Human Perf. OXFORD PPL

CHAPTER 1: INTRODUCTION QUESTIONS
Representative PPL - type questions to test your theoretical

knowledge.
1. Who is responsible for the safety of an aircraft flying in accordance with the
Visual Flight Rules?
a. The occupants of the cockpit

b. The Pilot-In-Command of the aircraft
c. Everyone
d. Your flying instructor
2. One essential quality that a competent pilot should possess is:
a. Poor communication skills

b. An impulsive personality
c. The ability to predict weather changes
d. A highly developed sense of responsibility
3. The percentage of all accidents caused by human factors is:
a. 70% - 75%
b. 60% - 65%
c. 50% - 55%
d. 80% - 90%
4. The most common form of aircraft accident is:
a. Failing to file a flight plan

b. Controlled flight into terrain
c. Failure to maintain the correct airspeed
d. Mid-air collision
5. The most common cause of pilot-induced accidents is:
a. Poor flight planning

b. Mid-air collision
c. Loss of control whilst taxiing
d. Loss of directional control
6. The phase of flight most prone to accident is:
a. Intermediate and final approach

b. Cruise
c. Descent
d. Take-off
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6
Answer
The answers to these questions can be found at the end of this book.
9
Aircraft Technical Book Company
http://www.actechbooks.com
10
CHAPTER 2: THE ATMOSPHERE QUESTIONS

knowledge of The Atmosphere.
1. The percentage of Oxygen in the atmosphere:
a. Decreases with an increase in altitude

b. Remains constant up to approximately 33 700 feet
c. Remains constant up to approximately 70 000 feet
d. Increases with an increase in altitude
2. The approximate altitude where the atmospheric pressure is half the sea-
level value is:
a. 10 000 feet
b. 12 000 feet
c. 18 000 feet
d. 33 000 feet
3. A healthy pilot should be able to operate without suffering the effects of

hypoxia up to altitudes of:
a. 10 000 feet
b. 16 000 feet
c. 18 000 feet
d. 20 000 feet
4. The percentage of Oxygen in the atmosphere remains at 21%, by volume:
a. Up to 10 000 feet
b. Up to 18 000 feet
c. Up to 8 000 feet
d. Throughout the majority of the atmosphere
5. Pilots need to breathe supplementary Oxygen when flying at high altitude

because of:
a. The decreased temperature

b. Decreased atmospheric pressure, and a decrease in the partial
pressure of Oxygen
c. A decrease in the proportion of Oxygen by volume
d. The upper limit of the Troposphere
6. The respective percentages of the gases that make up the atmosphere are:
a. Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide and

trace gases 0.05%
b. Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%
c. Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.05% Carbon Dioxide and
trace gases 0.95%
d. Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%
17
CHAPTER 2: THE ATMOSPHERE QUESTIONS
7. At 36 000 feet, the air pressure is:
a. Three quarters of the sea-level value

b. Half of the sea-level value
c. One quarter of the sea-level value
d. One tenth of the sea-level value
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Answer
18
CHAPTER 3: THE HUMAN BODY QUESTIONS

knowledge of The Human Body.
1. Breathing is regulated by:
a. The will of each human being

b. The presence of haemoglobin in the blood
c. Monitoring changes in the level of Carbon Dioxide in the blood
d. The transfer of Oxygen from the blood to the tissues of the body
2. A smoker will feel the symptoms of hypoxia (Oxygen starvation) at:
a. A lower altitude than a non-smoker

b. A higher altitude than a non-smoker
c. The same altitude as a non-smoker
d. Smoking makes no difference to a person’s susceptibility to
hypoxia
3. On average, how long does it take to eliminate one unit of alcohol from the
blood?
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. One hour
d. 8 hours
4. The mechanism that maintains a constant flow of blood around the body is
called:
a. The Respiratory System

b. The Reproduction System
c. The Nervous System
d. The Circulatory System
5. How long after prolonged breathing-in of Carbon Monoxide must a pilot

refrain from flying?
a. 8 hours
b. 12 hours
c. Several days
d. 24 hours
6. Pilots should not fly within …. hours of donating blood.
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48
35
CHAPTER 3: THE HUMAN BODY QUESTIONS
7. The main function of the red blood cells is to:
a. Carry Oxygen to the tissues

