Question 1: Which of the following is an Agile Manifesto principle?

A. Welcome changing requirements early in development. Agile processes handle

changes for the customer's competitive advantage.
B. Welcome changing priorities early in development. Agile processes harness
change for the customer's competitive advantage.
C. Welcome changing priorities, even late in development. Agile processes handle
changes for the customer's competitive advantage.
D. Welcome changing requirements, even late in development. Agile processes
harness change for the customer's competitive advantage.

Question 2: Which of the following is a common failure mode for a Scrum

team?

A. Scrum master controls and commands the team

B. Product owner available on a day-to-day basis
C. Team being distributed
D. Eight team members

Question 3. You have access to proprietary information a vendor included as

part of a bid proposal. The information was marked confidential and was
included to show that the vendor would be issued a patent by the end of the
month, which makes this company's bid the best candidate for your company
and significantly improves the market share of the vendor. What do you do
with this information?

A. Invest in the company immediately

B. Tell your friends to invest in this company.
C. Wait until the information becomes public knowledge and then decide if you
want to invest in the company.
D. Provide the proprietary information to a competing vendor.

Question 4. You are Scrum master for a new team. Which of the following
activities should you attend to?

A. Remove impediments
B. Take part in estimating user stories
C. Plan spikes
D. Act as project manager for the team
 
 
 
 
 
 
Question 5: Harry's Agile team failed to complete a user story in its most
recent iteration. What should Harry and his team do?

A. Collaborate with the customer to determine if and when the user story should be
completed.
B. Immediately add the user story to the top of the next iteration's backlog.
C. Finish the user story over the weekend or during other downtime.
D. Remove the user story from the project.

Question 6: Your team is estimating using the planning poker technique and
you are in dire need of a break. What do you do?

A. Use the question mark card

B. Use the coffee cup card
C. Use the 100 mark card as it means break
D. Just take a short break without asking

Question 7: In Agile, planning is conducted using rolling-wave planning or

successive elaboration; however, how else could we describe it?

A. Bottom-up planning
B. Adaptive planning
C. WBS planning
D. Adaptive leadership planning

Question 8: Who should decide what the Definition of Done criteria should be
for the team?

A. The team
B. The team and the Scrum master
C. The team and the product owner
D. The team, the Scrum master, and the product owner

Question 9: What do risk burn-down graphs show?

A. The impacts of project risks on the project schedule

B. The impacts of project risks on the project budget
C. The cumulative risk severities over time
D. The cumulative risk probabilities over time

Question 10: Which element is not found in the project charter?

A. Assumptions
B. Constraints
C. Roles and Responsibilities
D. Earned Value Management
Question 11: Your team has decided to use the EVM metrics and has data on
Earned Value and Planned Value. What is missing?

A. AV
B. AC
C. SPI
D. CPI

Question 12: The main steps of vendor management include:

A. Administer procurements
B. Conduct procurements
C. Close procurements
D. All of the above

Question 13: According to Scrum, an iteration planning meeting should last no

longer than:

A. One hour
B. Four hours
C. Eight hours
D. One week

Question 14: In a Scrum team, when are " " identified?

A. Daily scrum
B. Retrospective
C. Sprint review
D. All of the above

Question 15: Your team has been struggling and has now been shut down.
What phase is the team in?

A. Adjourning
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. None of the above
Question 16: What does the XP phrase "caves and common" mean?

A. A single room where there is an open space on one side with information
radiators and a whiteboard for meetings, and on the other side are programming
cubicles
B. A common area that is public to team members and where osmotic
communication and collaboration are at play; a cave area that is a reserved
space for private business
C. A cave area where programmers may have peace and quiet for developing user
stories and a common room for eating lunch and other social activities
D. A common area reserved for iteration reviews, daily stand-ups, and
retrospectives, and a cave area reserved for the development team

Question 17: Which one of the following definitions describes the correct
characteristics of the Scrum team?

A. Self-managing, Self-organizing, and Cross-functional

B. Self-directing, Self-organizing, and Cross-functional
C. Self-directing, Self-empowered, and Cross-functional
D. Self-monitoring, Self-managing, and Self-functioning

Question 18: The defects that are not found during the development phase are
called:

A. Escaped defects
B. Customer found defects
C. Requirements defects
D. Missed defects

Question 19: When using a Kanban board to manage work in progress, which
of the following best summarizes the philosophy behind the approach?

A. It is a sign of the work being done and should be maximized to boost

performance.
B. It is a sign of the work being done and should be limited to boost performance.
C. It is a sign of the work queued for quality assurance, which should not count
toward velocity.
D. It is a sign of the work queued for user acceptance, which should not count
toward velocity.

