Wireless LAN Fundamental

Tema 1
1 Which of the following modulation techniques offers more speed in a WLAN?
DSSS
FHSS
X OFDM
OSDF

2 In a large WLAN, what is the function of multiple APs?

X to allow mobile users to move throughout the WLAN
to provide direct user to user connection
to provide connection between multiple switches
to provide connection between multiple VLANs

3 What are the four main requirements for a WLAN solution? (Select four.)
X high availability
cost
X scalability
ease of implementation
X open architecture
X manageability

4 Which IEEE standard contains the specifications for WLANs?

802.3
802.5
X 802.11
802.12

5 Which device is represented by the symbol in the graphic?

wireless bridge
X wireless AP
wireless switch
wireless VLAN

6 When designing a WLAN, what must be completed before deployment decisions are made?
site design
X site survey
site analysis
site inspection
site review

7 Which type of wireless transmission usually requires a government license?

X microwave
infrared
radio frequency
ultraviolet

8 Which type of media is shown in the graphic?

X coaxial
fiber optic
ScTP
STP
UTP

9 Which type of media is shown in the graphic?

coaxial
X fiber optic
ScTP
STP
UTP

10 Why is the direct sequence spread spectrum modulation technique ideal for data
communications?
It spreads a transmission signal over a narrow range of radio frequencies so there is minimal
loss.
It splits the radio signal into multiple smaller sub-signals that are transmitted at different
frequencies to achieve high throughput.
X It is less susceptible to radio noise and creates little interference.
It reduces interference because it is only affected if two signals are transmitting at the same
frequency at the same time.

11 Why is microwave a less desirable solution than radio wave transmission in wireless
bridge applications? (Select four.)
X Equipment cost is typically high.
X A government license is usually required.
Transmission rates are unreliable in any weather.
X Rain, fog, or snow can significantly reduce performance.
The network is very difficult to maintain.
X The network tends to be point-to-point.

12 What is the maximum throughput that can be achieved by IEEE 802.11a compliant
products?
10 Mbps
11 Mbps
X 54 Mbps
100 Mbps

13 At 2.4 GHz, which transmission speed can be delivered by IEEE 802.11b compliant
devices?
up to 10 Mbps
X up to 11 Mbps
up to 54 Mbps
up to 100 Mbps

14 On Cisco wireless PC cards, which power mode provides the best connectivity option to
the WLAN?
X CAM
FastPSP
PSP
CAD

15 What is the purpose of the Cisco Aironet 350 Series Workgroup Bridge (WGB)?
to connect remote LANs over 40 km or 25 miles
X to connect up to eight Ethernet-enabled clients to a WLAN
to extend the range of the wireless signal beyond 40 km or 25 miles
to connect two or more networks typically located in different buildings

16 Which technological and strategic developments assisted in the widespread acceptance of

wireless technology? (Select three.)
increase in cost of fiber-optic and copper installations
X adoption of IEEE 802.11 standards
X data rates commensurate with wired networks
increase in compliance regulations in Ethernet-based networks
X increased security

17 Which types of transmission medium are available for use by WLANs? (Select two.)
fiber-optic
X infrared light
UTP
X radio frequencies
STP

18 In an 802.11 compliant WLAN, what is the best way to avoid radio signal interference?
reposition antennas
X change channels
change the throughput options
reduce the power levels of the wireless devices

19 Which AP feature makes firmware upgrades and configuration changes much easier?
nonvolatile CAM
removable radio transceiver
hot swappable IEEE 802.11 chips
X nonvolatile FLASH ROM

20 Which device is represented by the symbol in the graphic?

X wireless bridge
wireless AP
wireless switch
wireless VLAN

Tema 2

1 Which standard does the IEEE 802.15 describe?

Wireless LAN (WLAN)
Broadband Wireless Access (BBWA)
Integrated Services LAN (ISLAN)
X Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN)

2 In the 802 Reference Model, which connection services does the LLC provide for the upper
layer protocol (ULP)? (Select three.)
acknowledged multicast
X unacknowledged connectionless
acknowledged broadcast
X acknowledged connection-oriented
X acknowledged connectionless

3 What is the frequency range of operation in the 802.11a standard for WLANs?
2.4 GHz
11 GHz
X 5 GHz
5.5 GHz

4 In addition to faster speeds, what is the benefit of the 802.11g WLAN standard?
X It provides interoperability among and between all WLAN speeds working at the 2.4 GHz
frequency eliminating the need for a complete equipment upgrade.
It provides interoperability between 5.5 Mbps and 54 Mbps WLAN speeds at 5 GHz thus
allowing for compatibilty with legacy systems and new devices.
It uses the CCK waveform which offers much higher speeds, greater ranges, and better
tolerance of multipath echoes which are common to internal building applications.
It uses a hybrid of OFDM for slow data rates and CCK for fast data rates allowing both
waveforms to coexist on the same WLAN.

5 Which layers of the OSI model are primarily supported by the 802.11 standard? (Select
two.)
X Layer 1
X Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 6

6 What is a major advantage of the 802.11g standard for WLANs?

It achieves data rates in the range of 5.5 Mbps to 11 Mbps in the 5 GHz frequency range.
X It achieves data rates up to 54 Mbps in the 2.4 GHz frequency range.
It achieves data rates up to 54 Mbps in the 5 GHz frequency range.
It is an archaic protocol that is rarely used.

7 What is the benefit of using Complementary Code Keying (CCK)?

In the 802.11a standard, it is used to increase peak data rates from 1 Mbps to 2 Mbps.
X In the 802.11b standard, it is used to increase peak data rates from 2 Mbps to 11 Mbps.
In the 802.11b standard, it is used to increase peak data rates from 11 Mbps to 54 Mbps.
In the 802.11g standard, it is used to maintain peak data rates of 54 Mbps.

8 What is the best way to get specific software drivers for Cisco wireless adapter cards?
Order them directly from a Cisco retailer.
X Download them from the CCO site.
Purchase them at any computer retail store.
They are already installed on portable devices.