b. Assist in the clotting process
c. Produce antibodies to fight infection
d. Deliver digested food products to the tissues
8. Angina is caused by:
a. Death of part of the heart muscle

b. A blockage of pulmonary blood vessels
c. Insufficient blood reaching the heart muscle
d. A blocked blood vessel in the brain
9. Carbon monoxide is dangerous because:
a. Its smell and taste are not easily recognisable to the inexperienced
pilot
b. Haemoglobin has10 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen
c. Haemoglobin has 110 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen
d. Haemoglobin has 210 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen
10. The damaging levels of alcohol are 21 units for men and 14 units for
women. This is:
a. Per day
b. Per week
c. Per month
d. Per year
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer
36
CHAPTER 4: THE EFFECTS OF PARTIAL PRESSURE QUESTIONS

knowledge of The Effects of Partial Pressure.
1. Compared to a non-smoker, someone who smokes is likely to experience

the effects of hypoxia at:
a. A higher altitude
b. The same altitude
c. A lower altitude
d. Any altitude
2. The % of Oxygen in the atmosphere, by volume, is:
a. 21% to an altitude of 10 000 feet

b. 14% to an altitude of 10 000 feet
c. 21% to an altitude of 33 700 feet
d. 21% throughout the atmosphere
3. Hypoxia is defined as:
a. The condition where there is insufficient Oxygen to meet the body’s

needs
b. The altitude at which a person begins to show symptoms of
decompression sickness
c. The condition where Carbon Monoxide replaces Oxygen in the
white cells
d. The condition where Carbon Dioxide will not bind to haemoglobin
4. At low altitude, the most common symptoms of hyperventilation include:
a. Anxiety, scuba diving, vibration and poor visual acuity

b. Feeling of well-being, shock, heat and poor visual acuity
c. Motion sickness, poor visual acuity, heat and scuba diving
d. Dizziness, visual disorder, anxiety, tingling around feet, hands and
lips
5. You have been diving to a depth of 32 feet using SCUBA pressure

breathing equipment:
a. Do not fly for a period of 12 hours

b. Do not fly for a period of 24 hours
c. Do not fly for a period of 48 hours
d. There is no limitation on when you can next fly
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer
48
CHAPTER 5
THE EYE
49
CHAPTER 5: THE EYE QUESTIONS

knowledge of The Eye.
1. How would a light aircraft pilot perceive the image of a fast moving jet
approaching head-on? The image would be:
a. Small at first and grow in size steadily and regularly

b. Small at first, displaying an immediate rapid growth rate, but less
rapidly just before impact
c. Small at first, maintaining a constant size and approach rate
d. Small at first, displaying a slow growth rate, then increasing in size
rapidly just before impact
2. The iris is responsible for controlling:
a. The rate of dark adaption

b. The amount of light entering the eye
c. The rate of light adaption
d. The amount of accommodation
3. In order to see an object best, at night, a pilot should:
a. Look directly at the object, blinking several times

b. Look slightly to one side of the object
c. Look directly and intensely at the object
d. Look away from the object and then repeatedly look back at it
4. The ability of the lens to change shape to focus an image on the retina is
called:
a. Acuity
b. Acclimatisation
c. Accommodation
d. Auto-kinesis
5. The sensors called ‘Rods’:
a. Are sensitive to lower light levels than the ‘Cones’

b. Are used primarily by day
c. Are highly sensitive to colour changes
d. Are concentrated on the optic nerve
6. Light levels at high altitude are dangerous because they:
a. Cause reflections on the windscreen

b. Contain more of the damaging Blue and UV light
c. Cause the iris to close, blinding the pilot
d. Cause a blind spot on the optic nerve
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CHAPTER 5: THE EYE QUESTIONS
7. A person who has ‘Myopia’:
a. Has a shorter than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a

