Directions (Questions 1-5): Fill in the blank.

1. The farmers ________ their farms, if they had known that a thunderstorm was approaching.
(1) will leave (2) would leave (3) will have left (4) would have left

2. The fireman managed to put ________ the fire.

(1) away (2) down (3) out (4) off

3. There ________ any message from my teacher since she moved to London.
(1) is not (2) was not (3) has not been (4) had not been

4. I asked him if I ________ borrow his car for a day.

(1) will (2) could (3) can (4) should

5. ________ following all the instructions closely, he missed out an important guideline.
(1) Instead of (2) Although (3) In spite of (4) Otherwise

Directions (Questions 6-10) : Each of these questions consists of a sentence which is divided into
four parts, numbered (1) to (4). Only one part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard written
English. Identify that part which contains an error.

6. (1) The engineer reminded (2) them to have a

(3) thoroughly cleaning of the (4) machine after each use.

7. (1) This Project which is funded (2) by the United Nations

(3) has helps over four lakh Indians (4) overcome poverty.

8. (1) It was apparent for everyone present (2) that if the patient did not receive
(3) medical attention fast (4) he would die.

9. (1) The accelerating pace of life (2) in our metropolitan city

(3) has had the tremendous effect (4) on the culture and life-style of the people.

10. (1) Across the world (2) discussions on curing cancer

(3) are any longer (4) just wishful thinking.

  1 
Directions (Questions 11-15) : In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives,
choose the one which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

11. The habit of squandering money should not be encouraged.

(1) discarding (2) saving (3) boarding (4) throwing

12. The shrewd businessman went from rags to riches with one great idea.
(1) clever (2) foolish (3) wise (4) immature

13. Seema is too stingy to give money to charity.

(1) democratic (2) wasteful (3) liberal (4) spiteful

14. The soldier received the nation's highest award for valour.
(1) cowardice (2) criticism (3) generosity (4) despicable

15. You can totally trust Reema; she will never reveal your secrets to anyone.
(1) conceal (2) ignore (3) deny (4) overlook

Directions (Questions 16-20) : In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives,
choose the one which is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

16. Everybody likes him because he is an industrious student.

(1) prompt (2) excellent (3) energetic (4) diligent

17. Public figures should not indulge in mud-slinging.

(1) praise (2) mockery (3) quarrelling (4) defamation

18. The angry villagers have lynched two suspected child-lifters.

(1) mutilated (2) beaten up (3) killed (4) captured

19. The rescue effort turned into a fiasco when the kidnapper set off an explosive device that killed
the hostages.
(1) coincidence (2) disaster (3) success (4) ceremony

20. I wish we had a dishwasher to handle the mundane task of washing dishes every night.
(1) dirty (2) boring (3) rare (4) extraordinary

  2 
Directions (Questions 21-25): Choose the word/phrase nearest in meaning to the underlined part.
21. Don’t beat around the bush and tell me frankly what you think of my proposal.
(1) to run around a nearby bush in fright
(2) to talk indirectly, without coming to the main point
(3) to stammer
(4) to tap the feet in despair

22. The thief could be easily arrested because the police were tipped off in advance.
(1) bribed (2) given secret information
(3) threatened (4) toppled over

23. The party stalwarts have advised the President to take it lying down for a while.
(1) be on the defensive (2) be cautious
(3) take rest (4) accept the insult without protest

24. In his youth, he was practically rolling in money.

(1) borrowing money liberally (2) very rich
(3) wasting a lot of money (4) spending more than his income

25. You will have to grease the palm of clerk for quick action on this file.
(1) to break promise (2) to break trust (3) to help (4) to bribe

Directions (Questions 26-30): In each of the following questions, choose the option which can be
substituted for the given words/sentence.
26. A written statement about someone's character, usually provided by an employer
(1) Testimonial (2) Memorandum (3) Certificate (4) License

27. A picture of a person or a thing drawn in such a highly exaggerated manner to cause a laughter
(1) Caricature (2) Cartography (3) Cacography (4) Flattery

28. A fixed orbit in space in relation to earth

(1) Geo-centric (2) Geo-stationary (3) Polar (4) Geo-synchronous

29. A person who wanders from place to place without a home and usually no job
(1) Immigrant (2) Vagabond (3) Tourist (4) Emigrant

30. A legal agreement that allows someone to use a building or land for a specified period of time,
usually in return for rent
(1) Power of Attorney (2) Registry (3) Lease (4) Heir

