Unit I: Introduction to Mechanics of Solid:

Normal and shear Stress, strain, Hooke’s’ law, Poisson’s ratio, elastic constants and their relationship, stress-
strain diagram for ductile and brittle materials, factor of safety. Basic Numerical problems. Types of beams
under various loads, Statically Determinate Beams, Shear force and bending moment in beams, Shear force and
bending moment Diagrams, Relationships between load, shear and bending moment. Basic Numerical
problems.

1. The beam which extending beyond the support, that beam is called as.......

(a) Simply supported beam

(b) Cantilever beam
(c) Fixed beam
(d) Overhanging beam
(e) None of these

2. The beam which heaved more than two support that beam is called as...

(a) Simply supported beam

(b) Cantilever beam
(c) Fixed beam
(d) Continuous beam
(e) None of these

3. Point of contraflexure occurs in...........

(a) Simply supported beam

(b) Cantilever beam
(c) Fixed beam
(d) Overhanging beam
(e) None of these

4. Point of contra-flexure is a
(a) Point where shear force is maximum
(b) Point where bending moment is maximum
(c) Point where bending moment is zero
(d) Point where bending moment=0 but also changes its sign
(e) None of these

5. In a simple supported beam having length = L and subjected to a concentrated load (W) at mid-point.
(a) Maximum Bending moment = WL/4 at the mid-point
(b) Maximum Bending moment = WL/4 at the end
(c) Maximum Bending moment = WL/8 at the mid-point
(d) Maximum Bending moment = WL/8 at the end
(e) None of these

6. In a simply supported beam subjected to uniformly distributed load (w) over the entire length (l), total
load=W, maximum Bending moment is

(a) wl2/8 at the mid-point

(b) wl2/8 at the end
 (c) wl2/4
(d) Wl/2
(e) None of these

7. At a point in a simply supported or overhanging beam where Shear force changes sign and = 0, Bending
moment is
(a) Maximum
(b) Zero
(c) Either increasing or decreasing
(d) Infinity
(e) None of these

8 In the following figure maximum bending moment at point B is ……’

(a) 6 kN-m
(b) 4 kN-m
(c) 2 kN-m
(d) 8 kN-m
(e) None of these

9. In the following figure maximum bending moment is…….

(a) 3375 kN-m

(b) 4750 kN-m
(c) 3595 kN-m
(d) 4000 kN-m
(e) None of these

10. The shear force diagram of a loaded

beam is shown in following diagram
maximum BM in the beam is ………
(a) 16 kN.-m
(b) 11 kN.-m
(c) 28 kN.-m
(d) 8 kN.-m
(e) None of these

11. A massless beam as shown in figure the maximum BM occurs at

(a) Location at B
(b) 2.6 m to right of A
(c) 2.5 m to the right of A
(d) 3.2 m to the right of A
(e) None of these
12. Beam which is supported one or more than two support is known as

(a) Simply supported beam

(b) Fixed beam
(c) Cantilever beam
(d) Continuous beam

13. Following beam is the statically indeterminate beams

(a) Fixed beam
(b) Continuous beams
(c) Simply supported beam
(d) Cantilever beam
(e) None of the above

14. In cantilever beam the bending moment of load uniformly distributed over length is
(a) Horizontal straight line
(b) Vertical straight line
(c) Inclined line
(d) Parabolic curve
(e) None of the above

15. Number of points of contra-flexure can be there in beam having two overhangs
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None
(e) None of these
16. The nature of lateral & linear strains is
(a) Same
(b) Opposite
(c) Same & opposite
(d) Direction along x axis
(e) None of these

17. Poisson’s ratio is

(a) Linear strain/longitude strain
(b) Linear strain/ lateral strain
(c) Lateral strain/linear strain
(d) Stress/Strain
(d) None of these

18. The ratio of stress and strain is known as

(a) Modulus of elasticity
(b) Young's modulus
(c) Modulus of rigidity
(d) Bulk modulus
(e) None of the these

19. Two parallel, equal and opposite forces acting tangentially to the surface of the body is called as
(a) Complementary stress
(b) Compressive stress
(c) Shear stress
(d) Tensile stress
(e) None of these

20.The relation between modulus of elasticity (E), modulus of rigidity (G) and bulk modulus (K) is given as
(a) K+G / (3K+ G)
(b) 3 KG / (3K+ G)
(c) 3 KG / (9K+ G)
(d) 9 KG / (3K+ G)
(e) None of these

