  

 2Fe 2  2H 2 O; E cell
0
 1.67 V .
At [Fe2+] = 10–3 M, PO2 = 0.1 atm and pH = 3 the cell potential at 25°C is
1) 1.77 V 2) 1.57 V 3) 1.87 V 4) 1.47 V
87
7. The equilibrium constant of the redox reaction 2Fe3  2I  

 2Fe 2   I 2 is 1 108 . If
E 0I / I  0.54 V, the value of E 0Fe3 / Fe2 is
2
1) –0.65 V 2) –0.77 V
3) 1.2 V 4) 0.77 V
8. A cell contains two hydrogen electrodes. The negative electrode is in contact with a solution of 10–6 M
hydrogen ions. The emf of the cell is 0.118 V at 25°C. Calculate the [H+] at positive electrode
1) 10–6 M 2) 10–5 M
3) 10–4 M 4) 10–2 M
9. If pressure of hydrogen gas is increased from 1 atm to 100 atm keeping the hydrogen ion concentration
constant at 1M, the voltage of hydrogen cell at 298 K will be
1) 0.059 V 2) –0.059 V 3) 0.59 V 4) Zero
10. Consider the half cell reduction and oxidation reaction
Mn 2   2e  
 Mn; E 0  1.18 V
Mn 2  
 Mn 3  e  ; E 0  1.51 V
The E0 for the reaction 3Mn 2  

 Mn  2Mn 3 is
1) –4.18 V 2) –2.69 V 3) 0.33 V 4) 2.69 V
11. A fuel cell involves combustion of the butane at 1 atm and 298 K
13
C4 H10  O 2 
 4CO 2  5H 2 O; G 0  2746 kJ / mol . What is E0 of the cell
2
1) 1.09 V 2) 0.547 V 3) 4.74 V 4) 4.37 V
12. Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with a solution of an electrolyte of concentration 0.1 M is 100  .
The conductivity of this solution is 1.29 Sm–1. Resistance of the same cell when filled with 0.02 M of
the same solution is 520  . The molar conductivity of 0.02 M solution of the electrolyte will be
1) 124 × 10–4 Sm2 mol–1
2) 1240 × 10–4 Sm2 mol–1
3) 1.24 × 104 Sm2 mol–1
4) 12.4 × 10–4 Sm2 mol–1
13. The ionisation constant of acetic acid is 2 × 10–5. Determine the equivalent conductance of a
1500 mg/L acetic acid solution.  CH3COO and  H  are 42 and 348 Scm2 mol–1
0 0
1) 100 2) 1.1 3) 10.9 4) 1000

14. The molar conductance of 0.01 M acetic acid is 1.65 ×10–3 Scm2 mol–1. The pH of the solution when
 0m of CH3COOH is 3.92 × 10–3 Scm2 mol–1 is
1) 2.4 2) 3 3) 4.3 4) 0.54 cm–1
88
15. From the molar conductivities at infinite dilution
 0m Ba(OH) 2  457.6 Scm 2 mol1

 0m BaCl2  240.6 Scm 2 mol 1
 0m NH 4 Cl  129.8 Scm 2 mol 1
Calculate  0m NH 4 OH
1) 138 2) 268.3 3) 183.5 4) 238.3

LEVEL-II
1. The standard reduction potential for Zn /Zn, Ni2+/Ni and Fe2+/Fe are –0.76, –0.23 and –0.44 V
2+
respectively. The reaction X  Y 2  

 X 2  Y will be spontaneous when
1) X = Ni, Y = Fe 2) X = Ni, Y = Zn
3) X = Fe, Y = Zn 4) X = Zn, Y = Ni
2. Of the following metals that cannot be obtained by the electrolysis of aqueous solution of their salt are
1) Ag, Mg 2) Ag, Al 3) Mg, Al 4) Cu, Cr
3. If 90g water is electrolysed completely with 50% current efficiency, the following results are obtained
I) 10 F of electricity will be consumed
II) 20F electricity will be consumed
III) 168 L gases are produced at STP
IV) 84 L gases are produced at STP
The correct results are
1) I and IV only 2) I, III and IV 3) II and III only 4) I, II, III and IV
4. During the working of a galvanic cell and with the passage of time
A) A spontaneity of the cell reaction decreases, Ecell decreases
B) Reaction quotient Q decreases, Ecell increases
C) Reaction quotient Q increases, Ecell decreases
D) At equilibrium, Q = KC, Ecell = 0
1) A and B are correct 2) B is correct
3) B and C are correct 4) A, C and D are correct
5. The change in potential of the half cell Cu2+/Cu when Cu2+ solution is diluted 100 times is
1) Increases by 120 mV 2) Decreases by 120 mV
3) Increases by 60 mV 4) Decreases by 60 mV
2 2
6. The standard emf of the cell Ni / Ni  aq  || Cu (aq) | Cu is 0.59 V. Hence the equilibrium constant of the
2 2
reaction Ni(s)  Cu (aq) 
 Ni(aq)  Cu (s) at 298 K
1)1015 2) 2 × 1018 3) 1.5 × 1015 4) 1020
89
7. The minimum equivalent conductance in fused state is shown by

1) MgCl2 2) BeCl2 3) CrCl2 4) SrCl2
8. Calculate the standard cell potential in (V) of the cell in which following reaction takes palce
 Fe3  Ag . Given that E Ag  / Ag  xV, E Fe2 / Fe  yV E Fe3 / Fe  zV

0 0 0
Fe 2   Ag  
1) x + 2y – 3z 2) x – z 3) x – y 4) x + y – z
9. Select the correct statements
I) Cathode reaciton in Ni-Cd cell is NiO2 (s)  2H 2 O     2e 

 
 Ni(OH) 2  2OH (aq)
II) The electrode used in Hg cell is mixture of ZnCl2 and NH4Cl
 2
III) Chemical reaction during rusting on iron is 2Fe(s)  O 2 (g)  4H (aq ) 
 2Fe(aq)  2H 2 O  
IV) In electrical protection, metal used for preventing corrosion becomes anode
1) I, II, III, IV 2) II, III, IV 3) I, III, IV 4) II, IV
10. At 298 K, the conductivity of a saturated solution of AgCl in water is 2.6 × 10–6 ohm–1 cm–1. Given
 0m  Ag    63 ohm 1cm 2 mol 1 and  0m Cl   67 ohm 1cm 2 mol 1 . Therefore the solubility product of
AgCl is
1) 2 × 10–5 2) 4 × 10–10 3) 4 × 10–15 4) 2 × 10–8
11. How many kJ of energy is spent when a current of 4 amp passes for 200 second under a potential of
115 V?
1) 52 kJ 2) 72 kJ 3) 82 kJ 4) 92 kJ
12. The equivalent conductance of M/10 solution of weak monobasic acid is 8 Scm2 eq–1 and at infinite
dilution is 400 Scm2 eq–1. The pH of the solution is
1) 4 2) 2.7 3) 3.7 4) 4.5
13. During electrolysis, the gm of product (m) and when plotted against the electric charge Q in faraday’s
which of the following plot is correct
1) 2)
3) 4)
90
14. Which of the following is/are true

i) Specific conductance denotes conductance of 1 cm3 of a substance
ii) Specific conductance as well as molar conductance of a solution of an electrolyte increases upon
dilution
iii) Limiting molar conductivity of a weak electrolyte cannot be determined by extrapolation of the plot of
 m against C
iv) Conductance of metals is by movement of free electrons
1) All 2) i, ii, iv 3) ii, iii, iv 4) i, iii, iv
15. For 0.0128 N solution of acetic acid at 25°C, equivalent condutance of the solution is 1.4 Scm2eq–1
and  eq of acetic acid is 391 Scm2eq–1. Calculate the dissociation constant (Ka) or acetic acid?
0
1) 1.6404 × 10–7 2) 1.064 × 10–8 3) 0.64 × 10–7 4) 2.64 × 10–9
91
CHAPTER - 20
CHEMICAL KINETICS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. A gaseous reaction A 2(g)  B(g)  12 C(g) ; shows increase in pressure from 100 mm to 120 mm in
5 minutes. The rate of disappearance of A2 is
1) 4 mm min-1 2) 8 mm min-1 3) 16 mm min-1 4) 2 mm min-1
2. For a reaction 2A  B  products, rate constant k = 4.38 × 10-5 mol L-1 s-1. If the initial concentration
of A and B is taken as 0.1 mol/L. Find the order of reaction ?
1) 1 2) 0 3) 3 4) 1/2
3. N2O5 decomposes as follows;
N2O5  2NO2  1 O 2
2
d
If
dt
N2O5   k1 N2O5 
d
dt
NO2   k 2 N2O5 
d
dt
O2   k3 N2O5 
The correct relation between k1, k2 and k3
1) k1 = k2 = k3 2) 4k1 = k2 = k3 3) 4k1 = k2 = 2k3 4) 2k1 = k2 = 4k3
4. The mechanism of the reaction : Nu   R  X  R  Nu  X  is
Nu   R  X  [Transition state] (slow)

[Transition state]  Nu  R  X  (fast)
The rate of reaction can be increased by
1) increasing the concentration of Nu– only
2) increasing the concentration of R–X only
3) Increasing the concentrations of both Nu– and R–X
4) decreasing the concentration of both Nu– and R–X
92
dx
5. For the elementary reaction aA + bB  product,  K[A]a [B]b . If the concentration of A is doubled,
dt
rate becomes 4 times. If the concentration of B is made four times, rate becomes doubled. Hence
d[A] d[B] 2d[A] 1 d[B]

1)   2)  
dt dt dt 4 dt
d[A] d[B] d[A] d[B]

3)   4 4) 4 
dt dt dt dt
6.
If the disappearance of the spheres in this diagram is of first order process, how much time is required
to go from the second box to the third box ?
1) 4 min 2) 2 min 3) 6 min 4) 5 min
7. If time required to complete 10 % of a first order reaction is 39 sec, the find the time required to
complete 19 % the same reaction at same temperature ?
1) 18.5 sec 2) 78 sec 3) 53 sec 4) 67 sec
8. The rate constant of the reaction A  2B is 1 × 10-3 mol lit-1 min-1. If the initial concentration of A is
1 mol L-1, what would be the concentration of B after 100 minutes.
1) 0.1 mol L-1 2) 0.2 mol L-1 3) 0.9 mol L-1 4) 1.6 mol L-1
 
9. Two substances A  t 1  5 min  and B  t 1  15 min  are taken in such a way that initially [A] = 4[B].
 2   2 
The time after which both the concentrations will be equal to; [Assume that reaction is of first order]
1) 5 min 2) 15 min
3) 20 min 4) concentration can never be equal
10. Identify the rate law for ozone decomposition reaction, if it take place via two steps.
2O3  3O2
O3  O2  O  fast 
O  O3  2O2  slow 
k O3 
1) r  k O3  O  2) r  k O3  O2 
1
3) r  k O3  O2  4) r 
O2 2
11. For a pseudo first order reaction, rate constant depends upon,
1) catalyst 2) concentration of excess reactant
3) temperature 4) all of these
93
12. The rate constant, the activation energy and the frequency factor of a chemical reaction at 250 C are
3 × 10-4 s-1, 104.4 kJ/mol and 6 × 1014 s-1 respectively. The value of rate constant as T   is
1) 2 × 1018 s-1 2) 6 × 1014 s-1
3) infinite 4) 3.6 × 1030 s-1
13. Which of the following statement about probability distribution curve is incorrect ?
1) when temperature increases, the value of most probable kinetic energy increases.
2) when temperature increases, the fraction of molecule possessing most probable kinetic energy
increases
3) when temperature increases by 100 C, area of shaded region doubles
4) net area of graph remains constant at all temperatures
14. Which of the following statement is correct about reaction profile, if activation energy for forward
reaction is 10 kJ and enthalpy change for the reaction is 2 kJ. (Assume the potential energy of reactants
is 5 kJ)
1) Threshold energy of the reaction is 12 kJ
2) Activation energy for backward reaction is 8 kJ
3) Threshold energy for the reaction is 15 kJ
4) Both 2 and 3
15. Which of the following is incorrect about collision frequency
1) it is proposed on the basis of kinetic energy of gases
2) number of collisions per second is known as collision frequency
3) proper orientation and threshold energy are the conditions to occur effective collisions
4) collision theory ignores the structural aspect of molecules
LEVEL- II
1. In the following reaction : xA  yB
 d  A    d B  
log    log    0.3
 dt   dt 
where – ve sign indicates rate of disappearance of reactant. Thus, x : y is

1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1 3) 3 : 1 4) 3 : 10
2. Rate of formation of SO3 in the following reaction, 2SO2  O2  2SO3 is 100 g min-1. Hence the rate
of disappearance of SO2 is ;
1) 80 g min-1 2) 40 g min-1 3) 20 g min-1 4) 100 g min-1
3. During nuclear explosion, one of the products is 90 Sr with half life of 13.86 years. If 1 g of 90Sr was
absorbed in the bones of a newly born baby instead of calcium. Calculate the time required to
decompose it’s concentration into 0.04 g . [log 5 = 0.69]
1) 64.4 years 2) 72 years 3) 108 years 4) 23 years
94
4. The decomposition NH3 gas on a heated tungsten surface gave the following results
Initial pressure (mm of Hg) 65 105 y 185
Half life (sec) 290 x 670 820
Calculate approximately the values of x and y

1) x = 410 sec, y = 115 mm of Hg 2) x = 468 sec, y = 150 mm of Hg
3) x = 490 sec, y = 120 mm of Hg 4) x = 430 sec, y = 105 mm of Hg
5. In a reaction between A and B, the initial rate of reaction (r0) was measured for different initial
concentration of A and B as given below
-1
A/mol L 0.2 0.2 0.4
-1
B/mol L 0.3 0.1 0.05
-1 -1
r 0/mol L s 5.07 × 10-5 5.07 × 10-5 1.43 × 10 -4
Find the rate law for the reaction

3 1 1
2) r  k  A B 3) r  k  A  B0 4) r  k  A  B 
2
1) r  k  A  2 B0 2 2
6. A hypothetical reaction X2  Y2  2XY follows the mechanism given below..
X2  X  X  fast 
X  Y2  XY  Y  slow 
X  Y  XY  fast 
The order of overall reaction

