BITSAT From Brilliant Tutorials

 
BITSAT 2008
MTP 4/QNS
BRILLIANT’S
MOCK TEST 4 Test Booklet Code
FOR STUDENTS OF
D
OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSE
TOWARDS
BITSAT, 2008
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 450
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2
PART I: MATHEMATICS
1. If a = i A j A k , b = 4i A 3 j A 4k 3. Let n be an odd integer.

n
and c = i A α j A βk are linearly r
If sin nθ = ∑ b sin θ,
r
dependent vectors and c = 3 , then r=0
for every value of θ, then
(1) α = 1, β = − 1
(1) b0 = 1, b1 = 3
(2) α = 1, β = ± 1
(2) b0 = 0, b1 = n
(3) α = − 1, β = ± 1
(3) b0 = − 1, b1 = n
(4) α = ± 1, β = 1
(4) b0 = 0, b1 = n2 − 3n + 3
2. Let h(x) = f(x) − (f(x))2 + (f(x))3 for every
4. Number of divisors of the form
real number x. Then
4n + 2(n ≥ 0) of the integer 240 is
(1) h is increasing whenever f is
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 3
increasing
5. Let h(x) = min {x, x2}, for every real
(2) h is increasing whenever f is number of x. Then
decreasing
(1) h is not continuous
(3) h is decreasing whenever f is
increasing (2) h is differentiable for all x
(3) h′(x) = 0 for all x > 1

(4) nothing can be said in general
(4) h is not differentiable at two values
of x
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

3
6. If in a triangle PQR, sin P, sin Q, sin R are n

1
n
r
in A.P., then 9. If a =
n
∑ n
, then ∑ n
equals
r=0 C r=0 C
r r
(1) the altitudes are in A.P.
(1) (n − 1) an
(1) the altitudes are in H.P.
(2) nan
(3) the medians are in G.P.
1
(4) the medians are in A.P. (3) na
2 n
2
(4) None of the above
7. If f x = x B 1, for every real number x,
2
x A1 10. The number of common tangents to the
then the minimum value of f
circles x2 + y2 = 4 and x2 + y2 − 6x − 8y = 24
(1) does not exist because f is is
unbounded
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 4
(2) is not attained even though f is 11. If ω is an imaginary cube root of unity,
bounded
then (1 + ω − ω2)7 equals
(3) is equal to 1
(1) 128 ω (2) − 128 ω
(4) is equal to − 1
(3) 128 ω2 (4) − 128 ω2
8. Seven white balls and three black balls
x 1
are randomly placed in a row. The
probability that no two black balls are
12. If ∫ft dt = x A ∫ t f t dt, then the
0 x
placed adjacently equals
value of f(1) is
1 7 2 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1 1
2 15 15 3 (1) (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) −
2 2

4
13. If P(1, 2), Q(4, 6), R(5, 7) and S(a, b) are probability that 2 white and 1 black ball
the vertices of a parallelogram PQRS, will be drawn is
then
13 1 1 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) a = 2, b = 4 (2) a = 3, b = 4 32 4 32 16
(3) a = 2, b = 3 (4) a = 3, b = 0
17. Let Tr be the rth term of an A.P., for
14. For three vectors u , v , w which of the r = 1, 2, 3, . . . . If for some positive
following expressions is not equal to any 1
integers m, n, we have T = ,
m n
of the remaining three?
1 then T
T = , mn equals
(1) u ⋅ v × w (2) v × w ⋅ u n m
(3) v ⋅ u × w (4) u × v ⋅ w 1 1 1
(1) (2) A
mn m n
15. If f(x) = 3x − 5, then f−1 (x)
(3) 1 (4) 0
1
(1) is given by
3x B 5
18. If g (f(x)) = |sin x| and
x A 5 2
(2) is given by f(g(x)) = sin x , then
3
2
(3) does not exist because f is not one- (1) f x = sin x, g x = x
one
(2) f(x) = sin x, g(x) = |x|
(4) does not exist because f is not onto
16. If from each of the three boxes (3) f x = x 2 , g x = sin x

containing 3 white and 1 black, 2 white
and 2 black, 1 white and 3 black balls, (4) f and g cannot be determined
one ball is drawn at random, then the

5
22. Let f(x) = x − [x], for every real number x,

6i B 3i 1 where [x] is the integral part of x. Then
19. If 4 1
3i B 1 = x A iy, then
20 3 i
∫fx dx is
B1
(1) x = 3, y = 1 (2) x = 1, y = 3 1
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0 (4)
2
(3) x = 0, y = 3 (4) x = 0, y = 0
23. It the circle x2 + y2 = a2 intersects the
20. An n-digit number is a positive number hyperbola xy = c2 in four points P(x1, y1),
with exactly n digits. Nine hundred
Q(x2, y2), R(x3, y3), S(x4, y4), then which
distinct n-digit numbers are to be formed
of the following is not true?
using only the three digits 2, 5 and 7.
The smallest value of n for which this is (1) x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 = 0
possible is
(2) y1 + y2 + y3 + y4 = 1
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 9
21. If E and F are the complementary (3) x1 x2 x3 x4 = c4

events of events E and F respectively
(4) y1 y2 y3 y4 = c4
and if 0 < P(F) < 1, then
(1) P E| F A P E | F = 1 24. There are four machines and it is known

that exactly two of them are faulty.
(2) P E | F A P E | F = 1 They are tested, one by one, in a random
order till both the faulty machines are
(3) P E | F A P E | F = 1 identified. Then the probability that only
two tests are needed is
(4) P E | F A P E | F = 1
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 6 2 4

6
13
n nA1 29. The number of values of c such that the
25. The value of the sum ∑ i Ai , straight line y = 4x + c touches the curve
n=1
2
where i = B 1 , equals x 2
A y = 1 is
4
(1) i (2) i − 1 (3) − i (4) 0
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) infinite
26. Which of the following expressions are
meaningful? 30. The order of the differential equation
whose general solution is given by

(1) u⋅ v × w (2) u × v ⋅w x AC
y = (C1 + C2) cos (x + C3) + C4 e 5
(3) u ⋅ v × w (4) u × v⋅w where C1, C2, C3, C4, C5 are arbitrary
constants, is
27. If E and F are events with P(E) ≤ P(F) and
P(E ∩ F) > 0, then (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
(1) occurrence of E ⇒ occurrence of F 31. The diagonals of a parallelogram PQRS are

along the lines x + 3y = 4 and 6x − 2y = 7.
(2) occurrence of F ⇒ occurrence of E
Then PQRS will be a
(3) non-occurrence of E ⇒
(1) rectangle
non-occurrence of F
(2) square
(4) none of the above implications
holds (3) cyclic quadrilateral
28. A fair coin is tossed repeatedly. If tail
(4) rhombus
appears on first four tosses, then the
probability of head appearing on fifth 32. In a college of 300 students, every
toss equals students reads 5 news papers and every
news paper is read by 60 students. Then
1 1 31 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) the number of news papers is
2 32 32 5