21. The slope of the stress-strain curve in the elastic deformation region is
(a) Elastic modulus
(b) Plastic modulus
(c) Poisson’s ratio
(d) Bulk modulus
(e) None of these

22. A rod 120cm long and diameter 3 cm subjected to a load of 18kN. The stress in N/mm2 is
(a) 22.47
(b) 24.44
(c) 26.50
(d) 25.47
(e) None of these

23.A rectangular bar is uniaxial loaded, the volumetric strain is given as

(a) σx / E(1- μ)
(b) σx / E(1+ μ)
(c) σx / E(1- 2μ)
(d) σx / E(1+2μ)
(e) None of these

24. The point on the stress strain curve occurs after the ultimate point.
(a) Last point.
(b) Breaking point
(c) Elastic limit
(d) Material limit
(e) None of these

25. Measure of the ductility of the material is

(a) Percentage elongation.
(b) Percentage reduction in area
(c) Volumetric Strain
(d) Total Strain
(e) None of these

26. The modulus of rigidity of a material whose E= 210GPa and Poisson’s ratio is 0.25 will be.
(a) 84x109 Pa
(b) 50x109 Pa
(c) 30x109 Pa
(d) 84x109 Pa
(e) None of these

27. The value of the Poisson’s ratio for any material cannot exceed
(a) 0.2
(b) 1.414
(c) 1
(d) 0.5
(e) None of these

28. Young’s modulus of elasticity of a material is 2.5 times of modulus of rigidity. The Poisson’s ratio of the
material will be.
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.33
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.75
(e) None of these

29. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of

(a) Longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain
(b) Volumetric stress to volumetric strain
(c) Lateral stress to lateral strain
(d) Shear stress to shear strain
(e) None of these

30. The material which exhibit the same elastic properties in all direction called
(a) Homogenous
(b) Inelastic
(c) Isotropic
(d) Isentropic
(e) None of these

Answers:

1- d 6- a 11- c 16- b 21- a 26- a

2- d 7- a 12- d 17- c 22- d 27- d
3- d 8- b 13- a, b 18- a, b 23- c 28- a
4- d 9- a 14- d 19- c 24- b 29- d
5- a 10- a 15- b 20- d 25- a, b 30- c
 Unit 2: Introduction to IC Engines and RAC:

IC Engine: Basic Components, Construction and Working of Two stroke and four stroke SI & CI engine, merits
and demerits, scavenging process; Introduction to electric, and hybrid electric vehicles.
Refrigeration: Its meaning and application, unit of refrigeration; Coefficient of performance, methods of
refrigeration, construction and working of domestic refrigerator, concept of heat pump. Formula based
numerical problems on cooling load.
Air-Conditioning: Its meaning and application, humidity, dry bulb, wet bulb, and dew point temperatures,
comfort conditions, construction and working of window air conditioner.

1) The capacity of a refrigerating machine is expressed as

A) Lowest temperature attainable
B) Rate of abstraction of heat from the space being cool
C) Inside volume of the cabinet
D) Gross weight of the machine in terms

2) One tonne of refrigeration implies that the machine has a refrigerating effect equal to
A) 1KJ/s
B) 2.5KJ/s
C) 3.5KJ/s
D) 5KJ/s
E) None of these

3) Which part of the vapour compression refrigeration cycle produces the refrigeration effect
A) Condenser
B) Throttle valve
C) Evaporator
D) Compressor
E) None of these

4) In a refrigeration system expansion valve is incorporated between

A) Evaporator and compressor
B) Condenser and evaporator
C) Compressor and condenser
D) Super heater and sub cooler
E) None of these

5) Which is usually the costliest items in a refrigeration system

A) Condenser
B) Capillary tube
C) Evaporator
D) Compressor
E) None of these
6) The refrigerant commonly used for commercial ice plant is
A) Freon-12
B) NH3
C) CO2
D) SO2
E) None of these

7) A heat pump working on a reversed carnot cycle has a COP of 5. If it work a refrigerator taking 1KW
of work input , the refrigeration effect will be
A) 1KW
B) 2KW
C) 3KW
D) 4KW
E) None of these

8) The value of C.O.P in vapour compression cycle is usually

A) Always less than unity
B) Always greater than unity
C) Equal to unity
D) Any one of the above
E) None of these

9) The C.O.P. of a refrigerator working on a reversed Carnot cycle is (where T₁ = Lowest absolute
temperature, and T₂ = Highest absolute temperature)
A) T₁ / (T₂ - T₁ )
B) (T₂ - T₁ )/T₁
C) (T₁ - T₂ )/T₁
D) T₂ / (T₂ - T₁ )
E) None of these

10) Which of the following statement is correct?

