SURNAME NAME: DATE

Reading Comprehension

Time: 55 minutes

This section of the test measures your ability to comprehend written materials.
Directions: This section contains several passages, each followed by a number of questions. Read
the passages and, for each question, choose the one best answer-(A), (B), (C), or (D)-based on what is stated in the
passage or on what can be inferred from the passage. Then fill in the space on your answer sheet that matches the letter
of the answer that you have selected.

Read the following passage:

(line) Like mammals, birds claim their own territories. A
bird's territory may be small or large. Some birds
claim only their nest and the area right around it,
while others claim far larger territories that include
(5) their feeding areas. Gulls, penguins, and other waterfowl
nest in huge colonies, but even in the biggest colonies,
each male and his mate have small territories of their
own immediately around their nests.
Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other
(10) males of the same species. In some cases, a warning call
or threatening pose may be all the defense needed, but in
other cases, intruders may refuse to leave peacefully.
Example 1

What is the main topic of this passage?

(A) Birds that live in colonies
(B) Birds' mating habits
(C) The behavior of birds
(D) Territoriality in birds

The passage mainly concerns the territories of birds. You should fill in CD) on your answer sheet.

Example II

According to the passage, male birds defend their territory primarily against
(A) female birds
(B) birds of other species
(C) males of their own species
(D) mammals

The passage states that "Male birds defend their territory chiefly against other males of the same species." You should fill
in (C) on your answer sheet.
As soon as you understand the directions, begin work on this section.

Questions 1-11
(line)
To date, Canada has produced only one classic children's tale to
rank with Alice's Adventures in Wonderland and the works of Mark
Twain; this was Lucy Maud Montgomery's Anne of Green Gables.
Lucy Maud Montgomery was born in Clinton, Prince Edward Island.
(5) Her mother died soon after her birth, and when her father went to
Saskatchewan to assume a business position, she moved in with her
grandparents in Cavendish, Prince Edward Island. There she went
to school, and later qualified to be a teacher.
Montgomery wrote the Anne books while living in Cavendish and
(10) helping her grandmother at the post office. The first of the
 books, Anne of Green Gables, was published in 1908, and in the
next three years she wrote two sequels. Like Montgomery, the
heroine of the book is taken in by an elderly couple who live in
the fictional town of Avonlea, and Montgomery incorporated many
(15) events from her life in Cavendish into the Anne books.
In 1911, Montgomery married Ewan MacDonald, and the couple soon
moved to Ontario, where she wrote many other books. However, it
was her first efforts that secured her prominence, and the Anne
books are still read all around the world. Her novels have
(20) helped create a warm picture of Prince Edward Island's special
character. Several movies, a television series, and a musical
play have been based on her tales, and today visitors scour the
island for locations described in the book.

1. The main purpose of this passage is to

(A) introduce Montgomery and her Anne books
(B) contrast Canadian children's literature with that of other countries
(C) provide a brief introduction to Prince Edward Island
(D) show the similarities between Montgomery's life and that of her fictional character Anne.

2. The word "this" in line 3 refers to

(A) Canada
(B) the work of Mark Twain
(C) Alice's Adventures in Wonderland
(D) a Canadian children's classic

3. According to the passage, Montgomery was raised primarily

(A) in an orphanage
(B) by her grandparents
(C) by her mother
(D) by her father

4. Approximately when did Lucy Maud Montgomery write the two sequels to her book Anne of Green Gables?
(A) From 1874 to 1908
(B) From 1908 to 1911
(C) From 1911 to 1913
(D) From 1913 to 1918

5. The word "elderly" in line 13 is closest in meaning to

(A) kindly
(B) old
(C) friendly
(D) sly

6. In the Anne books, the main character lives in

(A) the town of Cavendish
(B) Saskatchewan
(C) the town of Avonlea
(D) Ontario

7. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage about the Anne books?
(A) They were at least partially autobiographical.
(B) They were influenced by the works of Mark Twain.
(C) They were not as successful as Montgomery's later works.
(D) They were not popular until after Montgomery had died.