7
(1) at least 30 (3) does not exist because x − 1 → 0
(2) at most 20 (4) does not exist because left hand

limit is not equal to right hand limit.
(3) exactly 25
37. If x > 1, y > 1, z > 1 are in G.P., then
(4) none of the above
1 1 1
, , are in
33. Let A0 A1 A2 A3 A4 A5 be a regular 1 A ln x 1 A ln y 1 A ln z
hexagon inscribed in a circle of unit (1) A.P.
radius. Then the product of the line
segments A0 A1, A0 A2 and A0 A4 is (2) H.P.
3 3 3 (3) G.P.
(1) (2) 3 3 (3) 3 (4)
4 2
(4) None of the above
34. If P = (x, y), F1 = (3, 0), F2 = (− 3, 0) and
38. The number of values of x in the
16x2 + 25y2 = 400, then PF1 + PF2 equals interval|0, 5π| satisfying the equation
3 sin2 × − 7 sin x + 2 = 0 is
(1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 12
(1) 0 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 10
35. The number of values of x where the
function f(x) = cos x + cos 2 x attains 39. If the vertices P, Q, R of a triangle PQR
its maximum is are rational points, which of the
following point of the triangle PQR may
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) infinite
not be a rational point?
1 B cos 2 x B 1 (1) Centroid (2) Incentre
36. Lim
x B 1
x→1
(3) Circumcentre (4) Orthocentre
(1) exists and it equals 2
(A rational point is a point both of whose
(2) exists and it equals − 2 co-ordinates are rational numbers.)

8
40. Which of the following number (s) is/are 43. A solution of the differential equation
rational? p2y + p(x − y) − x = 0 is
(1) sin 15° (2) cos 15° (1) x2 − y2 = c (2) y2 = 2x + c
(3) sin 15° cos 15° (4) sin 15° cos 75°
(3) y = x + c (4) x2 + y2 = c2
2
π
44. In the binomial expansion (a − b)n, n ≥ 5,
41. ∫ sin x dx = the sum of the 5th and 6th terms is zero.
0
nb B 5a
Then =
b
(1) π (2) 2π (3) 2π2 (4) π2
(1) 14 (2) 7 (3) 4 (4) 1
42. For the ellipse 3x2 + 4y2 = 5, if y + 3x = 0 is
one diameter, the conjugate diameter 45. Equation of the plane containing the
is (Note: Two diameters of an ellipse x B 3 y B 4 z B 5
line = = is
x
2
y
2 2 3 4
A = 1 are said to be conjugate
2 2
a b (1) 4x + 4y − 5z = 3
when each bisects all chords parallel to
the other). (2) 2x + 3y − 4z + 5 = 0
(1) 4y − x = 0 (2) 4y + x = 0 (3) 4x + 6y + 8z + 13 = 0
(3) y − 4x = 0 (4) y + 4x = 0 (4) x + 2y + z = 0

9
PART II: PHYSICS
46. For a short wave radio link between two 48. It is proposed to increase the Q of a
stations via the ionosphere, the ratio of coil. This can be done best by
the maximum usable frequency to the
critical frequency (1) operating at low frequency.
(1) is always less than 1 (2) increasing the diameter of wire.
(2) is always greater than 1 (3) increasing the diameter of coil.

< (4) adding a core of magnetic material
(3) may be 1 depending on the dist-
>
in compressed powder form.
ance between the two stations
49. In Compton effect, photons of wave-
(4) does not depend on the distance
between the two stations length λ and frequency υ scatter at
angle φ with modified wavelength λ′
47. A plane electromagnetic wave travelling
and frequency υ′ which of the following
along the + z-direction, has its electric
is true?
field given by
(1) λ′ − λ varies with φ and also with the
Ex = 2 cos (ωt) and
scatter
Ey = 2 cos (ωt + 90°)
(2) υ − υ′ is independent of the scatter-
The wave is ing material
(1) linearly polarised (3) λ′ − λ varies with φ in proportion to

(2) right circularly polarised (1 + cos φ)
(3) left circularly polarised (4) λ′ − λ is independent of the scatterer

but varies with φ
(4) elliptically polarised

10
50. In a laser source the emission from various (2)

atoms/molecules are coherent
(1) in phase only
(2) in direction of emission only
(3) in phase, direction and polarization

(3)
(4) in phase and polarization only
51. A cycle is shown in the p-V diagram.
(4)
52. Given the truth table relating Y to A, B,
The corresponding representation in a A B Y

T − S diagram will be 0 0 1
0 1 0
(1) 1 0 0
1 1 0
Then Y is given by
(1) A + B (2) AB
(3) AB (4) A A B

11
53. In the circuit shown, X, Y are inputs and (1) fy = 1.5 fx (2) fy = 2fx
Z is the output. The values of inputs for
which the output Z = 0 are (3) fy = fx (4) ft = 3fx
55. A satellite in a stable orbit contains two

closed vessels; one of these is filled with
hot steam and the other with water.
(i) The water exerts very little pressure

(1) X = 0, Y = 0 on its container.
(2) X = 0, Y = 1 (ii) The steam exerts almost the same

pressure as it would on Earth.
(3) X = 1, Y = 1
(iii) The water exerts the same pressure
(4) X = 1, Y = 0 as it would on Earth.
54. The frequency fy of the Lissajous figure is (iv) The steam exerts very little pressure
on its container.
(1) (i) and (ii) are correct
(2) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(3) only (ii) is correct
(4) All but (i) are correct
56. If the impedances of the series and

parallel combination of the coil with its
internal resistance are equal then

12
58. A capacitor remains connected to a

battery and a dielectric slab is slipped
between the plates. The energy will
increase due to
(1) increase of potential difference
(2) increase of electric field strength

1 1
(1) R = , X =
s R s X (3) increase of capacitance
p p
(4) none of the above

(2) R A X = R A X
s L p L
s p
59. When an electron in a hydrogen atom
2 2
moves from an orbit to another orbit of
(3) R = R 1A Q ,X =X 1A Q longer radius, which of the following
p s s p s s
decreases?
(4) R = R
2 1
1AQ ,X =X 1A (1) potential energy
p s s p s 2
Q
s
(2) total energy
57. A solid right-circular cylinder is placed (3) angular momentum

on a rough plane of inclination α to the
(4) rotational speed
horizontal. The least coefficient of friction
between the cylinder and the plane so 60. Newtons law of cooling can be deduced
that the cylinder rolls down (without from
sliding) is
(1) Wiens displacement law
(1) tan α (2) sin α
(2) Stefan-Boltzmann law
1 3
(3) tan α (4) tan α (3) The law of equipartition of energy
3 2
(4) Joule-Thomson effect

13
61. The probability of electrons being cap- 63. In the de Broglie hypothesis, waves are
tured by the nucleus is maximum for
(1) associated with particle at rest
(1) K shell electrons
(2) associated with a particle in motion
(2) L shell electrons (3) associated with a medium
(3) M shell electrons (4) not at all involved
(4) same for all shells 64. In Rutherfords scattering formula, the
scattering cross section for angle θ is
62. In a plane transmission grating proportional to
4 θ
(1) sin
2
B4 θ
(2) sin
2
2 θ 2 θ
(3) sin cos
a = b, then 2 2
(1) the second order spectrum will be 4 θ

(4) cot
absent 2
(2) first order spectrum will be absent 65. A p-type silicon sample has conductivity
compared to an n-type sample having
(3) spectra up to third order can be the same dopant concentration
obtained
(1) higher (2) zero
(4) no spectrum will be obtained
(3) infinite (4) less