A) The human body can lose heat even if its temperature is less than the atmospheric temperature
B) The increase in air movement increases the evaporation from the human body.
C) The warm air increases the rate of radiation of heat from the human body
D) Both (A) and (B)
E) None of these

11) The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by

A) Evaporator
B) Safety relief valve
C) Dehumidifier
D) Driers
E) None of these

12) A one tonne refrigerating machine means that

A) One tonne is the total mass of machine
B) One tonne refrigerant is used
C) One tonne of water can be converted into ice
 D) One tonne of ice when melts from and at 0° C in 24 hours, the refrigeration effect is equivalent to
210 kJ/min
E) None of these

13) The coefficient of performance (C.O.P.) of a refrigerator working as a heat pump is given by
A) (C.O.P.)P = (C.O.P.)R + 2
B) (C.O.P.)P = (C.O.P.)R + 1
C) (C.O.P)P = (C.O.P)R - 1
D) (C.O.P)P = (C.O.P)R
E) None of these

14) In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat rejected is

A) More
B) Less
C) Same
D) More for small capacity and less for high capacity
E) None of these

15) If a heat pump cycle operates between the condenser temperature of +27°C and evaporator temperature
of -23°C, then the Carnot COP will be
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 4
E) None of these

16) Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is _________ a four stroke cycle engine.
A) Less
B) More
C) Equal
D) Can not say
E) None of these

17) The air-fuel ratio in petrol engines is controlled by

A) Controlling valve opening/closing
B) Governing
C) Injection
D) Carburetion
E) None of these

18) Which of the following statement is correct?

A) Compression ratio for petrol engines varies from 6 to 10
B) Compression ratio for diesel engines varies from 6 to 10
C) Petrol engines work on Otto cycle
D) All of the above
E) None of these

19) In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by

A) Spark plug
B) Injected fuel
C) Heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
D) Ignition
 E) None of these

20) Which of the following does not relate to a spark ignition engine?
A) Ignition coil
B) Spark plug
C) Carburettor
D) Fuel injector
E) None of these

21) In a four stroke cycle engine, the sequence of operations is

A) Suction, compression, expansion and exhaust
B) Suction, expansion, compression and exhaust
C) Expansion, compression, suction and exhaust
D) Compression, expansion, suction and exhaust
E) None of these

22) An Electric vehicle only needs one of the following maintenance jobs done. Which is it
A) Oil change
B) Belt replacement
C) New spark plugs
D) Brake pad inspections
E) None of these

23) When the humidity ratio of air increases the air is said to be
A) Dehumidified
B) Humidified
C) Heated
D) Cooled
E) None of these

24) What is the specific humidity

A) the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of the total mixture of air and water vapour
B) the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of the total mixture of air and water vapour
C) the ratio of the mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in a mixture of air and water vapour
D) the ratio of the mass of water vapour to the mass of dry air in a mixture of air and water vapour
E) None of these

25) What is the main shaft of an engine that controls the movement of piston
A) Axle
B) Driver shaft
C) Crank shaft
D) Camshaft
E) None of these

26) Which one is not common component between a petrol and a diesel engine
A) Cam shaft
B) Exhaust silencer
C) Spray nozzle
D) Dynamo
E) None of these
 27) Concept of Refrigerator and heat pump are based on
A) First law of thermodynamic
B) Newton’s law
C) Second law of thermodynamic
D) Both a and b
E) None of these

28) Domestic refrigerator consists of the following parts

A) Compressor, evaporator
B) Condenser, capillary tube
C) Capillary tube ,turbine
D) Compressor , turbines
E) None of these

29) Two stroke engines are generally used where ……. are major considerations.
A) Low cost
B) Compactness
C) Light weight
D) All of the above
E) None of these

30) Scavenging air means

A) Air used under compression
B) Air used for forcing the burnt gases out of the cylinder during the exhaust stroke
C) Forced air for cooling the cylinder
D) Burnt gases containing combustion product
E) None of these
31) Figure shown is the turbine of…………………
A) Pelton Wheel C) Kaplan Turbine
B) Fransis Turbine D) Fly wheel
C) None of these

