Aakash Zoology Study Package 1 Solutions

Chapter 10
Animal Kingdom
(General Accounts & Non-Chordates)
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
(Metazoa, Basis of Classification)
1. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) All members of the kingdom Animalia are multicellular
(2) Nature of coelom is used as one of the basis of animal classification
(3) There is no need of classification now as over a million species of animals have been described till now
(4) The arrangement of cells in the body is one of the classifying feature of the animals
Sol. Answer (3)
In kingdom animalia, till now over a million species have been described. Animalia is largest kingdom, with
over 1.2 million members. Due to such large number of member species, the need for classification becomes
more important.
2. The only incorrectly matched pair is

Phylum Level of organisation
(1) Porifera – Cellular level
(2) Cnidaria – Tissue level
(3) Annelida – Organ level only
(4) Mollusca – Organ system level
Sol. Answer (3)
(1) Porifera – Cellular level
(2) Cnidaria – Tissue level
(3) Annelida – Organ-system level
(4) Mollusca – Organ-system level
3. A complete digestive system has

(1) Single opening that serves as both mouth and anus
(2) Two openings, one as mouth and other as anus
(3) Single opening that acts as mouth only
(4) Two openings, both act as mouth as well as anus
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2 Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) Solutions of Assignment
Sol. Answer (2)

Digestive tract with two openings, mouth for ingestion and anus for egestion is known as complete digestive
system.
4. In closed circulatory system

(1) The cells and tissues are directly bathed in the blood pumped out by heart
(2) Arteries and veins are lacking
(3) The capillaries are largest blood vessels and closed at their ends
(4) Blood circulates through a series of vessels of varying diameters
Sol. Answer (4)
Closed circulatory system is a type of blood vascular system in which blood flows inside blood vessels of varying
diameter (arteries, veins, capillaries) without coming in direct contact with body cells. Closed circulatory system
is observed in annelids, cephalopod molluscs, chordates.
5. Which of the following fundamental feature is common to Balanoglossus, Anopheles and Laccifer without any
exception?
(1) Marine habitat (2) Members of largest phylum of animal kingdom
(3) Open circulatory system (4) External fertilisation
Sol. Answer (3)
Balanoglossus – Belongs to phylum Hemichordata.
Anopheles – Belongs to phylum Arthropoda
Laccifer – Belongs to phylum Arthropoda
Both Hemichordate and Arthropoda have open circulatory system, without any exception.
6. Match the animals in Column-I with their common names in Column-II
Column-I Column-II
a. Limulus (i) Tusk shell
b. Ophiura (ii) Tapeworm
c. Taenia (iii) Brain coral
d. Meandrina (iv) King crab
e. Dentalium (v) Brittle star
(1) a(v), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii), e(i) (2) a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(iii), e(i)
(3) a(v), b(ii), c(iii), d(i), e(iv) (4) a(iv), b(v), c(iii), d(i), e(ii)
Sol. Answer (2)
a. Limulus – King crab – Living fossil
b. Ophiura – Brittle star – Phylum Echinodermata
c. Taenia – Tapeworm – Phylum Platyhelminthes
d. Meandrina – Brain coral – Class Anthozoa, Phylum – Cnidaria
e. Dentalium – Tusk shell – Class Scaphopoda, Phylum – Mollusca
Solutions of Assignment Animal Kingdom (General Accounts & Non-Chordates) 3
(Classification of Animals)
• Phylum : Porifera
7. Mesoglea is
(1) A germinal layer present between ectoderm and endoderm
(2) An undifferentiated layer present between ectoderm and endoderm
(3) Another name of mesoderm
(4) A spongy layer of skin
Sol. Answer (2)
In diploblastic animals, developing embryo has only two germinal layers i.e. external ectoderm and internal
endoderm. Mesoderm layer is not present between ectoderm and endoderm but an undifferentiated, jelly like
layer is present between them. This undifferentiated layer is called Mesoglea.
Mesoglea Ectoderm
Endoderm
Germinal layers in diploblastic animals
8. The pecularity of sponges is

(1) Canal system (2) Water vascular system
(3) Central gastro vascular cavity (4) Bioluminescence
Sol. Answer (1)
Canal system is peculiar property of sponges where canal system is a system of interconnected chambers,
canals and their openings.
Also water vascular system is peculiar property of Echinoderms. Central gastrovascular cavity is property of
cnidarians. Bioluminescence is property of ctenophora.
9. Choanocytes are present in

(1) Physalia (2) Sycon (3) Pleurobrachia (4) Echinus
Sol. Answer (2)
Choanocytes or collar cells are characteristic cells of porifers/sponges. In sponges, canal and spongocoel are
internally lined by choanocytes.
In options, Physalia belongs to cnidaria/coelenterata. Sycon belongs to porifera/sponges.
Pleurobrachia belongs to ctenophora.
Echinus is a sea-urchins and belongs to Echinodermata.
10. In Poriferans, the skeleton is made up of

(1) Spongin fibres and spicules (2) Calcareous ossicles
(3) Chitinous spicules (4) Cartilage
Sol. Answer (1)

In porifera skeleton is made by two types of cells.
Scleroblast : They secrete spicules. In calcareous sponges, they are called calcoblast and in silicious
sponges, they are called silicoblast.
Spongioblast : They secrete spongin fibre of mesohyal layer in sponges.
11. Water enters the body of sponges through

(1) Osculum (2) Hypostome (3) Muscular pharynx (4) Ostia
Sol. Answer (4)
Sponges are also called as porifera, means pore bearing animals. Sponges have perforated body with numerous
opening called ostia. Through ostia water enters inside sponges.
A larger opening through which water flows out of sponge is called osculum. So porifera have enumerate mouth
like pore called ostia for entry of water and single large pore for exit of water called osculum.
12. All of the following statements are correct for Poriferans, except
(1) Eggs and sperms are produced by the same individual
(2) They are generally marine and mostly asymmetrical animals
(3) They reproduce sexually as well as asexually
(4) They have an extracellular type of digestion
Sol. Answer (4)
Sponges are hermaphrodite i.e. male and female gamete is produced by same individual. Most of sponges are
marine and asymmetric animals. Both sexual and asexual reproduction occur in them.
Sponges have intracellular digestion as food is digested with in food vacuoles inside the cells. There is no
extracellular digestion in sponges.
• Phylum : Coelenterata
13. Which of the following is not the function of cnidoblasts?

(1) Digestion of food (2) Anchorage (3) Defense (4) Capture of prey
Sol. Answer (1)
Cnidoblast are stinging cells of phylum cnidaria/ctenophora. Projecting cnidoblast act as organ for offence and
defense.
Cnidoblast help in capturing the prey by coiling around the prey.
Cnidoblast protect cnidarian by either paralyzing or killing other animal with help of toxin and spines.
Cnidoblast secrete sticky substances which provide anchorage for locomotion.
14. Coelenterates are

(1) Asymmetric animals (2) Radially symmetric animals
(3) Bilaterally symmetric animals (4) Spherically symmetric animals
Sol. Answer (2)
Coelenterates are radially symmetric animals. In radially symmetric animals any plane passing through centre,
divide organism in two identical halves.
15. Digestion in coelenterates is

(1) Only intracellular (2) Only extracellular
(3) Both extracellular and intracellular (4) Not required
Sol. Answer (3)
Digestion is both extracellular as well as intracellular in cnidaria. Firstly there is extracellular digestion in
gastrovascular cavity and then intracellular digestion involving gastrodermal muscular endothelial cells.
16. Metagenesis can be seen in

(1) Adamsia (2) Hydra (3) Physalia (4) Meandrina
Sol. Answer (3)
Metagenesis (alteration of generation), where cnidarians exist in both forms of life i.e., cylindrical, sessile polyp
form and umbrella shaped free-swimming medusa form.
e.g. Obelia, Physalia
Obelia and Physalia belong to class hydrozoa.
17. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of cnidarians?

(1) They exhibit tissue level of organisation (2) They may be aquatic or terrestrial
(3) They may be sessile or free-swimming (4) They are diploblastic animals
Sol. Answer (2)
All cnidarians possess aquatic habitat. They are not terrestrial animals.
• Phylum : Ctenophora
18. Comb jellies are _______ and jelly fishes are _______ respectively.
(1) Echinoderms, Ctenophores (2) Ctenophores, Echinoderms
(3) Ctenophores, Cnidarians (4) Cnidarians, Echinoderms
Sol. Answer (3)
Comb jellies belong to phylum ctenophora. Comb jellies bear eight median comb plates. These comb plates
bear cillia which fuses to form ciliated plates, giving them comb like appearance.
Jelly fishes belong to phylum cnidaria.
19. The ciliated comb plates in Pleurobrachia are meant for

(1) Reproduction (2) Digestion (3) Protection (4) Locomotion
Sol. Answer (4)
Pleurobrachia (Sea gooseberry) belongs to phylum ctenophora. Ctenophores bear eight median comb plates.
These comb plates bear cilia which are fused to make these plates ciliated. The ciliated comb plates help in
locomotion.
20. Ctenoplana belongs to a group of animals which are best described as

(1) Unicellular with tissue level of organisation
(2) Multicellular with radially symmetrical body
(3) Multicellular with organ level of organisation
(4) Unicellular with bilaterally symmetrical bodies
Sol. Answer (2)
Ctenoplana belong to phylum ctenophora. Ctenophores are multicellular animals, which are radially symmetric
and have tissue level of organization.
21. Bioluminescence is well-marked in which of the following phyla?

(1) Ctenophora (2) Mollusca (3) Hemichordata (4) Annelida
Sol. Answer (1)
Bioluminescence is property of production and emission of light by a living organism.
This property is well maked in ctenophores. Most ctenophores emit light by special light producing cells called
photocytes.
• Phylum : Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes

22. Which specialised cells are present for excretion in the phylum platyhelminthes?
(1) Collar cells (2) Cnidoblasts (3) Flame cells (4) Nematocytes
Sol. Answer (3)
Flame cells are specialised cells of platyhelminthes which help in excretion as well as osmoregulation. Flame
cells are named so, because of their flickering flame like appearance. Flame cells are also called protonephridia.
23. High regeneration capacity is possessed by

(1) Aurelia (2) Pheretima (3) Bombyx (4) Planaria
Sol. Answer (4)
Regeneration is ability of organism to replace its lost or damaged part or ability to develop complete and normal
individual from a part of body. Planaria (Dugesia) have high regeneration power.
24. The aschelminthes are commonly called roundworms because

(1) They have a round body (2) Their body is circular in cross-section
(3) They have bilaterally symmetric body (4) Their body have a round visceral hump
Sol. Answer (2)
In aschelminthes body is commonly cylindrical and elongated, tapering at both ends. In a cross section, body
appears round or circular. Because of this body form, the animals are called round worms.
25. All of the following are monoecious, except

(1) Fasciola (2) Spongilla (3) Ascaris (4) Ctenoplana
Sol. Answer (3)
Animals having both female and male sex organs in same organism are called monoecious, bisexual,
hermaphrodite. Spongilla (fresh water sponge), ctenoplana (ctenophora) and Fasciola (liver fluke) are monoecious
or bisexual organisms. Ascaris are dioecious (unisexual), where male and females are distinct or different from
each other.
26. Hookworm is the common name of

(1) Wuchereria (2) Ancylostoma (3) Taenia (4) Fasciola
Sol. Answer (2)
Common name for Wuchereria is filarial worm
Common name for Ancyclostoma is hook worm
Common name for Taenia soluim is pork tapeworm
Common name for Fasciola is liver fluke
27. Mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm in
(1) Annelids (2) Echinoderms (3) Molluscs (4) Aschelminthes
Sol. Answer (4)
Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate where body cavity is present but it is not completely lined by mesoderm,
but mesoderm is present as scattered pouches between ectoderm and endoderm.
28. In Aschelminthes the excretory tube removes body wastes from the body cavity through
(1) Excretory pore (2) Malpighian tubules
(3) Flame cells (4) Diffusion from body surface
Sol. Answer (1)
An excretory tube is present in aschelminthes, which removes body waste through excretory pore. This
excretory tube collects body waste from body cavity and removes it out through excretory pore.
29. The only phylum bearing pseudocoelom is

(1) Annelida (2) Porifera (3) Aschelminthes (4) Platyhelminthes
Sol. Answer (3)
Only phylum aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate animals where body cavity is present but it is not completely
lined by mesoderm, but mesoderm is present as scattered pouches between ectoderm and endoderm.
30. Ascaris has all of the following features, except

(1) Complete digestive system (2) Indirect development
(3) External fertilisation (4) Parasitic life
Sol. Answer (3)
Ascaris belong to phylum Aschelminthes. Ascaris have complete oligestive system with two openings, mouth
and anus. Development is indirect with rhabditoid or rhabditiform larvae.
Ascaris is common endoparasite in small intestine of man and undergo internal fertilisation only.
There is no external fertilisation in Ascaris.
• Phylum : Annelida
31. Metameric segmentation is exhibited by which of the following animal?

(1) Adamsia (2) Euspongia (3) Ascaris (4) Pheretima
Sol. Answer (4)
In metameric segmentation animal body is devided both externally and internally into distinct portions callled
metameres or segments.
In annelida phylum both external and internal segmentation is present i.e. body of annelids is metamerically
segmented.
Pheretima commonly called earthworm is are annelid belonging to class oligochaeta.
32. ________ in the earthworm perform the function similar to flame cells in Taenia.
(1) Parapodia (2) Nephridia
(3) Metameres (4) Ganglia
Sol. Answer (2)
As Taenia (platyhelminthes) have specialized flame cells for excretion, similarly earthworm have coiled
specialized cells called nephridia for excretion of wastes
33. Notochord in earthworm is ______ and nerve cord is _____.

(1) Dorsal, Ventral (2) Absent, Ventral
(3) Ventral, absent (4) Absent, Dorsal
Sol. Answer (2)

Notochord is a supporting structure, part of internal skeleton found only in chordates.
Nervecord is part of nervous system, mesodermal in origin and is found in both chordates and non-chordates.
Notochord is formed on dorsal side in chordate while nerve cord is ventral in non-chordates and dorsal in
chordates.
Earthworm belong to phylum annelid, i.e. non-chordate. So earthworm does not have notochord and nerve cord
is ventral in position.
34. The body segments in earthworm are called

(1) Comb plates (2) Spicules (3) Metameres (4) Ganglia
Sol. Answer (3)
Earthworm (Annelid) have metamerically segmented body, where body is externally and internally divided into
segments. These repeated segments are called metameres or somites.
• Phylum : Arthropoda
35. The chitinous exoskeleton is possessed by

(1) Annelids (2) Arthropods (3) Molluscs (4) Echinoderms
Sol. Answer (2)
Arthropods possess exoskeleton of chitin reinforced with protein or calcium carbonate. Presence of chitin
exoskeleton favours survival of arthropod in different environment and supports their universal occurrence.
36. Which function is served by the tracheal system in insects?

(1) Sensation (2) Respiration (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Digestion
Sol. Answer (2)
Various types of respiratory structures are present in different groups of arthropods.
Tracheal system is a network of air tubes which constitute main organ of respiration in many arthropods
including insects.
37. Honey is the commercial product of which of the following animal?

(1) Bombyx (2) Laccifer (3) Apis (4) Aedes
Sol. Answer (3)
Apis-honeybee, produces two main products honey and beewax. Honey is used as food as well as in
medicines.
38. The statement which does not stand true for arthropods is
(1) They have an open circulatory system
(2) Their body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen
(3) They are segmented and coelomate animals
(4) Fertilisation is usually external in them
Sol. Answer (4)
Arthropods have open circulatory system, possess true coelom and are schizocoelomate (body cavity is formed
by splitting of mesoderm). Arthropods have segmented body, fertilisation is usually internal in Arthropods.
39. The phylum Arthropoda is named so because of presence of
(1) Jointed appendages (2) Segmentation
(3) Chitinous exoskeleton (4) Organ-system level of organisation
Sol. Answer (1)
Arthro means jointed and Poda means appendages.
So arthropoda have jointed appendages which is characteristic feature of all arthropods and gives the phylum
its name.
40. Statocysts are the

(1) Lateral locomotory appendages in annelids (2) Suckers present in parasitic platyhelminthes
(3) Balance organs in arthropods (4) Stinging capsules in cnidarians
Sol. Answer (3)
Statocysts are the sense organs, which are meant for sense of balance in arthropods.
41. Match Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II
a. A vector of disease (i) Bombyx
b. A gregarious pest (ii) Limulus
c. A living fossil (iii) Locusta
d. An economically important insect (iv) Culex
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (4)
a. A vector of disease – Culex mosquito – (Vector of filarial worm causes filariasis)
b. A gregarious pest – Locusta – (Live in group, but not help each other)
c. A living fossil – Limulus – Limulus (king crab or horse shoe crab)
d. An economically – Bombyx – Produces silk important insect
• Phylum : Mollusca
42. Body of molluscs is

(1) Unsegmented
(2) Covered by a calcareous shell
(3) Divided into distinct head, muscular foot and visceral hump
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Molluscs have unsegmented body, can be covered by shell made of calcium carbonate. Body of mollusc is
normally divided into head, foot and visceral mass.
43. Which of the following structure helps in excretion and respiration in molluscs?
(1) Nephridia (2) Feather-like gills
(3) Flame cells (4) Tentacles
Sol. Answer (2)
The mantle cavity of molluscs, encloses feather like gills which help in respiration as well as excretion.
44. Precious pearls are obtained from which of the following animals?
(1) Pinctada (2) Dentalium (3) Sepia (4) Aplysia
Sol. Answer (1)
Pinctada belonging to class Pelecypoda (Bivalvia) of phylum mollusca are famous for pearl formation.
Pinctada is also called as pearl oyster.
45. Radula is meant for

(1) Sensation (2) Feeding
(3) Egg laying (4) Protection from predators
Sol. Answer (2)
Mouth of molluscs contain file like rasping organ, with transverse rows of chitinous teeth, this is called radula.
Radula is feeding or rasping organ in molluscs.
• Phylum : Echinodermata
46. All of the following are echinoderms, except

(1) Sea lily (2) Sea cucumber (3) Sea hare (4) Sea urchin
Sol. Answer (3)
Sea lily belong to crinoidea class of phylum echinodermata. Sea cucumber belong to holothuroidea class of
phylum echinodermata.
Sea urchin belong to echinoidea class of phylum echinodermata. Sea hare is Aplysia, belong to class
gastropoda of phylum mollusc.
47. The calcareous ossicles in echinoderms form the

(1) Exoskeleton (2) Visceral hump (3) Notochord (4) Endoskeleton
Sol. Answer (4)
Echinoderms possess an endoskeleton (internal skeleton) of calcareous ossicles (small bones), embedded in
skin. The endoskeleton is derived from mesoderm in echinodermates.
48. The larval stage in Asterias is

(a) Absent
(b) Free-swimming
(c) Bilaterally symmetrical
(d) Radially symmetrical
(1) Only (a) (2) (b) & (c) (3) (b) & (d) (4) Only (c)
Sol. Answer (2)
Asterias is star fish, belong to phylum echinodermata. Echinoderms are free-living animals. Adult echinoderms
are radially symmetric but larval forms are bilaterally symmetric in echinoderms.
49. The water vascular system in phylum echinodermata helps in

(1) Locomotion, capture and transport of food (2) Excretion
(3) Respiration (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Water vascular system is most distinctive feature of echinoderms.
Water vascular system in echinoderms perform function of locomotion, capture and transport of food, respiration
as well as excretion.
50. Which organ system is lacking in the animals that bear water vascular system?
(1) Nervous system (2) Excretory system (3) Circulatory system (4) Sensory system
Sol. Answer (2)
Water vascular system is characteristic feature of echinoderms. In echinoderms, specialised excretory system
is absent. The excretory products diffuse out from the body tissue into coelomic fluid from where waste is
eliminated out.
• Phylum : Hemichordata
51. Cylindrical bodied, worm-like marine animals belong to the phylum:

(1) Echinodermata (2) Mollusca (3) Coelenterata (4) Hemichordata
Sol. Answer (4)
Hemichordates have soft, fragile worm like appearance. The body is cylindrical in shape and is divisible in three
parts:
Proboscis, collar and trunk.
52. The body of hemichordates is divided into
(1) Head, muscular foot and visceral hump (2) Head, thorax and abdomen
(3) Proboscis, collar and trunk (4) Proboscis and trunk
Sol. Answer (3)
Body of hemichordate is divisible into proboscis, collar and trunk.
53. The phylum which was earlier considered as a sub-phylum under chordata but now placed as a separate
phylum, in non-chordates is
(1) Urochordata (2) Hemichordata (3) Cephalochordata (4) Vertebrata
Sol. Answer (2)
Name hemichordates literally means half chordates and act as link between chordate and non chordate.
Hemichordata was earlier considered as sub phylum under phylum chordata, but now it is placed as separate
phylum under non-chordata.
54. Proboscis gland is a/an
(1) Endocrine organ (2) Excretory organ (3) Feeding organ (4) Reproductive organ
Sol. Answer (2)
Excretion of nitrogenous waste in hemichordates takes place through proboscis gland. The gland collects waste
from blood and pass it into coelom of proboscis from where it is excreted through proboscis pore, at anterior
region of proboscis.
55. Which of the following set of animals belong to phylum hemichordata?
(1) Balanoglossus, Saccoglossus
(2) Salpa, Doliolum
(3) Petromyzon, Myxine
(4) Dentalium, Chaetopleura
Sol. Answer (1)
Balanoglossus (Tongue worm), Saccoglossus (Tongue worm) belong to phylum hemichordata.
SECTION - B
(Metazoa, Basis of Classification)
1. Which of the following groups of animals have closed circulatory system?

(1) Cockroach, locust, molluscs (2) Non-cephalopod molluscs, cockroach
(3) Cephalopod molluscs and earthworm (4) Hemichordates and non-cephalopod molluscs
Sol. Answer (3)
In closed circulatory system, blood circulates through a series of blood vessels of varying diameter i.e. arteries,
veins and capillaries, without coming in direct contact with body cells. Closed circulatory system is found in
Annelids, cephalopod molluscs, choradates.
Earthworm belongs to phylum annelida.
2. Which of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?

(1) Sponges (2) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
(3) Aschelminthes (Round worms) (4) Ctenophores
Sol. Answer (3)
Sponges – Diploblastic, assymetric or radially symmetric
Coelenterates (cnidaria) – Diploblastic, radially symmetric
Aschelminthes – Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetric
Ctenophores – Diploblastic, radially symmetric
3. Coelom derived from blastocoel is known as

(1) Pseudocoelom (2) Schizocoel
(3) Haemocoel (4) Enterocoelom
Sol. Answer (1)
In pseudocoleomate, body cavity is not lined by mesoderm by there are scattered pouches of mesoderm
between ectoderm and endoderm.
4. Schizocoelomates and enterocoelomates are

(1) Acoelomates (2) True coelomates
(3) Vertebrates (4) Echinoderms only
Sol. Answer (2)
Eucoelomates are true coelomates, where body cavity is lined by mesoderm on both sides.
Based on mode of formation of coelom, eucoelomates are of two types:
a. Schizocoelom : Body cavity develops by splitting of mesoderm. It is found in annelids and arthropods.
b. Enterocoelom : Mesoderm arises from wall of embryonic gut or enteron as hollow outgrowths. It occurs
in echinoderms and chordates.
5. One of the following can’t be taken as the character of non-chordates

(1) Absence of notochord (2) Heart is ventral
(3) Gill slits are absent (4) Chitinous exoskeleton present
Sol. Answer (2)
Characteristic of chordates are :
a. Absence of notochord – in non-chordates, notochord is absent
b. Heart is present in dorsal in position in non-chordates
c. Gills slits are absent
d. In some non chordate e.g. arthropod, chitin exoskeleton is present
Heart is dorsal, not ventral in non chordates.
6. Column II below consists of brief descriptions of organisms in column I. Which of the following is incorrect
match between column I and column II?
Column I Column II
(1) Millipede – A terrestrial organism with two pairs of jointed appendages attached to each of its
many body segments and respires through trachea.
(2) Nereis – Numerous setae on lateral appendages called parapodia.
(3) Taenia solium – Body is covered with cuticle, alimentary canal absent.
(4) Ctenophores – Radially symmetrical, devoid of cnidoblasts, polyp stage present in their life cycle.
Sol. Answer (4)
Option (4) is in correctly matched as correct match will be
(1) Millipede – Terrestrial organism with two pairs of – Class diplopoda phylum arthropoda
appendages attached to each of its
many body segments and respire through
trachea
(2) Nereis – Numerous setae on lateral appendages – Class polychaeta phylum annelida
called parapodia
(3) Taenia solium – Body is covered with cuticle alimentary – Class cestoda phylum platyhelminthes
canal is absent
(4) Ctenophores – Radially symmetric animals, devoid of – Phylum ctenophora
cnidoblast, no polyp like stage is present
in their life cycle
7. The appropriate sequence of numbered animals from column II matching with the sequence of larvae in
column I is
Column I Column II
a. Planula (i) Mussell
b. Glochidium (ii) Crab
c. Nauplius (iii) Obelia
d. Cysticercus (iv) Nereis
(v) Taenia solium
(1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(v) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(v), d(iii) (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(v) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(v)
Sol. Answer (3)
Appropriate match is
a. Planula larva – Obelia (cnidaria)
b. Glochidium larva – Mussel (class pelecypoda) (phylum mollusca)
c. Nauplius larva – Crab (class crustacea) (phylum arthropoda)
d. Cysticercus larva – Taenia solium (class cestoda) (phylum platyhelminthes)
8. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Receptors for taste are located in the feet of insects
(2) The development of echinoderms includes a free-swimming dipleura larva
(3) Flame cells in flatworms are for excretion and osmoregulation
(4) Alternation of asexual and sexual phases in life cycle of Hydra is called metagenesis
Sol. Answer (4)
Correct statement would be -
There is no alternation of asexual and sexual phases in life cycle of Hydra, called metagenesis.
(Classification of Animals)
• Phylum : Porifera
9. Canal system of porifera is not connected with
(1) Food gathering (2) Respiratory gas exchange
(3) Removal of waste (4) Locomotion
Sol. Answer (4)
Poriferans are sessile organisms and remain attached to substratum. Poriferans do not show locomotion. In
sponges canal system performs function of food gathering, gas exchange during respiration, removal of waste
product. Canal system does not help in locomotion.
10. Statement-1 : Choanocytes are characteristic cells of porifera.

Statement-2 : In sycon type canal system, both radial and incurrent canals are lined by choanocytes.
(1) Both statement (1) and (2) are correct (2) Statement (1) is correct and (2) is incorrect
(3) Statement (1) is incorrect and (2) is correct (4) Both statements (1) and (2) are incorrect
Sol. Answer (2)
11. Which of the following statements is without exception for sponges?