14
66. Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of Codes

light emitting diodes because it is
A B C D
(1) an indirect band gap semiconductor (1) 1 2 3 4
(2) a direct band gap semiconductor (2) 3 4 2 1
(3) a wide band gap semicoductor (3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 4 3 2 1
(4) a narrow band gap semiconductor
68. Consider the following statements on
67. Match the waveforms and the form
negative feedback.
factors (FFs).
(i) It reduces the gain
Waveforms Form
(ii) It enhances noise and distortion
factors
A. 1. 1 (iii) It decreases the input impedance
(iv) It increases the bandwidth
Choose the correct statements from
above:
B. 2. 1.15
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) (2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) only (iv)
69. In a transofrmer if the transfer of energy

C. 3. 1.11
occurs at the same voltage, then the
transformer is
(1) current transformer
D. 4. 1.57 (2) potential transformer

(3) isolating transformer
(4) step-up transformer

15
70. In post office box, the graph of galvano- (1) S1 only true
meter deflection versus resistance R
(pulled out of resistance box) for the (2) S2 only true
ratio 100 : 1 is given as shown (due to
unsuitable values of R, galvanometer (3) Both S1, S2 are true
shows deflection). The two consecutive
(4) Neither S1 nor S2 is true
values of R are shown in the Figure:
72. A 100 MHz carrier wave is frequency
modulated by a 10 kHz signal. The peak
frequency deviation is 60 kHz
Column I Column II
(a) Maximum carrier (i) 99.94
frequency (MHz)
(b) Minimum carrier (ii) 6
The value of unknown resistance would frequency (MHz)
be (c) Frequency swing (iii) 120
(1) 3.2 Ω (2) 3.24 Ω (kHz)
(d) Modulation index (iv) 100.06
(3) 3.206 Ω (4) 3.2375 Ω
(rad)
71. Given two statements for resonance tube Then match them
method:
(1) (a-iv) (b-i) (c-iii) (d-ii)
S1: Lower frequency tuning fork will require
large tube to obtain two successive (2) (a-i) (b-ii) (c-iii) (d-iv)
resonance positions.
(3) (a-ii) (b-iii) (c-iv) (d-i)
S2: Higher frequency fork gives resonance
positions for relatively small length of (4) (a-iii) (b-iv) (c-ii) (d-i)
air column.

16
73. In the measurement of three quantities (3) both S1 and S2 are correct
A, B, C it is stated as A = 2 ± 0.005,
B = 1 ± 0.001, C = 4 ± 0.01. Then, the (4) neither S1 nor S2 is correct
A
percentage error in P = is 75. Which of the following has 3 significant
B
figures?
(1) ± 0.35 (2) ± 0.6
(1) 15.7 (2) 1040
(3) ± 1.05 (4) ± 0.7
(3) 1.57 (4) all of above
74. Given two statements about a faulty
physical balance: 76. Which of the following relations correctly
represent the work done under the indi-
S1: If the masses of the left and right cator diagram shown?
pans are m1 and m2 and if M1 and
M2 are measured masses of a block
placed successively in left and right
pan then actual mass is M = M1 M2.
S2: If l1 and l2 are lengths of left and

right arm of the balance, then
M AM (1) WP > WQ > WR > WS

1 2
M =
2
(2) WQ > WR > WP > WS
(1) only S1 is correct
(3) WP < WQ > WR > WS
(2) only S2 is correct
(4) WQ > WR > WP < WS

17
77. Induction furnace is based on the heating (iv) The base dop-
effect of ing concentra-
tion is increa-
(1) magnetic field
sed keeping
(2) eddy current the ratio of the
emitter doping
(3) electric field concentration
to base doping
(4) electrostatic field concentration
constant
78. Match the following.
(1) (a-i) (b-iii) (c-i)

Column I Column II
(a) The current (i) The collector (2) (a-ii) (b-iii) (c-i)
gain of a BJT doping
will be concentration (3) (a-iii) (b-i) (c-ii)
increased if is increased
(4) (a-ii) (b-ii) (c-iii)
(b) The current (ii) The base width
gain of a BJT is reduced
79. During a negative β-decay
gain of a BJT
will be (1) an electron which is already present
reduced if within the nucleus is ejected
(c) The break- (iii) The emitter
down doping con- (2) a neutron in the nucleus decays
voltage of a centration to emitting an electron
BJT will be base doping
(3) a part of the binding energy of the
reduced if concentration
nucleus is converted into an electron
ratio is reduced
(4) an atomic electron is ejected

18
80. An audio signal given by 15 sin 2π (2000 t) 84. Shown are 3 lens systems
amplitude modulates a sinusoidal carrier
wave 60 sin 2π (100,000) t. The modulation
index is
(1) 1 (2) 0.25 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.33
81. A force of F = 3 i A c j A 2k acting on a

particle causes a displacement of
s = B 4 i A 2 j A 3k in its own direction. If
the work done is 6 j , then the value of c
All curved surfaces have same radii of
is
curvature. The equivalent focal lengths
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 6 (4) 12 are in ratio fa : fb : fc as
82. Two rods each of mass m and length l (1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2 : 1

are joined at centre to form a cross. The
moment of inertia of this cross about an (3) 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 : 1
axis passing through the common centre
of the rods and perpendicular to the 85. A silver voltmeter of resistance 2 Ω and a
plane formed by them, is 3 Ω resistor are connected in series across
a cell. If a resistance of 2 Ω is connected
2 2
(1) ml (2) ml in parallel with the silver voltmeter, then
12 6 the rate of deposition of silver will
2 2
(1) decrease by 37.5%
(3) ml (4) ml
3 2
(2) decrease by 73%
83. A uniform cube is subjected to volume
compression. If each side is increased (3) increase by 50%
by 0.01%, then bulk strain is
(4) decrease by 50%
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.06 (3) 0.02 (4) 0.03

19
PART III: CHEMISTRY
86. Which of the following statement is (3) intermolecular forces

wrong?
(4) total energies
(1) Two p-orbitals always overlap laterally.
89. The terminal velocity of a small sized
(2) A sigma bond has no free rotation spherical body of radius r falling
around its axis. vertically in a viscous liquid varies with
(3) There can be more than one sigma 1 1

(1) (2) (3) r (4) r2
bond between two atoms. 2 r
r
(4) All of these. 90. Zinc and aluminium metals produces

hydrogen gas with dilute H2SO4. The
87. The compound having a tetrahedral
geometry is ratio of moles of H2 produced when
1 mole of each reacts with excess
B2 B2
(1) Ni CN (2) Pd CN dilute H2SO4 will be
4 4
(1) 1 : 1.5 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 2
B2 B2
(3) PdCl (4) NiCl
4 4 91. For the redox reaction
B1 B2 A
88. At its boiling point, a liquid is in xMnO A yC O A zH →
4 2 4
equilibrium with its vapours. On an
average, the molecules in the two Mn+2 + CO2 + H2O, the correct stoichio-
phases have equal metric coefficients x, y and z are
respectively
(1) kinetic energies
(1) 2, 5, 16 (2) 16, 5, 2
(2) potential energies
(3) 5, 16, 2 (4) 2, 16, 5