Answers:
1. B 6- B 11- D 16- A 21- A 26- C 31-A
2. C 7- D 12- D 17- D 22- D 27- C
3. C 8- B 13- B 18- A,C 23- B 28- A,B
4. B 9- A 14- B 19- C 24- D 29- D
5. D 10- D 15- E 20- D 25- C 30- B
 Unit 3: Introduction to Fluid Mechanics and Applications:
Introduction: Introduction: Fluids properties, pressure, density, dynamic and kinematic viscosity, specific
gravity, Newtonian and Non-Newtonian fluid, Pascal’s Law, Continuity Equation, Bernaulli’s Equation and its
applications, Basic Numerical problems.
Working principles of hydraulic turbines & pumps and their classifications, hydraulic accumulators, hydraulic
lift and their applications.

1- The specific volume of a liquid is the reciprocal of

a) weight density b) mass density
c) specific weight d) specific volume
e) NONE

2- Two fluids 1 and 2 have mass densities of p1 and p2 respectively. If p1 > p2, which one of the following
expressions will represent the relation between their specific volumes v1 and v2?

a) v1 > v2 b) v1 < v2
c) v1 = v2 d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient
information.
e) NONE

3- Two horizontal plates placed 250mm have an oil of viscosity 20 poises. Calculate the shear stress in oil if
upper plate is moved with velocity of 1250mm/s.
a) 20 N/m2 b) 2 N/m2
2
c) 10 N/m d) 4 N/m2
e) NONE

4- The dynamic viscosity of a fluid is 1 Poise. What should one multiply to it to get the answer in N-s/m2?
a) 0.1 b) 1
c) 10 d) 100
e) NONE

5- Newton’s Law of Viscosity states that

a) shear stress is directly proportional to the velocity b) shear stress is directly proportional to the velocity
gradient
c) shear stress is directly proportional to the shear d) shear stress is directly proportional to the shear
strain viscosity
e) NONE

6- The shear stress at a point in a liquid is found to be 0.03 N/m2. The velocity gradient at the point is 0.15 s-1.
What will be its viscosity (in Poise)?
a) 20 b) 2
c) 0.2 d) 0.5
e) NONE
7- Three fluids 1, 2 and 3 have Bulk Moduli of k1, k2 and k3 respectively. If k1 > k2 > k3, which liquid will
have the highest compressibility?
a) liquid 1 b) liquid 2
c) liquid 3 d) they’ll have equal compressibilities
e) NONE
8- Which of the following is a shear-thinnning and thicking fluid?
i) Bingham plastic ii) Rheopectic
iii) Dilatant iv) Pseudoplastic
a) only i b) only ii
c) only I and iv d) only iii and iv
e) None of these

9- The pressure at a point in the fluid is 4.9 N/cm2. Find height when the fluid under consideration is in oil of
specific gravity of 0.85.
a) 5.83 m b) 11.66 m
c) 17.49 m d) 8.74 m
e) None of these

10- Pascal’s Law states that pressure at a point is equal in all directions
a) in liquid at rest b) in fluid at rest
c) in a laminar flow a) in a turbulent flow
e) NONE

11- Which of the following forces generally act on fluid while considering fluid dynamics?
1. Viscous force 2. Pressure force
3. Gravity force 4. Turbulent force, Compressibility force
a) Only 1 b) Only 1,2 and 3
c) Only 1, 3,and 4 d) All of the above
e) None of these

12- In a steady, ideal flow of an incompressible fluid, total energy at any point of the fluid is always constant.
This theorem is known as
a) Euler's theorem b) Navier-stokes theorem
c) Reynolds’s theorem d) Bernoulli's theorem
e) None of these

13- The below diagram is a graph of change in shear stress with respect to velocity gradient in a fluid. What is a
type of the fluid?

a) Newtonian fluid b) Non-Newtonian fluid

c) Ideal fluid d)Dilatent fluid
e) None of these

14- Which of the following sentences are true for Bernoulli's equation?
1. Bernoulli's principle is applicable to ideal incompressible fluid
2. The gravity force and pressure forces are only considered in Bernoulli's principle
3. The flow of fluid is rotational for Bernoulli's principle
4. The heat transfer into or out of fluid should be zero to apply Bernoulli's principle
a) (1), (2) and (3) b) (1), (3) and (4)
c) (1), (2) and (4) d) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
e) NONE

15- If a liquid enters a pipe of diameter d with a velocity v, what will it’s velocity at the exit if the diameter
reduces to 0.5d?
a) v b) 0.5v
c) 2v d) 4v
e) NONE

