CTET Question Bank for Science

Submitted by:
Students of Pedagogy of Science
B.Ed Semester II
Amity Institute of Education
AUUP

Class Page No.

Class 6 2 – 41
Class 7 42 – 95
Class 8 96 – 205
Class 9 206 – 265
Class 10 266 – 346
 Class 6 CTET Question Bank
- By: Devender, M Sonam, Geeta Rawat and Megha Jain

Chapters Page Number

Chapter 1 - 4 2–8

Chapter 5 – 8 9 – 14

Chapter 9 – 12 15 – 20

Chapter 13 - 16 21 – 28

CTET Previous year questions 29 – 31

Answer Key 32 – 41

1
 MCQ QUESTION
CLASS – 6
CHAPTER – 1,2,3,4
NAME – DEVENDER
ENROLLMENT NUMBER- A3410520165

1. Which plant gives us medicines?

(a) Castor oil
(b) Tulsi
(c) Dhatura
(d) All of the above
2. Oil yielding plants are
(a) Mustard
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Urad
3. Honey comes from beehives of
(a) Spider
(b) Butterfly
(c) Honeybee
(d) None of these
4. …….. is extracted by a honey extractor from beehives
(a) Honey
(b) Sugar
(c) Sarbat
(d) All of these
5. How to avoid wastage of food
(a) We should buy a lot of fruits and vegetabes
(b) We should cooked extra food
(c) Storage of food should be done properly
(d) None of these
6. A small white structure may have grown out of seeds is called
(a) Roots
(b) Sprouts
(c) Seeds
(d) None of these
7. Bees collect nector from
(a) Vegetables
(b) Fruits
(c) Flower
(d) None of these
8. Bees store nector for their use all through the
(a) Day

2
 (b) Month
(c) Week
(d) Year
9. Camel milk is used in
(a) Bengal
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Delhi
(d) Chennai
10. Eggs are the rich source of
(a) Vitamins
(b) Fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Carbohydrates
11. The milk producing animals are called
(a) Wild animals
(b) Pet animals
(c) Much animals
(d) None of these
12. Green plants are also known as
(a) Photosynthesis
(b) Producers
(c) Parasites
(d) Saprophytes
13. Some plants grow under the ground and store food in them is called
(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Branches
(d) Leaves
14. The common legumes used as foods are
(a) Soyabean
(b) Gram
(c) Black gram
(d) All of these
15. ….. is the ability to do work
(a) Hard work
(b) Strength
(c) Energy
(d) None of these
16. Which part of brinjal we generally eat
(a) Root
(b) Branches
(c) Seeds
(d) Fruits
17. Diseases that occur due to lack of nutrients over a long period are called
(a) Scurvy

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 (b) Deficiency
(c) Beri-beri
(d) None of these
18. ….. are made up of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen
(a) Vitamins
(b) Calcium
(c) Proteins
(d) Carbohydrates
19. The excess carbohydrates are mainly stored in the body as
(a) Calcium
(b) Proteins
(c) Fats
(d) Roughage
20. Carbohydrates are present in the form of
(a) Sugar
(b) Starch
(c) Both a b
(d) None of these
21. The human body is made up of amino acids and constitute all proteins of the body
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 15
22. What is the main difference between fats and carbohydrates?
(a) The amount of oxygen is less in fats as compared to carbohydrates
(b) The amount of oxygen is more in fats as compared to carbohydrates
(c) None of these
(d) The amount of oxygen is same in fats as compared to carbohydrates
23. Each vitamins has a ….. function
(a) Normal
(b) Same
(c) Specific
(d) All of these
24. How many major vitamins are needed by our body
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 7
25. …… are extracted from earth by mining
(a) Vitamins
(b) Fats
(c) Calcium
(d) Minerals
26. The plant product like ……. Acts as roughage
(a) Glucose

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 (b) Cellulose
(c) Both a b
(d) None of these
27. Write the full form of
(a) Proteins calcium malnutrition
(b) Proteins calorie malnutrition
(c) Proteins carbohydrates malnutrition
(d) None of these
28. Deficiency of vitamins in the body is known as
(a) Avitaminosis
(b) Goiter
(c) Blindness
(d) Dry skin
29. An egg has a yellow portion which is rich in
(a) Proteins
(b) Vitamins
(c) Fats
(d) Calcium
30. Deficiency in birds leads to soft egg shells
(a) Vitamins
(b) Fats
(c) Calcium
(d) None of these
31. ……. Are required for growth and repairs of worn out cells in our body
(a) Fat
(b) Proteins
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Vitamins
32. ….. prevents constipation
(a) Fats
(b) Roughage
(c) Carbohydrates
(d) Vitamins
33. Vitamins required for maintaining good eye sight
(a) B
(b) A
(c) D
(d) E
34. A disease caused by deficiency of iron
(a) Beri-beri
(b) Anaemia
(c) Goiter
(d) Rickets
35. A disease caused by deficiency of vitamins D
(a) Beri-beri

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 (b) Anaemia
(c) Goiter
(d) Rickets
36. The yarn is wound on big reels are called
(a) Silver
(b) Bobbins
(c) Bailing
(d) Retting
37. Compression of raw cotton fibres into bundles is
(a) Bailing
(b) Bobbins
(c) Silver
(d) None of these
38. Rotting out of gummy spin of jute stem to separate fibres is
(a) Bailing
(b) Bobbins
(c) Silver
(d) None of these
39. A single yarn is used to make a piece of fabric is
(a) Gimming
(b) Spinning
(c) Weaving
(d) Knitting
40. A machine is used for weaving of fabrics is
(a) Looms
(b) Takli
(c) Charkha
(d) None of these
41. Some fibres made from chemical changes are called
(a) Synthetic fibres
(b) Natural fibres
(c) Silver
(d) None of these
42. Jute is obtained from the ……. Of the plant
(a) Branches
(b) Leaves
(c) Stem
(d) None of these
43. Patsun is cultivated during the ……… season
(a) Winter
(b) Rainy
(c) Summer
(d) None of these
44. Ropes and coir in mattresses are made from
(a) Cotton fibres

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 (b) Jute fibres
(c) Coconut
(d) None of these
45. A loose strand or rope of cotton is a
(a) Bobbins
(b) Retting
(c) Bailing
(d) Silver
46. ……. Material can be used for made up more than one things
(a) Same
(b) Different
(c) Shiny
(d) None of these
47. Iron aluminium and gold have apperence
(a) Rough
(b) Shining
(c) Non shining
(d) None of these
48. How does aquatic animals survive in water?
(a) Due to oxygen gas dissolved in water
(b) Due to CO2 gas dissolved in water
(c) They feel very warmth
(d) None of these
49. The substance which dissolve in water are called
(a) Insoluble
(b) Miscible
(c) Immiscible
(d) Soluble
50. Those substance or material across which things can be seen are called
(a) Opaque
(b) Transparent
(c) Translucent
(d) None of these
51. Iron is a …… material while stainless steel is not? (magnetic property)
52. The material across which things are only partially visible, are called
(a) Transparent
(b) Opaque
(c) Translucent
(d) None of these
53. Those substance which allow the transfer of heat through them are called
(a) Non conductor of heat
(b) Conductor of heat
(c) Translucent
(d) Opaque
54. All objects have different

7
 (a) Shape
(b) Colours
(c) Properties
(d) All of these
55. Soft material in the following
(a) Magesium’
(b) Aluminium
(c) Potassium
(d) Lead

8
 NAME- M SONAM
ENROLLMENT NO. A3410520142
CLASS -6TH CHAPTER 5-8

Q.1) The minerals that are required in the right amount for proper functioning of muscles are-
a)IRON, CALCIUM
b)SODIUM, POTASSIUM
c)IODINE,FLUORINE
d)IODINE,IRON

Q.2) The process of converting sugars into alcohols is known as-

a) Homogenization
b) Fermentation
c) Pasteuration
d) Sterilization

Q.3) The dietary fibres are-

a) also called roughage
b) made up of cellulose and proteins
c) made up of collagen fibres
d) made up of proteins

Q.4) The gases causing green house effect-

a) Carbon dioxide, Methane, Sulphur Dioxide
b)Nitrogen Dioxide, Oxygen, Water Vapour
c) Methane, Water Vapour, Carbon Dioxide
d)Carbon Dioxide,Oxygen,Nitrogen

Q.5)If the pressure over a liquid substances its Boiling Point-

a)decreases b)increases c)does not change d) first dec. then increases.

