Exam : CompTIA FC0-U41

Title : Strata IT Fundamentals

Version :Demo
 
 
 
1. Which of the following substances are restricted under Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS)?

Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Iron (Fe)

B. Cadmium (Cd)

C. Mercury (Hg)

D. Lead (Pb)

Answer: D, C, and B

Explanation:

The following substances are restricted under Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS).

Lead (Pb)

Mercury (Hg)

Cadmium (Cd)

Hexavalent chromium (CrVI)

Polybrominated biphenyls (PBB)

Polybrominated diphenyl ethers (PBDE)

Answer option A is incorrect. Iron (Fe) is not restricted under RoHS.

2. Your office uses Windows Vista. This morning, a patch was applied automatically. Suddenly, the users

who have scanners attached to their computers complain that they cannot access the scanners. When you

check their Device Manager, you notice there is no exclamation point next to the scanner. What should you

do now?

A. Manually uninstall and reinstall the device driver.

B. Reinstall Vista.

C. Find a Vista compatible scanner.

D. Roll back the patch.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Sometimes a patch may cause problems for an existing device driver. Usually, you simply uninstall and then

reinstall the driver. This way the driver is installed after the patch.

Answer option D is incorrect. Patches often have key security updates. Simply leaving the machine
 
 
 
unpatched is never a good idea.

Answer option B is incorrect. This drastic step will return you to the pre-patch state, but then you will still

need to apply that patch, and still

have to deal with this problem.

Answer option C is incorrect. The scanner worked with Vista before the patch. This indicates that it is Vista

compatible.

3. Which of the following terms describes software technologies that improve portability, manageability and

compatibility of applications by encapsulating them from the underlying operating system on which they are

executed?

A. Failover

B. System hardening

C. Application virtualization

D. Encapsulation

Answer: C

Explanation:

Application virtualization is an umbrella term that describes software technologies that improve portability,

manageability and compatibility of applications by encapsulating them from the underlying operating

system on which they are executed. A fully virtualized application is not installed in the traditional sense,

although it is still executed as if it is. The application is fooled at runtime into believing that it is directly

interfacing with the original operating system and all the resources are managed by it, when in reality it is

not. Application virtualization differs from operating system virtualization in that in the latter case, the whole

operating system is virtualized rather than only specific applications.

Answer option B is incorrect. System hardening is a term used for securing an operating system. It can be

achieved by installing the latest service packs, removing unused protocols and services, and limiting the

number of users with administrative privileges.

Answer option D is incorrect. Encapsulation is an object-oriented programming term used to define the

ability to contain and hide information about an object, such as internal data structures and code.

Encapsulation isolates the internal complexity of an object's operation from the rest of the application. For

example, when you set the width property on a command button, you do not need to know how the value is
 
 
 
stored and how the command button is resized.

Answer option A is incorrect. Failover is a term associated with cluster services. It refers to the ability of a

server to immediately start servicing the requests if a primary server fails. If the application services in a

cluster-node fail, the Cluster Service generally tries to restart them on the same node. If the services do not

start, then it moves the services to another node in the cluster and restarts them on that node.

4. You are responsible for technical support at a hospital. Recently, all computers have been upgraded to

Windows Vista 64 bit. However, you have a particular custom application that runs only in 32 bit. What

should you do?

A. You will have to uninstall the upgraded operating system.

B. You will need a 32-bit version of Vista, not 64 bit.

C. Use compatibility mode to run the 32-bit application.

D. You will need to get the upgraded 64-bit version of the application.

Answer: C

Explanation:

You can right-click on a programs icon and go to properties. There you will find a compatibility mode tab.

This will allow you to run individual programs in 32 bit.

Answer options B and A are incorrect. You can run the 32-bit application on the 64 bit Vista using certain

applications.

Answer option D is incorrect. Software vendors do not immediately release new products for newer

versions of Windows.

5. Your customer is using Windows Vista and complains about the quality of picture he is getting on his

monitor. You find that you cannot adjust the refresh rate or the resolution. What is the most likely cause?

A. The monitor is not compatible with the video card.

B. The video card is not recognized by Windows.

C. The video card has failed.

D. The video card does not have enough video RAM.

Answer: B

Explanation:
 
 
 
When Windows does not recognize the video card, it gives a set of simplified default settings for refresh

rate, resolution, etc.

Answer option A is incorrect. As long as the monitor can plug into the card, it is compatible.

Answer option C is incorrect. If the video card had failed, there would have been no picture at all on the

monitor screen.

Answer option D is incorrect. Lack of sufficient video RAM would just prevent certain graphics from being

displayed.

6. Which of the following maximum resolutions does the UXGA video technology supports?

A. 1600 x 1200

B. 2560 x 1600

C. 1280 x 1024

D. 2048 x 1536

Answer: A

Explanation:

UXGA stands for Ultra eXtended Graphics Array. It is a display standard that refers to video adapters. This

display standard is capable of displaying the resolution of 1600 x 1200 pixels. A UXGA display provides four

times more pixels than an 800 x 600 display.