16- A water flows through a pipe at a velocity 2 m/s. The pressure gauge reading is 2 bar. The datum head is
given to be 2 m. Find the piezometric head. (Assume all Bernoulli’s assumptions, Density of water = 1000
kg/m3, g = 9.8 m/s2).
a) 22.4 m b) 22.6 m
c) 20.4 m d) 20.6 m
e) NONE

17- In a water supply system, water flows in from pipes 1 and 2 and goes out from pipes 3 and 4 as shown. If all
the pipes have the same diameter, which of the following must be correct?

a) the sum of the flow velocities in 1 and 2 is equal to b) the sum of the flow velocities in 1 and 3 is equal to
that in 3 and 4 that in 2 and 4
c) the sum of the flow velocities in 1 and 4 is equal to d) the flow velocities in 1 and 2 is equal to that in 3
that in 2 and 3 and 4
e) NONE

18- What does Kinematic Viscosity depend upon?

a) Density b) Pressure
c) Fluid level d) Fluid Flow
e) NONE

19- Beaker half-filled with water is exposed to the atmosphere. If the pressure at points A, B and C as shown
are Pa, Pb and Pc respectively, which one of the following will be the relation connecting the three?

a) Pa > Pb = Pc b) Pa > Pb > Pc

c) Pa < Pb < Pc d) Pa < Pb = Pc
e) NONE

20- Consider the following aspects for liquid flow

1- Steady flow 2- Conservation of energy
3- Viscous flow 4- Incompressible flow
Which of these aspects pertain to Bernoulli’s theorem?
a) 1,2 and 4 b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1 and 2 d) 1,2 and 3
a) None

21- The Bernoulli’s equation refers to conservation of

a) mass b) momentum
c) force d) energy
d) None

22- Continuity equation deals with the law of conservation of

a) mass b) energy
c) momentum d) force
a) None

p V2
23- Each term of Bernoulli’s equation stated in the form w + + y = constant has units of
2g
a) N b) Nm/N
c) Nm/Kg d) J/s
e) None

24- Stoke is a unit of

a) Surface tension b) Kinematic Viscosity
c) Rate of strain d) Velocity gradient
e) None
τ
25- A fluid which obeys the relation μ = du⁄ is called
dy
a) real fluid b) perfect fluid
c) ideal fluid d) Newtonian fluid
e) None

26- Stress strain relationship for Newtonian fluid is

a) Parabolic b) Hyperbolic
c) Linear d) Inverse type
e) None

27- Match the following physical quantities in Group 1 with their dimensions in Group 2.
1. Work done (Energy) (W) A. [M L 2 T – 3 ]
2. Power (P) B. [M L – 1 T – 1 ]
3. Momentum (M) C. [M L 2 T – 2 ]
4. Modulus of elasticity (E) D. [M L T – 1 ]
5. Dynamic viscosity (μ) E. [M L – 1 T – 2 ]
a) 1-(C), 2-(A), 3-(D), 4-(E), 5-(B) b) 1-(A), 2-(C), 3-(D), 4-(E), 5-(B)
c) 1-(C), 2-(A), 3-(E), 4-(B), 5-(D) d) 1-(D), 2-(E), 3-(B), 4-(A), 5-(C)
e) None

28- Shear stress in static fluid is

a) always zero b) always maximum
c) between zero to maximum d) unpredictable
e) None

29- What is an ideal fluid?

a) A fluid which has no viscosity b) A fluid which is incompressible
c) A fluid which has no surface tension d) All of the above
e) None

30- Hydraulic press has a ram of 30 cm diameter and a plunger of of 2 cm diameter. It is used for lifting a
weight of 35 kN. Find the force required at the plunger.
a) 233.3 kN b) 311.1 kN
c) 466.6 kN d) 155.5 kN
e) NONE

31- Reaction turbine requires

a) High head and low discharge b) High head and high discharge
c) Low head and low discharge d) Low head and high discharge
e) NONE

32- An Impulse turbine

a) is most suited for low head installation b) make use of draft tube
c) is not exposed to atmosphere d) operates with initial complete conversion of
pressure head to velocity
e) NONE

33- Kaplan turbine is

a) Tangential flow b) Radial flow
c) Axial flow d) Mixed flow
e) None

34- In a centrifugal pump the liquid enters the pump

a) At the top b) At the bottom
c) At the center d) From sides
e) None

35- The Capacity of hydraulic accumulator is defined as

a) maximum amount of energy it can store b) maximum discharge it can deliver
c) total volume of liquid it can solve d) maximum height to which it is capable of lifting
liquid
e) None