Q.6) The thumb of humans moves more freely than other fingers due to the presence of-
a)pivotal joint b)gliding point c) hinge point d) saddle point

Q.7) Root cap is absent in-

a) Xerophytes b) Hydrophytes c)Mesophytes d) Halophytes

Q.8) The green house effect which is causing an increase in the atmospheric temperature is mainly
due to-
a) oxygen b)nitrogen c)carbon dioxide d)sulphur

Q.9)Washing the rice many times using large amount of water before cooking leads to-
a) loss of vitamin E

9
b) loss of vitamin B
c) loss of water soluble carbohydrates
d) loss of the surface protein

Q.10) Which of the following harmful component is present in acid rain-

a) Sulphur dioxide
b) Carbon dioxide
c) ground water
d) sea water

Q.11) After physical exercise we sometimes get muscle cramps. This results due to –
a)non-conversion of glucose to lactic acid
b) conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
c) conversion of glucose to pyruvate
d) conversion of pyruvate to alcohol

Q.12) which of the following is a heterogenous mixture?

a) Air filled in a balloon
b) Brass
c) Stainless Steel
d) Iodised table salt

Q.13) How many muscles work together to move a bone?

a) Two b)Four c)Six d) Number is not fixed.

Q.14) The joint between head and upper jaw is an example of-
a) Ball and socket joint
b) Pelvic joint
c) Hinged joint
d) fixed joint

Q.15) Which of the following statements regarding air is incorrect ?

a) Air is not present in soil
b) Air plays important role in water
c)Air occupies space
d) Air has weight

Q.16) Which of the following is NOT correct?

a) Digestion is a chemical change
b) Photosynthesis is a chemical change
c) Respiration is a chemical change
d) Crystallisation is a chemical change

Q.17)Which of the following represents an Ascending order as per the size of particles?
a) Rock, Clay, Sand,Gravel,Silt

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b) Clay, Silt, Sand, Gravel, Rock
c) Silt, Clay, Sand, Gravel, Rock
d) Rock, Gravel, Sand, Silt, Clay

Q.18) Identify the animal on the basis of the given features:-

a) long back bone
b) many muscles
c) Body curves into many loops for moving forward
1) Snake 2)Earthworm 3)Snail 4) Hook Worm

Q.19) Green plants appear to release oxygen instead of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere during
the day time because –
a)green plants do not respire during the night time
b)green plants respire only during the night time
c)green plants respire during the day time but are involved in photosynthesis during the night time
d) the rate of photosynthesis is higher than the rate of respiration during the day.

Q.20) Most Boards of Education have banned the dissection of animals because-
a)animals are no longer available for dissection
b) procuring animals has become an expensive proposition
c) there is a need to sensitise students to prevention of cruelty to animals
d) they may spread new diseases

Q.21) Four applicants for a post of TGT(Science) were asked to plan a lesson on “ Consequences of
Deforestation”. Which of the following lesson plans reflects the scientific approach?
a) Explains in detail the consequences of deforestation
b) Provides a variety of examples to explain the concept
c) Includes activities that children can perform in groups and draw conclusions through a Power Point
presentation
d) Mentions about the use of ICT to help students understand the concept

Q.22) Which of the following can be assessed when Geeta is using only MCQ as a tool to assess
“Nutrition in Humans”?
a) Analytical ability to classify food items and make a poster.
b) Misconceptions related to food habits.
c) Learners ability to apply knowledge and prepare a role play to present in the morning assembly.
d) Learners ability to comprehend the importance of components of food and write a long essay.

Q.23) While investigating “ how water affects the germination of seeds”, a teacher asked the students
to soak bean seeds on a bed of cotton wool for a few days and observe the changes. What is the
guideline that she forgot to mention? To place-
a) many seeds on wet cotton
b) a few seeds on wet cotton
c) many seeds on dry cotton
d) a few seeds on dry cotton

11
Q.24) Which of the following statements are true about Photosynthesis?
a) In this process solar energy is converted into chemical energy.
b) In Photosynthesis Carbon Dioxide and Water are used.
c) In Photosynthesis Carbon Dioxide is released and Oxygen is consumed.
d) In photosynthesis Oxygen is released and Carbon Monoxide is consumed.
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) A and D

Q.25) Radhika’s gums were often bleeding and her wounds were taking longer time to heal. Her diet
could be deficient in which vitamin?
a) Vitamin B1 b)Vitamin C c)Vitamin D d)Vitamin A

Q.26) Which of the following represents correct matching set?

a) helps in the movement (i) CARTILAGE
of body by contraction and relaxation
b) Hard structure which (ii) MUSCLES
forms the skeleton
c) Part of skeleton which can be (iii)RIB CAGE
bent
d) Joins the chest bone and back (iv) BONES
bone together to form an enclosure
(1) A-iv , B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2) A-i, B-iii,C-ii, D-iv
(3) A- ii, B-iv, C-i,D-iii
(4) A- iii, B-ii,C-i,D-iv

Q.27) Which of the following will not be helpful in the process of separating a mixture of salt and
water?
a) Boiling
b) Decantation
c) Filteration
4) Distillation

Q.28) The process that is used to separate grain from stalks etc. is _------------------. In thus process, the
stalks were beaten to free the grain seeds.
a) threshing
b) winnowing
c) filteration
d) distillation

Q.29) Plants with weak stems that cannot stand upright but spread on the ground are called- __--------
----------

12
a) creepers
b) climbers
c) flowers
d) buds

Q.30) The part of leaf which is attached to the stem is called-

a) petiole
b) venation
c) dendrite
d) root

Q.31) The design made by veins in a leaf is –

a) Leaf venation
b) midrib
c) springs
d) stem

Q.32)Water comes out of leaves in the form of vapour by a process called –

a) Transpiration
b) evaporation
c) condensation
d) saturation

Q.33) The process of making of food in plants –

a) photosynthesis
b) transpiration
c) separation
d) venation

Q.34) ------------ join the chest bone and the backbone together to form a box.
a) rib cage
b) backbone
c) joint
d) cartilage

Q.35) When the heavier component in a mixture settles after water is added to it. Process is called –
a) Sedimentation
b) Winnowing
c) Filteration
d) Distillation

Q.36) The process of conversion of water into its vapour is called –

a) evaporation
b) condensation
c) convection

13
d) saturation

Q.37) The lowermost and the swollen part of the pistil –

a) ovary
b) stamen
c) stigma
d) style

Q.38) which one of the following is a type of root?

a) fibrous
b) filter
c) parallel
d) sectioned

39) The shape of the body of fish is-

a) Streamlined
b) parallel
c) bisected
d) lateral

Q.40) which is not present in plants-

a) leaf
b) stem
c) root
d) legs

14
 NAME – GEETA RAWAT
ENROLLMENT NUMBER- A3410520134
CHAPTER 9-The Living organisms , characteristics and Habitats
CHAPTER 10- Motion and Measurement of Distance
CHAPTER 11 – Light Shadows and Reflections
CHAPTER 12- Electricity and Circuits

1. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a) Several kinds of plants and animals may share the same habitat.
b) All the animals and plants in a habitat are adapted to it.
c) Both the statements are correct.
d) None of these is correct.

2. The hump of camel consists of fat.

(a) True
(b) False

3. Animal and plants have certain features which help them survive in a particular habitat. This is
called________________________
a) Adaptation
b) Specialization
c) Speciation
d) Evolution

4. Sea animals like dolphins and whales breath through _____________________

a) Nose
b) Fins
c) Gills
d) Blow holes

5. Movement of animal in search of food, for shelter or to mate is called ---------------------

(locomotion)

6. Animals and plants have certain features which help them survive in a particular habitat. This is
called ______________________
(a) Adaptation
(b) Speciation
(c) Specialization
(d) Evolution

7. Which is a biotic component of environment?

(a) Plants
(b) Animals
(c) Microorganisms
(d) All of these

15
8. Which is not an abiotic component of environment?
(a) Soil
(b) Bacteria
(c) Water
(d) Air

9. Which is an example of an animal found in mountain region?

(a) Leopard
(b) Yak
(c) Mountain goat
(d) All of these

10. What are the characteristics of a desert plants?

(a) No leaves or very small leaves
(b) Spines
(c) Deep roots
(d) All of these

11. Respiration in aquatic animals occurs by

(a) Lungs
(b) Gills
(c) Nostrils
(d) Legs

12. Which is an aquatic adaptation?

(a) Streamlined body
(b) Light and hollow bones
(c) Hair on body
(d) Gills

13. Bending of a stem towards sunlight is called

(a) Geotropism
(b) Phototropism
(c) Hydrotropism
(d) Nasticism

14. Give one word for the following sentences:

a) The process of getting rid of wastes.
b) The process of removal of wastes in plants.
c) The factors like food, water, light, temperature to which organisms respond.
d) Production of new organisms of own kind.
e) Increase in the size along with mass using energy.
15. What is the main function of root in an aquatic plant ?