Question 20: What Agile concept is closely related to Value Stream Mapping?

A. Maximize business value

B. Eliminate waste
C. Incremental integration
D. Minimize resource usage
Question 21: Incremental delivery means that:

A. We deliver nonfunctional increments in the iteration retrospectives.

B. We release working software only after testing each increment.
C. We improve and elaborate our Agile process with each increment delivered.
D. We deploy functional increments over the course of the project.

Question 22: How would the team improve the code without altering the
functionality of the system?

A. Test-Driven Development
B. Test-First Development
C. Pair Programming
D. Refactoring

Question 23: What tools or techniques are needed for value-based prioritization?

A. Return on Investment
B. The business case
C. The project charter
D. A risk-adjusted backlog

Question 24: What is a positive indicator that Agile may be appropriate to an

organization as a new project methodology?

A. That the adopting organization values strict and inflexible project

management practices
B. That the adopting organization values trust, collective ownership, and
adaptability
C. That the adopting organization values hierarchical decision making
D. That the adopting organization values top-down management

Question 25: The team has accumulated significant technical debt. How could
the team repay some of it?

A. Hire more people

B. Ask the product owner to reduce the backlog
C. Refactor the code
D. Change velocity

Question 26: What is the purpose of asking the "5 Whys"?

A. To determine the scope of the sprint

B. To determine the root cause
C. To determine the end result
D. To determine the prioritized backlog
Question 27: Which of the following statements is not true about Agile smell?

A. Loss of Rhythm
B. Flying Chickens
C. Missing Pigs
D. Persistent Signatures

Question 28: Your team is averaging 50 story points per week and has 400
story points left in the product backlog. How many weeks would you expect
to need before all stories are completed?

A. 2 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 8 weeks
D. 10 weeks

Question 29: Agile estimates are considered:

A. Collaborative
B. Team-based
C. Iterative
D. All of the above

Question 30: When managing an Agile software team, engaging the

business in prioritizing the backlog is an example of:

A. Technical risk reduction

B. Incorporating stakeholder values
C. Vendor management
D. Stakeholder story mapping

Question 31: What is the relationship between leadership and management

in Agile?

A. Leadership is rarely applied.

B. Management is hardly applied.
C. Leadership and management are used together.
D. Leadership and management are not used together.

Question 32: Agile expects uncertainty and manages it through what?

A. Iterations, estimation, and adaptation

B. Iterations, anticipation, and adaptation
C. Estimation, anticipation, and adaptation
D. Collaboration, iterations, and adaptation
Question 33: The optimal team size is most likely:

A. Between 1 and 4
B. Between 5 and 9
C. Between 10 and 13
D. Between 14 and 19

Question 34: High performance teams that listen well will not:

A. Be told more.
B. Be more effective.
C. Understand people better.
D. Resolve conflicts easier.

Question 35: As part of stakeholder management and understanding, the

team may undertake customer persona modeling. Which of the following
would a persona not represent in this context?

A. Stereotyped users
B. Real people
C. Archetypal descriptions
D. Requirements

Question 36: The 12 principles of Agile Software indicate that

businesspeople and developers must work together daily throughout the
project; however, which of the following is not a practice that supports
that?

A. Retrospectives
B. Whole Team
C. Osmotic Communication
D. Daily Scrum

Question 37: Ralph is describing the INVEST acronym used for user story
development in an Agile practitioner seminar. What does the "I" in INVEST
stand for?

A. Incremental
B. Independent
C. Innovative
D. Iteration
Question 38: Which of the following techniques is a brainstorming
technique?

A. SCAMPER
B. 5 Whys
C. Root-Cause analysis
D. Decision tree

Question 39: You are a Scrum master in a Scrum team. The product owner
doesn't want to prioritize items in the product backlog. He says everything
is important. What is the best you can do?

A. Let the team work without prioritizing. In any case, you will have to deliver all
the features. It is not a critical problem.
B. Be firm and insist on prioritizing.
C. Prioritize the product backlog yourself.
D. Let the team decide which features are most important.

Question 40: What does the Speculate phase do?

A. Reviews delivered results and the team's performance

B. Concludes the project and passes along key learning
C. Clearly identifies what needs to be done and how the work can be
accomplished
D. Produces a release plan based on capabilities or stories

Question 41: In communication what is most important?