Answers:

1- b 6- b 11- d 16- a 21- d 26- c 31- d

2- b 7- c 12- d 17- a 22- a 27- a 32- d
3- c 8- d 13- b 18- a 23- b 28- a 33- b
4- a 9- a 14- c 19- d 24- b 29- d 34- c
5- b 10- 15- d 20- a 25- d 30- d 35- a
 Unit 4: Measurements and Control System:

Concept of Measurement, Error in measurements, Calibration, measurements of pressure, temperature, mass

flow rate, strain, force and torques; Concept of accuracy, precision and resolution, Basic Numerical problems.
System of Geometric Limit, Fit, Tolerance and gauges, Basic Numerical problems.
Control System Concepts: Introduction to Control Systems, Elements of control system, Basic of open and
closed loop control with example.

1. The measurement of a quantity

(a) Is an act of comparison of an unknown quantity with another quantity

(b) Is an act of comparison of an unknown quantity with a known quantity whose accuracy may be known or
may not be known?
(c) Is an act of comparison of an unknown quantity with a predefined acceptable standard which is accurately
known?
(d) Is an act of comparison of an known quantity with a unknown quantity
(e) None of the above

2. Which of the following equipment is not used for temperature measurement:

(a) RTD
(b) Thermistor
(c) Gas thermometer
(d) Thermocouple
(e) Rota meter

3. Manometer is used to measure:

(a) Pressure
(b) Velocity
(c) Flow
(d) Temperature
(e) None of the above

4. The measurand is
(a)Output
(b)Measured variable
(c)Secondary signal
(d)Any of the above
(e) None of the above

5. The temperature measurement by a thermocouple is

(a) Primary measurement
(b) Secondary measurement
(c) Tertiary measurement
(d) Any one of above
(e) None of the above

6. The degree of closeness of the Measured value of a certain quantity with its true value is known as
(a) Accuracy
(b) Precision
(c) Standard
(d) Sensitivity
(e) Resolution

7. The set of readings has a wide range and therefore it has

(a) Low precision
(b) High precision
(c) Low accuracy
(d) High accuracy
(e) None of the above

8. The two slip gauges in precision measurement are joined by _______

(a) Sliding
(b) Adhesion
(c) Wringing
(d) Slipping
(e) None of the above

9. How many grades of tolerances does the ISO system of limits and fits specify?
(a) 12
(b) 8
(c) 28
(d) 25
(e) 18

10. In a shaft basis system, the upper deviation of the size of the shaft is ______.
(a) 1
(b) Not related to size
(c) less than 0
(d) 0
(e) Greater than 0

11. In the hole and shaft pair designation of 40 H7/d9, the numbers 7 and 9 inicate ______.
(a) Tolerance grade
(b) Accuracy of manufacture
(c) Ease of assembly
(d) Basic size
(e) None of the above

12. MML corresponds to the _______.

(a) Higher limit of a hole and lower limit of the shaft
(b) Lower limit of a hole and lower limit of the shaft
(c) Higher limit of a hole and higher limit of the shaft
(d) Lower limit of a hole and higher limit of the shaft
(e) None of the above

13. LML corresponds to the ______.

(a) Higher limit of a hole and lower limit of the shaft
(b) Lower limit of a hole and lower limit of the shaft
(c) Higher limit of a hole and higher limit of the shaft
(d) Lower limit of a hole and higher limit of the shaft
(e) None of the above

14. Limit gauges are used to ______.

(a) Measure the flatness of the component
(b) Measure the exact size of the component
(c) Check if the component dimension lies within permissible limits
(d) Measure surface roughness of the component
(e) Measure angle of inclination of the component

15. According to Taylor’s principle, GO gauges are designed to check ______.

(a) Maximum metal condition
(b) Minimum metal condition
(c) Both maximum and minimum metal condition
(d) Basic size of the component
(e) None of these

16. The relationship that results between the two mating parts before assembly is called ______.
(a) Tolerance
(b) Allowance
(c) Limit
(d) Fit
(e) None of these

17. What is equal to the differences between the two limits of size of the part?
(a) Fundamental Deviation
(b) Low limit
(c) High limit
(d) Basic design size
(e) Tolerance
18. What is bilateral tolerance?
(a) Total tolerance is in 1 direction only
(b) Total tolerance is in both the directions
(c) May or may not be in one direction
(d) Tolerance provided all over the component body
(e) None of these