16
16. An example of rectilinear motion is
(a) apple falling from a tree
(b) motion of a car on a straight road
(c) a spinning top
(d) both (a) and (b)

17. Motion of a ceiling fan is an example of …………… motion. (rotatory motion)

18. Beating of drum can be term as which of the following type of motion ?
a) Translatory motion
b) Rectilinear motion
c) Periodic motion
d) Circular motion

19. Why is the copper wire used in electricals usually covered with rubber or plastic?

20. What is an insulator?

21. Moon is a luminous or non-luminous body? Justify.

22. Why are the shadows formed in the morning and evening bigger than the shadows formed in the
noon ?

23. Which unit of length is used for measuring very small distance?

24. Name the scientist who suggested MKS (meter, kilogram, second) system which later became SI
(International system of units)?
a) Isaac Newton
b) Napoleaon Bonaparte
c) Giovanni Giorgi
d) Galileo Galilei

25. Electric current can flow through metal. True or false?

26. How many terminals are there in a dry cell?

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4
27. Which part of the bulb produce light?
a) Terminal
b) Metal base
c) Thick wire
d) Filament

17
28. Filament of electric bulb is made of ___________. (Tungsten)

29. _________ is the positive terminal of an electric cell.

a) Metal disc
b) Metal cap
c) Metal case
d) None of above

30. In ______, electric energy is transformed into mechanical energy.

a) Transistor
b) Electrical bell
c) Mixer grinder
d) Electro-magnet

31. The combination of two or more electric cells is called ______.

a) Electric circuit
b) Terminal
c) Battery
d) None of these

32. Cell converts chemical energy into _______

a) Electrical energy
b) Mechanical energy
c) Light energy
d) None of these.

33. To prevent electric shocks the metallic electrical wires are covered with
a) Paper
b) Cotton
c) Aluminium
d) Plastic

34. _________ is an insulator.

a) Metal b) Rubber

c) Salt solution d) Acid

35. _______ is a conductor
a) Wood
b) Metal
c) Paper
d) Petrol

36. A device used to make or break a circuit is called

a) Battery
b) Cell

18
 c) Switch
d) Terminal

37. ________ is a source of electricity

a) Bulb
b) Electric cell
c) Electric switch
d) Terminal

38. Electric current can flow through ________ switch.

a) Open
b) Closed

39. An electric cell produce electricity due to ______ stored in it.

a) Energy
b) Current
c) Electricity
d) Chemical

40. The handles of tools like screw drivers/plier etc. used by electricians are covered by plastic or
rubber. Explain why?

41. Which type of energy conversion takes place in electric cell?

a) Electrical to light
b) Light to electrical
c) Chemical to electrical
d) None of above

42. The __________ wire that gives off light is called the filament of the bulb
a) Thick
b) Thin
c) Plane
d) None
43. Light travel in which pattern?
a) Zig zag
b) Straight
c) Curved
d) Randomly

44. Which type of objects do not allow light to pass through them?
a) Opaque
b) Transparent
c) Translucent
d) None of above

19
45. Bouncing back of light from a shining surface is called.
a) Reflection
b) Refractions
c) Bending
d) Dispersion

46. Which of the following materials allow light to pass through them?
a) Copper
b) Wood
c) Rubber
d) Glass

47. Who invented electric cell?

a) Thomas Elva Edison
b) Alessandro Volta
c) John Frederic Daniel
d) James Chadwick

48. Clouds are _______.

a) Opaque
b) Transparent
c) Translucent
d) Luminous

49. What do we need in order to see a shadow

a) Light
b) Screen
c) Opaque object
d) All of above

50. The wire of a fuse should have.

a) Low melting point
b) Very high resistance
c) More thickness
d) Higher strength and Low conductivity

51. We can we change direction of light

a) True
b) False

20
 CHAPTER – 13, 14, 15, 16
NAME – MEGHA JAIN
ENROLLMENT NUMBER- A3410520165
1. CHAP-13

Q.1. Which of these materials will not be attracted by a magnet/which of these is a non-magnetic
material?
1. Nickel
2. Calcium
3. Cobalt
4. Iron

Q.2. how do you know if a bar given to you is magnetic in nature?

Q3. what is a compass?

Q4. state two properties of magnets?

Q5. state use of magnetic compass?

Q.6. How can magnets be used to searate junk in junkyards?

Q.7. how can a compass be used to find directions?

Q.8. How can you magnetise a bar?

Q.9. While handling magnets, which of these should NOT be done?

(a) should not be heated, hammered or dropped from a height.
(b) should be stored in pairs with their unlike poles on same side.
(C) a piece of iron should NOT be kept across the poles of a horse-shoe magnet.
(D) magnets should be kept away from television,computers, CD, mobiles, etc

Q.10.
What is magnetite called now and where was it discovered?

Q.11. What is Lodestone?

Q.12. What are the properties of a magnet?

Q.13. What are soft and hard magnetic materials?

Q.14. To which part of the magnet do the most of the iron filings (or pins) stick?

Q.15. Can we isolate north-pole or south-pole?

Q.16. Do magnetic poles exist separately like charges? Explain.

21
Q.17. What happens when a pole of a bar magnet say its north-pole is marked with a chalk and
suspended freely? What do you observe on rotating the bar magnet?

Q.18. What will happen to the magnet when we cut it into two pieces?

q.19. Why is compass needle kept in a closed glass vessel?

Q.20. Hang a bar magnet with a thread on a stand and rotate the base of stand. What will happen?

Class-6 CHAPTER 14

Q1. Which processes help water vapors enter the air?

Q2. The process of changing water vapor into water is called condensation_.

Q.3. Which of these is not an effect of less rainfall?

1. overflowing rivers
2. drought
3. difficulty in producing crops.
4. all of above

Q.4. effects of excess rainfall?

1. damage of crops
2. loss of life
3. floods
4. all of above

Q.5. how are clouds formed?

Q.6. Why rivers originating from Himalayas do not dry during summer?

Q. 7. What do you mean by potable water?

Q.8. What are the different forms of precipitation?

Q.9. Is evaporation endothermic or exothermic process?

Q.10. Can we use the water in the oceans and seas for drinking and other purposes? Why?

Q.11. What are the different ways by which water vapour is put into the atmosphere?

Q.12. How will you show the presence of water vapour in the air?

Q.13. What is the importance of water cycle?

Q.14. What is transpiration and write the factors affecting it?

22
Q.15. What are the various methods of rainwater harvesting?

Q.16. Which is not a part of water cycle?

(a) Cloud formation
(b) Rain
(c) Drinking by animals
(d) Sun

Q.17. Which is a result of condensation of water vapours?

(a) Rain
(b) Snowfall
(c) Hail
(d) Tiny water droplets

Q.18. Circulation of water between ocean and land is known as

(a) water cycle
(b) rain cycle
(c) water management
(d) water harvesting

Q.19. Plants release large amount of water vapour into the atmosphere by the process called
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) precipitation
(d) transpiration

Q.20. How does concrete flooring affect groundwater?

23
 CLASS -CHAP-15

Q1. Which part of air supports burning of candle?

1. Water vapour
2. Oxygen
3. Nitrogen
4. Carbon dioxide

Q.2. why do earthworms come out of soil during heavy rains?

Q.3. Air plays a role in?

1. sailing of yachts, gliders, parachutes, aeroplanes
2. in water cycle
3. dispersion of seeds and pollens
4. all of above

Q.4. If plants and animals consume oxygen for respiration, then how is there a balance of oxygen on
earth?

Q.5. which gas does not support burning?

1. carbon dioxide
2. Nitogen
3. Oxygen
4. none of above

Q.6. Major part of the air is constituted by

(a) nitrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) inert gases

Q.7. Which of the following gas we use in breathing?

(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen
(d) None of these

Q.8. Wind is
(a) air around us
(b) rising hot air
(c) air in motion
(d) none of these

Q.9. Air is present in

(a) atmosphere
(b) soil
(c) water of ponds, lakes and seas

24
(d) everywhere

Q.10. Air is
(a) a mixture
(b) a pure substance
(c) an element
(d) anything, that depends on the place where it is found

Q.11. Envelope of air that surrounds the earth is known as

(a) biosphere
(b) atmosphere
(c) environment
(d) ecosystem

Q.12. Which is not a property of air?

(a) It occupies space.
(b) It is transparent,
(c) It is a solution.
(d) It is a compound.

Q.13. The ratio of nitrogen to oxygen in the air is

(a) 1: 4
(b) 4:1
(c) 3: 1
(d) 1:2

Q.14. The aquatic animals use dissolved oxygen in water for respiration. This is possible because
oxygen is ………………… in water.

