SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

TYBBI - SEM V
AUDITING I

1. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. Management fraud is more difficult to detect than employee fraud
b. Internal control system reduces the possibility of occurrence of
employee fraud and management fraud
c. The auditor’s responsibility for detection and prevention of errors and
frauds is similar.
d. Auditor have to review the internal control system

2. Which of the following is not a limitation of audit?

a. Cost
b. Audit evidence not conclusive
c. Audit work involves exercise of judgement
d. Audit report is an evidence in court

3. Window dressing is likely to be committed by ______

a. Employees
b. Management
c. Auditor
d. Accountant

4. Secret reserve means _____ reserve

a. Free
b. Capital
c. Hidden
d. Sinking fund

5. Which of the below is considered as window dressing?

a. Over valuation of liabilities
b. Undervaluation of asset
c. Charging less depreciation
d. Charging high depreciation

6. The auditing where the auditor is constantly engaged in checking the accounts
during the whole period or on regular intervals is known as ______
a. Continuous audit
b. Concurrent audit
c. Internal audit
d. Final audit

7. Which of the following is not an advantage of balance sheet audit?

a. Less costly
b. No dislocation of work
c. No moral check on employees
d. No alteration in accounts
8. From the below statements, pick the incorrect statement.
a. Window dressing is exactly opposite to secret reserve
b. Auditor can give assurance about future profitability and prospects of the
company
c. A hard and fast audit programme may kill the initiative of efficient
assistants
d. Credit sales are vouched on the basis of Cash Memo

9. Ownership of working papers is with _______

a. Assistant
b. Auditor
c. Client
d. Government

10. From the below, identify the source of information which auditor does not collect
the information for preparing audit plan.
a. Internal reports
b. External reports
c. Discussion with management
d. Central Government

11. Which of the following is not a part of current file of working papers?
a. Audit plan
b. Audit programme
c. Management representations
d. Analysis of significant ratios

12. Audit plan should be based on _______

a. Profit of client
b. Client’s business
c. Net worth of client
d. Reputation of client

13. Which of the below is not a part of audit techniques?

a. Inspection
b. Observation
c. Enquiry
d. Reporting

14. Internal control system includes ______

a. Internal audit
b. Internal check
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. Test check

15. Which of the following statement is True?

a. Continuous audit disturbs the working of an organisation
b. Ownership of working papers is with client
c. Audit programme should be rigid
d. Routine checking saves time
16. From the below statements, pick the incorrect statement.
a. Management has no control over internal control system of the company
b. Entries selected for test checking must be representative of all transactions
c. Overcharging or undercharging of depreciation is an Error of Principle
d. There is no risk involved in audit sampling

17. Which of the following is not an advantage of routine checking?

a. Thorough checking
b. Confirmation of accuracy
c. Time consuming
d. Training to juniors

18. Which of the below is not an advantage of test checking?

a. Save in time
b. Reduction in workload
c. Biased
d. Moral check on employees

19. Checking only representative samples from a large number of similar items by
applying scientific techniques is known as ________
a. Test checking
b. Sampling
c. Routine checking
d. Internal check

20. The risk that, although the sample result does not support the auditor’s assessment
of control risk, the actual compliance rate would support such an assessment is
known as ________
a. Risk of under reliance
b. Risk of over reliance
c. Risk of incorrect acceptance
d. Risk of incorrect rejection

21. _________ document is not relevant for vouching cash sales

a. Daily cash sales summary
b. Salesman’s summary
c. Bank statement
d. Monthly statement sent to customers

22. _________refers to examination as to whether assets and liabilities are properly

stated in balance sheet
a. Confirmation
b. Vouching
c. Verification
d. Internal control

23. In verification of fixed assets, the auditor checks _______

a. Confirmation from debtors
b. Bank reconciliation statement
c. The existence, ownership and disclosure of asset
d. None of the above
24. To verify that all goods received by the company have been recorded properly,
auditor should check all ______
a. Vendor invoices
b. Purchase orders
c. Goods received notes
d. Cash payment to creditors