Concave lens
b. Has a longer than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a
Convex lens
c. Has a shorter than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a
Convex lens
d. Has a longer than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a
Concave lens
8. The part of the eye where we have the best visual acuity is:
a. The fovea
b. The iris
c. The pupil
d. The peripheral retina
9. Astigmatism is the name for:
a. The ability of the lens to change shape

b. An eyeball which is too short
c. A mis-shapen cornea
d. Colour blindness
10. Two light aircraft are on a head-on collision course with a closing speed
of 180 knots and a flight visibility of 3 kilometres. If contact was made at
maximum visual range, what time is available for either pilot to take avoiding
action?
a. 27 seconds
b. 34 seconds
c. 51 seconds
d. 1 minute and 30 seconds
11. The light-sensitive tissue lining the rear of the eyeball which contains rods
and cones is know as:
a. The pupil
b. The cornea
c. The retina
d. The iris
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
Answer
66
CHAPTER 6: THE EAR QUESTIONS

knowledge of The Ear.
1. The three parts of the ear are the:
a. Incus, malleus and stapes

b. Outer, middle and inner
c. Cochlea, otoliths and tympanum
d. Ear lobe, ear canal and ear drum
2. The bones in the middle ear are known collectively as:
a. The otoliths
b. The monoliths
c. The ossicles
d. The saccules
3. A fit young person can detect a range of sounds between:
a. 20 and 20 000 Hertz

b. 500 and 3 000 Hertz
c. 700 and 5 000 Hertz
d. 50 and 10 000 Hertz
4. The function of the eustachian tube is to:
a. Equalise pressure between the middle and inner ear

b. Connect the inner ear to the back of the throat
c. Allow circulation of fluid in the semi-circular canals
d. Equalise pressure between the outer and middle ear
5. Permanent hearing loss may result from continuous exposure to:
a. Noise in excess of 120 decibels

b. Dusty conditions, allowing a build-up in ear wax
c. Noise in excess of 90 decibels
d. Excessive heat which boils the fluid in the semi-circular canals
6. Permanent deafness that is associated with old age, is known as:
a. Myopia
b. Presbyopia
c. Mycusis
d. Presbycusis
7. The main function of the vestibular apparatus is to:
a. Detect angular and linear accelerations

b. Mechanically transmit sound to the cochlea
c. Prevent excessive sounds from damaging the ear drum
d. Prevent excessive sounds from damaging the otoliths
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CHAPTER 6: THE EAR QUESTIONS
8. To maintain spatial orientation in the absence of visual references, the pilot

should:
a. Believe the sensations of his vestibular apparatus

b. Immediately climb to get above cloud
c. Believe the “seat of the pants” sensations from the somatosensory
system
d. Believe the aircraft instruments
9. Motion sickness arises when there is:
a. Vertical displacement from the horizontal axis

b. Disorientation caused by loss of visual references
c. A mismatch between visual and vestibular signals
d. Vertical displacement from the longitudinal axis
10. Which of the conditions given below, are symptomatic of motion sickness:
(i) Nausea
(ii) Hypoxia
(iii) Hyperventilation
(iv) Pallor
(v) Stomach cramp
(vi) Cold sweating
a. i, ii, iii and iv

b. iii only
c. i, iii, iv and vi
d. i, iii, v and vi
11. What is the cause of conductive deafness?
a. Damage to the Pinna

b. Blockage of the Eustachian Tube
c. Damage to the Ossicles and/or the Ear-Drum
d. Low ambient pressure
12. Which part of the ear senses linear accelerations?
a. The Ossicles
b. The Eustachian Tube
c. The Auditory Nerve
d. The Otoliths in the Vestibular Apparatus
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
Answer
Question 12
Answer
80
CHAPTER 7: FLYING AND HEALTH QUESTIONS

knowledge of Flying and Health.
1. The body mass index is obtained by:
a. Multiplying body weight in kilograms by height in metres squared

b. Adding body weight in kilograms to height in metres squared
c. Multiplying body weight in pounds by height in feet squared
d. Dividing body weight in kilograms by height in metres squared
2. A body mass index of 23 for a male or female pilot indicates he/she is:
a. Underweight
b. Normal
c. Overweight
d. Obese
3. In order to be effective, exercise should be:
a. Sufficient to double the resting heart rate for 20 minutes at least

twice per week
b. Sufficient to halve the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, at least
three times per week
c. Sufficient to double the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, at least
three times per week
d. Sufficient to double the resting heart rate for 30 minutes, at least
twice a week
4. Breakfast should supply:
a. At least 25% of the daily calorie intake

b. Sufficient calories to spend a whole day at the airfield
c. Enough protein to make up 50% of the daily calories consumed
d. A high fat start to the day to give energy and reduce the risk of
heart disease
5. An intake of iron is essential for:
a. Improving personal magnetism