  3 
Directions (Questions 31-60): Study the following passages to answer the questions that follow each
passage.
Passage–I
If life exists on Mars, it is most likely to be in the form of bacteria buried deep in the planet’s
permafrost or lichens growing within rocks, say scientists from NASA. There might even be
fossilised Martian algae locked up in ancient lake beds, waiting to be found.
Christopher McKay of NASA’s Ames Research Centre in California told the AAAS that
exobiologists, who look for life on other planets, should look for clues among the life forms of
Earth’s ultra-cold regions where conditions are similar to those on Mars.
Lichens for example, are found within some Antarctic rocks, just beneath the surface where sunlight
can still reach them. The rock protects the lichen from cold and absorbs water, providing enough for
the lichen’s needs, said McKay.
Bacteria have also been found in 3-million-year-old permafrost dug up by Siberia. If there are any
bacteria alive on Mars today, they would have had to have survived from the time before the planet
cooled more than 3 billion years ago. Nevertheless McKay is optimistic: “It may be possible that
bacteria frozen into the permafrost at the Martian south pole may be viable.”
McKay said algae are found in Antarctic lakes with permanently frozen surfaces. Although no lakes
are found to exist on Mars today, they might have existed long ago. If so, the dried-out Martian lake
beds may contain the fossilised remains of algae. On Earth, masses of microscopic algae form large,
layered structures known as stromatolites, which survive as fossils on lake beds, and the putative
Martian algae might have done the same thing, said Jack Farmer, one of McKay’s colleagues.
The researchers are compiling a list of promising Martian lake beds to be photographed from the
spacecraft, said Farmer. Those photographs could help to select sites for landers that would search for
signs of life, past or present. “If we find algae on Mars, I would say the Universe is lousy with algae,”
McKay said. “Intelligence would be another question.”
31. Which of the following is not the reason for the survival of bacteria in extreme cold conditions
of Antarctica on earth?
(1) Some Antarctic rocks protect lichen beneath their surface.
(2) Bacteria in the Antarctic frost protect lichen from the residual cold after the rock absorbs
water.
(3) The Antarctic rocks protect the lichen from cold by absorbing water and leaving enough for
the lichen needs.
(4) Sunlight penetrates the surface of the Antarctic rocks where the lichen grows.

32. Exobiologists might find on Mars algae similar to stromatolites on earth because
(1) on our planet stromatolites are formed by microscopic algae.
(2) martian lake beds may contain fossilised remains of algae similar to stromatolites on earth.
(3) there is evidence that photosynthesis which takes place in Earths’ algae can be found in
Martian algae too.
(4) All these

  4 
33. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) If any bacteria are alive today on Mars, they must have survived from the time before the
planet cooled.
(2) Space photographs of Martian craters should reveal to explorers signs of life there.
(3) The 3-million-year-old Siberian permafrost on digging up has revealed bacteria.
(4) Bacteria frozen into permafrost at the Martian South pole may be viable.

34. All of the following are the most primitive forms of life likely to exist on the planet Mars except
(1) villus and spore.
(2) bacteria in the permafrost.
(3) fossilised algae in the dried-up lake beds.
(4) lichen.

35. According to Christopher McKay, for finding life on other planets, which of the following
should not be the reason for explorers to look for clues among the earth’s-ultra cold regions?
(1) Ammonia and methane, necessary for early formation of life on earth are found on the
Martian surface.
(2) Earth’s-ultra cold regions are similar to those on Mars.
(3) Lichens are found within the Antarctic rocks in extreme conditions.
(4) Bacteria have been found in the permafrost dug up in Siberia.

Passage–II
The term spacing is used in ethology to refer to the distance an animal puts between itself and a
fellow member of its own group. When there is no spacing, as for instance in the mother-infant
relationship in mammals, we can speak of a bond between two individuals. In most species, spacing
distributes the members of a group in such a way that they are in sensory contact with each other but
do not infringe on each other’s personal space. This is the case, for instance, in birds that form flocks
or shoaling fish.
The actual mechanism by which spacing is maintained in these species is still not fully understood,
but in some fish it is clear that fry do not show the precisely aligned spacing characteristics of adults,
and it is possible that learning is at least partly involved in the ontogeny of spacing. In territorial
species, spacing may be pronounced. Birds of prey claim to a large hunting ground and defend it
against all other birds of prey, not merely their own species. For predators spacing is a permanent
state, whereas for other species, such as the grouse it may be a complex phenomenon related mainly
to distribution during the breeding season. Studies of primates and human children have shown that
when spacing is insufficient (a condition that can be called “crowding”), the frequency of
aggressiveness increases. Among adults, there are different spacing norms in different human
cultures. The close spacing characteristics of Arab countries, for example can puzzle Europeans, and
the significance of spacing, particularly touching, differs both within and between cultures. Closeness
in general goes with intimacy, while wide spacing may express lack of warmth or differences in
social status.