Q.15. How is air important for life on the earth?

Q.16. Define oxygen cycle.

Q.17. What happens if the percentage of oxygen in the air reaches to 70%?

Q.18. Why do earthworms come out of the soil during heavy rains?

Q.19. How does oxygen become available to the animals in water and soil?

Q.20.
Are respiration and breathing same?

25
 CLASS -CHAP-16

Q.1. Name some substances that are difficult to dispose of.

Answer: Plastic, Polythene, Lead batteries, Glass, Rubber, etc., are difficult to dispose of.

Q.2. Define landfills and composting.

Answer: Ways of managing biodegradable wastes are:

• Landfill: Garbage is collected in trucks and are taken to a low-lying open area called
landfills.
• Composting: The rotting and conversion of some biodegradable materials into manure
is called composting.

Q.3. Why is it harmful to burn leaves?

Answer: On burning, the leaves pollute the atmosphere. There will not be any compost manure if the
leaves are burnt.

Q.4. What is vermiculture?

Answer: Vermiculture is the artificial rearing or cultivation of earthworm.

Q.5. Which organism (animal) is called farmer’s friend?

Answer: Earthworm.

Q.6. Name the type of earthworm used in the composting process?

Answer: Redworms. They help in preparing compost from the kitchen wastes and parts of plants or
animals.

Q.7. What is vermicomposting?

Answer: The method of preparing compost with the help of redworms is called vermicomposting.

Q.8. What can we do to overcome the problem of garbage?

Answer: We should produce minimum garbage by

• Reducing
• Reusing
• Recycling

Q.9. What do you mean by reduced use?

Answer: We should reduce the use of such thing which adds to the garbage, and cannot be recycled.

Q.10. What is reuse?

Ans. We should use the packings, polythene bags, etc., for as many times as we can, instead of
throwing them.

Q.11. Which one of the following will add to garbage?

(a) Wrapper of a biscuit pack
(b) Tin of a cold drink
(c) Syringe used by a doctor
(d) All of these
Answer: (d)

26
Q.12. Which one can be used for making manure?
(a) Earthworms
(b) Houseflies
(c) Eagle
(d) Crow
Answer: (a)

Q.13. Leaves falling from trees should be disposed by

(a) burning
(b) making compost by boiling and drying them
(c) making compost by vermicomposting
(d) any of these methods
Answer: (c)

Q. 14. Garbage from cities is collected at

(a) landfill areas
(b) riversides
(c) inside the ponds and lakes
(d) near every colony
Answer: (a)

Q.15. Which of the following can be recycled?

(a) Waste paper
(b) Leather shoes
(c) Animal waste
(d) Kitchen waste
Answer: (a)

Q. 16. Out of these, which one is a non-biodegradable waste?

(a) Paper
(b) Faecal matter
(c) Aluminium foil
(d) Cotton
Answer: (c)

Q.17. 3’R’ means

(a) reduce, reuse and recycle
(b) rain, reuse and recycle
(c) rotting, reduce and reuse
(d) recycle, rain and rotting
Answer: (a)

Q.18. Which among the following will not pollute the soil?
(a) Aluminium foil
(b) Plastic
(c) Thermo Col
(d) Bread
Answer: (d) Bread is a biodegradable material.

27
Q.19. Rotting is carried out by
(a) microbes
(b) insects
(c) ants
(d) amoeba
Answer: (a)

Q.20. Materials that can be recycled are collected in

(a) Red bins
(b) Blue bins
(c) Yellow bins
(d) White bins
Answer: (b)

28
 CTET QUESTIONS (by Megha Jain)

YEAR 2016

Q.1. which of the following strategies are most appropriate for teacher to teach the topic ‘save
energy’?
A. Ask the students to write slogans on saving energy
B. write atleast 5 ways to save energy
C. Make a model/project to depict energy saving
D. Encouraging students to save energy in various ways in their lives
1. B, C and D
2. A,B, and C
3. A, B, and D
4. A, C, and D

Q.2. An electric circuit is setup in such a way that the positive terminal of a battery, V, is connected to
a bulb B1 which is connected to a Resistor, R, which is connected to bulb B2. B2 is finally connected to
the negative terminal of the battery. Both the bulbs are glowing. If the value of R is increased, then
1. Both B1 and B2 will become dimmer
2. B1 will become dimmer but brightness of B2 will remain unchanged
3. B2 will become dimmer but brightness of B1 will remain unchanged
4. Both B1 and B2 will remain unchanged

Q.3. Read the given statements and select the correct option:
Statement A: Husk is separated from heavier seeds of grain by winnowing.
Statement B: difference in the size of particles in a mixture is utilized to separate them by the process
of sieving and filtering.
1. Both statements A and B are true
2. Statement A is true statement B is false
3. Statement B is true statement A is false
4. Both statements A and B are false

Q.4. Cellulose-rich food substances (i.e. roughages) are considered an essential component of a
balanced diet of human beings. Which of the following is the correct statement about cellulose?
1. cellulose breaks down easily into smaller components which are egested as roughages.
2. the cellulose-digesting bacteria present in human beings convert the cellulose into fibres.
3. human beings do not have cellulose digesting enzymes
4. cellulose is a type of carbohydrate which gets absorbed in human blood and gives energy.

Q.5. The joint between head and upper jaw is an example of

1. ball and socket joint
2. hinged joint
3. pelvic joint
4. fixed joint

Q.6. Identify the correct statements:

A. the freshwater stored in ground is less than that present in rivers and lakes of the world.
B. water shortage is a problem faced by people only in rural areas.
c. water from rivers is the only source for irrigation in the fields.
D. Rain is the ultimate source of water.
1. only D

29
 2. A and C
3. A and B
4. A,B and C

Q.7. which of the following make(s) good open-ended question(s)?

A. what difficulties would we face if our bodies did not have muscles in it?
B. What is the difference between the stem of a rose plant, mango tree and tulsi?
C. Snake and snails have very different styles of movement. Why is it so?
D. Observe various roots and write their features.
1. A and C
2. B and D
3. only A
4. only C

2. 2021

Q1. which of the following statements is NOT true regarding life cycl of silkworm and production of
silk fibres?
1. Silk fibres are proteins secreted by caterpillars.
2. The silk yarn is obtained from the cocoon of the silk moth.
3. The larvae of silk moths are called as caterpillars.
4. The pupa develops into caterpillar.

Q2. Which of the following represents correct matching set?

B. Helps in the movement of body by contraction and relaxation.
C. Hard structure which forms the skeleton
D. Part of skeleton which can be bent
E. Joins the chest bone and back bone together to form an enclosure
i. Cartilage
ii. Muscles
iii. Rib-cage
iv. Bones

1. A-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

2. A-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
3. A-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
4. A-ii, b-iv, c-I, d-iii

Q3. ‘Y’ is a man-made fibre obtained from a natural source. What could be ‘Y’?
1. Acrylic
2. Jute
3. Rayon
4. Nylon

Q4. Which of the following sets comprises chemical changes?

1. Shampoo, vegetable oil, distilled water
2. Sugar solution, vinegar, lemon juice.
3. Tap water, shampoo, honey
4. Salt solution, lemon juice, vinegar

30
Q.5. which of the following will not be helpful in the process of separating a mixture of salt and
water?
1. distillation
2. boiling
3. decantation
4. filteration

31
 Chapter – 1,2,3,4
1. D 45. d
2. A 46. b
3. C 47. b
4. A 48. b
5. C 49. b
6. B 50. b
7. C 51. magnetic
8. D 52. c
9. b 53. b
10. c 54. c
11. c 55. c
12. b
13. a
14. d
15. c
16. d
17. b
18. d
19. c
20. c
21. a
22. b
23. c
24. d
25. d
26. b
27. b
28. a
29. c
30. c
31. b
32. b
33. b
34. b
35. d
36. b
37. a
38. d
39. c
40. a
41. a
42. c
43. b
44. c

32
Chapter 5 ,6,7,8

1. a 21. c
2. b 22. b
3. a 23. a
4. c 24. 1
5. b 25. b
6. d 26. 3
7. b 27. b
8. c 28. a
9. b 29. a
10. a 30. a
11. a 31. a
12. c 32. a
13. a 33. a
14. d 34. a
15. a 35. a
16. d 36. a
17. b 37. a
18. 1 38. a
19. d 39. a
20. c 40. d

33
 Chapter - 9 ,10,11, 12

1. b 23. Milli meter 41 c

2. a 24. c 42. b
3. a 25. True 43. b
4. d 26. b 44. a
5. locomotion 27. d 45. a
6. a 28. Tungsten 46. d
7. d 29. b 47. b
8. b 30. c 48. c
9. d 31. c 49. d
10. d 32. a 50. a
11. b 33. d 51. a

12. a 34. b
13. b 35. b
14. a) Excretion 36. c
b) Secretion 37.
c) Stimuli 38. b
d) Reproduction 39. d
e) Growth 40. Because plastics and rubbers are insulators of electricity .