20
92. For a reaction to be spontaneous at all (1) rate = k[O3]2

temperatures
(2) rate = k[O3]2 [O2]+
(1) ∆G and ∆H should be negative
(3) rate = k[O3][O2]
(2) ∆G = ∆H = 0
(3) ∆G and ∆H should be positive (4) rate = k[O3]−2
(4) ∆G = ∆H 95. Which one is zero order reaction among

the following?
93. Which of the following is correct for the
equilibrium of the following reaction? H+ CH COOH
(1) CH3COOC2H5 → 3
+ CH3CH2OH
C(graphite) + H2O(g) CO(g) + H2(g)
H+ Glucose
(2) C12 H22 O11(aq) →
(1) pH2 ∝ pH2O
+ Fructose
(2) pH2 ∝ pH O
2 (3) CH3COOC2H5 + NaOH →
CH3COONa + CH3CH2OH
(3) pH2 ∝ p2H2O
Au
(4) NH3(g) → N + 3H2(g)
(4) pH2 ∝ p2 H2O/pCO. Powder 2(g)
96. The oxidation numbers of oxygen in
94. The chemical reaction,
KO2, OF2, H2O2 are respectively
2O3(g) → 3O2(g) proceeds as given
below (1) − 2, − 2, − 2
O3(g) O2(g) + [O] fast, (2) + 2, − 1, + 1
2[O] + O2 → 2O2(g) slow. (3) − 1/2, + 2, − 1
The rate law expression is (4) − 1, + 2, + 1

21
97. Among the following anions, the 100. In the following galvanic cell,
strongest Bronsted base is (m = concentration (1 m))
B2
(1) cations migrate to the cathode
(1) ClO B1 (2) ClO and are reduced on the cathode
2
surface.
B1 B1
(3) ClO (4) ClO (2) anions migrate to the cathode and
3 4
are reduced on the anode.
98. Which is a false statement? (3) Zn and Cu dissolved as a result of
reaction.
(1) Work is a state function.
(4) Zn+2 and Cu+2 ions react with each
(2) Work appears at the boundary of
other to give complex ions.
the system.
101. The cause of Brownian movement is
(3) Temperature is a state function. due to
(1) heat change in liquid state.
(4) Enthalpy is an extensive property.
(2) convectional current.
99. Which of the following statements is
(3) the collision of the molecules of the
wrong for a zero order reaction?
dispersion medium with dispersed
(1) The rate is independent of the particles.
concentration of the reactants. (4) the attractive forces between the
colloidal particles and molecules
(2) The half-life of the reaction
of the dispersion medium.
depends on the concentrations of
the reactants. 102. In a body-centred cubic packing of
equal sized spheres, the maximum
(3) The rate is independent of the radius of a sphere that can fit into the
temperature of the reaction. void is
(4) The rate constant has the unit of (1) 0.154 R (2) 0.225 R
mol−1 s−1. (3) 0.414 R (4) 0.747 R

22
103. An inorganic substance liberates O2(g) 106. Which of the following statements is
on heating, turns acidified KI(aq) to wrong?
brown colour solution and decolorise (1) The molecular formula of
acidified KMnO4 solution. The substance tetramethyl silane is (CH3)4 SiH4.
may be (2) SiCl4 undergoes hydrolysis due to
(1) K2CrO4 (2) H2O2 the presence of empty d-orbitals in
Si.
(3) Cl2 (4) KClO3 (3) Fluorosilicic acid (H2SiF6) is a strong
104. When borax (Na2B4O7) dissolved in acid, exist only in solution.
water, B2
(4) The octahedral SiF ion is the only
6
(1) only B(OH)3 is formed. halogen complex of silicon which
involves sp3d2 hybridisation.
B
(2) only B OH 4
is formed. 107. Which of the following statements is
correct?
B
A B
(3) both B(OH)3 and B OH are (1) N2O5 solid exist as NO NO
4 2 3
formed. (nitronium nitrate).
A
(4) both B(OH)3 and B2O3 are formed. (2) The nitronium ion NO is
2
105. The carbon atoms in diamond are isoelectronic with CO2 and are
bonded to each other in isostructural (V shape).
B
(1) a linear configuration (3) The nitrate ion NO has a
3
(2) a planar configuration T-shaped structure.

B
(3) an octahedral configuration (4) The NO ion has a pyramidal
2
(4) a tetrahedral configuration structure.

23
108. The metallic sulphide with highest 111. Hypo solution is used in photography for
solubility product value (Ksp) in water at fusing films. Its function is to
278 K is undecomposed
(1) PbS (2) CuS (3) Ag2S (4) ZnS (1) remove the the reduced silver
metal by forming a soluble complex.
109. A greenish yellow poisonous gas reacts
with alkali metal hydroxide to form a (2) remove the undecomposed AgBr
B
by forming a soluble complex.
halate XO which is used in firework
3
(3) remove bromine forming a soluble
and safety matches. The gas and the
salt.
halate respectively are
(4) decompose AgBr to metal Ag and
(1) Br2 and KBrO3
bromine.
(2) Cl2 and KClO3 112. Calcium cyanamide is produced by
heating
(3) I2 and KIO3
(1) calcium carbide in an electric
(4) Cl2 and KClO4
furnace in nitrogen atmosphere at
110. The XeF6 molecule is 1100°C.
(2) quick lime with nitrogen at 1000°C.

(1) tetrahedral with one lone pair of
electrons. (3) gypsum with coke and nitrogen in
(2) octahedral with one lone pair of electric furnace.
electrons.
(4) limestone with NH3 and coke at
(3) capped octahedral with one lone 2000°C.
pair of electrons.
(4) capped octahedral with two lone

pair of electrons.

24
113. ZnSO4 on boiling with NaHCO3 solution 116. The IUPAC name of
produces CO NH Cr CN is
3 6 6
(1) ZnCO3 (1) hexaamminecobalt (III),

hexacyanochromium (VI)
(2) Zn(OH)2
(2) hexaamminecobalt (III),
(3) ZnCO3 ⋅ Zn(OH)2 hexacyanochromate (III)
(4) Na2ZnO2 (3) hexacyanochromium (III),

hexaamminecobalt (III)
114. Which of the following statements is (4) hexacyanochromium cobalt
wrong? hexaammine (VI)
(1) Lead salts are poisonous to living 117. The IUPAC name of the insecticide
system.
represented by the structural formula
(2) Metal lead is used in lead
accumulation.
is
(3) Lead is corroded by water in
presence of dissolved oxygen is
known as plumbo solvency.
(4) Lead is a good conductor of

electricity. (1) dichloro diphenyl trichloroethane
(2) trichloromethyl-bis-(4-chlorophenyl)
115. Stainless steel contains
methane
(1) Fe, Cr, Ni, C (2) Fe, Al
(3) 1, 1, 1-trichloro-2, 2-bis-
(3) Fe, Mn, Cr (4) Fe, Co, Ni (4-chlorophenyl) ethane
(4) 2, 2, 2-trichloro-1, 1-bis-

(4-chlorophenyl) ethane

25
118. Ethylenedichloride and ethylidene 120. The products A, B and C of the

dichloride are following reactions are respectively
(1) geometrical isomers
(2) nuclear isomers
(3) position isomers

(1) CH3OH, CH2BrCOOH,
(4) anomers CH2ClCOOH
119. The products of the following reaction
(2) CH3CH2OH, CH2BrCOOH,
A, B and C are respectively
CH3COCl
(3) CH3CH2OH, CH3COBr, CH3COCl
(4) CH3OH, CH2BrCOOH, CH3COCl
121. The products A, B and C of the

(1) CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2 − O − CH3,
following reactions are respectively
CH3CH2CN
(2) CH3CH2OH, CH3CH2COONa,