b. The manufacture of haemoglobin
c. The production of Rhodopsin to improve night vision
d. Building and maintaining healthy bones and teeth
6. The condition of Gastroenteritis makes a pilot:
a. Fit to fly
b. Fit to fly if no attack has been experienced for an hour
c. Fit to fly provided appropriate medication is being taken
d. Unfit to fly
106
7. A fit or seizure is symptomatic of:
a. An interruption of the blood supply to the pulmonary system

b. A reduction in the blood supply to the brain
c. An electrical disturbance in the brain
d. The failure of the pancreas to produce insulin
8. The recommended maximum daily caffeine intake is approximately:
a. 150 – 200mg
b. 200 – 250mg
c. 250 – 300mg
d. 300 – 350mg
9. The maximum number of units of alcohol is 21 for men and 14 for women.
These limits are:
a. Per day
b. Per week
c. Per month
d. Per year
10. If a pilot is suffering from a cold or flu, he:
a. Is unfit to fly
b. Is fit to fly if taking appropriate medication
c. Is fit to fly if no sneezing has being experienced for one hour
d. Is fit to fly if he can clear his ears
11. A pilot is 2 metres tall and weighs 90 kilograms. What is his Body Mass
Index and is he over-weight?
a. 40; yes
b. 22.5; no
c. 22.5, yes
d. 40; no
12. What angle of bank, in a balanced turn, will subject the body to an
acceleration of 2g?
a. 15°
b. 60°
c. 30°
d. 45°
107
13. What is the best way for a pilot to reassure any nervous passenger whom
he is about to take flying?
a. To allow the passenger to see his pilot’s licence

b. To show the passenger his log book which is a record of his
experience of safe flying
c. To explain to the passenger how much other people have enjoyed
flying with him
d. To give the passenger a thorough pre-flight briefing, following
established and approved guidelines
14. For what period of time must a pilot refrain from flying after being given an
anaesthetic?
a. 24 hours following a local anaesthetic and 48 hours following a

general anaesthetic
b. 12 hours following a local anaesthetic and 24 hours following a
general anaesthetic
c. 12 hours following a local anaesthetic and 48 hours following a
general anaesthetic
d. 24 hours following both local anaesthetic and a general anaesthetic
15. At what rate does the body remove alcohol from the blood?
a. 100 milligrams per 15 millilitres per hour

b. 50 milligrams per 100 millilitres per hour
c. 15 milligrams per 100 millilitres per hour
d. 120 milligrams per 80 millilitres per hour
16. Which of the answer options below includes three important health risks to
which obese people are exposed by virtue of excessive body weight?
a. Heart attack, blood circulatory problems, hypertension

b. Myopia, loss of appetite, nausea
c. Insomnia, disorientation, muscular tension
d. Memory lapse, diminished awareness, lack of coordination
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
Answer
Question 12 13 14 15 16
Answer
108
CHAPTER 8: THE INFORMATION PROCESS QUESTIONS

knowledge of The Information Process.
1. Unconditioned reflexes are:
a. Those which can be learned

b. Those that may be improved by repetition
c. Those which are instinctive
d. Those that are required by the check list
2. Perception is one of the most important aspects of information processing

because:
a. Sensory information is modelled into a meaningful structure

b. Good judgements and decisions are made at this stage
c. Corrective actions and responses are carried out at this stage
d. It incorporates selective, divided and focused attention
3. “Chunking” is:
a. The grouping of check list items to reduce turn round time

b. A bizarre method of word association technique
c. A method of increasing the number of unrelated items held in working
memory
d. The associative phase of learning a skill
4. The three parts of long-term memory are classified as:
a. Ultra short, short and working

b. Selective, divided and focused
c. Static, dynamic and motor
d. Semantic, episodic and procedural
5. An Illusion is:
a. A deliberate modification of the truth to catch out the unwary pilot

b. When perception is not the same as the real world
c. The difference between divided and selective attention
d. A condition arising when deprived of visual or auditory stimuli
6. If a pilot flies a visual approach to a runway which has a pronounced upward

slope of which he is unaware, what will be the likely result?
a. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended,

leading to the possibility of undershooting.
b. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading
to the possibility of overshooting.
c. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended,
leading to the possibility of overshooting
d. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading
to the possibility of undershooting.
135
7. If a pilot flies a visual approach to a runway which has a pronounced

downward slope of which he is unaware, what will be the likely result?
a. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended,