1) 2 2) 1 3) 1.5 4) 0
d  A  1
7. For the reaction, A  B, the rate law expression is  k A 2 and the initial concentration of A
dt
is A0, then which of the following is incorrect ?
kt
1) Integrated rate equation is A  A0 
2
2)
2A 0
3) t 1 
2 k
4) All of the above
95
8. The time elapsed of a certain first order reaction between 33 % and 66 % completion in 30 minutes.
The time needed for 25 % completion is 7.4973 × 10x sec. The value of x is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
9. Which of the following is not true for first order reaction ?
1) t 3 4  2t 12 2) t1516  4t 12 3) t1516  3t 3 4 4) t 99.9  10t 12
H 
10. For any acid catalysed, A   B, half life period is independent of concentration of A at given pH.
At same concentration of A, half life time is 10 min at pH = 2 and half life time is 100 min at pH = 3. If
y
the rate law expression of reaction is r  k  A  H  , then calculate (x + y)
x
 
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 0
11. The activation energies of two reactions are Ea1 and Ea2 with Ea1 > Ea2. If the temperature of the
reacting system is increased from T1 to T2, predict which of the following alternative is correct ?
k1' k'2 k1' k'2 k1' k '2 k1' k '2

1)  2)  3)  4)  2
k1 k 2 k1 k 2 k1 k 2 k1 k2
12. The reaction vA  products is zero order with respect to A with rate constant equal to k0. The
concentration of A with time is given as
k0t
1)  A t   A 0  k 0 t 2)  A t   A 0  vk 0 t 3)  A t   A 0  k 0 t 4)  A t   A 0 
v
13. In the start of summer, a given sample of milk turns, sour at room temperature [270 C] in 5 hours. In
a refrigerator at – 30 C, milk can be stored 10 times longer. The activation energy of milk is
1) 6.218 R kJ/mol 2) 3.405 R kJ/mol 3) 2.303 R kJ/mol 4) 23.03 R kJ/mol
2000
14. A B k A  1015 e T
1000
CD k C  1014 e T
The temperature Tk at which (kA = kC) is
2000 1000
1) 1000 K 2) 2000 K 3) K 4) K
2.303 2.303
15. A radio active element gets spilled over the floor of a room. Its half life period is 30 days. If the initial
activity is 10 times the permissible value, after how many days will it be safe to enter the room ?
1) 100 days 2) 300 days 3) 10 days 4) 80 days
96
CHAPTER - 21
SURFACE CHEMISTRY
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Identify incorrect statement from the following
1) Due to complete miscibility , there is no interface between the gases
2) A real clean surface is obtained by applying very high vacuum of the order of 10–13 atm to 10–14 atm
3) Interface between H2 and O2 gas is represented as H2/O2
4) Solid materials with clean surface should be stored in vacuum
2. Which statement is correct about the mechanism of adsorption?
1)There is always an increase in the residual unbalanced forces of the surface during adsorption
2) During adsorption, the surface energy increases, which absorbs more heat
3) During the adsorption of a gas on a solid, entropy of the gas increases
4) As the adsorption proceeds, G becomes zero
x 1
3. The adsorption isotherm  KC n is not applicable for which of the following process?
m
1) Adsorption of noble gases at different temperature on activated charcoal
2) Clarification of crude sugar solution
3) Decolourisation of methylene blue on animal charcoal
4) Silver halide precipitate adsorbs dyes like eosin
4. Identify an adsorption isosters from the following
1) 2) 3) 4)
5. Which of the following is a property of physisorption?

1) Specificity 2) Reversibility
3) High enthalpy of adsorption 4) High activation energy
97
6. Which of the following is a wrongly matched pair?
Catalyst
1) Decomposition of KClO3 -
MnO 2
2) Contact process - V2O5
3) Ziegler - Natta polymerisation - TiCl4
4) Hydrogenation of alkene - [Ni(PPh3)3Cl]
7. Which of the following is a heterogeneous catalysis?
1) Lead chamber process 2) Acidic hydrolysis of methyl acetate
3) Inversion of cane sugar 4) Ostwald process
8. Photochemical oxidation of chloroform into phosgene can be prevented by using
1) Ethanol 2) Urea 3) Acetanilide 4) Glycol
9. The catalyst used for the following reaction is
CO(g)  2H 2(g) 
 CH 3OH (g)
1) Ni 2) Cu 3) Cu/ZnO - Cr2O3 4) Fe2O3/Cr2O3
10. Maximum catalytic activity towards hydrogenation reaction is observed for
1) V 2) Cr 3) Rh 4) Ag
11. Which of the following is not used for preparing lyophilic sols?
1) Starch 2) Gum 3) Gelatin 4) Metal sulphide
12. The basic principle of ‘Cottrell smoke precipitator’ is
1) Le-Chatlier’s principles 2) Peptization
3) Coagulation 4) Scattering of light
13. The method used for preparing colloidal gold is
1) Double decomposition 2) Oxidation
3) Reduction 4) Hydrolysis
14. Principal emulsifying agent for O/W emulsion is
1) Protein 2) Heavy metal salts of fatty acids
3) Long chain alcohols 4) lamp black
15. Which of the following colloid is positively charged?
1) Argyrol 2) Congo red sols 3) Colloidal charcoal 4) Haemoglobin
LEVEL-II
1. The magnitude of G and S during the spontaneous adsorption of a gas on a solid surface at
183 K is 140 kJ mol–1 and 0.4 kJ K–1 mol–1 respectively. Then select the correct statement from the
following
1) It is a physisorption process 2) It is a chemisorption process
3) Not enough information 4) There is neither physisorption nor chemisorption
98
2. The plot of log x/m versus log P is given below
Then the value of x/m at a pressure of 0.5 atm is

1) 1 2) 1.5 3) 2 4) 2.5
3. Four different gases A, B, C and D have respective vander Waal’s parameter ‘a’ are 5,6,7 and 8 atm L2
mol–1. Which of the following gas will adsorb first on the surface of a solid at low temperature?
1) A 2) B 3)C 4) D
4. During the adsorption of Krypton on activated charcoal at low temperature
1) G  0 H  0 S  0 2) G  0 H  0 S  0
3) G  0 H  0 S  0 4) G  0 H  0 S  0
5. 0.2 g of fine charcoal is mixed with half litre of acetic acid solution and shaken for 30 minutes. Then
1) Concentration remais same 2) Concentration increases
3) Concentration decreases 4) Charcoal dissolved in acetic acid
6. Which of the following enzyme does not have the source, yeast?
1) Invertase 2) Zymase 3) Maltase 4) Diastase
7. In Haber’s process, one of the important step is steam reforming. The catalyst used for this purpose
is
1) Ni 2) NiO 3) Zn 4) ZnO
8. Which of the following is not a property of colloids?
1) Their range of diameters is 1nm - 1000 nm
2) The size of colloidal particles can be determined by using a very powerful ultramicroscope
3) They cannot be filtred using ordinary filter paper
4) They have a very surface area
9. Purple of Cassius is
1) Lyophilic macromolecular colloid 2) Lyophobic multimolecular colloid
3) Lyophilic associated colloid 4) Lyophobic macromolecular colloid
10. Which of the following has maximum coagulation power for ferric hydroxide sol?
1) Cryolite 2) K2C2O4 3) K3[(FeCN)6] 4) K4[Fe(CN)6]
99
11. Which of the following metal sols cannot be prepared by Bredig’s arc method?
1) Copper 2) Potassium 3) Gold 4) Platinum
12. The coagulation of 100 mL of a positive colloid took place when 0.73 g HCl was added to it without
changing the volume much. The flocculation value of HCl for the colloid is
1) 36.5 2) 73 3) 100 4) 200
13. Which of the following is a ‘reversible sol’?
1) Colloidal gold 2) Colloidal As2S3 3) Colloidal copper 4) Colloidal gelatine
14. How many aerosols are present in the following?
Coloured glasses, smoke, paints, cheese, fog, cloud, pumice stone, froth, soap lather
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 7
15. Protective colloid present in fertile soils is
1) Caesin 2) Humus 3) Alum 4) Urea
100
CHAPTER - 22
GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF
ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Which of the following enhances non-wettability of ore particles by water in froth floatation process?
i) Xanthates ii) Fatty acids
iii) Pine oil iv) Cresols
v) Eucalyptus vi) Aniline
1) i, ii, iii, vi 2)i, ii, iv, vi
3) i, ii, v, vi 4) i, ii, iii, v
2. Which of the following reactions represents smelting?
1) CuCO3 .Cu  OH 2 

 2CuO  H 2O  CO2

2) 2PbS  3O 2   2PbO  2SO 2

3) ZnO  C   Zn  CO

4) Al2 O 3 .2H 2 O   Al2 O 3  2H 2 O
3. The Mg  MgO line in Ellingham diagram intersects C  CO line at about 2000 K. It means ........
1) C can reduce MgO above 2000 K
2) CO can reduce MgO above 2000 K
3) C can reduce MgO below 2000 K
4) CO can reduce MgO below 2000 K
4. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous
oxide with .............
1) Copper (I) sulphide
2) Sulphur dioxide
3) Iron (II) sulphide
4) Copper monoxide
101
5. Arrange the following in increasing percentage of carbon content

i) Pig iron ii) Wrought iron iii) Steel
1) ii < i < iii 2) i < ii > iii 3) iii < ii < i 4) ii < iii < i
6. Match the alloys to the constituent metals:
Alloy Metals
i) Duralumin a. Cu, Zn, Ni
ii) Brass b. Cu, Ni
iii) German silver c. Al, Cu, Mg, Ni
iv) Coinage metal d. Cu, Zn
1) 1  d; ii  b; iii  a; iv  c
2) 1  c; ii  a; iii  d; iv  b
3) 1  a; ii  d; iii  b; iv  c
4) 1  c; ii  d; iii  a; iv  b
7. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
1) During roasting, impurities such as sulphur, arsenic and phosphorus are removed as volatile oxides
2) In calcination, metal carbonates and hydrated oxides are converted to metal oxides
3) In Goldschmidt thermite process, aluminium is used as an oxidizing agent
4) In the extraction of Ag or Au by cyanide process, Zn is used to displace Ag or Au from cyanide
complex.
8. Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding refining of crude metals?
1) In distillation, metal is converted to the volatile compound
2) In vapour phase refining, impure metal is evaporated and pure metal is collected elsewhere
3) In liquation, metal is heated below its melting point in inert atmosphere of carbon monoxide
4) In polling, the impure metal is melted and stirred with green longs of wood
9. Assertion : In blast furnace, iron oxide is reduced by CO in lower temperature range (below 1073 K)
while it is reduced by C in higher temperature range (above 1073 K).
Reason : C is more stable than CO above 1073 K
1) Assertion and reason are true. Reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2) Assertion and reason are true. Reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3) Assertion is true reason is false
4) Assertion is false, reason is true
102
10. Identify temperature zones in the blast furnace for reduction of iron ore
1) A : Combustion zone, B : reduction zone, C : Slag formation zone

2) A : Slag formation zone, B : reduction zone, C : combustion zone
3) A : reduction zone, B : Slag formation zone, C : combustion zone
4) A : Combustion zone, B : slag formation zone, C : Reduction zone
11. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
1) In roasting of ZnS, the species which undergo oxidation are O2 and S2–
2) In blast furnace to reduce iron ore, the species which undergo oxidation are C and C2+
3) In auto-reduction of copper, the species which undergoes oxidation is S2–
4) In MacArthur Forrest cyanide process, the species which undergoes oxidation is Zn
12. In the extraction of chlorine by electrolysis of brine solution ............
1) Oxidation of Cl– ion to chlorine gas occurs at cathode
2) Reduction of Cl– ion to chlorine gas occurs at cathode
3) For overall reaction G 0 has negative value