15. The basic function of roots is anchorage and absorption of water and minerals. But availability
of water is not a problem for aquatic plants. Hence, roots are not well developed in most of
the aquatic plants.
16. d
17. Rotatory Motion
18. c
19. Copper wires are usually covered with rubber or plastics to prevent shocks and ensure safety.
Because plastics and rubbers are insulators of electricity i.e. they cannot conduct electricity.

20. Insulator: A substance that resists the flow of heat, electricity or sound through it.
21. Moon doesn't give off light of its own, that's why the moon is considered a non-luminous
body.
22. Shadows are longer in the morning and evening and short in the noon because the sun rays
are slanting in the morning and evening whereas at noon it is just above our head. The size of
the shadow depends on the position of the object from the source of light.

34
(Megha Jain)
Answers for CTET questions from Chapters:
Chap 13:
Ans.1. Calcium
Ans.2. We find that a freely suspended bar magnet always comes to rest in a particular direction,
which is the North-South direction. (While, bars made out of wood, plastic, etc will always rest in a
different direction when suspended in air.)
Ans.3. A compass is a device that shows the cardinal directions used for navigation and geographic
orientation. It commonly consists of a magnetized needle or other element, which can pivot to align
itself with magnetic north.
Ans.4. 1. A freely suspended magnet always points in the north-south direction.
2. Like magnetic poles repel each other; unlike poles attract.
Ans.5. finding directions

Ans6. Magnets are attracted to other magnetic material like iron, nickel, cobalt and thus, these metal
carrying junks can be separated out. Therefore, a crane carrying strong magnet is used.
Ans.7. Compass needles are designed to align with Earth's magnetic field, with the north end of the
needle pointing to the magnetic North Pole and the opposite end of the needle pointing to the
magnetic South Pole. When you take out your compass and let the needle settle, it will run parallel to
the lines of Earth's magnetic field where you are standing.
Ans.8. A magnet is taken and and one of the poles of magnet is slowly over the entire length of the
iron bar without lifting it in between. Repeat the process by taking the magnet back to starting point
after uplifting it away from surface. Ensure that same pole is used to move in the same direction along
the iron bar repeatedly. Repeat process 30-40 times.
Ans.9. C
Ans.10. Magnetite like materials are called magnets now and it was found in Greece.
Ans.11. Lodestone is a type of iron. It bears the properties of magnet.
Ans.12.
• It attracts iron pieces towards itself.
• It always aligns itself in the same direction, if left to rotate freely.
• It is composed of oxides of iron (Fe3O4).

Ans.13. Soft iron is called soft magnetic material because it loses its magnetism easily. Soft iron is used
in making electromagnets. Steel is called a ‘hard’ magnetic material because it does not lose its
magnetism so easily. It is used to make permanent magnets.
Ans.14. Most of the iron filings (or pins) stick to the poles, i.e., north and south poles. At these poles
of magnet magnetic effect is maximum.
Ans.15. No, we cannot isolate north-pole of a magnet from its south-pole or vice versa. If you break a
bar magnet into two halves, you will not get a single north or south pole but two magnets each with
its north and south-poles.
Ans.16. Magnetic poles do not exist separately like positive and negative charges. This means that it is
not possible to isolate a north pole of a magnet from its south pole by cutting the magnet from the
middle.
Ans.17. The marked pole comes to rest in north direction. On rotating, after some time, it again
comes to rest in north directon.

35
Ans.18. When we cut a bar magnet into two pieces, both these pieces act as magnets and we get two
magnets.
Ans.19. Compass needle is a small and thin magnet used to find the direction. If it is kept in open, it
may deflect in any direction due to pressure exerted by air. So to know right direction, it is kept
covered by glass covering.
Ans.20. The direction of bar magnet is not changed as we rotate the stand. It is because a freely
suspended magnet comes to rest in particular direction, i.e., north-south directions. In this activity,
only stand changes its direction.

36
 Class-6 CHAPTER 14
Ans.1. Evaporation and transpiration
Ans.2. condensation
Ans.3. A
Ans.4. C.
Ans.5. The water present on the earth evaporates due to heating by the sun. The water vapour in the
air condenses to form tiny droplets of water at high altitude, which appears as clouds. Thus clouds are
formed by the condensation of water vapours present in air at high altitude.
Ans.6. Rivers originating from the Himalayas do not dry up during summers because they continue to
get water from the melting snow on the mountains.
Ans.7. The water which is suitable for drinking is called potable water.

Ans.8. The different forms of precipitation are:

• Rain
• Hail/Snow
• Dew.

Ans.9. Evaporation is endothermic process.

Ans.10. No, we cannot use the water in the oceans and seas for drinking and other domestic
agricultural and industrial needs because it has much salts dissolved in.

Ans.11. Water in oceans, lakes and ponds gets evaporated due to atmospheric heat. Factories and
thermal power stations produce a lot of steam and put it into the atmosphere. Plants throw out water
vapour by transpiration. Animals excrete water vapour through respiration and sweating. All this
vapour accumulates in the atmosphere.

Ans.12. By observing condensation (water droplets on outer surface of glass containing ice)

Ans13.
• Water cycle helps in regulating weather on earth.
• Water cycle makes water available in its various forms on the earth. The most important is
the rainwater.

Ans.14. A part of water absorbed by the plants is released by plant through their leaves into the air by
a process called transpiration. Transpiration is affected by the following factors:
• Temperature.
• Humidity.
• Windspeed.
• Time of the day.

Ans.15.

37
 • Rooftop rainwater harvesting: In this system, the rainwater from the rooftop is collected in a
storage tank through pipes.
• A big pit is dug near house for collecting rainwater. This pit is filled with different layers of
bricks, coarse gravels and sand or granite pieces.

Ans.16. C

Ans.17. D

Ans.18. A

Ans.19. D

Ans.20. Concrete is a non-porous material. It does not allow water to pass through it resulting in
failure of recharging of groundwater using rainwater and ts water table is affected.

38
 CLASS -CHAP-15

Ans.1. A

Ans.2. Because they need oxygen for respiration, as the water fills up all the free spaces in soil in case
of heavy rains.

Ans.3. D

Ans.4. The balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide is maintained through respiration in plants and
animals and photosynthesis by plants. During photosynthesis plants produce more oxygen than what
they consume in respiration.

Ans.5. A.

Ans.6: (a)

Ans.7. (c)

Ans.8. (c)

Ans.9. (d)

Ans.10. A

Ans.11. B

Ans.12. (d) Air is a homogeneous solution, which occupies space and it is transparent. So air is not a
compound.

Ans.13. B

Ans.14. Soluble

Ans. 15. Air helps in the movements of sailing yachts, gliders, parachutes and aeroplanes. Birds, bats
and insects can fly due to the presence of air. Air also helps in the dispersal of seeds and pollen of
flowers of several plants. Air plays an important role in water cycle. Thus air is important for life on
the earth.

Ans.16. The cycle of consumption of oxygen by respiration and its release by photosynthesis is called
oxygen cycle.

Ans.17. If any substance catches fire, it will become difficult to extinguish the fire, as oxygen supports
combustion.

Ans.18. When it rains heavily, water fills up all the spaces occupied by the air in the soil. In such a
situation, animals like earthworms need to come out of the soil for respiration.

39
Ans.19. Air remains dissolved in water. Air is also present between the particles of soil. Hence animals
living there get oxygen.

Ans.20. Breathing is just the intake of oxygen and giving out carbon dioxide. Respiration is a chemical
process which generates energy in body.

40
 CLASS -CHAP-16
Answer.1: Plastic, Polythene, Lead batteries, Glass, Rubber, etc., are difficult to dispose of.
Answer.2: Ways of managing biodegradable wastes are:

• Landfill: Garbage is collected in trucks and are taken to a low-lying open area called
landfills.
• Composting: The rotting and conversion of some biodegradable materials into manure
is called composting.

Answer.3: On burning, the leaves pollute the atmosphere. There will not be any compost manure if
the leaves are burnt.

Answer.4: Vermiculture is the artificial rearing or cultivation of earthworm.

Answer.5.: Earthworm.
Answer.6.: Redworms. They help in preparing compost from the kitchen wastes and parts of plants or
animals.
Answer.7.: The method of preparing compost with the help of redworms is called vermicomposting.
Answer.8.: We should produce minimum garbage by
• Reducing
• Reusing
• Recycling

Answer.9.: We should reduce the use of such thing which adds to the garbage, and cannot be
recycled.