leading to the possibility of undershooting.
b. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading
to the possibility of overshooting.
c. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended,
leading to the possibility of overshooting
d. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading
to the possibility of undershooting.
8. If a pilot flies a visual approach to a runway which is wider than the runway
he is used to, what will be the likely result?
a. The pilot will fly an approach which is higher than intended with the
danger that he will round out too late, or undershoot the runway.
b. The pilot will fly an approach which is lower than intended with the
danger that he will round out too late, or undershoot the runway.
c. The pilot will fly an approach which is lower than intended with the
danger that he will round out too late, or overshoot the runway.
d. The pilot will fly an approach which is higher than intended with the
danger that he will round out too soon, or overshoot the runway.
9. If a pilot is on the final approach to a runway which is narrower than he

expects, what will be the most likely result?
a. The pilot will be led to fly a higher approach than normal, with the
danger of rounding out too soon, or overshooting the runway.
b. The pilot will fly a lower approach than normal, with the danger of
rounding out too soon, or overshooting the runway.
c. The pilot will fly a lower approach than normal, with the danger of
rounding out too late, or undershooting the runway.
d. The pilot will be led to fly a higher approach than normal, and be
forced to go around.
10. If a pilot is flying above a layer of stratus cloud with a sloping upper surface,
how is the pilot most likely to misperceive the visual image?
a. The pilot may mistake the slope as a lowering cloud base, and divert
to an alternate airfield.
b. The pilot may feel that he is climbing and initiate a descent.
c. The pilot may mistake the upper surface of the cloud layer as the
“true” horizon and apply bank as he selects an attitude which puts
the aircraft’s wings parallel to the cloud surface.
d. The pilot may feel that he is descending and initiate a climb.
136
11. Hazy conditions may lead a pilot to perceive:
a. Objects outside the aircraft as being further away than they actually
are
b. Objects outside the aircraft as being closer than they actually are
c. Objects outside the aircraft as being more numerous than they
actually are
d. Objects outside the aircraft in exactly the same way as in conditions
of good visibility
12. Approaching a runway at night where only the runway lights are visible, with
no lights to indicate the nature of the surrounding terrain may result in the
pilot:
a. Flying too high an approach and overshooting the runway

b. Flying too high an approach and undershooting the runway
c. Flying too low an approach and overshooting the runway
d. Flying too low an approach and undershooting the runway
13. How will a pilot perceive a runway to which he is flying an approach, but
which is smaller than the runways he his used to?
a. The runway will appear nearer than it is in reality.

b. The runway will appear further away than it is in reality.
c. The pilot will get the impression that he is low and close.
d. The pilot will perceive no difference between this runway and the
ones he is used to.
14. How will a pilot perceive a runway to which he is flying an approach, but
which is bigger than the runways he his used to?
a. The runway will appear nearer than it is in reality.

b. The runway will appear further away than it is in reality.
c. The pilot will get the impression that he is high and distant.
d. The pilot will perceive no difference between this runway and the
ones he is used to.
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer
13 14
137
CHAPTER 9: JUDGEMENT AND DECISION MAKING QUESTIONS

knowledge of Judgement and Decision Making.
1. As captain of an aircraft you will need to show good leadership skills.

Which one of the following is not one such skill?
a. Forward planning
b. Maintaining good situational awareness
c. Being aware of one’s limitations and capabilities
d. Aggressive assertiveness
2. You have planned to take a couple of friends on an air experience flight. On

the day, the weather conditions are marginal and there is a strong cross-
wind on the runway. As a competent assessor of risk, which of the following
decisions should you take?
a. Get airborne as planned, as it is always wise to stick to your flight

plan if you possibly can
b. Reschedule the flight for another time, discounting the immediate
disappointment to your friends
c. Proceed with the flight and treat it as an opportunity to practise
flying in adverse conditions.
d. Ask your friends if they are prepared to fly in the prevailing
conditions.
3. Complete the following statement: Mental Overload usually:
a. leads to better performance

b. leads to degraded performance
c. has no effect on performance
d. causes changes in the speed and accuracy of performance which
vary from individual to individual
4. Complete the following statement: If, as an experienced pilot, you are flying
with someone of much greater experience, and you see him do something
you consider to be dangerous, you should:
a. immediately question his course of action