4) a displacement reaction takes place
13. Electrolytic refining is used to purify which of the following metals?
1) Cu and Zn
2) Ge and Si
3) Zr and Ti
4) Zn and Hg
103
14. At the temperature corresponding to which of the points in figure. FeO will be reduced to Fe by coupling
the reaction 2FeO 
 2Fe + O2 with all of the following reactions?
a) C  O 2 
 CO 2 b) 2C  O 2 
 2CO (c) 2CO  O 2 
 2CO 2
1) Point A & B 2) Point B & E
2) Point D & A 4) Point E & A
15. Match items of Column-I with the items of Column-II and assign the correct code:
Column-I Column-II
A) Cyanide process 1) Ultrapure Ge
B) Froth floatation process 2) Dressing of ZnS
C) Electrolytic reduction 3) Extraction of Al
D) Zone refining 4) Extraction of Au
5) Purificaiton of Ni
1) A  4; B  2; C  3; D  1
2) A  2; B  3; C  1; D  5
3) A  1; B  2; C  3; D  4
4) A  3; B  4; C  5; D  1
104
16. When ZnS and PbS minerals are present together, then NaCN is added to separate them in the froth
floatation process as a depressant, because
1) Pb(CN)2 is precipitated while no effect on ZnS
2) ZnS forms soluble comples Na2[Zn(CN)4]
3) PbS forms soluble complex Na2[Pb(CN)4]
4) They cannot be separated by adding NaCN
17. Which of the following reaction does not occur in Bessemer’s converter?
1) 2Cu 2S  5O 2 
 2CuSO 4  2CuO
2) 2Cu 2S  3O 2 
 2Cu 2 O  2SO 2 
3) 2CuFeS2  O 2 
 Cu 2S  2FeS  SO 2
4) FeO  SiO 2 
 FeSiO 3
18. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the slag formation during the extraction of a
metal like copper or iron
1) The slag is lighter and lower melting than the metal
2) The slag is heavier and lower melting than the metal
3) The slag is lighter and higher melting than the metal
4) The slag is heavier and higher melting than the metal
LEVEL-II
1. Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth floatation method?
1) Magnetite 2) Siderite 3) Galena 4) Malachite
2. Which of the following is an unstable oxide?
1) MgO 2) ZnO
3) Ag2O 4) Al2O3
3. Which of the following is a requirement for purifying a metal by vapour phase refining?
1) The impurities should be volatile
2) The melting and boiling points of the metal should be low
3) The metal should form a volatile compound with a suitable reagent
4) The impurities should have very high melting ponits
4. In the context of the Hall-Heroult process for the extraction of Al, which of the following statement is
false?
1) CO and CO2 are produced in this process
2) Al2O3 is mixed with CaF2 which lowers the melting point of the mixture and brings conductivity
3) Al3+ is reduced at the cathode to from Al
4) Na3AlF6 serves as the electrolyte
105
5. After Bessemerization, when molten copper is cooled slowly, blister copper is obtained. This is because
.............. gas escapes out during solidification
1) SO2 2) CO 3) CO2 4) O2
6. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina?
1) Fe 2) Zn 3) Mg 4)Cu
7. “Metals are usually not found as nitrates in their ores”. Out of the following (a and b) reasons, which is/
are true for the above observation?
a) Metal nitrates are highly unstable
b) Metal nitrates are highly soluble in water
1) a and b are true 2) a and b are false
3) a is false but b is true 4) a is true but b is false
8. Which of the following is correct statement for froth floatation process?
1) Cresol is used as collector to enhance non-wettability of ore particles by water
2) NaCN is used to stabilize the froth
3) Pine oil is used as depressant to selectively separate two sulphide ores
4) The gangue particles are wetted by water and settles at the bottom
9. The C  CO line of Ellingham diagram intersects, Zn  ZnO , Al  Al2 O3 and Mg  MgO lines
around 1100 K, 1900 K and 2000 K, respectively. It means ...............
1) C can reduce MgO, Al2O3 and ZnO below 2000 K
2) C can reduce MgO but not Al2O3 and ZnO below 2000 K
3) C can reduce ZnO but not Al2O3 and MgO at 1500 K
4) C can reduce MgO and Al2O3 but not ZnO at 1800 K
10. In the Ellingham diagram, the lines or formations for metal oxides (M1O and M2O) from unknown
metals M1 and M2 intersect the y-axis is –250 kJ/mol and –400 kJ/mol, respectively. The C  CO line
intersects y-axis at –280 kJ/mol and M2  M2O line at 400 K. It means ...........
1) C can reduce M1O at any temepratures but it cannot reduce M2O at any temperature below 400 K
2) C can reduce both M1O and M2O below 400 K
3) C can reduce M2O but not M1O below 400 K
4) M1  M2O and M2  M2O lines have negative slopes while C  CO line has positive slope
11. For the following conversion:
ZnS  Zn
Which of the below listed methods are applicable?
i) Roasting ii) Calcination iii) Self-reduction
iv) Hydrometallurgy v) Carbon reduction
1) ii, iv, v 2) i, iii, iv 3) i, v 4) ii, iii
106
12. Study the given Ellingham diagram, which of the following is the correct statement?
1) C can reduce FeO below temperature A 2) CO can reduce FeO above temperature D
3) Between temperature range A to D, both C and CO can reduce FeO
4) The value of G 0 for the reduction of FeO by C at temperature D is zero
13. For the reduction of FeO at the temperature corresponding to point D, which of the following statements
is correct?
1) G value for the overall reduction reaction with carbon monoxide is zero
2) G value for the overall reduction reaction with a mixture of 1 mol carbon and 1 mol oxygen is
positive
3) G value for the overall reduction reaction with a mixture of 2 mole carbon and 1 mole oxygen will
be positive
4) G value for the overall reduction reaction with carbon monoxide is negative
107
14. Which of the following reactions occur during calcination?
11
1) 2Cu 2S  3O 2 
 2Cu 2 O  2SO 2 2) 2FeS2  O 2 
 Fe 2 O3  4SO 2
2
3
3) CaCO3 
 CaO  CO 2 4) ZnS  O 2 
 ZnO  SO 2
2
15. Consider the following statements: Roasting is carried out to
i) Covert sulphide to oxide and sulphate
ii) Remove water of hydration
iii) Melt the ore
iv) Remove arsenic and sulphur impurities
Of these statements
1) i, ii and iii are correct 2) i and iv are correct
3) i, ii and iv are correct 4) ii, iii and iv are correct
16. Blister copper is refined by stirring molten impure metal with green logs of wood because such a
wood liberates hydrocarbon gases (like CH4). This process X is called ............. and the metal contains
impurities of Y is ................
1) X = cupellattion, Y = CuO2 2) X = polling, Y = Cu2O
3) X = polling, Y = CuO 4) X = cupellation, Y = CuO
17. Carbon cannot be used in the reduction of Al2O3 because
1) It is an expensive proposition
2) The enthalpy of formation of CO2 is more than that Al2O3
3) Pure carbon is not easily available
4) The enthalpy of formation of Al2O3 is too high
108
CHAPTER - 23
p-BLOCK ELEMENTS (XII)
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
Group 15 - Nitrogen family
1. Which statement is not correct for nitrogen family ?
1) Phosphorus occurs in minerals of the apatite family
2) Dinitrogen is a diatomic gas while all others are solids
3) Bismuth forms only one well characterised compound in +5 oxidation state
4) Melting points of group 15 elements increase regularly on moving down the group
2. The bond angle of the hydride of group 15 follows the order
1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 2) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3
3) NH3 > PH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 4) NH3 < PH3 < SbH3 < AsH3
3. Which of the following statements is wrong ?
1) The oxide in the higher oxidation state of group 15 element is more acidic than that of lower
oxidation state
2) Very pure nitrogen can be obtained by the thermal decomposition of sodium or barium azide
3) In the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process, the catalyst used is oxide of iron and small
amounts of K2O and Al2O3
4) On heating, lead nitrate forms oxides of nitrogen and lead. The oxides are N2O and PbO
4. Which of the following will combine with Fe(II) ion to form a brown complex compound ?
1) N2O 2) NO 3) NO2 4) N2O3
5. Which of the following statements are correct ?
A) White phosphorus is poisonous, insoluble in water but soluble in carbon disulphide
B) Red phosphorus is obtained by heating white phosphorus at 573 K in an inert atmosphere for
several days
C) Phosphine is weakly basic
D) The spontaneous combustion of phosphine is technically used in Holme’s signals
E) All the five bonds in PCl5 molecule are equivalent
1) A, B, C, E 2) A, B, C 3) A, B, C, D 4) A, B, D, E
109
6. Amongst the following oxo-acids of phosphorus, how many of them are dibasic in nature ? H3PO2,
H3PO3, H3PO4, H4P2O5
1) 1 2) 2
3) 3 4) 4
Group 16 - Oxygen family
7. Which of the following statements is false for group 16 elements ?
1) First ionisation enthalpy of Te is higher than that of Po
2) Reducing property of hydrides increases from H2S to H2Te
3) SO2 is reducing agent and TeO2 is an oxidising agent
4) Formation of ozone from oxygen is exothermic process
8. Identify the incorrect statements ?
1) Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur have S8 molecule
2) Sulphuric acid, sodium hydrogen sulphite and calcium hydrogen sulphite are manufactured from
sulphur dioxide
3) H2S2O7 is a peroxo acid of sulphur
4) When concentrated H2SO4 is added to calcium fluoride, hydrogen fluoride will form
9. Which of the following products is formed by the reaction of sulphur dioxide with chlorine in presence
of charcoal
1) SO2Cl 2) SO2Cl2
3) SOCl2 4) SO3Cl
Group 17 - Halogen family
10. Which are correct statements ?
A) F2 is the strongest oxidising halogen
B) Chlorine and bromine react with water to form corresponding hydrohalic and hypohalous acid
C) Hydrogen fluoride is a liquid due to strong hydrogen bonding
D UF4 is more covalent than UF6
E) ClF3 is a colourless gas
1) A, B, C, D 2) A, B, D, E
3) A, B, C, E 4) A, B, C, D, E
11. Which of the following is wrong regarding halogens ?
1) The catalyst used in the Deacon’s process for the manufacture of chlorine is CuCl2
2) Chlorine water on standing loses its yellow colour due to the formation of HCl and HOCl
3) HCl gas can be dried by passing through concentrated sulphuric acid
4) Bromic acid is HOBrO3
110
12. Match the interhalogen compound of column - I with the geometry in column - II and assign the
correct code
Column - I Column - II
A) IF7 p) Bent T- shaped
B) BrF3 q) Linear
C) IF5 r) Square pyramidal
s) Pentagonal bipyramidal
1) A  s, B  p, C  q 2) A  s, B  q, C  r
3) A  s, B  p, C  r 4) A  r, B  p, C  s
Group 18 - Noble gases
13. The element which has not yet been reacted with F2 is
1) Xe 2) Kr 3) Rn 4) Ar
14. XeF6 on treatment with CsF gives :
 
1) Cs  XeF6  2) Cs  XeF7 
   
3) CsF3  CsF4  4) CsF5  CsF2 
15. XeF2 on hydrolysis gives :

1) Xe 2) XeO3
3) XeOF4 4) XeO2F2
LEVEL- II
Group 15 - Nitrogen family
1. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the group 15 elements ?
1) The ionisation enthalpies of the elements of group 15 are much higher than the corresponding
elements of group 14
2) Metallic character increases down the group with decrease in ionisation enthalpy and increase in
atomic size
3) The density of the element of group 15 decreases regularly from N to Bi
4) Nitrogen does not form NF5 or NCl5
2. Which statement is incorrect about the anomalous properties of nitrogen ?
1) Nitrogen, because of the small size and high electronegativity forms p  p multiple bonds with
itself and other elements having small size and high electronegativity
2) P, As and Sb do form p  p multiple bonds
3) The single N – N bond is weaker than the single P – P bond
4) P and As can form d  d bond with transition metals when their compounds like P(C2H5)3 and
As(C6H5)3 act as ligands
111
3. All the elements of group 15 form hydrides of the type EH3. Which is false regarding their properties?
1) The stability of hydrides decreases from NH3 to BiH3
2) Order of melting point : PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > NH3
3) Order of basicity : NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3  BiH3
4) NH3 exhibits hydrogen bonding in solid as well as liquid state
4. Which of the following is a false statement regarding the chemical properties of nitrogen family ?
1) The oxides of the type E2O3 of nitrogen and phosphorous are purely acidic
2) Trihalides are more covalent than pentahalides
3) All the trihalides of group 15 elements except those of nitrogen are stable. In case of nitrogen, only
NF3 is known to be stable
4) All the group 15 elements react with metals to form their binary compounds exhibiting – 3 oxidation
state
5. Nitrogen gas is prepared :
1) by the decay of nitrogenous organic matter
2) by the decomposition of ammonium salt with caustic soda or calcium hydroxide
3) by the Haber’s process
4) by treating an aqueous solution of ammonium chloride with sodium nitrite
6. Match each of the reaction given in column-I with the corresponding main products given in
column-II
A) HNO3 + P4O10 p) PCl5
B) NaNO3 + H2SO4 q) H3PO3
C) P4 + NaOH + H2O r) N2O5
D) PCl3 + H2O s) HNO3
E) P4 + SO2Cl2 t) PH3
1) A - r, B - s, C - t, D - p, E - q
2) A - r, B - s, C - q, D - p, E - t
3) A - r, B - t, C - p, D - q, E - s
4) A - r, B - s, C - t, D - q, E - p
7. The number of P – O – P and P – OH bonds present respectively in pyrophosphoric acid molecule
are
1) 1, 2 2) 1, 3
3) 1, 4 4) 4, 1
112
Group 16 - Oxygen family

8. Which of the following are characteristics of oxygen family ?
A) Oxygen is the most abundant of all the elements on earth
B) Livermorium is a synthetic radioactive element
C) Melting point is in the order O > S < Se > Te > Po
D)  egH is in the order O < S > Se > Te > Po
E) Low ionisation enthalpy compared to group 15

F) Next to fluorine, oxygen has the highest electronegativity value amongst the elements
1) A, B, D, E, F 2) A, B, C, D, E, F
3) B, C, D, E 4) A, B, E, F
9. Which are te correct statements regarding oxygen family ?
A) The stability of – 2 oxidation state decreases down the group
B) Order of bond angle : H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
C) Order of acidic character : H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
D) Reducing property of dioxide decreases from SO2 to TeO2
E) SO3 is amphoteric in nature
F) Tetrafluorides of group 16 have sp3d hybridisation
1) A, B, C, D, E, F 2) A, B, C, E, F
3) A, B, C, D, F 4) B, C, D, E, F
10. Identify the incorrect statements ?
1) Dioxygen directly reacts with nearly all metals and non-metals except some metals (eg : Au, Pt)
and some noble gases
2) CO, NO and N2O are neutral oxides
3) The two oxygen - oxygen bond lengths in the ozone molecule are identical
4) In cyclo-S6, the ring adopts crown shape
11. Which are the incorrect statements regarding compounds of sulphur ?
A) Moist SO2 behaves as reducing agent
B) The number of sigma and pi-bonds in peroxodisulphuric acid are respectively 11 and 4
C) The number of pi bonds in sulphurous acid is one
D) Sulphuric acid is manufactured by Ostwald’s process
E) The catalytic oxidation of SO2 with O2 give SO3. This reaction is endothermic process
1) A, B, C 2) A, B, D, E
3) D, E 4) B, C, E
113
Group 17 - Halogen family

12. Which of the following is wrong regarding halogens ?
1) Halogens have very high ionisation enthalpy
2) The negative electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less than that of chlorine
3) Order of bond dissociation enthalpy : Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
4) Order of acidic strength : HF > HCl > HBr > HI
13. Halogens form many oxides with oxygen. Which statement is incorrect ?
1) O2F2 oxidises plutonium to PuF6 and the reaction is used in removing plutonium as PuF6 from
spent nuclear fuel
2) Chlorine oxides are highly reactive oxidising agents and tends to explode
3) Bromine oxides are the most stable halogen oxides
4) Iodine oxides are insoluble solids. I2O5 is used in the estimation of carbon monoxide
14. On heating NaCl with H2SO4 and MnO2, the halogen that can be prepared is
1) I2 2) Cl2 3) Br2 4) F2
15. Bleaching propertie of chlorine is due to its
1) Oxidising properties 2) Reducing properties
3) Basic properties 4) Disinfecting properties
16. Which are the correct statements ?
A) Hydrogen chloride is prepared in laboratory by heating sodium chloride with conc. sulphuric acid
B) Aqua regia is used for dissolving noble metals
C) Hydrogen chloride is used for extracting glue from bones and purifying bone black
D) Due to high electronegativity and small size, fluorine forms only one oxoacids
E) Interhalogen compounds are ionic molecules and are paramagnetic in nature
F) IF7 has square pyramidal structure
1) A, B, C, D 2) A, B, D, E
3) A, B, C, E 4) A, B, E, F
Group 18 - Noble gases
17. Which are incorrect regarding noble gases ?
1) All these gases except radon and oganesson occur in the atmosphere
249 40
2) Oganesson has been synthetically produced by collision of 98 Cf atoms and 20 Ca ions
3) They have very high melting and boiling points