9 What is the primary function of Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Adapters, also referred to as
client adapters?
to connect a wireless device to the wired infrastructure providing a common DS
to provide communication between fixed, portable, and mobile devices
to transfer data packets through the wired infrastructure
X to transfer data packets through the wireless infrastructure

10 What are the four modulation formats and data rates specified for the High Rate PHY?
(Select four.)
differential quadrature convolutional coding (DQCC) mode for 2 Mbps
Xdifferential binary phase shift keying (DBPSK) modulation for 1 Mbps
X packet binary convolutional coding (PBCC) mode for enhanced performance
X differential quadrature phase shift keying (DQPSK) modulation for 2 Mbps
compensatory differential code keying (CDCK) modulation scheme for 5.5 Mbps and 11
Mbps
X complementary code keying (CCK) modulation scheme for 5.5 Mbps and 11 Mbps

11 In the 802.11 standard, which mechanism provides security services for the WLAN?
Wired Equivalent Protocol
Wireless Ethernet Protocol
Wireless Ethernet Privacy
X Wired Equivalent Privacy

12 Distributed Coordination Function, the fundamental access method of the IEEE 802.11
MAC, uses which type of media access?
Xcarrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance
carrier sense multiple access with collision detection
contention-free access
carrier sense multiple access with collision delay

13 In addition to physically installing the client adapter card into the wireless station, what is
needed for functionality of the card?
a universal client adapter software driver
an interoperability software patch
a client adapter driver with its corresponding AP driver
X a client adapter software driver specific to the OS

14 What does IEEE 802.16 standardize?

X Broadband Wireless Access
Cable-TV Based Broadband Communication Network
Wireless LANs
Wireless Personal Area Networks

15 Where does IR PHY operate?

X indoor environments only
indoor and outdoor environments
outdoor environments only
well-lit environments only

16 What is orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM) and how is it used in the
802.11a standard?
A technique that allows short bursts of data to be transmitted on a narrow frequency band
and then change to another frequency to continue the data transmission
X A technique that divides a communications channel into a number of equally-spaced
frequency bands and reduces multipath interference
A technique that allows two or more channels of information to be transmitted at the same
time by allocating a different time interval for the transmission of each frequency channel and
eliminating multipath interference
A technique that enables a signal to be transmitted across a frequency band that is much
wider than the minimum bandwidth required by the information signal thus reducing
multipath interference

17 What is the IEEE standard for WLANs?

802.5
803.3
802.10
X 802.11

18 What are the three non-overlapping IEEE 802.11b High Rate operating channels used in
North America?
1, 3, 11
1, 3, 13
X 1, 6, 11
2, 6, 11
2, 7, 13

Tema 3
1 What are two sine waves that differ by 360 degrees called?

differential waves
orthogonal waves
X in-phase waves
equivalent waves

2 What metric unit is used to measure energy?

Watt
Ampere
X Joule
Volt

3 An antenna is rated at 7.14 dBi. What is the corresponding dBd rating?

2
3
X5
10

4 In DSSS technology, each data bit becomes a chipping sequence. How many chips per bit
are used by the IEEE 802.11 standard?
X 11
12
13
15

5 Which two statements describe power? (Choose two.)

the ability to do work
X energy transferred per unit time
X joule per second
ampere per volt

6 What is it called when an EM wave spreads or bends around an obstacle in its path?
reflection
X diffraction
scattering
refraction

7 What does gain refer to in WLANs?

The amount of increase in coverage area of an RF signal added by the proper downtilt of the
antenna.
The amount of increase in energy that proper cabling adds to an RF signal.
The total amount of energy produced by the radio, amplifier, and antenna in an RF signal.
X The amount of increase in energy that an antenna adds to an RF signal.

8 If a device has a power output of 1000 mW, which rating would that convert to in dBm?
10
20
X 30
50

9 How many degrees must two sine waves differ by to be in phase? (Select two.)
X 0 degrees
45 degrees
90 degrees
120 degrees
270 degrees
X 360 degrees

10 What is the process of recovering transmitted information from the carrier frequency?
modulation
X demodulation
decoding
sampling

11 What is one milliwatt equal to? (Select two.)

X 0 dBm
1/100 Watt
X 1/1000 Watt
10 dBm
12 What would be the result if two waves of the same frequency arrive at an antenna exactly
out of phase?
There is no effect because the antenna will only receive one wave at a time.
X The waves will cancel each other out.
The polarization of the wave will change from vertical to horizontal.
The frequency of the resulting wave will be exactly double that of the initial wave.

13 Where must the EIRP measurement be made in an RF system?

radio output
AP output
cable output
X antenna output

14 In the U.S., the FCC sets the 802.11b WLAN maximum power levels at 36 dBm EIRP.
What is the maximum power levels in countries regulated by ETSI?
X 20 dBm
25 dBm
30 dBm
35 dBm
36 dBm

15 What is the impact on antenna size when higher frequencies are used?
The required antenna size increases.
X The required antenna size decreases.
There is no change in required antenna size.
The antenna size is not related to the frequency level.

16 Why is OFDM effective in preventing interference between transmitting signals?

X The subcarriers are orthogonal to each other.
The subcarriers are perpendicular to each other.
The receiver and transmitter are synchronized.
It uses low data rate streams.
It divides each high-speed carrier into 54 subcarriers.

17 What are two units of measurement used to quantify the power gain in antennas? (Select
two.)
X dBd
dBm
X dBi
dW

18 Multipath interference is usually identified by which of the following? (Select two.)

high signal quality levels
x poor signal quality levels
X high RF signal strength
low RF signal strength

19 Which phenomenon could be the difference between a successful and a failing WLAN
implementation?
X reflection
diffraction
scattering
refraction

20 What are important features to consider when selecting the most effective antenna for
receivers and transmitters? (Select two.)
diffraction
data throughput
X launch effect
X polarization
scattering

21 What is true about the channels or bands of frequencies used by DSSS? (Select three.)
X Each channel or band of frequencies is 22 MHz wide.
X The frequencies are grouped into 11 different channels in the United States.
Each channel or band of frequencies is 20 MHz wide.
Channels 1, 6, and 10 are the nonoverlapping channels used in the United States.
X Channels should be colocated only if the channel numbers are at least five apart.
Center frequencies in each channel are only 6 MHz apart.