A. Feelings and attitudes in the words that are spoken

B. The way that the words are said
C. Facial expression
D. All of the above

Question 42: What is the process cycle efficiency of a 2-hour meeting if it

takes you 2 minutes to schedule the meeting in the online calendar tool
and 8 minutes to write the agenda and email it to participants?

A. 90%
B. 8%
C. 92%
D. 96%
Question 43: Leading adaptive work is based upon how many principles?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10

Question 44: The 12 practices of XP do not include:

A. Simplicity
B. On-site Customer
C. Planning
D. Refactoring

Question 45: When is a good time for using feedback techniques?

A. During pair programming

B. During unit testing
C. During daily Scrums
D. All of the above

Question 46: Why does the Agile approach include the process of
"inspection and adjustment"?

A. To improve customer value by incorporating the customer's voice in the

adaptive development process
B. To develop a risk mitigation plan for incomplete feature development
C. To track development scope, cost, and schedule errors
D. To ensure that the project plan and budget are strictly adhered to during
project execution

Question 47: Recently you have been assigned as a product owner to a

Scrum team that you have never worked with before. One week later, one of
your company's managers approaches you and asks to confirm that the
project will be finished by the 6th of March. He says that he reviewed
estimates given by your team and needs a commitment guarantee that it
will be finished by the exact date. What is the most likely problem in this
situation?

a. The manager should approach a Scrum master, not you.

b. Many managers confuse estimates with commitments. As soon as a team
expresses an estimate, they are forced to commit to it.
c. You have been assigned to the project recently, therefore you are not able to
make any commitments yet.
d. Agile teams don't make any commitments to specific dates.
Question 48: Who "owns" iteration demo in Scrum?

A. Product manager
B. Scrum master
C. Product owner
D. Team

Question 49: Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The cone of uncertainty logarithmically decays.

B. The cone of uncertainty widens as the project progresses.
C. The cone of uncertainty narrows as the project progresses.
D. The cone of uncertainty exponentially decays.

Question 50: Hofstede's theory emphasizes 4 dimensions which don’t

include:

A. Individualism versus collectivism

B. Personal power
C. Uncertainty avoidance
D. Masculinity versus femininity

Question 51: An Agile team is planning the tools they will use for the
project. They are debating how they should show what work is in progress.
Of the following options, which tool are they most likely to select?

A. User story backlog

B. Product roadmap
C. Task board
D. Work breakdown structure

Question 52: When working with a globally distributed team, the most
useful approach will be to:

A. Bring the entire team together for a diversity and sensitivity training day
before starting the first iteration
B. Bring the entire group together for a big celebration at the end of the project
C. Bring the entire group together for a get-to-know-you session before starting
the first iteration
D. Gather the entire team for a kickoff event and keep them working together for
at least the first iteration
Question 53: Which of the following is an innovative game?

A. 80/20 vision
B. Buy a feature
C. The master
D. Embrace the product tree

Question 54: How does XP support knowledge sharing?

A. Collective code ownership

B. 45-hour working week
C. Team empowerment
D. Working in distributed teams

Question 55: When are user stories first assigned to iterations?

A. During Crystal planning

B. During iteration planning
C. During release planning
D. During daily planning

Question 56: Which of the following is not a process of FDD?

A. Develop an Overall Mode

B. Build a Feature List
C. Plan by Feature
D. Execute a Feature

Question 57: Is it acceptable to extend the iteration for a few days in order
to finish everything in the plan?

A. It depends.
B. It is not acceptable. Iteration is timeboxed.
C. Yes, you can extend an iteration in rare situations.
D. It is acceptable if the Scrum master took a decision.

Question 58: Agile Project Management is:

A. A control-biased model
B. An execution-biased model
C. A planning-biased model
D. A planning-and-control-biased model
Question 59: Which of the following is not a phase in the APM delivery
framework?

A. Speculate
B. Envision
C. Explore
D. Planning

Question 60: The product backlog is:

A. Static and Incomplete

B. Static and Complete
C. Dynamic and Complete
D. Dynamic and Incomplete

Question 61: Which of the following items is not a benefit associated with
product demonstrations?

A. Learn about feature suitability

B. Learn about feature usability
C. Learn about feature estimates
D. Learn about new requirements

Question 62: Compute the result of a PERT estimate with a realistic

estimate of 15, a pessimistic estimate of 50, and an optimistic estimate of
10. This would result in:

A. 15
B. 20
C. 35
D. 52

Question 63: An Agile team is beginning a new release. Things are

progressing a little slower than initially estimated. The project manager is
taking a servant leadership approach. Which of the following actions is the
project manager most likely to do?