4) The first ionisation enthalpy of molecular oxygen is almost identical with xenon
18. Xenon reacts with fluorine to form three binary fluorides. Xe reacts with F2 (1 : 5 ratio) at 873 K and
7 bar pressure give
1) XeF2 2) XeF4 3) XeF6 4) XeOF4
114
19. Match the following

A) XeF2 p) Square pyramidal
B) XeF4 q) Distorted octahedral
C) XeF6 r) Linear
D) XeOF4 s) Square planar
E) XeO3 t) Pyramidal
1) A - r, B - s, C - q, D - t, E - p 2) A - r, B - s, C - q, D - p, E - t
3) A - r, B - p, C - q, D - s, E - t 4) A - r, B - t, C - q, D - p, E - s
20. Which of the following is an explosive compound ?
1) XeF2 2) XeO3 3) XeOF4 4) XeF6
115
CHAPTER -24
d AND f BLOCK ELEMENTS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. The outer most electronic configuration of element with atomic number 78 is
1) ns0 (n–1) d10 2) ns1 (n –1) d9 3) ns2 (n –1)d8 4) ns1 (n –1) d10
2. Which of the following transition metal has highest first ionisation enthalpy
1) Sc 2) Y 3) Zn 4) Hg
3. Which of the following oxidation state is normally not observed for chromium in aqueous solution
1) +1 2) +2 3) +3 4) +6
4. Which is incorrect regarding the oxidation state of transition elements
1) Stability : VF2 < VF3 < VF4 < VF5 2) Sc(II) is virtually unknown
3) Ti(IV) is more stable than Ti(III) and Ti (II) 4) Oxidising power : CrO3 < MoO3 < WO3
5. Which among the following is incorrect
1) Mn2+ > Fe2+ > Co2+ > Ni2+ : Ionic size 2) K > Ca > Sc > Ti : Density
3) V < Cr > Mn : M.P. 4) Fe  Co  Ni : Atomic size
6. The following statements are related to standard reduction potentials of the first row T.S. Which is
incorrect
0
1) E M2 / M for copper is positive (0.34 V) accounts for its inability to liberate H2 from acids
2) The values of E for Mn, Ni and Zn are more negative than expected from the trend
0
3) E M3 /M 2 for Mn, Fe, Co are negative
4) Co3+/Co2+ > Mn3+ /Mn2+ > Fe3+/Fe2+ - decreasing order as oxidant

7. Following statements are related to the trends in stability of higher oxidation states. The incorrect
statement is
1) The higher oxidation state is exhibited in oxoanions, fluorides and oxides
2) Copper (I) compounds are unknown in solution
3) Cu2+ oxidise I– to I2
4) Oxidising power : VO 2  Cr2 O 72  MnO 4

116
8. Magnetic moment 35 is true for which of the following pair

1) Co2+, Fe2+ 2) Fe3+, Mn2+ 3) Co3+, Cr2+ 4) Fe2+, Mn2+
9. What would happen when a solution of potassium chromate is treated with an excess of dilute nitric
acid
1) Cr3+ and Cr2 O 72  are formed 2) Cr2 O 72  and H2O are formed
3) Cr2 O 72  is reduced to +3 state of Cr 4) Cr2 O 72  is oxidised to +7 state of Cr
10. MnO2 
I
 MnO 42 
II
 MnO41 I and II are
1) Fusion with KOH/air; electrolytic oxidation
2) Fusion with KOH/KNO3; disproportion in a neutral solution
3) Fusion with HNO3/air; electrolytic reduction
4) Both 1 and 2
11. Cerium (Z = 58) is the first Ln present in monozite, which is incorrect with respect to cerium
1) Common oxidation state possible are +3 and +4
2) +4 is unknown in solution
3) Ce4+ is the best oxidant and analytical reagent
4) Most useful Ln
12. The lanthanoid contraction is responsible for the fact that
1) Zr and Y have about the same radius
2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
13. Which is an incorrect statement
1) Actinoids display a variety of structures
2) An resembles Ln having more compounds in +3 state
3) +3 and +4 actinoid ions tend to hydrolyse
4) Finely divided actinoid have no action in boiling water
14. Which of the following statement is not correct
1) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
2) Ln3C, Ln2C3 and LnC2 are carbides of Ln
3) La is actually an element of transition series rather than lanthanoid series
4) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because lanthanide contraction
15. Actinoids which exhibit +7 oxidation state are
1) 90Th - 97Bk 2) 91Pa - 95Am 3) 92U - 95Am 4) 93Np - 94Pu
117
LEVEL-II
1. In context with the transition element which of the following is incorrect?
1) They exhibit variable oxidation state
2) Many of the transition metal ions are paramagnetic
3) Formation of coloured ions and complex compounds
4) V2O5 is the catalyst in Wacker process
2. Which of the following is wrong about the stability of particular oxidation state in aqueous solution
1) Sc3+ > Sc2+ 2) Ti4+ > Ti3+ 3) Fe3+ > Fe6+ 4) Cu+ > Cu2+
3. Identify which of the following pair of aquated ion exhibit pink colour
1) Cr3+ and Mn2+ 2) Fe2+ and Co3+ 3) Co3+ and Mn2+ 4) Cu2+ and Mn2+
4. Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to K2Cr2O7
1) K2Cr2O7 may be used as oxidising agent in HCl, but not KMnO4
2) Tetrahedral chromate and dichromate are interconvertable is in aqueous solution
M
3) Act as oxidant in acidic medium where eq. mass =
6
4) Solubility of Na2Cr2O7 < K2Cr2O7
5. In dichromate ion, correct statement is
1) There are eight Cr–O bonds and 13 tetrahedral angles
2) Cr–O–Cr bridge bond angle = 126°
3) Six Cr–O bonds are equivalent (163 pm)
4) All are true
6. Paramagnetic and coloured in the following is
1) K2Cr2O7 2) (NH4)2TiCl6 3) VOSO4 4) K3[Cu(CN)4]
7. Which of the following statement is wrong
1) Hg show +1 and +2 oxidation state but not Zn and Cd
2) Increasing order of observed spin only magnetic moment in BM is Cr2+ < Fe2+ < Mn2+
3) In aq. solution Cu2I2 and Cu2(CN)2 are stable
4) Mercurous ion is paramagentic
8. Which of the following statement is incorrect
1) Iron (III) catalyses the reaction between iodide and persulphate ions
2) Interstitial compounds are nonstoichiometric and neither covalent nor ionic
3) Alloy formation is due to similar radii and other characteristics
4) Basic nature : TiO < VO < CrO < MnO < FeO
 2
9. Y 
MnO 4
OH 
 I  
Cr2 O7
H
 X . Sum of oxidation state of central atom in x and y is
1) 7 2) 0 3) 5 4) 3
118
10. Number of millimoles of toluene get oxidised by 25 ml of 0.25 M KMnO4 (Baeyer’s reagent) is
1) 3.12 2) 2.56 3) 4.21 4) 6.25
11. Which is incorrectly paired
1) Ce(SO4)2 - oxident in volumetric analysis
2) Mixed oxides of Ln-catalyst in petroleum cracking
3) Misch metall - Ln + 4-5% Fe
4) Phosphor screen - gas mantles
12. Which statements are incorrect
1) IE1 of Ln are around 600 KJ, the second about 1200 KJ comparable to that of calcium
2) E0 for Ln3+ + 3e– 

 Ln varies from –2.2 V to –2.4 V except Eu(–2.0 V)
3) Sm2+ and Yb2+ are good reductants
4) Chemical twins are also formed due to actinoid contraction
13. Which is correct statement
1) 92U is heaviest primordial element
2) Ce, Pr, Tb, Dy and Nd can exhibit +2 oxidation state
3) Pa, U, Np, Lr can have 6d1 configuration
4) Ln do not react with acid to liberate H2 gas
14. The actinoids exhibit more number of oxidation state in general than the lanthanoids. This is because
1) The 5f orbitals are more buried than the 4f orbitals
2) There is a similarity between 4f and 5f in their angular part of wave function
3) The actinoids are more reactive than the lanthanoids
4) The 5f orbitals extend further from the nucleus than the 4f orbitals
15. Lanthanide for which +2 and +3 oxidation states are common in
1) La 2) Nd 3) Ce 4) Eu
119
CHAPTER -25
CO-ORDINATION COMPOUNDS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Which of the following is a complex salt?
1) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O 2) FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4. 6H2O
3) 4KCN.Fe(CN)2 4) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
2. Match the compounds given in column-I with the oxidation state of cobalt present in it (given in column-
II) and assign the correct code.
Column-I (Compound) Column-II (Oxidation state of Co)
A) [Co(NCS)(NH3)5] (SO4) 1) +4
B) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]SO4 2) 0
C) Na4[Co(S2O3)3] 3) +1
D) [Co2(CO)8] 4) +2
5) +3
1) A  1 ; B  (2); C  (4); D  (5) 2) A   4  ; B  (3); C  (2); D  (1)
3) A   5  ; B  (1); C  (4); D  (2) 4) A   4  ; B  (1); C  (2); D  (3)
3. The IUPAC name of the complex  Co  NH 3  4  H 2 O  Cl  Cl 2 is
1) aquatetraamminechloridocobalt (III) chloride

2) chloridoaquatetraammine cobalt (II) chloride
3) tetraammineaquachloridocobalt (III) chloride
4) tetraamminechloridoaqua cobalt (II) chloride
4. Which of the following in aq.solutions of the same concentration has the highest molar conductivity?
1) tetraamminedichloridoplatinum (IV) chloride
2) hexaaquachromium (III) chloride
3) diamminedichlorido platinum (II)
4) pentaamminechloridocobalt (III) chloride
120
5. When 0.1 mol of a cobalt complex is treated with excess of AgNO3 solution, 28.7 g of AgCl is precipitated.
The formula of the complex is
1)  Co  NH 3 3 Cl3  2)  Co  NH 3 6  Cl3
3)  Co  NH 3 5 Cl  Cl2 4)  Co  NH 3 4 Cl2  Cl . (Ag =108, Cl = 35.5)
6. Linkage isomerism in coordination compounds is due to the presence of

1) Monodentate groups which have two different donor atoms
2) bidentate groups which can form rings
3) bidentate groups which cannot form rings
4) multidentate groups
7. Which of the following can show geometrical isomerism?
1)  MA 2 B2   tetrahedral  2)  MAB2 C   square planar 
3)  MA3B  square planar  4)  MABCD   tetrahedral 
(M is the central metal. A, B, C and D are monodentate ligands)

8. The no.of geometrical isomers that can exist for the square planar complex

 Pt  NH3  Cl  NH 2 OH  py   is
1) 4 2) 6 3) 3 4) 2
9. Diamagnetic complex among the following
3 3 3
1) Co  C2O4 3  2) Fe  CN 6  3) FeF6  4) Mn  CN 6 
3
10. A spin only magnetic moment of 1.73 BM is shown by:

2 2
1)  Ni  CN  4  2)  FeF6  3) Cu  NH 3  4  4)  CoCl 6 
3 4
(Atomic Nos = Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29)

11. Match the complex ions given in Column-I with the hybridisation and number of unparired electrons
given in Column-II and assign the correct code:
Column-I (Complex ion) Column-II (Hybridisation, number of unpared electrons)
A) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ i) dsp2,1
B) [Co(CN)4]2– ii) sp3d2,5
C) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ iii) d2sp3, 3
D) [MnF6]4– iv) sp3, 4
v) sp3d2, 2
1) A   3 ; B  (1); C  (5); D  (2) 2) A   4  ; B  (3); C  (2); D  (1)
3) A   3 ; B  (2); C  (4); D  (1) 4) A   4  ; B  (1); C  (2); D  (3)

121
12.  Cr  H 2 O 6  Cl3 has a spin only magnetic moment of 3.83 BM. The correct distribution of 3d electrons
in the chromium of this complex is
1 1 1 1 1 1
1) 3d xy , 3d yz , 3d xz 2) 3d xy , 3d yz , 3d z2
1 1 1 1 1 1
3) 3d xy , 3d x 2  y2 , 3d yz 4) 3d x 2  y 2 , 3d xy , 3d z 2
13. The CFSE of the high spin complex [CrL6]2+ where L is a neutral monodentate ligand is:
1) –0.8  0  P 2) 0.6  0
3) –1.6  0 + P 4) –1.2  0 (Atomic Number : Cr = 24)
14. Identify incorrect statement

1) Vit B12 contains cobalt (III) 2) Haemoglobin contains iron (II)
3) Chlorophyll contains calcium 4) Carboxypeptidase contains zinc (II)
15. The hybridization, oxidation number of central metal ion and shape of Wilkinson’s catalyst are
1) dsp2, +1, square planar 2) sp3, +4, tetrahedral
3) sp3d, +2, trigonal bipyramidal 4) d2sp3, +6, octahedral
LEVEL - II
1. Among the following the most stable complex is
1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ 2) [Fe(NH3)6]3+ 3) [Fe(C2O4)3]3– 4) [FeCl6]3–
2. EDTA 4– is ethylenediaminetetraacetate ion. The total number of N–Co–O bond angles in

Co  EDTA   is
1) 6 2) 8 3) 4 4) 3
3. Formula of sodium nitroprusside is
1) Na2 Fe(CN)5 NO 2) Na3[Fe(CN)5 NO]
3) Na2[Fe(CN)5H2O] 4) Na4[Fe(CN)4NO]
4. For which of the following pairs is the EAN of central metal atom not same?
3 3 3 3
1) Fe  CN 6  and Fe  NH3 6  2) Cr  NH3   and Cr  CN6 
3 2
3) FeF6  and Fe  CN 6  4) Ni  CO4  and Ni  CN 4 
3
5. When 1 mol CrCl3 . 6H2O is treated with excess of AgNO3.3 mol of AgCl are obtained. The formula of
the complex is
1)  CrCl3  H 2 O 3  .3H 2 O 2)  CrCl2  H 2 O 4  Cl 2 .2H 2 O
3)  CrCl  H 2 O 5  Cl 2 .H 2 O 4)  Cr  H 2 O 6  Cl3
122
6. Pick out the correct statement about structural isomerism
1)  Co  ONO  NH 3 5  Cl2 and  Co  NH 3 5  NO 2   Cl 2 are solvation isomers
2) ortho, meta and para-toluidine are legands which induces ligand isomerism
3)  Pt  NH 3  4   PtCl6  and  Pt  NH 3  4 Cl 2   PtCl4  have no difference in their physical and chemical

properties
4)  Co  NH 3 5 SO 4  Br and  Co  H 2 O 5 Br  SO 4 are ionisation isomers
7. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the stereoisomerism of the complexes noted
below (where M stands for a metal and a, b, c and d are achiral ligands?
1) In the cis and trans isomers of the octahedral complex (Ma2b4) the two ligands occupy the position
1, 2 and 1, 6 respectively
2) The facial and meridional isomers of the octahedral complex (Ma3b3) possess three identical ligands
(a or b) at positions 1, 2, 3 and 1, 2, 6 respectivley
3) The octahedral complex M  abcd AA where AA is a bidentate ligand should have 12 stereo
isomers
4) The facial and meridional isomers of Ma3b3 octahedral complex are both optically active
8. The difference between the number of geometrical isomers of the compound of the type Ma 2 b 2 c2
and Ma 3b 2 c is
1) 3 2) 0 3) 1 4) 2
9. Which of the following complex species is not expected to show optical isomerism?
 