CH3CH2NC
(3) CH2 = CH2, CH3CH2 − O − CH3,

(1) CH3CN, CH3COOH, CH3NH2
CH3CH2NC
(2) CH3COOH, CH3COOH, CH3NH2
(4) CH ≡ CH, CH3CH2OCH3,
CH3CH2CN (3) CH3CN, CH3OH, CH3NH2
(4) CH3CN, CH3CH2OH, CH3NH2

26
122. The products A, B and C of the following reactions are respectively
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27
123. Match the List I with List II and select the 124. Match the List I with List II and select the
correct answers from the codes given correct answers using the codes given
below the list: below the list:
List I List II List I List II

A. Insecticide P. A. Pyrene P. CCl3NO2
B. Calgon Q. Na2[Na4(PO3)6]
C. Chloropicrin R. CCl4
B. Germicide Q. C17H35 COONa
D. Hypnotic S. C6H6Cl6
C. Miscelle R. AgNO3
T. Barbituric acid
D. Lyophobic S. C6H6Cl6 derivatives
sol Codes
T. Colloidal gold
A B C D
Codes
(1) R Q T P
A B C D
(2) S R Q P
(1) S T Q P
(3) R Q P T
(2) S P Q T
(4) S Q T P
(3) S R Q P
(4) P S Q R

28
125. Match the List I with List II and select the Codes
correct answer from the codes given
A B C D
below the list:
(1) P S T Q
List I List II
(Test for) (Observation) (2) S R P Q
A. Phenol P. evolution of NH3
(3) S T P Q
with hot alkali
B. Mono- Q. evolution of H2 (4) S P T Q
carboxylic with Grignard
acid reagent
C. Amide R. evolution of H2
with zinc
D. Acidic S. purple colour
hydrogen with neutral
FeCl3
T. effervescence
with hot
aqueous
NaHCO3

29
PART IV: ENGLISH PROFICIENCY AND LOGICAL REASONING
(a) ENGLISH PROFICIENCY (3) strong and hard working.
Directions for questions 126 to 128: Read the (4) a group of boys and girls who are
following passage carefully and answer the obedient and dutiful.
questions that follow.
127. What does the phrase morally of right
The young are those to whom we look for stature mean?
future strength and for future good; and the
(1) Being highly educated
longer we live, the more anxious we become
that they who are to be the fresh recruits (2) Having a good personality
should be morally of right stature. Around
(3) Having rectitude
them are peculiar temptations and trials,
witching, cunning, insidious and forceful and (4) Feeling superior to others
we are obliged to see thousands falling by the
way, whose fall seems and needless. They like 128. Which one of the following is correct?
ourselves, are to have but one chance in life. The failure of many a young men and
We who are somewhat advanced in years, women is
seeing how many perils there are round about (1) well deserved
that one chance, feel an earnest desire that
every advantage should be given to those (2) unwarranted
who are coming onto fill our places. We can
(3) fortuitous
live but once, and life is usually moulded and
takes its shape very early. (4) sad
126. Which one of the following is correct? Directions for questions 129 to 133: Each
The author looks upon the young as question below has a word capitalised
followed by four words or phrases numbered 1
(1) handsome and healthy.
to 4. Choose the word that has nearly the same
(2) an embodiment of possibilities. meaning as the capitalised word.

30
129. USURP Direction for questions 134 to 136: Each of the

following sentence has a mistake in grammar
(1) to be lazy
usage or idiom. Each sentence is broken up
(2) to climb into four parts sequentially 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Choose that part which has an error and mark
(3) to seize power or position illegally accordingly.
(4) to yield 134. (1) The carpet was badly stained

130. MERCURIAL
(2) to such an extent
(1) mechanical (2) heavy
(3) that you could nt tell
(3) clownish (4) quick-changing
(4) its original colour
131. ALLEVIATE
(1) to release (2) to lessen 135. (1) It is greatly to toms credit
(3) to deprive (4) to deceive (2) that he gave back
132. EXTENUATE (3) the money he found
(1) to lessen in degree

(4) his honesty does for him credit
(2) to express
136. (1) A terrific hue and cry
(3) suggest
(2) was raised
(4) object
(3) at the new tax proposals
133. RECTITUDE
(1) refuse (2) integrity (4) no error
(3) reaching out (4) revenge

31
Directions for questions 137 and 138: Each 140. A person who believes that ideas have
sentence below has a blank space indicating value only in terms of their practical
that something has been left out. Following consequence and that practical results
each sentence four words are given. Choose are the sole test of the truth or validity
the word that makes the sentence meaningful. of beliefs.
137. In the 20th century, physicists have (1) realist (2) optimist
made their greatest discoveries about
the characteristics of ___________ (3) pragmatist (4) utopian
objects like the atom and its parts.
(1) infinitesimal (2) infinite (b) LOGICAL REASONING
(3) microscopic (4) kaleidoscope

Directions for questions 141 to 144: In each of
138. His moral decadence was marked by
the following questions a pair of words with
his __________ from the ways of integrity certain relationship between them is given
and honesty. followed by four pairs numbered 1 to 4. Select
(1) declivity (2) obsession the pair wherein the words have closest
relationship to the original pair.
(3) opprobrium (4) departure
141. EDUCATION : DEVELOPMENT ::
Directions for questions 139 and 140: In each
of the following questions, out of the four
(1) Man : Speech (2) Nutrition : Health
alternatives given, choose the one which can
be substituted for the given words or sentence. (3) Game : Play (4) Child : Growth
139. A person, such as a teacher, army
142. HOUSE : ROOM ::
officer etc., who believes in and enforces
strict discipline.
(1) Struggle : Fight (2) Transport : Car
(1) maudlin (2) martinet
(3) School : College (4) Boy : Girl
(3) maverick (4) malthusian

32
143. GILL : FIN :: E. Around 50 Chinese children attend

classes every week to learn the intri-
(1) Salad : Rice
cacies of the classical dance.
(2) Sea : Fish
F. Now classical Indian dance has
(3) Kill : Bomb
caught the imagination of the
(4) Question : Team Chinese.
144. BREAK : PIECE ::
(1) AFBDCE (2) ECDFBA
(1) Writer : Pen
(3) ABFDCE (4) EDCBFA
(2) Bread : Bake
(3) Kick : Football 146. A. Our leaders decided to move towards
progress through five year plans.
(4) Muddy : Unclear
Directions for questions 145 to 147: In each B. In the years that followed Indepen-
question you find a set of sentences arranged dence, India had to tackle many
in a haphazard way. Choose the correct problems.
arrangement of sentences as indicated by
C. We have decided to be a
the number to make a coherent paragraph.
democracy and we have continued
145. A. Indian films, cuisine and yoga have to remain so.
always been popular in China.
D. This path was laid down in the
B. 33 year old Jin Shan Shan, a Jawahar- constitution we gave ourselves.
lal University alumnus is actively pro-
moting Bharatnatyam among her E. Sixty years have gone by and we
compatriots. have grown as a nation in many ways.
C. She has established a school for F. Leaders like Nehru and Ambedkar
Bharatnatyam in China. set the course our country was to take.
D. It has always been a passion for her
(1) EFDCBA (2) BEACDF
to become an exponent of Bharat-
natyam. (3) BEDAFC (4) BDEACF

33
147. A. However, there may be times when 148. (1) Rectangle

enforcement of norms and limits
(2) Rhombus
leads to conflicts.
(3) Square
B. Norms and limits help children learn
mutual respect, responsibility and (4) Circle
cooperation.
(5) Trapezium
C. Conflict resolution tools which can
be used include decision-making, Direction for question 149: Select the figure
communication skills, managing which does not belong to the group.
aggressive behaviour and forgive-
ness.
D. Therefore, we need to understand

conflicts and learn how to resolve
them effectively. 150. Choose the figure from the five
alternatives 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 that can be
E. Understanding conflicts is important
when trying to comprehend concepts formed by joining the figures given in
of positive discipline and physical box marked (X).
and psychological punishment.
F. Conflict is a part of everybodys life.
(1) EFDCAB (2) CBDFEA
(3) DACFBE (4) BADCFE
Direction for question 148: In the following

question, four out of the five alternatives are
similar and form a group. Find the odd one
that does not belong to the group.