(1) They all have calcareous spicules (2) They have high regenerative power
(3) They are found only in marine water (4) They are all radially symmetric
Sol. Answer (2)
Sponge may undergo fragmentation due to mechanical injury or decay of older parts. Each fragment develop
into complete sponge. Sponges possess high degree of regeneration. Even the cells of crushed sponge can
regroup to form sponge.
• Phylum : Coelenterata, Ctenophora
12. In Hydra, waste materials after digestion and nitrogenous waste materials are removed from
(1) Mouth only (2) Body wall only
(3) Mouth and body wall respectively (4) Mouth and tentacles respectively
Sol. Answer (3)
Cnidarians are ammonotelic and have incomplete digestive system, having single opening for entry and exist
of substances. Excretion in cnidarian occurs through mouth and through body surface via diffusion.
13. Which of the following cells are present only in the epidermis of Hydra?
(A) Interstitial cells (B) Cnidoblasts
(C) Sensory cells (D) Germ cells
(1) B and C (2) B only (3) B and D (4) A, B, C and D
Sol. Answer (3)
Interstitial cells – Totipotent cells which give rise to all different cells of body in epidermis layer of
cnidarians
Cnidoblast – Are stinging cells, in epidermis layer of cnidarians cnidoblast in characteristic
feature of cnidarians
Sensory cells – Scattered through out epidermis, but sensory cells are also observed in animals
of other phyla
14. Obelia is characterised by
A. Ciliated free swimming planula larva
B. Metagenesis
C. Acraspedote medusa
D. Statocysts present in medusoid stage
(1) A and B (2) B only
(3) A, B & D (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (3)
Obelia (sea fur) belong to class hydrozoa, phylum cnidaria. After fertilization in Obelia ciliated free swimming
larva-planula is formed. Obelia show alternation of generations or metagenesis. Medusae are sexual forms and
bear true velum, marked by narrow they like ridge. Such medusa are called craspedote medusae.
15. Which of the following coral reefs is horse shoe shaped reef that encircles a lagoon but not an island?
(1) Atoll reef (2) Fringing reefs
(3) Barrier reefs (4) Hawaiian island
Sol. Answer (1)
An atoll reef is also called coral island or lagoon island which is circular or horse shoe shaped reef that
encircles a lagoon but not an island. It may be complete or broken by a number of channels.
e.g. - Lakshdweep and Maldive islands in Indian Ocean.
16. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristics of

(1) Hydra and Aurelia (2) Aurelia and Adamsia
(3) Ctenoplana and Pleurobrachia (4) Aurelia and Paramoecium
Sol. Answer (3)
Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblast is feature of ctenophora phylum. Ctenoplana and Pleurobrachia belong
to class ctenophora.
• Phylum : Platyhelminthes
17. The presence of a special sense organ statocyst at the opposite end of mouth that is (aboral end) is the characteristic
of
(1) Cnidarians
(2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Ctenophora
(4) Nematodes
Sol. Answer (3)
Ctenophora have special sense organs called statocyst at opposite end of mouth (aboral end), is characteristic
feature of phylum ctenophora.
18. Cysticercus larva of Taenia develops in

(1) Man (2) Goat
(3) Sheep (4) Pig
Sol. Answer (4)
Life cycle of Taenia
Adult tapeworm
Attach to intestinal
wall
Apolysis (Ripe or gravid proglottid loaded
with eggs passes out in feaces)
Scolex invaginates
Primary host
Measly pork cysticerci (human)
larvae
Capsules (Gravid proglottids)

Encapsulate and
form cysti cerrcus larvae
In open
Secondary host Hexacanth larvae

(Pig) (have six hooks)
Enter striated pig

muscles
Larvae get
activated by In stomach of pig,
bile salts and outer cover is lost
penetrated through
walls of intestine
Enter pig
intestine
So cysticerci larva of taenia develop in pig and is infective stage for humans.
19. Free swimming ciliated larva of liver fluke is

(1) Redia (2) Miracidium (3) Metacercaria (4) Cercaria
Sol. Answer (2)
Miracidium larva is free-swimming larvae of Fasciola and have ciliated epidermis.
Miracidium larva is infective stage for secondary host i.e. snail during life cycle of Fasciola.
20. One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus
is
(1) Fasciola (2) Ancylostoma (3) Asterias (4) Ascidia
Sol. Answer (1)
Animals having single opening to outside that function as mouth as well as anus, have incomplete digestive
system. Platyhelminthes have incomplete digestive system e.g.- Fasciola Ancyclostoma (Aschelminthes),
Asterias (Echinodermata), Ascidia (Urochordate) have complete digestive system with two separate opening,
mouth and anus.
21. In contrast to Annelids, the Platyhelminthes show
(1) Absence of body cavity (2) Bilateral symmetry
(3) Radial symmetry (4) Presence of pseudocoel
Sol. Answer (1)
Platyhelminthes does not have body cavity lined with mesoderm, hence are aceolomate but annelids are
schizocoelomate, true coelomate, body cavity is lined by mesoderm.
22. Which of the following is not a digenetic worm?

(1) Fasciola (2) Wuchereria (3) Enterobius (4) Taenia
Sol. Answer (3)
Digenetic worms are worms having two hosts to complete its life cycle
Fasciola, primary host is sheep and goat and secondary host is snail (Limnaea) and (Planorbis)
Wuchereria, primary host is human and secondary host is Culex mosquito
Enterobius, (Pin worm) is monogenetic, i.e. complete life cycle in single host which is humans
Taenia, primary host is human and secondary host is pig or cow, buffalo, sheep
23. The characteristics of a tapeworm are
A - Large, quadrate scolex, without rostellum and hooks
B - Primary host man, and secondary host cattle
C - Length 5 to 10 metres
Identify the tapeworm
(1) Taenia solium (2) Taenia saginata
(3) Echinococcus (4) Hymenolepsis nana
Sol. Answer (2)
Taenia saginata commonly known as beef tapeworm. Intermediate host is cow, buffalo and sheep. In Taenia
saginata rostellum and hooks are absent. Taenia saginata is longest tapeworm (5-10 m) and it is most common
tapeworm of man.
• Phylum : Aschelminthes, Annelida
24. The secondary host of Wuchereria, that transmits filariasis is

(1) Anopheles (2) Sand fly (3) Tse tse fly (4) Culex
Sol. Answer (4)
Culex mosquito is vector of filariasis, which is caused by Wuchereria.
25. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of phylum Nemathelminthes?

(1) Bilateral symmetry, triploblastic, pseudocoelomate.
(2) They are possibly most abundant amongst the animals
(3) The false body cavity allows body wall muscles and digestive tract muscles to act independently of each other
(4) The bodywall has longitudinal muscles, circular muscles and an elastic cuticle
Sol. Answer (4)
In phylum Nemathelminthes/Aschelminthes only longitudinal muscle fibres are present, circular muscle fibres
are absent.
26. Syncytial epidermis is present in

(1) Aurelia (2) Ascaris (3) Asterias (4) Astraea
Sol. Answer (2)
Syncytial epidermis is present in Ascaris (Aschelminthes). In body wall of Ascaris, below cuticle is present
syncytial epidermis. Syncytial epidermis have fused cells or cells are not distinct and appear like multinucleated
layer.
27. An individual bathing in an infected pool or coming in contact with contaminated water is liable to be infected
with ________. The ________ larva stick to the surface of the skin of swimmer or bather, and penetrate the
skin.
(1) Ancylostoma, IInd Juvenile (2) Bilharzia, Cercaria
(3) Schistosoma, Metacercariae (4) Bilharzia, Redia
Sol. Answer (2)
Schistosomiasis or Bilharzia is a disease caused by parasitic worm, Schistosoma. Disease is caused by
parasites, which are released from fresh water snail. Human get infected when they come in contact with
infected water.
Carcaria larva, develop during life cycle of Schistosoma, infect humans by attaching and penetrating skin.
28. Which of the following statements are correct about the life cycle of Ascaris lumbricoides?
A. Infective agent - Embryonated egg with II Juvenile
B. Fertilised eggs containing the unsegmented ovum are passed with faeces
C. Four moultings of the larva occur two outside in soil within the egg-shell, one in lungs and one in intestine
D. Site of location of worm - small intestine.
(1) A and B (2) A only (3) A, B & D (4) A, B, C & D
Sol. Answer (3)
Statement C is incorrect as
1st molting of Ascaris occurs in soil, 2nd molting occur in lung alveoli, 3rd molting also takes place in lung
alveoli, 4th molting occurs in intestine.
29. Which of the following type of nephridia of are not found in earthworm?
(1) Septal nephridia (2) Pharyngeal protonephridia
(3) Integumentary nephridia (4) Protonephridia
Sol. Answer (4)
Annelids have specialized structure called nephridia for excretion. Peptonephridia are nephridia which opens
into buccal cavity or pharynx. They are also called as pharyngeal nephridia.
• Phylum : Arthropoda
30. Body of insect is divisible into

(1) Head, thorax and abdomen (2) Head, trunk and abdomen
(3) Cephalothorax, head and abdomen (4) Trunk, thorax and abdomen
Sol. Answer (1)
Body of insect is divisible into three parts:
Head, thorax and abdoman.
31. Excretory organs of arthropods are

(1) Green glands (2) Green gland and malpighian tubules
(3) Nephridia (4) Malpighian tubules
Sol. Answer (2)
Excretion in arthropods is carried by different organs like green glands, malpighian tubules etc
Depending on location if green glands are present in antenna then they are antennary gland and if present in
appendages called coxal glands.
Malpighian tubules are present at junction of midgut and hindgut and open in alimentary canal.
32. Johnston’s organ present in mosquitoes, are to detect vibrations. They are present in
(1) Antenna (2) Appendages (3) Anal cerci (4) Mouth parts
Sol. Answer (1)
Johnston's organs are present on antennae of mosquitoes.
33. Match the following (w.r.t. type of metamorphsis involved)

Column I Column II
a. Paurometabolous (i) Silk worm
b. Hemimetabolous (ii) Grasshopper
c. Holometabolous (iii) Silver fish
d. Ametabolous (iv) Dragon fly
(1) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
Sol. Answer (1)
a. Paurometabolous – Grasshopper – Gradual metamorphosis life history includes egg, nymph and adult.
b. Hemimetabolous – Dragonflies – Incomplete metamorphosis life history includes egg, naiad, imago
c. Holometabolous – Silk worm – Complete metamorphosis life history includes egg, larva, pupa, imago
d. Ametabolous – Silverfish – Without metamorphosis life history includes egg, young and imago
34. In which of the following arthropods the eggs hatch within the female body and they bring forth the young alive?
(1) Araneus (2) Macrobrachium (3) Buthus (4) Lepisma
Sol. Answer (3)
Buthus are scorpions and scorpions are ovoviviparous where eggs hatch with in female body and bring forth
the young alive.
35. In which of the following arthropods the development is paurometabolous? The young hatched from eggs resemble
the adult and often occupy the same habitat and they grow by moulting
(1) Bombyx (2) Apis (3) Anopheles (4) Periplaneta
Sol. Answer (4)
Periplaneta (Cockroach) undergoes paurometabolous development with gradual metamorphosis. The young
resembles the adult in its mode of life but differs in structure.
36. In honeybees and butterflies the gustatory and olfactory receptors are located, respectively on
(1) Mouth parts, Antennae (2) Feet, Antennae
(3) Proboscis, Legs (4) Mandibles, Antennae
Sol. Answer (2)
Gustatory receptors are sense receptors which help in tasting of food and olfactory receptors help in smelling.
In honey bees and butterflies gustatory receptors are present on feet and olfactory receptors on antennae.
37. Which set includes Arthropods of economic importance providing useful products to man?
(1) Anopheles, Culex, tse-tse fly (2) Apis, Bombyx, Laccifer
(3) Limulus, Peripatus (4) Locusta, Grasshopper
Sol. Answer (2)
Apis (honey bee) – Forms two main products–honey which is used as food as well as medicines,
other product is bee wax which is used in paints and cosmetics.
Bombyx (silk worm) – Provides silk for making shawls, sarees and other garments
Laccifer (Lac insect) – Provides lac, which acts as sealing wax and used in making bangles, toys, etc.
38. Which of the following is an important distinguishing feature of butterfly and not moth?
(1) Stout body; noctural
(2) Wings are not folded in sitting position
(3) Antennae are long with globose end, and diurnal
(4) Antennae are short, with tapering ends and feathery and nocturnal
Sol. Answer (3)
Option (3) is a distinguishing feature of butterfly. Differences between butterfly and moth
Butterfly Moth
i. It is diurnal (active in day) i. It is nocturnal (active during night)
ii. Body is not robust ii. Body is often robust
iii. Antennae are knobbed distally iii. Antennae taper distally
iv. When is at rest, keeps the wings held iv. When is at rest, keeps the wings held out horizontally
together vertically on its back
• Phylum : Mollusca, Echinodermata, Hemichordata
39. Eye of which molluscan group resembles vertebrate eye?

(1) Bivalvia (2) Gastropoda (3) Pelecypoda (4) Cephalopoda
Sol. Answer (4)
Cephalopod molluscs have simple eyes which are analogous to vertebrate eyes i.e. similar in function to
vertebrate eyes.
40. Radula is
(1) Larval form of coelenterates (cnidarians) (2) File like rasping organ of molluscs
(3) Larval form of annelids (4) Uncovered structure present with echinoderms
Sol. Answer (2)
Radula is file-like rasping organ in mouth of mollusc which bears transverse rows of chitinous teeth.
Radula is meant for feeding.
41. In which group of molluscs torsion is a very important event in the life history?
(1) Gastropods (2) Bivalves (3) Cephalopods (4) Monoplacophora
Sol. Answer (1)
In gastropod molluscs, early embryo is symmetrical with anterior mouth and posterior anus but during
development the body twists, bringing anus near mouth showing torsion. So adult gastropod become
asymmetric.
42. Which one of the following class of phylum mollusca is incorrectly matched with its general characteristics?
(1) Gastropoda – Larvae are bilaterally symmetrical; but in adult, the twisting of viscera makes them
lose this symmetry. Some, like land snail and slug (a shell-less form), live on land.
(2) Bivalvia – They are sedentary filter feeders.
(3) Cephalopoda – They are at the apex of invertebrate evolution in terms of learned behaviour they
exhibit. The eyes are image forming, same what similar to ours.
(4) Pelecypoda – They have sensory tentacles and their foot is reduced into a tongue-shaped structure
which helps them to burrow into sea floor.
Sol. Answer (4)
Pelecypoda (Bivalvia) have no head, tentacles, eyes, jaws and radula. Foot is often hatchet shaped and extends
between mantle lobes. They are mostly filter feeders, marine but scaphopoda class of molluscs has prehensile
sensory tentacles on head. Foot is conical shaped and is used for digging.
43. Tube feet are the characteristic structures of

(1) Star fish (2) Jelly fish (3) Devil fish (4) Cuttle fish
Sol. Answer (1)
Water vascular system is characteristic feature of echinoderm. Tube feet is a part of water vascular system
in echinoderm. Star fish is a member of phylum echinodermata.
44. Which of the following is not a character of phylum Hemichordata?

(1) Presence of stomochord which is mesodermal in origin
(2) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
(3) Circulatory system is open
(4) Respiration takes place through gills
Sol. Answer (1)
Stomochord in hemichordata is not mesodermal in origin, hence they are grouped in non-chordates. From roof
of buccal cavity, arises blind projection called buccal diverticulum or stomochord. Earlier stomochord was
considered equivalent to notochord but is not a notochord.
SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis? [NEET-2018]
(1) Earthworm (2) Tunicate (3) Starfish (4) Moth
Sol. Answer (1)
Metamorphosis refers to transformation of larva into adult.
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said to have indirect development.
In earthworm development is direct which means no larval stage and hence no metamorphosis.
2. In case of poriferans the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called [NEET-2017]
(1) Ostia (2) Oscula (3) Choanocytes (4) Mesenchymal cells
Sol. Answer (3)
Choanocytes (collar cells) form lining of spongocoel in poriferans (sponges). Flagella in collar cells provide
circulation to water in water canal system.
3. An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with Chordates is [NEET-2017]

(1) Absence of notochord (2) Ventral tubular nerve cord
(3) Pharynx with gill slits (4) Pharynx without gill slits
Sol. Answer (3)
Pharyngeal gill slits are present in hemichordates as well as in chordates. Notochord is present in chordates
only. Ventral tubular nerve cord is characteristic feature of non-chordates.
4. Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes given
below: [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
Column-I Column-II
a. Family (i) Diptera
b. Order (ii) Arthropoda
c. Class (iii) Muscidae
d. Phylum (iv) Insecta
Codes:
a b c d
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Sol. Answer (1)
Housefly belongs to
(i) Phylum - Arthropoda
(ii) Class - Insecta
(iii) Order - Diptera
(iv) Family - Muscidae
5. Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum-Arthropoda? [NEET-2016]
(1) Jointed appendages
(2) Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Metameric segmentation
(4) Parapodia
Sol. Answer (4)
Parapodia are present in aquatic annelids like Nereis and helps in swimming.
6. Metagenesis refers to: [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode of reproduction
(2) Presence of different morphic forms
(3) Alternation of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organism
(4) Occurrence of a drastic change in form during post-embryonic development
Sol. Answer (3)
In coelenterates, metagenesis is alternation of generation between polyp and medusa. Polyp reproduces
asexually by budding to form medusa and medusa reproduces sexually to form polyp.
7. Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect development
are the characteristics of phylum: [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Protozoa (2) Coelenterata (3) Porifera (4) Mollusca
Sol. Answer (3)
In poriferans, the body is loose aggregate of cells (meshwork of cells). Internal cavities and canals are lined
with food filtering flagellated cells i.e. choanocyte/collar cell. Choanocytes help in filter feeding.
8. Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of insects on land?[AIPMT-2015]
(1) Eyes (2) Segmentation (3) Bilateral symmetry (4) Exoskeleton
Sol. Answer (4)
9. Which of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity? [AIPMT-2015]

(1) Ascaris lumbricoides (2) Ancylostoma duodenale
(3) Enterobius vermicularis (4) Trichinella spiralis
Sol. Answer (4)
10. Select the Taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Echinoderms (2) Ctenophora (3) Cephalochordata (4) Cnidaria
Sol. Answer (4)
Echinoderms, ctenophores and cephalochordates are exclusively marine.
11. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Sea-fan(Gorgonia) (3) Saccharomyces (4) Blue-green algae
Sol. Answer (2)
12. Planaria possess high capacity of [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Metamorphosis (2) Regeneration
(3) Alternation of generation (4) Bioluminescence
Sol. Answer (2)
Planaria possess high capacity of regeneration.
13. Which group of animals belong to the same phylum? [NEET-2013]
(1) Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm (2) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta
(3) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish (4) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito
Sol. Answer (2)
Prawn, Scorpion and Locusta all belong to phylum arthropoda.
14. One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is [NEET-2013]
(1) Silverfish (2) Pufferfish (3) Flying fish (4) Cuttlefish
Sol. Answer (1)
15. Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification? [NEET-2013]
(1) Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish, - Pisces
(2) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion - Insecta
(3) House fly, butterfly, tsetsefly, silverfish - Insecta
(4) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber -Echinodermata
Sol. Answer (3)
16. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched,
whereas the remaining three are correct? [AIPMT(Prelims)-2012]
Genus Two
Name Characters Phylum
(a) Pore bearing
(1) Sycon Porifera
(b) Canal System
(a) Jointed
Appendages
(2) Periplaneta Arthropoda
(b) Chitinous
Exoskeleton
(a) Body segmented
(3) Pila Mollusca
(b) Mouth with
Radula
(a) Spiny skinned
(4) Asterias Echinoder-
(b) Water vascular mata
System
Sol. Answer (3)

Pila (apple snail) belongs to phylum mullusca, class gastropoda. In Pila, radula bearing chitinous teeth is
present in mouth but molluscs does not have segmented body almost all molluscs have unsegmented body.
17. The figure shows four animals (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the correct answer with respect
to a common characteristics of two of these animals. [AIPMT(Mains)-2011]
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (a) & (d) have cnidoblasts for self-defence (2) (c) & (d) have a true coelom
(3) (a) & (d) respire mainly through body wall (4) (b) & (c) show radial symmetry
Sol. Answer (2)
(a) is tapeworm, belong to phylum platyhelminthes, are acoelomate
(b) is jelly fish (Aurelia), belonging to phylum cnidaria/coelentrata. These are also acoelomate
(c) is octopus belonging to phylum mollusca, they are schizocoelomate
(d) is scorpion belonging to phylum arthropoda, they are also schizocoelomate
Both (c) & (d) i.e. Octopus and scorpion have true coelom i.e. schizocoelomate.
18. One example of animals having a single opening to the outside that serves both as mouth as well as anus is
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Fasciola (2) Octopus (3) Asterias (4) Ascidia
Sol. Answer (1)
Organisms having single opening to outside that serves both mouth as well as anus have incomplete digestive
system.
Fasciola – incomplete digestive system (Platyhelminthes)
Octopus – (Mollusca) complete digestive system
Asterias – (Echinodermata) complete digestive system
Ascidia – (Urochordata) complete digestive system
19. Which one of the following kinds of animals are triploblastic? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Corals (2) Flat worms (3) Sponges (4) Ctenophores
Sol. Answer (2)
Triploblastic refers to organisms having three germ layers- ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
(1) Corals (Cnidarians) – Diploblastic organisms
(2) Flatworms (Platyhelminthes) – Triploblastic
(3) Sponges (Porifera) – Diploblastic
(4) Ctenophores – Diploblastic
20. Which one of the following statements about certain given animals is correct ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Flat worms (Platyhelminthes) are coelomates
(2) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are pseudocoelomates
(3) Molluscs are acoelomates
(4) Insects are pseudocoelomates
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Flatworms are acoelomates (not coelomates)
(2) Roundworms/Aschemlminthes are pseudocoelomates
(3) Molluscs are schizocoelomates (not acoelomates)
(4) Insects are schizocoelomates (not pseudocoelomates)
21. Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic?
(1) Aschelminthes (Roundworms) (2) Ctenophores
(3) Sponges (4) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)
Sol. Answer (1)
Sponges – Asymmetric or radially symmetric, diploblastic
Coelentrates (cnidarians) – Radially symmetric, diploblastic
Aschelminthes (roundworms) – Bilateral symmetric, triploblastic
Ctenophores – Radially symmetric, diploblastic
22. If a live earthworm is pricked with a needle on its outer surface without damaging its gut, the fluid that comes
out is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Coelomic fluid (2) Haemolymph (3) Slimy mucus (4) Excretory fluid
Sol. Answer (1)
23. Which one of the following groups of three animals each is correctly matched with their one characteristic
morphological feature? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
Animals Morphological feature
(1) Cockroach, Locust, Taenia – Metameric segmentation
(2) Liver fluke, Sea anemone, Sea cucumber – Bilateral symmetry
(3) Centipede, Prawn, Sea urchin – Jointed appendages
(4) Scorpion, Spider, Cockroach – Ventral solid central nervous system
Sol. Answer (4)
Scorpion, Spider and Cockroach all belong to phylum arthropoda and nervous system in arthropoda is solid,
ventral, ganglionated central nervous system.
24. Ascaris is characterized by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]

(1) Presence of true coelom and metamerism (metamerisation)
(2) Absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism
(3) Presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism
(4) Presence of true coelom but absence of metamerism
Sol. Answer (3)
Ascaris belong to phylum Aschelminthes. Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomate i.e. false coelom is present
and have unsegmented body. Thus, metamerism is absent in Ascaris.
25. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of phylum Annelida? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Ventral nerve cord (2) Closed circulatory system
(3) Segmentation (4) Pseudocoelom
Sol. Answer (4)
Annelida phylum belong to non-chordate hence have ventral nerve cord. Annelid possess closed circulatory system
and true segmentation. Annelid possess true coelom hence are eucoelomate. Annelids are not pseudocoelomate.
26. What is true about Nereis, Scorpion, Cockroach and Silver fish? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) They all belong to the same phylum (2) They all have jointed paired appendages
(3) They all possess dorsal heart (4) None of them is aquatic
Sol. Answer (3)
27. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Bombyx mori – Silk (2) Pila globosa – Pearl
(3) Apis indica – Honey (4) Kenia lacca – Lac
Sol. Answer (2)
Pinctada (Pearl oyster) is famous for pearl formation.
28. Which one of the following is a matching set of a phylum and its three examples? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Cnidaria – Bonellia, Physalia, Aurelia
(2) Platyhelminthes – Planaria, Schistosoma, Enterobius
(3) Mollusca – Loligo, Teredo, Octopus
(4) Porifera – Spongilla, Euplectella, Pennatula
Sol. Answer (3)
i. Spongilla – Porifera, Euplectella – Porifera, Pennatula – Cnidaria
ii. Bonellia viridis – Annelida, Physalia – Cnidaria, Aurelia – Cnidaria – Annelida
iii. Planaria – Platyhelminthes, Schistosoma – Platyhelminthes, Enterobius – Aschelminthes
iv. Loligo – Mollusca, Teredo – Mollusca, Octopus – Mollusca
29. Metameric segmentation is the characteristic of [AIPMT(Prelims)-2006]

(1) Platyhelminthes and arthropoda (2) Echinodermata and annelida
(3) Annelida and arthropoda (4) Mollusca and chordata
Sol. Answer (3)
Metameric segmentation (true segmentation) is characteristic feature of Annelid and arthropoda. Body of
arthropods is segmented.
30. Biradial symmetry and lack of cnidoblasts are the characteristics of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Starfish and sea anemone (2) Ctenoplana and Beroe
(3) Aurelia and Paramecium (4) Hydra and starfish
Sol. Answer (2)
Presence of cnidoblast is characteristic feature of cnidaria. Ctenoplana and Beroe belong to phylum Ctenophora.
Ctenophores are radially symmetrical and cnidoblast cells are absent.
31. Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and crab are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Compound eyes and anal cerci (2) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Green gland and tracheae (4) Book lungs and antennae
Sol. Answer (2)
Centipede, Cockroach and Crab belong to Arthropoda. Arthropodes bear jointed legs and have chitinous
exoskeleton.
32. From the following statements select the wrong one [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Millipedes have two pairs of appendages in each segment of the body
(2) Prawn has two pairs of antennae
(3) Animals belonging to phylum-Porifera are exclusively marine
(4) Nematocysts are characteristic of the phylum- Cnidaria
Sol. Answer (3)
Animals belonging to phylum porifera are mostly marines but some members live in fresh water also e.g.
Spongilla (fresh water sponge).
33. In contrast to annelids the platyhelminths show [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]

(1) Radial symmetry (2) Presence of pseudocoel
(3) Bilateral symmetry (4) Absence of body cavity
Sol. Answer (4)
34. Which one of the following groups of animals reproduces only by sexual means?
(1) Ctenophora (2) Cnidaria (3) Porifera (4) Protozoa
Sol. Answer (1)
Ctenophores reproduce exclusively by sexual means only but sponges, cnidarians and protozoans undergo
asexual means of reproduction also (fragmentation, budding, fission respectively)
35. Tube feet are the characteristic structure of

(1) Star fish (2) Jelly fish (3) Cray fish (4) Cuttle fish
Sol. Answer (1)
Water vascular system is characteristic feature of phylum echinodermata (star fish). Tube feet are tube-like appendages
at end of lateral canals in water vascular system. Thus, tube feet are characteristic feature of star-fish.
36. Among the following organisms point out a completely non-parasitic form
(1) Tape worm (2) Mosquito (3) Sea anemone (4) Leech
Sol. Answer (3)
Tapeworm, Mosquito, Leech all three are parasitic forms. Sea anemone (Adamsia) belongs to class anthozoa
of cnidaria phylum. These are not parasites but are free living forms.
37. Which of the following is an example of platyhelminthes?