19. What does ‘50’ represents in 50H8/g7?

(a) Basic size
(b) Actual size
(c) Maximum limit of size
(d) Minimum limit of size
(e) None of these

20. A basic hole is one whose ________.

(a) Tolerance is zero
(b) Lower deviation is zero
(c) Upper deviation is zero
(d) Lower and upper deviations are zero
(e) None of these

21. The resolution of a system refers to

(a) Closeness to the true value
(b) True value of the input
(c) Smallest change in the measured that can be measured
(d) Retardation of the response
(e) None of these

22. Precision is the

(a) Closeness of the instrument output to true value of the measured quantity
(b) Ratio of difference between measured value and the true value of the measurand
(c) Smallest increment in measurand that can be detected with certainty by the instrument
(d) Degree of repeatability of several independent measurements of the desired input at the same reference
conditions
(e) None of these

23. Which of the following is correct for temperature?

(a) F = 1.6C + 32
(b) F = 1.8C + 32
(c) F = 1.8C + 273
(d) F = 1.8C + 212
(e) none of these

24. Semiconductors used for temperature measurement are called _______.

(a) Glass bulb thermometer
(b) Thermopiles
(c) Resistance temperature detectors
(d) Pyrometers
(e) Thermistors

25. Gauge pressure is measured ________.

(a) Above the local atmospheric pressure
(b) Below the local atmospheric pressure
(c) Above the zero absolute pressure
(d) Below the zero absolute pressure
(e) None of these

26. Traffic light system is the example of:

a) Open-loop control system
b) Closed-loop control system
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) Feedback control system
e) None of these

27. In open loop control system

A. Output is dependent of control input
B. Output is independent of control input
C. Only system parameters have effect on the control output
D. Option A & C are correct
E. None of the above

28. for open loop control system which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Less expensive
B. Recalibration is not required for maintaining the required quality of the output
C. Construction is simple and maintenance easy
D. Errors are caused by disturbances
E. None of the above

29. A closed loop system is distinguished from open loop system by which of the following?
A. Servomechanism
B. Feedback
C. Output pattern
D. Input pattern
E. All of these

30. Temperature gives a measure of _________.

A. Potential energy of the system
B. External energy of the system
C. The internal energy of the system
D. No relationship with energy
E. The total energy of the system

1- c 6- a 11- a 16- d 21- c 26- a

2- e 7- a 12- d 17- e 22- d 27- b
3- a 8- c 13- a 18- b 23- b 28- b
4- b 9- e 14- c 19- a 24- e 29- b
5- c 10- d 15- a 20- b 25- a 30- c
 Unit 5: Introduction to Mechatronics:
Evolution, Scope, Advantages and disadvantages of Mechatronics, Industrial applications of Mechatronics,
Introduction to autotronics, bionics, and avionics and their applications. Sensors and Transducers: Types of
sensors, types of transducers and their characteristics.
Overview of Mechanical Actuation System – Kinematic Chains, Cam, Train Ratchet Mechanism, Gears and
its type, Belt, Bearing,
Hydraulic and Pneumatic Actuation Systems: Overview: Pressure Control Valves, Cylinders, Direction
Control Valves, Rotary Actuators, Accumulators, Amplifiers, and Pneumatic Sequencing Problems.

Q1. Where and when was the word Mechatronics invented?

a) Japan(1960) b) Japan(1980)
c) Europe(1960) d) Europe(1980) e)None of the above
Q2. A servo motor is a typical example of _____
a) Electronics system b) Mechanical system
c) Computer system d) Mechatronics system e) None of the above
Q3. What is the function of an input signal conditioning unit?
a) To produce control signals b) To amplify the signal and convert it into digital form
c) To perform mechanical work d) To produce electrical signals
e) None of the above

Q4. The main function of Actuator is _____

a) To produce motion b) Detect input
c) Detect output d) Detect the state of the system
e) None of the above
Q5. A humanoid robot is an example of _____
a) Artificial intelligence b) Stand-alone systems
c) Large factory systems d) High level distributed sensor microcontroller actuator
e) None of the above

Q6. A Mechatronics system contains feedback.

a) True b) False c) both a and b
d) May or may not be e) None of the above

Q7. What are transducers?

a) They convert power from one form to another
b) They convert work from one form to another
c) They convert work to power
d) they convert energy from one form to another
e) None of the above

Q8.What type of energy conversion does a piezoelectric transducer perform?