25. Arrears of dividend on preference shares is a ________

a. Current liability
b. Current assets
c. Contingent liability
d. Non – current liability
 SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
TYBBI -SEM V
INTERNATIONAL BANKING AND FINANCE
SR.No Questions
1 The artificial currency created by IMF to be used as Supplementary Reserve Asset
is called as _________
a. SDR
b. Gold Coins
c. Paper Currency
d. Bitcoins
2 There is distinction between international finance and domestic finance due to
difference in _________
a. Law and customs among the countries
b. Tax systems
c. Cultural difference
d. Combination of a,b,c
3 In the foreign exchange market, the ________ of one country is traded for the
________ of another country.
a) currency; currency
b) currency; financial instruments
c) currency; goods
d) goods; good
4 By definition, currency appreciation occurs when
a) the value of all currencies fall relative to gold.
b) the value of all currencies rise relative to gold.
c) the value of one currency rises relative to another currency.
d) the value of one currency falls relative to another currency.
5 The exchange rate is the
a) total yearly amount of money changed from one country’s currency to another
country’s currency
b) total monetary value of exports minus imports
c) amount of country’s currency which can exchanged for one ounce of gold
d) price of one country’s currency in terms of another country’s currency
6 Eurobonds are admired because
a. they are less risky than traditional bonds
b. European companies are considered very stable
c. of absence of government regulation
d. they are always denominated in euro
7 Not aim of international capital market is
a. preserving hard currencies to finance trade deficits
b. reducing cost of money to borrowers
c. reducing investor risk
d. expanding money supply for borrowers
8 International capital market
a. limits available set of lending opportunities
b. increases overall portfolio risk for investors
c. allows investors to reduce risk by holding international securities whose price
move independently
d. is easily accessible to everyone
9 Basel norms are published by ______________ worldwide
a. BIS
b. BCBS
c. RBI
d. FEDERAL RESERVE BANK
10 International capital market
a. innovative financial instruments
b. information technology
c. deregulation
d. foreign exchange rates
11 Which of the following is true of foreign exchange markets?
a) The futures market is mainly used by hedgers while the forward market is mainly
used for speculating.
b) The futures market and the forward market are mainly used for hedging.
c) The futures market is mainly used by speculators while the forward market is
mainly used for hedging.
d) The futures market and the forward market are mainly used for speculating.
12 Foreign currency forward market is
a) An over the counter unorganized market
b) Organized market without trading
c) Organized listed market
d) Unorganized listed market
13 Forward premium / differential depends upon
a) Currencies fluctuation
b) Interest rate differential between two countries
c) Demand & supply of two currencies
d) Stock market returns
14 An arbitrageur in foreign exchange is a person who
a) earns illegal profit by manipulating foreign exchange
b) causes differences in exchange rates in different geographic markets
c) simultaneously buys large amounts of a currency in one market and sell it in
another market
d) causes differences in exchange rates in different economies
15 Ask quote is for
a) Seller
b) Buyer
c) Hedger
d) Speculator
16 A simultaneous purchase and sale of foreign exchange for two different dates is
called
a) currency devalue
b) currency swap
c) currency valuation
d) currency exchange
17 Arbitrageurs in foreign exchange markets:
a) attempt to make profits by outguessing the market)
b) make their profits through the spread between bid and offer rates of exchange)
c) take advantage of the small inconsistencies that develop between markets)
d) need foreign exchange in order to buy foreign goods)
18 Hedging is used by companies to:
a) Decrease the variability of tax paid
 b) Decrease the spread between spot and forward market quotes
c) Increase the variability of expected cash flows
d) Decrease the variability of expected cash flows
19 Which of the following is not a type of foreign exchange exposure?
a) Tax exposure
b) Translation exposure
c) Transaction exposure
d) Economic exposure
20 Which of the methods below may be viewed as most effective in protecting against
economic exposure?
a) Futures market hedging
b) Forward contract hedges
c) Geographical diversification
d) Money market hedges
21 When an enterprise has an unhedged receivable or payable denominated in a foreign
currency and settlement of the obligation has not yet taken place, that firm is said to
have:
a) Tax exposure
b) Operating exposure
c) Accounting exposure
d) Transaction exposure
22 The potential for an increase or decrease in the parent's net worth and reported net
income caused by a change in exchange rates since the last consolidation of
international operations is a reflection of:
a) Translation exposure
b) Exchange rate exposure
c) Strategic exposure
d) Economic exposure
23 Foreign bonds issued in Japan are known
a. bulldog bonds
b. dragon bonds
c. Yankee bonds
d. samurai bonds
24 _______ is the first stage in the process of loan syndication.
a. Mandate
b. Pre-mandate
c. Disbursement
d. Post-disbursement
25 Under loan syndication, the participating banks typically face the ________ risk.
a. Underwriting
b. Liquidity
c. Passive approval
d. Complacency
 SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
TYBBI SEM V
BUSINESS THICS AND CORPORATE GOVERNANCE