(1) Plasmodium (2) Schistosoma (3) Trypanosoma (4) Wuchereria
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Plasmodium – Protozoa
(2) Schistosoma – Platyhelminthes
(3) Trypanosoma – Protozoa
(4) Wuchereria – Aschelminthes
38. Radial symmetry is usually, exhibited in animals which

(1) Are attached to the substratum (2) Have one opening of alimentary canal
(3) Live in water (4) Have ciliary mode of feeding
Sol. Answer (1)
Radial symmetry is advantageous for organism which are fixed to substratum as it helps the animals to gather
food from all sides and also repel enemies from all sides.
39. One of the special character of phylum coelenterata only is the occurrence of
(1) Polymorphism (2) Flame cells (3) Hermaphroditism (4) Nematocysts
Sol. Answer (4)
Presence of cnidoblast is characteristic feature of phylum coelentrata. Cnidoblast cells bear a nucleus which
is present near its base and a stinging capsule called nematocyst. Nematocyst is filled with a poisonous fluid
called hypnotoxin which is injected with the help of thread tube.
40. Which of the following does not have an open circulatory system?
(1) Frog’s tadpole (2) Prawn (3) Chelifer (4) Cockroach
Sol. Answer (1)
Prawn, Chelifer, Cockroach belong to phylum arthropoda having open circulatory system.
Frog's tadpole belong to vertebrates having closed circulatory system.
41. The neurogenic heart is the characteristic feature of

(1) Human (2) Invertebrates (3) Rabbit (4) Rat
Sol. Answer (2)
Vertebrates (human, rabbit and rat) have myogenic heart which is two, three or four-chambered.
Invertebrates have neurogenic heart.
42. In silkworm, silk is the product of

(1) Salivary gland of the larva (2) Salivary gland of the adult
(3) Cuticle of the larva (4) Cuticle of the adult
Sol. Answer (1)
Silkworm (Bombyx), silk is product of salivary gland of larvae.
43. The organisms attached to the substratum, generally, possess
(1) One single opening of the digestive canal (2) Cilia on the surface to create water current
(3) Radial symmetry (4) Asymmetrical body
Sol. Answer (3)
Organism which remain attached to substratum (fixed animals) possess radial symmetry, radial symmetry is
advantageous as it helps animals to gather food from all sides and also repel enemies from all sides.
44. Benthic animals are those, which
(1) Are submerged in area (2) Float on the sea surface
(3) Are deep dweller in sea (4) Are floating (free) organisms
Sol. Answer (3)
Benthic animals are animals which live in deep sea.
45. The formation of canal system in sponges is due to

(1) Folding of inner walls (2) Gastro-vascular system
(3) Reproduction (4) Non-porous walls
Sol. Answer (1)
Formation of canal system is sponges is due by porous walls of sponges pores known as ‘ostia’ allows entry
of water to spongocoel and exit via ‘osculum’. Sycanoid / leucanoid canal system is formed due to folding of
inner walls.
46. The nephridia in earthworm are analogous to

(1) Nematoblasts of Hydra (2) Flame cells of Planaria
(3) Gills of Prawn (4) Trachea of insects
Sol. Answer (2)
Nephridia in earthworm are specialized cells meant for excretion. Flame cells in planaria (Platyhelminthes) are
specialised cells which perform excretory functions.
Nephridia and flame cells both perform excretory functions.
47. Coelom is found between the cavity of
(1) Body wall and ectoderm (2) Ectoderm and endoderm
(3) Mesoderm and body wall (endoderm) (4) Mesoderm and ectoderm
Sol. Answer (2)
Body cavity can mean any internal space or series of spaces present inside body. True body cavity generally
refers to large fluid-filled space lying between outer body wall and inner gut wall.
48. Which of the following statement is without exception for sponges?
(1) They all have calcareous spicules (2) They have high regenerative power
(3) They are found only in marine water (4) They are all radially symmetrical
Sol. Answer (2)
Sponges possess high degree of regeneration power. Even the cells of crushed sponge can regroup to form
sponge.
49. The embryonated egg of Ascaris represents

(1) An egg with blastula (2) An egg with a juvenile
(3) An egg with an egg (4) An egg with gastrula
Sol. Answer (2)
In Ascaris, fertilised egg gets surrounded by shell. Inside shell the zygote develop into rhabditiform or juvenile
stage in 10-14 days. After 10 days it develop into second stage juvenile, second stage juvenile is infective stage.
Shell having infective statge is called embryonated egg.
50. What is common among silver fish, scorpion, crab and honey bee?
(1) Jointed legs (2) Metamorphosis
(3) Compound eyes (4) Poison glands
Sol. Answer (1)

Silver fish, Scorpion, Crab, Honey bee belong to phylum Arthropoda. All arthropods are characterised for having
jointed appendages.
51. Most appropriate term to describe the life cycle of Obelia is

(1) Metamorphosis (2) Neoteny (3) Metagenesis (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Obelia shows alternation of generation between sexual and asexual forms i.e. medusa and polyp respectively.
Obelia exists in both the forms shows alternation of generation in their life. This alternation of generation is
called metagenesis.
52. Solenocytes are the main excretory structure in

(1) Echinodermates (2) Platyhelminthes (3) Annelids (4) Molluscs
Sol. Answer (2)
Solenocytes are flame cells. Flame cells are specialised cells of platyhelminthes which help in excretion as
well as osmoregulation.
53. Temperature changes in the environment, affect most of the animals which are
(1) Poikilothermic (2) Homoiothermic (3) Aquatic (4) Desert living
Sol. Answer (1)
Animals which can change their body temperature, with change in environment is called poikilothermal animals.
54. The process of series of changes from larva to adult, after embryonic development, is called
(1) Regeneration (2) Growth (3) Metamorphosis (4) Ageing
Sol. Answer (3)
Metamorphosis is process of series of changes from larva to adult.
55. Similarity in Ascaris lumbricoides and Anopheles stephens

(1) Sexual dimorphism (2) Metamerism
(3) Anaerobic respiration (4) Endoparasitism
Sol. Answer (1)
Ascaris lumbricoides show sexual dimorphism as male and female are distinct externally. Often females are
longer than males.
Anopheles stephens also exhibit sexual dimorphism as antennae in females are sparsely haired while those
of males have conspicuous whorls of hairs.
56. Which statement is correct?

(1) A. indica is largest wild honey bee
(2) Wax is waste material of honey bee
(3) Karl von Frisch deciphered the communication methods in honey bee
(4) Drone of honey bee is diploid
Sol. Answer (3)
Wax is not waste material of honey bee. Wax is an important useful product of honey bee used in paints
and cosmetics.
Prof. Karl von Frisch got Nobel prize (1973) for decoding the language of bee dance and deciphered
communication methods in honey bee.
Drone of honey bee, develops from unfertilized egg and are haploid.
57. Which of the following animals have scattered cells with cell - tissue grade organisation?
(1) Sponge (2) Hydra (3) Liver fluke (4) Ascaris
Sol. Answer (2)
Sponges – Celllular level of organization Hydra – Tissue level of organization
Liver fluke – Organ level of organization Ascaris – Organ system level of organization
58. Blastopore is the pore of

(1) Archenteron (2) Blastocoel (3) Coelom (4) Alimentary canal
Sol. Answer (1)
Blastopore is opening of archenteron to exterior of embryo at gastrula stage.
59. In Hydra, waste material of food digestion and nitrogenous waste material are removed from
(1) Mouth and mouth (2) Body wall and body wall
(3) Mouth and body wall (4) Mouth and tentacles
Sol. Answer (3)
Hydra, has incomplete digestive system, with single opening for entry and exit of substances. Undigested
materials are removed from mouth and waste materials are also removed from body wall by diffusion.
60. In which of the following haemocyanin pigment is found?

(1) Annelida (2) Echinodermata (3) Insecta (4) Lower invertebrates
Sol. Answer (4)
Haemocyanin is respiratory pigment that transport oxygen through out body of some invertebrate animals.
Haemocyanin is observed in some molluscs and arthropods.
61. In which animal nerve cells are present but brain is absent?
(1) Sponge (2) Earthworm (3) Cockroach (4) Hydra
Sol. Answer (4)
Sponges lack nerve cells and brain is also absent.
Hydra have nerve cells which form nerve net but specialised brain is not present.
Earthworm and cockroach posses ganglionated nervous system.
62. Which one of the following is a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon, it exhibits?
(1) Pheretima - Sexual dimorphism (2) Musca - Complete metamorphosis
(3) Chameleon - Mimicry (4) Taenia - Polymorphism
Sol. Answer (2)
Musca (housefly) is an insects with complete metamorphosis (Holometabolous development). Life history
includes egg, larva, pupa and imago. Larva of house fly is called maggot.
63. Ommatidia serve the purpose of photoreception in

(1) Cockroach (2) Frog
(3) Humans (4) Sunflower
Sol. Answer (1)
Ommatidia are compound eyes which help these animals to perceive light falling on them. Ommatidia or
compound eyes is observed in cockroach.
64. During the life-cycle, Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) infects its intermediate host and primary host at the following
larval stage respectively
(1) Redia and miracidium (2) Cercaria and redia
(3) Metacercaria and cercaria (4) Miracidium and metacercaria
Sol. Answer (4)
Infective stage for intermediate host is miracidium larvae of Fasciola hepatica.
Infective stage for primary host (sheep or goat) is metacarria larvae of Fasciola hepatica.
65. Sycon belongs to a group of animals, which are best described as

(1) Unicellular or acellular
(2) Multicellular without any tissue organization
(3) Multicellular with a gastrovascular system
(4) Multicellular having tissue organization, but no body cavity
Sol. Answer (2)
Sycon belongs to phylum Porifera. Sponges are multicellular animals with cellular level of organization.
66. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(1) Glossina palpalis - Sleeping sickness
(2) Culex pipiens - Filariasis
(3) Aedes aegypti - Yellow fever
(4) Anopheles culifacies - Leishmaniasis
Sol. Answer (4)
Anopheles culifaciens is a major vector for malaria in Indian subcontinent. Leishmaniasis is transmitted by
sandfly (Phlebotomus)
67. The animals with bilateral symmetry in young stage, and radial pentamerous symmetry in the adult stage,
belong to the phylum
(1) Annelida (2) Mollusca (3) Cnidaria (4) Echinodermata
Sol. Answer (4)
Adult echinoderms are radially symmetric but larvae are bilaterally symmetrical. Adult echinoderms have
pentamerous radial symmetry and their body parts are arranged along five aves.
68. In Arthropoda, head and thorax are often fused to form cephalothorax, but in which one of the following classes,
the body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen?
(1) Insecta (2) Myriapoda
(3) Crustacea (4) Arachnida and curstacea
Sol. Answer (1)
In insecta body is divisible into head, thorax and abdomen
Myriapoda body is divisible into head and trunk
Crustacea body is divisible into cephalothorax and abdomen
In arachnida body of organism is divisible into cephalothorax and abdomen
69. Which one of the following has an open circulatory system?

(1) Octopus (2) Pheretima (3) Periplaneta (4) Nereis
Sol. Answer (3)
Arthropodes have open circulatory system. Periplaneta belongs to phylum arthropoda.
Octopus (cephalopod molluscs) have closed circulatory system
Pheretima (Annelida) have closed circulatory system
Nereis (Annelida) have closed circulatory system
70. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?

(1) Peripatus (2) King crab (3) Sphenodon (4) Archaeopteryx
Sol. Answer (4)
Archaeopteryx is missing link between reptiles and birds.
71. Biological organisation starts with

(1) Cellular level (2) Organismic level
(3) Atomic level (4) Submicroscopic molecular level
Sol. Answer (4)
Biological organisation start with submicroscopic molecular level.
72. Peripatus is a connecting link between

(1) Coelenterata and Porifera (2) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes
(3) Mollusca and Echinodermata (4) Annelida and Arthropoda
Sol. Answer (4)
Peripatus is considered as connecting link between annelida and arthropoda as it has unjointed legs and
breathes by trachea.
SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions
1. A : Cysticercosis is caused by accidental ingestion of onchospheres.
R : Taenia solium is a monogenetic parasite.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true, i.e. cysticercosis is caused by accidental ingestion of onchosphere larvae.
Reason is false as Taenia solium is digenetic parasite, having humans as primary host and pig as secondary
host.
2. A : Mantle of pearl oyster is three layered.
R : Nacre secreting cells are present just below the nacreous layer.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true, i.e. Mantle of pearl oyster is three layered.
Reason is also true i.e. Nacre secreting cells are present just below nacreous layer.
But reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
3. A : Annelids, arthropods and molluscs are protostomial coelomates.
R : All the three phyla include members with bilateral symmetry and true coelom.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true i.e. Annelids, arthropods and molluscs are protostomial coelomates.
In all three mouth develops first in embryonic digestive tube.
Reason is also true i.e. all three phyla include members with bilateral symmetry and true coelom.
But reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
4. A : In Balanoglossus, proboscis is involved in excretion.

R : Glomerulus is present is probosis.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is true i.e. In Balanoglossus, proboscis is involved in excretion.
Balanoglossus belong to phylum hemichordate where proboscis gland perform excretory function.
Reason is also true i.e. Glomerulus is present in proboscis which is responsible or mediate excretory function
of proboscis gland. Both Assertion and reason are correct and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
5. A : Echinoderms are the only radially symmetrical animals with true coelom.
R : Echinoderms have secondarily adapted to radial symmetry.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true, Echinoderms are only radially symmetrical animals with true coelom.
Reason is also true as echinoderms have secondarily adapted to radial symmetry, because larval forms of
echinoderm is bilaterally symmetric but adults are radially symmetric.
Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
6. A : Hydra has a nerve net but no brain.
R : All its neurons are apolar and connected.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is true, In Hydra, nerve cells are present which join to form nerve net but nerve cells are not organized
to form brain in Hydra.
Reason is also true as neurons in Hydra are apolar. These apolar neuron (with no axon terminals) can join to
form nerve net. Hence both Assertion and Reason is correct and Reason is correct explanation for Assertion.
7. A : Radula is rasping organ of all molluscs.
R : It is made up of vitrodentine.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false as radula is not present in all molluscs.
Radula is absent in class pelecypoda (Bivalvia) of molluscs.
Reason is also false as radula bears chitinous teeth.
Both assertion and reason are false.
8. A : True coelom originated for the first time in phylum Annelida.
R : It allowed the animal to have an alimentary canal longer than the body & space for storing gametes.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true, True coelom (lined by mesoderm) on both sides for first time originated in phyla annelida.
Reason is true, Annelids have longer alimentary canal than body and space for storing gametes.
Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.
9. A : Chitinous exoskeleton is a characteristic feature of arthropods.
R : It allows diffusion of water vapour from atmosphere to the body.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true, Chitinous exoskeleton is a characteristic feature of arthropods.
Reason is false as chitin is impermeable to water and does not allow diffusion of water vapour from atmosphere
to body or vice-versa.
Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Chapter 11
Animal Kingdom
(Chordates)
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Phylum : Chordata)
1. One of the primary characters of chordates is

(1) Ganglionated nerve cord (2) Paired nerve cord
(3) Solid ventral nerve cord (4) Dorsal hollow nerve cord
Sol. Answer (4)
Primary characteristic of chordates is presence of dorsal hollow nerve cord. Nerve cord is a part of nervous
system and is found in both chordates and non-chordates. Nerve cord is ventral in position in non-chordates
and dorsal in chordates.
2. Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of all the chordates?
(1) Presence of coelom
(2) A diaphragm separating thorax from abdomen
(3) Dorsal nerve cord
(4) Pharyngeal gill slits in the early embryonic stages
Sol. Answer (2)
Diaphragm is not a characteristic feature of all chordates. Body of mammals is internally divided into two portion
thorax and abdomen by transverse circular partition called diaphragm. Incomplete diaphragm between thorax
and abdomen is present in crocodiles. However diaphragm is not observed in other members of phylum
chordate.
3. Vertebral column is derived from

(1) Notochord (2) Dorsal nerve cord (3) Ventral nerve cord (4) Outgrowth of cranium
Sol. Answer (1)
Notochord is replaced by cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults of sub-phylum vertebrates. Vertebral
column encloses spinal cord.
4. Which of the following is a chordate feature, not shared by the non-chordates?

(1) Triploblastic body (2) True coelom
(3) Bilateral symmetry (4) Notochord
36 Animal Kingdom (Chordates) Solutions of Assignment
Sol. Answer (4)

Notochord is found only in chordates, and absent in non-chordates all chordates possess mesodermally derived
notochord during their embryonic life as main axial support of body. In some chordates, notochord is replaced
by vertebral column and these chordates are called vertebrates.
5. Which among them is a characteristic of chordata?

(1) Dorsal heart (2) Gut is dorsal to nerve cord
(3) Central nervous system is solid (4) Post anal part (tail) is present
Sol. Answer (4)
Characteristic of chordates are:-
Ventral Heart
Gut is ventral to nerve cord
Part of central nervous system (nerve cord) is dorsal, hollow and single
Presence of post anal tail for balancing
(Classification of Protochordata or Acraniates, Sub-phylum : Urochordata, Cephalochordata)
6. Statement-1 : Cephalochordata bears notochord all along the body throughout life.
Statement-2 : Urochordate bears vertebral column only in tail region throughout the life.
Then which is correct?
(1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct (2) Statement-1 is correct, statement-2 is wrong
(3) Statement-1 is wrong, statement-2 is correct (4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are wrong
Sol. Answer (2)
Statement-2 is incorrect, as
Urochordate belong to protochordata group where notochord is present only in tail of animal larva and notochord
disappears in adult. In urochordates notochord is not replaced by vertebral column.
7. The correct classification of Ascidia

(1) Chordata  Protochordata  Vertebrata (2) Chordata  Protochordata  Cephalochordata
(3) Chordata  Cephalochordata  Vertebrata (4) Chordata  Protochordata  Urochordata
Sol. Answer (4)
Phylum : Chordata
2 sub-groups
Acraniata or Protochordata Craniata or Euchordata

No brain box or cranium Cranium is present
2. sub-phylum sub-phylum
Vertebrata
Urochordata/Tunicata Cephalochordata
Notochord is present only in Notochord extends from head

larval tail to tail region
e.g. Ascidia, Salpa, Herdmania e.g. Branchiostoma
Solutions of Assignment Animal Kingdom (Chordates) 37
8. Body of the urochordate is enclosed in a
(1) Mantle (2) Test or tunic (3) Shell (4) Shield
Sol. Answer (2)
In urochordates adult body is enclosed with in a leathery test or tunic formed of cellulose like organic
substances termed tunicin, therefore urochordata is called tunicata.
9. All of them are characteristics of urochordates, except

(1) Neural gland as excretory organ (2) Open type of circulatory system
(3) Cranium is absent (4) Development is direct
Sol. Answer (4)
In urochordata, development is indirect. Larva of urochordata is free swimming which shows retrogressive
metamorphosis.
10. Respiration in cephalochordates occurs through

(1) General body surface (2) Gills (3) Tracheole (4) Lungs
Sol. Answer (1)
Special respiratory organs are absent, in cephalochordates. There is no respiratory pigment in blood, nerve
gaseous exchange occurs through general surface.
11. Excretion by protonephridia with solenocyte is a characteristic of

(1) Branchiostoma (2) Amphioxus (3) Lancelet (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
In sub phylum cephalochordate, excretion occurs by protonephridia with solenocytes.
Branchiostoma also called as Amphioxus or lancelet, due to both ends pointed like lance, they are called
lancelet. Branchiostoma belong to sub-phylum cephalochordate.
(Sub-phylum : Vertebrata)
12. Which one of the following structure is present in all adult vertebrates?
(1) Notochord (2) Dorsal tubular nerve cord
(3) Pharyngeal gill slits (4) Renal portal system
Sol. Answer (2)
In adult vertebrate, notochord is replaced by bony or cartilaginous vertebral column.
In adult vertebrate, nerve cord is represented by central nervous system.
Pharyngeal gill slits occur during embryo stage in all vertebrates, but disappear in adults. However in some
fishes and amphibians, gill slits occur in adults also.
Renal portal system is well developed in fishes and amphibians, reduced in reptiles and birds and is absent
in mammals.
13. Cyclostomata belongs to which division?

(1) Pisces (2) Agnatha
(3) Acraniata (4) Tetrapoda
Sol. Answer (2)

Sub-phylum - Craniata Vertebrata
(Notochord is replaced by vertebral column)
2. Division
Agnatha Gnathostomata
(Lacks jaw) (Bears jaw)
Ostracodermi Cyclostomata 2 superclasses

e.g. Cephalaspis e.g. Petromyzon,
(Extinct) Myxine
Pisces Tetrapoda
14. The correct classification of Myxine is

(1) Chordata  Craniata  Agnatha  Cyclostomata
(2) Chordata  Acraniata  Protochordata  Cephalochordata
(3) Chordata  Cephalochordata  Cyclostomata
(4) Chordata  Craniata  Vertebrata  Ostracodermi
Sol. Answer (1)
Myxine belongs to class-cyclostomata
Phylum Chordata
Acraniata or Craniata or
protochordata euchordata
(No brainbox or (Cranium is present)
cranium)
Sub-phylum
Vertebrata
Agnatha Gnathostomata
(Lacks jaw) (Bears jaw)
Ostracodermi Cyclostomata Pisces Tetrapoda

e.g. Petromyzon,
Myxine
 Correct order is Chordata  Craniata  Agnatha  Cyclostomata
15. The lamprey (Petromyzon) is included in the same taxonomic class as the
(1) Cephalaspis (2) Ambystoma (3) Neoceratodus (4) Hagfish (Myxine)
Sol. Answer (4)
Lamprey (Petromyzon) and Hagfish (Myxine) belong to class Cyclostomata, division Agnatha and sub-phylum
Vertebrata.
16. Which of the following statements is not true for Agnatha members?
(1) They include hagfishes and lampreys (2) They have notochord throughout their lives
(3) They are known as cyclostomes (4) They have bony skeletons
Sol. Answer (4)
Agnatha are jawless vertebrates. in which notochord persist throughout life. Agnatha is devided into two classes-
Ostracodermi and Cyclostomata. Examples of cyclostomates are Hagfish (Myxine) and lamprey (Petromyzon).
Agnatha does not posses exoskeleton and posses cartilaginous vertebral column. Hence Agnatha members
lack bony skeleton.
17. The larva of Petromyzon is known as

(1) Ammocoete (2) Tornaria (3) Axolotl (4) Bipinnaria
Sol. Answer (1)
Development is indirect in lamprey (Petromyzon). Larva of lamprey is called Ammocoete larva. Ammocoete
larva is similar to adult Amphioxus, hence Ammocoete larva is connecting link between cephalochordates and
cyclostomes.
18. Lamprey is
(1) Catadromous (2) Anadromous (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Lamprey (Petromyzon) are marine organism, but adult lamprey migrate to fresh water for spawning. Such
migration from sea to river for breeding is known as anadromous migration.
(Superclass: Pisces)
19. Catadromous fish migrates from

(1) Sea to river (2) River to sea
(3) River to lakes (4) Deep sea to surface water
Sol. Answer (2)
Catadromous migration is observed in those fishes which spend most of their lives in fresh water (river) and
migrate to sea (marine) for breeding. This type of migration of catadromous migration.
20. Teeth in chondrichthyes are modified

(1) Placoid scales (2) Cycloid scales (3) Ctenoid scales (4) Rhomboid scales
Sol. Answer (1)
Chondrichthyes are cartilaginous fishes.
In chondrichthyes, teeth are modified placoid scales which are backwardly directed.
21. Which fish has an electric organ?

(1) Torpedo (2) Pristis
(3) Trygon (4) Carcharodon
Sol. Answer (1)
Torpedo (electric ray) is a carnivorous fish. It stuns or kill the prey with electric shock from its electric organs.
Electric organs are modified muscles which generate an electric discharge from mild 8 volts to 220 volts.
22. Which type of scales are found on the skin of cartilaginous fishes?
(1) Ganoid (2) Placoid (3) Ctenoid (4) Cycloid
Sol. Answer (2)
In cartilaginous (chondrichthyes) fishes placoid scales are present which backwardly directed. Cycloid, ctenoid
and ganoid scales are observed in bony (ostrichthyes) fishes.
23. Bony fishes are

(1) Marine (2) Fresh water dwelling (3) Estuary dweller (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Bony fishes (Ostrichthyes) are both marine and fresh water fishes with streamlined body. Whereas cartilaginous
fishes (chondrichthyes) are marine fishes.
24. Which of the following belong to class osteichthyes?

a. Sea urchin b. Seahorse
c. Flying fish d. Sawfish
e. Dogfish
(1) b & c (2) a, b & e (3) b&e (4) a, d & e
Sol. Answer (1)
a. Sea-urchin (Echinus) – Class-Echinoidea, Phylum-Echinodermata (nonchordate)
b. Sea-horse (Hippocampus) – Class-Osteichthyes, Superclass-Pisces, Division-Gnathostomata,
Subphylum-Vertebrata, Chordata
c. Flying fish (Exocoetus) – Class-Osteichthyes, Superclass-Pisces, Division-Gnathostomata, Subphylum-
Vertebrata, Phylum-Chordata
d. Sawfish (Pristis) – Class-Chondrichthyes, Superclass-Pisces, Division-Gnathostomata, Subphylum-
e. Dogfish (Scoliodon) – Class-Chondrichthyes, Superclass-Pisces, Division-Gnathostomata, Subphylum-
25. Air bladder is

(1) Hydrostatic organ of bony fishes (2) Excretory organs of mammals
(3) Respiratory organs of birds (4) Respiratory organ of reptiles
Sol. Answer (1)
Air bladder or swim bladder regulates buoyancy. Air bladder is absent in cartilaginous fishes (chondrichthyes)
so those fishes have to swim continuously to avoid sinking. Air bladder is present in bony fishes.
26. Air bladder in a fish helps in

(1) Hydrostasis (2) Respiration (3) Sound production (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Air bladder in bony fishes, arising from gut is associated with respiration, hydrostasis, sound production and
audition.
27. Branch of biology dealing with study of fishes is

(1) Piscology (2) Ornithology (3) Ichthyology (4) Torpedology
Sol. Answer (3)
Branch of biology deals with study of fishes is called ichthyology.
28. Read the following statements and find out the correct statement.
a. Urinary bladder is absent in fishes
b. Gambusia fish eradicates mosquito larva
c. Ampulla of Lorenzini present in dogfish act as thermoreceptors
d. Electric organs are modified muscles
(1) b & d (2) a&c (3) b only (4) a, b, c & d
Sol. Answer (4)
a. Urinary bladder is absent in fishes, as urinary bladder present in Amphibians
b. Gambusia is carnivorous fish, eradicates mosquito larva, and was introduced into regions to control malaria.
c. Ampulla of Lorenzini is present in dog fish (Scoliodon) receives information of temperature fluctuations in
surrounding water, act as thermoreceptors.
d. Electric organs in Torpedo (electric ray) are modified muscles.
29. The fish which shows parental care is

(1) Hippocampus (2) Gambusia (3) Labeo (4) Scoliodon
Sol. Answer (1)
Hippocampus (sea horse), male bears a brood pouch in which female lays eggs, until they hatch egg remain
in pouch. Thus male sea-horse shows parental care.
(Superclass-2 : Tetrapoda)
(i) Amphibia
30. Heart in amphibians is

(1) Two-chambered with one auricle and one ventricle
(2) Three-chambered with two auricles and one ventricle
(3) Three-chambered with one auricle and two ventricles
(4) Four-chambered with two auricles and two ventricles
Sol. Answer (2)
a. Two-chambered heart with one auricles and one ventricle is present in pisces
b. Three-chambered heart, having two auricles and one ventricle is present in amphibians and reptiles (except
crocodile)
c. Four-chambered heart with two auricles and ventricles are present in crocodile aves and mammals.
31. Which of the feature is not present in amphibia?