34

1

BITSAT 2008
BRILLIANT’S MTP 4/SOLNS
MOCK TEST 4
FOR STUDENTS OF
OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSE
TOWARDS
BITSAT, 2008
SOLUTIONS
PART I: MATHEMATICS
1. (4)
2 2 ∴ h increases with y or h is increasing
| c| = 3 ⇒ 1A α Aβ = 3
whenever f(x) is increasing or
⇒ α2 + β 2 = 2 equivalently h is decreasing when-
ever f(x) is decreasing.
a , b, c are linearly dependent
3. (2) sin θ = Imaginary part of
⇒ c = xa A yb
(cos θ + i sin θ)n
⇒ i A α j A βk
= nC1 cosn − 1 θ sin θ
= x i A j A k A y 4i A 3 j A 4k
− nC3 cosn − 3 θ sin3 θ + . . .
x A 4y = 1
x A 3y = α n B1
2 2
x A 4y = β = n 1 B sin θ sin θ
⇒ β = 1 and α2 = 2 − β2 = 2 − 1 = 1 n B 3
n 2 2
α=±1
C 1 B sin θ
3
sin3 θ + . . .
2. (1) h(x) = y − y2 + y3 where y = f(x) = n sin θ + a sin3 θ + b sin5 θ + . . .

dh 2
= 3y B 2y A 1
dy = b0 + b1 sin θ + b2 sin2 θ + . .
2
Comparison gives b0 = 0 and b1 = n
1 2
= 3 y B A >0
3 3
◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 4/Obj/Solns - 1

2
4. (1) 240 = 24 × 3 × 5 2
x B 1 2
7. (4) f x = =1B
2 2
Factors of 240 are the terms of x A 1 x A 1
(1 + 2 + 22 + 23 + 24) (1 + 3) (1 + 5)
2
4n + 2 = 2 (2n + 1) = 2 × odd number. min f(x) ←→ max →
2
x A1
Such factors are 2 × 1, 2 × 3, 2 × 5,
min (x2 + 1) which corresponds to
2 × 15 x=0
These are four in number. ∴ minimum f(x) = − 1
2
5. (4) h(x) = min {x, x } for all x implies 8. (2) First arrange the seven white (all
different) balls in a row in 7 ways
x for B ∞ < x ≤ 0
and then arrange the three black
h x = 2
x for 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 balls in 8 (6 interspaces plus two
x for 1 ≤ x < ∞ outside spaces) in 8P3 ways
h(x) is continuous at 0 and 1 and 8
hence for all x. 7 × p
3 7
p = =
h(x) is not differentiable at x = 0 10 15
and at x = 1 9. (3) It is given that
1 1 1
a = A AwA .
n n n n
C C C
0 1 n
n
r
Let S = ∑ n
r=0 C
r
h′ (0 − ) = 1 and h′(0 + ) = 0
0 1 2
h′ (1 − ) = 2 and h′(1 + ) = 1 = A A
n n n
C C C
0 1 2
Also h′(x) = 1 for all x > 1
n
6. (2) If the sides of the ∆ are p, q, r then AwA
n
C
sin P, sin Q, sin R are in A.P ⇒ p, q, r n
are in A.P. (since p∝ sin P etc.) n n B1 n B 2

= A A
n n n
∆ ∆ ∆ C C C
⇒ , , are in A.P. 0 1 2
PD QE RF
0
AwA
since 1 p ⋅PD = 1 q⋅QE n
C
2 2 n
1 n n n
= r ⋅RF = ∆ 2S = A AwA
2 n n n
C C C
0 1 n
1 1 1
⇒ , , are in A.P.
PD QE RF n
⇒ S = ⋅a
2 n
⇒ altitudes are in H.P.

3
10. (2) x2 + y2 = 22 and (x − 3)2 + (y − 4)2 = 72 Case III ; B W W

touch internally, d = r1 − r2 = 5 1 2 1
p = × ×
3 4 4 4
Number of common tangents = 1
26 13
∴ p = p Ap Ap = =
11. (4) (1 + ω − ω2)7 = ( − 2ω2)7 = − 128 ω14 1 2 3 64 32
= − 128 ω2 1 1
17. (3) T = ⇒ = a A n B1 d
n m m
x 1
12. (1) ∫ f t dt = x A ∫ t f t dt 1 1
0 x T = ⇒ = a A m B1 d
m n n
Differentiating w.r.t.x by Leibnitz
rule 1 1
Solving a = and d =
1 {f(x)} = 1 − {xf(x)} 1 mn mn
1 1 ∴ Tmn = a + (mn − 1) d
∴f x = and f 1 =
1A x 2
1 1
13. (3) Equating slopes of PQ and RS, = A mn B 1 = 1
mn mn
b B7 4
= or 4a − 3b = − 1.
a B 5 3
18. (1) If f(x) = sin2 x and g(x) = x
Equating slopes of PS and RQ,
b B 2 1
= or a − b = − 1 2
a B1 1 f g x = f x = sin x
∴ a = 2 and b = 3 2 2
g f x = g sin x = sin x = sin x
14. (3) A, B, D are all equal as they
represent box product uvw 3 and 2 do not fit, on verification.
whereas c → v⋅ u × w = B u v w
6i B 3i 1 6i A 4 0 0
19. (4) 4 3i B 1 = 4 3i B 1
y A 5
15. (2) Let y = 3x − 5; Then x = ; 20 3 i 20 3 i
3
Interchanging x and y, we get
= (6i + 4) (3i2 + 3) = 0
x A 5 B1 x A 5
y = ∴ f x =
3 3
∴ x + iy = 0 ⇒ x = 0, y = 0
16. (1) Case I ; W W B
20. (2) Each digit can be any one of 2, 5, 7,
3 2 3
p = × × thus each digit can have 3 values.
1 4 4 4
Hence there are 3n, distinct n digit
Case II ; W B W numbers. 3n > 900 ⇒ n ≥ 7 since,
3 2 1 36 = 729.
p = × ×
2 4 4 4

4
21. (1) F∩E ∪ F∩E = F∩ E ∪E = F∩X = F ∴ ∑x1 = c∑t1 = 0
Also F∩E and F∩E are disjoint. 1 c