1. _____ is preached in the battle of Kurukshetra by Lord Krishna.

a. Quran
b. Ramayana
c. Bible
d. Bhagwat Gita

2. Kautilya was known as _________.

a. Chandra Gupta
b. Maurya Dynasty
c. Chanakya
d. Tenali Raman

3. _________ Directors are the employees of the company.

a. Executive
b. Non- Executive
c. Participating
d. Non-Participating

4. _________ is the service of business towards society.

a. Ethical Behaviour
b. Business Ethics
c. Corporate Governance
d. Corporate Social Responsibility

5. Teachings of Quran are mainly based on ________.

a. Immorality
b. Trust
c. Dishonesty
d. Deceitfulness

6. The word corruption is derived from Latin word _____.

a. Corruptuous
b. Corporate
c. Coercion
d. Competetion

7. The _____ is a 13 points action plans to fight with corruption.

a. Political Corruption
b. Zero Tolerance Corruption
c. Corporate Fraud
d. Negative Corruption

8. _____ is the use of fraudulent means to obtain money assets or other property
owned or held by a financial institution.
 a. Insurance Fraud
b. Bank Fraud
c. Stock Market Fraud
d. Personal Fraud

9. _____ is the key mechanism for achieving transparency.

a. Disclosure
b. Empowerment
c. Reliability
d. Window Dressing

10. _____ are those perpetrated against an insurance companies or its

policyholders by agents and managers.
a. Internal frauds
b. External frauds
c. Composite fraud
d. Bank fraud

11. _____ means the existence of a system of checks and balances.

a. Ethics
b. Oversight
c. Transparency
d. Window Dressing

12. _____ involves explaining of company’s policies & actions to those to whom
it owes responsibilities.
a. Transparency
b. Window Dressing
c. Empowerment
d. Code of Conduct

13. _____ is responsible for ensuring reasonable returns on investment made by

shareholders.
a. Auditors
b. Code of Conduct
c. Management
d. Employees

14. Organizations should develop _____ for their directors & executives to
promote ethical and responsible decision making.
a. Code of Conduct
b. Oversight
c. Accountability
d. Empowerment

15. ___________ generates creativity and innovation through -out the

organization.
a. Managers Empowerment
b. Employees Empowerment
c. Auditors Empowerment
d. Shareholders Empowerment
16. Jeremy Bentham’s theory is popularly known as _____.
a. Quantitative Utilitarianism
b. Qualitative Utilitarianism
c. Mixed Utilitarianism
d. Fragile Utilitarianism

17. According to Bentham’s _____ recognizes the fundamental role of pain and
pleasure in human life.
a. Principle of Utility
b. Principle of Satisfaction
c. Principle of Ethical Egoism
d. Principle of Ethical Altruism

18. According to Gandhian Approach to Management all assets of the firm must
be held by a _____ and must be used for the welfare of the society.
a. Trust
b. Joint Stock Company
c. Partnership Firm
d. Foreign Company

19. According to J.S.Mill _____ is central to the Utilitarianism.

a. Quantity of Pleasure
b. Quality of Happiness
c. Principle of Trusteeship
d. Quality of Individual

20. “Enjoy the wealth by renouncing it” was the belief of _____.
a. Bentham
b. Kant
c. William
d. Gandhi

21. According to Socialism principle of ________, the society is given much more
importance than an individual.
a. Trusteeship
b. Deontology
c. Satisfaction
d. Ethical Egoism

22. The word ethics is derived from Greek word _____.

a. Ethos
b. Ethenic
c. Enthusiastic
d. Ethens

23. _____ Ethics believes in What an individual believes about morality.

a. Professional
b. Applied
c. Personal
d. Business
24. Business ethics aims at _____ consumers’ rights.
a. Protecting
b. Damaging
c. Not affecting
d. Destroying

25. _____ Ethics are the moral principles and values that need to be followed
during any kind of marketing communication.
a. Foreign Trade
b. Copyright
c. Marketing
d. Accounting
 MULTIPLE CHOICE SAMPLE QUESTIONS
TYBBI SEM V
FINANCIAL REPORTING ANALYSIS

