Final Advanced Grammar
Final Advanced Grammar
Final Advanced Grammar
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9. Since the Sun illuminates half 13. The upper part in a harmonic
the surface of the Moon, only arrangement by mixed
half the surface can be voices is usually written for a
seen from the Earth. soprano voice.
(A) most (A) to be sung
(B) much (B) as singing
(C) with more (C) to be singing
(D) at most (D) was sung
10. The novels of Constance 14. The first school the state
Fenimore Woolson, , of Washington was opened at
have special interest for their old Fort Vancouver in 1832.
regional settings. (A) is now
(A) in a nineteenth-century (B) is that in
writer (C) what is that
(B) a nineteenth-century writer (D) in what is now
(C) the nineteenth-century
writing 15. Radio, , developed from
(D) wrote about the nineteenth the theories and experiments
century of many people.
(A) like other many inventions
11. Oklahoma is important (B) like many other inventions
as a farming state, it is even (C) inventions like many other
more important for its rich oil (D) many other like inventions
deposits.
(A) By
(B) Although
(C) In order for
(D) Concerning
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16. Patients they suffer from common arthritis can be treated using heat, physical
A B C D
therapy, and aspirin.
17. Forests contain more than merely tree; they also include smaller plants,
A B
such as mosses, shrubs, and wild flowers.
C D
18. The game of marbles, which originated in prehistoric times, is still played
A B C
today in much lands.
D
19. The modern racing bicycle is carefully engineered for safety, lightness, and
A B C
reliable.
D
20. On 1954 the United States Supreme Court ruled on the case of Brown v.
A B
Board of Education, declaring segregated education unconstitutional.
C D
21. Because glass objects are fragile, least have survived from ancient civilizations.
A B C D
22. An important effect that criticism can have on contemporary poets is the
A B
assurance that there is a growing interest their work.
C D
23. Music festivals, which date back as far as the mid-seventeenth century, have
A
increased significantly in popular within the past few decades.
B C D
24. Human skin is a complex, sensitive organ that serves many functions necessary
A B C
for the maintain of life.
D
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25. Space photography and advanced measurement technology, including a
A B
laser reflector placed on the Moon, have possible made extremely precise
C D
measurements of the surfaces of the Earth.
26. The scale of the demographic change that are now occurring and that are
A
projected for the near future is unprecedented in human history.
B C D
27. The paintings of artist Abraham Rattner are noted for their brilliant color, rich
A B C
texture, and symbolic.
D
28. Between the high and low tidemarks of marine coasts existing abundant and
A B
varied plant and animal life.
C D
29. The total amount of water in the world’s ecological system has remained the
A B
same than throughout the ages.
C D
30. Butterflies and moths comprise the Lepidoptera order of insects find
A B
throughout most of the world.
C D
31. The planet Neptune has two known satellites: one about the size with Earth’s
A B C D
Moon, the other much smaller.
32. Harry Truman’s victory over Thomas Dewey was one of the biggest surprise in
A B C
the political history of the United States.
D
33. The narwhal resembles like other whales, but it has a long, spiral tusk growing
A B C
from its head.
D
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34. In exchange for requiring them to disclose the workings of their inventions,
A B
patents give inventors temporary, legally monopolies.
C D
35. Lillian Gish is best known for her roles in such silently films as The Birth of a
A B C D
Nation and Broken Blossoms.
36. Oraibi, Arizona, built by the Hopi Indians during 1100’s, is probably the oldest
A B
continuous inhabited settlement in the United States.
C D
38. Known for power, speed, and maneuverability, the goshawk has short wings
A
and a long tail, enabling them to dodge branches in pursuit of prey.
B C D
40. One basic principle of international air law recognize a country’s complete
A B
sovereignty over the airspace above its territory.
C D
If you finish in less than 25 minutes, check your work on Section 2 only.
Do not read or work on any other section of the test.
At the end of 25 minutes, go on to Section 3.
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