A. Create a high-level scope statement and estimates.

B. Intervene in nonproductive team arguments.
C. Do administrative activities for the team.
D. Demonstrate the system to senior executives.
Question 64: The Kanban Method is a change-management method derived
from:

A. Toyota Production Systems (TPS)

B. Goldratt's Theory of Contracts (ToC)
C. A and B
D. Scrum

Question 65: At the start of release planning, the team and product owner
collaboratively explored the product owner's conditions of satisfaction.
Common factors in her conditions of satisfaction included scope,
schedule, and budget. Why was quality not included in this list?

A. Quality is not considered as one of the common factors in a product owner's

conditions of satisfaction.
B. Quality is usually negotiated during iteration planning.
C. Quality is usually negotiated between the Scrum master and product owner,
not with the team.
D. Agile teams typically prefer to treat quality as non-negotiable.

Question 66: Who is required to attend the Retrospective meeting?

A. The team, the Scrum master, and the product owner

B. The team and the Scrum master
C. The team
D. The team and the product owner

Question 67: The PMO has asked you to generate some financial
information to summarize the business benefits of your project. To best
describe how much money you hope the project will return, you should
show an estimate of:

A. Internal Rate of Return (IRR)

B. Return on Investment (ROI)
C. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
D. Net Present Value (NPV)

Question 68: What are the five XP values?

A. Commitment, openness, focus, courage, and respect

B. Commitment, openness, simplicity, courage, and respect
C. Communication, feedback, simplicity, courage, and respect
D. Commitment, feedback, simplicity, courage, and respect
Question 69: Signature presence is used in:

A. Coaching
B. Conflict resolutions
C. Team selection
D. Basic writing skills

Question 70: Nathan, a new Agile practitioner, is at a planning event where

the relative development effort of user stories of a large product backlog is
to be estimated. The planning event is mostly conducted in silence and the
team is to assign user stories to various T-shirt sizes (small, medium,
large, extra-large). The planning event is efficient and the user stories are
estimated quickly. What type of planning event is Nathan most likely
attending?

A. Infinity estimating
B. T-shirt estimating
C. Affinity estimating
D. Relative estimating

Question 71: What is the difference between Crystal Yellow and Crystal
Diamond?

A. Increased number of people involved

B. Increased scope involved
C. More costly and duration is increased
D. All of the above

Question 72: It is possible that the newly discovered tasks can take long
enough that they cannot be completed during the iteration. They may need
to reduce the functionality of a story or drop one entirely. With whom
should the team discuss the possible solutions in this situation?

A. Product owner
B. Scrum master
C. Upper management
D. Stakeholders

Question 73: Which content would you not expect to find in a business
case?

A. Methods and Assumptions

B. Business Impacts
C. Sensitivity, Risks, and Contingencies
D. Implementation Strategies
Question 74: Which of the following is not true regarding how burn-up
charts that track total scope differ from burn-down charts?

A. Burn-up charts separate out the rate of progress from the scope fluctuations.
B. Burn-up charts and burn-down charts trend in opposite vertical directions.
C. Burn-up charts can be converted to cumulative flow diagrams by the addition
of WIP.
D. Burn-down charts indicate whether the rate-of-effort changes are due to
changes in progress rates or in scope.

Question 75: The Agile Manifesto value "customer collaboration over

contract negotiation" means that:

A. Agile approaches encourage you not to focus too much on negotiating

contracts, since most vendors are just out for themselves anyway.
B. Agile approaches focus on what we are trying to build with our vendors, rather
than debating the details of contract terms.
C. Agile approaches prefer not to use contracts, unless absolutely necessary,
because they hamper the ability to respond to change requests.
D. Agile approaches recommend that you only collaborate with vendors who are
using Agile processes themselves.

Question 76: What are the benefits of distributed teams?

A. Global markets
B. Global talent
C. Reduced costs
D. All of the above

Question 77: Which of the following characteristics are all attributes of a

good user story?

A. Designed, Documented, Delivered

B. Scoped, Estimated, Designed
C. Independent, Negotiable, Valuable
D. Small, Testable, Delivered

Question 78: In Agile approaches, negotiation is viewed as:

A. A zero-sum game
B. A winner-takes-all challenge
C. A foolproof win-win scenario
D. A healthy process of give-and-take
Question 79: Which of the following best describes the functions of an
Agile coach?