  5 
36. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding spacing in animals or birds of same
species?
A. It does not occur when there is a bond between two individuals
B. It occurs in birds that form flocks or shoaling fish
C. It is maintained by mechanism that scientists have begun to understand only now
(1) A and B (2) A and C (3) B and C (4) A only

37. In some fish, the fry do not maintain spacing with the same precision or pattern that adults
show, because
(1) they have not fully learnt the mechanism of spacing.
(2) their sensory organs which regulate spacing are not fully developed.
(3) they have not matured sufficiently for reproduction of species.
(4) they are afraid of straying too far away from their home range.

38. Which of the following statements is/are true?

A. In birds with strong territorial instincts, spacing involves defending rights to hunting
grounds.
B. In birds like grouse, it is nature’s complex way of distributing them during the breeding
season.
C. In birds of some species, like the sarus crane, spacing is a part of courtship dance.
(1) A only (2) B only (3) A and B (4) A, B and C

39. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) When bond exists between two individuals of same species, no spacing occurs.
(2) When spacing distributes members of a group, they are in sensory contact with each other
but prefer infringing on each other’s personal space.
(3) Aggressiveness in human children increases with crowding.
(4) Closeness goes with intimacy while wide spacing denotes lack of warmth.

40. The writer’s observation that spacing norms among adult humans differ according to culture is
born out of the
A. element of puzzle for Europeans when they see the close spacing characteristic of Arabs.
B. increase in aggressiveness in human children with crowding.
C. custom of touching which differs both within and between cultures.
(1) C only (2) B only (3) A and C (4) B and C

Passage–III
The history of literature really began long before man learned to write. Dancing was the earliest of
the arts. Man danced for joy round his primitive camp fire after the defeat and slaughter of his enemy.
He yelled and shouted as he danced and gradually the yells and shouts became coherent and caught
the measure of the dance and thus the first war song was sung. As the idea of God developed, prayers
were framed. The songs and prayers became traditional and were repeated from one generation to
another, each generation adding something of its own.
  6 
As man slowly grew more civilised, he was compelled to invent some method of writing by three
urgent necessities. There were certain things that were dangerous to forget and which, therefore, had
to be recorded. It was often necessary to communicate with persons who were some distance away
and it was necessary to protect one's property by making tools, cattle and so on, in some distinctive
manner. So man taught himself to write and having learned to write purely for utilitarian reasons he
used this new method for preserving his war songs and his prayers. Of course, among these ancient
people, there were only a very few individuals who learned to write, and only a few could read what
was written.
41. The first war-song
(1) was composed by leading dancers. (2) was a song traditionally handed down.
(3) developed spontaneously. (4) was inspired by God.

42. The war song evolved out of

(1) artistic urge. (2) yelling and shouting.
(3) creative inspiration. (4) None of these

43. Before man invented writing,

(1) literature was just singing and dancing. (2) there was no literature.
(3) literature was passed on by word of mouth. (4) prayers were considered literature.

44. Man invented writing because he wanted to

(1) write literature. (2) write war song.
(3) record and communicate. (4) be artistic.

45. As for the war songs and prayers, each generation

(1) composed its own songs and prayers. (2) added something of its own to the stock.
(3) blindly repeated the songs and prayers. (4) None of these

Passage–IV
Culture is the cultivation of a plant or garden, not the eradication of its roots, it is an understanding of
the roots and seeds, their patient care and instructed nourishment. Culture is not knowledge, nor is it
art, still less is its acquaintance with literature and art. By culture I mean first of all what the
anthropologists mean; the way of life of a particular people living together in one place. That culture
is made visible in their arts, in their social system, in their habits and customs, in their religion. It is
an aggregate of customs, institutions, manners, standards, tastes, morals and beliefs. Now these are
transmitted rather by the family than by the school, hence when family life fails to play its part, we
must expect our culture to deteriorate.
It is a delusion to think that the maladies of the modern world can be put right by a system of
instruction. On the contrary, universal education, by lowering standards, morals and tastes to a
common denominator, and by sharpening the wits rather than disciplining character, tends to break
down existing checks and balances. Education should be the drawing forth of potential values, it
should not be the destruction of the safeguards that tradition places around young egos naturally
inclined to wilful and precarious flights.
  7 
46. According to the passage, education is
(1) trapping and encouraging the inherent values in man.
(2) the sharpening of wits.
(3) the development of moral standards.
(4) the substitution of old traditions with new ones.