22 Which formula describes the relationship between energy (E), power (P), and time (t)?
X P = DE / Dt
E = P / Dt
P = E + 1/2(t)2
P = DE * t

23 In the formula dB = 10 log10(Pfinal/Pref), what does Pref represent?

amount of decibels
delivered power after some process occurs
X original power
saved power before some process takes place
incremental energy

24 In OFDM, how many of the 52 subchannels are used for error correction?
3
X4
5
6
7
8

25 When a ray of light traveling in one medium enters a second medium and is not
perpendicular to the surface of this second medium, it bends. Which term describes this
phenomenon?
reflection
diffraction
scattering
X refraction

26 What modulation technique is used by Cisco Aironet access points to transmit data at 5.5
Mbps and 11 Mbps?
FHSK
BPSK
WDSK
QPSK
X CCK

27 Which type of bandwidth, as measured in bps, measures how much information can flow
from one place to another in a given amount of time?
analog
wireless
X digital
electrical

28 Which phenomenon typically results in the redirection of incoming wave energy into
directions that are not intended?
propagation
diffraction
X scattering
refraction

Tema 4

1 What is the function of the access layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical internetworking
model?
X to feed traffic into the network, perform network entry control, and provide other edge
services
to provide access to various parts of the internetwork, as well as to access services
to provide an optimized and reliable transport structure and to forward traffic at very high
speeds
to provide a high-speed switching backbone

2 What is an advantage of using the 802.11 standard?

X Many laptops are shipped with compatible NIC preinstalled.
The existing network configuration easily accepts 802.11 devices.
There are no problems with reflection of the signal.
Higher speeds are achieved with no extra configuration on 802.11 devices.

3 Which open standard operating system is licensed for use in many mobile computing
devices?
X Symbian
MS DOS
Windows XP
OS/2

4 Which factors should be considered when designing a wireless LAN that provides seamless
roaming capabilities? (Select two.)
X consistent IP scheme
routing protocols
existing wired clients
X coverage
position of MDF

5 What is the maximun output of the Cisco Aironet 2.4 GHz radio?
25 mW
50 mW
75 mW
X 100 mW

6 What must be done to convert a desktop computer from wired access to wireless access?
Configure the infrared port so that it is on.
Update the network client.
Change the PCMCIA card.
X Change the NIC.

7 At which OSI layer or layers does a wireless AP operate?

Layer 1
X Layers 1 and 2
Layer 2
Layers 2 and 3
8 What is the most common device used in a wireless LAN?
access point
wireless bridge
workgroup bridge
X computer workstation

9 What is the recommended maximum distance that can be bridged between a Cisco 350
access point and any wireless client?
0.8 km (0.5 miles)
X 1.6 km (1.0 mile)
2.4 km (1.5 miles)
3.2 km (2.0 miles)
8.0 km (5.0 miles)

10 To provide extended coverage from the wired backbone, what is the required percentage of
overlap between an AP on the backbone and a wireless repeater?
15%
25%
X 50%
75%

11 What are the two critical steps for a good WLAN deployment? (Select two.)
Segment the network.
X Determine the placement of access points or bridges.
X Map out the channel assignments.
Lay out the existing wired network.
Determine the placement of MDF and IDFs.

12 Which OSI layer is associated with a router?

Layer 1
Layer 2
X Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 6

13 What is the acyronym given to the area of RF coverage provided by one access point?

X BSS
ESS
SOHO
BSDU

14 Which series of Cisco access points support both 802.11a and 802.11b standards?
1100
X 1200
1300
1400

15 Which device is used in an environment that needs extended coverage but backbone access
is not practical or is unavailable?
wireless Windows CE device
wireless bridge
X wireless repeater
wireless Workgroup Bridge

16 What is a wireless network topology that consists of two or more BSSs connected by a
common distribution system?
basic infrastructure
base station DSL
peer-to-peer
base station dialup
X extended infrastructure

17 The International Bank of the Philippines plans to connect two of its branches which are
16.37 km (10.23 miles) apart. Which type of Cisco antenna would be suitable if the bank
wants to use a wireless connection between the two branches?
patch wall antenna
Yagi mast antenna
rubber dipole antenna
X solid dish antenna

18 At which layer of the Cisco three layer hierarchical internetworking model should there be
no network policy implementation?
user
X core
backbone
distribution
campus

19 What type of antenna is typically used at the main site to provide multipoint bridging?
directional antenna
X omnidirectional antenna
patch wall antenna
pillar mount antenna

20 Which term describes the ability to locate more than one access point in the same area to
increase the available bandwidth for all users?

functionality
X scalability
adaptability
manageability

21 In the United States, how many nonoverlapping channels are there for the 802.11b
standard?
X three
four
seven
eight

22 According to the 802.11b standard, what is the longest recommended distance between
two LANs when using point-to-point wireless bridges?
16 km (10 miles)
24 km (15 miles)
X 40 km (25 miles)
48 km (30 miles)
80 km (50 miles)

23 What are the three basic types of handheld devices? (Select three.)
scan-based
X key-based
X pen-based
X vehicle-mount
wall-mount

24 At which OSI layer do antennas operate?

X Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4

Tema 5

1 Which command will erase the configuration files stored in NVRAM? (Select two.)

ap# erase configuration

X ap# erase startup-config
ap# erase running-config
ap# erase flash
X ap# erase start
ap# erase run

2 When configuring an AP through the IOS CLI, which keystroke recalls the most recent
entry in the command buffer and pastes it into the command line?
Esc-Y
X Ctrl-Y
Tab
Ctrl-H
Esc-P
3 Which of the following commands are used to set the AP output power to 20 mW and the
data rate to 11 Mbps only? (Select two.)
AP(config-if)# power 20
X AP(config-if)# power local 20
AP(config-if)# power client 20
AP(config-if)# speed 11.0
AP(config-if)# speed basic-11.0
X AP(config-if)# speed basic-11.0 1.0 2.0 5.5

4 Which of the following are true when setting the IP address and SSID of the AP? (Select
three.)
The SSID can be assigned without setting the IP address.
X The IPSU can be used to assign the SSID.
X The PC used to set up the SSID and IP address must have an IP address of its own.
X The IPSU can be used to change the IP address again, but only if the access point is reset to
default values.
The IPSU can only be used to change the SSID for the 5GHz radio when an access point is
operating in dual-mode.