4)  Co  NH 3 3 Cl3 
3
1)  Co  en 3  2) CoCl 2  en 2  3) Co  NH 3  2 Cl 2  en  
10. For the octahedral complexes of Fe3+ in SCN– (thiocyanato-S) and in CN– ligand environments, the
difference between the spin-only magnetic moments in B.M. (when approximated to the nearest integer)
is
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) Zero (Fe, Z = 26)
11. The correct order of the wavelength of absorption in the visible region is
4 2 2
1)  Ni  NO 2 6  <  Ni  NH 3 6  <  Ni  H 2 O 6 
2 4
2)  Ni  NH 3 6   Ni  H 2 O 6 ]2    Ni  NO 2 6 
2 2 4
3)  Ni  H 2 O 6    Ni  NH 3 6    Ni  NO 2 6 
2 2 4
4)  Ni  NO 2 6    Ni  H 2 O 6    Ni  NH 3 6 
123
12. Identify correct statemetns

A) Removal of water from [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3 on heating renders it colourless
B) Anhydrous CuSO4 is white, but CuSO4.5H2O is blue in colour
C) The bidentate ligand ethane 1, 2-diamine is added to [Ni(H2O)6]2+ complex in the molar ratio 3 : 1,
the colour of new complex fomed in pale blue
D) Ruby is Al2O3 containing about 0-5 - 1% Cr3+ ions, which are radomly distributed in positions
normally occupied by Al3+
1) A only correct 2) A, B, C, D are correct
3) A, B and D are correct 4) A and B are correct
13. Which of the following complex does not absorbs light from visible region
1) [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ 2) [Co(NH3)6]3+ 3) [Co(CN)6]3– 4) [Cu(H2O)4]2+
14. The low spin complex of a d6 metal ion in an octahedral field will have the following CFSE:
2 12 2 12
1)   0  P 2)   0  3P 3)   0  2P 4)   0  2P
5 5 5 5
15. The CFSE for octahedral [CoCl6]4– is 18,000 cm–1. The CFSE for tetrahedral [CoCl4]2– will be
1) 18,000 cm–1 2) 16,000 cm–1 3) 8,000 cm–1 4) 20,000 cm–1
16. Jahn Teller distorsion is observed in the following configurations
A) d4 - strong field B) d4 - weak field
C) d7 - weak field D) d9 both weak and strong field
1) B and D 2) A and C 3) A, B, C, D 4) A and D
17. What is the ratio of uncomplexed to complexed Zn2+ ion in solution which is 10M in NH3, if the stability
constant of [Zn (NH3)4]2+ is 3  109
1) 3.3  10 9 2) 3.3  10 11 3) 3.3  10 14 4) 3  1013

18. Which of the following is not a  bonded organometallic compound?
1) Zeise’s salt 2) Ferrocene
3) Frankland’s compound 4) Dibenzene chromium
19. Which of the following metal carbonyls has the longest C–O bond length?
 2
1)  Ni  CO  4 

2) Co  CO  4  3)  Fe  CO 4  4)  Mn  CO 6 
20. Identify incorrect statements
A)  -nitroso-  -naphthol, cupron and EDTA are used in qualitative and quantitative chemical analysis
B) Rhodium complex [(Ph3P)3RhCl] is used for ozonolysis of alkenes
C) In Black and White photography, the developed film is fixed by washing with hypo solution which
dissolves the undecomposed AgBr to form a complex ion (Ag(S2O3)4]3–
D) D-Pencillamine and desferrioxime-B are used in chelate therapy
1) 1 only 2) B and C 3) A, B, C 4) B and D
124
CHAPTER - 26
HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Which of the following is a vinyl halide?
1) Chloroethane 2) 3-Bromo-2-methyl but-1-ene
3) 1-Bromobut-2-ene 4) 1-Bromocyclohexene
2. Allylic bromination is carried out with
1) HBr/H2O2 2) HOBr 3) NBS 4)Br2/CS2
NH2
3. In the chemical reactions 

298K

NaNO2 / HCl
 A 
1) HBF4
2) 
B
The compound A and B respectively are

1) Benzenediazonium chloride and flurobenzene
2) Nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
3) Nitrobenzene and flurobenzene
4) Phenol and benzene
4. Among the following derivatives of ethane, the one having the highest boiling point is
1) C2H5F 2) C2H5Cl 3) C2H5Br 4) C2H5I
5. Which of the following compounds would be hydrolysed most easily
1) C2H5Cl 2) C2H5Br 3) C2H5F 4) C2H5I
6. Which of the following would produce ethyl isocyanide as the major product on reaction with C2H5Br
1) KCN 2) CH3CN 3) AgCN 4) CH3NC
7. Among the following compounds, the most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction is
1) CH2 = CH – Cl 2) C2H5Cl 3) CH3 – CH = CHCl 4) ClCH2 - CH = CH2
8. A primary alkyl halide would prefer to undergo
1) SN1 reaction 2) SN2 reaction 3)  -elimination 4) Racemisation
125
9. Consider the following bromides
I) I Br
II)
Br
III)
Br
The correct order of SN1 reactivity is
1) III > II > I 2) I > II > III 3) II > III > I 4) II > I > III
10. A mixture of equal parts of (+) and (-) enantiomers is called
1) Homogeneous mixture 2) Equilibrium mixture
3) Racemic mixture 4) None of the above
11. An optically active alkyl halide when allowed to react with OH gives a racemic mixture. The halide
is most likely to be
1) Primary 2) Secondary 3) Tertiary 4) None of these
12. Dehydrobromination of the following is in the order
Br
Br
I) I Br II) III)
1) III > II > I 2) I > II > III 3) II > III > I 4) II > I > III
13. Order of reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution reaction of the compounds
NMe2 NO2 Cl Cl
NO2 O2N NO2
I) II) III) IV)
Cl Cl NO2 NO2
1) I > II > III > IV 2) II > I > III > IV

3) IV > III > II > I 4) III > IV > II > I
14. When chloroform reacts with acetone, the product formed is
1) Ethylidene dichloride 2) Mesitylene
3) Chloretone 4) Chloral
15. ‘Pyrene’ is the trade name of which of the following compounds when used as fire extinguisher
1) CO2 2) CHCl3 3) CCl4 4) CH2Cl2
126
LEVEL-II
1. When silver propoinate is heated with Br2 in CCl4 as solvent, the product is
1) Propionyl bromide 2) n-propyl bromide
3) Iso-propyl bromide 4) Ethyl bromide
2. In the reaction 

NBS
h
  A  . Compound A is
Br
Br
1) 2) 3) 4)
Br
3. Neopentyl alcohol on treatment with HBr gives

1) Neopentyl bromide
2) 2-Bromo-2-methyl butane
3) 2-methyl-but-2-ene
4) 2-methyl but-1-ene
4. Chlorination of toluene in the presence of light and heat followed by treatment with excess aqueous
NaOH gives
1) o-cresol 2) p-cresol
3) Mixture of o-creson and p-cresol 4) Benzoic acid
5. Major product of this reaction CH CH CH3 + HBr A . A is
CH2 CH CH3 CH CH2 CH3

1) 2)
Br Br
CH2 CH2 CH3

3) CH2 CH2 CH2 Br 4)
Br
6. Which of the following would undergo SN2 reaction faster?
1) F 2) Cl
3) Br 4) I
127
7. What will be the major product of the following reaction
Br 
H 2O
 Product
OH
1) 2) OH 3) 4)
8. Which of the following compounds can exhibit both geometrical isomerism and enantiomerism
CH3
1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 2) CH3 CH2 CH CH CH CH3
CH3
OH
3) CH3 CH2 C CH COOH 4)
CH3 CH COOH
9. Secondary butyl chloride obtained by free radical chlorination of n-butane is always
1) Dextrorotatory 2) Laevorotatory 3) Racemic mixture 4) None of the above
10. SN2 reaction proceeds through the formation of
1) Carbocation 2) Transition state 3) Free radical 4) Carbanion
CH2 CH2
11. CH3 C C CH3 

 excess  
HBr / Peroxide
A  B
 Optically active   Optically inactive 
A and B are respectively
CH2Br CH3
CH2Br CH3
H CH3 H Br H Br
H CH3
1) and 2) H Br and
H CH3 H H
H3C H
CH3 CH3
CH2Br CH2Br
CH3
CH2Br CH3
CH2Br
H Br
H3C H Br H
H CH3
3) and 4) and H Br
H 3C H H Br
H3C H
CH3
CH2Br CH3
CH2Br
128
12. Compounds P, Q, R and S react with KI in acetone by SN2 mechanism. The rates of the reaction is
in the order of
Cl
P = CH3Cl Q = CH3 CH CH3
R = CH3 – CH2 – Cl S = CH3 C CH2 Cl

1) P > Q > R > S 2) S > P > R > Q 3) P > R > Q > S 4) R > P > S > Q
13. In the following reaction
Br

KOH (alcohol)

 . The predominant product is
1) 2) 3) 4) None
MeOK+
X (Major)
Br 
14. CH3 CH C CH3
CH3 CH3 Et3COK+

Y(Major)

X and Y compounds are respectivley
H3C CH3 (CH3)2CH H
C C C C
1) and
CH3 H
H3C H3C
(CH3)2CH H H3C CH3
C C C
2) C and CH3
H H3C
H3C
H3C CH3 C2H5 CH3

C C C C
3) CH3 and
H3C C2H5 C2H5
H C(CH3)3 H3C CH3

C C C C
4) and CH3
H CH3 H3C
129
15. In the following reactions
Br
I) Ph CH3 

 Ph
Alc.KOH
CH2 + HBr
Br
II) 
Alc.KOH

 Ph CD2 + DBr
Ph CD3
If the rate of reaction I is faster than that of II, by which mechanism do both the reactions proceed?
1) E1 2) E2
3) E1CB 4)  -elimination
16. 1, 3-dichloro propane reacts with Zn dust gives the major product
1) Propane 2) Propene
3) Cyclopropane 4) n-propyl iodide
17. Consider the following substitution reactions and its mechanism
Cl
OH
+ OH 
 + Cl
NO2
NO2
Cl OH
HO Cl
Cl
+ OH
NO2 NO2 NO2

(I) (II)
Select the correct statement

1) Formation of II is the rate determining step
2) It is an example of electrophilic substitution reaction
3) Formations of I is the rate determining step
4) Reaction occurs at ordinary temperature and pressure
130
18. Among the following, the reaction that proceeds through an electrophilic substitution is
Cu2Cl2
1) N N Cl Cl + N2
AlCl3
2) Cl2 Cl + HCl
Cl Cl
UV light
3) Cl2 Cl Cl
Cl Cl
4) CH2OH + HCl 

 CH2Cl + H2O
Cu / 
19.   P . P is
CH3
CH3
1) 2) CH2 CH2
3) H3C CH3 4) CH3
20. Chloroform on boiling with ethanolic aqueous KOH, the product is

1) Potassium acetate 2) Potassium formate 3) CCl4 4) Chloretone
131
CHAPTER - 26
ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Which one of the following is secondary alcohol ?
1) neopentyl alcohol 2) isopropyl alcohol
3) tertiarybutyl alcohol 4) isobutyl alcohol
2. The compound containing C  OH bond is
sp2
1) vinylic alcohol 2) phenol

3) benzylic alcohol 4) both 1 & 2
3. Name of the following compound is
O CH3
1) methylphenyl ether 2) methoxy benzene

3) anisole 4) All
3i) BH
4. CH3 CH CH2   X. X is
ii) H O ,NaOH
2 2
1) Propan-2-ol 2) Butan-2-ol 3) Propan-1-ol 4) Butan-1-ol

5. The order of acidic nature of the following alcohols is
CH3
CH3 OH CH3 CH2 OH CH3 CH CH3 CH3 C OH
OH CH3
I II III IV
1) IV > III > II > I 2) III > II > I > IV 3) IV > III > II = I 4) I > II > III > IV
132
6. CH2 OH on dehydration with conc. H2SO4 predominantly forms
1) CH2 2) CH3 3) CH3 4) CH3
CH3
Cu
7. CH3 C OH X . X is
573 K
CH3
CH3
1) CH3 C CH2 2) CH3 – CO – CH3
CH3
3) CH3 C CHO 4) CH3 – CHO
CH3
8. Order of acidic strength of the following phenols is

i) p-cresol ii) quinol iii) phenol iv) p-nitrophenol
1) i > ii > iii > iv 2) iv > iii > i > ii 3) iv > iii > ii > i 4) ii > i > iii > iv
, e A
OH sur
OH Na pres
h +
Hig ,H
CO
9. 2
CHCl3, NaOH B
Na
2C
r2 O
7, H
2 SO
4 C
The product A, B, C are respectively

1) salicylic acid, salicyl aldehyde, benzo quinone
2) salicyl aldehyde, salicylic acid, benzo quinone
3) salicylic acid, salicylic acid, benzo quinone
4) salicyl aldehyde, salicyl aldehyde, quinones
133
10. The compound added to denatured spirit to develop colour is

1) copper sulphate 2) pyridine
3) methanol 4) none
11. CH3 CH2 Br + CH3 CH ONa X
CH3
The product X and the reaction proceeds by