47. The culture of a community is transmitted

(1) equally by both family and school. (2) more by the family than school.
(3) by the peer group. (4) more by school than the family.

48. The writer uses the term 'culture' to refer to

(1) the cultivation of a plant or garden by a community.
(2) one's acquaintance with literature and art.
(3) one's acquisition of knowledge.
(4) the way of life of a particular people living together in one place.

49. The culture of a community is said to deteriorate when

(1) there is universal education.
(2) it adopts the modern system of instruction.
(3) the family life fails to play its part.
(4) there is a fall in its educational standards.

50. The passage suggests that universal education

(1) would prevent us from transmitting culture to the future generation.
(2) would help retain the cultural values.
(3) is, in fact, aggravating the existing problems of the modern world.
(4) is the solution to the problems in the modern world.

Passage–V
It is common knowledge that the root cause of our backwardness in most fields is illiteracy.
Campaigns for the eradication of this drawback gathered momentum in the past four decades after
independence. The results are, as expected, dramatic. However, while the percentage of literacy in
India is going up, the number of illiterates has also been increasing, which is really incredible. Thus
according to the 1991 census figures, there were 503 million illiterates in the country, 30 million
more than in 1981. During the same period, the percentage of literacy went up from 34 to 39 percent.
There is no need of any sophisticated technique to explain the cause of this paradox, as it is obviously
the result of the rapid growth of population. The rapid growth of population has outpaced whatever
little progress had been achieved in literacy. For instance, from 1971 to 1981, literacy increased at an
annual average rate of 0.7 percent, while the country's population grew by 2.15 percent every year. In
the following decade, the average rate of annual increase in literacy was 0.95 percent, whereas the
population grew by almost 2.85 percent every year during that decade. But population explosion is
not entirely responsible for the growing number of illiterates. The apathy of most states in failing to
tackle the problem of adult illiteracy is also partly to blame. Till now, they have shown little
  8 
awareness of the magnitude of the problem. Moreover, followup measures to prevent neo-literates
from relapsing into illiteracy are just as important as the initial adult literacy campaigns. In this case
too, the state education authorities are negligent. Not sufficient provision has been made for
'continued education'. This can be done by setting up more rural libraries, adult schools and
correspondence courses.
51. Which of the following has been referred to as a paradox?
(1) The literacy percentage and the number of illiterates are both increasing.
(2) The literacy percentage increases and the number of illiterates decrease.
(3) The government is sensitive to the problem only at the planning stage but not at the
implementation stage.
(4) The literacy percentage increases in proportion to the rate of increase in population.

52. In the passage, the rapid growth of population has been attributed to
(1) apathy of government officials. (2) want of continued education.
(3) illiteracy. (4) None of these

53. Which of the following statements is/are not true in the context of the passage?
A. The cause of the paradox mentioned in the passage can be explained by using sophisticated
techniques.
B. Adequate number of libraries and adult schools are not available in our country.
C. An effective check on population growth is the only solution for attainment of full literacy.
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and C (4) A, B and C

54. The term 'Neo-literate' as used in the passage refers to a person who
(1) is a literate with no school education.
(2) is illiterate but capable of becoming literate with formal training.
(3) is not literate.
(4) has newly become literate.