Ans10. We should use the packings, polythene bags, etc., for as many times as we can, instead of
throwing them.
Answer.11: (d)
Answer.12: (a)
Answer.13.: (c)
Answer.14.: (a)
Answer.15.: (a)
Answer.16.: (c)
Answer.17.: (a)
Answer.18. : (d) Bread is a biodegradable material
Answer.19.: (a)
Answer.20.: (b)

41
 Class 7 CTET Question Bank
By: Divya Mahajan, Muskan Baldodia, Rohini Taneja, Soumya Panda

Chapters Page Number

Chapter 1: Nutrition in Plants 43

Chapter 2: Nutrition in Animals 45

Chapter 3: Fibre to Fabric 46

Chapter 4: Heat 47

Chapter 5: Acids. Bases and Salts 49

Chapter 6: Physical and Chemical Changes 51

Chapter 7: Weather, Climate and Adaptation of Animates to Climate 53

Chapter 8: Winds, Storms and Cyclones 55

Chapter 9: Soil 56

Chapter 10: Respiration in Organisms 57

Chapter 11: Transportation in Plants and Animals 59

Chapter 12: Reproduction in Plants 61

Chapter 13: Motion and Time 63

Chapter 14: Electric Current and its Effects 65

Chapter 15: Light 67

Chapter 16: Water: A precious resource 70

Chapter 17: Forest – Our Lifeline 72

Chapter 18: Waste Water Story 75

Answer Key 77 – 95

42
 CHAPTER 1: NUTRITION IN PLANTS

Q1. What is nutrition?

Q2. Plants prepare their food using a different mode of nutrition than us. What is it?

Q3. _____ are the food factories of plant.

a) Flower
b) Leaves
c) Stem

Q3. Photosynthesis requires chlorophyll and a few other raw materials. Add the missing raw materials
to the list given below:
Water, minerals, (a) …… (b) …….

Q4. The tiny openings present on the leaf surface are known as ?

Q5. The green pigment present in leaves is known as _____?

Q6. Why are algae green in color ?

Q7.Define parasites.

Q8. Name the bacteria that can fix atmospheric nitrogen.

Q9. Pitcher plant traps insects because it

(a) is a heterotroph
(b) grows in soils which lack in nitrogen
c) does not have chlorophyll
(d) has a digestive system like human beings

Q10. The symbiotic association is seen in which of the following?

(a) Lichens
(b) Algae
c) Fungi
(d) Bacteria

Q11. In the process of photosynthesis, plants

(a) take O2 and release CO2
(b) take CO2 and release O2
c) take and release O2
(d) take O2 and release water

Q12. _____plants derive their nutrient from dead and decaying animals or plants.

Q13. The plants that provide nutrition to the parasitic plant are called …….

Q14. Animals are heterotrophs. True or false?

Q15. Define symbiosis.

43
Q16. What nutrients does manures and fertilizers contain?

Q17. ____ is produced during photosynthesis

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen

Q18. Which among the following is an insectivorous plant

(a) lichen
(b) Cuscuta
c) pitcher plant
(d) bread mould

Q19.In photosynthesis solar energy is absorbed by the pigment called ________.

Q20. Farmers use manure and fertilisers to

(a) replenish plant
(b) replenish soil
c) replenish air
(d) replenish fungi

44
 CHAPTER-2 NUTRITION IN ANIMALS

Q1 What is digestion?
Q2. What is the total number of teeth in an adult human?

Q3. The process of taking food in the body is called _______________

Q4. What is the use of saliva?

Q5. Name the parts of the alimentary canal where

(a) water gets absorbed from undigested food
(b) digested food gets absorbed
c) taste of the food is recognized
(d) bile juice is produced

Q6. What helps in swallowing food?

Q7. The swallowed food passes into the ____________.

Q8. What is the widest part of alimntry canal?

Q9. Identify the location of salivary gland.

Q10. ______________ is the largest gland in the body.

Q11. Name the secretions of stomach which digest food.

Q12. What is the process of Assimilation?

Q13 _____________ are the finger-like outgrowths in the inner wall of small intestine.

Q14. What is partially digested food called?

Q15. Name the simple forms of carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

Q16 What are the various associated glands of the digestive system?

Q17. Which type of carbohydrate is present in grass?

Q18. What is amoeba?

Q19.The food becomes trapped in a _____________ in amoeba.

Q20. The tip or front of tongue taste

(a) sour
(b) bitter
(c) salt and sweet
(d) All of these

45
 CHAPTER-3 FIBRE TO FABRIC

Q1. Wool is obtained from the ___________ of sheep or yak

Q2. Name the steps of processing fibres into wool

Ques 3 Which bacterium causes sorter’s disease?

Q4. What is Sericulture?

Q5. What is the life history of a silk moth?

Q6. Name some indian breeds of Sheep.

Q7. What are Animal fibres?

Q8. ___________ is the most common silkmoth.

Q9. Which of the following yield wool?

A) Cat
B) Dog
C) Goat
D) Lion

Q10.What is meant by reeling the silk?

Q11. Name some wool yielding animals.

Q.12 Silkworms secrete fibre made of

(a) fat
(b) cellulose
(c) protein
(d) nylon

Q13. Wool yielding animals bear _____________ on their body.

Q14. Silkworms spin _________ of silk fibre.

Q15 Like wool, silk also keeps us warm as it is a bad conductor of heat. (T/F)

Q16 Yak hair are not used to make woollen fabric. (T/F)

Q17. Silkworm feeds on oak leaves. (T/F)

Q18 which stage in the life cycle of silk moth is called cocoon?

Q19. Two fibres are made up of proteins. Name them.

Q20. Artificial silk belongs to?

46
 CHAPTER 4 HEAT

Q1. What is temperature?

Q2. _________ is the device used to measure temperature?

Q3. The thermometer used to measure human body temperature is called _______ thermometer.

Q4. A clinical thermometer reads temperature from _____ C to _______ C?

Q5. What does a clinical thermometer consist of ?

Q6. What is the normal temperature of human body?

Q7. How do we measure temperature of other objects?

Q8. What is the use of kink in clinical thermometer?

Q9. Heat always flows

(a) from a colder object to a hotter object
(b) from a hotter object to a colder object
(c) in both the directions
(d) None of the above

Q10. If a pan is removed from the fire, then why does it cool down?

Q11. The process by which heat is transferred from the hotter end to the colder end of an object is
known as __________?

Q12. What is a conductor?

Q13. Water and air are poor conductors of heat. True or false?

Q14. Name the mode of transfer of heat in which medium is not required.

Q15. In coastal areas, cold air flows in the day from sea to land. It is called _______

Q16. Match the Column I with Column II.

Column 1 Column II
(a) Conduction (i) Wood, plastic, wool, air, water
(b) Convection (ii) Requires no medium
c) Radiation (iii) Solids
(d) Conductors (iv) Metals
e) Insulators (v) Liquids

Q17. We are advised to use an umbrella when you go out in the sun. Why?

Q18. Clothes of ______________ colors absorb more heat better than clothes of light colors.

47
Q19. Shining thread in thermometer is the column of mercury. True or false?

Q20. How does the heat travel in air?

48
 CHAPTER – 5 ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

Q1. Why do some substances taste sour?

Q2. Which of the following sets of substances contains acids?

(a) Grapes, lime water
(b) Vinegar, soap
c) Curd, milk of magnesia
(d) Curd, vinegar

Q3. Name some naturally occurring indicators.

Q4. What is the test for acids and bases using litmus paper?

Q5. What name is given to those substances which do not change the colour of either red or blue
litmus paper?

Q6. Name the reaction when an acid is mixed with base.

Q7. Name the acid present in lemon juice and spinach.

Q8. Products of a neutralisation reaction are always

(a) an acid and a base
(b) an acid and a salt
(c) a salt and water
(d) a salt and a base

Q9. Name one indicator which turns red on adding an acid.

Q10. Name one indicator which turns red on adding a base.

Q11. Turmeric is a natural indicator. On adding its paste to acid and base separately, which colours
would be observed?
(a) Yellow in both acid and base
(b) Yellow in acid and red in base
(c) Pink in acid and yellow in base
(d) Red in acid and blue in base

Q12. Phenolphthalein gives___________ colour with lime water.

a) Blue
b) Pink
c) Red

Q13. Acid + Base → _______ + Water

Q14.Name a substance which is used to cure the discomfort caused by indigestion due to over eating.

Q15. Why does a turmeric stain on white shirt is turned to red when it is washed with soap?

Q16. Excessive use of chemical fertilisers make the soil _______.