1. Banking companies in India are governed by _____.

a. Banking Regulation Act
b. Indian Partnership Act
c. Indian Companies Act
d. Insurance Regulatory Act

2. Banks must maintain SLR of _____.

a. 30%
b. 25%
c. 35%
d. 20%

3. Non- banking assets are shown under _____________.

a. Other Current Assets
b. Advances
c. Non- Banking Assets
d. Fixed Assets

4. Bills purchased and discounted is treated as NPA when they remain unpaid for
more than _______ days.
a. 60
b. 45
c. 30
d. 90

5. Provision for standard Asset in respect of advances to commercial Real Estate

sector is _________%.
a. 0.25%
b. 0.75%
c. 1%
d. 2%

6. Provision for Tax ₹ 25,000/-

Provision for Doubtful Debt ₹ 20,000/-
And Rebate on bills discounted ₹ 15,000/-
In this case ₹___________ will be shown under Provisions and Contingencies
while preparing the Profit & Loss Account.
a. ₹ 20,000
b. ₹ 25,000
c. ₹ 60,000
d. ₹ 45,000

7. i. Rebate on bill discounted can be deducted from Advances in Balance sheet

ii. Rebate on bill discounted can be added to Other Liabilities in Balance sheet
 State the correctness of the above statements:
a. Statement i is incorrect but Statement ii is correct.
b. Statement i is correct but Statement ii is incorrect.
c. Statement i and Statement ii are correct.
d. Statement i and Statement ii are incorrect.

8. The policy which insures the goods at different places is ________.

a. Specific Policy
b. Floating Policy
c. Valued Policy
d. Replacement Policy

9. When more than one policy is taken to cover the same risk it is called as
_____________.
a. Re-insurance accepted
b. Reinsurance Ceded
c. Double Insurance
d. Marine Insurance

10. Claim on Re-insurance accepted is added to _________.

a. Claims Incurred
b. Commission Received
c. Premium Earned
d. Discount

11. Opening Balance of Claims ₹ 10,000,

Claims incurred during the year ₹ 1,00,000
Closing Balance of Claims ₹ 25,000
In the above case the balance in Claims would be ₹ ___________.
a. 10,000
b. 1,10,000
c. 85,000
d. 1,15,000

12. While preparing final accounts of insurance companies, Share premium is

disclosed under __________.
a. Share Capital
b. Reserves & Surplus
c. Provisions
d. Borrowings

13. The final accounts of companies are to be prepared in accordance with the
provision of _____ of the Companies Act.
a. Schedule I
b. Schedule II
c. Schedule III
d. Schedule IV

14. The company’s final accounts are prepared in _____ form.

a. Horizontal Form
b. Vertical Form
 c. T
d. Schedule of Capital

15. In Company Final Accounts, the _____ value of investment should be indicated
by way of a note.
a. Investment
b. Fixed Assets
c. Market Value
d. Zero

16. The balance in Share Forfeiture Account after reissue of forfeited shares is to be
shown as _____.
a. Fixed Assets
b. General Reserve
c. Capital Reserve
d. Share Capital

17. The amount of debtors due for more than _____ months is to be shown
separately.
a. Six
b. Three
c. Nine
d. Twelve

18. Uncalled amount on shares held as investment is shown under the heading
_____.
a. Calls in arrears
b. Securities Premium
c. Contingent Liability
d. Current Liability

19. Dividend is calculated on _____ capital.

a. Authorized
b. Subscribed
c. Issued &Called up
d. Paid up

20. Redemption of Pref. Shares is a cash flow from _____.

a. Investing Activity
b. Financing Activity
c. Operating Activity
Non-Financial Transaction

21. Increase in working capital, reduce cash flow from _____.

a. Investing Activity
b. Financing Activity
c. Operating Activity
d. Non- Financial Activity

22. Purchase of building is a cash flow from _____.

a. Investing Activity
 b. Financing Activity
c. Operating Activity
d. Non- Financial Activity

23. The ethical issues faced by the Accountants include _________.

a. Accountability
b. Lack of Accounting Knowledge
c. Lack of Qualification
d. Lack of Availability of Accounting Data

24. Share based payment (SBP) is governed by_______.

a. Ind AS 101
b. Ind AS 102
c. Ind AS 110
d. Ind AS 115

25. The amount at which an asset could be exchanged, a liability settled, equity
instrument granted is a _________.
a. Fair Value
b. Market Value
c. Realizable Value
d. Book Value
 SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
CLASS: TYBBI - SEMESTER: V
SUBJECT: FINANCIAL SERVICE MANAGMENT