Practice exams also include self assessment and reporting features! 5

where 1600 refers to horizontal pixels, and 1200 refers to vertical pixels.

Answer option D is incorrect. The QXGA video technology supports a maximum resolution of 2048 x 1536.

Answer option B is incorrect. The WQXGA video technology supports a maximum resolution of 2560 x

1600.

Answer option C is incorrect. The SXGA video technology supports a maximum resolution of 1280 x 1024.

7. Which of the following typically involves the provision of dynamically scalable and often virtualized

resources as a service over the Internet?

A. Terminal services

B. Thin client
 
 
 
C. Cloud computing

D. Application Virtualization

Answer: C

Explanation:

Cloud computing typically involves the provision of dynamically scalable and often virtualized resources as

a service over the Internet. It provides common business applications online that are accessed from a web

browser, while the software and data are stored on the servers.

Answer option B is incorrect. A thin client is a low-cost computer, often legacy desktops, with limited

resources. Thin clients run the latest operating systems (Windows 2000 Server and Windows Server 2003)

and applications through special software such as the Terminal Services application. There is no

requirement to install and configure applications on each computer, as the software are installed and

configured in a centralized location on the server. Hence, the maintenance tasks are centralized.

Answer option A is incorrect. Terminal Services is a multisession environment that provides remote

computers access to Windows-based programs running on a server. When a user runs a program on a

Terminal Server, the application execution takes place on the server, and only the keyboard, mouse and

display information are transmitted over the network. Each user sees only his individual session, which is

managed transparently by the server operating system, and is independent of any other client session.

Answer option D is incorrect. Application virtualization is an umbrella term that describes software

technologies that improve portability, manageability and compatibility of applications by encapsulating them

from the underlying operating system on which they are executed.

8. Which of the following virus is a script that attaches itself to a file or template?

A. Boot sector

B. Macro virus

C. Trojan horse

D. E-mail virus

Practice exams also include self assessment and reporting features! 6

Answer: B

Explanation:
 
 
 
A macro virus is a macro or script that attaches itself to a file or template. When the file is loaded, the

instructions of the macro or script are executed.

Answer option A is incorrect. A boot-sector virus infects the boot record on hard disks and floppy disks,

which is used to start the computer. When the computer is turned on or restarted, the virus is automatically

executed. An infected boot disk may stop the computer from starting up.

Answer option D is incorrect. An e-mail virus moves around in e-mail messages, and usually replicates itself

by automatically mailing itself to many people in the their e-mail address book.

Answer option C is incorrect. A Trojan horse program can contain viruses, but it is not a virus itself.

9. Which of the following is a case sensitive text string used in wireless network and having a maximum

length of 32 characters?

A. WAP

B. SSID

C. WEP

D. WTLS

Answer: B

Explanation:

SSID stands for Service Set Identifier. It is used to identify a wireless network. SSIDs are case sensitive text

strings and have a maximum length of 32 characters. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have

the same SSID in order to communicate with each other.

The SSID on computers and the devices in WLAN can be set manually or automatically. Configuring the

same SSID as that of the other Wireless Access Points (WAPs) of other networks will create a conflict. A

network administrator often uses a public SSID that is set on the access point. The access point broadcasts

SSID to all wireless devices within its range. Some newer wireless access points have the ability to disable

the automatic SSID broadcast feature in order to improve the network security.

Answer option C is incorrect. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a security protocol for wireless local area

networks (WLANs). It has two components, authentication and encryption. It provides security, which is

equivalent to wired networks, for wireless networks. WEP encrypts data on a wireless network by using a

fixed secret key. WEP incorporates a checksum in each frame to provide protection against the attacks

that attempt to reveal the key stream.

devices. The functionality of WAP is equivalent to that of TCP/IP. WAP uses a smaller version of HTML

called Wireless Markup Language (WML) to display Internet sites.

Answer option D is incorrect. Wireless Transport Layer Security (WTLS) is a security layer of WAP, which is

specifically designed for a wireless environment. It provides privacy, data integrity, and authentication for

client-server communications over a wireless network. WTLS ensures that a client

and server are authenticated so that wireless transactions remain secure and the connection is encrypted.

WTLS is required because a wireless network does not provide end-to-end security.

10. Which of the following firewalls inspects the actual contents of packets?

A. Packet filtering firewall

B. Application-level firewall

C. Stateful inspection firewall

D. Circuit-level firewall

Answer: B

Explanation:

The application level firewall inspects the contents of packets, rather than the source/destination or

connection between the two. An Application level firewall operates at the application layer of the OSI model.

Answer option D is incorrect. The circuit-level firewall regulates traffic based on whether or not a trusted

connection has been established. It operates at the session layer of the OSI model.

Answer option A is incorrect. The packet filtering firewall filters traffic based on the headers. It operates at

the network layer of the OSI model.

Answer option C is incorrect. The stateful inspection firewall assures the connection between the two

parties is valid and inspects packets from this connection to assure the packets are not malicious.