49
Q17. Calamine can be used to treat ant’s sting?
a) True
b) False

Q18. Phenolphthalein is a synthetic indicator and its colours in acidic and basic solutions respectively
are
(a) red and blue
(b) blue aand red
(c) pink and colourless
(d) colourless and pink

Q19. Hydrochloric acid + Sodium hydroxide → __________ + Water

Q20. Lemon water is basic in nature

a) True
b) False

50
 Chapter 6: Physical and Chemical Changes

1. Is stretching of a rubber band a physical change or a chemical change?

2. In which kind of change, no new substance is formed?

3. What is the color of the copper sulphate solution?

4. Why does lime water turn milky when carbon dioxide is passed through it?

5. Which of the following cannot be a result of a chemical change?

a) Color change
b) Heat, light or any other radiation given or absorbed
c) Atoms change their identity
d) Formation of gas

6. Which of the following is not a chemical change?

a) Boiling of egg
b) Boiling of water
c) Burning of paper
d) Burning of cloth

7. Which of the following is an irreversible change?

a) Melting of ice
b) Stretching of a rubber band
c) Mixing sand and water
d) Ripening of grapes

8. Which of the following is always accompanied by production of heat?

a) A chemical reaction
b) Mixing of two substances
c) Burning
d) Filtering

9. Is breaking down of the ozone layer a chemical change?

10. Which of the following is essential for the process of rusting?
a) Either oxygen or water/water vapor
b) Both oxygen and water/water vapor
c) Either oxygen or carbon
d) Both carbon and water/water vapor

11. To protect iron from rusting, a layer of zinc is deposited on it. What is the process known as?

12. Define crystallization.

13. Which kind of change is crystallization?

14. What color of flame is observed when magnesium ribbon is burnt in air?

15. Name the process by which common salt is obtained from sea water.

51
16. What is the nature of magnesium oxide solution?

17. Name the metals which are mixed with iron to make stainless steel.

18. Is cloud formation a physical change or chemical change?

19. Name a chemical reaction that takes place in plants.

20. Is energy evolved or absorbed during burning of a candle?

52
 Chapter 7: Weather, Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

1. Mention the term used to describe the ability of different animals to survive in their
respective habitats.

2. Which is the most important factor in determining the climate of a place?

3. What is the term used for an animal that can live both in water and on land and give one
example.

4. The weather report carries the information about which of the elements of weather?

5. Who are meteorologists?

6. Name the primary sources of energy which cause changes in the weather.

7. What do sun rays provide to the earth?

8. Which type of climate is found in the north-eastern region of India?

9. Are tropical rainforests found in India?

10. Which of the following animals do not live in polar region?

a) Penguin
b) Polar bear
c) Monkey
d) Seal

11. Is it more difficult to predict the weather or the climate of a place and why?

12. Which phenomenon is associated with the formation of fog?

a) Condensation
b) Evaporation
c) Precipitation
d) Crystallization

13. Mention two adaptive features of penguin that help it in swimming.

14. Name the colorful bird with large and long beak that lives in tropical rainforests.

15. Why are polar bears white in color?

16. Where is the red-eyed frog found?

17. Which factor does not affect the climate of a place?

a) Temperature zone or latitude
b) Distance from sea

53
 c) Amount of precipitation received
d) Distance from mountains

18. Why do birds migrate?

19. Does weather affect the adaptation of an organism?

20. Apart from having 2 thick layers of white fur, what other adaptive feature of polar bears keep
them warm?

54
 Chapter 8: Winds, Storms and Cyclones

1. Why is Chandigarh unlikely to be affected by a cyclone?

2. Discuss the major cause of winds.

3. Name the ocean which is mainly responsible to bring rain bearing monsoon winds to
Kerala coast in June every year.

4. Which air is lighter, warm or cold?

5. Enlist the other names of cyclone.

6. Name the instrument which is used to measure the speed of wind.

7. Which factor is not responsible for the increase in speed of wind or cyclones?

a) Wind direction
b) Temperature
c) Longitude
d) Humidity

8. Why does smoke always rise up?

9. In the wind flow pattern, it can be found that the wind shown is not in the exact North-
South direction. Why?

10. When strong/high speed wind blows, why does an umbrella held upright get upturned at times?

11. Give three precautions that should be taken to protect oneself from the thunderstorm.

12. How is a tornado different from a cyclone?

13. Name the technological devices used to issue alerts and warnings of storms.

14. What causes a pressure difference on earth’s surface?

15. What are trade winds?

16. Where in the kitchen should an exhaust fan be installed to expel the hot air effectively?

17. At midnight, does the wind blow from land to sea or from sea to land?

18. In the afternoon, the pressure on the land is _____ than the pressure above the sea.

19. Why are monsoon winds helpful?

20. Why does an empty bottle contract when kept in the refrigerator?

55
 Chapter 9: Soil

1. Name the 4 major categories of soil.

2. Which type of soil is considered to be the most fertile and used for growing crops?

3. Which type of soil absorbs more water but allows less water to percolate?

4. What is the absorption percentage?

5. Why are bubbles observed when dry soil is added in water?

6. Define weathering.

7. What is the other name for bedrock?

8. Arrange the name of layers of soil from top to bottom, substratum, subsoil,
topsoil,bedrock.

9. Name 2 soils used for cultivation.

10. Which category of soil has the smallest particle size?

11. Arrange the categories of soil in increasing order of the particle size, Rock, clay, sand, gravel, silt.

12. What is the component of soil called that consists of living organisms like fungi, insects, worms
etc.?

13. Name the major thing that pollutes soil.

14. Apart from plastics, what other things pollute soil?

15. Which soil is used for making “matkas”?

16. In which layer of soil is humus generally found?

17. Which kind of soil has the highest percolation rate?

18. Why is clayey soil most suitable for planting rice?

19. What is soil erosion?

20. Why is soil erosion less in dense forests as compared to barren, open land?

56
 Chapter 10: Respiration in Organisms

1. The cellular respiration process takes place in which cell organelle?

2. What is aerobic respiration?

3. What are the end products of aerobic respiration?

4. What other end product, apart from CO2 and energy, is formed during anaerobic
respiration in yeast?

5. Through where does exchange of gases take place in earthworms?

6. The respiratory organs in humans are lungs and in fish are?

7. Why do our nostrils have hair and mucus?

8. Why do farmers sometimes loosen the soil?

9. Which of the following is not a part of the human respiratory system?

a) Nasal cavity

b) Windpipe

c) Esophagus

d) Trachea

10. Give the scientific name of the voice box.

11. What changes are observed in diaphragm during inhalation?

12. What is the special organ present in insects called that is used for respiration?

13. Name the pores present on the leaf surface that help in the gaseous exchange in plants.

14. The process of fermentation is based on which principle?

15. Which respiratory organ is known as the floor of chest cavity?

16. What is the effect on our breathing rate while sleeping?

17. When oxygen enters our body it combines with hemoglobin to form a new substance. What is
that new product?

18. How do frogs respire both on land and in water?

19. Why is respiration a continuous process in animals?

57
20. What are anaerobes? Give one example.

58
 CHAPTER 11: TRANSPORTATION IN ANIMALS AND PLANTS

Q1. Which of the following is/are carried by blood?

(a) Oxygen
(b) Water
(c) Glucose
(d) All of the above

Q2. Which component of blood contains 90% water?

Q3. Name the organs in the circulatory system.

Q4. Which organ is located in the chest cavity with its lower tip slightly tilted towards the left?
(a) Heart
(b) Lungs
(c) Rib cage
(d) Diaphragm

Q5. What is the red pigment in red blood cells called?

Q6. Which component of the blood helps fight pathogens?

Q7. Which component of the blood helps in clotting?

Q8. Name the two types of blood vessels present in the human body.

Q9. Which type of blood vessel carries oxygen-rich blood from the heart to other parts of the body?

Q10. Which type of blood vessel carries carbon dioxide rich blood from different parts of the body to
the heart?

Q11. Usually veins carry deoxygenated blood except in one case. Specify.

Q12. Name the only artery that carries carbon dioxide rich blood.

Q13. What are smaller blood vessels, formed from the division of arteries, called?

Q14. How many chambers are present in the heart? What are the upper and lower chambers called?

Q15. What is the process of removal of wastes produced in the cells of living organisms called?

Q16. Which organs are involved in the excretory system?

Q17. _________ is the mixture of urea and other unwanted salts with water which is needed to be
excreted out as its presence in blood can make a person ill.

59
Q18. Name the tissues of a plant which carries
(a) water and minerals from roots to the leaves.
(b) food from the leaves to the other parts of the plant.

Q19. The evaporation of water from the leaves of plant is called ____________.