55. Which of the following is/are as important as the literacy campaign?

A. Checking the rapid growth of population.
B. Starting correspondence courses and providing reading facilities.
C. Awareness of the magnitude of the problem of illiteracy.
(1) A only (2) B only (3) B and C (4) A, B and C

Passage–VI
Company experience demonstrates that the most valid and useful concept of decentralization is profit
centre decentralization. This is the process of accompanying divisionalization with decentralization
and establishing each divisionalized unit as an integrated, self-contained business within the
management framework of the business as a whole. Each divisionalized unit is given its own
management group, its own staff support, and is set up in business on a competitive basis. Each
“profit centre” is held accountable for the profit it earns and the loss it sustains. Adoption of profit

  9 
centre concept puts teeth in decentralization. Instead of settling the burden of profitability on the
shoulders of one or two top executives, it charges a large number of key managers with this
obligation. It brings the profit maker closer to the point where profits are made. He knows
immediately when operations get out of phase. And if his personal security is clearly at stake, he is
likely to take vigorous action to remedy matters.
The profit centre concept becomes a strong psychological spur to profitable action. The accountable
manager is continually on the look-out for opportunities to cut costs, to seek additional sources of
revenue, and to consider new ideas or suggestions for improvement. Companies decentralized on a
profit centre basis are characteristically more aggressive, show more initiative and ingenuity, and are
more persistent in their search for profitable market opportunities than centralized organizations.
56. The idea of decentralization is utilized in
(1) profit centre decentralization.
(2) setting up divisions based exclusively on functions.
(3) geographical reorganization.
(4) departmentalization.

57. Adoption of profit centre concept gives effect to decentralization because

A. key managers are free to take decisions on matters affecting profits of the division.
B. the job security of the profit centre managers is at stake.
C. each division is held accountable for its profit or loss.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct in the given context?
(1) A only (2) A and B (3) A and C (4) A, B and C

58. All of the following are advantages of profit centre decentralization except
(1) new ideas or suggestions for improvement.
(2) opportunities to cut costs.
(3) opportunities for the manager to show ingenuity and initiative.
(4) security of job for the profit centre manager.

59. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) Profit centre manager discards opportunities for additional sources of revenue.
(2) A profit centre manager is generally less aggressive than managers in centralized
organizations.
(3) The key managers accept responsibility for the loss incurred by the profit centre.
(4) Each decentralized division committed to profit is geared to non-competitive operations.

60. All of the following statements are true except

(1) the profit centre manager is far away from the point where profits are made.
(2) decentralization is pre-requisite to setting up profit committed divisions.
(3) in a profit-focussed division, key managers share the burden of making profits.
(4) when operations get out of control, the division head takes prompt corrective steps.

  10 
61. What least number must be added to 5718 to make it exactly divisible by 40?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

62. Which of the following cannot be a digit in the unit's place of a perfect square?
(1) 7 (2) 1 (3) 5 (4) 0

63. The sum of squares of two numbers is 80 and the square of their difference is 36. The product of
the two numbers is __________.
(1) 44 (2) 22 (3) 58 (4) 117

64. Which one of the following is the greatest number?

3 7 11 16
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 9 15 19

65. Find the value of 17  51  152  289 .

(1) 11 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 9

66. Find the least number which is exactly divisible by 12, 15, 20 and 27.
(1) 650 (2) 520 (3) 600 (4) 540

67. Find the least perfect square number which is exactly divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6 and 8.
(1) 3600 (2) 3900 (3) 3500 (4) 3200

68. 23 envelopes cost 57.50. How many envelopes can be bought for 127.50.
(1) 55 (2) 56 (3) 51 (4) 53

69. 36 men take 9 days to earn 9000. How many men will earn 6000 in 6 days?
(1) 42 (2) 36 (3) 45 (4) 39

70. The average of three numbers is 52. The first is half of second and the second is twice the third.
The difference between the second and first number is __________.
(1) 78 (2) 39 (3) 72 (4) 33

71. The price of a book is reduced by 25%, what is the ratio of change in present price to the old
price?
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 5 : 4 (4) 4 : 5

  11 
72. A earned 20% more money than B. B earned 10% less money than C. A earned more than C by
__________.
(1) 4% (2) 8% (3) 12% (4) 16%

73. A dishonest dealer professes to sell his goods at cost price, but he uses a false weight and he
gains 25%. Find the false weight.
(1) 900 g (2) 800 g (3) 850 g (4) 925 g

74. Find the single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 5% and 20%.
(1) 28% (2) 24% (3) 25% (4) 20%

75. The ratio of number of males to number of females in a club is 7 : 4. If there are 84 males in the
club, then the total number of members in the club are __________.
(1) 126 (2) 132 (3) 136 (4) 148

76. In what ratio should water and 66% wine solution be mixed to obtain 55% wine solution ?
(1) 2 : 5 (2) 1 : 5 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 4

77. A can do a piece of work in 80 days. He works at it for 10 days and then B alone finishes the
remaining work in 42 days. The two together could complete the work in how many days?
(1) 30 days (2) 40 days (3) 50 days (4) 60 days