5 When configuring the AP Radio Port Hardware setup page, which settings are
recommended in situations where communication is poor and many client devices are
associating with the access point?
low fragment threshold and high RTS threshold
high fragment threshold and high RTS threshold
high fragment threshold and low RTS threshold
X low fragment threshold and low RTS threshold

6 Which command is used to set the parent AP for a repeater AP?

AP(config)# parent 10.0.0.1
AP(config-if)# parent 1 10.0.0.1
X AP(config-if)# parent 1 abcd.1234.ab12
AP(config)# parent abcd.1234.ab12

7 On the Cisco AP 1200 series, what is the name of the 802.11a radio interface?
interface dot11radio 0
X interface dot11radio 1
interface dot11radio a
interface 802.11a radio

8 What are valid methods of configuring an AP? (Select three.)

X web browser
DNS server
X console port
auxiliary port
X Telnet session

9 When configuring the access point, which Ethernet page contains information about the
operational status of the Ethernet port?
Ethernet Port
Ethernet Identification
Ethernet Hardware
Ethernet Filters
X Ethernet Advanced

10 Which CLI command lists information about Cisco APs located in the same Layer 2
domain as the current AP?
X AP# show dot11 adjacent-ap
AP# show dot11 network-map
AP(config)# dot11 network-map 30
AP# show dot11 associations statistics
AP# show dot11 associations

11 What does a blinking amber status LED indicate in a 1200 series access point?
no client devices associated
no power
transmitting or receiving radio packets
X general warning

12 What is needed by the Cisco IP Setup Utility (IPSU) to learn the current IP address of an
access point?
SSID of the AP
X MAC address of the AP
system name of the AP
domain name of the AP

13 What is important information that should be gathered before setting up an access point?
(Select three.)
X system name
Xservice set identifier
maximum number of wireless clients
X SNMP community name
MAC address from the PC used to configure the access point

14 While configuring an interface on a Cisco 1200 series AP, the system administrator
attempts to use the keystroke Ctrl+E to move the cursor to the end of the line without success.
Why is the command not working?
This command only works in router IOS and not AP IOS.
The command to move the cursor to the end of the line is ESC E not Ctrl+E.
X Advanced editing features on the AP have been disabled.
This command is only active in global config mode not interface config mode.

15 How does an AP behave when the receive antenna is set to diversity?

X It will use the antenna that receives the best signal.
It will use both antennas at the same time.
It will round-robin between the two antennas.
The AP will always use one antenna to transmit and the other to receive.
16 In the Management System Setup Page, which AP Radio pages are available for
configuration? (Select four.)
X Radio Port Link
X Radio Identification
X Radio Hardware
Radio Testing
X Radio Advanced
Radio Security

17 What must be enabled to use load balancing and TKIP on a Cisco AP?
Advanced AP Features
X Cisco Aironet 802.11 Extensions
WAP
Data Beaconing
Public Secure Data Forwarding

18 An IP address needs to be set on a Cisco 1200 series AP. Which interface should be
associated with the IP address?
dot11 radio interface
ethernet interface
X bridge virtual interface
It does not matter

19 What is the default IP address of a Cisco 1200 series AP?

X 10.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
172.27.20.1
192.168.2.1

20 Which of the following are true about the SSID (Select two.)?
The SSID is always a 32-bit long alphanumeric string.
X The SSID is case sensitive.
X The SSID is, by default, sent out as a beacon on the WLAN.
The SSID is an effective method of WLAN security.

21 Using the CLI, which global configuration mode command enables CDP on a Cisco AP?
cdp protocol enable
cdp enable
X cdp run
cdp start

22 What is the result of the command sequence illustrated? (Select two.)

X The SSID for the 2.4 Ghz radio is changed to frey.
The SSID for the 5 Ghz radio is changed to frey.
The SSID for both the 2.4 Ghz and the 5 Ghz radio is changed to frey.
The privilege level required to set the maximum number of associations is set to 15.
X The maximum number of associations to the SSID is set to 15.
Nothing will happen until the AP is rebooted.

23 What is the default enable password for a Cisco 1200 series AP?
X Cisco
Tsunami
Aironet
Wireless
There is no default enable password.
Class

24 In the displayed serial port settings properties, which of the settings are correct to enable a
communications session to be established with a Cisco 1200 series AP? (Select three.)
Bits per second
X Data bits
X Parity
X Stop bits
Flow control

25 Which Cisco access point is shown in the graphic?

X Cisco Aironet 1100
Cisco Aironet 1200
Cisco Aironet 1300
Cisco Aironet 1350

26 When using the GUI interface to configure the Cisco 1200 Series AP for Hot Standby,
what is the role of the monitored AP?
Access Point Root (No Fallback)
Access Point Root (Fallback to Repeater)
X Access Point Root (Fallback to Radio Shutdown)
Access Point Root (Fallback to Radio Island)

27 What are ways to return a Cisco AP to its factory default settings? (Select two.)

X Power cycle the AP while holding in the mode button.

Issue the reset command from the privileged mode CLI prompt.
X Click the Reset to Defaults button on the System Configuration screen.
Issue the erase running-config command followed by reload from the privileged mode CLI
prompt.

Tema 6
1 When setting up two Cisco Aironet 350 bridges for a point-to-point connection, how should
the bridges be configured? (Select three.)
System names should be the same for authentication purposes.
X Both bridges should belong to the same network.
X Both bridges should have the same SSID.
X Their roles should be root bridge and non-root bridge without clients.
Their roles should be root bridge in both bridges.

2 Why is bridging one of the most preferred uses of wireless networks? (Select three.)
low equipment costs
X rapid deployment
X high speed connectivity
more efficient encryption
X ease of installation
X no geographical limitation on installation
3 Which mode establishes the parent-child relationship between bridges?
Non-Root Bridge
X Root Bridge
Access Point Repeater

4 When configuring a Cisco Aironet Bridge through its web browser interface, which
methods for IP assignment can be selected in the Boot Server Setup Page? (Select two.)
X BOOTP
NVRAM
TFTP
DNS
X DHCP

5 Which Radio Port Configuration page contains the MAC address of the Primary Port?
Root Radio Hardware
Root Radio Address
X Root Radio Identification
Root Radio Advanced

6 In a large WLAN, how many root bridges can exist?

X one
three
five
unlimited

7 When a Cisco Aironet Bridge is configured through the web browser interface, additional
routes can be defined in the Routing Setup Page. Which information must be provided for
each new route? (Select three.)
DNS server IP address
X destination network
wildcard mask
X gateway
subnet address
X subnet mask