8. The word "prominence" in line 18 is closest in meaning to

(A) reputation
(B) excellence
(C) effort
(D) permanence

9. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "character" in line 21?
(A) A person in a novel
(B) Nature
(C) A written symbol
(D) Location

10. All of the following have been based on the Anne books EXCEPT
(A) a television series
(B) movies
(C) a play
(D) a ballet

11. In line 22, the word "scour" could be replaced by which of the following without changing the meaning of the
sentence?
(A) Cleanse
(B) Admire
(C) Search
(D) Request

Questions 12-23
(line)
Certain animals have an intuitive awareness of quantities. They know
without analysis the difference between a number of objects and a
smaller number. In his book The Natural History of Selbourne
(1786), the naturalist Gilbert White tells how he surreptitiously
(5) removed one egg a day from a plover's nest, and how the mother
laid another egg each day to make up for the missing one. He
noted that other species of birds ignore the absence of a single
egg but abandon their nests if more than one egg has been
removed. It has also been noted by naturalists that a certain
(10) type of wasp always provides five-never four, never six caterpillars
for each of their eggs so that their young have
something to eat when the eggs hatch. Research has also shown
that both mice and pigeons can be taught to distinguish between
odd and even numbers of food pieces.
(15) These and similar accounts have led some people to infer that
creatures other than humans can actually count. They also point
to dogs that have been taught to respond to numerical questions
with the correct number of barks, or to horses that seem to solve
arithmetic problems by stomping their hooves the proper number of
(20) times.
Animals respond to quantities only when they are connected to
survival as a species-as in the case of the eggs-or survival as
individuals-as in the case of food. There is no transfer to
other situations or from concrete reality to the abstract notion
(25) of numbers. Animals can "count" only when the objects are present
and only when the numbers involved are small-no more than seven
or eight. In lab experiments, animals trained to "count" one kind
of object were unable to count any other type. The objects, not
the numbers, are what interest them. Animals' admittedly
(30) remarkable achievements simply do not amount to evidence of
counting, nor do they reveal more than innate instincts, refined
 by the genes of successive generations, or the results of clever,
careful conditioning by trainers.

12. What is the main idea of this passage?

(A) Careful training is required to teach animals to perform tricks involving numbers.
(B) Animals cannot "count" more than one kind of object.
(C) Of all animals, dogs and horses can count best.
(D) Although some animals may be aware of quantities, they cannot actually count.

13. Why does the author refer to Gilbert White's book in line 3?
(A) To show how attitudes have changed since 1786
(B) To contradict the idea that animals can count
(C) To provide evidence that some birds are aware of quantities
(D) To indicate that more research is needed in this field

14. The word "surreptitiously" in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) quickly
(B) secretly
(C) occasionally
(D) stubbornly

15. The word "abandon" in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) vacate
(B) rebuild
(C) move
(D) guard

16. The word "odd;' as used in line 14, refers to which of the following?
(A) Unusual numbers
(B) Numbers such as 1, 3, 5, and so on
(C) Lucky numbers
(0) Numbers such as 2, 4, 6, and so on

17. The author mentions that all of the following are aware of quantities in some way EXCEPT
(A) plovers
(B) mice
(C) caterpillars
(D) wasps

18. The word "accounts" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

(A) invoices
(B) reasons
(C) reports
(D) deceptions

19. According to information in the passage, which of the following is LEAST likely to occur as a result of animals' intuitive
awareness of quantities?
(A) A pigeon is more attracted by a box containing two pieces of food than by a box containing one piece.
(B) When asked by its trainer how old it is, a monkey holds up five fingers.
(C) When one of its four kittens crawls away, a mother cat misses it and searches for the missing kitten.
(D) A lion follows one antelope instead of a herd of antelopes because it is easier to hunt a single prey.

20. How would the author probably characterize the people who are mentioned in line 15?
(A) As mistaken
(B) As demanding
(C) As clever
(D) As foolish
21. The word "admittedly" in line 29 is closest in meaning to
(A) improbably
(B) arguably
(C) apparently
(D) undeniably

22. In line 31, the word "they" refers to

(A) numbers
(B) animals
(C) achievements
(D) genes

23. Where in the passage does the author mention research that supports his own view of animals' inability to count?
(A) Lines 3-6
(B) Lines 12-14
(C) Lines 15-16
(D) Lines 27-28

Questions 24-33
(line)
It would be hard to cite a development that has had more
impact on American industry than the Bessemer process of making
steel. It made possible the production of low-cost steel and
established the foundation of the modern steel industry. In many
(5) ways it was responsible for the rapid industrialization of the
United States that took place in the formative period of the late
1800's.
The first Bessemer plant in the United States was built in
Wyandotte, Michigan, in 1864, near the end of the Civil War. It
(10) was capable of producing only 2 tons of steel ingots at a time.
The ingots were rolled into rails-the first steel rails made in
the United States. Acceptance of the process was initially slow.
By 1870, the annual output of Bessemer steel was a mere 42
thousand tons. Production grew rapidly after about 1875, rising
(15) to 1.2 million tons in 1880, when it exceeded that of wrought
iron for the first time.
The rise of the US. steel industry in the last quarter of the
19th century was brought about largely by the demand for Bessemer
steel rails for the nation's burgeoning rail network. Steel rails
(20) were far more durable than those made of iron. Spurred by this
demand, the us. steel industry became the largest in the world
in 1886, when it surpassed that of Great Britain.
The Bessemer Process was the chief method of making steel until
1907, when it was overtaken by the open-hearth process. By the
(25) 1950's, the Bessemer Process accounted for less than 3% of the
total U.S. production.