(1) Scales are present
(2) Most of them have two pairs of limbs for locomotion
(3) Eyes have eyelids
(4) Organisms are cold-blooded
Sol. Answer (1)
Option (1) is incorrect as skin in amphibians is without scales, but if scales present (e.g. caecilians) are hidden
beneath the skin.
32. Which of the following is true for all amphibians?

(1) All have tail
(2) Excretion by kidneys
(3) Alimentary canal and urinary and reproductive tracts open into different chambers to the exterior
(4) Heart is three-chambered with two ventricles
Sol. Answer (2)
Tails is not present in all amphibian, e.g. class Anura is without tail. Bufo (Toad), Rana (Frog)
Excretion occurs by mesonephric kidneys in Amphibians
In amphibians alimentary canal, urinary and reproduction tract open into common chamber called cloaca
Heart is three-chambered in amphibians with two auricles and one ventricle
33. Poison secreting parotoid gland occurs in

(1) Ichthyophis (2) Rana (3) Bufo (4) Salamandra
Sol. Answer (3)
Bufo (Toad) possesses a pair of large parotid glands that produce a milky poisonous fluid.
34. Axolotl is the larva of

(1) Silkworm (2) Ambystoma (3) Amphioxus (4) Roundworm
Sol. Answer (2)
Ambystoma belong to order urodela of class Amphibia. Larva of Ambystoma is called Axolotl larva. Axolotl
larva show paedogenesis (larva shows sexual reproduction).
35. Amphibian with no teeth in jaw is

(1) Salamandara (2) Bufo (3) Rana (4) Ichthyophis
Sol. Answer (2)
In toad (Bufo), teeths are absent in both the jaws.
36. Ambystoma shows

(1) Paedogenesis (2) Neoteny
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Paedogenesis is the phenomenon of sexual reproduction is larva, i.e. larva become sexually matured.
Neoteny is retention of larval characters in sexually mature individual.
Both paedogenesis and neoteny are observed in Ambystoma.
(ii) Reptilia
37. Warty, rough and dry skin is characteristic of

(1) Toad (2) Frog
(3) Ichthyophis (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (1)
Skin is rough, dry and waste with brown spotted dorsal surface and pale ventral surface in toad
Frogs have moist, smooth and slimy skin
Body of Ichthyophis is covered by slimy skin
38. All of them are characters of reptiles except
(1) Lizards shed their scales as skin cast (2) Scutes are present on their body
(3) Heart is three-chambered in all reptiles (4) They are poikilotherms
Sol. Answer (3)
Heart is usually three chambered in reptiles, but four chambered heart is present in crocodiles.
39. Which among the following has four-chambered heart?

(1) Vipera (2) Crocodilus (3) Testudo (4) Hemidactylus
Sol. Answer (2)
Vipera (viper snake) belongs to sub-order ophidia of class Reptilia and possess three chambered heart.
Testudo (Tortoise). belongs to order chelonia of class Reptilia, possess three chambered heart.
Bungarus (Krait snake) belongs to sub-order ophidia of class-Reptilia, possess three chambered heart.
Crocodilus (crocodile) possesses four chambered heart.
40. Which among the following is an exception of possessing three-chambered heart?

(1) Alligator (2) Testudo (3) Chelone (4) Bungarus
Sol. Answer (1)
Testudo (Tortoise), Chelone (Turtles), Bungarus (Krait snake), possess three chambered heart, but Alligator
belonging to order crocodilia of class Reptilia possess four chambered heart.
41. Which among them has moderately long and pointed snout and is very aggressive and dangerous for man?
(1) Crocodile (2) Alligator (3) Gavialis (4) Salamandra
Sol. Answer (1)
Crocodile Alligator Gavialis Salamandra
More aggresive Less aggresive Eat only fish Not dangerous
and dangerous to attacks when because of
man provoked narrow throat
Snout moderately Snout broad and Snout very long No snout
long and pointed rounded and slender
42. Which among them is a living fossil?

(1) Hydrophis (2) Archaeopteryx (3) Sphenodon (4) Vipera
Sol. Answer (3)
Sphenodon belong to order Rhyncocephalia, class Reptilia. Sphenodon is commonly called Tuatara and
possess pineal gland or third eye. Sphenodon retains characters of stem reptiles hence called as living fossil.
43. Study of lizards is known as

(1) Saurology (2) Serpentology (3) Ophiology (4) Ornithology
Sol. Answer (1)
Saurology is study of lizards.
Serpentology is study of snakes.
44. Choose the correct statement.

(1) Lizards show autotomy (2) Most lizards are oviparous
(3) Poison gland in snakes are modified parotid gland (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)

Most of lizards show autotomy, voluntary breaking off tail to confuse enemy. Tail again regenerates.
Most of lizards are oviparous, covered by shell.
Poison glands in poisonous snake are modified superior labial or parotid gland.
45. Which of the following is a viviparous lizard?

(1) Uromastix (2) Chameleon (3) Hydrophis (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Most lizards are oviparous, but examples of viviparous lizards are Chameleon (Tree lizard), Phrynosoma (Horned
Toad).
((iii) Aves, (iv) Mammalia)
46. The sound producing organ of bird is

(1) Larynx (2) Syrinx (3) Oropharynx (4) Nasopharynx
Sol. Answer (2)
In birds, larynx does not possses vocal cords. Syrinx produces sound and is present in region of bifurcation
of trachea and bronchi.
47. Read the following statement and choose the correct characteristic feature of Aves.
(1) Skin of birds have glands
(2) Air sacs help in excretion
(3) Heart is having three auricle and one ventricle
(4) Preen gland is present at the base of tail
Sol. Answer (4)
Skin in Aves is dry and without glands, except oil gland and spleen gland at base of tail for lubrication of
feathers. Air sacs in Aves help in respiration and excretory function in Aves is mediated by kidneys. Heart is
completely four chambered in birds.
48. Choose the option which comprises of oviparous animals.

(1) Ostrich, eagle, whale (2) Bat, pigeon, crow
(3) Parrot, vulture, sparrow (4) Kite, platypus, kangaroo
Sol. Answer (3)
Birds/Aves are oviparous animals with direct development. Majority of mammals are viviparous with few
exceptions e.g. platypus is oviparous.
Whale, Bat, Kangaroo are mammals and viviparous.
49. Largest living flightless bird is

(1) Eagle (2) Rhea (3) Humming bird (4) Ostrich
Sol. Answer (4)
Ostrich (Struthio) belong to super order Ratitae, sub-class Neornithes class Aves, is a largest living flightless
bird.
50. All of the following Avian characters are correct, except

(1) Bones do not have bone marrow (2) Scales are present only in the hindlimbs region
(3) In females, right ovary is atrophied (4) Beak possesses homodont teeth
Sol. Answer (4)
Birds have hollow pneumatic bones filled with air cavities. No bone marrow is present.
In birds jaws are modified to form beak and beak is toothless.
51. Tail vertebrae of birds are fused to form

(1) Pygostyle (2) Coccyx
(3) Urostyle (4) Synsacrum
Sol. Answer (1)
Pygostyle – In birds 3 or 4 tailed vertebrae fuses to form single structure called pygostyle.
Coccyx – Four or five coccygeal bones in final segment of vertebrae column in humans and apes unite together
to form a small vestigial tail bone called coccyx.
Urostyle – A long bone which is formed by fusion of vertebrae a base of vertebral column in some lower
vertebrates. e.g. frogs and toads.
Synsacrum – Fused bone formed by fusion of posterior, thoracic, lumbar and anterior caudal vertebrae in Aves.
52. Aves are

(1) Ammonotelic (2) Uricotelic
(3) Ureotelic (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (2)
Excretory product is uric acid in birds. Uric acid is insoluble in water and thus precipitate out. Uricotelism
(excreting-uric acid) is very important for land vertebrates lay shelled eggs. Birds (laying shelled eggs) are
uricotelic as uric acid being almost insoluble get precipated and remain with shell only.
53. A mammal which lays eggs instead of giving birth to offspring is

(1) Rabbit (2) Macropus
(3) Duck-billed platypus (4) Whale
Sol. Answer (3)
Mammals are viviparous, with few exception. e.g. Ornithorynchus (Platypus) is oviparous i.e. egg laying.
54. Point out the mammalian characters

(1) Diaphragm, four-chambered heart, lungs
(2) Hairy skin, viviparity, feathers
(3) Fins, gills, viviparity
(4) Neural gland, gills, four-chambered heart
Sol. Answer (1)
Viviparity is not an absolute mammalian feature as Platypus (mammal) is oviparous (egg laying). Gills and fins
are also not observed in adult mammals.
So presence of diaphragm, four chambered heart and lungs is mammalian feature.
55. The following statements regarding mammals are correct except

(1) Cloaca is present (2) External ear pinna present
(3) Non-nucleated RBC (4) Excrete urea
Sol. Answer (1)
Cloaca is absent in mammals but presence of external ear (pinna), non-nucleated RBC and excreting urea
(ureotelism) is mammalian feature.
SECTION - B
(Phylum: Chordata, Classification of Protochordata or Acraniates, Sub-phylum : Urochordata, Cephalochordata,
Vertebrata)
1. Which of the following are referred to as non-vertebrate chordate?

(1) Ciona, Ascidia, Amphioxus (2) Lamprey, Myxine, Shark
(3) Scoliodon, Torpedo, Trygon (4) Pristis, Branchiostoma, Scyllium
Sol. Answer (1)

Phylum : Chordata
2 sub-groups
Acraniata/Protochordata Craniata/Euchordata
2 sub-phylum sub-phylum
Vertebrata
Urochordata/Tunicata Cephalochordata
e.g. Ciona, Ascidia e.g. Branchiostoma,

Amphioxus
Both sub-phylum urochordata and cephalochordate are invertebrate where notochord is not replaced by
vertebral column.
2. Members of which group are not deuterostomes?

(1) Chordates (2) Echinoderms
(3) Arthropods (4) None of these; all are deuterostomes
Sol. Answer (3)

Deuterostomes in animals where first opening to develop in embryonic digestive tube is anus and mouth is
formed later. Echinodermates and chordates have deuterostomic body plane while annelids, arthropod and
molluscs have protostomic body plan.
3. Which of the following is the correct matching of an animal, its characteristics and taxon?
Animal Characteristics Taxon
(1) Chameleon Prehensile tail, dicondylic skull, camouflaging Reptilia
(2) Monotremes Viviparous, hair, external ears or pinnae Mammalia
(3) Rana tigrina No exoskeletal elements, dicondylic skull, eyes have eyelids Amphibia
(4) Scoliodon Placoid scales, viviparous, external fertilization Chondrichthyes
Sol. Answer (3)
Animal Characteristics Taxon
(1) Chameleon Prehensile tail, mono- dicondylic skull, camouflaging Reptilia
(2) Monotremes Oviparous, no external ears or pinnae Mammalia
(3) Rana tigrina No exoskeletal element, dicondylic skull, eyes have eyelids Amphibia
(4) Scoliodon Placoid scales, oviparous, internal fertilization Pisces,

(Cartilagin- Chondrichthyes
ous fishes)
4. All the following statements are correct about Petromyzon (Lamprey) except
(1) Lampreys are marine and migrate for spawning into rivers (Anadromous)
(2) Their characteristic ammocoete larvae after metamorphosis migrates back to the ocean
(3) After spawning the adult lamprey stops feeding and migrates back to ocean where it lives
(4) It is a sanguivorous ectoparasite on other fishes
Sol. Answer (3)
Features of Petromyzon (Lamprey) are:
Petromyzon are marine fishes but they migrate to fresh water (rivers) for spawning. Such migration is
anadromous migration.
Petromyzon has ammocoete larva, which migrate from fresh water (river) to ocean.
Petromyzon belong to class cyclostomata which are ectoparasite on some fishes.
Petromyzon bear circular and suctorial mouth with sanguivorous feeding habit.
(Superclass: Pisces)
5. In Torpedo (electric ray), electric organs are present as modified musculature between
(1) Nostrils and mouth (2) Pectoral and caudal fin
(3) Gills and eyes (4) Eyes and nostrils
Sol. Answer (4)
Electric organs are specialized block of muscle derived from branchial muscles in Torpedo.
6. Poikilothermous animals having single occipital condyle will belong to
(1) Amphibia (2) Reptiles (3) Aves (4) Mammals
Sol. Answer (2)
Poikilotherms are organisms who change internal body temperature with surroundings
Amphibia – Dicondylic, Poikilotherms
Reptilia – Monocondylic, Poikilotherms
Aves – Homeotherms (maintain constant body temperature), Monocondylic
Mammals – Homeotherms, Dicondylic

7. Which of the following statements are not true about shark?
a. The skin is tough and covered with placoid scales
b. They possess a swim bladder which regulates buoyancy
c. The tail of shark is heterocercal
d. Ampulla of Lorenzini present in the snout of shark is a thermoreceptor.
e. It has five pairs of gill slits covered by operculum
(1) a, c, d, e (2) b, c, d, e (3) b and e only (4) c and e only
Sol. Answer (3)
Sharks are cartilaginous fishes (chondrichthyes). In cartilaginous fishes skin is tough and covered with placoid
scales, swim bladder or air bladder is absent. So they have to swim continuously. Tail or caudal fin is
heterocercal in chondrichthyes. Snout or head in sharks bear ampulla of lorenzini that receives information of
temperature fluctuation in surrounding water thus are thermoreceptors. There are 5-7 pairs of gills slits, without
operculum.
8. What are not true?

a. Dermal scales of fishes form the exoskeleton
b. Cycloid and ctenoid scales have distinct lines of growth which aid in determining the age of the fish
c. Fish scales are never shed
d. The skin in elasmobranchs is covered with placoid scales
e. The development of a placoid scale is not like the development of a tooth
(1) a, b, c and e (2) b, c and e (3) c, d and e (4) Only e
Sol. Answer (4)
Teeth in cartilaginous fishes are acrodont teeth. Teeth are modified placoid scales which are backwardly directed.
9. Teeth are modified ________ scales which are backwardly directly

(1) Ctenoid (2) Cycloid (3) Placoid (4) Ganoid
Sol. Answer (3)
In cartilaginous fishes (chondrichthyes), placoid scales are modified into teeth which are backwardly directed.
(Superclass: Tetrapoda)
10. Lateral line sense organs are absent in

(1) Tadpole larva of frog (2) Fishes (3) Reptiles (4) Cartilaginous fishes
Sol. Answer (3)
Fishes have lateral line sense organs, which contain receptors. These receptors have neuromast organs, and
are rheoreceptors. Rheoreceptor detects water current and turbulence of water. Tadpole larva of frog bear tail,
gills and lateral line organ.
In reptiles lateral line organ is absent.
11. Amongst the following mammals which of the following is a monotreme?

(1) Macropus (Kangaroo) (2) Ornithorhynchus (Platypus)
(3) Balaenoptera (Blue whale) (4) Elephas (Elephant)
Sol. Answer (2)
Mammalia
Sub-class
Monotremata Marsupilia Eutheria

(Prototheria) (Metatheria) (Placentalia)
e.g. Ornithorhynchus e.g. Macropus

(Platypus) (Kangaroo)
Chiroptera Perissodactyla Cetacea Carnivora Primata

Balaenoptera
(Blue whale)
Rodentia Artiodactyla Proboscidea

e.g. Elephas
(Elephant)
SECTION - C
1. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system [NEET-2018]
(1) Amphibia (2) Reptilia (3) Osteichthyes (4) Aves
Sol. Answer (4)
The digestive tract of Aves has additional chambers in their digestive system as crop and Gizzard.
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains.
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to crush food grain.
2. Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm? [NEET-2018]

(1) Macropus (2) Chelone (3) Psittacula (4) Camelus
Sol. Answer (2)
Homeotherm are animals that maintain constant body temperature, irrespective of surrounding temperature.
Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
3. Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals? [NEET-2017]

(1) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks (2) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
(3) Whales, Dolphins, Seals (4) Trygon, Whales, Seals
Sol. Answer (3)
Sharks and Trygon (sting ray) are the members of chondrichthyes (cartilaginous fish) while Whale, Dolphin and
Seals are aquatic mammals belong to class mammalia.
4. Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'? [NEET-2017]

(1) Equidae (2) Perissodactyla (3) Caballus (4) Ferus
Sol. Answer (2)
Horse belongs to order perissodactyla of class mammalia. Perissodactyla includes odd-toed mammals.
5. Choose the correct statement. [NEET-Phase-2-2016]

(1) All mammals are viviparous
(2) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins.
(3) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart.
(4) All pisces have gills covered by an operculum.
Sol. Answer (2)
Cyclostomes belong to the division agnatha. They are jawless vertebrates without paired fins.
6. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
[NEET-2016]
(1) 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle Reptilia
(2) Cartilaginous endoskeleton Chondrichthyes
(3) Viviparous Mammalia
(4) Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw Chordata
Sol. Answer (2)
Reptiles have 3-chambered heart except crocodiles. Mammals are viviparous except prototherian mammals;
chordates have jaws except protochordates and cyclostomes.
7. Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals? [NEET-2016]
(1) Warm blooded nature (2) Ossified endoskeleton
(3) Breathing using lungs (4) Viviparity
Sol. Answer (4)
Mammals are viviparous while birds are oviparous.
8. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water and whose ammocoetes larvae after metamorphosis return to
the ocean is: [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Petromyzon (2) Eptatretus (3) Myxine (4) Neomyxine
Sol. Answer (1)
Petromyzon (Lamprey) is a migratory marine water jawless fish which shows anadromous migration. It spawns
in fresh water, stops feeding and dies. Its larva (Ammocoetes) after metamorphosis will return to ocean.
9. Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception? [AIPMT-2015]
Characteristics
(1) Body covered with feathers; skin moist and Aves
glandular; fore-limbs form wings; lungs with air
sacs
(2) Mammary gland; hair on body; pinnae, two pairs of Mammalia
limbs
(3) Mouth ventral; gills without operculum; skin with Chondrichthyes
placoid scales; persistent notochord
(4) Sucking and circular mouth; jaws absent, Cyclostomata

integument without scales; paired appendages
Sol. Answer (3)

10. Which of the following animals is not viviparous? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Whale (2) Flying fox (Bat) (3) Elephant (4) Platypus
Sol. Answer (4)
11. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Pristis (2) Torpedo (3) Trygon (4) Scolidon
Sol. Answer (2)
Torpedo produces electric current. Electric organs are modified muscles.
12. Match the name of the animal (Column I) with one characteristics (Column II) and the phylum/class (Column III)
to which it belongs. [NEET-2013]
Column I Column II Column III
(1) Ichthyophis Terrestrial Reptilia
(2) Limulus Body covered by chitinous exoskeleton Pisces

(3) Adamsia Radially symmetrical Porifera
(4) Petromyzon Ectoparasite Cyclostomata
Sol. Answer (4)

Correct match will be
(1) Ichthyophis – Aquatic and terrestrial – Amphibia
(2) Limulus – Body covered by chitinous exoskeleton – Arthropoda
(3) Adamsia – Radially symmetric – Cnidaria/Coelentrata
(4) Petromyzon – Ectoparasite – Cyclostomata
13. Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against
them? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) Sea horse and Flying fish - Cold blooded (Poikilothermal)
(2) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus - Viviparity
(3) Garden lizard and Crocodile - Three chambered heart
(4) Ascaris and Ancylostoma - Metameric segmentation
Sol. Answer (1)
Pteropus is flying fox, belonging to order chiroptera of class mammalia and Ornithorhyncus (platypus),
belongs to sub-class prototheria, class mammalia
Garden lizard (reptile) has three chambered heart, but crocodile possess four chambered heart
Ascaris (Aschelminthes) and Ancylostoma (Hook worm) (Aschelminthes) does not possess metameric
segmentation
Sea horse (Hippocampus), flying fish (Exocoetus) belong to class Osteichthyes (pisces), these are cold
blooded (poikilotherms).
14. Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception?
[AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing
(2) All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal)
(3) All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side
(4) All sponges are marine and have collared cells
Sol. Answer (3)
All reptiles do not possess three chambered heart, crocodiles have four chambered heart
Some sponges are fresh water sponges also. e.g. Spongilla (fresh water sponge)
All mammals are not viviparous e.g. Ornithorhynchus (platypus) is oviparous
15. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the
International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described? [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
(1) E.coli– Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occuring bacterium in human intestine
(2) Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile
(3) Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria
(4) Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests
Sol. Answer (3)
(1) Musca domestica – Housefly, is common insect of warmer region
(2) Plasmodium falciparum – Protozoan pathogen causing most serious type of malaria
(3) Panthera tigris – The Indian tiger
(4) E.coli – Full name Escherichia coli, a commonly occuring bacterium in human intestine
16. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its particular named taxonomic category?
(1) Housefly - Musca, an order (2) Tiger - Tigris, the species
(3) Cuttlefish - Mollusca, a class (4) Humans - Primata, the family
Sol. Answer (2)
(1) Housefly (Musca domestica) – First name is genus and second name is species
(2) Tiger (Panthera tigris) – Panthera (genus), tigris (species)
(3) Cuttlefish (Sepia) – Mollusca (phylum)
(4) Humans – Primata-order
17. In which one of the following the genus name, its two characters and its class/phylum are correctly matched?
Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum
(a) Cnidoblasts
(1) Aurelia
(b) Organ level of organization
(a) Body segmented
(2) Ascaris Annelida
(b) Males and females distinct
(a) A tympanum represents ear
(3) Salamandra Amphibia
(b) Fertilization is external
(a) Skin possesses hair
(4) Pteropus Mammalia
(b) Oviparous
Sol. Answer (3)
Genus name Two characters Class/Phylum
(a) Cnidoblasts
(1) Aurelia
(b) Tissue level of organization
(a) Unsegmented body
(2) Ascaris Aschelminthes
(b) Males and females distinct
(3) Salamandra (a) Tympanum represents middle ear

Amphibia
(b) External Fertilization
(a) Skin possesses hair
(4) Pteropus Mammalia
(b) Viviparous
18. Which one of the following groups of animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without
even a single exception? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Mammalia : give birth to young ones
(2) Reptilia : possess three-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle
(3) Chordata : possess a mouth provided with an upper and a lower jaw
(4) Chondrichthyes : possess cartilaginous endoskeleton
Sol. Answer (4)
Mammalia – Majority give birth to young ones (viviparous) except platypus (Ornithorhynchus)
Reptilia – Majority mossess three chambered heart except Crocodilia which possess four chambered heart.
Chordata – Majority possess mouth with upper and lower jaw with exceptions e.g. urochordates, cephalo
chordates and cyclostomes
Chondrichthyes – Possess cartilaginous endoskeleton.
19. What will you look for to identify the sex of the following? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Male shark - Claspers borne on pelvic fins
(2) Female Ascaris - Sharply curved posterior end
(3) Male frog - A copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limb
(4) Female cockroach - Anal cerci
Sol. Answer (1)
In male sharks, pelvic fins has claspers, helping in copulation. Female Ascaris is with straight posterior end
of body. During breeding season, inner digit of each fore limb in male frog develops copulatory organ.
Anal cerci are present in male cockroach.
20. Which one of the following statements is totally wrong about the occurrence of notochord while the other three
are correct? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) It is absent throughout life in humans from the very beginning
(2) It is present throughout life in Amphioxus
(3) It is present only in larval tail in Ascidians
(4) It is replaced by a vertebral column in adult frog
Sol. Answer (1)
Notochord is present during embryonic stage in humans but replaced by vertebral column in adults.
21. Which one of the following statements about all the four of Spongilla, Leech, Dolphin and Penguin is correct ?
(1) All are bilaterally symmetrical
(2) Penguin is homoiothermic while the remaining three are poikilothermic
(3) Leech is a fresh water form while all others are marine
(4) Spongilla has special collared cells called choanocytes, not found in the remaining three
Sol. Answer (4)
Spongilla – Phylum-Porifera (non-chordate)
Leech – Phylum-Annelida (non-chordate)
Dolphin – Class-Mammalia (chordate)
Penguin – Class-Aves (chordate)
Presence of special collar like cells (choanocyte) is a characteristic feature of phylum porifera, which is not
observed in any other phylum.
22. Crocodile and penguin are similar to Whale and Dogfish in which one of the following features?
(1) Possess a solid single stranded central nervous system
(2) Lay eggs and guard them till they hatch
(3) Possess bony skeleton
(4) Have gill slits at some stage
Sol. Answer (4)
Crocodile – Reptilia (Class)(Chordate) Penguin – Class (Aves)(Chordate)
Whale – Class (Mammalia)(Chordate) Dogfish – Class (Pisces)(Chordate)
All are chordate having common features:
1. Dorsal, hollow central nervous system.
2. Paired pharyngeal gill slits, in higher chordates they occur in only embryonic stage.
Whales are viviparous, give birth to young ones.
Dogfish (Scoliodon) is a cartilaginous fish, having endoskeleton of cartilage.
23. Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises 'jawless fishes'? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Mackerals and Rohu (2) Lampreys and hag fishes
(3) Guppies and hag fishes (4) Lampreys and eels
Sol. Answer (2)
Jawless fishes are jawless vertebrates, in which jaws are absent.
Jawless fishes belong to division agnatha, class cyclostomata.
Members of class cyclostomata have sucking, circular mouth without jaws, e.g. Lampreys and hagfishes.
24. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics?
(1) Mollusca – Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or veliger larva
(2) Arthropoda – Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by tracheae
(3) Chordata – Notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary openings to the outside
(4) Echinodermata – Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilization
Sol. Answer (1)
Mollusca – Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or veliger larva
Arthropoda – Body is divided into head thorax and abdomen which may get fused in some animals.
When head and thorax fuses to form cephalothorax and thorax and abdomen fuses
to form trunk.
Tracheal respiration also occurs
Chordata – Notochord at some stage, separate anal and urinary openings. In some animal
common chamber for alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tract is present.
Echinodermata – Pentamerous radial symmetry in adults and external fertilization
25. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
A. Crocodile – 4-chambered heart B. Sea Urchin – Parapodia
C. Obelia – Metagenesis D. Lemur – Thecodont
(1) Only A and B (2) A, C and D (3) B, C and D (4) Only A and D
Sol. Answer (2)
Correct match is
Animals Morphological features
(A) Crocodile – Four-chambered heart
(B) Sea urchin – Aristotle's Lantern (Echinodermata)
(C) Obelia – Metagenesis (alternation of generation)(Cnidaria)
(D) Lemur – Thecodont (Teeth embedded in socket)(Mammalia)
26. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?
(1) Ventral heart – Scorpion
(2) Post-anal tail – Octopus
(3) Ventral central nervous system – Leechn
(4) Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo – Chamaeleon
Sol. Answer (3)
Leech belong to phylum Annelida (non-chordates). In non-chordates nerve cord is located ventrally, hence
leech possess ventral central nervous system.
Presence of pharyngeal gills slits is a characteristic feature of chordates. In higher chordates such as Reptilia,
gill slits occur only in embryo stage and are absent in adults. Chameleon belongs to class Reptilia.
Scorpion (Arthropod) is a non-chordate having dorsal heart
Octopus (Molluscs) is a non-chordate, whereas presence of post-anal tail is a chordate feature.
27. What is common between parrot, platypus and kangaroo? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Ovoparity (2) Homoiothermy
(3) Toothless jaws (4) Functional post-anal tail
Sol. Answer (2)
Parrot-Aves, Platypus-Mammalia, Kangaroo-Mammalia
Parrot belonging to class Aves, where jaws are modified into beaks and beak is toothless
Aves and mammals, both are homothermals i.e. they maintain a constant body temperature.
28. In which one of the following sets of animals do all the four give birth to young ones? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Lion, bat, whale, ostrich (2) Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
(3) Shrew, bat, cat, kiwi (4) Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin, loris
Sol. Answer (4)
Mammals are viviparous with few exceptions. For example
Ornithorynchus (Platypus) is oviparous
Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin, Loris belong to class-mammalia
Ostrich-birds-oviparous
Platypus-oviparous
Kiwi-bird-oviparous
29. Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class-mammalia? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Seven cervical verebrae (2) Thecodont dentition
(3) Ten pairs of cranial nerves (4) Alveolar lungs
Sol. Answer (3)
Mammals possess 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
30. Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification?
(1) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpion – Insecta
(2) Housefly, butterfly, tsetsefly, silverfish – Insecta
(3) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumber – Echinodermata
(4) Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish, – Pisces
Sol. Answer (2)
Centipede – Chilopoda (Arthropoda)
Millipede – Diplopoda (Arthropoda)
Spider, scorpion – Arachnida (Arthropoda)
Spiny ant eater – Mammalia
Sea urchin – Echinodermata
Sea cucumber – Echinodermata
Flying fish – Exocoetus (Pisces)
Cuttle fish – Sepia (Molluscs)
Silver fish – Insecta (Arthropoda)
31. One of the representatives of Phylum Arthropoda is