b. wait until the action or manoeuvre is completed, and then question
him
c. ignore the situation because he obviously knows what he is doing
d. do nothing for the moment, but check the wisdom and
correctness of his action by discussing it with an instructor after
you have landed
Question 1 2 3 4
Answer
148
CHAPTER 10
VERBAL COmmUNICATION
149
CHAPTER 11: STRESS QUESTIONS

knowledge of Stress.
1. A moderate level of arousal will:
a. Lead to a breakdown in health over a period of time

b. Produce interest in external events and performing tasks
c. Lead to slow processing of sensory information
d. Lead to deterioration of performance due to narrowing of attention
2. The life event that is considered to produce the most stress is:
a. Minor violations of the law

b. Marital separation
c. Personal injury or illness
d. Death of a partner or spouse
3. Having successfully overcome a stressful situation once, how will the

person react if placed in the same or similar situation a second time?
a. There will be little difference

b. Stress will increase because he will be afraid of what he knows lies
ahead
c. Stress will reduce because, having already successfully overcome
the stressful situation, he will be confident he can do so again
d. Experience can not affect reaction to stress
4. An important factor to remember with regard to stress factors is:
a. They decay with time

b. They are cumulative
c. They are objective in nature
d. They affect all pilots equally
5. The relationship between arousal and performance means:
a. Performance is degraded by under-arousal and improved by over-

arousal
b. Performance is improved by both under and over-arousal
c. Performance is degraded by both under and over-arousal
d. Performance is improved by under arousal and degraded by over-
arousal
6. Which of the following statements is false?
a. All people react in the same way to the same stressful situation
b. Stress is a natural condition of life
c. Stress is cumulative
d. The right training can make a stressful task less stressful
164
CHAPTER 11: STRESS QUESTIONS
7. Complete the following statement. The level of stress felt by an individual

is dependent on:
a. actual ability
b. perceived demand
c. a combination of perceived demand and actual ability
d. none of the above
8. You are positioned short of the holding point and are in the middle of your
pre take-off checks when you receive clearance to take-off from ATC. The
wisest course of action is:
a. Ask ATC to “standby” and complete your checks properly,

recommencing your checks by going back over the last one or two
previously completed items on your check list.
b. Rapidly run through your remaining checks, acknowledge ATC’s
clearance and take-off.
c. Skip the last few items on your checklist and take-off as cleared.
d. Ignore ATC, and finish your checks before replying.
9. What are Stress Factors or Stressors?
a. Pulse-rate inducers
b. Circumstances or events which provoke any kind of reaction to the
demands placed upon the human organism
c. Events and circumstances which cause stress
d. Measures of stress exhibited by a person
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Answer
165
CHAPTER 12: THE COCKPIT QUESTIONS

knowledge of The Cockpit.
1. Sitting below the eye datum point:
a. Prevents the pilot’s head from coming into contact with the cockpit
roof
b. Means that part of the undershoot may be obscured, on the
approach
c. Allows faster egress from the cockpit in an emergency
d. Means that part of the overshoot may be obscured, on the
approach
2. If a pilot is interrupted when carrying out the pre-take-off checks, he should:
a. Recommence the checks from the item in the checklist reached

when the interruption occurred
b. Recommence the checks from the beginning of the checklist
c. Recommence the checks beginning with an item located one step
back in the checklist from the item reached when the interruption
occurred
d. Recommence the checks beginning with an item located one step
further on in the checklist from the item reached when the interruption
occurred
3. Which of the following is NOT a basic consideration governing the way

controls should be both designed and arranged?
a. Controls should be standardised in location and sense of use from

one aircraft to the other
b. Controls should be standardised between aircraft, in terms of their
shape and materials only
c. Controls having different functions should both look and feel
different
d. Important controls should be located in easily reached and
unobstructed positions
4. You are preparing for a training flight with an instructor and cannot find your
checklist. You should:
a. Perform the checks from memory

b. Use a checklist for a different aircraft type
c. Take time to find the checklist even at the risk of missing part of your
airborne time
d. Rely on the instructor to point out anything that you might have
missed
180
CHAPTER 12: THE COCKPIT QUESTIONS
5. Which of the following occur(s) when a pilot is sitting too high in a cockpit?
i) Good downward outside view

ii) Poor view of instruments
iii) Upwards outside view obstructed
a. i) only
b. i) and ii) only
c. i), ii) and iii)
d. ii) and iii) only
6. An analogue display is generally better than a digital display for showing