24. With what topic is this passage mainly concerned?

(A) The history of metal-working
(B) A comparison of the US. and British steel industries in the nineteenth century
(C) The technical details of the Bessemer process
(D) The effects of one method of making steel

25. According to the passage, the Bessemer process contributed to all of the following EXCEPT
(A) the establishment of the modern steel industry in the United States
(B) the manufacture of weapons during the Civil War
(C) lowered costs for steel
(D) industrial development in the United States during an important period

26. What can be inferred from the passage about wrought iron?
(A) At one time, more of it was produced than Bessemer steel.
(B) It is a by-product of the Bessemer process.
(C) It was once primarily imported from Great Britain.
(D) It later became a more important product than Bessemer steel.

27. The word "burgeoning" in line 19 is closest in meaning to

(A) overpowering
(B) planned
(C) expanding
(D) vital

28. According to the passage, why were Bessemer steel rails used in place of iron rails?
(A) They lasted longer.
(B) They did not have to be imported.
(C) They could be installed faster.
(D) They provided a smoother ride for passengers.

29. The word "Spurred" in line 20 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(A) Driven
(B) Challenged
(C) Dominated
(D) Broken

30. According to the passage, in what year did the steel industry of the United States begin to produce more steel than
that of Great Britain did?
(A) 1864
(B) 1875
(C) 1880
(D) 1886

31. What can be inferred about the steel industry in the United States during the 1950's?
(A) It had begun producing many new types of products.
(B) It was in a period of severe decline.
(C) It primarily involved methods of production other than the Bessemer Process.
(D) It was becoming more and more important.

32. The paragraph following this one probably concerns

(A) innovations in the railroad industry
(B) the open-hearth method of making steel
(C) industrialization in the twentieth century
(D) new methods of making wrought iron

33. The author first begins to discuss the growth of the Bessemer Process in
(A) lines 3-4
(B) lines 8-9
(C) lines 14-16
(D) lines 23-24

Questions 34-41
(line)
Nearly 515 blocks of San Francisco, including almost all of Nob
Hill, were destroyed by the 1906 earthquake and fires. Many of
San Francisco's "painted ladies" -its gaudy, nineteenth century
Victorian houses-were lost in the disaster. Today, some 14,000
(5) surviving houses have been preserved, particularly in the Cow
Hollow, Mission, Pacific Heights, and Alamo Square districts.
Distinguished by their design characteristics, three styles of
San Franciscan Victorians can be found today. The Italianate,
which flourished in the 1870's, is characterized by a flat roof,
(10) slim pillars flanking the front door, and bays with windows that
slant inward. The ornamentation of these narrow row houses was
patterned after features of the Roman Classical styles. The
Stick style, which peaked in popularity during the 1880s, added
ornate woodwork outlines to the doors and windows. Other
(15) additions included the French cap, gables, and three-sided bays.
Designs changed dramatically when the Queen Anne style became
the rage in the 1890's. Turrets, towers, steep gabled roofs, and
glass art windows distinguished Queen Anne houses from their
predecessors.
(20) In the period after the earthquake, the Victorians came to be
regarded as impossibly old-fashioned, but beginning around 1960,
owners began peeling off stucco, tearing off false fronts,
reapplying custom woodwork, and commissioning multi-hued paint
jobs. Before long, many of these houses had been restored to
(25) their former splendor.

34. Which of the following is NOT one of the author's purposes in writing the passage?
(A) To talk about the restoration of Victorian houses in San Francisco in the 1960's
(B) To discuss housing problems in San Francisco today
(C) To briefly trace the history of Victorian houses in San Francisco
(D) To categorize the three types of Victorian houses found in San Francisco

35. The word "gaudy" in line 3 is closest in meaning to

(A) showy
(B) enormous
(C) antiquated
(D) simple

36. According to the passage, in what district of San Francisco are authentic Victorian houses LEAST likely to be found
today?
(A) Cow Hollow
(B) Pacific Heights
(C) The Mission
(D) Nob Hill