8 Which wireless bridge mode is not covered by 802.11 standards?

access point
non-root bridge
X repeater
non-root bridge without clients

9 To utilize hot standby, which parameters need to be configured? (Select three.)

X Service Set ID (SSID)
IP address for the monitored access point
X MAC address for the monitored access point
Gateway address for the monitored access point
X polling frequency

10 Which bridge configurations prevent communication with wireless clients on the LAN?
(Select three.)
Access Point
X Non-Root Bridge without Clients
X Repeater Access Point
Root Bridge
X Site Survey Client

11 In order for wireless clients to attach to a non-root bridge, the non-root bridge must be
associated to a root bridge or which other type of bridge?
isolated non-root bridge
workgroup bridge
X another non-root bridge that is associated to a root bridge
workgroup bridge associated to a root bridge

12 When updating firmware through a distributing access point on a WLAN, which

requirements must the access points meet? (Select two.)
The access points must be set to Automatically Update firmware.
X The access points must be running firmware that supports the Distribute Firmware feature.
The access points must have their web servers enabled for external firmware updates.
X The access points must have their web servers enabled for external browsing.

13 In the graphic, which bridge pairs are able to communicate with each other?
X bridge pair A
bridge pair B
bridge pair C
all bridge pairs

14 When using a standby access point for redundancy in a WLAN, which parameter on the
standby access point should be different from the monitored access point?
SSID
X IP address
default gateway
DNS

15 When setting up the connection shown in the graphic, which configuration aspects should
be set to obtain a successful ping between PC1 and PC2? (Select three.)
PPP needs to be enabled on the routers.
X Each router should declare both networks inside the routing protocol, the one on its AP side
as well the one on its LAN side.
X Both bridges should belong to the same network.
The network between Bpod1 and R1 should be different than the one between Bpod2 and R2.
X SSIDs should be the same on both bridges.

16 Cisco Aironet bridges operate at which layer of the OSI model?

physical
X data-link
network
transport

Tema 7
1 How is dBd converted to dBi?
X add 2.14
subtract 2.14
multiply by 2.14
divide by 2.14
These units are identical.

2 Which type of antenna is shown in the graphic?

X mast mount
patch wall
solid dish
Yagi mast

3 Which of the following antennas has the lowest gain of 2.15 dBi?
pillar mount
patch wall
Ground Plane
X rubber dipole

4 Why should antennas be installed away from microwave ovens and 2.4 GHz cordless
phones?
X These devices can cause interference because they operate on the same frequency range.
These devices can absorb wireless energy.
The wireless transmissions can prevent these devices from working.
These devices can cause dangerous voltages to develop in the wireless antenna.

5 On level ground, at what distance does the line of sight disappear due to Earth curvature?
6 km (4 miles)
X 25 km (16 miles)
40 km (25 miles)
50 km (32 miles)

6 In a WLAN, what happens when the length of an antenna cable increases?

multipath interference increases
X coverage range decreases
transmission rate increases
beamwidth potential increases

7 Which of the following statements are true about pillar mount diversity antennas? (Select
two.)
X They are designed for indoor use only.
They behave like an isotropic antenna.
X They consist of two antennas in a single package.
They should be mounted parallel to the ground.

8 Which type of antenna is shown in the graphic?

mast mount
X patch wall
solid dish
Yagi mast

9 Which of the following statements about a Fresnel zone are true? (Select two.)
Its width increases towards each antenna site.
X It is an imaginary ellipsoid that surrounds the straight line path between antennas.
It has its maximum girth at either end.
X It must be kept clear of trees and other obstructions.

10 Which types of bridge antennas are considered directional? (Select three.)

X patch wall
mast mount low gain
mast mount high gain
X Yagi mast
X solid dish

11 Which of the following govern the maximum link distance between antennas? (Select
three.)
X maximum available transmit power
X receiver sensitivity
type of data
polarization
X system losses

12 What can be done to improve the Fresnel effect? (Select three.)

X Raise the antenna.

Increase antenna power level.
Add a wireless filter.
X Use a different mounting point for the antenna.
X Remove trees.

13 Which of the following antennas are considered omnidirectional? (Select two.)

X mast mount
patch
Yagi
X rubber dipole
parabolic

14 Which type of antenna is shown in the graphic?

mast mount
patch wall
X solid parabolic
Yagi mast

15 When using two standard dipole antennas on an AP, which antenna mode should be
selected?
The Receive and Transmit antenna modes should be set to Automatic.
The Receive and Transmit antenna modes should be set to Left Transmit Right Receive.
The Receive and Transmit antenna modes should be set to Right Transmit Left Receive.
X The Receive and Transmit antenna modes should be set to Diversity.

16 Which are 2.4 GHz Cisco Aironet directional antennas? (Select three.)
X 6 dBi Patch
2.2 dBi Single Dipole
X 13.5 dBi Yagi
X 21 dBi Solid Dish
5.2 dBi Diversity Pillar Omni

17 Which of the following statements describe an isotropic antenna? (Select three.)

It has 2.14 times the gain of a dipole antenna.
It is only manufactured by Cisco Systems.
X It is theoretical only and does not really exist.
X It is used as a reference for all antennas.
X It has a 360 degree vertical and horizontal beamwidth.

18 Which of the following statements are true about Cisco patch antennas? (Select two.)

They are omnidirectional in their radiation pattern.

They are considered isotropic in nature.
X They are used for both indoor and outdoor applications.
X They are available in 6 dBi and 8.5 dBi gains.
The 6 dBi antenna is typically used in European applications.

19 What happens to antenna gain as frequency increases?

X It increases.
It decreases.
It stays the same.
It would depend on the size of the antenna.

20 What is the maximum possible distance between two solid parabolic dish antennas?
20 km (13 miles)
X 40 km (25 miles)
60 km (38 miles)
80 km (50 miles)

21 What is meant by the bandwidth of an antenna?

angle of coverage radiated out by an antenna
X band of frequencies over which the antenna operates
speed of data transmission the antenna can accept
the total width in degrees of the main radiation lobe of the antenna

22 Which term describes the total width in degrees of the main radiation lobe at the angle
where the radiated power has fallen below that on the centerline of the lobe by 3 dB (half-
power)?
bandwidth
X beamwidth
lobe width
radiation angle
23 Which of the following statements describe dipole antennas? (Select two.)
XThey can be oriented vertically or horizontally.
X They are omnidirectional.
They are used only on access points.
They are formed by an antenna array.