a) It converts mechanical energy to sound energy
b) It converts sound energy to mechanical energy
c) It converts mechanical energy to electrical energy
d) It converts electrical energy to mechanical energy
e) None of the above

Q9. Pirani Gauge is an example of which type of transducer?

a) Pressure transducer
b) Temperature transducer
c) Light transducer
d) Mechanical transducer
e) None of the above
Q10. What is the full form of LVDT with respect to displacement transducer?
a) Linear variable differential temperature
b) linear variable differential transformer
c) Liquid visible differential transformer
d) Liquefied visible differential transformer
e) None of the above

Q11. What is the function of the control valve?

a) To control different parameters of the fluid
b) To perform two operations in sequence
c) To control the direction of flow
d) To avoid the development of excess of pressure
e) None of the above

Q12. Which among the following fluid parameters are not controlled by the control valves?
a) Pressure b) Rate of flow
c) Speed d) Direction of flow e) None of the above

Q13. What is the function of the pressure control valve?

a) To control the force generated by actuators
b) To perform two operations in sequence
c) To control the direction of flow
d) To avoid the development of excess of pressure
e) None of the above

Q14. In which type of system does power transmission takes place through compressed air?
a) Fluid power system b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system d) Stepper motors e) None of the above

Q15. The compressed air flows to the actuator through ____

a) pipes and valves b) shafts
c) motors d) flow control valve e) None of the above

Q16. What is the function of the flow control valve?

a) Controls the direction of flow of air
b) The moisture is separated and removed
c) It converts the mechanical energy to hydraulic energy
d) It controls the rate of flow of compressed air
e) None of the above
Q17. The direction control valve controls ____
a) direction of flow b) rate of flow
c) moisture d) force and motion e) None of the above

Q18. Which among the following is an advantage of the Pneumatic system?

a) The requirement of a lubricator b) Runs continuously
c) Use of silencers d) Low viscosity e) None of the above

Q19. Which among the following is a disadvantage of Pneumatic system?

a) The requirement of a lubricator
b) Runs continuously
c) Used better in mines
d) Produces a dust free surroundings
e) None of the above

Q20. What is the joint called if only four links are joined at a point?
a) Binary joint b) Ternary joint
c) Quaternary joint d) Quad-joint e) None of the above

Q21. What is the purpose of pawl, when it is used against a ratchet which is attached to a shaft?
a) It allows unidirectional motion of shaft
b) It allows bidirectional motion of shaft
c) It does not allow motion of shaft
d) It is used to create additional friction force for the shaft
e) None of the above

Q22. Which among the following operations does not use belt drives?
a) Mining
b) Logging
c) Road construction
d) Bicycles
e) None of the above

Q23. Which among the following is an advantage of using belt drives over chain drives?
a) Efficiency
b) Noise
c) Cost
d) Durability
e) None of the above

Q24. Which bearing is also called as thrust bearing?

a) Radial bearing
b) Axial bearing
c) Tangential bearing
d) Snail drop bearing
e) None of the above

Q25. Which type of bearing has no moving parts inside it?

a) Ball bearing
b) Roller bearing
c) Magnetic bearing
d) Tapered roller bearings
e) None of the above

Q26. The skidding of vehicles, while sudden brakes are applied, is avoided through
a) antilock braking system
b) engine management system
c) automatic car parking system
d) driving system
e) None of the above

Q27.What is the function of Pump in an automatic brake system?

a) For fault detection
b) To sense the speed of the vehicle
c) To restore pressure
d) To find the acceleration and deceleration
e) None of the above

Q28.Which type of system uses ‘oil under pressure’ means for power transmission?
a) Fluid power system
b) Hydraulic system
c) Pneumatic system
d) Stepper motors
e) None of the above

Q29. The force developed in hydraulic systems is high due to ____

a) high pressure
b) more oil
c) less pressure
d) less oil
e) None of the above

Q30. Which part of the Pneumatic system stores the compressed air?
a) Air dryer
b) Air compressor
c) Air receiver tank
d) Air lubricator
e) None of the above

ANS
1(a) 2(d) 3(b) 4(a) 5(a) 6(a) 7(d)
8(c) 9(a) 10(b) 11(a) 12(c) 13(a) 14(c)
15(a) 16(d) 17(a) 18(b) 19(a) 20(c) 21(a)
22(d) 23(b) 24(b) 25(c) 26(a) 27(c) 28(b)
29(a) 30(c)