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a.
57
b.
70
c.
75
d.
81
2. S/N ratio improvement is proportional to the square of the bandwidth of
transmission in
a. FM
b. Conventional AM
c. AM-DSB-SC
d. AM-SSB-SC
3. The Signal to Noise ratio of DSB-SC Scheme is
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. Zero
4. Which of the following demodulation methods exhibit threshold effect
a. Synchronous demodulation of AM
b. Envelope detection of AM
c. Square law detector
d. Balanced demodulator
5. Noise performance of conventional AM, when compared with that of suppressed
carrier systems is
a. Superior
b. Inferior
c. Same
d. Can�t be compared
6. The Signal to Noise ratio of SSB-SC scheme is
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. zero
7. The Signal to Noise ratio of VSB-SC scheme is
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. zero
8. Noise performance of AM-DSB-SC signal is same as that of AM-SSB-SC system due
to
a. 3 Kf2
b.
c. 2 Kf2
d. Kf2
10. The S /N ratio of FM to S/N ratio of AM is
a. v3 modulation index of FM
b. modulation index of FM / v3
c. v3 modulation index of AM
d. 1
11. The ratio of S/N of PM to S/N of AM is given by
a. fm /Δ f
b. Δ f / fm
c. fm x Δ f
d. Δ f+fm
12. In PM, the power spectral density of the O/P noise, varies with frequency as
a.Parabola
b.Hyperbola
c.Uniform
d.circle
13. In order to realize an improvement in S/N ration in FM over AM, we must have the
FM modulation index greater than
a. 1/ v3
b. v3
c. 2 / v3
d. v3 / 2
14. For a modulation index β > 0.5 the noise performance of FM when compared to
AM is
a. Better
b. Same
c. worst
d. Can't be compared
15. Threshold improvement in FM is due to
a. 0.5
b. 0.6
c. 0.4
d. 0.7
17. The pre-emphasis, de-emphasis arrangement in FM results in
a. Increase of BW
b. Decrease of BW
c. No effect of BW
d. depends on frequency
18. In FM, the power spectral density of the O/P noise, varies with frequency as
a. Parabola
b. Hyperbola
c. Uniform
d. circle
19. The SNR of PM over AM is _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ of BW of Transmission
a. Same
b. double
c. square
d. quadruple
20. Pre-emphasis in FM is used at
a. Receiving end
b. Transmitting end
c. In the Channel
d. Before Demodulation
21. De-emphasis circuit resembles a
a. LPF
b. HPF
c. BPF
d. BEF
22. A Buffer amplifier is placed in between
a. Two AF Amplifiers
b. Crystal oscillator and harmonic generator
c. Two RF amplifiers
d. Modulated and modulating amplifier
23. Harmonic generator is operated as a _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ amplifier
a. C
b. A
c. AB
d. B
24. Broadcast transmitters are designed for transmitting
a. Coded signal
b. Telephone signal
c. Speech or music
d. Continuous carrier
25. Long waves transmitter works in the frequency range
a. 300 KHz
b. 1MHz
c. 20 MHZ
d. 60 MHz
26. A Medium waves transmitter works in the frequency range
a. Engineers
b. Studio
c. Receiving Center
d. Power
28. Microwave transmitters have their working frequencies at are about
a. 10MHz
b. 80 MHz
c. 100 MHz
d. 1000MHz
29. Abrupt changes in load on master oscillator resulting
a. Frequency deviation
b. frequency Scintillation
c. Drift
d. Squegging
30. The only disadvantage of crystal oscillator as Master oscillator is
a. large size
b. unstable frequency
c. mounting capacitance
d. fixed frequency
31. One of the following is used in radio telephone transmitters
a. Transistor
b. Vacuum Tube
c. VODAS
d. FET
32. A Collector modulated transmitter has supply voltage of 12 Volts and collector
current of 1 A. The modulated power for 100 % modulation is
a. 6W
b. 12 W
c. 18W
d. 24W
33. While switching on the transmitter anode voltages should not be applied with out
a. Staff on duty
b. Charging feeder lines
c. switching on the cooling system
d. signal from studio
34. The component to produce AM at RF frequencies is
a. Varactor
b. Thermistor
c. PIN diode
d. Transistor
35. Boosting high frequency components in modulating signal is called
a. Echo suppressing
b. Attenuating
c. Tone forrection
d. preemphasis
36. A device that reduces the gain of A. F. amplifier when the input exceeds
predetermined value is called
a. Peak clipper
b. Detector
c. echo suppressor
d. Discriminator
37. VHF transmitters use the follow the system of cooling
a. 9.6W
b. 12W
c. 15W
d. 24W
39. The final carrier frequency of an amplitude modulated transmitter is obtained by
the use of
a. Crystal Oscillator
b. L C Oscillator
c. Harmonic generators
d. Frequency dividers
40. The frequency drift allowed in medium AM transmitters
a. 10 Hz
b. 15Hz
c. 1Hz
d. 100
41. Most of the power in AM signal lies in its
a. Carrier
b. USB
c. LSB
d. Both USB and LSB
42. In AM modulator circuits, the carrier and the modulating signal are
a. Multiplied
b. Added
c. Subtracted
d. Mixed
43. An AM transmitter shall produce 1KW of carrier power with 200V supply. The load
seen by the amplifier is
a. 5?