(1) Silverfish (2) Pufferfish (3) Flying fish (4) Cuttlefish
Sol. Answer (1)
Silverfish – (Insecta), Arthropoda
Pufferfish – Superclass pisces, vertebrata
Flying fish (Exocoetus) – Superclass pisces, chondrichthyes, vertebrata
Cuttlefish (Sepia) – Class-Cephalopoda, Molluscs
32. The characteristics of class Reptilia are :

(1) Body covered with dry and cornified skin, scales over the body are epidermal, they do not have external
ears
(2) Body covered with moist skin which is devoid of scales, the ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary
canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca
(3) Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, air-bladder to regulate buoyancy
(4) Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton, body covered with placoid scales
Sol. Answer (1)
Reptiles are first true land vertebrates and body is covered by dry and cornified skin. Scales or scutes in
reptiles are epidermal. External ear or pinna is absent in reptiles.
Body covered with moist skin, devoid of scales, ear is represented by a tympanum, alimentary canal,
urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common cloaca, all these are features of amphibia.
Fresh water animals with bony endoskeleton, air-bladder to regulate buoyancy-features of osteichthyes.
Marine animals with cartilaginous endoskeleton, body covered with placoid scales-features of
chondrichthyes.
33. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristics and the taxon?
Animal Characteristic Taxon
(1) Duckbilled platypus Oviparous Mammalian
(2) Milipede Ventral nerve cord Arachnida
(3) Sea Anemone Triploblastic Cnidaria
(4) Silverfish Pectoral and Pelvic fins Chordata
Sol. Answer (1)
Correct Matches
Animal Characteristic Taxon
(1) Duckbilled platypus Oviparous Monotremata, Mammalia
(2) Milipede Ventral nerve cord Diplopoda, Arthropoda
(3) Sea Anemone Diploblastic Cnidaria, (ctenophora)
(4) Silverfish No fins, have jointed appandages Arthropoda, non-chordates
34. Sharks and dogfishes differ from skates and rays by

(1) Their pectoral fins distinctly marked off from cylindrical bodies
(2) Gill slits are ventrally placed
(3) Head and trunk are widened considerably
(4) Distinct demarcation between body and tail
Sol. Answer (1)
Sharks/Dogfishes Rays/Skates
Pectoral fins are distinctly marked off from cylindrical body Pectoral fins are fused along margin of trunk
Gills slits on lateral side Gill slits are ventral
Body is laterally compressed Body is dorsoventrally compressed
35. A common characteristic of all vertebrates without exception is

(1) The division of body into head, neck, trunk and tail
(2) Their body covered with an exoskeleton
(3) The possession of two pairs of functional appendages
(4) The presence of well-developed skull
Sol. Answer (4)
Brain of all vertebrates is enclosed within cranium or skull.
36. Besides annelida and arthropoda, the metamerism is exhibited by

(1) Mollusca (2) Acanthocephala
(3) Cestoda (4) Chordata
Sol. Answer (4)
Metamerism is phenomenon where body is divided into parts or segments. Metamerism is seen in annelids,
arthropods and chordates.
37. Which of the following is common among mammals?

(1) They undergo no moulting (2) They have seven cervical vertebrae
(3) They are carnivores (4) They have ventral nerve cord
Sol. Answer (2)
All mammals possess seven cervical vertebrae in neck region.
38. Pneumatic bones are found in

(1) Shark (2) Rana (3) Pigeon (4) Whale
Sol. Answer (3)
In Aves endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and long bones are hollow with air cavities. Such bones are
pneumatic bones.
Shark (chondrichthyes), Rana (Amphibia), Whale (Mammalia) does not have pneumatic bone. Pigeon (columba)
is Aves (birds) which possess pneumatic bones.
39. Which one of the following fish was introduced in India by foreigners?
(1) Mystus singhala (2) Clarius batracus (3) Labeo rohita (4) Pomphret
Sol. Answer (4)
Pomphret is most widely eaten fish in India and was introduced in India by foreigners.
40. The long bones are hollow and connected by air passages. These are the characteristics of
(1) Reptilia (2) Land vertebrates (3) Aves (4) Mammals
Sol. Answer (3)
In Aves, endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and long bones are hollow with air cavities. Such bones are
pneumatic bones.
41. Fish, which eradicates the mosquito larva, is

(1) Gambusia (2) Cuttlefish (3) Anabas (4) Rohu
Sol. Answer (1)
Gambusia fish feeds on mosquito larva and eradicate mosquito larva, so fish is used to control malaria.
42. Which of the following is not found in birds?

(1) Pelvic girdle (2) Pectoral girdle (3) Hind limb (4) Fore limb
Sol. Answer (4)
In Aves (birds) forelimbs are modified into wings.
43. What is true for mammalia?

(1) Platypus is oviparous (2) Bats have feathers
(3) Elephant is ovoviviparous (4) Diaphragm is absent in them
Sol. Answer (1)
Platypus are oviparous mammals.
Bat does not possess feathers, but possess patagium which develops as fold of skin, helping in flying.
Elephants are viviparous
Mammals posses diaphragm
44. Which of the following character is present in all chordates?
(1) Diaphragm (2) Vertebral column
(3) Pharyngeal gill clefts (4) Dorsal nerve cord
Sol. Answer (3)
Diaphragm is present in class-mammalia only. Vertebral column is observed in sub-phylum vertebrata only.
All chordates possess dorsal hollow nerve cord and paired pharyngeal gill slits.
45. In which of the following animal post anal tail is found?

(1) Earthworm (2) Lower invertebrate
(3) Scorpion (4) Snake
Sol. Answer (4)
Presence of post anal tail for balancing is a primary feature of chordates.
Earthworm, lower invertebrates, scorpion are non-chordates while snake (Reptilia) are chordates.
46. In which of the following notochord is present in embryonic stage?

(1) All chordates (2) Some chordates
(3) Vertebrates (4) Non-chordates
Sol. Answer (1)
Notochord is present throughout life or only during early embryonic development in chordates. Presence of
notochord is fundamental feature of chordates. In vertebrates, notochord is replaced by cartilaginous or bony
vertebral column in adults.
47. Given below are four matches of an animal and its kind of respiratory organ
A. Silverfish - Trachea B. Scorpion - Book lung
C. Sea squirt - Pharyngeal gills D. Dolphin – Skin
The correct matches are
(1) A and B (2) A, B and C (3) B and D (4) C and D
Sol. Answer (2)
A. Silver fish - Trachea (Arthropod)
B. Scorpion (Arthropod) - Book lung
C. Sea squirt (Urochordate) - Pharyngeal gills slit
D. Dolphin (Mammal) – Lungs
48. One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammalian body
(1) Homeothermy (2) Presence of diaphragm
(3) Four-chambered heart (4) Rib cage
Sol. Answer (2)
Presence of muscular diaphragm is unique to mammals.
49. Animals have the innate ability to escape from predation. Examples for the same are given below. Select the
incorrect example.
(1) Colour change in Chameleon
(2) Enlargement of body size by swallowing air in pufferfish
(3) Poison fangs in snakes
(4) Melanism in moths
Sol. Answer (3)

Poisonous fangs in snake are maxillary teeth located in maxilla. Snake poison is mixture of enzymes and
specific toxins and is good digestive juice. Poisonous fangs are used by snakes for self defence not for
predation.
50. Annual migration does not occur in the case of

(1) Arctic tern (2) Salmon (3) Siberian crane (4) Salamander
Sol. Answer (4)
Arctic tern shows longest yearly/annual migration
Salmon fish migrate to fresh water for spawning
Siberian cranes also show annual migration
Salamander does not show migration
51. What is true about Nereis, scorpion, cockroach and silverfish?

(1) They all possess dorsal heart (2) None of them is aquatic
(3) They all belong to the same phylum (4) They all have jointed paired appendages
Sol. Answer (1)
Nereis – Annelid (Phylum)
Scorpion – Arthropod (jointed appendages)
Cockroach – Arthropod (jointed appendages)
Silverfish – Arthropod (jointed appendages)
All above are non-chordates, and heart is dorsal in position in non-chordates.
SECTION - D
1. A : In metatherians, scrotum is present in front of penis.

R : In prototherians scrotum is present behind the penis.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is correct as in sub-class Metatheria of class mammalia, penis in male is bifurcated and scrotum
is present in front of penis.
Reason is false as in sub-class Prototheria of class mammalia, testis are abdominal and remain inside
abdominal cavity.
2. A : Birds have metanephric kidney and no urinary bladder.

R : South American Ostrich has urinary bladder.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is correct as birds have advanced metanephric kidneys and urinary bladder is absent as a flight
adaptation.
Reason is correct as south American ostrich (Rhea Americana) is a flightless bird, having urinary bladder
(Exception).
Both Assertion and Reason is true but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
3. A : All birds, except the one like Koel (cuckoo) build nests for retiring and taking rest during night time.
R : Koel lays eggs in the nests of tailor bird.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is correct as all birds except koel (Cuckoo), build nest for retiring and taking rest during night time.
Koel do not build his own nest.
Reason is false as Koel exhibit Brood Parasitism, as Koel lays egg in nest of crow.
4. A : The duck-billed platypus and the spiny ant-eater, both are egg laying animals yet are grouped under
mammals.
R : Both of them have seven cervical vertebrae and mammary glands without teats.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is correct as duck billed platypus and spiny ant eater are oviparous mammals, but are grouped under
mammals due to presence of other mammalian features, such as presence of seven cervical vertebrae in neck
and mammary gland (without teats).
Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation for Assertion.
5. A : Bats and whales are classified as mammals.

R : Bats and whales show echolocation and four chambered heart.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is correct as bats (chiroptera order) and whales (cetacea order) are classified as mammals.
Reason is correct as bats and whales show echolocation and possess four chambered heart.
Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation for Assertion.
6. A : Piscean scales are similar to reptilian scales in origin.

R : Age of the animal can be deduced by lines of growth on both the scales.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false, as scales in fishes are mesodermal in origin where as scales in reptiles are epidermal in
origin.
Reason is true as age of animals can be deduced by lines of growth on both the scales.
7. A : Dicondylic skull is found in amphibians and mammals.

R : The number of cranial nerves in amphibians and mammals is same.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is correct as amphibian and mammals possess dicondylic skull.
Reason is false as amphibian possess 10 pairs of cranial nerves and mammals possess 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
8. A : Evolution of shelled eggs helped the reptiles to successfully adapt for terrestrial life.
R : The origin of shelled eggs occurred earlier than viviparity.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true as reptiles are first successful land vertebrate and formation of shell around eggs helped
reptiles in terrestrial adaptation.
Reason is wrong as viviparity is exhibited by mammals, some reptiles and also by some lower animals even
before shelled egged animals first evolved.
9. A : All chordates have kidneys as excretory organs.

R : Kidneys help in removal of metabolic wastes along with regulating the osmolarity of body fluids.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false, all chordates does not possess kidneys as excretory organs.
e.g. Urochordata – neural glands for excretion
Cephalochordata – protonephridia for excretion
In vertebrates and some other chordates, a specialized organ, kidney function in both osmoregulation and
excretion.
 Assertion is false, Reason is true.
10. A : The lungs of birds are provided with air sacs.

R : Air sacs supplement respiration.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true as air sacs are connected to lungs in birds. To bring fresh air to lungs, birds use eight or
nine air sacs situated on either side of lungs.
Reason is also true as air sacs makes ventilation in birds highly effecient. Air sacs ensure passage of air over
the gas exchange surface in only one direction and does not allow mixing of air. Thus air sacs supplement
respiration in birds.
Both Assertion and Reason is true, but Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.

Chapter 1
Structural Organisation in Animals
(Animal Tissues)
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Animal Tissue)
1. The term ‘tissue’ was introduced by
(1) Robert Hooke (2) Bichat (3) Ruysch (4) Mayer
Sol. Answer (2)
Robert Hooke first observed cell through a microscope as dead cells.
Bichat introduced the term 'Tissue' and is known as founder of animal histology. Mayer coined the term
'Histology'. Ruysch introduced the term 'Epithelium'.
2. Presence of tissues in a multicellular organism ensures

(1) Faster development (2) Division of labour
(3) Higher reproductive potential (4) Body strength
Sol. Answer (2)
Tissue is a group of similar cells along with intercellular substances, which are specialized to perform a specific
function. Each tissue performs one or more function of body. Thus, body of multicellular organism exhibits
division of labour and contribute to survival of body as whole.
3. A group of cells alike in form, function and origin constitute a/an

(1) Tissue (2) Organ (3) Organelle (4) Organ system
Sol. Answer (1)
Group of cells with similar appearance and common function form tissues.
4. The tissue that external and internal surfaces of parts of body in animals is
(1) Connective (2) Muscular (3) Nervous (4) Epithelial
Sol. Answer (4)
Occurring as sheet of cells, epithelial tissues, covers the outside of body and line organs and cavities within body.
(Epithelial Tissue)
5. Cells of germinal epithelium are _________.
(1) Cuboidal (2) Columnar (3) Ciliated (4) Squamous
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2 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) Solutions of Assignment
Sol. Answer (1)

Germinal epithelium of ovary and seminiferous tubule is made of cuboidal epithelial cells.
6. Cell junctions like tight, adhering and gap junctions are mainly present between the neighbouring
cells of
(1) Neural tissue (2) Connective tissue (3) Muscular tissue (4) Epithelial tissue
Sol. Answer (4)
Epithelial cells are held together by specialised intercellular junctions, which serve as structural and functional
links between cells.
7. Goblet cells secrete

(1) Mucus (2) Enzymes (3) HCl (4) Hormones
Sol. Answer (1)
Goblet cells are simple columnar cells that produce mucus. Because of shape produced during secretion of
mucus, mucus secreting cells are called goblet cells.
8. Pavement epithelium is an alternate name for

(1) Squamous epithelium (2) Cuboidal epithelium (3) Ciliated epithelium (4) Compound epithelium
Sol. Answer (1)
Simple squamous epithelium consist of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries. The cells
are closely fitted like tiles in a floor. So these are also known as pavement epithelium.
9. Match the following:

Column-I Column-II
a. Squamous epithelium (i) Lining of intestine
b. Cuboidal epithelium (ii) Ovary
c. Columnar epithelium (iii) Blood vessels
d. Ciliated epithelium (iv) Bronchioles
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
Sol. Answer (2)
Column-I Column-II
a. Squamous epithelium Blood vessels walls
b. Cuboidal epithelium Ovary (germinal epithelium)
c. Columnar epithelium Lining of intestine
d. Ciliated epithelium Bronchioles (Ciliated cuboidal epithelium)
10. Brush bordered columnar epithelial tissue is located in

(1) Fallopian tube (2) Oesophagus (3) Trachea (4) Small intestine
Sol. Answer (4)
Intestinal epithelium bear microvilli to increase surface area of absorption. This gives a brush-bordered
appearance to epithelium. Hence called brush-bordered columnar epithelium.
11. Trapped dust particles are pushed out of respiratory tract by

(1) Squamous epithelium (2) Glandular epithelium
(3) Ciliated epithelium (4) Compound epithelium
Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Tissues) 3
Sol. Answer (3)
Columnar or cuboidal epithelial cells bear cilia on their free surface, called ciliated epithelium. The cilia remain
in rhythmic motion and create a current to transport material which come in contact with them. In respiratory
tract, it helps in expelling mucus and trapped particles towards outside.
(Connective Tissue)
12. Which of the following cells of connective tissue secrete antibodies?
(1) Mast cells (2) Plasma cells (3) Macrophages (4) Fibroblasts
Sol. Answer (2)
Mast cells, plasma cells, macrophages, fibroblasts are cells of connective tissue. Plasma cells produce
antibodies or immunoglobulins.
13. Dense irregular connective tissue is found in

(1) Skin (2) Tendon (3) Ligament (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Dense irregular connective tissue has fibroblast and many fibres (mostly collagen) and are oriented differently.
This tissue is present in skin.
14. The cells of connective tissue which produce histamine are

(1) Fibroblasts (2) Macrophages (3) Mast cells (4) Plasma cells
Sol. Answer (3)
Cytoplasm of mast cells contain granules of Heparin and Histamine. Histamine produces inflammation,
increases permeability of blood vessels, causes contraction of smooth muscles.
15. Blubber of whale is an example of

(1) Areolar tissue (2) Adipose tissue (3) Tendon (4) Muscular tissue
Sol. Answer (2)
Adipose tissue is an aggregation of fat cells or adipocytes. Each adipocyte is rounded or oval containing a
large droplet of fat that almost fills it.
Adipose tissue is found in blubber of whales and elephants that regulates body fat and weight.
16. Haversian canals are found in

(1) Matrix of mammalian bone (2) Matrix of amphibian bone
(3) Matrix of reptilian bone (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Haversian canal is characteristic feature of mammalian bones are present in matrix. Each haversian canal
contains an artery, a vein, a lymph vessel, a nerve and some bone cells all packed within connective tissue.
17. The protein which occurs in the matrix of bone is

(1) Ossein (2) Chondrin (3) Keratin (4) Globulin
Sol. Answer (1)
Matrix of bone contains ossein protein.
18. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the structure of a bone

(1) The matrix of bone is present in the form of layers called lamellae
(2) Lamellae consist of fluid filled spaces called lacunae
(3) Lacunae contain bone cells called chondrocytes
(4) The matrix is solid because of the presence of salts such as calcium phosphate
Sol. Answer (3)

Bone cells called osteocytes lie in lacunae singly.
19. The most widely distributed connective tissue in the body of animals is
(1) Areolar (2) Adipose (3) Cartilage (4) Dense irregular
Sol. Answer (1)
Areolar tissue is most widely distributed connective tissue in animal body. Areolar tissue serves as support
framework for epithelium. It is present beneath the skin.
Areolar tissue joins skin to muscles, fills space inside organs.
20. The connective tissue which acts as an insulator and prevent loss of heat from the body is
(1) Areolar (2) Adipose (3) Blood (4) Cartilage
Sol. Answer (2)
Adipose tissue is specialised loose connective tissue which possesses abundant fat storing cells/adipocytes.
Adipose tissue act as fat reservoir and act as an insulator. Being poor conductor of heat, it reduces heat loss
from body.
21. Both RBCs and WBCs are formed in

(1) Cartilage (2) Thyroid (3) Bone marrow (4) Plasma
Sol. Answer (3)
In long bones, cavity called bone marrow cavity is present. This cavity is filled with soft and semi solid fatty
tissue termed as bone marrow. The bone marrow in some bones is site of production of blood cells (such as
RBCs, WBCs, Platelets etc).
22. Which of the following cells in areolar tissue are phagocytic?

(1) Histiocytes (2) Fibroblasts (3) Macrophages (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (4)
Macrophages are also known as Histiocytes, which occur in connective tissue. Macrophages engulf and digest
microbes, foreign particles and degenerating cells. Macrophages/Histiocytes are thus phagocytic in nature.
23. The connective tissue in which the matrix is not secreted by its component cells is
(1) Skeletal (2) Vascular/fluid (3) Dense regular (4) Dense irregular
Sol. Answer (2)
Fluid connective tissue (blood) is made of fibre free fluid matrix and specialised living cells that do not secrete
fluid matrix. The fluid component of vascular tissue is derived from extracellular fluid.
24. Sprain is caused due to stretching of

(1) Tendon (2) Ligament (3) Muscle (4) Nerve
Sol. Answer (2)
Sprain is injury in joint in which some of fibres of supporting ligaments are ruptured through continuity of
ligament and its binding to two bones remain intact.
(Muscular Tissue)
25. Which of the following muscles act involuntarily?
(a) Striated muscles (b) Smooth muscles
(c) Cardiac muscles (d) Skeletal muscles
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) & (c) (3) (c) & (d) (4) (a) & (d)
Sol. Answer (2)
Skeletal muscle (striated or striped muscle) – Voluntary muscle, e.g. movement of arms, legs etc.
Smooth muscle (unstriped or non-striated muscle) – Involuntary muscle e.g. posterior part of oesophagus,
stomach, intestine, blood vessels
Cardiac muscle – Involuntary muscle e.g. cardiac muscle in wall of heart.
26. In a skeletal muscle fibre, the nuclei lie are
(1) Diffused (2) Centrally (3) Peripherally (4) Absent is absent
Sol. Answer (3)
Skeletal/striated muscle fibers are long cylindrical unbranched fibers. These fibers are multinucleated and their
nuclei are peripheral in position.
27. Intercalated discs are present in

(1) Striated muscles (2) Unstriated muscles (3) Cardiac muscles (4) Neurons
Sol. Answer (3)
Intercalated discs are unique and distinguishing feature of cardiac muscle. They are dark, irregular zig-zag
partitions between adjacent cardiac muscle cells. They have both transverse and lateral portions. Intercalated
disc provide firm adhesions between adjacent cells, electrical coupling for spread of excitation as well as
contraction.
28. Which type of muscles show peristaltic movements in the gastrointestinal tract?
(1) Striated (2) Smooth (3) Cardiac (4) Skeletal
Sol. Answer (2)
Smooth muscles (non-striated muscles) help in bringing about involuntary movement in body such as peristalsis
(movement of food in alimentary canal). These muscles are found in posterior part of oesophagus, stomach
and intestine which undergo peristaltic movement in gastrointestinal tract.
29. Cardiac muscle fibres are

(1) Striated and involuntary (2) Striated and voluntary
(3) Non-striated and involuntary (4) Non-striated and voluntary
Sol. Answer (1)
Cardiac myofibrils have transverse faint dark and light bands, which alternate with each other. Cardiac muscles
are involuntary muscles.
30. Gap junctions are characteristically found in

(1) Skeletal muscles (2) Cardiac muscles
(3) Multi-unit smooth muscles (4) Striated muscles
Sol. Answer (2)
Gap junctions allow molecules and ions to pass freely between cells. Cardiac muscles are auto-rhythmic.
Intercalated discs are located between cardiac muscle cells. They contain gap junctions which provide channels
between cells. The intercalated disc allows waves of depolarisation to sweep across cells thus synchronising
muscle contraction.
31. Contractile proteins are found in

(1) Bone (2) Blood (3) Cartilage (4) Muscles
Sol. Answer (4)
Muscles have contractile nature. The contractile structure of muscle cells are called myofibrils. Myofibrils are
made of myofilaments. Myofilaments are of two types, myosin and actin. Contraction occurs due to sliding
of actin filaments on myosin filaments.
(Nervous Tissue)
32. The nerve cells do not possess
(1) Axon (2) Dendrites (3) Nerve endings (4) Adhering junctions
Sol. Answer (4)
Nerve cells do not lie in direct contact with each other. Signals are transmitted from one nerve cell to other
via electrical synapse mediated by neurotransmitter. Thus nerve cells do not possess adhering junctions.
33. Nissl’s granules are present in which part of a neuron?

(1) Cyton (2) Synaptic knobs (3) Axon (4) Nerve endings
Sol. Answer (1)
Nissl granules or Nissl bodies are present in cyton or cell body. Nissl bodies are basophilic structure of various
shapes. They are pieces of granular endoplasmic reticulum with or without free polyribosomes. They aid in rapid
synthesis of protein and enzymes required by neurons.
34. The functional junction between the axon of one neuron and the dendrite of the next is called
(1) Desmosome (2) Synapse (3) Oblique bridge (4) Tight junction
Sol. Answer (2)
Synapse is an area of specialised junction between two neurons for transmission of impulse. Synapse between
axon terminal of one and dendron terminal of another mode of neurotransmission across a synapse is chemical
or electric.
35. Neuroglia
(1) Protect neurons
(2) Support neurons
(3) Make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue
(4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Neuroglial cells are specialised cells found in brain and spinal cord supporting neurons. About more than 50%
of all brain cells are neurolglial cells. These cells have different shapes and transmit impulse from one neuron
to next neuron.
SECTION - B
(Epithelial Tissue)
1. Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption have
(1) Pinocytic vesicles (2) Microvilli (3) Zymogen granules (4) Phagocytic vesicles
Sol. Answer (2)
Each epithelial cell of a villus (intestine) on its apical surface has many microscopic projections or microvilli,
that are exposed to intestinal lumen. These finger-like projections are villi.
2. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is
(1) Squamous (2) Cuboidal (3) Glandular (4) Ciliated
Sol. Answer (4)
Ciliated columnar epithelia occurs in inner surface of hollow organs like fallopian tubes (oviduct) and most of
respiratory tract.
3. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. junction and its function?