1) CH2 = CH2, E2
2) CH3 – CH = CH2, E2
3) CH3 CH2 O CH CH3, SN2
CH3
4) CH3 CH2 O CH CH3, SN1
CH3
12. What product is formed when diethyl ether on exposure to light and air for a long period
1) ether hydroperoxide
2) ethyl alcohol
3) diethyl ketone
4) ethane
O CH3
HBr
13. A+B
high temp.
A and B are respectively
Br OH
1) , CH3 – OH 2) , CH3 – Br
CH3 O CH2 Br
3) , HOBr 4)
134
CH3
14. R Br + R' ONa CH3 C O CH2 CH3
CH3
R and R' must be
CH3
1) R CH3 C R' CH3 CH2
CH3
CH3
2) R CH3 CH2 R' CH3 C
CH3
3) R CH3 CH R' CH3 CH2 CH2
CH3
4) R  CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – R'' CH3 CH2
15. 4 - nitro anisole is prepared by reacting
Br ONa
CH3ONa CH3 Br
1) 2)
NO2 NO2
ONa ONa
CH3 Br CH3 CH2 Br

3) 4)
NO2
NO2
135
LEVEL- II
1. Total number of structural isomers possible for the molecular formula C4H10O is
1) 4
2) 5
3) 6
4) 7
2. Ethanol can be prepared by all methods except
1) C2H5NH2  HNO2
2) C2H5MgBr  H2O
3) C2H5I  KOH(aq)
4) CH3CHO  NaBH4
3. In the following sequence of reactions


P  I2
CH3  CH2  OH 
 A 
Mg
ether
B 
HCHO
 C 
H3O
D. The compound D is
1) CH3  CH2  CH2  CH2  OH
OH
2) CH3 CH CH2 CH3
3) CH3  CH2  CH2  OH
4) CH3  CH2  CH  O
H OH
4. CH3 C CH CH2  CH3 C CH2 CH3. The conversion can be done by
CH3 CH3
1) Acid catalysed hydration

2) Ozonolysis
3) Hydroboration - oxidation
4) Oxymercuration - demercuration
136
O O
C C
5. H OCH3 
LiAlH4
 P . Product P formed is
O
O OH
OH C
C OCH3
1) OCH3 2)
OH
O
OH
C
OH H OH
3) 4)
OH OH
6. The reaction of neopentyl alcohol with SOCl2 gives

1) 2-chloro-2-methyl butane 2) Neopentyl chloride
3) 2-methyl-2-butene 4) a mixture of neopentyl chloride and 2-methyl-2-butene
7. Rate of esterification of the following alcohols with methanoic acid will be in the order
1) Butan-1-ol > propan-1-ol > ethanol > methanol
2) Ethanol > methanol > propan-1-ol > butan-1-ol
3) Methanol > ethanol > propan-1-ol > butan-1-ol
4) Methanol = ethanol > propan-1-ol > butan-1-ol
8. Major dehydration product of the given reaction is
OH

conc.H2SO4


CH2
1) 2) 3) 4)
137
9. The relative rate of acid catalysed dehydration of following alcohols would be :
CH3
CH3
CH CH2 CH2 OH
CH CH CH3
OH
I II
CH3
CH3
CH3 C CH2 CH2 OH

CH CH2
CH3
OH
III IV
1) III > I > IV > II 2) III > IV > I > II 3) I > III > IV > II 4) III > IV > I > II
10. The alcohol that will give an yellow ppt. on heating with iodine and alkali is
OH
1) CH2 CH2 OH 2) CH
CH3
OH
C OH
3) CH CH3 4)
CH3
11. Consider the following reaction,

OH Cl
SOCl2 CH CH3
CH3 CH2 CH CH3 
ether
 CH3 CH2
In the above reaction which phenomenon will take place :

1) Inversion 2) Retention
3) Racemisation 4) Isomerisation
12. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of C–OH bond length?
1) Phenol < methanol < para ethoxy phenol
2) Phenol < para ethoxy phenol < methanol
3) Methanol < para ethoxy phenol < phenol
4) Methanol < phenol < para ethoxy phenol
138
13. Which of the following compounds has the most acidic character
1) CH2OH 2) OH
3) OH 4) CH
OH
14. The correct order of acidic strength of the following substituted phenols in water at 28°C is
OH OH OH OH OH OH
1) < < 2) < <
NO2 F Cl Cl F NO2
OH OH OH OH OH OH
3) < < 4) < <
F Cl NO2 F NO2 Cl
15. Consider the following reaction
OH
CH3 Cl

Zn dust

 X 
anhy.AlCl3
 Y 
alk.KMnO4
 Z . The product Z is
CH3 CHO
1) 2)
COOH
3) 4)
139
16. A compound containing two –OH groups attached to one carbon atom is unstable. But which one of
the following is stable
OH
OH
1) CH3 CH 2) CH3 C OH
OH
OH
OH
3) CCl3 CH 4) None of these
OH
17. Which of the following is the best procedure to prepare methyl isopropyl ether by Williamson’s method?
1) CH3  OH   CH3 2 CHOH  H2SO4 
2) CH3  OH   CH3 2 CH  CH2OH  H2SO4 
3) CH3ONa   CH3 2 CHBr 
4) CH3I   CH3 2 CHONa 
18. on reaction with conc.HBr gives

O
1) 2) 3) 4)
OH Br Br OH
O
19. (X) and (Y) in the following reaction are respectively :
HBr
Me O CH2 X+Y
OH CH3 OH CH2OH OH CH2Br

OH CH2OH
1) 2) 3) 4)
Br Me Br Me
20. The reaction of O with RMgX followed by hydrolysis leads to the formation of
1) RCHOHR 2) RCHOHCH3 3) R2CHCH2OH 4) RCH2CH2OH

140
CHAPTER - 28
ALDEHYDES AND KETONES
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. A compound with MF C5H10O can have how many isomeric carbonyl compounds?
1) 4 2) 5
3) 7 4) 6
2. Which among the following is not correctly matched?
1) CH3–CHO and CH2 = CH–OH Tautomers
2) CH3–CH2–CHO and CH3 C CH3 Functional isomers
OH
3) CH3 – CH2 – CHO and Ring chain isomers
4) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CHO and CH3 CH CH3 Position isomers
CHO
3. Identify the product Y in the following reaction sequence
CH2 CH2 COO

 Zn  Hg / HCl
Ca   X  
 Y
CH2 CH2 COO
1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 2)
3) 4)
141
4. Which of the following product is obtained during the following reaction

2 
C6 H 5C  C  CH 3  H 2O 
Hg / H
?
1) C6 H 5  CH 2  CH 2  CHO 2) C6 H 5  C  CH 2  CH 3
O O
C CH3
3) C6H5 CH2 4) C6 H5  C  C  CH 3
O
5. Match the following transformation
Reaction Reagent required
CH3 CHO
1) a) CrO3 in (CH3CO)2O
NO2 NO2
2) CH3 CH2 C CH CH3 CH2 C CH3 b) B2H6/ NaOH and H2O2
3) CH 3  CH 2  C  CH  CH 3  CH 2  CH 2  CHO c) HgSO4/dil.H2SO4
4) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH 2  OH  CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2 CHO d) K2Cr2O7/H+
OH O
5) 
 e) P.C.C.
12345 12345
1) 2)
abcde bcdea
12345 12345
3) 4)
acbed acebd
6. In the conversion of Grignard reagent to aldehydes, which of the following compound are suitable
1) Ethyl formate 2) Ethyl acetate 3) HCN 4) Both 1 and 3
142
C CH3
7. . This ketone will not be formed by
1) Reaction of benzene and acetyl chloride in the presence of AlCl3

2) Reaction of acetonitrile with phenyl magnesium bromide in ether followed by hydrolysis
3) Treatment of acetylchloride with dibenzyl cadmium
4) Addition of water to phenyl acetylene in presence of HgSO4 and dil.H2so4
8. Which one of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction
CHO CHO COCH3 CHO
1) 2) 3) 4)
CH3 OCH3 CH3 NO2

9. A carbonyl compound reacts with HCN to form a cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis forms a mixture of
 -hydroxy acids. The carbonyl compound is
CHO
O O
1) H–CHO 2) 3) CH3 C CH3 4) C H C C2H5

2 5
10. Benzaldehyde and acetone can be best distinguished using

1) Fehling solution 2) NaOH 3) 2, 4-DNPH 4) Tollen’s reagent
11. Identify the following false statement
1) Methanal is more reactive than ethanal towards nucleophilic addition reaction
2) Nucleophilic addition of ammonia derivatives to carbonyl compounds carried out in weakly acidic
medium
3) Acetophenone form white crystalline product with NaHSO3
4) Borsche’s reagent can be used as test for aldehydes and ketones
12. Compound A (MF C3H8O) is treated with K2Cr2O7/H+, to form product B (MF C3H6O). B form a shining
silver mirror on warming with Tollen’s reagent. B when warmed with an aqueous solution of
H2NCONHNH2–HCl and sodium acetate gives a product C. Identify the structure of C
1) CH3 – CH2 – CH = N NHCONH2 2) CH3 C N NHCONH2
CH3
3) CH3 C N CONHNH2 4) CH3 – CH2 – CH = NCONHNH2
CH3
143
13. The reducing agent recommended for the following reduction is
CH CHCOCH3 CH CH CH2 CH3

Re agent
HO HO
1) Zn-Hg/HCl 2) Na in liq. NH3
3) NaBH4 4) NH2 – NH2, KOH, CH2 OH
CH2 OH
14. P 
(1) CH3MgBr
(2) H O
 Q 
(1) dil.NaOH
(2) 
 4-methyl pent-3-en-2-one. The compund P is
3
1) CH3 C CH3
2) C2H5 – NH2
3) CH3–CN
4) CH3 – CHO
15. Which of the following can undergo Cannizzaro’s reation
CHO H
CH3 C CHO
1) H–CHO 2) 3) 4) All
CH3
LEVEL-II
X   Y  Z . ‘Y’ can be obtained by Etard’s reaction. Z undergoes disproportionation reaction

Reductive
1. Ozonolysis
with con.NaOH. ‘X’ can be
C CH CH CH2
1) 2)
CH3
CH CH CH3 CH C
3) 4) CH3
144
O O
2. The diketone CH3 C (CH2)2 C CH3 on intramolecular aldol condensation gives the final
product
O O O OH
OH
1) 2) 3) 4)
CH3 CH3 CH3
3. The condensation reaction between one equivalent of acetone and two equivalents of benzaldehyde
in presence of dil. alkali leads to the formation of
1) Benzalacetophenone 2) Benzylidene acetone
3) Dibenzal acetone 4) Benzoic acid
CHO
(1)con:NaOH/ 
4. 
(2) H O 
 . The product of the reaction is
CHO 3
COOH C
1) 2) O
COOH
CH2
CH2 OH COOH
3) OH 4)
CH2 CH2 OH
5. Which of the following compound will undergo Haloform reaction with NaOH and I2
O O O
1) C OCH3 2)
CH3 C CH2 C O C2H5
O CH3 COCH3
C C
3) CH3 C O CH3 4)
H CH3
6. The reaction of cyclohexanone with dimethylamine in the presence of catalytic amount of an acid
forms a compound if water during the reaction is removed. The product formed is known as
1) An amine 2) An iminie 3) An enamine 4) Schiff’s base
145
7. Which of the following is a best hydride ion donor than C6H5 C O in Cannizzaro’s reaction
O
O
H C H C O
O
1) 2)
OCH3 CH3
O
O
H C O H C O
3) 4)
NO2 OH
8. Aromatic carbonyl compounds having molecular formula C8H8O react with NH2OH, how many oximes
can be formed
1) 8 2) 10
3) 12 4) 6
9. Which of the following statement is false.
1) Acraldehyde can be oxidised into acrylic acid by Tollen’s and Fehling’s solution
2) Pent-2-one can be oxidised to butanoic acid by OI–
3) CH3 – CH = CH – CHO can be reduced to CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2–OH by Li[AlH4]
4) Allyl alcohol can be oxidised to acrolein by PCC or active MnO2
10. Which of the following reagents reacts violently and differently with H–CHO, CH3–CHO and CH3 –
CO–CH3 to form various products
1) HCN 2) NH2 – NH2
3) NH2OH 4) NH3
146
11. Which statement is incorrect in the case of acetaldehyde and acetone

1) Both react with hydroxylamine
2) Both react with NaHSO3 solution
3) Both develop a pink colour quickly with Schiff’s reagent
4) Both react with Grignard reagent
12. Identify ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ in the following reaction.
OH

CHCl3
NaOH
 X 
conc.NaOH

Y + Z
CH2OH OH OH COOH
COONa
1) + 2) +
OH OH OH COOH
COONa COONa
CH2OH
3) + 4) +
CHO CH2OH COO

13. In the Cannizzaro’s reaction given below, 2 
OH
 +
The rate determining step is

1) The attack of OH– at the carbonyl group
2) The transfer of H– ion to the 2nd carbonyl group
CH2 OH
3) The deprotonation of
4) The abstraction of proton from the carboxylic acid

14. Compunds (A) and (C) in the following reaction are:
CH 3  CHO 
(1)CH 3MgBr
(2) H O 
 H 2SO 4 ; 
(A)  (B) 
Hydroboration
oxidation
 C
3
1) Identical 2) Functional isomers 3) Optical isomers 4) Position isomers

15. Which of the following reaction does not involve carbon-carbon bond formation
1) Aldol condensation 2) Claisen-Schmidt condensation
3) Friedel-Craft’s reactions 4) Cannizzaro’s reaction
147
CHAPTER - 29
CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
O
A C O
1. H C H C
B O H D
O
(C – O) bond lengths designated by A, B, C and D are in order :

1) A = C < B = D
2) A < B < C = D
3) A < C = D < B
4) All equal
2. CH2F
1.Mg, diethyl ether

+

2.CO2 , 3.H3O
Br
CH2 COOH
COOH
1) 2)
COOH
COOH
COOH CH2COOH
3) 4)
CH2F Br
148
CH2CN
3. H O, acetic acid

2
H SO heat

2 4
Cl
COOH
CH2 COOH
1) 2)
Cl
Cl
COOCH3
CH3
3) 4)
Cl
Cl
4. The final product of the following reaction sequence is
Me CCl
3 3 2 CH CH CH Cl
2 KMnO /OH

AlCl
 
AlCl
 

4 
3 3
COOH COOH
1) 2)
COOH
COOH CMe3
3) 4)
COOH
COOH
5. Identify X in the reaction sequence
Br KCN H O
X 
2
CCl
 
3  HOOC  CH2  CH2  COOH
4
1) CH3 – CH3 2) CH2 = CH2 3) H  C  C  H 4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
149
6. Which compound should have zero dipole moment ?
O O O O
C C C C
1) 2)
H5C2O OH HO Cl
3) CN CN 4) N C N
7. Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociation constant ?
1) CH3 CH COOH
NO2
2) O2N – CH2 – CH2 – COOH