b. 10?
c. 20?
d. 40?
44. The frequency drift allowed for shoth wave and UHF transmitters is
a. +0.02%
b. -0.1 %
c. +0.05%
d. 0.002 %
45. The frequency tolerance of FM broadcast stations is
a. 20Hz
b. 200Hz
c. 2000Hz
d. 20000Hz
46. A push pull power amplifier that is used for carrier suppression is called
a. Hormonic generator
b. Balanced modulator
c. Frequency multiplier
d. Frequency mixer
47. The disadvantage of low level modulation is
a. Small
b. large
c. very large
d. line of sight distance
49. A PLL FM generator has Kf = 100 KHz/V and peak deviation of 75 KHz. The RMS
modulating voltage required is around
a. 0.25V
b. 0.5V
c. 0.75V
d. 1.3V
50. The maximum deviation used in police FM radio is
a. 3KHz
b. 5KHz
c. 15KHz
d. 20KHz
51. An RF amplifier is available at 40 MHz. To which of the following it can be
employed
a. AM Broadcast
b. FM broadcast
c. UHF TV broadcast
d. Radar
52. The ability of a receiver to respond to the weakest signal is called
a. Sensitivity
b. selectivity
c. fidelity
d. Signal handling ability
53. The pre distorter in Armstrong F.M generation is nothing but
a. Differentiator
b. Integrator
c. Attenuator
d. Rectifier
54. Straight receiver with only crystal detector and head phone will work
a. Any where
b. 10 Km from Tx
c. areas of local Tx
d. 50 Km from
55. Good Adjacent channel selectivity can be obtained by the use of
a. High IF
b. TRF amplifiers
c. RF amplifiers
d. Low I
56. The ability of a receiver to distinguish the wanted and unwanted signals is
a. Sensitivity
b. selectivity
c. S/N ratio
d. efficiency
57. All commercial receivers employ IF between
a. Bandwidth
b. on-off switch
c. AFC
d. volume control
59. The output from radio receiver varies abruptly many times with out notice. This is
called
a. Hum
b. Motor boating
c. fading
d. noise
60. The number of mixer stages of a triple detection receiver
a. 1
b. 3
c. 4
d. 2
61. The selectivity of a TRF receiver is
a. FM receiver
b. SSB receiver
c. AM receiver
d. Communicationreceiver
63. In a superheterodyne receiver amplification of the signal after converter is done
at
a. Any frequency
b. Only IF
c. signal frequency
d. higher than signal frequency
64. Sensitivity of a superheterodyne receiver is dependent on
a. number of tubes
b. number of stages of amplifiers
c. number of inductors
d. number of tuned circuits
66. In a superheterodyne receiver frequency conversion takes place at
a. 2 places
b. 3 places
c. 4 places
d. doesnot
67. The local Oscillator of a superheterodyne receiver will be tuned to a frequency
a. Of the signal
b. lower than signal frequency
c. Signal frequency + IF
d. signal frequency - IF
68. The RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is
a. mixer
b. IF amplifier
c. mixer and IF
d. RF & Mixer
70. Fidelity of a super heterodyne receiver is dependent on
a. IF amplifier
b. limiter
c. ratio detector
d. mixe
72. Indicate which one of the following blocks is used in both communication
receivers and broadcast receivers
a. Squelch
b. beat frequency oscillator
c. mixer
d. Limiter
73. RF circuit alignment adjusts the following component
a. ganged capacitor
b. padder
c. RF trimmer
d. mixer trimmer
74. A double conversion communication receiver indicate that it has
a. IF
b. IF's
c. IF & RF
d. double bands
75. A receiver with poor IF selectivity will have poor
a. sensitivity
b. Blocking
c. Double spotting
d. diversity reception
76. Superheterodyne receiver is tuned to a frequency 540 KHz, the IF is 455 KHz. The
image signal is
a. 1295 KHz
b. 385 KHz
c. 1750 KHz