(1) Tight junction – Promotes leaking of substances across a tissue
(2) Adhering junction – Keep neighbouring cells together
(3) Gap junction – Connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid transfer of ions and small molecules
(4) Gap junction – Facilitates the cells to communicate with each other
Sol. Answer (1)
Tight junctions do not allow leaking of substances across tissue. Plasma membranes in apical parts of adjacent
epithelial cells become tightly packed together or are even fused to form tight junctions.
(Connective Tissue)
4. During an injury nasal septum gets damaged. Which cartilage is involved?
(1) Elastic cartilage (2) Hyaline cartilage (3) Calcified cartilage (4) Fibrous cartilage
Sol. Answer (2)
Hyaline cartilage occurs in larynx, nasal septum, tracheal rings and costal cartilage. In hyaline cartilage matrix
is fibre-less and glass-like (Hyaline) but translucent. It gives those structure a definite but pliable form.
5. Which cartilage is present at the end of long bones?

(1) Calcified cartilage (2) Hyaline cartilage (3) Elastic cartilage (4) Fibrous cartilage
Sol. Answer (2)
Hyaline cartilage is most abundant type of cartilage. Hyaline cartilage occurs in trachea, the larynx of nose
and ends of long bone where they from joint.
6. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in pinna is also found in
(1) Tip of the nose (2) Vertebrae (3) Nails (4) Ear ossicles
Sol. Answer (1)
Yellow elastic cartilage is found in external ear or pinna, external auditory canal, eustachian tube, tip of nose,
epiglottis and some laryngeal components. Elastin fibres in yellow elastic cartilage provide both colour and
elasticity to cartilage.
7. What happens if the bone of a frog is kept in dilute hydrochloric acid?

(1) It becomes flexible (2) It turns black
(3) It breaks into pieces (4) It shrinks
Sol. Answer (1)
When bone is kept in dilute acid for long hours, then calcium, magnesium, potassium of inorganic part of matrix
get dissolved. Organic part remains intact. Bones become flexible if kept in acid as calcium salt are removed
from bone.
8. Inflammatory substance produced during allergic reactions by mast cells is

(1) Histamine (2) Heparin (3) Serotonin (4) Fibrinogen
Sol. Answer (1)
Mast cell contain granules of heparin and histamine. Histamine produces inflammation increases permeability
of blood vessels, activates blood platelets and causes contraction of smooth muscles. Heparin prevents blood
clotting.
9. Which of the following cells can release heparin and histamine in the blood?
(1) Mast cells (2) Eosinophils
(3) Mast cells and basophils (4) Eosinophils and mast cells
Sol. Answer (3)

Both mast cells and basophils have cytoplasmic granules. Granules contain heparin, histamine and other
inflammatory substances.
10. Nucleus pulposus is present in

(1) Centre of skull bones (2) Patella
(3) Scapula (4) Centre of intervertebral disc
Sol. Answer (4)
In centre of intervertebral disc, a soft area is present called nucleus pulposus which is supposed to be remnant
of notochord.
(Muscular Tissue and Nervous Tissue)

11. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of biceps muscle?
(1) We are usually able to make it contract merely by thinking about it
(2) It has alternate light and dark bands
(3) Its muscle fibre taper at both ends
(4) Its muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion
Sol. Answer (3)
Biceps muscle is skeletal/striated muscle. Smooth muscle fibres are long, cylindrical unbranched thread like
cells which show alternate dark and light band. Smooth muscles are voluntary muscles
Smooth muscle fibres are spindle-shaped with blood middle part and tapering ends.
12. Which of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?
(1) Iris - Involuntary smooth muscle
(2) Heart wall - Involuntary unstriated muscle
(3) Biceps of upper arm - Smooth muscle fibres
(4) Abdominal wall - Smooth muscle
Sol. Answer (1)
Correct match to options are
(1) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscles
(2) Heart wall – Cardiac muscle
(3) Biceps of upper arm – Skeletal muscle fibres
(4) Muscles in abdominal wall – Skeletal muscles.
13. Unipolar neurons with an axon and no dendrite are present in

(1) Embryos (2) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal cord
(3) Brain (4) Retina
Sol. Answer (1)
Unipolar neurons have only one axon, but no dendron. Such neurons are found in early embryo.
SECTION - C
1. Smooth muscles are [NEET-Phase-2-2016]

(1) Involuntary, fusiform, non-striated (2) Voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
(3) Involuntary, cylindrical, striated (4) Voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate
Sol. Answer (1)
Smooth muscles are involuntary, fusiform, nonstriated muscles.
2. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location? [NEET-2016]
Tissue Location
(1) Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach
(2) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
(3) Areolar tissue Tendons
(4) Transitional epithelium Tip of nose
Sol. Answer (2)
Columnar epithelium is present in the lining of stomach.
Tendon is dense connective tissue and connects muscle to bone.
Tip of nose consists of elastic cartilage.
3. The function of the gap junction is to : [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Stop substance from leaking across a tissue.
(2) Performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
(3) Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions,
small molecules and some large molecules.
(4) Separate two cells from each other.
Sol. Answer (3)
Gap junctions are communicating junctions in animals which facilitates communication between two adjoining
cells by protein bridges for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and large molecules.
4. Choose the correctly matched pair : [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Tendon - Specialized connective tissue (2) Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue
(3) Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue (4) Cartilage - Loose connective tissue
Sol. Answer (3)
5. Choose the correctly matched pair: [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Inner lining of salivary ducts - Ciliated epithelium (2) Moist surface of buccal cavity-Glandular epithelium
(3) Tubular parts of nephrons-Cuboidal epithelium (4) Inner surface of bronchioles-Squamous epithelium
Sol. Answer (3)
6. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Insulin (2) Trypsin
(3) Haemoglobin (4) Collagen
Sol. Answer (4)
7. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts labelled A,
B, C and D and select the right option about them. [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]
A
B
C
D
Options :
Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D
(1) Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres Mast cells

(2) Mast cell Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres
(3) Macrophage Collagen fibres Fibroblast Mast cell
(4) Mast cell Collagen fibres Fibroblast Macrophage
Sol. Answer (1)

A. Macrophages are irregular in outline. They have many elongated pseudopodia. Cells are attached to matrix
fibres.
B. Fibroblast are flat, irregular cells with branched stellate process fibroblast have flattened heterochromatic
nucleus and small amount of cytoplasm with fewer organelles.
C. Several collagen fibers (proteinaceous) in matrix of connective tissue.
D. Mast cells are rounded or oval cells having filopodia. Nucleus is small and centrally placed. Cytoplasm
contain granules of heparin and histamine.
8. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of
(1) Cartilage (2) Ligament (3) Areolar tissue (4) Bone
Sol. Answer (1)
Yellow elastic cartilage is present in pinna, ear canal, eustachian tube, tip of nose and some laryngeal
components.
9. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of
these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Tissue Location Function
(1) (B) Glandular epithelium Intestine Secretion
(2) (C) Collagen fibres Cartilage Attach skeletal muscles to bones
(3) (D) Smooth muscle tissue Heart Heart contraction
(4) (A) Columnar epithelium Nephron Secretion and absorption
Sol. Answer (1)
Option Tissue Location Function
A Columnar epithelium Intestine and stomach Secretion and absorption
B Glandular epithelium Intestine Secretion
C Dense regular connective tissue Tendons and ligaments Locomotion
D Cardiac muscle cells Heart Heart contraction
10. The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) Fallopian tubes and urethra (2) Eustachian tube and stomach lining
(3) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes (4) Bile duct and oesophagus
Sol. Answer (3)
The epithelium consist of columnar cells that possess cilia over their free surface. Ciliated columnar epithelium
occurs in respiratory tract (except terminal bronchioles and alveoli), fallopian tube, parts of uterus and cervix
and efferent tubules of testes.
11. The cells lining the blood vessels belong to the category of [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Columnar epithelium (2) Connective tissue
(3) Smooth muscle tissue (4) Squamous epithelium
Sol. Answer (4)
Blood vessels contain a central lumen lined with single layer of flattened epithelial cells-squamous epithelial
cells. The smooth surface of squamous epithelium minimizes resistance to flow of blood.
12. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner walls of blood vessels is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]
(1) Squamous epithelium (2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium (4) Ciliated columnar epithelium
Sol. Answer (1)
13. The epithelial tissue present on the inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes is
(1) Glandular (2) Ciliated (3) Squamous (4) Cuboidal
Sol. Answer (2)
14. The cell junctions called tight, adhering and gap junctions are found in: [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Connective tissue (2) Epithelial tissue (3) Neural tissue (4) Muscular tissue
Sol. Answer (2)
15. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in:
(1) Nails (2) Ear ossicles (3) Tip of the nose (4) Vertebrae
Sol. Answer (3)
External ears and pinna is made of yellow elastic cartilage.
16. Mast cells secrete [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Hippurin (2) Myoglobin (3) Histamine (4) Haemoglobin
Sol. Answer (3)
17. Epithelial cells of the intestine involved in food absorption have on their surface [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Pinocytic vesicles (2) Phagocytic vesicles (3) Zymogen granules (4) Micro-villi
Sol. Answer (4)
18. Four healthy people in their twenties got involved in injuries resulting in damage and death of a few cells of
the following. Which of the cells are least likely to be replaced by new cells? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Osteocytes (2) Malpighian layer of the skin
(3) Liver cells (4) Neurons
Sol. Answer (4)
In nerve cells power of division and regeneration are absent.
19. Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and match with its characteristics and its location
(1) Skeletal muscle, shows striations and closely attached with the bones of the limbs
(2) Smooth muscles, show branching, found in the walls of the heart
(3) Cardiac muscles, unbranched muscles, found in the walls of the heart
(4) Striated muscles, tapering at both-ends, attached with the bones of the ribs
Sol. Answer (1)
Skeletal/striated muscle fibers are long cylindrical unbranched thread-like cells which show alternate light and
dark cross-bands. These fibres occur in parallel bundles to form striated muscle. Most of striated muscles are
attached to bones and accomplish a range of movements.
20. Which one of the following human organs is often called the "graveyard of RBCs"?
(1) Gall bladder (2) Kidney (3) Spleen (4) Liver
Sol. Answer (3)
Spleen eliminates worn out or damaged red blood cells so spleen is often called graveyard of RBCs.
21. Phagocytosis and pinocytosis are collectively termed as

(1) Endocytosis (2) Suspension feeding (3) Omnivores (4) Mucous trap
Sol. Answer (1)
Endocytosis is a process by which material move into cell. Pinocytosis is mechanism by which cells ingest
extracellular fluid and its contents; it involves formation of invagination by cell membrane and which closes and
breaks off from to form fluid-filled vacuoles in cytoplasm.
Pinocytosis and phagocytosis are both types of endocytosis. Pinocytosis is cellular drinking and phagocytosis
is cellular eating.
22. An epithelial tissue which has thin flat cells, arranged edge to edge so as to appear like closely packed tiles,
is found to be present at
(1) Outer surface of ovary (2) Inner lining of fallopian tube
(3) Inner lining of stomach (4) Inner lining of cheeks
Sol. Answer (4)
Inner lining of cheeks is stratified keratinised squamous epithelium. This epithelium is compound epithelium
in which cells of superficial layer are squamous, i.e. polygonal and flattened in outline.
23. The desmosomes are concerned with
(1) Cell division (2) Cell adherence (3) Cytolysis (4) Cellular excretion
Sol. Answer (2)
Desmosomes are intercellular junctions, these are plaque like areas which provides strong attachment between
two adjacent cells with the help of adhesion molecules and filaments. Desmosomes serve anchoring function.
24. Stratum germinativum is an example of which kind of epithelium?

(1) Columnar (2) Squamous (3) Cuboidal (4) Ciliated
Sol. Answer (1)
Stratum germinativum or stratum basale is a layer of columnar epithelium cells that actively divide and are
responsible for regenerating epidermis.
25. Basement membrane is made up of

(1) Cell product of epithelial cell (2) Epidermal cell only
(3) Endodermal cell (4) Both (2) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
Basement membrane is delicate non cellular layer made of extracellular material that lies below epithelium in
contact with its basal surface. Basement membrane is made of two parts outer basal lamina and inner reticular
lamina. Basement membrane provides elestic support and also anchors epithelial tissues to underlying
connective tissue for obtaining nutrients.
Basal lamina : Secreted by epithelial cells and formed by glyco-protein and mucopolysaccharides.
Reticular lamina : Inner thick layer composed of collagen or reticular fibers of underlying connective tissue.
26. The Nissl’s granules of nerves cell are made up of

(1) DNA (2) RNA
(3) Ribosome (4) Protein
Sol. Answer (3)
Cyton or cell body of neurons contain characteristic deeply stained particles called Nissl's granules. Nissl's
granules are large and irregular masses of ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum.
27. Protein present in cartilage is

(1) Cartilagin (2) Ossein (3) Chondrin (4) Oesein
Sol. Answer (3)
The ground substance or matrix of cartilage is called chondrin. Chondrin is a bluish-green gelatin-like substance,
made of protoglycans consisting of glycoproteins and glucosaminoglycans.
28. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is

(1) Sarcomere (2) Z-band
(3) Cross bridges (4) Myofibril
Sol. Answer (1)
Sarcomere is a part of myofibril between two successive Z-line. The sarcomere is structural and functional unit
of myofibril. A sarcomere hence, comprises of single. A-band and half of each adjacent I-band from a fine,
dense, dark Z-band at centre of each I-band, actin filament extend through I-band and encroach between myosin
filament. Thus each segment of myofibril from one Z-band to next function as contractile unit called sarcomere.
29. Which of the following is the contractile protein of a muscle?

(1) Tropomyosin (2) Tubulin (3) Myosin (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Myofibrils are made of two contractile protein filament-thicker myosin and thinner actin.
30. Tendon is made up of

(1) Yellow fibrous connective tissue (2) Modified white fibrous tissue
(3) Areolar tissue (4) Adipose tissue
Sol. Answer (2)
Tendons are made of white fibrous dense regular connective tissue and contain abundant fasicles of white
collagen fibers. Tendons are inelastic in nature and connect muscle to bones.
31. Ligament is a
(1) Inelastic white fibrous tissue (2) Modified white fibrous tissue
(3) Modified yellow elastic fibrous tissue (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Ligaments are yellow elastic fibrous (dense regular) connective tissue. Ligaments are elastic in nature where
matrix is pervaded by bundles of elastic fibres and collagen fibres.
32. Why hair loss is more in old age?

(1) Reduction of blood supply (2) Decrease in protein synthesis
(3) Low energy production (4) Reduced storage of glycogen
Sol. Answer (1)
Due to reduction in blood supply, hair follicle does not receive proper nutrition. Due to poor nutrition hair fall
occurs in old age.
33. What happens if bone of frog is kept in dilute hydrochloric acid?

(1) Will becomes flexible (2) Will turn black
(3) Will break into pieces (4) Will shrink
Sol. Answer (1)
When bone is kept dipped in dilute acid for long hours, then calcium, magnesium and potassium of inorganic
part of matrix get dissolved but organic part remain intact. Bones become flexible if immersed in acid as
calcium salts are removed from bone.
34. Characteristic of simple epithelium is
(1) They are arranged indiscriminately (2) They make a definite layer
(3) Continue to divide and help in organ function (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Simple or unilaminal epithelium is a tissue that is made of single layer of compactly arranged cells all of which
rest over a non cellular basement membrane.
35. What is sarcomere?

(1) Part between two H-line (2) Part between two A-line
(3) Part between two I-band (4) Part between two Z-line
Sol. Answer (4)
A sarcomere is defined as segment between two neighbouring Z-line.
36. Which statement is correct for muscle contraction?

(1) Length of H-zone decreases (2) Length of A-band decreases
(3) Length of l-band increases (4) Length of two Z-line increases
Sol. Answer (1)
During muscle contraction length of H-zone decreases.
37. What will happen if ligaments are torn?

(1) Bones will move freely at joint and no pain (2) Bone less movable at joint & pain
(3) Bone will become unfixed (4) Bone will become fixed
Sol. Answer (3)
Ligaments are structure which connect bone to bone. They are made of bundles of elastic fibres and few
collagen fibers.
38. Which of the following statement is correct for node of Ranvier of nerve?
(1) Neurilemma is discontinuous
(2) Myelin sheath is discontinuous
(3) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous
(4) Covered by myelin sheath
Sol. Answer (2)
Myelinated neurons possess axons enveloped with lipid rich sheath called myelin sheath. Myelin sheath is
present as spiral wrapping around axons of each neurons. Myelin sheath in neuron is not a continuous sheath.
Certain gaps/intervals are present between adjacent sheaths of single axon. These gaps which are present
between two adjacent myelin sheath are called node of ranvier.
39. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of extracellular material?
(1) Striated muscle (2) Areolar tissue
(3) Stratified epithelium (4) Myelinated nerve fibres
Sol. Answer (2)
Connective tissue is most abundant and widely distributed tissue in body of animals. Connective tissue consist
of living cell embedded in abundant non-living intercellular matrix which connects different tissues or organs.
Areolar tissue loose connective tissue and most widely distributed connective tissue in animal body.
Stratified epithelial tissue consist of variously shaped cells closely arranged in one or more layers. There is
little intercellular material between epithelial cells.
Striated muscles are made up of many long, cylindrical, fiber like-cells, arranged in the form of sheet or bundles.
The muscle fibers have no intercellular substances.
Myelinated nerve fibers does not possess intercellular substances or extracellular material.
40. Which among following be described as Nissl’s granules in a nerve cell are now identified as?
(1) Cell metabolites (2) Fat granules (3) Ribosomes (4) Mitochondria
Sol. Answer (3)
Cyton or cell body of neurons contain characteristic deeply stained particles, called Nissl’s granules. Nissl’s
granules are large and irregular masses of ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum.
41. Mast cells of connective tissue contain

(1) Vasopressin and relaxin (2) Heparin and histamine
(3) Heparin and calcitonin (4) Serotonin and melanin
Sol. Answer (2)
Mast cells contain cytoplasmic granules of heparin and histamine. Heparin prevents blood clotting. Histamine
produces inflammation, increases permeability of blood vessels and causes contraction of smooth mucles.
42. In which one of the following preparations are you likely to come across cell junctions most frequently?
(1) Thrombocytes (2) Tendon
(3) Hyaline cartilage (4) Ciliated epithelium
Sol. Answer (4)
Epithelial cells are held together by intercellular junctions which serve as structural and functional links between
them.
43. Which one of the following mammalian cells is not capable of metabolising glucose to carbon-dioxide
aerobically?
(1) Unstriated muscle cells (2) Liver cells
(3) Red blood cells (4) White blood cells
Sol. Answer (3)
In RBC there is anaerobic respiration.
44. Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that moves it?
(1) Iris - Involuntary smooth muscle
(2) Heart wall - Involuntary unstriated muscle
(3) Biceps of upper arm - Smooth muscle fibres
(4) Abdominal wall - Smooth muscle
Sol. Answer (1)
Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle
Heart wall – Cardiac muscle
Biceps of upper arm – Skeletal muscle fibres
Abdominal wall – Skeletal muscle fibres
SECTION - D
1. A : Mammary glands are apocrine glands.

R : The product of secretion is shed with the whole cell leading to its destruction.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true as mammary glands are apocrine gland.
Reason is false as in apocrine glands only apical portion of cytoplasm is discharged along with secretory
product.
2. A : Human bone has Haversian canals.

R : Haversian canals are interconnected by Volkmann’s canals.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true as compact bones are composed of many parallel, longitudinal column like structure called
haversian canal.
Reason is also true as haversian canals are connected to each other by volksman canal.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
3. A : In non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium stratum corneum is without keratin..

R : Such epithelium occurs over surfaces which are not exposed to drying but are subject to abrasions.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is true as non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium, stratum corneum (i.e. superficial layers)
are devoid of insoluble protein called keratin.
Reason is also true as due to absence of keratin, this epithelium covers moist surfaces such as buccal cavity,
pharynx, oesophagus and are subjected to abrasions.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
4. A : The nucleus of plasma cell has cart wheel appearance.

R : Nucleus contains peripheral clumps of heterochromatin.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is true as nucleus in plasma cells is eccentric but rounded and have cart wheel appearance.
Reason is also true as cart wheel appearance is due to peripheral clumps of heterochromatin.
Both Assertion and Reason is true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
5. A : Yellow bone marrow is reserve erythropoietic tissue.

R : After severe bleeding yellow marrow may convert to red marrow.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is true as yellow bone marrow is reserve erythropoietic tissue.
Reason is also true as body can convert yellow bone marrow back to red marrow in order to increase blood
cell production.
6. A : The cells that produce and secrete fibres are called fibroblasts.
R : Fibroblasts are the characteristic cells of all types of connective tissue.

Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true as fibroblast are most abundant cells of areolar tissue. Fibroblast secrete most of extracellular
matrix as well as various type of fibers.
Reason is false as fibroblast are not the characteristic cell for specialized connective tissue such as bone,
cartilage, blood and lymph.
7. A : Gap junctions connect the cytoplasm of adjoining cells.
R : Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other.

Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is correct as gap junction facilitate cells to communicate with each other by connecting cytoplasm.
Reason is correct as gap junction allow rapid transfer of ions and molecules between adjoining cells.
So both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.
8. A : Intercellular material is minimum between the cells of epithelial tissue.

R : Epithelial cells are not secretory in nature.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true as epithelial tissue consist of variously shaped cells closely arranged in one or more layers.
There is little intercellular material between epithelial cells.
Reason is false as epithelial cells are secretory in nature, epithelial cells secrete basal lamina (basement
membrane)
Assertion is true but reason is false.
9. A : Smooth muscle fibres are unstriated, fusiform and uninucleate.

R : These cells are involuntary in function.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true as smooth muscles are non-striated, and are fusiform (elongated and spindle shaped, pointed
or tapered at ends and broad in middle). Smooth muscles have centrally located single oval nucleus.
Reason is true as smooth muscles are involuntary in their activity, i.e. their functioning cannot be directly
controlled.
Assertion and Reason is true but Reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
10. A : The inner lining of trachea, bronchi and fallopian tubes has simple epithelium with non-motile cilia.
R : Cilia form the brush-border.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false as epithelium lining inner surface of hollow organs like fallopian tubes and most of respiratory
tract is ciliated columnar cells.
Reason is also false as brush bordered epithelium of intestinal mucosa bear microvilli on surface.
Both Assertion and Reason is false.

Chapter 12
Structural Organisation in Animals
(Animal Morphology)
Solutions
SECTION - A
(Earthworm)
1. Earthworms are commonly found in
(1) Deep water (2) Saline water
(3) Upper layer of the soil (4) Air
Sol. Answer (3)
Earthworm is terrestrial animal found in wet soil. They usually live in burrows found in upper layer of soil.
2. Dorsal surface of earthworm is recognised by
(1) Genital apertures (2) Setae
(3) Dark mid-dorsal line (4) Cuticle
Sol. Answer (3)
The dorsal surface of body in earthworm is recognised by a dark median line (mid-dorsal), which is dorsal blood
vessel beneath skin. Their ventral surface can be recognised by presence of genital apertures.
3. In earthworm, small fleshy lobe hung over mouth is known as
(1) Peristomium (2) Nephridiospores (3) Clitellum (4) Prostomium
Sol. Answer (4)
First segment on anterior end of mouth is peristomium (buccal segment). The dorsal edge of peristomium
projects forward above the mouth as small fleshy lobe called 'Prostomium' which serve as covering for mouth.
Prostomium is used as muscular probe in burrowing and sensory in function.
4. In earthworms, sperms are received during copulation inside special apertures known as
(1) Female genital pore (2) Clitellum
(3) Spermathecal apertures (4) Coelomic epithelium
Sol. Answer (3)
There are four pairs of spermathecae apertures situated on ventro lateral sides of intersegmental grooves; i.e.
5th to 9th segments. They serve to receive sperms from another worm during copulation.
64 Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Morphology) Solutions of Assignment
5. Earthworm body is covered externally by a thin, non-cellular layer called

(1) Body wall (2) Epidermis
(3) Coelomic epithelium (4) Cuticle
Sol. Answer (4)
Body wall of earthworm is covered externally by thin, non-cellular layer, secreted by epidermis below it.
6. Egg case in earthworms is formed by the secretion of a material which is secreted from
(1) Peristomium (2) Prostomium (3) Clitellar region (4) Post-clitellar region
Sol. Answer (3)
In mature worms, a prominent dark circular bond of glandular tissue is found from 14th to 16th segment. This
is known as clitellum. Clitellum segment secretes material (i.e. mucus and albumen etc.) for formation of cocoon
or egg capsule.
7. Buccal cavity in earthworm extends from

(1) 1st to 3rd segment (2) 1st to 7th segment (3) 3rd to 5th segment (4) 5th to 7th segment
Sol. Answer (1)
In earthworm mouth leads into thin-walled small tube called buccal cavity. It extends from first to middle of
third segment.
8. In earthworm, the humic acid present in humus part of soil is neutralised in stomach by secretion of
(1) Prostate glands (2) Blood glands (3) Calciferous glands (4) Gizzard
Sol. Answer (3)
Stomach walls are highly vascular and glandular. In stomach walls, chalky secretion of calciferous glands
neutralises humic acid present in humus.
9. The surface area of intestine in earthworm is greatly increased by the presence of

(1) Gizzard (2) Typhlosole (3) Buccal cavity (4) Calciferous glands
Sol. Answer (2)
The characteristic feature of earthworm intestine between 26th to 95th segment is presence of internal median
fold of dorsal wall called ‘Typhlosole’. This increases effective area of digestion and absorption in intestine.
10. In earthworm, haemoglobin is present in the dissolved state in

(1) Lymph (2) Bile (3) Plasma (4) Blood corpuscles
Sol. Answer (3)
Blood in earthworm is composed of fluid plasma and colourless blood corpuscles. A coloured respiratory
pigment, haemoglobin is present in plasma. It gives red colour to blood and aid in transportation of oxygen
for respiration.
11. In earthworm, blood glands are present in the dissolved state in

(1) 4th, 5th and 6th segments (2) 3rd and 4th segments
(3) 5th, 6th and 7th segments (4) 7th and 9th segments
Sol. Answer (1)
In earthworm, segments 4th, 5th and 6th lying above pharyngeal mass, there exist small, red-coloured, follicular
bodies called blood glands. These blood glands are considered to produce blood corpuscles and haemoglobin.
Solutions of Assignment Structural Organisation in Animals (Animal Morphology) 65
12. In earthworm, 10th and 11th segments bear loop-like broad vessels without valves, such vessels are known as
(1) Lateral hearts (2) Latero-oesophageal hearts
(3) Anterior loops (4) Dorsal-blood vessel
Sol. Answer (3)
There is a pair of thin walled, non-pulsatile, loop like broad vessels without valves in each of 10th of 11th segment.
These vessels are known as anterior loops.
13. In earthworm, CO2 diffuses out to surrounding atmosphere through
(1) Spiracles (2) Nephridiopores (3) Body surface (4) Setae
Sol. Answer (3)
Special respiratory organs are lacking in earthworm. Gaseous exchange takes place through body surface.
Gaseous exchange i.e. intake of O2 and giving out of CO2 take place between blood capillaries of outer
epidermis and surface film of moisture. Hence cutaneous respiration takes place in earthworm.
14. In earthworm, nerve ring lies in
(1) 2nd segment (2) 4th segment (3) 1st segment (4) 7th segment
Sol. Answer (2)
In earthworm, there is a pair of closely united white, pear shaped cerebral ganglia which lies dorsally in
depression between buccal cavity and pharynx in 3rd segment. These ganglia elongate laterally giving rise to
a pair of thick stout connectives, encircling pharynx and meet ventrally into pair of ganglia beneath pharynx
in 4th segment.
15. In earthworm, nerve cord runs posteriorly in
(1) Mid-dorsal line (2) Mid-ventral line
(3) Either dorsal or ventral side (4) Pharyngeal region only
Sol. Answer (2)
Earthworm bears paired ventral nerve cord that runs backward in mid-ventral line to the posterior of body.
16. Earthworms can feel the vibrations of the ground by presence of
(1) Buccal receptors (2) Photoreceptors
(3) Epidermal receptors (4) Chemoreceptors
Sol. Answer (3)
All over epidermis in earthworm there are epidermal receptors but are more abundant on lateral sides and ventral
surface of body. These are tactile (relating to touch) receptors in function and help worm to free vibration in
ground.
(Cockroach)
17. Spermatophores are
(1) Spermathecae (2) Packets of sperms
(3) Spermathecal apertures (4) Egg capsule
Sol. Answer (2)
Packets of sperms are called spermatophores. During mating two worms exchange packets of sperms called
spermatophores.
18. Exoskeleton of each segment in cockroach consists of

(1) Dorsal tergum and a ventral sternum (2) Dorsal sternum and a ventral tergum
(3) Sternum only (4) Tergum only
Sol. Answer (1)
Cockroach possess chitinous exoskeleton composed of several plates called sclerites. Exoskeleton for each
segment consist of dorsal tergum and ventral sternum, these plates are joined to each other by thin and flexible
articular membrane known as arthrodial membrane.
19. Which of the following mouth part act as tongue in cockroach?