3) Cl – CH2 – CH2 – COOH
4) NC – CH2 – CH2 – COOH
 14 
8. When picric acid is treated with aqueous sodium bicarbonate  NaH C O3  a gas is liberated with
 
effervescence. The gas evolved would be :
1) H2 2) CO2
3) CO2
14
4) NO2
9. Find product of this reaction is
O
NaBH H / 
CH3  C  CH2  CH2  CH2  COOH 
4  
CH3
O
1) 2)
O O
H3C O
O O
3) 4)
O
O
150
10. The product of the following reaction is

14
LiAlH 3SOCl KCN H O
CH3  COOH 
4  
2   P
1) CH3 – COOH
14
2) CH  CH  C OOH
3 2
14
3) CH  C OOH
3
14
4) CH  C H  COOH
3 2
11. For the following conversion
CH3 CH3
CH3 C CH2 COOH CH3 C COOH
CH3 CH3
NaOH/CaO Br /h Mg (i) CO

1)    
2 2
 ether (ii) H
NaOH/CaO Br2 /h KCN H3O 

2)      
 ether
NaOH/CaO Br2 /h KCN NaC2H5OH KMnO4 /H 

3)       
 ether
NaO H/ CaO
4)   Br /h  aq. KO H KMnO 4 /O H
   2            
12. In the reaction sequence X & Y are
CH3 KMnO4
NaOH
X
Et CH2 Cl
Mg CO2
Y
H ether
H
1) Homologues
2) Identical
3) Structural isomers
4) Enantiomers
151
CO2H
(i) P/Br2
13. X, X is :
(ii) H2O
COOH
CO2Br
1) 2)
Br
Br Br
3) 4) CO2H
CO2H
C2H5 C2H5
H3O
14. CH3 CH COOH + CH3 CH OH
(d) d  
x + y the organic products x and y are :
1) Enantiomers
2) Diastereomers
3) Metamers
4) Achiral molecules
15. In the given reaction
  X ,  X will be
(i)Br /P
CH3 COOH  2
(ii)NaCN
(iii)H2O/H / 
1) CH3 – COOH 2) HOOC – CH2 – CH2 – COOH
O
O
C
CH2 C
O
3) O 4) CH2
CH2 C
C
O
O
152
LEVEL- II
1. Nucleophilic substitution at acyl carbon of a carboxylic acid derivative generally proceeds by
1) Addition-elimination mechanism
2) Elimination-addition mechanism
3) SN1 mechanism
4) SN2 mechanism
2. The correct order of decreasing reactivity of the given compound towards hydrolysis under identical
condition is :
1) CH3COCl > CH3CONH2 > (CH3CO)2O > CH3COOCH3
2) CH3COCl > (CH3CO)2O > CH3COOCH3 > CH3CONH2
3) CH3COOCH3 > CH3COCl > (CH3CO)2O > CH3CONH2
4) (CH3CO)2O > CH3COCl > CH3COOCH3 > CH3CONH2
3. In the given reaction sequence :

H2O/H/  SOCl 6 5C H /AlCl
3  C,(C) is
C6H5  CN  A 
2  B 
O O
1) C6H5 C C6H5 2) C6H5 C O C6H5
O O
3) C6H5 C NH C6H5 4) C6H5 C O C6H5
4. List the following esters in order of decreasing reactivity in the second step of a nucleophilic acyl
substitution reaction.
O O
(I) CH3 C O C6H5 (II) CH3 C O
O O
(III) CH3 C O CH3 (IV) CH3 C O Cl
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

1) IV > I > III > II
2) IV > III > I > II
3) III > IV > I > II
4) II > I > III > IV
153
5. For the following conversion the correct sequence of reagent is
CH CH2 C C COOH O
CH3
O
OH
H2 /Ni H  Na/Liq.NH3 H 
1)     2)   
 
H2 /Pd/BaSO4 H  H  H2 /Pd/BaSO4
3)    4)   
 
6. In the given reaction
OC2H5
H/ H2O
OCH3 

COOC2H5
[P], [P] will be :

OC2H5 OCH3
1) O 2) 3) 4) O
OH OH
COOC2H5 COOH COOH COOH
7. The product x in the above reaction is
O
O
C OC2H5
C2H5 OC H3O 
O  X
C2H5 OC
C OC2H5
O
O
COOH
1) HOOC O 2) HOOC O
COOH COOH
HOOC HOOC
3) O 4) O
HOOC HOOC
COOH
154
O conc.HI Mg/Ether (i) CO2 Ca OH

8. 
Excess
    
 
2  P . The product P is :
(ii) H
O
O O
1) O 2) 3) 4) O
O
O
9. The correct sequence of reagent for the following conversion.
COOH
O is
COOH
LiAlH4 SOCl2 (i)KCN Ca OH

1)      
  2
(ii)H O  
3
LiAlH4 HI Mg/ether Ca OH NaOH

2)       2   
(ii)H O  CaO/ 
3
LiAlH 3 PCl (i) KCN KOH/CaO

3) 
4     

(ii)H O 
3
LiAlH HCl (i) KCN2 5  NaC H OH

4) 
4   
ZnCl2 (ii)H O 3
10. Following will not yield a cyclic compound on heating :
COOH
COOH CH2 COOH CH2COOH
1) CH2 2) 3) CH2 4)
CH2 COOH
COOH CH2COOH COOH
155
CHAPTER - 30
NITROGEN COMPOUNDS
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
CH2 NO2
1. Fe  HCl 2C H Cl
2 5  B . The product B is
 A 
N(C2H5)2 CH2 N(CH3)2

1) 2)
CH2 N(C2H5)2 CH2 CH2 N(C2H5)2

3) 4)
KCN Na Hg  /C2H5OH

2. CH3  CH2  Cl  A  B
The product B is
1) CH3CH2NH2 2) CH3CH2CH2NH2 3) CH3CN 4) CH3CH2CH2CN
3. Which one of the following amines cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis ?
NH2 CH2 NH2
1) 2) CH3CH2NHCH3 3) 4) Both 1 and 2
4. The intermediates formed during the reaction of R – CONH2 with Br2 and KOH are
O
1) RCONHBr and RCONBr2 2) RNHCOBr and R C N
O
3) RNHBr and RNCO 4) RCONHBr and R C N
5. Which one of the following compound has the second most boiling point ?
1) sec. butylamine 2) Diethylamine
3) Ethyldimethylamine 4) n-butylalcohol
156
6. The decreasing order of basicity of the following amines in aqueous solution is

1) (CH3CH2)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > NH3
2) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5 NH2 > (C2H5)3N > NH3
3) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 > NH3
4) C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2 NH > (C2H5)3N > NH3
7. Which one of the following compound is least basic ?
NH2 CH2 NH2
1) NH3 2) 3) CH3NH2 4)
8. Consider the reaction:
NH 2
1) Br2 KOH
O A. The product A is
CH 3 2) 
O
O
NH NH
1) 2) NH 3) 4)
O
O
O
O
9. The products of B and C in the following reaction is
NH2
CHCl /KOH
3 3 H O

 A 
B  C

NC NH2 COOH
1) 2) CH3NH2
NH2 NH 2
3) CH3COOH 4) HCOOH
157
10. Consider the following reaction
CH2 NH2 NaNO  HCl


2
0
 A. Which of the following statements are correct ?
0 5 C
Benzylamine
1) A has lower boiling point than benzyl amine

2) A has weaker intermolecular force of attraction than benzyl amine
3) A has higher boiling point than benzyl amine
4) Benzylamine has higher intermolecular force of attraction than A.
11. An amine on reaction with Hinsberg’s reagent gives a white precipitate, which is insoluble in alkali.
The amine is
1) CH3CH2NH2
2) (C2H5)2NH
3) (C2H5)3N
4) C6H5NH2
12. Aniline on nitration gives considerable amount (47 %) of m-nitroaniline. This is because,
1) – NH2 group is m-directing
2) – NH2 group is o,p-directing
3) due to the conversion of aniline to anilinium ion
4) due to the formation of acetanilide
13. Consider the reaction
NO2
Fe  HCl NaNO2 HCl NaNO2 HCl

 E. The product E is
CuCN LiAlH4
 A 0
 B 
KCN
 C   D 
0 5 C
NH2 CH2NH2
1) 2)
CH2 OH CN
3) 4)
158
OH N2Cl
OH
14. P. The product P is
NH2
OH OH
N N Ph
1) 2)
N N Ph
NH2 NH2
OH OH
N N Ph
3) 4)
N N Ph
NH2 N N Ph
15. The reactivity order of the following diazonium cations in coupling reaction is
N2 N2 N2 N2
CH3 OCH3 NO2
I II III IV
1) I > II > III > IV
2) IV > III > II > I
3) III > II > I > IV
4) IV > I > II > III
159
LEVEL- II
1. Total number of isomeric primary amines possible for the compound with molecular formula C4H11N
is :
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
AgCN Ni/H Acetic
2. CH3 CH2Cl 
 X 
2  Y 
anhydride
 Z.
Z in the above reaction sequence is
CH3 O
1) CH3CH2CH2NHCOCH3 2) CH3CH2N C CH3
O CH3
3) CH3CH2 C N CH3 4) CH3CH2CH2N(CH3)COCH3
1) KNH2
3. NH P. The product P is :
Cl
2)
O
CH2Cl
3) H3O+
NH2 Cl NH2
1) 2) 3) 4) No reaction
CH2Cl CH2NH2 CH2NH2
4. The increasing order of basicity values of the following compounds is
NH2
N N N
H H
I II III IV
1) I < II < III < IV 2) IV < III < II < I 3) II < IV < I < III 4) IV < II < I < III
160
5. Which one of the following is most basic ?
NH
NH
1) H2N C CH3 2) HN NH
3) (CH3)3N 4) C2H5NHC2H5
6. Which one of the following is the incorrect order of basicity ?
NH2 NH2
NH2
O
>
1) 2) < CH3 C NH2
CH3 NO2
3) CH3 – NH2 < CH3CH2NH2 4) <

N O N O
7. An amine with molecular mass 84 is acylated with aceticanhydride to get a compound with molecular
mass 168. The number of amino group present per molecule of the starting amine is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
OH CH3
HNO2
8. CH3 CH CH CH CH3 P . The product P is
0 - 50C major
NH2
OH CH3 OH CH 3
1) CH3 CH CH CH CH3 2) CH 3 CH CH2 C CH 3
OH OH
O CH3 OH CH3
3) CH3 C CH2 CH CH3 4) CH3 CH C CH CH3
161
9. The white precipitate formed by the reaction between an amine and benzene sulphonyl chloride
contains a strongly acidic H atom on nitrogen. The amine is,
1) primary 2) secondary 3) tertiary 4) quaternary
NH2 COCl
Br2/AcOH
10. A B. The product B is
Br
O O
1) NH C Br 2) Br NH C
Br
O O
3) NH C 4) Br NH C
Br
NO2
Sn/HCl conc.H SO
11. A 
2 4 B

1) Sulphonic acid 2) Sulphonamide 3) Sulphanilic acid 4) Benzanilide

NH2
Br2 /H 2 O NaNO 2  HCl C 2 H 5OH

12.  A   B   C . The product C is
0 0 5 C or H 3PO 2
Br OH
Br Br
1) 2)
Br Br
Br
OC2H5
Br
3) 4)
Br Br
162
13. Coupling of diazonium salt with the following compounds take place in the order
O OH NH2 CH3
I II III IV
1) I > II > III > IV 2) I > III > II > IV 3) IV > II > III > I 4) III > I > II > IV
NH2
HNO2 HBF4 NaNO2 Fe/HCl

14. 
0
 A   B 
Cu,
 C   D. The product D is
0 5 C
NO2 NH2 F
1) 2) 3) 4)
CH3
15. Br Sn/HCl NaNO HCl H PO 1) KMnO /OH


2  A 
B 
2 E. The product E is
3 2 D 
C  4
 273278K H2O 2) H
NO2
COOH CH3 COOH

Br Br Br
1) 2) 3) 4)
COOH Br
163
CHAPTER - 31
BIOMOLECULES, POLYMERS
AND CHEMISTRY IN EVERYDAY LIFE
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Which of the following is the first member of monosaccharides ?
1) CH2OH C CH2OH 2) CH2OH – CHOH – CHO
3) CH2OH – CHOH – CHOH – CHO 4) CH2OH CHOH C CH2OH
2. Which is not a reducing sugar ?

1) Glucose 2) Fructose
3) Mannose 4) Sucrose
3. Consider the following reagents
I. Br2 water
II. Tollen’s reagent
III. Fehling’s solution
Which can be used to make distinction between an aldose and a ketose ?
1) I, II and III 2) II and III
3) I only 4) II only
4. A nanopeptide contains ––––– peptide linkages
1) 10 2) 8 3) 9 4) 18
5. Which of the following is a fat soluble vitamin ?
1) Retinol 2) Riboflavin
3) Pyridoxine 4) Thiamine
6. Deficiency of vitamin E causes :
1) Sterility 2) Rickets
3) Beri-beri 4) Scurvy
164
7. In both DNA and RNA, hetero cyclic base and phosphate ester linkages are at
1) C'5 and C1' respectively of the sugar molecule
2) C1' and C'5 respectively of the sugar molecule
3) C'2 and C'5 respectively of the sugar molecule
4) C'5 and C'2 respectively of the sugar molecule
8. Which is not true about polymers ?