37. According to the passage, which of the following styles of architecture was the last to become fashionable in San
Francisco?
(A) Roman Classical
(B) Italianate
(C) Stick
(D) Queen Anne

38. As used in the second paragraph, the word "bays" refers to

(A) bodies of water
(B) colors
(C) architectural features
(D) trees

39. Which of the following is most likely to be seen only on a Queen Anne style house?
(A) A flat roof
(B) A tower
(C) A French cap
(D) Gables

40. During which of the following periods were San Francisco's Victorian houses generally thought of as old-fashioned?
(A) From 1870 to 1890
(B) During the 1890's
(C) From 1907 to 1960
(D) During the 1960's

41. What can be inferred from the passage about Victorian houses after they had been restored?
(A) They were painted in many colors.
(B) They looked exactly like modern houses.
(C) They were covered with new fronts made of stucco.
(D) They were more attractive than the original houses.

Questions 42-50
Sea otters dwell in the North Pacific. They are the largest of
the mustelids, a group which also includes freshwater otters,
weasels, and badgers. They are from four to five feet long, and
most weigh from 60 to 85 pounds. Large males may weigh 100 pounds
(5) or more.
Unlike most marine mammals, such as seals or dolphins, sea
otters lack a layer of blubber, and therefore have to eat up to
30% of their body weight a day in clams, crabs, fish, octopus,
squids, and other delicacies to maintain body heat. Their
(10) voracious appetites do not create food shortages, though, because
they are picky eaters, each animal preferring only a few food
types. Thus no single type of food source is exhausted. Sea
otters play an important environmental role by protecting forests
of seaweed called kelp, which provide shelter and nutrients for
(15) many species. Certain sea otters feast on invertebrates like sea
urchins and abalones that destroy kelp.
Sea otters eat and sleep while floating on their backs, often
on masses of kelp. They seldom come on shore. Sea otters keep
warm by means of their luxuriant double-layered fur, the densest
(20) among animals. The soft outer fur forms a protective cover that
keeps the fine underfur dry. One square inch of underfur contains
up to 1 million hairs. Unfortunately, this essential feature
almost led to their extinction, as commercial fur hunters drastically
reduced their numbers.
(25) Under government protection, the sea otter population has
recovered. While elated by the otters return, scientists are
concerned about the California sea otter population growth of 5%
a year, lagging behind the 18% a year rate among Alaska otters.
Sea otters are extremely sensitive to pollution. In 1989 up to
(30) 5,000 sea otters perished when the Exxon Valdez spilled oil in
Prince William Sound, Alaska.

42. According to the passage, what are mustelids?

(A) A family of marine mammals that have blubber
(B) A type of sea otter
(C) A group of mammals that contains sea otters
(D) A kind of sea animal that includes clams, crabs, and many other creatures

43. It can be inferred from that passage that, if a large male sea otter weighs 100 pounds, it must eat approximately how
many pounds of food a day to maintain its body heat?
(A) 5 pounds
(B) 15 pounds
(C) 30 pounds
(D) 60 pounds

44. The author refers to sea otters as "picky eaters" line 11) because
(A) all sea otters eat many types of food
(B) each sea otter eats only one type of food
(C) all sea otters have voracious appetites
(D) each sea otter eats only a few kinds of food

45. The word "exhausted" in line 12 is closest in meaning to

(A) needed
(B) used up
(C) desired
(D) tired out

46. According to the passage, which of the following best describes sea otters' relationship with kelp forests?
(A) The kelp serves as food for the otters.
(B) The otters protect the kelp by eating animals that destroy it.
(C) The otters eliminate the kelp's source of nutrients.
(D) The kelp is destroyed when the otters build shelters.

47. Which of the following could best replace the word "luxuriant" in line 19?
(A) Expensive
(B) Soft
(C) Abundant
(0) Attractive

48. According to the passage, the outer fur of sea otters

(A) keeps the under fur from getting wet
(B) seems finer than the under fur
(C) is more desirable to hunters than the under fur
(D) is not as soft as the under fur

49. The word "elated" in line 26 is closest in meaning to

(A) disappointed
(B) shocked
(C) concerned
(D) overjoyed

50. According to the passage, why are scientists concerned about the population of California sea otters?
(A) It has been growing at too fast a rate.
(B) Its growth rate has been steadily decreasing.
(C) Its growth rate is not as fast as that of the Alaska sea otters.
(D) It has been greatly reduced by oil spills and other forms of pollution.

THIS IS THE END OF THE SAMPLE READING COMPREHENSION SECTION.

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,
GO BACK AND CHECK YOUR WORK IN THIS SECTION ONLY.