(1) Labium (2) Hypopharynx (3) Maxillae (4) Labrum
Sol. Answer (2)
Labrum – Upper lip
Labium – Lower lip
Maxillae – Positioning of food
Hypopharynx – Tongue
20. Hind wings in cockroach arises from

(1) Prothorax (2) Mesothorax (3) Metathorax (4) Pronotum
Sol. Answer (3)
Hind wings are metathoracic wings, which are delicate, thin transparent and membranous with broad terminal
end. They are used for flight.
21. Fore wings in cockroach arises from

(1) Hypopharynx (2) Metathorax (3) Mesothorax (4) Prothorax
Sol. Answer (3)
Forewings in cockroach are mesothoracic wings, which are thick, leathery, opaque and dark coloured. They
are not used for flight but cover and protect metathoracic wings.
22. In cockroach, foregut comprises of

(1) Pharynx, oesophagus, crop and gizzard (2) Mesenteron, crop and gizzard
(3) Ileum, colon and rectum (4) Pharynx, oesophagus and rectum
Sol. Answer (1)
Foregut in cockroach comprises mouth, pharynx, oesophagus crop and gizzard.
23. Hepatic caecae are found at the junction of

(1) Midgut and hindgut (2) Crop and gizzard
(3) Midgut and gizzard (4) Midgut and ileum
Sol. Answer (3)
At junction of midgut and gizzard (i.e. foregut) arises six to eight finger like structures, called Hepatic caecae.
Main digestion and absorption of food is carried out by hepatic caecae.
24. In cockroach, spiracles are present on the
(1) Dorsal side of the body (2) Ventral side of the body
(3) Lateral side of the body (4) Anterior region of body
Sol. Answer (3)
There are ten pairs of slit like openings, called spiracles or stigmata present on lateral side of body.
25. Thin tubes that carry oxygen from the air to all the parts in cockroach constitute
(1) Tracheal system (2) Haemolymph (3) Lungs (4) Gills
Sol. Answer (1)
Respiratory system of cockroach consist of network of elastic, closed and branching air tubes called trachea.
Gas exchange occurs through trachea in all parts of cockroach.
26. Malpighian tubule are lined by
(1) Glandular epithelium with ciliated cells (2) Simple epithelium and non-ciliated cells
(3) Cutinised epithelium (4) Simple squamous epithelium
Sol. Answer (1)
Malpighian tubule are fine, long, unbranched, yellowish and blind tubules lying freely in haemolymph. Malpighian
tubules are attached to alimentary canal at junction of midgut and hindgut. Malpighian tubule is lined by
glandular epithelium with characteristic ciliated cells.
27. In cockroach, eye consists of visual units called
(1) Ostia (2) Ommatidia (3) Gonapophyses (4) Spiracles
Sol. Answer (2)
Cockroach has compound eyes. Each compound eye is formed of about 2000 hexagonal ommatidia.
28. External genitalia in cockroach consist of small irregular chitinous plates known as
(1) Seminal vesicles (2) Collateral gland (3) Phallomeres (4) Abdominal sclerites
Sol. Answer (3)
The external genitalia or gonapophysis or phallomeres are three in number - left, right and ventral. In male genital
pouch, surrounding male genital pore are present phallomeres which help in copulation. Phallomeres consist
of three small irregular chitinous plates (right, left and ventral).
(Frog)
29. Frogs can protect itself from enemies by
(1) Clawed toes (2) Spiny skin (3) Camouflage (4) Sharp teeth
Sol. Answer (3)
In order to hide themselves from enemies, frogs exhibit color change and enables them to resemble their
surrounding. This protective coloration, to protect from enemies is known as camouflage.
30. Stomach in frogs contains
(1) Calciferous glands (2) Hepatic caecae
(3) Collaterial glands (4) Oxyntic and gastric glands
Sol. Answer (4)
Stomach in frog contains multicellular gastric glands which secrete enzymes, pepsinogen and unicellular oxyntic
glands which secrete hydrochloric acid.
31. In frog, oxygen dissolved in water can be taken by

(1) External nares (2) Spiracles (3) Buccal cavity (4) Skin
Sol. Answer (4)
Frog can utilise free oxygen and also oxygen dissolved in water.
When frog is under water carry out only cutaneous respiration. Under water dissolved oxygen in water is
exchanged through moist surface of skin by diffusion.
32. In frog, heart is enclosed within two-layered sac called

(1) Mesorchium (2) Pericardium (3) Pleura (4) Conus arteriosus
Sol. Answer (2)
Heart in frog is enclosed with in thin, transparent, two layered sac called pericardium. It protects heart from
friction or mechanical shock.
33. A thin-walled, triangular chamber attached dorsally to heart of frog is known as

(1) Truncus arteriosus (2) Sinus venosus (3) Atrium (4) Ventricle
Sol. Answer (2)
Heart of frog has two additional chambers-sinus venosus and truncus arteriosus.
Sinus venosus is thin walled, triangular chamber attached dorsally to heart and open into right larger atrium
through an aperture.
34. In frog, deoxygenated blood is received by

(1) Sinus venosus (2) Left atrium (3) Ventricle (4) Truncus arteriosus
Sol. Answer (1)
Deoxygenated blood from body Oxygenated blood
Vena cava (major vein) Pulmonary vein
Deoxygenated blood
enter sinus venosus
Blood from sinus venosus

enters into right atrium Oxygenated blood
enters left atrium
Both left and right atrium

pump blood in single ventricle
Ventricle pump blood in truncus arteriosus
Truncus arteriosus
35. Renal portal vein carries blood to
(1) Liver (2) Kidney (3) Heart directly (4) Brain
Sol. Answer (2)
Renal portal vein, carrying deoxygenated blood from lower part of body like hind limbs to kidneys.
36. In frog, RBCs are
(1) Nucleated and biconcave (2) Enucleated and biconvex
(3) Nucleated and biconvex (4) Non-nucleated and biconcave
Sol. Answer (3)
RBC in frog are nucleated, oval and biconvex and have haemoglobin (respiratory pigment).
37. In frogs, cloaca receives
(1) Faecal matter (2) Gametes (3) Urine (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Cloaca is common aperture for alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tract. It receives faeces, genital
products and urine.
38. The part of frog's brain which is continuous with the spinal cord is
(1) Cerebellum (2) Medulla oblongata (3) Mid-brain (4) Diencephalon
Sol. Answer (2)
Hind brain is posterior part of brain including cerebellum and medulla oblongata. Spinal cord extends posteriorly
from medulla oblongata through foramen magnum.
39. Frog's eye are protected under water by the presence of
(1) Retina (2) Upper eyelid
(3) Nictitating membrane (4) Lower eyelid
Sol. Answer (3)
In frog nictitating membrane is present over eyes which protect them inside water and also enables frog to
see under water.
40. In frogs, testes are attached to kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum known as
(1) Pericardium (2) Mesorchium (3) Urinogenital duct (4) Vasa efferentia
Sol. Answer (2)
Testes in frog are elongated or avoid light yellow body, attached to upper part of kidney by double fold of
peritoneum called ‘mesorchium’.
SECTION - B
(Earthworm)
1. Which of the following statements is not correct about earthworm?
(1) It shows metamerism, and the number of segments varies from 100-120
(2) The first segment at the anterior end of the body is called as the ‘buccal segment’ or Peristomium
(3) The first segment is Prostomium
(4) The skin of earthworm is brown due to the presence of porphyrin
Sol. Answer (3)
First segment bearing mouth in earthworm is peristomium. The dorsal edge of peristomium projects forward
above mouth as a small fleshy lobe called ‘prostomium’
2. The earthworms move with the help of

(1) Setae, muscles and hydrostatic skeleton (2) Setae alone
(3) Muscles alone (4) Parapodia
Sol. Answer (1)
Locomotion is earthworm occurs in form of wave of contraction and expansion of body. Setae are chitinous
structures, helping in locomotion. Setae are withdrawn from anterior end by contraction of their retractor muscle.
Circular muscles of body contract to cause thinning and elongation. As a result, anterior part moves ahead.
Setae are now ejected by contraction of their protractor muscles for fixation to soil. Longitudnal muscles contract
to pull hinder part which is freed due to withdrawn of its setae. Coelomic fluid acts as hydraulic pump.
3. In earthworm there is a ring of S-shaped setae, embedded in the epidermal pit at the middle of each segment,
except
(1) First (2) Last
(3) Clitellar (4) First, last and clitellar segments
Sol. Answer (4)
Each body segment, except first, last and clitellar segment, bears a ring of tiny, curved, chitinous structures
known as setae or chaetae. They are embedded in epidermal pits known as setigerous sac in middle of each
segment.
4. There are four pairs of spermathecal pores in Pheretima which are located in intersegmental grooves between
segments
(1) 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 8/9 (2) 6/7, 7/8, 8/9, 9/10
(3) 14/15, 15/16, 16/17, 17/18 (4) 1/2, 2/3, 3/4, 4/5
Sol. Answer (1)
There are four pairs of spermathecal apertures situated on ventrolateral sides of intersegmental grooves, i.e.
5th to 9th segments, 5/6, 6/7, 7/8, 8/9 intersegments. They serve to receive sperm from another worm during
copulation.
5. Tick mark the wrong match (In earthworm)

(1) Female genital aperture – Midventral line of 14th segment
(2) A pair of male genital apertures – Ventrolateral sides of 18th segment
(3) Genital papillae – Ventral surface of 17th & 19th segments
(4) Clitellum or Cingulum – 9th to 14th segment
Sol. Answer (4)
In mature worm, clitellum is observed as prominant dark circular band of glandular tissue from 14th to 16th
segment.
6. Which of the following are analogous to vertebrate liver cells?
(1) Chromophil cells (2) Chloragogen cells
(3) Calciferous gland cells (4) Albumen cells
Sol. Answer (2)
Chloragogen cells are analogous to liver cells of vertebrates as chloragogen cells in earthworm are centres of
synthesis and storage of glycogen and fat, deamination of excess amino acids and formation of urea.
7. In earthworm the function of typhlosole which extends between 27th to 95th segments is/it
(1) Excretion
(2) Enhances effective area of absorption after digestion
(3) Respiration
(4) Locomotion
Sol. Answer (2)
Typhlosole is characteristic feature of earthworm intestine having internal median fold of dorsal wall called
typhlosole between 26th to 95th segments. These increases effective area of digestion and absorption of intestine.
8. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the circulatory system of earthworm?
(1) Pheretima represents a closed type of blood vascular system
(2) Blood glands are present in 4th, 5th and 6th segments, they produce blood cells and haemoglobin
dissolved in plasma
(3) There are fours pairs of hearts in earthworm present in 7, 9, 12 and 13 segments
(4) In dorsal vessel blood flows in forward direction and is without valves
Sol. Answer (4)
Dorsal blood vessel is largest blood vessel of body running mid-dorsally above alimentary canal, from one end
of body to other. Blood flow in forward direction (i.e. posterior to anterior) and has valves to prevent backflow
of blood.
9. Testes in earthworm are present in the segments

(1) 11 & 12 (2) 12 & 13 (3) 14 & 15 (4) 10 & 11
Sol. Answer (4)
In earthworm there are two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segment. Each testis arises from anterior wall of
each testis sac.
10. During copulation in earthworms, sperms are transferred between copulating individuals from
(1) Female genital pore to spermathecae (2) Male genital pores to spermathecae
(3) Spermathecae to cocoon (4) Male genital pores to outside
Sol. Answer (2)
A mutual exchange of sperms occurs between two worms during mating. When one worm finds another worm
they mate juxtapositioning i.e. worms apply to each other by their ventral surfaces with heads pointing in
opposite directions, so that male genital pores of each lie against a pair of spermathecal pores of other. In
copulation, sperm of one worm are transferred to spermathecae of other.
11. All the following statements are correct about the reproductive system of earthworm, except
(1) Fertilization is external and cross fertilization
(2) There are two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments and one pair of ovaries attached at the
intersegmental septum of 12th and 13th segment
(3) Accessory glands are present on the ventral surface of 17th and 19th segments
(4) Earthworm is unisexual
Sol. Answer (4)
Earthworms are monoecious or hermaphrodite, both male (testes) and female (ovaries) are present in same
individual.
12. Dorsal blood vessel in Pheretima is

(1) Distributing in whole body (2) Collecting in whole body
(3) Distributing in first 13 segments (4) Collecting in first 13 segments
Sol. Answer (3)
Dorsal blood vessel is distributing blood vessel in first 13 segments in Pheretima. It supplies blood to anterior
part of gut and pharyngeal nephridia.
13. In Pheretima, clitellum is primarily meant for

(1) Burrowing (2) Fertilisation
(3) Producing cocoons (4) Locomotion
Sol. Answer (3)
Clitellum is prominent dark circular band of glandular tissue, found from 14th to 16th segment. Clitellum secretes
material for formation of cocoon or egg capsule.
14. Lateral oesophageal hearts in earthworm connect

(1) Supra-oesophageal and dorsal vessel to ventral vessel
(2) Dorsal vessel to sub-oesophageal vessel
(3) Lateral oesophageal vessel to subneural vessel
(4) Dorsal vessel to subneural vessel
Sol. Answer (1)
Lateral oesophageal heart, situated in 12th and 13th segment connect both dorsal blood vessel and super-
oesophageal blood vessels with ventral blood vessel.
15. Flow of blood in the ventral vessel of earthworm is

(1) Forwards
(2) Backwards
(3) Backwards in half of it and forwards in another half
(4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Ventral blood vessel extent from one end to other end of body. It does not have valves and flow of blood is
from anterior to posterior (i.e. backward) end of body. It is main distributing blood vessel.
16. Ventral surface of mature earthworm can be distinguished from dorsal surface by
(1) Absence of middorsal line (2) Presence of clitellum
(3) Presence of genital papillae (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Ventral surface of earthworm can be recognised by presence of genital apertures (poers). Dorsal surface of
earthworm is recognised by a dark median line, which is a dorsal blood vessel beneath the skin.
17. Which of the following parts of gut occupies most part of the 8th segment?
(1) Oesophagus (2) Gizzard (3) Stomach (4) Intestine
Sol. Answer (2)
Oesophagus – 7th segment
Gizzard – 8th and 9th segment
Stomach – 9th and 14th segment
Intestine – 15th and 26th segment
18. Photoreceptors (phaosomes) in earthworm occur in

(1) Epidermis of dorsal body wall and prostomium (2) Epidermis of ventral body wall
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Epidermis of prostomium only
Sol. Answer (1)
Photoreceptors or light sensitive organs are present on dorsal surface of body and are numerous in anterior
region. They enable worm to judge intensity and duration of light.
19. Excretion is exonephric by which of the following nephridia?

(1) Pharyngeal nephridia (2) Septal nephridia
(3) Integumentary nephridia (4) Integumentary and pharyngeal nephridia
Sol. Answer (3)
Integumentary nephridia are attached to inner surface of body wall in all segments, except first two segments.
Terminal ducts of integumentary nephridia open on body surface independently through minute opening.
Integumentary nephridia discharge waste matter directly to exterior surface of worm.
20. Earthworm is
(1) Ammonotelic (2) Ureotelic
(3) Uricotelic (4) Ureotelic and ammonotelic
Sol. Answer (4)
Excretory waste in earthworm is ammonia (ammonotelic) or urea (ureotelic).
21. In Pheretima, pharyngeal nephridia occur in the segments

(1) 3, 4, 5 (2) 4, 5, 6 (3) 5, 6, 7 (4) 6, 7, 8
Sol. Answer (2)
Pharyngeal nephridia occur as paired tuft in 4th, 5th and 6th segment on each side of alimentary canal.
22. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t. Intestine of earthworm
(1) Muscular Gizzard – 8-9th segments
(2) Oesophagus – 9-14th segments
(3) Intestine – 15th segment onward
(4) Typhlosole – 27-95th segment
Sol. Answer (2)
Muscular Gizzard – 8-9th segments
Oesophagus – 5-7th segments
Intestine – 15th segment onward
Typhlosole – 26-95th segment

23. Forests of integumentary nephridia are present in
(1) Pharyngeal region (2) Clitellar region (3) Pre clitellar region (4) Post clitellar region
Sol. Answer (2)
There are 200-250 integumentary nephridia in each segment but segment of clitellum (segment 14 to 16), their
number increases to more than 2000. This is forest of integumentary nephridia.
24. Earthworm and cockroach both have
(1) Dorsal nerve cord (2) Unsegmented body (3) Malpighian tubule (4) Ventral nerve cord
Sol. Answer (4)
Cockroach and earthworm both are non-chordates. In non-chordates nerve cord is ventral in position.
25. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t. reproductive system of earthworm?
(1) There are two pairs of testes present in 10th and 11th segments. Their ducts i.e. vas deferens run upto
the 18th segment where they join the prostatic duct
(2) Accessory glands are present on the ventral side of the 17th and 19th segments
(3) One pair of ovaries is attached at the intersegmental septum of the 13th and 14th segments
(4) Four pairs of sac like structures called spermathecae are found one pair each in 6th to 9th segments
Sol. Answer (3)
There is a pair of ovary, lie laterally in 2nd - 6th abdominal segment in cockroach.
(Cockroach)
26. Periplaneta americana and Blatta orientalis differ mainly from each other in
(1) Body size (2) Wing length (3) Length of antenna (4) Life-history
Sol. Answer (2)
Periplaneta americana is largest of all species with light reddish colour, wings in both sexes, which in male
is extended beyond posterior end of body.
Blatta orientalis is medium sized dark brown to blackish brown house hold species. Wings are vestigial in
females and reduced in males.
27. In cockroach, the body inspite of being covered by an exoskeleton of strong chitinous cuticle remains flexible
due to
(1) Tergites (2) Sternites (3) Pleurites (4) Arthrodial membranes
Sol. Answer (4)
Exoskeleton of cockroach is a non-living brown coloured hard, jointed and chitinous exoskeleton composed
of several plates called sclerites. These sclerites are joined by thin flexible arthroidal membrane. These flexible
membrane allows movement.
28. Vestigial wings are found in
(1) Male Blatta (2) Female Blatta (3) Male Periplaneta (4) Female Periplaneta
Sol. Answer (2)
Blatta orientalis is medium sized dark brown to blackish brown household species. Wings are vestigial in
females and reduced in males.
29. In cockroach elytra are articulated to the tergites of
(1) Prothorax (2) Mesothorax (3) Metathorax (4) Abdomen
Sol. Answer (2)
Elytra are forewings of cockroach. Elytra are thick, leathery opaque and dark coloured structures. These wings
are mesothoracic wings and are attached to targets of mesothorax. They are not used for flight.
30. Which mouth part of cockroach acts as upper lip?
(1) Labium (2) Labrum (3) First maxilla (4) Hypopharynx
Sol. Answer (2)
Labrum – Upper lip
Labium – Lower lip
Hypopharynx – Tongue
31. Position of head in relation to body axis of cockroach is known as
(1) Epignathous (2) Hypognathous (3) Prognathous (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Head in cockroach is small and roughly triangular in shape. Head occurs anteriorly in hypognathous position,
i.e. it lies anteriorly at right angles (perpendicularly) to rest of body with mouth in downward direction.
32. Endoskeletal structure present in the head is
(1) Apodeme (2) Tentorium (3) Fenestra (4) Clypeus
Sol. Answer (2)
Endoskeleton of head in cockroach in tentorium, formed from united anterior and posterior pairs of arms.
33. Periplaneta has mosaic vision. Each ommatidium is composed of following parts, except
(1) Corneal lens (2) Refractive crystalline cone
(3) Rhabdome (4) Phaosome
Sol. Answer (4)
Cockroach has compound eyes, where each compound eye is formed of hexagonal ommatidia. Image seen
by whole eyes is made of many dark and light spot of light, each contributed by one ommatidium. This kind
of vision is mosaic vision.
Each ommatidium has corneal lens, transparent crystalline cone, rhabdome (refractive body).
Lens
Corneagen
cell
Cone cell
Iris pigment Crystalline cone

sheath
Retinular cell
Retinular pigment
sheath
Rhabdome
Basement
membrane
Nerve fibres
V.S. of ommatidium
34. Which of the following is wrong match in cockroach?
(1) Head – Hypognathous (2) Heart – 13 chambered
(3) Anal styles – Female cockroach (4) Excretion – Malpighian tubules
Sol. Answer (3)
Anal styles are present only in male cockroach. They are unsegmented and attached to 9th tergum.
35. Movement of which muscles can alter the pericardial space in cockroach?
(1) Circular (2) Longitudinal (3) Alary (4) Ciliary
Sol. Answer (3)
The blood from heart is pumped into sinuses anteriorly by contraction and relaxation of fan shaped paired
muscles called ‘Alary muscles’.
Contraction of alary muscles cause floating of dorsal diaphragm and pericardial sinus increase in volume.
36. Number of segments in the leg of cockroach is

(1) Five (2) Three (3) Six (4) Nine
Sol. Answer (1)
Each leg of cockroach is made up of 5 segments or podo nerves which are
Coxa (largest)
Trochanter (smallest)
Femur
Tibia (longest)
Tarsus
37. Main function of blood vascular system in cockroach is

(1) Distribution of oxygen (2) Distribution of absorbed nutrients
(3) Distribution of heat (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Cockroach have open circulatory system and mediate distribution of absorbed nutrients. Distribution of oxygen
is done by tracheal tubes in cockroach.
38. In Periplaneta each walking leg consists of five segments. Which of the following is a correct sequence?
(1) Trochanter, coxa, femur, tibia, tarsus (2) Coxa, trochanter, femur, tibia, tarsus
(3) Coxa, femur, trochanter, tibia, tarsus (4) Trochanter, femur, coxa, tibia, tarsus
Sol. Answer (2)
Each leg in cockroach has five segments in order
Broad short proximal coxa
Triangular short and rod like trochanter
Long, strong and spiny femur
Spiny and longest segment called tibia
Long tarsus
39. Structure that helps the cockroach to walk on smooth surfaces is

(1) Trochanter (2) Plantulae (3) Cardo (4) Scape
Sol. Answer (2)
Plantulae are smaller adhesive pads located at each joint of tarsus which help cockroach to walk on smooth
surface.
40. Number of spiracles in Periplaneta americana is
(1) Ten (2) Twenty (3) Eight (4) Six
Sol. Answer (2)
Spiracles are 10 pairs, (20) slit-like openings present on lateral side of body.
41. Function of stomodaeal valve in the gut of the cockroach is to prevent the regurgitation of partially digested
food from
(1) Mid-gut into crop (2) Preoral cavity
(3) Mid-gut into hind-gut (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Posterior end of gizzard project in form of narrow tube into mid gut. It is called stomodeal valve. This valve
checks regurgitation of food from midgut to crop.
42. Which of the two parts in cockroach are fundamentally similar in structure?
(1) Anal styles and labrum (2) Wings and anal cerci
(3) Maxillae and legs (4) Mandibles and antennae
Sol. Answer (3)
Maxillae resemble legs and have same number of segments. Anatomically maxillae are first pair of legs but
turned forward at side of mouth parts and are functionally part of feeding apparatus. Both maxillae and legs
help in holding and positioning of food.
43. Ootheca in Periplanata americana is secreted by
(1) Collaterial glands (2) Conglobate gland
(3) Mushroom glands (4) Gynatrium
Sol. Answer (1)
A pair of branched accessory or collaterial gland secreted hard egg case-ootheca around group of fertilised
egg.
44. Number of eggs contained in an ootheca of cockroach is
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 32 (4) 4
Sol. Answer (2)
Fertilised eggs become surrounded by secretion of collaterial gland, which harden to form egg case or ootheca.
14-16 eggs are arranged in two rows in one ootheca. On an average, about 9-10 ootheca are laid by female
cockroach.
45. Conglobate organ is a part of male reproductive system of
(1) Prawn (2) Cockroach (3) Earthworm (4) Frog
Sol. Answer (2)
Conglobate gland is also known as phallic gland. Phallic or conglobate gland is flat and elongated gland, opening
separately by side of male genital pore. Phallic gland produces secretion which forms outer wall layer of
spermatophore.
46. Number of ganglia in the abdominal nerve-cord of cockroach is

(1) 6 (2) 9 (3) 10 (4) 12
Sol. Answer (1)
Nervous system in cockroach have double ventral solid nerve cord. There are a pair of segmental ganglion in
which 3 pairs are thoracic ganglia and 6 pairs of abdominal ganglion.
47. Which of the following structure is related to formation of middle layer of spermatophore in Periplaneta?
(1) Utriculi majores (2) Utriculi breviores (3) Ejaculatory duct (4) Conglobate gland
Sol. Answer (3)
Ejaculatory duct is muscular tube which runs backwardly in midventral region to open in male genital aperture.
It has glandular lining which secretes middle wall layer of spermatophore.
48. Which of the following statement is incorrect about development of Periplaneta americana?
(1) On an average female produces 9-10 oothecae each containing 14-16 eggs
(2) The development is paurometabolous
(3) The nymph grows by mounting about 7-8 times to reach adult form
(4) The next to last nymphal stage has wing pads but only adult cockroach has wings
Sol. Answer (3)
Each egg inside ootheca undergoes cleavage and result in formation of nymphs. Freshly hatched nymphs are
delicate, transparent and colourless with black eyes. The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach
adult from. This development includes wings formation, growth of body size, colouration change and development
of genitalia, etc.
49. Identify the structures labelled A, B, C and D in the alimentary canal of cockroach.
(1) Stomach, Ileum, Hepatic caecae, Malpighian tubules

(2) Gizzard, Crop, Hepatic caecae, Malpighian tubules
(3) Crop, gizzard, Malpighian tubules, Hepatic caecae
(4) Crop, gizzard, Hepatic caecae, Malpighian tubules
Sol. Answer (4)
Crop – The oesophagus dilates to form large, thin walled, pear shaped sac, which extend upto 3rd or 4th
segment. It opens into gizzard.
Gizzard – Crop leads into small, cone-shaped, muscular and thick walled chamber called proventriculus.
Hepatic caecae – At junction of midgut and gizzard there are six to eight finger like structures called hepatic
caecae.
Malpighian tubules – At junction of midgut and hindgut is marked by presence of 100-150 yellow fine thread
like structures called Malpighian tubules.
50. Which of the following is the correct statement of the structure labelled ‘A’ in the diagram?
(1) A pair of anal styles absent in females

(2) A pair of anal cerci, arise from 10th segment present in both the sexes
(3) Phallomere, external genitalia of male
(4) Ovipositor in female
Sol. Answer (2)
Anal cerci are auditory receptors which are attached to tergum of 10th segment. Anal cerci are present in both
male and female.
(Frog)
51. The frog's body is divisible into

(1) Head, neck, abdomen (2) Head, neck, trunk (3) Head, trunk (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Body of frog is divisible into two main segments:
Head and trunk. Neck is absent but tail may be present.
52. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) The body colour offers it protective colouration (2) Summer sleep of frog is called aestivation
(3) Tail is present in the lifecycle of frog (4) Mouth is bounded by a pair of lips
Sol. Answer (4)
Mouth in cockroach leads to pharynx and bounded by mouth parts. These mouth parts are used in searching
and taking in food matter. The mouth parts of cockroach consist of the labium or upper lip, a pair of mandibles,
a pair of maxillae, labium or lower lip and hypopharynx (tongue).
53. Which of the following is present in the skin of frog?