Q.1. The process of managing the sales ledger of a client by a financial [02]
service company is called .
a. Leasing
b. Securitisation
c. Factoring
d. Forfaiting

Q.2. The minimum net worth for the second category of merchant [02]
bankers is .
a. Rs. 2 crores
b. Rs. 50 lakhs
c. Rs. 1 crore
d. NIL

Q.3. Non-Banking companies should compulsorily get credit rating for [02]
their .
a. Debt market instrument
b. Capital market instrument
c. Money market instrument
d. Equity instrument

Q.4. The availability of cash and other cash like marketable instruments [02]
that are useful in purchases and investments are commonly known
as .
a. Liquidity
b. Credit
c. Cash crunch
d. Marketability

Q.5. means advances over time in the financial instruments, [02]

services and payment by financial intermediaries.
a. Factoring
b. Financial Innovation
c. Financial Engineering
d. Financial Instrument
Q.6. The best suited fund to a retail investor is . [02]

a. Income fund
b. Taxation fund
c. Growth fund
d. Balance fund

Q. 7. Under factoring, the factor acts in the capacity of . [02]

a. A trustee
b. A holder for value
c. An administrator
d. An agent of his client

Q. 8. The potential of earning return is quite high as it is an . [02]

a. SIP
b. ELSS
c. Debt instrument
d. Gilt fund

Q. 9. Full-service factoring is often . [02]

a. Recourse Factoring
b. Non-recourse Factoring
c. Agency Factoring
d. Confidential Factoring

Q. 10. The central theme of forfaiting is the purchasing of by a [02]

financial service company.

a. Trade bills
b. Import bills
c. Export bills
d. Funding bill

Q.11. is the entity through which the securitization [02]

transaction is actually operated.
a. Originator
b. SPV
c. Seller
d. Investor
Q.12. The concept of securitization is associated with . [02]
a. Capital Market
b. Money Market
c. Debt Market
d. Foreign exchange market

Q.13. The assets generally not suitable for Securitization is . [02]

a. Hire purchase finance receivable
b. Mortgage loan
c. Receivable from Government Department
d. Trade Receivables
Q.14. Financial derivatives are mainly used for _. [02]
a. Speculative activities
b. Creating more risks
c. Hedging risk
d. Earning income
Q.15. The pre-determined price at which an underlying asset has to be [02]
bought or sold in an option contract is called .
a. Spot price
b. Option price
c. Future price
d. Exercise price

Q. 16 In 1970 Housing and Urban Development Corporation was [02]

established to finance various housing and activities.
a. Industrial
b. Urban infrastructure
c. Promotional
d. Secondary

Q. 17 is a method of consumer financing whereby the retailer [02]

allows the customer to make any number of purchases during a
month, not exceeding a certain value.
a. Revolving account
b. Cash loan
c. Open account
d. Deposit account
Q.18 The main agencies that are involved in the provision of consumer [02]
finance are .
a. Customers
b. Intermediaries
c. Traders
d. Agents

Q. 19 is one of the sources of Housing finance in India [02]

a. Informal sector
b. Unsecured loans
c. Reserve fund
d. Short term loans

Q. 20 An ongoing credit arrangement similar to bank overdraft is [02]

.
a. Revolving credit
b. Cash loan
c. Secured loan
d. Unsecured loan
Q. 21 is a process by which physical certificates of an [02]
investor are converted in to electronic form and credited to the
account of the depository participant.
a. Rematerialization
b. Stock Exchange
c. Depository
d. Dematerialization
Q. 22 NSDL offers facility for pledge and hypothecation of . [02]
a. Investment
b. Securities
c. Goods
d. Services
Q. 23 is a way of creating a charge against the security of [02]
immovable assets.
a. Pledge
b. Depository
c. Hypothecation
d. Charge
Q. 24 In case of default the pledgee has the right to the goods in his [02]
possession and adjust its proceeds towards the amount due.
a. Buy
b. Sell
c. Extends
d. Stabilize

Q. 25 Under this method. The points are allotted to various aspects of the [02]
consumer’s loan proposal being 100.
a. Machinery Risk Formula
b. Specific Fixed Formula
c. Dunham Greenberg Formula
d. Walter & Gordon Formula
 SAMPLE MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
TYBBI SEM V
RESEARCH METHODOLOGY