24 Which specifications must be satisfied to use coaxial cable for antenna installation? (Select
three.)
X The impedance must be 50 ohms.
The total length must not exceed 6 m.
The cable must be semirigid.
X The total loss at 400 MHz must be 12 dB or less.
X The center conductor of the cable must be at least #14 AWG.
25 What can be done to increase signal level and improve system performance? (Select two.)
X Use a higher gain antenna.
Use a lower gain antenna.
X Use a lower loss cable.
Use a higher loss cable.

26 What is the first thing that should be done when aligning antennas if the received signal
level differs from the link-budget calculation by more than 8 dB?
Nothing, this is normal.
X Check the antenna alignment.
Try a higher gain antenna.
Raise the antenna.

27 Which of the following antennas have a beam with 360 degrees in the horizontal plane and
75 degrees in the vertical plane? (Select three.)
patch wall
X ceiling mount
X ceiling mount high gain
Yagi Mast
X rubber dipole

Tema 8

1 What is the result of a Denial of Service attack in a WLAN?

Passwords are converted to clear text.
SSIDs are changed in the access points.
X Authorized users are prevented from using services.
Root control of a device is transferred.

2 TKIP enhancements to WEP include which of the following? (Select three.)

functions to defeat brute-force attacks
X a sequencing discipline
X MIC
X elimination for re-keying
CKIP

3 AES uses which encryption algorithm?

Taylor
Rhinehart
X Rijndael
Frey

4 How many VLANS are supported by the AP 1200 series?

8
X 16
32
64

5 Which IEEE standard is used by WPA to allow user authentication in wireless LANs?
802.1i
X 802.1x
802.11c
802.11x

6 Which encryption protocol was adopted as the official government standard by the U.S.
Secretary of Commerce in May of 2002?
3DES
WEP
X AES
TKIP

7 What is the WEP key size specified in the 802.11 standard?

256 bit
64 bit and 128 bit
40 bit and 128 bit
X 40 bit

8 Fryco has just acquired Victoria Inc. and has decided to change from the current DES
cryptographic algorithm to the more secure AES. What must Fryco do to accomplish this
task?
Nothing since AES and DES are completely interchangeable.
All access points must be replaced but no changes are necessary on the client side.
X All access points and NICs will have to be replaced since AES requires a coprocessor in
order to function.
Access points and NICs will only require a firmware upgrade to be able to use AES.

9 Which statement describes why the SSID should not be used as a security feature?
SSIDs cannot be changed after initial setup.
SSIDs only use a 40-bit encryption key.
X SSIDs are sent in clear text.
SSIDs are written on the back of the access point.

10 When set to Repeater mode, an AP can associate with how many parent APs?
3
X4
5
6

11 How might an employee bypass a weak security policy and jeopardize the network
security of a company?
Use a personal wireless network card on the company network.
Connect to the Internet.
Change the WEP and SSID on their client.
X Install their personal AP on the company network.

12 Which type of early wireless security involved the use of up to a 32 character ASCII
string?
MAC
X SSID
WEP
WAP

13 Why should HTTP management of wireless access points be disabled on a production

network?
The use of HTTP generates excess traffic and degrades network performance.
Web based configuration screens are often awkward and have limited functionality.
Web based administration requires a direct console connection to the access point.
X Many vendors have serious flaws in their web server software that can weaken network
security.

14 Using RC4, which WLAN security solution fixes the key reuse problem of the WEP
algorithm?
AES
3DES
X TKIP
SSID

15 Which type of authentication can be processed with or without the use of WEP keys in an
802.11 environment?
X open
selective
shared key
default

16 Which type of threats originate from someone who has authorized access to the network
via an account or physical access to the wire?
external
X internal
structured
unstructured

17 Which security protocol establishes a wireless VPN connection?

X IPSec
PPP
LDAP
CHAP

18 Which device is responsible for sending the RADIUS Access-Challenge to the client in an
802.1X environment?
network adapter
RADIUS server
supplicant
X authenticator

19 Which device is responsible for sending the EAP request to the client in an 802.1X
environment?
client
network adapter
X authenticator
RADIUS server

20 Which utility sends false disassociation packets that disconnect 802.11 clients from the
access point?
Airsnort
Kismet
X Wlan Jack
NetStumbler

21 Which protocol analyzers can be used to eavesdrop in a WLAN environment? (Select

three.)
X AiroPeek
X AirMagnet
Etherpeek Wireless
X Sniffer Wireless
Airdump

22 Which authentication method requires the client and access point to have the same WEP
key according to the IEEE 802.11 standard?
open
X shared key
private key
closed

23 Which of the following security methods are included in the 802.1x standard? (Select
three.)
X EAP-TLS
EEAP
X LEAP
X PEAP
SEAP

24 Which device could be responsible for authenticating clients on the network in an 802.1x
environment?
access point
X RADIUS server
enterprise main database container
switch

25 The exploitation of weak passwords is considered which type of wireless attack?

X Access
DoS
DDoS
Reconnaissance
 Tema 9
1 As shown in the graphic, what is the status of a signal that falls into the green section when
using the Cisco Link Status Meter (LSM) to determine the strength and quality of the RF
signal?
poor
fair
good
X excellent

2 In an access point, what are the available encryption choices? (Select three.)
X no encryption
X allow client to specify encryption
matched system encryption
parallel client encryption
X forced encryption

3 What ensures that a mobile user's wireless connection is never interrupted while roaming
from access point to access point?
power levels must be maximized
X cells must overlap
frequency levels must be matched
bridges must be properly placed

4 In a wireless LAN, what can be done to extend the coverage area without deploying another
access point that is connected to the same broadcast domain?
X Use a second access point in repeater mode.
Use a wireless bridge.
Increase the access point power level.
Use a second access point on a different channel.