5
78. Walking of his usual rate, a boy reaches his school 6 min late. Find his usual time to reach
7
the school.
(1) 10 min (2) 12 min (3) 15 min (4) 18 min

79. The Simple Interest on a sum of money is 25% of the principal, and the rate per annum is equal
to the number of years. Find the rate per cent.
(1) 4.5% (2) 6% (3) 5% (4) 8%

80. Find the compound interest on ` 10500 at 8% per annum for 1 yr and 3 months, compounded
annually.
(1) ` 1066.80 (2) ` 1154.20 (3) ` 1048. 10 (4) ` 1124.50

  12 
Directions (Questions 81-82) : In a certain code :
(i) ‘3154’ means ‘meet me on Sunday’,
(ii) ‘538’ means ‘not on Sunday’
(iii) ‘861’ means ‘why not meet’.
81. For which word 1 is used in the code?
(1) me (2) why (3) meet (4) None of these

82. Which digit is used for ‘on’ in this code?

(1) 5 (2) 3
(3) 1 (4) Cannot be determined

Directions (Questions 83-84) : Each of these questions is based on the following information :
(i) A  B means A is the mother of B.
(ii) A  B means A is the sister of B.
(iii) A * B means A is the father of B.
(iv) A β B means A is the brother of B.
83. Which of the following means that Q is the grandfather of P?
(1) P  N*M*Q (2) Q*N*M  P (3) Q*M  N  P (4) None of these

84. Which of the following means that N is the maternal uncle of M?

(1) N β P  L  E  M (2) N  Y  A β M (3) M  Y*P  N (4) None of these

Directions (Questions 85-88) : Each of the following questions is based on the information given
below :
Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around the hexagonal table each at one corner. A is second
to the left of F. B is the neighbour of C and D. E is second to the left of D.
85. Which of the following is sitting opposite to E?
(1) C (2) B (3) A (4) None of these

86. Out of the four, three pairs are alike. Find the odd one :
(1) B, D (2) A, C (3) E, F (4) E, A

87. Which of the following are neighbours of A?

(1) F and A (2) E and C (3) F and C (4) Data inadequate

88. Who is the fourth person to the left of B?

(1) A (2) F (3) C (4) Data inadequate

89. If 40 + 10 = 30, 18 + 8 =10, then 60 + 60 = ?

(1) 120 (2) 3600 (3) 0 (4) 90

  13 
90. Eight persons were invited in a party. Everybody shakes hand with everybody else. What is the
total number of hand shakes?
(1) 28 (2) 27 (3) 30 (4) 29

91. One morning after sunrise, Vimal started to walk. During this walking, he met Stephen who was
coming from opposite direction. Vimal watched the shadow of Stephen to the right of him
(Vimal). To which direction Vimal was facing?
(1) East (2) West (3) South (4) None of these

92. Introducing a woman, Shashank said, ‘‘She is the mother of the only daughter of my son.’’ How
that woman is related to Shashank?
(1) Daughter (2) Sister-in-law (3) Wife (4) Daughter-in-law

Directions (Questions 93-95) : Complete the series by replacing ‘?’

93. 2, 15, 41, 80, ‘?’
(1) 111 (2) 120 (3) 121 (4) 132

94. 3, 12, 27, 48, 75, 108, ‘?’

(1) 147 (2) 162 (3) 183 (4) 192

95. AD, EH, IL, ‘?’, QT

(1) LM (2) MN (3) MP (4) OM

Directions (Questions 96-97) : In each of these questions, choose the incorrect term.
96. 196, 169, 144, 121, 80
(1) 169 (2) 196 (3) 121 (4) 80

97. 76, 60, 48, 38, 36, 36

(1) 60 (2) 38 (3) 48 (4) 36

Directions (Questions 98-99) : In each of the following questions, find out the alternative which will
replace the question mark.
98. Architect : Building : : Sculptor : ?
(1) Museum (2) Stone (3) Chisel (4) Statue

99. Race : Fatigue : : Fast : ?

(1) Food (2) Laziness (3) Hunger (4) Slow

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Directions (Questions 100-102) : In each of the following questions, a conclusion is followed by
statements I and II. Mark your answer as
(1) if the statement I alone is needed to draw the conclusion.
(2) if the statement II alone is needed to draw the conclusion.
(3) if both the statements I and II are needed to draw the conclusion.
(4) if both the statements I and II are not sufficient to draw the conclusion.
100. Spices deteriorate after prolonged boiling.
I. The essential oils in spices easily evaporate.
II. Spices are put in pickles to add the flavour.