d. 420 KHz
77. In a super heterodyne receiver
a. tuning
b. adjusting
c. tracking
d. misalignment
79. The local oscillator of a broadcast receiver is tuned to s frequency higher than the
incoming frequency
a. high
b. low
c. medium
d. arbitrary
81. The minimum channel band width required for transmitting 3 baseband signals,
each is band limited to 3 KHz
a. 6 KHz
b. 3 KHz
c. 9 KHz
d. 1.5 KH
82. A base band signal band limited to 5KHz is to be reconstructed from its samples.
The minimum pass bandwidth of the reconstruction filter should be
a. 10 KHz
b. 2.5 KHz
c. 5 KHz
d. 20 KHz
83. The circuit that reduces the gain of RF amplifiers when the input signal increases
beyond a predetermined value is
a. Crystal filter
b. differentiation
c. delayed AVC
d. Simple AVC
84. Very large IF is used to eliminate
a. IF interference
b. harmonics
c. image signal interference
d. microphonics
85. Which of the statements about the amplitude limiter is untrue
a. The circuit is always biased in class C, by virtue of the leak type bias
b. When input increases fast the threshold of limiting, the gain decreases to keep the output
constant
c. The output must be tuned
d. Leak type bias must be used
86. Noise limiter is analogous to
a. Clipper
b. Clamper
c. Rectifier
d. AGC
87. From the point of view, the main difference between tube and transistor receivers
is that the latter
a. Amplitude limiter
b. AGC
c. AFC
d. noise limiter
94. A typical squelch circuit
a. 10.7MHz
b. 455 KHz
c. 36 MHz
d. 26 MHz
98. TDM can be implemented using
a. AM
b. PAM
c. FM
d. VSB-AM
99. fs >> 2fm results in
a. Aliasing
b. Distortion
c. Inefficient Channel utilization
d. Attenuation
100. In a dual gate MOSFET IF amplifier, the dc AGC voltage is applied to
a. Draw
b. Source
c. gate1
d. gate 2
101. Which functional block readily identifies it is an FM receiver
a. RF amp
b. IF amp
c. detector
d. mixer
102. AGC filter uses normally the values of R = 500 K and C equal to
a. 1μF
b. 2μF
c. 10μF
d. 20μF
103. The width (τ ) of a sample of a base band signal of band limited frequency fm can
have a value
a. τ ? 1/ fm
b. τ ? 1/ fm
c. τ =1/ fm
d. τ ? 1/ fm
104. Three point tracking is achieved with
a. Padder Capacitor
b. double spotting
c. blocking
d. double conversion
105. With correct three point tracking a maximum tracking error as low as _ _ _ _ _ _ _
is possible
a. 2.5 KHz
b. 4 KHZ
c. 3 KHz
d. 0.5 KH
106. Aliasing occurs due to which of the following
a. fs = 2 fm
b. Ts = 1 / 2 fm
c. Ts = 1 / 2 fm
d. Ts = 1 / 2 fm
107. A Pulse width modulated signal can be generated by
a. An astable multivibrator
b. A monostable multivibrator
c. Integrating the signal
d. Differentiating the PPM signal
108. PWM can be demodulated using
a. AM
b. FM
c. PWM
d. PM
110. Quantising noise in a PCM system can be reduced by
a. Mixer
b. Limiter
c. local Oscillator
d. AF amplifier
112. FM capture effect is due to the following circuit
a. Limiter
b. AGC
c. Discriminator
d. Deemphasis
113. Which of the following is used to convert PPM into PWM
a. Clipping Circuit
b. Bistable Multivibrator
c. Astable Multivibrator
d. Clamping Circuit
114. To undo the distortion caused by the channel, which of the following can be used
a. Amplifier
b. Equalizer
c. Attenuator
d. Clamper
115. Quantising noise occurs in
a. Time-division multiplexing
b. Frequency-division multiplexing
c. Pulse-code modulation
d. Pulse position modulation
116. Pulse communication system that is inherently highly immune to noise is
a. PWM
b. PAM
c. PPM
d. PCM
117. Companding is used