1) Polymers have high viscosity 2) Polymers scatter light
3) Polymers do not carry any charge 4) Polymers have low molecular weight
9. Which pair of polymers have similar properties ?
1) Nylon, PVC 2) PAN, PTFE
3) PCTFE, PTFE 4) Bakelite, alkyl resin
10. The condensation polymer among the following is
1) Rubber 2) Protein
3) PVC 4) Polythene
11. Structures of some common polymers are given. Which one is not correctly presented ?
1) Nylon-6,6 NH(CH2)6NHCO(CH2)4 CO
n
2) Teflon CF2 CF2

n
3) Neoprene CH2 C CH CH2
Cl n
O O
4) Terylene C C O CH2 CH2 O

n
12. Given the polymers,

A = Nylon 6 6; B = Buna - S; C = polythene. Arrange these in increasing order of their intermolecular
force (lower to higher)
1) A < B < C 2) A < C < B
3) B < C < A 4) B < C < B
165
13. Bakelite is a condensation polymer of phenol and formaldehyde. The initial step between the two
compounds is an example of
1) Free radical reaction 2) Aldol condensation
3) Aromatic nucleophilic substitution 4) Aromatic electrophilic substitution
14. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer ?
1) Nylon-2-Nylon-6 2) Polythene
3) Polyvinyl chloride 4) Nylon-6
15. A substance which can act both as an antiseptic and disinfectant is
1) Aspirin 2) Chloroxylenol 3) Bithional 4) Phenol
16. Aspartame is one of the good artificial sweeteners whose use is limited to cold foods and soft drinks
because
1) It has very low boiling point 2) It gets dissociated at cooking temperature
3) It is sweetener at low temperature 4) It is insoluble at higher temperature
17. Which of the following is a example of non-biodegradable detergent ?
1) CH3 (CH2)11 SO3Na
2) CH3 (CH2)9 CH SO3Na
CH3
CH3 CH3
3) CH3 CHCH2 CH SO3Na
4) CH3(CH2)10CH2OSO3Na
18. The detergent which is used as a germicide is
1) Sodium lauryl sulphate
2) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium chloride
3) Lauryl alcohol ethoxylate
4) Sodium-2-dodecylbenzenesulphonate
19. Luminal, a barbiturate drug is used as a/an
1) Antihistamine 2) Sedative
3) Antiseptic 4) Antimalarial
20. Which among the following is not an antibiotic ?
1) Penicillin 2) Oxytocin
3) Erythromycin 4) Tetracycline
166
21. The structure given below is known as
O H H
S CH3
CH2 C NH
CH3
N COOH
O H
1) Penicillin - F
2) Penicillin - G
3) Penicillin - K
4) Ampicillin
LEVEL- II
1. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :
1) β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose
2)  -D-Glucose + -D-Glucose
3)  -D-Glucose + -D-Fructose
4) -D-Fructose + -D-Fructose
2. Which of the following statements are correct ?

i) All monosaccharides are reducing sugars
ii) All monosaccharides are not reducing sugars
iii) In disaccharides if aldehydic or ketonic groups are bonded, these are non-reducing sugars
iv) In disaccharides if aldehydic or ketonic groups are free, these are reducing sugars
1) i, iii and iv
2) ii, iii and iv
3) i and iv
4) ii and iv
3. Which one of the amino acids can be synthesised in the body ?
1) Alanine
2) Lysine
3) Valine
4) Histidine
167
4. Match the columns

Column I Column II
Reaction of glucose Characteristic of glucose molecule
CHO
a) (CHOH)4 
HI, 
 CH3 CH2 CH3 p) Presence of C O group
4
CH2OH
CN
CHO H C
OH
(i) NH2OH
b) (CHOH)4 
(ii) HCN
 (CHOH)4 q) Presence of aldehydic group
CH2OH CH2OH
CHO CHO O
 CH3COO 2 O CH3)4
c) (CHOH)4   (CH O C r) All six carbon atoms are linked in a straight chain
CH2OH CH2 O C CH3
CHO COOH
(CHOH)4 
Br2 water (CHOH)4
d)  s) Presence of five – OH groups
CH2OH CH2OH
1) a  p; b  s; c  q; d  r
2) a  r; b  q; c  p; d  s
3) a  r; b  p; c  s; d  q
4) a  p; b  q; c  r; d  s
5. Proteins are condensation polymers of
1) α-amino acids
2) -amino acids
3) -hydroxy acids
4) -hydroxy acids
168
6. Match the vitamin of List I with deficiency disease given in List II

A) Vitamin A a) Scurvy
B) Vitamin B12 b) Hemorrhagic condition
C) Vitamin C c) Sterility
D) Vitamin E d) Xerophthalmia
E) Vitamin K e) Pernicious anaemia
A B C D E
1) c d e b a
2) c d e a a
3) d e a c b
4) d e c b a
7. Consider the following statements

i) Nucleic acids are long chain polymers of nucleotides
ii) Sugar moiety in DNA molecules is β-D-ribose whereas in RNA molecules it is β-D-2-deoxyribose
iii) RNA contains four bases viz. adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C) and uracil (U)
iv) Nucleotide is a nucleoside linked to phosphoric acid at 4 - position of sugar moiety
Which of the following is the correct code for the statements above ?
1) TFFT 2) TFTF 3) FFTT 4) FTFF
8. Polythene, PVC, Teflon and neoprene are all
1) Condensation homopolymers 2) Addition homopolymers
3) Biodegradable polymers 4) Addition copolymers
9. Which of the following polymer has ester linkage ?
1) Dacron 2) Nylon-6,6
3) Buna-S 4) Nylon-2 Nylon-6
10. The monomers of bakelite are :
1) Phenol & formaldehyde 2) Terepthalic acid & Ethylene glycol
3) Glycine & Amino caproic acid 4) Vinyl benzene & 1,3-butadiene
11. Biodegradable polymer among the following is
1) P.H.B.V 2) Nylon-6
3) Bakelite 4) Nylon-6,6
12. Caprolactam is the starting material to prepare
1) Nylon-6 2) Nylon-2-Nylon-6 3) Nylon-6,6 4) PET
169
13. I II
1. Bakelite a) Glass reinforcing safety helmets
2. Acrilan b) Substitute to wool
3. Buna-S c) Electric switches and handles of utensils
4. Dacron d) Footwear, floor tiles
Correct match is
1) I - c, II - b, III - d, IV - a 2) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d
3) I - d, II - a, III - c, IV - b 4) I - b, II - a, III - c, IV - d
14. Statement 1 : Thermoplastics become soft on heating and hard on cooling.
Statement 2 : Thermoplastics are linear polymer and the polymeric chains are held together by weak
intermolecular forces.
1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true; statement 2 is correct explanation for statement 1
2) Statement 1 id true, statement 2 is true, statement 2 is not correct explanation for statement 1
3) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
4) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
15. Chloramphenicol is
1) Narrow spectrum antibiotic
2) Broad spectrum analgesic
3) Broad spectrum antibiotic
4) Broad spectrum antibacterial
16. Which set has different class of compounds ?
1) Tranquillizers : equanil, heroin, valium
2) Antiseptic : bithional, dettol, boric acid
3) Analgesics : naproxen, morphine, aspirin
4) Bactericidal : penicillin, aminoglycosides, ofloxacin
17. Which of the following is not an analgesic ?
1) Ibuprofen 2) Dichlofenac sodium
3) Naproxen 4) Ofloxacin
18. Which of the following is an anionic detergent ?
1) CH3(CH2)11CH2OSO3Na 2) CH3(CH2)16N+(CH3)3Cl–
3) CH3(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O)nCH2CH2OH 4) C6H5SO3Na
170
19. Which of the following statements is not true ?

1) Some disinfectants can be used as antiseptic at low concentration
2) Sulphadiazine is a synthetic antibacterial
3) Ampicillin is natural antibiotic
4) Aspirin is analgesic and antipyretic both
20. Choose the correct statement
1) Saccharin is 650 times sweeter than sugar
2) Aspartame is 550 times sweeter than sugar
3) Sucralose is 160 times sweeter than sugar
4) Alitame is 2000 times sweeter than sugar
21. An antibiotic effective in treatment of pneumonia, bronchitis etc, is
1) Penicillin 2) Patalin 3) Chloromycetin 4) Tetracyline
171
CHAPTER - 32
STEREOCHEMISTRY
QUESTIONS
LEVEL - I
1. Stereoisomers which can be interconverted by rotation of the molecule around single bond are
1) Geometrical isomers 2) Enantiomers
3) Conformers 4) Diastereomers
2. Alkenes show geometrical isomerism due to
1) Asymmetry 2) Rotation about a single bond
3) Resonance 4) Restricted rotation about a double bond
3. Which of the following compounds will not show geometrical isomerism?
Br CH3
1) BrCH = CHBr 2) BrCH = CHCl 3) CH3 C CHBr 4) CH3 C CHCH3
4. Which of the following compounds is not chiral?

1) 2-hydroxy propanoic acid 2) Butan-2-ol
3) 3-Bromopentane 4) 2, 3-dibromobutane
5. A mixture of equal parts of (+) and (–) enantiomers are called
1) Racemisation 2) Asymmetric synthesis
3) Racemic mixture 4) Resolution
6. The following two stereoisomers are
COOH
COOH
H OH
H OH
HO H
H OH and
COOH
COOH
1) Enantiomers 2) Identical 3) Meso forms 4) Diastereomers
172
7. Mesotartaric acid is optically inactive due to

1) External compensation 2) Internal compensation
3) Presence of more chiral carbon atoms 4) Absence of chiral carbon atom
8. Which of the following compounds are optically active?
H H H H
F I I F F I I F
I) F I II) F I III) I F IV) I F
H H H H
1) I and II 2) II and III

3) III and IV 4) I and II
9. Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits optical isomerism is
1) 3-methyl1-1-pentene 2) 2-methyl pent-2-ene
3) 3-methyl pent-2-ene 4) 4-methyl pent-1-ene
10. The transformation of (+) and (–) forms to racemic mixture    is called
1) Resolution 2) Asymmetric synthesis

3) Racemisation 4) Inversion
LEVEL-II
1. Which of the following is E-configuration?
H3C CH3
F Cl
C C
1) C C 2) H
Br H
I
HOOC H3C CHO

COOH
C C C C
3) 4)
H CH2OH
NC H5C6
2. IUPAC name of the compound
Cl
1) Z-2-chloro-3-methyl pent-2-ene 2) E-2-chloro-3-methyl pent-2-ene

3) Cis-2-chloro-3-methyl pent-2-ene 4) None
173
3. CH3 CH2 N CH3 cannot be resolved into enantiomers because
1) It is planar 2) It has a plane of symmetry

3) It undergoes rapid inversion 4) A trivalent atom cannot be a centre of chirality
4. The following two Fischer projections are
CH3 Cl
Cl OH HO CH3
HO Cl and HO Cl
CH3 CH3
1) Diastereomers 2) Enantiomers 3) Meso forms 4) Identical

5. The optically active compound [X] on treatment with NaNO2/HCl gives
H3C
*
CH NH2
X=
1) 1° alcohol with retention of configuration

2) Racemic mixture of 2° alcohols
3) 2° alcohol with inversion in configuration
4) Racemic mixture of 1° alcohols
6. Assign R or S configuration to the Fischer projection of the following compound
CO2H
H OH
H Cl
CH3
A) 2R, 3R 2) 2R, 3S 3) 2S, 3S 4) 2S, 3R

7. How many stereoisomers are possible for tartaric acid?
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
174
8. A dextro compound on SN2 reaction gives

1) Dextro compound
2) Laevo compound
3) Dextro or laevo compound
4) Meso compound
9. How many stereoisomers are possible for aldohexose?
1) 4 2) 8
3) 16 4) 18
10. During the debromination of meso-2, 3-dibromobutane, the major compound formed is
1) n-butane 2) but-1-ene
3) cis-but-2-ene 4) trans-but-2-ene
175

NEET - 2022: Chemistry

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

NEET - 2022: Chemistry

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

NEET - 2022: Chemistry

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

NEET 2022 [STUDY MATERIAL - CHEMISTRY]

Experiment Mass of dinitrogen Mass of dioxygen

Which law of chemical combination is obeyed by the above experimental data?

4. Naturally occuring bromine consists of the two isotopes listed below

Isotope Isotopic mass (u) Percentage abundance

The average atomic mass of bromine is

14. 25 g of acetic acid dissolved in 75 g of benzene. Then molality of the solution is

8. For the reaction A  2B 

H 2(g)  P4(s)  O2(g) 

1) 36.2 10 18 2) 1.75 1014 3) 6.02 1023 4) 27.2 1018

9. Longest wavelengths in Balmer series of He+1 is

10. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers

15. Number of electron exchanges present in d5 and d10 configurations are

4) All require same amount of energy

8. The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order

1) 1s2 2s2 2p1 2) 1s2 2s2 2p6

3) 4) All are incorrect

12. Which one of the following statements is/are correct

1) –0.75, 0.6 2) –0.75, 1.0

5. Which of the following is not a correct statement?

1) ClO 3 , CO32 2) SO32 , NO 3 3) ClO3 , SO32 4) CO 32 , SO 32

b) X X 3' ii) pentagonal bipyramidal

c) X X '5 iii) Linear

d) X X '7 iv) square pyramidal

16 Which of the following two are isostructural?

1) NH3, BF3 2) PCl5, ICl5 3) XeF2, IF2 4) CO 32 , SO32

17. The BCl3 is a planar molecule whereas NCl3 is pyramidal because

18. Among the following ions the p  d overlap could be present in

1) O 2 is paramagnetic and bond order greater than O2

2) O 2 is paramagnetic and bond order less than O2

3) O 2 is diamagnetic and bond order is less than O2

4) O 2 is diamagnetic and bond order is more than O2

2. The angular shape of ozoen molecule (O3) consists of

3. The correct statement about ICl5 and ICl 4 is

1) ICl5 is square pyramidal and ICl 4 is tetrahedral

2) ICl5 is square pyramidal and ICl 4 is square planar

3) Both are isostructural

4) ICl5 is trigonal bipyramidal and ICl 4 is tetrahedral

1) ClO3 2) XeF4 3) SF4 4) I3

5. Total number of lone pair of electron in I3 ion is

7. The correct order of C–O bond length among CO, CO32 , CO 2 is

9. Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds?

16. The relationship between the dissociation energy of N2 and N 2 is

1) Dissociation energy of N 2 > dissociation energy of N2

2) Dissociation energy of N2 = dissociation energy of N 2

3) Dissociation energy of N2 > dissociation energy of N 2

17. Mark the incorrect statement in the following

1) The bond order in the species O2, O 2 and O 2 decreases as O 2  O 2  O 2

10. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

4) expansion of a gas into vacuum u  q

12. Calculate the free energy change at 270C for H2 + Cl2 

187 JK–1 mol–1

1) STotal  0 2) STotal  0 3) STotal  0 4) None of these

15. The value of log10 K for a reaction A  B is:

 Given : r H0 298K  54.07kJmol1, r S0298  10JK 1mol1 and 

2) NH 2  OH s   N 2 H 4    HN3(g)  NH 4 NO3(s)

3) HN 3(g)  N 2 H 4(  )  NH 2 OH s   NH 4 NO3(s)

1) –165 kJ 2) +54 kJ 3) +219 kJ 4) –219 kJ

and 390 kJ mol–1 respectively. Bond energy of N2 will be