101. Plants can be sick.

I. Only mammals can be ill.
II. Improper nutrition will create aberrations in plant's growth.

102. Sometimes a single observation makes us recall numerable events which have occurred in the
past.
I. Man has a gift of memory.
II. Man is basically a dreamer.

Directions (Questions 103-105) : Each of the following questions consists of a statement followed
by two arguments I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and
which is a ‘weak’ argument. Mark answer as
(1) if only argument I is strong.
(2) if only argument II is strong.
(3) if neither argument I nor II is strong.
(4) if both arguments I and II are strong.
103. Statement : Should smoking be prohibited?
Arguments : I. No, it will throw thousands of workers in the tobacco industry out of
employment.
II. Yes, the economic condition of those who smoke will be bettered.

104. Statement : Should government stop spending huge amount of money on international
sports?
Arguments : I. Yes, this money can be utilized for the upliftment of the poor.
II. No, sports persons will be frustrated and will not get international
exposure.

105. Statement : Should strikes be banned in essential services?

Arguments : I. Yes, because strikes disrupt the normal life.
II. No, because it is the democratic right of the people.

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106. Who among the following athletes has won the men's 100 metres sprint at the recently
concluded IAAF World Athletics Championships in London?
(1) Usain Bolt (2) Christian Coleman
(3) Yohan Blake (4) None of these

107. Which one of the following ace fashion designer unveiled his/her new creations ‘Sweet
Surrender’ at the Lakme Fashion Week Winter/Festive 2017?
(1) Neeta Lulla (2) Ritu Beri
(3) Masaba Gupta (4) Ritu Kumar

108. The $50 billion China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) connects Xin Jiang province, China
and deep water ______ port of Pakistan.
(1) Chabahar (2) Keti Bandar
(3) Gwadar (4) Port Qasim

109. Who among the following Bollywood star was honored with the Global Diversity Award’2017
in the Britain’s House of Commons for his/her contribution to Indian film industry?
(1) Salman Khan (2) Shah Rukh Khan
(3) Priyanka Chopra (4) Vidya Balan

110. The 8th annual Global Entrepreneurship Summit (GES 2017) inaugurated by US President
advisor Ivanka Trump in November 2017 took place at________.
(1) Hyderabad (2) New Delhi
(3) Mumbai (4) Pune

111. Which Indian film actress is the brand ambassador of Fossil brand for the promotion of their
smart-watches and leather bags along with actor Varun Dhawan?
(1) Tamanna Bhatia (2) Yami Gautam
(3) Kriti Sanon (4) Shruti Haasan

112. Which female personality is seen in the recent promotional ad of global footwear brand ‘Bata’?
(1) Deepika Padukone (2) Kangana Ranaut
(3) Manushi Chhillar (4) Priyanka Chopra

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113. Fashion jewellery brands like ‘Avnni’, ‘Celenne’ and ‘Glitterati’ belong to _________.
(1) Tanishq (2) Gitanjali
(3) Malabar (4) Jewelsouk

114. Which one of the following textile companies from India entered into collaboration with Reid &
Taylor of Scotland for manufacturing and marketing the Reid & Taylor worsted suiting in
India?
(1) Dinesh Mills Ltd (2) S Kumars Nationwide Ltd
(3) Mafatlal Ind. Ltd (4) Siyaram Silk Mills

115. Which Indian film actress was seen recently in the promotion ad of ‘Muga Silk’, known as the
golden fiber and the pride of Assam?
(1) Vidya Balan (2) Priyanka Chopra
(3) Aishwarya Rai (4) Madhuri Dixit

116. The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India in _______.
(1) July, 1948 (2) July, 1950
(3) July, 1947 (4) August, 1947

117. Who among the following has a right to attend the Lok Sabha session though he is not a
member?
(1) Chief Justice of India (2) Vice President of India
(3) Auditor General of India (4) Attorney General of India

118. Which planet is known as the Earth's Twin?

(1) Venus (2) Mars
(3) Uranus (4) Neptune

119. Which is the world's largest desert?

(1) Sahara (2) Gobi
(3) Thar (4) Taklamakan

120. RAM stands for________.

(1) Random Access Memory (2) Read And Memory
(3) Read Access Memory (4) Round Act Memory

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