1. _______ is the list of elements from which the sample may be drawn
a. Sampling plan
b. Sampling frame
c. Sampling unit
d. Sampling methods
2. _______ research is oriented to solve a specific problem that requires a decision.
a. Fundamental
b. Exploratory
c. Descriptive
d. Applied

3. _______ hypotheses establishes no relationship among variables

a. Complex
b. Analytical
c. Null
d. Positive

4. _______ is a type of sampling and is also called purposive or deliberate sampling

a. Convenient Sampling
b. Multistage Sampling
c. Judgement sampling
d. Simple random sampling

5. ________ in research is the quality of being trusted and believed in

a. Generalizability
b. Credibility
c. Validity
d. Empirical

6. Which of these is not a characteristics of hypotheses?

a. Hypothesis becomes testable if other inferences can be made from it
b. Hypothesis must indicate relationship between variables if the exercise is of relational
hypothesis
c. Hypothesis must be built on existing body of facts and theories, genuine contribution
is likely to emerge
d. Hypothesis cannot support facts.

7. In 1928, Alexander Fleming discovered the first antibiotic, penicillin, which he grew in his
lab using mold and fungi. This is an example of _______ research
a. Basic/Pure/Fundamental research
b. Applied research
 c. Qualitative research
d. Descriptive research

8. Which of these is not a correct statement?

a. The research design should be made with simplicity
b. Research design should be flexible in nature
c. Research design should be always be costly
d. Selection of right methods of research is required in research design

9. _______ includes the acknowledgement to the persons and sources that have been helpful
to the investigator
a. Main body of the report
b. Statement by researcher
c. Preface
d. List of Tables

10. Which of these statements is correct?

a. A research design provides consolidated, factual and an up-to-date information about
a particular matter or subject
b. Bibliography is a part reference material
c. Copies of data collection instruments are part of main body of the report
d. Table of contents includes the acknowledgement to the persons and sources that have
been helpful to the investigator

11. Which of these is not a property of sample mean?

a. Unbiased
b. Efficient
c. Consistent
d. Standardised

12. _______ can be used to test the hypothesis that the population variances are equal
a. One-Sample T-Test
b. Paired Sample T-Test
c. ANOVA
d. F- Test

13. Identify the correct statement -

a. In ANOVA we use additive model
b.In ANOVA population can be non-normal
c. In ANOVA we test equality of variances
d. ANOVA is alternative to t-test
14. ______________ intends at grouping of objects such that the members of each of the
group are having similar characteristics.
a. Cluster analysis
b. Factor analysis
c. Discriminate analysis
d. Multidimensional scaling
15. When 2 variable move in different direction, i.e. an increase in one variable will result in
decrease in another variable and vice versa then the variables are considered to have
_________.
a. Positive correlation
b. Negative correlation
c. No correlation
d. Less correlation
16. If there is no correlation between the two variables then it is called ________ ________.
a. Positive correlation
b. Negative correlation
c. Zero correlation
d. Weak correlation
17. ___________ is similar to regression analysis and analysis of variance (ANOVA)
a. Discriminant analysis
b. Multivariate dimension
c. Factor analysis
d. Cluster analysis
18. Focus groups are group discussions conducted with the participation of _____.
a. 3-4 people
b. 7-12 people
c. 2 individuals
d. 20-25 people

19. The method of collecting data through mailing of questionnaires to respondent is called
_____.
a. Specific survey
b. Ad-hoc survey
c. Mail survey
d. General survey
20. In _____, fixed alternatives answers are given so respondent can choose appropriate one.
a. Open- ended
b. Paragraph form
c. Unstructured
 d. Close-ended
21. In _______ observation subjects do not know they are being observed.
a. Disguised
b. Undisguised
c. Unstructured
d. Manual

22. A process where events occur in a setting at the discretion/option of the researcher and
controls are used to identify the sources of variation in respondent’s response is called
_________.
a. Experimentation
b. Observation
c. Survey
d. Interview

23. A ________ provides consolidated, factual and an up-to-date information about a

particular matter or subject.
a. Research design
b. Research report
c. Sample design
d. Sample report

24. _________ is one of the essentials of good report.

a. Inaccuracy
b. Ambiguity
c. Clarity
d. Based on vague information
25. ___________ is a primary source of data collection
a. Journals
b. Survey
c. Magazines
d. websites