which sort of data?
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
c. Numerical
d. Subjective
7. A standard “T” layout has the artificial horizon or attitude indicator at the
centre. Which of the following is NOT included in the rest of the “T”?
a. The altimeter
b. The airspeed indicator
c. The direction indicator
d. The compass
8. Which of the following actions does NOT constitute a pilot error when carrying
out checks from a check list?
a. Carrying out checks diligently and expeditiously

b. Carrying out checks from the list slowly and laboriously
c. Automatically responding to the check list without carrying out the
check
d. Missing out items
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Answer
181
182
ANSWERS TO HUmAN
PERFORmANCE QUESTIONS
197
ANSWERS TO THE HUMAN PERFORMANCE QUESTIONS
198
Chapter 1 Introduction
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6
Answer b d a b d a
Chapter 2 The Atmosphere
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Answer c c a d b a c
Chapter 3 The Human Body
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer c a c d c b a c d b
Chapter 4 The Effects of Partial Pressure
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer c d a d b
Chapter 5 The Eye
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
Answer d b b c a b d a c b c
Chapter 6 The Ear
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer b c a d c d a d c c
Question 11 12
Answer c d
Chapter 7 Flying and Health
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer d b c a b d c c b a
Question 11 12 13 14 15 16
Answer b b d c c a
199
Chapter 8 The Information Process
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer c a c d b a b d c c a d
Question 13 14
Answer b a
Chapter 9 Judgement and Decision Making
Question 1 2 3 4
Answer d b b a
Chapter 11 Stress
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Answer b d c b c a c a c
Chapter 12 The Cockpit
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Answer b c b c c b d a
200

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CHAPTER 1: INTRODUCTION QUESTIONS

Representative PPL - type questions to test your theoretical

a. The occupants of the cockpit

2. One essential quality that a competent pilot should possess is:

a. Poor communication skills

3. The percentage of all accidents caused by human factors is:

4. The most common form of aircraft accident is:

a. Failing to file a flight plan

5. The most common cause of pilot-induced accidents is:

a. Poor flight planning

6. The phase of flight most prone to accident is:

a. Intermediate and final approach

Representative PPL - type questions to test your theoretical

1. The percentage of Oxygen in the atmosphere:

a. Decreases with an increase in altitude

3. A healthy pilot should be able to operate without suffering the effects of

4. The percentage of Oxygen in the atmosphere remains at 21%, by volume:

5. Pilots need to breathe supplementary Oxygen when flying at high altitude

a. The decreased temperature

a. Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide and

7. At 36 000 feet, the air pressure is:

a. Three quarters of the sea-level value

Representative PPL - type questions to test your theoretical

1. Breathing is regulated by:

a. The will of each human being

2. A smoker will feel the symptoms of hypoxia (Oxygen starvation) at:

a. A lower altitude than a non-smoker

a. The Respiratory System

5. How long after prolonged breathing-in of Carbon Monoxide must a pilot

6. Pilots should not fly within …. hours of donating blood.

7. The main function of the red blood cells is to:

a. Carry Oxygen to the tissues

8. Angina is caused by:

a. Death of part of the heart muscle

9. Carbon monoxide is dangerous because:

Representative PPL - type questions to test your theoretical

1. Compared to a non-smoker, someone who smokes is likely to experience

2. The % of Oxygen in the atmosphere, by volume, is:

a. 21% to an altitude of 10 000 feet

3. Hypoxia is defined as:

a. The condition where there is insufficient Oxygen to meet the body’s

4. At low altitude, the most common symptoms of hyperventilation include:

a. Anxiety, scuba diving, vibration and poor visual acuity

5. You have been diving to a depth of 32 feet using SCUBA pressure

a. Do not fly for a period of 12 hours

Representative PPL - type questions to test your theoretical

a. Small at first and grow in size steadily and regularly

2. The iris is responsible for controlling:

a. The rate of dark adaption

3. In order to see an object best, at night, a pilot should:

a. Look directly at the object, blinking several times

5. The sensors called ‘Rods’:

a. Are sensitive to lower light levels than the ‘Cones’

6. Light levels at high altitude are dangerous because they:

a. Cause reflections on the windscreen

7. A person who has ‘Myopia’:

a. Has a shorter than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a

9. Astigmatism is the name for:

a. The ability of the lens to change shape