5 What are some operating and environmental conditions that need to be considered before
installing the WLAN system? (Select three.)
distance between fluorescent lights
X antenna type and placement
X data rates
ceiling height
fuse panels
X line of site

6 What happens when water gets into a coax connector on an antenna?

Nothing happens because coax connectors are waterproof.
X The water will work up through the coax and render it useless.
The water will cause an immediate open in the coax.
The water will cause the coax to rust but it will still be usable.
7 The path loss margin defines how much path interference is acceptable for communication.
What is the maximum acceptable fade margin to maintain dependable communication in all
weather conditions?
5dB
20dB
15dB
X 10dB

8 What is the default PCMCIA client adapter mode?

X CAM
FastCAM
PSP
FastPSP

9 What is the realistic maximum link speed for 802.11b?

5 Mbps
X 7 Mbps
9 Mbps
11 Mbps

10 In a wireless system, throughput is typically what percentage of the actual data rate?
40% to 50%
X 50% to 60%
60% to 70%
70% to 80%

11 Which client adapter power mode should be selected for clients who switch between AC
and DC power?
CAM mode
FastCAM mode
PSP
X FastPSP

12 When documenting site survey information, what should be indicated on a set of drawings
or prints? (Select three.)
wall locations
X AP locations
ceiling types
X coverage areas
X cable and electrical requirements

13 Which type of roaming must have good overlap of access points with no holes in
coverage?
continuous
seamless
X transparent
virtual

14 Which client adapter mode should be selected when power conservation is not an issue?
X CAM
FastCAM
PSP
FastPSP

15 When using the site survey tool, which mode does not initiate any RF network traffic?
repeater mode
stand-alone mode
X passive mode
active mode
parallel mode

16 When using the site survey tool, a specific mode causes the client adapter to actively send
or receive low-level RF packets to and from its associated AP and provides information on the
success rate. Which mode accomplishes these functions?
repeater mode
stand-alone mode
passive mode
X active mode
parallel mode

17 A formula is used to determine the height of the antenna in a 2.4 GHz WLAN. This
formula adds the mid-path Fresnel zone width at a specific percentage and a numeric value
that represents the curvature of the earth. What is the mid-path Fresnel zone percentage that is
used?
40%
50%
X 60%
70%

18 Which type of roaming requires a constant IP subnet for the client and precludes the use of
mobile IP?
continuous
X seamless
transparent
virtual

19 Which type of analyzer can be used to locate sources of radio frequency interference
(RFI)?
digital
analog
X spectrum
spherical

20 Which three are routed protocols? (Select three.)

RIP
X IP
OSPF
EIGRP
X IPX
X Appletalk
21 Which antennas are used in WLANs? (Select three.)
X diversity omni ceiling mount
oval omni ceiling mount
spherical patch
X hemispherical patch
X diversity patch wall mount

22 What provides a network with the best protection from damage caused by a direct
lightning strike on an antenna?
surge protector
copper patch cable
lightning arrestor
X fiber optic cabling

Tema 10
1 What is created by waves that are 180 degrees out of phase?
shadows
nulls x
ghosts
reflections

2 Which two options should be part of the wireless network design? (Select two.)
network topology x
map of coverage areas x
installation
verification testing

3 Which activities are considered part of the characterization of a network? (Select three.)
identifying standard naming conventions x
investigating architectural and environmental constraints x
documenting installed application packages
documenting the types and lengths of physical cabling x
documenting user names and locations

4 How can an engineer be more efficient in developing a baseline for an existing network?
(Select two.)
Gain an understanding of the technical and business goals of the customer. x
Rely on the original baseline measurements from the network installation.
Ask the customer to indicate typical network segments from which they can extrapolate
information.
Randomly select and survey 10 percent of the existing network to estimate the baseline.
5 What can be done if the current number of access points provides too little coverage but the
addition of another access point would provide too much coverage? (Select three.)
Change the antenna to gain more coverage. x
Arrange the clients to avoid the uncovered area.
Change the power levels on one or more of the access points to change the size of the
coverage cells. x
Use a wired connection in the uncovered areas.
Change the antenna to reduce coverage and add more access points. x

6 Why is it important for the site survey to list the location and brand of every breaker box
that will power the access points?
x The electrician must be able to easily identify and install the wiring in the correct box
 Only certain types of breakers are compatible with access points.
The access points must be within 44 meters (145 feet) of the breaker panel.
The electrician must be able to remotely determine if a specific box is on a dedicated circuit
for an access point.

7 Why is it important to conduct a wireless survey with all building doors closed?
to prevent unauthorized people from entering the survey area
to minimize distractions to the survey team
to make certain the building doors do not affect the coverage area x
to more easily determine the exact size of the room

8 A network consisting entirely of fiber optic cabling requires which additional piece of
equipment for each access point?
fiber switch
media transceiver x
optical switch
fiber-optic hub

9 What are the advantages of providing a customer with a detailed site survey report? (Select
two.)
Potential problem areas can be identified before the installation is started. x
The customer will be able to complete the installation themselves.
Portions of the survey can be provided to the contractors so they can install any necessary
cabling. x
The customer can use the survey to contract out the job to a less expensive firm.

10 Why must the site survey report be as detailed as possible? (Select two.)
The surveyor may not be the installer. x
The customer has paid for the information.
The details will provide protection for the customer and for the vendor who does the report. x
The report must ensure the customer fully understands the technology.

11 Which natural phenomenon is responsible for creating RF "shadows" that may cause
connectivity issues in a WLAN?

reflection
diffraction x

scattering refraction
12 When should a baseline measurement of an existing network be completed?
over several days x
during the peak utilization period
during the evening when load is at a minimum
only after changes to a network have been completed

13 Why is it important to understand the existing network infrastructure before starting a site
survey? (Select two.)
 to try to replace the maximum amount of wired network
to make certain that all equipment is compatible
to determine if the design goals of a customer are realistic x
to document potential problems x
to make certain that the protocols used will work with the access points

14 What should be included on a network map? (Select three.)

The exact location of all workstations.
The location of all routers, switches and hubs.
WAN and LAN connections between buildings and between campuses. x
The location of mainframe computers. x
The topology of any firewall security systems. x

15 What follows the implementation phase in the Network Design and Implementation
Cycle?
monitoring x
analysis
development
testing

16 Company A has decided to automate their inventory process and must provision their
warehouse with wireless access. The warehouse is 137 m (450 ft) by 91 m (300 ft) and
contains rows of fully stocked metal shelves. The spacing between the 1.8 m (6 ft) wide rows
of shelves is 6.1 m (20 ft). What is the optimal antenna type and placement to provide near
100 percent coverage to this warehouse scenario?
Yagi antennas mounted on wall A aimed down the rows between the shelves. x
Ground Plane antenna mounted in the ceiling in the center of the warehouse.
Dipole antennas mounted in each corner of the warehouse.
Mast antennas mounted in the ceiling between each row.