A. Interaction designer, teacher, manager, collaboration conductor

B. Facilitator, interaction designer, teacher, manager
C. Facilitator, teacher, conflict navigator, problem solver
D. Manager, teacher, conflict navigator, problem solver

Question 80: When information is shared between collocated team

members unconsciously, it is known as:

A. Active listening
B. Chaordic communication
C. Osmotic communication
D. Entropic communication
 
Question 81: In Agile, planning should be at:

A. The level of features because customers get no value from activities

B. The level of features because features are not independent
C. The level of activities because activities are independent
D. The level of activities because customers get no value from features

Question 82: Which techniques can be used to identify risks?

A. Pre-mortem
B. Daily stand-ups
C. Decision tree analysis
D. Osmotic communication
 
Question 83: Which of the following is not true about Agile contracts?

A. Time is fixed.
B. Cost is fixed.
C. Costs vary.
D. Scope varies.
 
Question 84: The steps involved in Value Stream Analysis include:

A. Create a value stream map to document delays and waste time, such as
meetings and coffee breaks.
B. Create a value stream map of the current process, identifying steps, queues,
delays, and information flows.
C. Review the value stream map of the current process and compare it to the
goals set forth in the project charter.
D. Review how to adjust the value stream charter to be more flexible.
Question 85: Who are referred to as "Chickens" in Scrum?

A. The product owner, the Scrum master, and the team

B. Anyone except one of the three roles in Scrum (the team, the product owner,
the Scrum master)
C. The customer
D. The team

Question 86: Which of the following is a statement from the Agile Software
Development Manifesto?

A. Individuals and tools over interactions and processes

B. Working software over comprehensive documentation
C. Customer collaboration and contract negotiation
D. Following a plan over responding to change

Question 87: Which of the following responses is not an Agile Manifesto

value or principle regarding communication?

A. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

B. Delivering working software frequently
C. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
D. Face-to-face communication whenever possible

Question 88: The organizational benefits of Emotional Intelligence include:

A. More effective development of team working

B. Better communication skills
C. Higher salary
D. Fewer conflicts in the team

Question 89: An example of high-bandwidth communication is:

A. A virtual product demonstration

B. Face-to-face communication
C. A voice over IP phone call
D. An email with a multimedia attachment

Question 90: When we practice active listening, what are the levels through
which our listening skills progress?

A. 1) Global listening, 2) Focused listening, 3) Intuitive listening

B. 1) Interested listening, 2) Focused listening, 3) Global listening
C. 1) Self-centered listening, 2) Focused listening, 3) Intuitive listening
D. 1) Internal listening, 2) Focused listening, 3) Global listening
Question 91: The values of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional
Conduct Honesty do notstate:

A. We are truthful in our communications and in our communication.

B. We provide accurate information in a timely manner.
C. We are truthful in our communications and in our conduct.
D. We earnestly seek to understand the wrongdoing.

Question 92: To ensure the success of our project, in what order should we
execute the work, taking into account the necessary dependencies and
risk-mitigation tasks?

A. The order specified by the project management office (PMO)

B. The order specified by the business representatives
C. The order specified by the project team
D. The order specified by the project architect

Question 93: Which of the following types of communication is the most

effective?

A. Skype with video on

B. Formal report
C. Webcast
D. Face-to-face communication at a whiteboard

Question 94: Which of the following statements is correct about

refactoring?

A. After refactoring, the software should be more efficient.

B. After refactoring, the software should be completed.
C. After refactoring, the software should be better organized.
D. After refactoring, the software should be more effective.

Question 95: Calculate the Net Present Value of the following investment
candidate. The initial investment cost is $2,000. The discount rate is 10%.
Three yearly payments of $100 are expected. At the end of year 3,
additional $2,500 is expected.

A. $127
B. $168
C. $244
D. $432
Question 96: What is the best length of an iteration in Scrum?

A. 1 week
B. There is no ideal iteration length. It depends on the project and can vary.
C. 2 weeks
D. 1 month
 
Question 97: What factor should the team not consider during a self-
assessment?

A. Releasing
B. Trust each other
C. What is our plan?
D. Next sprint

Question 98: Your team is conducting a test as part of the team selection
and the result is that the candidate is a so-called specialist. Which test are
you using?

A. MBTI
B. Shu-Ha-Ri
C. Moneyball
D. Belbin

Question 99: In Scrum, the definition of "done" is described by

everyone except the:

A. Development team
B. Product owner
C. Scrum master
D. Process owner

Question 100: Choose the correct combination of XP practice names from

the following options:

A. Test-driven design, refactoring, pair programming

B. Test-driven development, reforecasting, peer programming
C. Test-driven development, refactoring, pair programming
D. Test-driven design, refactoring, peer programming