(1) Serous gland (2) Mucus gland
(3) Chromatophore cells (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
Serous glands are poisonous cutaneous gland.
Mucus glands secrete mucus to maintain their skin in moist condition.
Chromatophore are pigment containing cells of frog.
54. Total number of vertebrae in frog is
(1) 12 (2) 10 (3) 26 (4) 33
Sol. Answer (2)
There are approximately 10 vertebrae in frog.
55. Which of the following vertebra is amphicoelous type in frog?
(1) 3rd (2) 8th (3) 9th (4) 10th
Sol. Answer (2)
In frog
2 - 7th vertebrae – Procoelous – Centrum concave anteriorly and convex posteriorly
8th vertebrae – Amphicoelous – Centrum concave on both sides
9th vertebrae – Acoelous – Centrum without concavity on either sides

56. The digital formula for the hind limbs of frog is
(1) 0, 2, 2, 3, 3 (2) 2, 2, 3, 3, 3 (3) 2, 2, 3, 4, 3 (4) 0, 2, 1, 2, 3
Sol. Answer (3)
Digital formulae for hind limb of frog is 2, 2, 3, 4, 3
Digital formulae for fore limb of frog is 0, 2, 2, 3, 3

57. Frog is
(1) Homoeothermic (2) Poikilothermic (3) Homeostatic (4) Warm-blooded
Sol. Answer (2)
Frogs are poikilothermic, i.e. their internal body temperature varies considerably.
58. Capacity of amphibians to change colour is called
(1) Synchronous (2) Metachronous (3) Metachrosis (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Metachrosis is ability to change colour by expansion and contraction of chromatophores. Metachrosis is

exhibited by frogs.
59. Which is not true about frog?
(1) Salivary glands are absent
(2) Maxillary teeth are arranged along the margin of upper jaw and the lower jaw is toothless
(3) Muscular tongue is bilobed at tip and free from behind
(4) Tadpole larva of frog has a short alimentary canal
Sol. Answer (4)
Tadpole larva is herbivorous so alimentary canal is very long, coiled in the form of spring. Since, the frogs are
carnivorous, their alimentary canal is short in length.
60. Bidder’s canal in frog is present in

(1) Testes (2) Kidney (3) Ovary (4) Brain
Sol. Answer (2)
Bidder’s canal is a longitudinal tube present at inner margin of kidney. Bidder’s canal is connected to ureter
through collecting tubules. Vasa efferentia open into Bidder’s canal.
61. During active period, maximum respiratory activity is through

(1) Cutaneous respiration (2) Branchial respiration
(3) Pulmonary respiration (4) Buccopharyngeal respiration
Sol. Answer (3)
During active period maximum respiration occurs through pulmonary respiration. During hibernation and
aestivation, gaseous exchange takes place through skin (Cutaneous respiration).
62. How many lymph hearts are present in frog?

(1) Single (2) One pair (3) Two pairs (4) Three pairs
Sol. Answer (3)
In frogs lymph is constantly produced from filtering of blood through capillaries into intercellular spaces. Frog
also has two pairs of lymph hearts which pump lymph.
63. Which of the following is not true chamber of frog’s heart?
(1) Pylangium (2) Sinus venosus (3) Right atrium (4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Truncus arteriosus is divided into two parts, proximal part of truncus arteriosus is called pylangium and distal part
is called bulbus arteriosus or synangium. Sinus venosus is also accessory chambers present before right atrium.
64. The middle ear of Rana tigrina has

(1) Three ear ossicles i.e. malleus, incus and stapes
(2) One ear ossicle Columella Auris
(3) Two ear ossicles Columella Auris and stapedial plate
(4) No ear ossicle
Sol. Answer (2)
Ear in frog possess middle ear and internal ear. External ear is absent. Middle ear have one ear ossicles called
as columella auris. Middle ear is covered by tympanic membrane.
65. Cerebrum is the part of

(1) Forebrain (2) Midbrain (3) Hindbrain (4) Rhombencephalon
Sol. Answer (1)
Brain is divided into three parts: forebrain, midbrain, hind brain. Forebrain is comprised of two olfactory lobes,
two cerebral hemisphere and unpaired diencephalon.
66. Number of cranial nerves and spinal nerves in frog is
(1) 10 and 20 (2) 10 and 10 (3) 20 and 10 (4) 20 and 20
Sol. Answer (4)
In peripheral nervous system of frog, there are 10 pairs (20) cranial nerves which originate from brain of frog.
Frog has 10 pairs (20) spinal nerves every spinal nerve on either side arises from spinal cord.
67. Which of the following is true?
(1) Frog has monocular vision (2) Frog has scale-less moist, slimy skin
(3) Frog is myopic (short sighted) on land (4) All of these are true
Sol. Answer (4)
Frog has monocular vision, i.e. both eyes are used separately.
Eyes in frog is covered with nictitating membrane which protects them inside water and enables frog to
see under water.
Frog is myopic or short sighted on land and hypermetropic or long sighted in water.
68. Spawning is termed as

(1) Release of sperms in male (2) Release of ova by female
(3) Other term for fertilization (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Spawning is process of release of eggs by aquatic animals.
69. Which of the following systems undergoes maximum changes in frog during metamorphosis?
(1) Digestive system (2) Circulatory system
(3) Reproductive system (4) Nervous system
Sol. Answer (2)
During metamorphosis maximum change occurs in circulatory system and least change occur in nervous
system. During metamorphosis there is reconstruction of circulatory system. The aortic arches and several
large blood vessels are reconstructed.
70. Respiration in tadpole of frog takes place by

(1) Lungs (2) Gills
(3) Buccal cavity (4) Skin
Sol. Answer (2)
Tadpole is free swimming aquatic larvae, a small fish-like creature which hatches out. Tadpole have external
gills for respiration which become replaced by internal gills after metamorphosis.
71. Frog skull is
(1) Noncondylic (2) Dicondylic
(3) Monocondylic (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Skull in frog is dicondylic i.e., articulating with two occipital condyles.
72. On removing the thyroid from tadpole of frog
(1) Metamorphosis will stop (2) It grows into a giant frog
(3) It grows into a dwarf frog (4) Normal metamorphosis occurs
Sol. Answer (1)
Thyroxine is required for metamorphosis, if thyroid gland is removed then there is no metamorphosis.
73. Find out the incorrect statement w.r.t. frog
(1) Only tympanum can be seen externally
(2) Columnae carnaeae are present in ventricle
(3) Bidder’s canal communicates with the oviduct
(4) Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number
Sol. Answer (3)

Bidder's canal is longitudinal tube present at inner margin of kidney. Bidder's canal is connected to ureter
through collecting tubules. Vasa efferentia (part of male reproductive system) open into bidder's canal.
74. Which of the following statements is false?
(1) The ovaries in frog are structurally and functionally connected with kidneys
(2) A mature female frog can lay 2500 to 3000, unfertilised ova at a time
(3) In male frog there are 10-12 vasa efferentia arise from testes and enter kidneys on their side and open
into Bidder’s canal
(4) The eggs of frog are mesolecithal and telolecithal
Sol. Answer (1)
In frogs, pair of testes are attached to kidneys, but ovaries do not have any functional or internal connection
with kidneys.
75. Following is the diagram of the male reproductive system of frog select the correct set of names labelled A,
B, C and D.
A B C D
(1) Fat bodies Ureter Bidder's canal Vasa efferentia
(2) Fat bodies Bidder's canal Ureter Vasa efferentia
(3) Adrenal gland Bidder's canal Ureter Vasa efferentia
(4) Testes Adrenal gland Bidder's canal Vasa efferentia
Sol. Answer (4)

Testes : Pair of testes in frog are elongated or avoid, light yellow body attached to upper part of kidney.
Adrenal gland : Found on kidneys.
Bidder canal : Longitudinal canal present at inner margin of kidney.
Vasa efferentia : 10-12 fine tubes connecting testes to kidney on each sides.
SECTION - C
1. Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach? [NEET-2018]
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment
(2) Presence of caudal styles
(3) Presence of anal cerci
(4) Forewings with darker tegmina
Sol. Answer (2)
Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal styles which are absent in females.
Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal segment in male cockroach.
2. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs [NEET-2017]
(1) Testes  Bidder's canal  Kidney  Vasa efferentia  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
(2) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Seminal Vesicle  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
(3) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Bidder's canal  Ureter  Cloaca
(4) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder's canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
Sol. Answer (4)
In male frog, the sperms will move from
Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder’s canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca.
3. Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime
Select the best option from the following statements
(a) Frog is a poikilotherm (b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation
(c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature (d) Heart is autoexcitable
Options : [NEET-2017]
(1) Only (c) (2) Only (d) (3) (a) & (b) (4) (c) & (d)
Sol. Answer (4)
Frog or the vertebrates have myogenic heart having self contractile system or are autoexcitable; because of this
condition, it will keep on working outside the body for sometime.
4. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system? [NEET-Phase-2-2016]
(1) Seminal vesicles (2) Mushroom glands (3) Testes (4) Vas deferens
Sol. Answer (1)
In male cockroach, sperms are stored in seminal vesicle.
5. Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana? [NEET-2016]

(1) Metamerically segmented body
(2) Schizocoelom as body cavity
(3) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
(4) Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine
Sol. Answer (3)
Cockroach has determinate cleavage during embryonic development.
6. The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in the form of
[Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Calcium carbonate (2) Ammonia (3) Potassium urate (4) Urea
Sol. Answer (3)
Malpighian tubules keep floating in haemolymph from where potassium waste diffuses into the tubule. Urate
crystals are crystals of uric acid.
7. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Cartilage (2) Cementing glue
(3) Muscular tissue (4) Arthrodial membrane
Sol. Answer (4)
8. What external changes are visible after the last moult of a cockroach nymph? [NEET-2013]
(1) Anal cerci develop (2) Both fore wings and hind wings develop
(3) Labium develops (4) Mandibles become harder
Sol. Answer (2)
Each egg inside ootheca undergoes cleavage and finally result in formation of nymph. Freshly hatched nymphs
are delicate, transparent and almost colourless with black eyes. Nymph possess nearly all adult characters
but differ in size and colouration but do not bear wings.
When nymph moult into adult there is wing formation, growth of body size and change in colouration.
9. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana
(1) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts
(2) Nervous system located dorsally, consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair of longitudinal
connectives
(3) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal styles
(4) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut
Sol. Answer (3)
Correct statement are
There are 100-150 yellow fine thread like structure called malpighian tubule at junction of midgut and
hindgut.
Six chitinous plates (teeth) in gizzard are used for grinding of food.
Nervous system is located ventrally consist of series of fused segmentally arranged ganglia joined by paired
longitudinal connectives.
Males bear a pair of short thread like anal style attached to 9th tergum.
10. Pheretima and its close relatives derive nourishment from [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Small pieces of fresh fallen leaves of maize, etc (2) Sugarcane roots
(3) Decaying fallen leaves and soil organic matter (4) Soil insects
Sol. Answer (3)
Earthworm feeds on dead organic matter and decaying leaves along with soil. It also feeds directly upon leaves,
grasses, seeds, algae etc.
11. Compared to those of humans, the erythrocytes in frog are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Nucleated and without haemoglobin (2) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin
(3) Nucleated and with haemoglobin (4) Very much smaller and fewer
Sol. Answer (3)
RBC is frog are nucleated, oval, biconvex and have haemoglobin (respiratory pigment) which is yellow to red
colour, iron containing pigment.
12. Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs?
(1) Ureotelic mode of excretion (2) Four - chambered heart
(3) Internal fertilisation (4) Nucleated RBCs
Sol. Answer (1)
There is three chambered heart in frog and four chambered heart in humans.
There is internal fertilisation in humans and external fertilization in frog.
RBC are enucleated in humans where RBC in frog are nucleated.
Both humans and frog excrete urea (ureotelic) as nitrogenous waste.
13. Which of the following is correctly stated as happens in the common cockroach? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) The food is ground by mandibles an gizzard
(2) Malpighian tubules are excretory organ projecting out from the colon
(3) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin blood
(4) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
Sol. Answer (1)
Gizzard bears a thick inner layer of cuticle which forms six highly chitinous teeth and are used for grinding.
14. One very special feature in the earthworm Pheretima is that [AIPMT (Prelims)-2011]
(1) It has a long dorsal tubular heart
(2) Fertilisation of eggs occurs inside the body
(3) The typhlosole greatly increases the effective absorption area of the digested food in the intestine
(4) The S-shaped setae embedded in the integument are the defensive weapons used against the enemies
Sol. Answer (3)
There are four pair of tubular heart in earthworm.
Fertilisation is internal in earthworm and cockroach
Typhlosole is characteristic feature of earthworm intestine between 26 to 95 segment. Typhlosole is internal
median fold of dorsal wall and increase effective area of digestion and absorption in intestine
Tiny, curved, chitinous setae help in locomotion.
15. Frogs differ from humans in possessing [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]

(1) Nucleated red blood cells (2) Thyroid as well as parathyroid
(3) Paired cerebral hemispheres (4) Hepatic portal system
Sol. Answer (1)
16. Consider the following four statements (A-D) related to the common from Rana tigrina, and select the correct
option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F). [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
Statements:
(A) One dry land it would die due to lack of O2 if its mouth is forcibly kept closed for a few days.
(B) It has four chambered heart.
(C) On dry land it turns uricotelic from ureotelic.
(D) Its life history is carried out in pond water.
Options :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) F F T T
(2) F T T F
(3) T F F T
(4) T T F F
Sol. Answer (3)
Correct statement are
A– On dry land it will die due to lack of O2 as there is no cutaneous respiration and if its mouth is forcibly
kept closed for few days as pulmonary respiration can't continue.
B– Frog has three chambered heart.
C– Frog is ureotelic.
D– Its life history is carried out in pond water.
17. Which one of the following structures in Pheretima is correctly matched with its function? [AIPMT (Mains)-2011]
(1) Setae-defence against predators (2) Typhlosole - storage of extra nutrients
(3) Clitellum - secretes cocoon (4) Gizzard - absorbs digested food
Sol. Answer (3)
Correct match with its function are:
Setae – Locomotion
Typhlosole – Increase effective area for digestion and absorption
Clitellum – Secretes coccon
Gizzard – Grinding of food
18. Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous component of the excretory products of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Earthworm (2) Cockroach (3) Frog (4) Man
Sol. Answer (2)
19. Which one of the following correctly describes the location of some body parts in the earthworm Pheretima?
(1) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4 – 7 segments
(2) One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th segments
(3) Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments
(4) Two pairs of accessory glands in 16th-18th segments
Sol. Answer (3)
Correct location of body parts in pheretima
Testes – 2 pairs – 10th and 11th segment
Accessory glands – 2 pairs – 17th and 19th segment
Spermathecae – 4 pairs – 6th, 7th, 8th and 9th segment
Ovaries – 1 pair – 12th and 13th segment
20. Earthworms have no skeleton but during burrowing, the anterior end becomes turgid and acts as a hydraulic
skeleton. It is due to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Setae (2) Coelomic fluid
(3) Blood (4) Gut peristalsis
Sol. Answer (2)
Coelomic fluid in earthworms acts as hydraulic skeleton and aid movement and locomotion.
21. Earthworms are [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Ureotelic when plenty of water is available (2) Uricotelic when plenty of water is available
(3) Uricotelic under conditions of water scarcity (4) Ammonotelic when plenty of water is available
Sol. Answer (4)
Earthworms are ammonotelic (excrete ammonia) in aquatic form.
22. Which one of the following has an open circulatory system? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Pheretima (2) Periplaneta
(3) Hirudinaria (4) Octopus
Sol. Answer (2)
23. Primary function of enteronephric nephridia of Pheretima is

(1) Osmoregulation (2) Excretion of nitrogenous wastes
(3) Respiration (4) Locomotion
Sol. Answer (2)
In earthworm, excretion of nitrogenous waste rakes place by segmentally arranged nephridia.
24. Select the correct option w.r.t. cockroaches

(1) The fore wings are tegmina which are used in flight
(2) Malpighian tubules convert nitrogenous wastes into urea
(3) Males bear short anal styles not present in females
(4) Nervous system comprises of a dorsal nerve cord and ten pairs of ganglion
Sol. Answer (3)
Fore wings or tegmina or elytra are not used for flight.
Malpighian tubules help in removal of excretory product from haemolymph.
Males bear short anal styles, attached to 9th tergum not present in females.
Nervous system comprise of double, ventral. Solid nerve cord and 9 pairs of segmental ganglion.
25. Which one of the following is one of the paths followed by air/O2 during respiration in an adult male Periplaneta
americana as it enters the animal body?
(1) Hypopharynx, mouth, pharynx, trachea, tissues
(2) Spiracle in metathorax, trachea, tracheoles, oxygen diffuses into cells
(3) Mouth, bronchial tube, trachea, oxygen enters cells
(4) Spiracles in prothorax, tracheoles, trachea, oxygen diffuses into cells
Sol. Answer (2)
There are 10 pairs of slit-like opening, called spiracles present on lateral side of body. Spiracles lead to network
of elastic, closed, branching air tubes called trachea. Trachea devide into fine branches known as tracheoles.
Tracheoles terminate in tissues.
26. Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in
(1) Frog’s both males and females (2) Frog’s males
(3) Human males (4) Human females

Sol. Answer (2)
Duct arising from kidney in male frog is both urinary duct and a sperm duct hence it is called a urinogenital
duct.
27. The breakdown of detritus into smaller particles by earthworm is a process called
(1) Mineralisation (2) Catabolism
(3) Humification (4) Fragmentation
Sol. Answer (4)
Fragmentation is process of break down of detritus food particles into smaller particles by earthworm.
28. Which of the following organs in earthworm neutralizes humic acid present in humus?
(1) Typhosole (2) Calciferous glands (3) Intestinal caecum (4) Gizzard
Sol. Answer (2)
In stomach of earthworm, a chalky secretion of calciferous gland is present which helps in neutralising humic
acid present in humus.
29. Fertilized eggs of P. americana are encased in

(1) Ootheca (2) Cocoon (3) Genital chamber (4) Phallomere
Sol. Answer (1)
Egg case around group of fertilised eggs is called ootheca. This egg case is secreted by branched accessory
colleterial gland.
30. Which one of the following is the true description about an animal concerned?
(1) Cockroach – 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)
(2) Earthworm – The alimentary canal consists of a sequence of pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, gizzard
and intestine
(3) Frog – Body divisible into three regions -head, neck and trunk
(4) Rat – Left kidney is slightly higher in position than the right one
Sol. Answer (1)
Correct description of animal concerned is
Cockroach – 10 pairs of spiracles (2 pairs on thorax and 8 pairs on abdomen)
Earthworm – Alimentary canal consists of a sequence of mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus,
stomach, gizzard, intestine and anus
Frog – Body is divisible into two regions - head and trunk
Rat – Right kidney is slightly higher in position than left kidney.
31. The kidney of an adult frog is

(1) Metanephros (2) Opisthonephros
(3) Pronephros (4) Mesonephros
Sol. Answer (4)
Frogs have two mesonephric kidneys, situated on either side of vertebral column in posterior part of body
cavity.
SECTION - D
1. A : In cockroach, inspiration is an active process.

R : It is due to the contraction of tergosternal muscle.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false as inspiration in cockroach is passive process.
Reason is false as during inspiration tergostermal muscles remain relaxed.
2. A : In frog, sinus-venosus is present.

R : In mammals and birds the remnant of sinus venosus has taken part in the formation of SA node.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true as in frog accessory chamber i.e. sinus venosus is present in heart.
Reason is true as in mammals and birds the remnant of sinus venosus has taken part in formation of SA node.
3. A : Septal nephridia take part in osmoregulation.

R : They are enteronephric.
Sol. Answer (1)
Assertion is true as septal nephridia absorb water from excretory fluid and take part in osmoregulation.
Reason is true as septal nephridia are enteronephric, opening into alimentary canal and reabsorbing water from
alimentary canal.
4. A : In Periplaneta, only superposition or overlapping images are formed.

R : Retinal pigment sheath remains contracted through out the life.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false as in Periplaneta there is mosaic vision formed by many separate but adjacent images.
5. A : Pharyngeal gland of earthworm includes chromophil cells, which secrete enzymes.

R : Salivary amylase of earthworm is essential to digest carbohydrates.
Sol. Answer (3)

Assertion is true as chromophil cell in earthworm are present in pharyngeal glands. Chromophil cell in
earthworm secrete saliva, containing enzymes.
Reason is false because pharyngeal glands secrete mucus and proteolytic enzymes while amylase is secreted
by intestine of earthworm helping in carbohydrate digestion.
6. A : In cockroach, each segment is covered by three hardened plates called sclerites.

R : These sclerites are dorsal tergite, ventral sternite and lateral pleurite.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false as in cockroach each segment is covered by four hardened plates called sclerites- one dorsal,
one ventral and two lateral sclerites.
7. A : During copulation, two earthworms mutually exchange sperms.

R : The sperms are stored temporarily in the spermathecae.
Sol. Answer (2)
Assertion is true as there is mutual exchange of sperms between two worms during mating.
Reason is also true as spermathecae store sperms received from earthworm during copulation.
8. A : Typhlosole is the characteristic dorsal median fold in the intestine of earthworm.

R : Typhlosole secretes intestinal juice containing digestive enzymes.
Sol. Answer (3)
Assertion is true as typhlosole in earthworm is characteristic dorsal median fold in intestine of earthworm.
Reason is false as typhlosole increase effective area of digestion and absorption in intestine.
9. A : Male frogs have copulatory/nuptial pad on the pollex of forelimbs.

R : It helps in amplexus.
Sol. Answer (4)
Assertion is false as male frog have copulatory/nuptial pad on first digit of forelimbs.
Reason is true as with help of copulatory pads male mount upon the back of female and grasps her family,
called amplexus.
10. A : Urine, faeces and gametes pass through a common passage in frog.
R : Frogs have cloaca in which alimentary canal and urinogenital ducts open.
Sol. Answer (1)
Both Assertion and Reason is true as frogs have cloaca and cloaca is common chamber for opening of
alimentary canal, urinary tract and reproductive tract.


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Chapter 10

2. The only incorrectly matched pair is

3. A complete digestive system has

Sol. Answer (2)

4. In closed circulatory system

(1) Marine habitat (2) Members of largest phylum of animal kingdom

(3) Open circulatory system (4) External fertilisation

Sol. Answer (3)

Balanoglossus – Belongs to phylum Hemichordata.

Anopheles – Belongs to phylum Arthropoda

Laccifer – Belongs to phylum Arthropoda

6. Match the animals in Column-I with their common names in Column-II

a. Limulus (i) Tusk shell

b. Ophiura (ii) Tapeworm

c. Taenia (iii) Brain coral

d. Meandrina (iv) King crab

e. Dentalium (v) Brittle star

Sol. Answer (2)

a. Limulus – King crab – Living fossil

b. Ophiura – Brittle star – Phylum Echinodermata

c. Taenia – Tapeworm – Phylum Platyhelminthes

d. Meandrina – Brain coral – Class Anthozoa, Phylum – Cnidaria

e. Dentalium – Tusk shell – Class Scaphopoda, Phylum – Mollusca

Germinal layers in diploblastic animals

8. The pecularity of sponges is

9. Choanocytes are present in

10. In Poriferans, the skeleton is made up of

Sol. Answer (1)

11. Water enters the body of sponges through

13. Which of the following is not the function of cnidoblasts?

14. Coelenterates are

15. Digestion in coelenterates is

16. Metagenesis can be seen in

17. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of cnidarians?

19. The ciliated comb plates in Pleurobrachia are meant for

20. Ctenoplana belongs to a group of animals which are best described as

21. Bioluminescence is well-marked in which of the following phyla?

• Phylum : Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes

23. High regeneration capacity is possessed by

24. The aschelminthes are commonly called roundworms because

25. All of the following are monoecious, except

26. Hookworm is the common name of

29. The only phylum bearing pseudocoelom is

30. Ascaris has all of the following features, except

31. Metameric segmentation is exhibited by which of the following animal?

33. Notochord in earthworm is ______ and nerve cord is _____.

Sol. Answer (2)

34. The body segments in earthworm are called

35. The chitinous exoskeleton is possessed by

36. Which function is served by the tracheal system in insects?

37. Honey is the commercial product of which of the following animal?

40. Statocysts are the

41. Match Column-I with Column-II

42. Body of molluscs is

45. Radula is meant for

46. All of the following are echinoderms, except

47. The calcareous ossicles in echinoderms form the

48. The larval stage in Asterias is

49. The water vascular system in phylum echinodermata helps in

51. Cylindrical bodied, worm-like marine animals belong to the phylum:

33. Notochord in earthworm is __ and nerve cord is _.