17 What is the most common media type for LAN installations?

air
multimode fiber optic
UTP x
STP
coaxial

18 What is the most common physical topology used in networks?

bus
star x
ring
mesh

19 Why is it necessary to determine which protocols will be sent over the WLAN?
to reduce traffic by filtering out unnecessary traffic x
to properly configure client machines
to acquire the proper servers
to select the best network operating system

20 What is a required feature of all network equipment that is installed in the air return space
between the drop ceiling and the real ceiling?
It must have special mounting brackets.
It must be mounted according to federal building codes.
It must be low voltage DC units.
It must be plenum rated. x

21 Which item is considered a testing tool for wireless networking?

spectrum analyzer x
access point
rope
digital camera

22 Which two options are considered part of the WLAN implementation process? (Select
two.)
design
configuration x
mapping
verification testing x

23 What are characteristics of firewalls in buildings? (Select three.)

They extend from floor to ceiling. x
They are the outside walls of the building.
They channel the spread of fires to less sensitive areas of the building.
They are composed of concrete, cinderblock or brick. x
They contain no breaks. x

24 Why is it inappropriate to use an adhesive to secure an access point onto a column?

The adhesive can alter the RF signal.
The adhesive may dry out and the access point will fall.
The access point would be destroyed if it had to be removed. x
The adhesive may short out the sensitive electronics in the access point.

Tema 11
1 When using the CLI to configure SNMP on an AP, which command sets the system
location string?
snmp-server location x
snmp-server community
snmp-location server
snmp-location community

2 Which command can help determine connectivity between devices on a network?

debug
ping x
show
trace

3 The FCC requires professional installation of high gain directional antennas for systems that
exceed 36 dBm. How must these systems operate?
multipoint-to-point
point-to-point x
multipoint-to-point
multipoint-to-point and multipoint-to-point
4 Which OSI layer is responsible for placing information on the medium?
transport
network
data link
physical x

5 What is the goal of security management in the ISO Network Management Model?
To measure and report various aspects of network performance so that the network is
maintained at an acceptable level.
To monitor network and system configuration information so that the effects of various
versions of hardware and software on network operation can be tracked and studied.
To measure network utilization parameters so that individual or group users on a network can
be appropriately regulated.
To control access to network resources according to local guidelines so that a network cannot
be disrupted. x

6 Which of the following questions should be answered so that a network administrator is

prepared for a network failure? (Select three.)
Is there an accurate physical and logical map of the network? x
Are there filters that are configured on any switches?
Which protocols are being routed? x
Is there a list of all the network protocols that are implemented? x
Are all computer brands compatible?

7 In the ISO Network Management Model, what is the goal of configuration management?
To measure and make available various aspects of network performance so that the network
can be maintained at an acceptable level.
To monitor network and system configuration information so that the effects on network
operation of various versions of hardware and software elements can be tracked and managed.
x
To measure network-utilization parameters so that individual or group uses on the network
can be regulated appropriately.
To detect, log, notify users of, and automatically fix network problems to keep the network
running effectively.

8 Which of the following options can be considered common Layer 1 errors? (Select three.)
improperly configured serial interfaces
broken cables x
transceiver problems x
disconnected cables x
routing protocol not enabled

9 What can be used to determine the distance to a fault in a cable?

cable toner
multimeter
network analyzer
time domain reflectometer x

10 When configuring an AP, which CLI command saves the active configuration to Flash?
copy active-config startup-flash
copy running-config startup-flash
copy running-config startup-config x
copy active-config startup-config

11 A router functions at which layer of the OSI model?

transport
network x
data link physical

12 Which AP CLI configuration command enables visible sequence numbering of system

logging messages?
sequence numbers on set sequence number
sequence number service up
service sequence-numbers x

13 Which types of cable can be tested with the Fluke 620 CableMeter? (Select three.)
coaxial x
multimode fiber-optic
single-mode fiber-optic
STP x
UTP x

14 What is the goal of accounting management in the ISO Network Management Model?
To measure and report various aspects of network performance so that the network is
maintained at an acceptable level.
To monitor network and system configuration information so that the effects of various
versions of hardware and software on network operation can be tracked and studied.
To measure network utilization parameters so that individual or group users on the network
can be appropriately regulated. x
To detect, log, report, and automatically fix network problems to keep the network running
effectively.
15 A repeater functions at which layer of the OSI model?
transport
network
data link
physical x

16 A switch functions at which layer of the OSI model?

ransport
network
data link x
physical

17 Which of the following options can be considered Layer 3 errors? (Select three.)
routing protocol not enabled x
disconnected cables
incorrect subnet masks x
incorrect DNS to IP bindings x
intermittent cable connection

18 Most network problems occur at which layer of the OSI model ?

Layer 4
Layer 3
Layer 2
Layer 1 x
19 Which show command displays the system hardware configuration, the software version,
the names and sources of configuration files, and the boot image of a router?
show memory
show processes
show protocols
show version x

20 During the installation of a Cisco wireless LAN adapter, a technician experiences

difficulty attaching to the wireless LAN. While troubleshooting the problem, the technician
wants to check the firmware version on the LAN adapter. Which Windows utility can be used
to see if the hardware is functioning properly and will also display the firmware version of the
WLAN?
environmental variables
device manager x
device debugger
startup and recovery

21 Installation of a wireless network requires that a technician set an identifier on each device
attached to the LAN. What is the terminology that describes this identifier?
LEAP
WLAN
SSID x
WEPT

22 Which type of reasoning works from general to specific?

deductive x
inductive
intuitive
general

23 What is the goal of performance management?

To measure and report various aspects of network performance so that the network is
maintained at an acceptable level. x
To monitor network and system configuration information so that the effects of multiple
versions of hardware and software on network operation can be tracked and studied.
To measure network utilization parameters so that individual or group users on the network
can be appropriately regulated.
To detect, log, report, and automatically fix network problems to keep the network running
effectively.