∑ y 1 = c∑ t
=
t t t t
∑t1t2t3 = 0
1 1 2 3 4
∴ P F∩E A P F∩E = P F
x1x2x3x4 = c4 ⋅ t1t2t3t4 = c4
P F∩E P F∩E
∴ A =1
P F P F 4
c 4
y y y y = = c
1 2 3 4 t t t t
E E 1 2 3 4
i.e. P AP =1
F F
24. (2) Since only two tests are needed,
Similar result is true if F is replaced one faulty machine should be
by F . caught in the first test and the
other one in the second test
22. (1) If f(x) = x − [x]
then f(x) = x − ( − 1) = x + 1 in ( − 1, 0) 2 1 1
∴ p = × =
4 3 6
= x − 0 = x in (0, 1)
13 13
n n A1
25. (2) ∑ i A ∑ i
1 0
∴ ∫fx dx = ∫ x A 1 dx
n=1 n=1
B1 B1 13 2 13
i1B i i 1 Bi
1 = A
1B i 1Bi
A ∫ x dx
0 2
i A i 1 Bi
= =B 1A i
0 1 1 Bi
2 2
x x
= A x A = 1 26. (1) u⋅ v × w is meaningful.
2 B1
2 0
27. (4) The first three choices demand either
23. (2) Any point on xy = c2 is c E ⊂ F or F ⊂ E which are not implied
ct,
t
by P(E) ≤ P(F) and P(E∩F) > 0
Point of intersection are given by
28. (1) Each toss is independent of the
2
2 2 c 2 earlier tosses and hence the
c t A = a
2 probability of head appearance
t
1
in the fifth toss =
2 4 2 2 2
c t − a t + c = 0 with roots t1, t2, 2
t3, t4 29. (3) y = mx + c touches the ellipse

2 2
∴ ∑t1 = 0, ∑t1t2 = − a2; ∑t1t2t3 = 0; x
A
y
= 1 if c = ± a m A b .
2 2 2
2 2
t1t2t3t4 = 1 a b
This is only a numerical example.

5
30. (3) y = A cos (x + B) + Cex where C1 + C2 A A = A A = 3

0 4 0 2
C
= A and C4 e 5 = C. Thus there are
∴ A A A A A A
only three arbitrary constants and 0 1 0 2 0 4
hence the differential equation will

be of 3rd order. = 1⋅ 3 3 = 3
y′ = − A sin (x + B) + Cex x
2
y
2
34. (3) A = 1 is the ellipse with a = 5,
25 16
y″ = − A cos (x + B) + Cex
3
b = 4, e =
x 5
y′″ = A sin (x + B) + Ce
x ∴ ae = 3
y A y″ 2Ce
∴ = =1
y′ A y′″ x
2Ce ∴ (3, 0) and ( − 3, 0) are the foci.
or y′′′ − y″ + y′ − y = 0 is the ∴ PF1 + PF2 = 2a = 10

differential equation.
35. (2) f x = cos x A cos 2 x attains its
31. (4) Slope of PR × slope of QS
maximum value 2 when x = 0; If
1 6 x = 2π or any even multiple of π,
= B × =B 1
3 2 2 x = 2 2 n π and cos 2 2 n π ≠ 1 .
Diagonals are at right angles Similarly, if 2x = 2mπ, x = 2mπ

⇒ parallelogram is a rhombus. and cos x ≠ 1. The only value of x
for which f(x) is maximum is x = 0.
32. (3) Number of newspapers
1 B cos 2 x B 1
300 × 5 36. (4) lim
= = 25 x B 1
60 x→1
33. (3) A A A = 30° 2

1 0 2 2 sin y
= lim
y
y→0
∴ A A = 2⋅1 ⋅ cos 30° = 3
0 2
2 sin y
= lim
Y
y→0
= 2 if y → 0 A
B 2 if y → 0 B
Hence the left hand and right

hand limits are unequal and
therefore limit does not exist.

6
37. (2) x, y, z in G.P. and sin 15° ⋅ cos 75° = sin2 15°
⇒ y2 = xz 2
⇒ 2 log y = log x + log z. 3B 1 2B 2

= =
2 2 4
⇒ ln x, ln y, ln z are in A.P. are irrational.
⇒ 1 + ln x, 1 + ln y, 1 + lnz are in A.P.
2
⇒ their reciprocals are in H.P. π π
41. (2) ∫ sin x dx = ∫ 2t sint dt,
2
38. (3) 3 sin x − 7 sin x + 2 = 0 0 t=0
⇒ (3 sin x − 1) (sin x − 2) = 0 by putting x = t2

1
⇒ sin x = only. Hence x = α π
3 π
B1 1
= 2 t B cos t 0
B ∫ B cos t A 1 dt
= sin ; π − α, 2π + α, 3π − α, 0
3
1 π
4π + α, 5π − α, satisfy sin x = ; six
= 2 π A sin t = 2π
3 0
values.
2 2
x y
42. (1) A =1
x A x A x 5 5
1 2 3
39. (2) (i) Centroid = , 3 4
3
y A y A y 2
1 2 3 is a rational point. m0 = − 3, m1 m0 = B b
3 2
a
(ii) Equations of altitudes will 5

2
contain only rational coefficient b 4
⇒ m =B =B
and hence the orthocentre will 1 2 5
a m B3
0
also be a rational point. 3
(iii) Similar argument gives the 1

= .
circumcentre to be a rational point. 4
Hence the equations of the

(iv) The length of the sides a, b, c
may not be rational and hence 1
conjugate diameter is y = x.
4
the incentre may not be a rational
point. i.e., 4y − x = 0
1 1 43. (4) p2y + p(x − y) − x = 0

40. (3) sin 15° cos 15° = sin 30° = .
2 4
2
y B x ± x B y A 4xy
The other three are ⇒ p =
2y
3B1 3A1
sin 15° = , cos 15° =
2 2 2 2

7
y B x± x A y x nB5 4 n n B1 n B2 n B3
= = 1 or B ⇒a b
2y y 24
dy x nB4 b
If = B , then x dx + y dy = 0 a B = 0
dx y 5
⇒ x2 + y2 = c2 ⇒ 5a − nb + 4b = 0
44. (3) T5 + T6 = 0
nb B 5a
⇒ = 4
b
⇒ n C 4 an − 4 b 4 − n C 5 an − 5 b 5 = 0
45. (1) (3, 4, 5) satisfies 4x + 4y − 5z = 3 and
(2, 3, 4) ⋅ (4, 4, − 5) = 0.

8
PART II: PHYSICS
46. (2) P R
= , where S is unknown
Q S
47. (3) resistance
48. (4) Q P
S= × R [Here, = 100 given]
P Q
49. (3)
From the given graph the galva-
50. (3) nometer shows zero deflection at
51. (2) − R = 323.75 = 324 Ω [upto 3 signifi-
cant digits].
52. (4)
So, S = 3.24 Ω
53. (3)
71. (3)
54. (1)
72. (1) (a) fmax = 100 MHz + 60 kHz
55. (1)
= 100.06 MHz
56. (4) fmin = 100 MHz − 60 kHz
57. (3)
= 99.94 MHz
58. (3) (b) Frequency swing = 2 × 60
59. (4) = 120 kHz
60. (2) (c) mf = 60/10 = 6 rad
61. (1) ∆P ∆A ∆B
73. (1) ×100 = ± ×100 A ×100
P A B
62. (1)
= ± 0.25 A 0.1
63. (2)
= ± 0.35
64. (2)
74. (4) For S1: Unequal Weight of Pan
65. (4)
Let m1 and m2 be the masses of the
66. (1)
left and right pans of the balance.
67. (2) If M1 and M2 are the measured
mass of a block, which is successively
68. (2)
placed in the left and right pan of
69. (3) the balance, then from the condition
of equilibrium, we get,
70. (2) For post office box (Wheatstone
m 1 + M = m 2 + M1 ... (i)
bridge), under balanced conditions

9
and m1 + M2 = m2 + M ... (ii) E

m 15
80. (2) m = = = 0.25
E 60
where M is the actual mass of the S
block.
81. (3) W = F ⋅S
Subtracting equation (ii) from (i),
⇒ 6 = 3i Ac j A 2k ⋅ B 4i A 2 j A 3k
we get, M − M2 = M1 − M
⇒ 6 = − 12 + 2c + 6
M AM
or M = 1 2 ⇒c=6
2
82. (2)
For S2: Unequal Lengths of Arm
83. (4) V = L3
Let l1 and l2 be the lengths of the ∆V 3∆L
× 100 = × 100
left and right arm of the physical V L
balance. If M1 and M2 are the
∆V
measured mass of the block, which ⇒ = 0.03%
V
is successively placed in the left
and right pans of the balance, then 84. (3) fp = focal length of each plano-
from the condition of equilibrium,
convex lens
we get
1 1 1
= A
l1M = l2M1 ... (iii) F f f
a p p
and l1M2 = l2M ... (iv) f

p
⇒ Fa =
2
where M is the actual mass of the
block. f f
p p
Similarly, Fb = , Fc =
Dividing equation (iii) and (iv), we get 2 2
E E
M 85. (1) I = = amp
M 1 2A 3 5
=
M M
2 EZ
m = ZIt = gm/s, where Z Ω is
5
M= M M
1 2 included so,
75. (4) 2 ×2
effective resistance = +3=4 Ω
2A 2
76. (2)
E ZE
⇒ I′ = ⇒ m′ = gm/s
77. (2) 4 8
m B m′ 300 × 5
78. (2) ∆m = =
m 40
79. (2) = 37.5% (decrease)

10
PART III: CHEMISTRY
86. (4) 92. (1)
87. (4) 93. (2) C(graphite) + H2O(g) CO(g)

+ H2(g)
pCO pH
2
K =
p pH O
2
[pH2] [pCO] = Kp [pH2O]
[pH2] = [pCO]
88. (2) ∴ [pH2]2 = Kp [pH2O]
89. (4) pH ∝ pH O
2 2
90. (1) Zn(s) + H2SO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq)

94. (2)
+ H2(g) − 1 mole H2
95. (4)
3 1
Al + H SO → Al (SO4)3
2 2 4 2 2
96. (3)
+ 3 H2(g)
2
97. (1) HOCl H+ + OCl−
Ratio of moles H2 formed by Weakest Strongest
acid Bronsted base
1 mole of Zn : 1 mole of Al
3
=1: i.e., 1 : 1.5 98. (2)
2
91. (1) 2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 → 2MnSO4 + K2SO4 + 3H2O+ 5[O]
A B2
5 H C O A O → 2CO A H O
2 2 4 2 2
2KMnO4 + 5H2C2O4 + 3H2SO4 → 2MnSO4 + K2SO4 + 10CO2 + 8H2O
B1 B2 A A2
2MnO A 5C O A 16H → 2 Mn A 10CO A 8H O
4 2 4 2 2
x z y

11
99. (3) 113. (1) ZnSO4(aq) + 2NaHCO3(aq)

→ ZnCO3(s) + Na2SO4(aq) + H2O(l)
100. (1)
+ CO2(g)
101. (3)
114. (4)
102. (1)
115. (1)
103. (2)
116. (2)
104. (3)
117. (3)
105. (4)
118. (3)
106. (3)
119. (3)
107. (1)
120. (2)
108. (4)
121. (1)
109. (2)
122. (1)
110. (3)
123. (2)
111. (2) AgBr(s) + 2Na2S2O3(aq) →
124. (3)
Na Ag S O aq
A NaBr
3 2 3 2 aq
125. (3)
∆
112. (1) CaC2(s) + N2(g) → CaNCN
electric
furnace
+ C(graphite)

12
PART IV: ENGLISH PROFICIENCY AND LOGICAL REASONING
138. (4)
(a) ENGLISH PROFICIENCY
139. (2)
126. (3) 140. (3)
127. (3)
(b) LOGICAL REASONING
128. (3)
141. (2) Nutrition is a cause for health.
129. (3)
142. (2) Car is a part of transport system.
130. (4)
143 (1) Salad and rice are part of food.
131. (2)
144. (3) kick is an action that makes the
132. (1)
football move.
133. (2)
145. (1)
134. (1) The carpet was stained in place
146. (1)
of The carpet was badly stained.
147. (4)
135. (4) his honesty did him credit in
place of his honesty does for him 148. (4)
credit.
149. (2) All other figures can be rotated
136. (1) A big hue and cry in place of A into each other.
terrific hue and cry.
150. (3)
137. (3)

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 

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 450

Read the following instructions carefully:

5. The test is of 3 hours duration.

6. The test consists of 150 questions.

7. The maximum marks are 450.

11. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited .

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals): ...........................................................................

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 4/Obj/Qns - 1

1. If a = i A j A k , b = 4i A 3 j A 4k 3. Let n be an odd integer.

(3) h′(x) = 0 for all x > 1

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 4/Obj/Qns - 2

6. If in a triangle PQR, sin P, sin Q, sin R are n

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◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 4/Obj/Qns - 3

16. If from each of the three boxes (3) f x = x 2 , g x = sin x

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◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 4/Obj/Qns - 4

22. Let f(x) = x − [x], for every real number x,

21. If E and F are the complementary (3) x1 x2 x3 x4 = c4

(1) P E| F A P E | F = 1 24. There are four machines and it is known

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 4/Obj/Qns - 5

(1) occurrence of E ⇒ occurrence of F 31. The diagonals of a parallelogram PQRS are

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◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 4/Obj/Qns - 6

(1) at least 30 (3) does not exist because x − 1 → 0

(2) at most 20 (4) does not exist because left hand

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 4/Obj/Qns - 7

(1) sin 15° (2) cos 15° (1) x2 − y2 = c (2) y2 = 2x + c

(1) 4y − x = 0 (2) 4y + x = 0 (3) 4x + 6y + 8z + 13 = 0

(3) y − 4x = 0 (4) y + 4x = 0 (4) x + 2y + z = 0

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 4/Obj/Qns - 8

PART II: PHYSICS

(1) is always less than 1 (2) increasing the diameter of wire.

(2) is always greater than 1 (3) increasing the diameter of coil.

(1) linearly polarised (3) λ′ − λ varies with φ in proportion to

(3) left circularly polarised (4) λ′ − λ is independent of the scatterer

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◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 4/Obj/Qns - 9

50. In a laser source the emission from various (2)

(1) in phase only

(2) in direction of emission only

(3) in phase, direction and polarization

51. A cycle is shown in the p-V diagram.

52. Given the truth table relating Y to A, B,

The corresponding representation in a A B Y

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◊ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. BITSAT/MTP 4/Obj/Qns - 10

55. A satellite in a stable orbit contains two

(i) The water exerts very little pressure

(2) X = 0, Y = 1 (ii) The steam exerts almost the same

(1) (i) and (ii) are correct

(2) (iii) and (iv) are correct

(3) only (ii) is correct

(4) All but (i) are correct

56. If the impedances of the series and