Q20. The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis from leaves (from where they are formed)
to the other parts, of plants is called ____________.

Q21. Where does transpiration occur?

Q22. Where does translocation occur?

Q23. The water moves from root to leaves with the help of specialised cells called _____________.
Transport of water and nutrients is done by ____________ present in plants.

Q24. The muscular tube through which stored urine is passed out of the body is called
(a) kidney
(b) ureter
(c) urethra
(d) urinary bladder

Q25. The absorption of nutrients and exchange of respiratory gases between blood and tissues takes
place in
(a) veins
(b) arteries
(c) heart
(d) capillaries

Q26. Aquatic animals like fish excrete their wastes in gaseous form as
(a) oxygen
(b) hydrogen
(c) ammonia
(d) nitrogen

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 CHAPTER 12: REPRODUCTION IN PLANTS

Q1. In ___________ reproduction, new plants are obtained without production of seeds.

Q2. ____________________________ is a type of asexual reproduction in which new plants are

produced from roots, stems, leaves and buds.

Q3. Algae grow and multiply by the process of ______________.

Q4. _________ are asexual reproductive bodies that are covered by a protective coat to help
withstand unfavourable conditions like high temperature and low humidity.

Q5. Fungi and moss reproduce through ________ formation.

Q6. _________ is the male reproductive part of a flower and _________ is the female part.

Q7. The fusion of male and female gametes is called

(a) ovulation
(b) population
(c) pollination
(d) fertilisation

Q8. Which among the following do not reproduce by vegetative reproduction?

(a) Wheat
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Rose
(d) Jasmine

Q9. The female gamete of a flowering plant is present in which part?

(a) Ovules
(b) Buds
(c) Pollen
(d) Anther

Q10. The cells which result after fusion of the gametes are called _____________.

Q11. The zygote develops into an _____________.

Q12. After fertilisation, the ovary grows into a ________ and other parts of a flower fall off.
Q13. What is pollination?

Q14. Pollination occurs with the help of wind, water and _________.

Q15. Discuss the two types of pollination.

61
Q16. ___________ is the mature ovary whereas ovule develops into a __________, which contains
the developing embryo.

Q17. Bisexual flowers are those flowers which hve both __________ and __________.

Q18. A small bud like projection which comes out of yeast is called _________.

Q19. The ovaries of different flowers may contain

(a) only one ovule
(b) many ovules
(c) one to many ovules
(d) only two ovules

Q20. How do the plants like sugarcane, potato and rose reproduce when they cannot produce seeds?

62
 CHAPTER 13: MOTION AND TIME

Q1. What is the basic unit of speed?

Q2. The to and fro motion of a simple pendulum is known as ____________ motion.

Q3. What is the basic unit of time?

Q4. Define speed.

Q5. The distance time graph for an object moving with constant speed is __________.
(a) A horizontal line
(b) A curve
(c) A straight line with a positive slope
(d) A straight line with a negative slope

Q6. A spaceship travels 18000 km in one hour.Express its speed in km/s.

(a) 5km/s
(b) 300 km/s
(c) 30 km/s
(d) 50 km/s

Q7. State the condition under which the distance-time graph of an object is a horizontal line parallel
to the axis of time.
(a) When the object is moving with a constant speed.
(b) When the object is at rest.
(c) When the object is decelerating.

Q8. State the factors on which the time period of a simple pendulum depend.

Q9. What is the relation between distance and speed?

(a) Distance = Speed × Time
(b) Distance = Speed/Time
(c) Distance = Time/Speed
(d) None of the above

Q10. How will you convert the speed given in km/h to m/s?
(a) By multiplying with 5/16
(b) By multiplying with 6/5
(c) By multiplying with 18/5
(d) By multiplying with 5/18

Q11. Which one records the distance travelled by a vehicle?

(a) Speedometer
(b) Manometer

63
(c) Motometer
(d) Odometer

Q12. A bus travels 54 km in 90 min. The speed of the bus is

(a) 0.6 m/s
(b) 10 m/s
(c) 5.4 m/s
(d) 3.6 m/s

Q13. A simple pendulum takes 32 s to complete 20 oscillations. What is the time period of the
pendulum?
Q14.

The time taken by the bob to move from A to C is t1 and from C to O is t2. The time period of this
simple pendulum is
(a) (t1 + t2)
(b) 2(t1 + t2)
(c) 3 (t1 + t2)
(d) 4(t1 + t2)

Q15. Question 7.
The correct symbol to represent the speed of an object is
(a) 5 m/s
(b) 5 mp
(c) 5 m/s-1
(d) 5 s/m

Q16. The speed of a car is 40km/h. What is the time taken for it to travel from city A to city B which
are 240 km apart.

Q17. The speed of a train is 80 km/h. What distance will it cover in 10000 seconds.

Q 18. Convert 72km/h to m/s.

64
 CHAPTER 14: ELECTRIC CURRENT AND ITS EFFECTS

Q1. Mention the name of the two devices that work on the basis of magnetic effects of current.

Q2. Explain why CFLs (Compact Fluorescent Lamps) are preferred over electric bulbs.

Q3. (a) represents the _________ terminal and (b) represents the __________ terminal of a battery.

Q4. State the different electrical effects.

Q5. Name any two electrical appliances which use electromagnets.

Q6. Who discovered the magnetic effect of electric current?

(a) Hans Christian Oestred
(b) Albert Einstein
(c) Thomas Edison

Q7. If the current through the coil stops flowing, will the coil still be an electromagnet?

Q8. What is an open circuit and what is a closed circuit?

Q9. Why are electromagnets considered better than permanent magnets?

Q10. If the number of turns in the coil of an electromagnet is more, the strength of the electromagnet
will be
(a) lesser
(b) greater
(c) double
(d) same

Q11. When a switch is in OFF position,

(i) circuit starting from the positive terminal of the cell stops at the switch
(ii) circuit is open
(iii) no current flows through it
(iv) current flows after sometime

Which of the following is correct.

(a) All are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) Only (iv) is correct
(d) (i) and (ii) are correct

65
Q12. In an electric circuit, a _________is a safety device to prevent possible fire.

Q13. Which of the following is the most suitable material for making the core of an electromagnet?
(a) Brass
(b) Aluminium
(c) Iron
(d) Steel

Q14. Why are iron pins attracted to a coil connected to a closed circuit.

Q15. Which devices employ the heating effect of electric current.

Q16. A combination of two or more cells is called a _____________.

Q17. Will a bulb glow when the circuit is open?

Q18. The coil of wire contained in heater is known as

(a) Circuit
(b) Component
(c) Spring
(d) Element

Q19. Choose the statement which is not correct in the case of an electric fuse.
(a) Fuses are inserted in electric circuits of all buildings
(b) There is a maximum limit on the current which can safely flow through the electric circuit
(c) There is a minimum limit on the current which can safely flow in the electric circuits
(d) If a proper fuse is inserted in a circuit it will blow off if current exceeds the safe limit

Q20. What is the full form of MCB?

(a) Mini circular brake
(b) Miniature circuit breaker
(c) Major circuit breaker
(d) Minor circuit breaker

66
 CHAPTER 15 : LIGHT

Q1, Give one use each of concave and convex mirror

Q2. What is a virtual image ? Give one situation where a virtual image is formed.

Q3. What is a real image ? Which type of mirror can form real image ?

Q4. State the characteristics of an image formed by a plane mirror.

Q5. Fill in the blanks :

(a) An image is formed by a _________ mirror is always of the same size as that of the object.

(b) An image formed by concave ______ cannot be obtained on a screen.

(c) Images formed by a convex _______ Is always virtual and smaller in size.

(d) An image that cannot be formed on screen is called _____ .

Q6. A magnifying glass is a:

(a) concave mirror

(b) convex mirror

(c) concave lens

(d) convex lens

Q7. What is light ?

Q8. What is meant by spectrum ? Name the colours of spectrum.

Q9. If the side mirror of a scooter is replaced by a plane mirror, will it cause any inconvenience to the

driver ?

67
Q10. How will you identify the three mirrors, i.e., convex, concave and plane mirror without touching

them?

Q11. What Is regular reflection ?

Q12. What is prism ? What happens when a beam of light enters a prism ?

Q13. Mark ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if it is false:

(i) We can obtain an enlarged and erect image by a convex mirror. (T/F)

(ii) A concave lens always form a virtual image. (T/F)

(iii) We can obtain a real, enlarged and inverted image by a concave mirror.

(T/F)

(iv) A real image cannot be obtained on a screen. (T/F)

(v) A concave mirror always form a real image. (T/F)

Q14. Find out the letters of English alphabet or any other language known to you in which the image

formed in a plane mirror appears exactly like the letter itself. Discuss your findings.

Q15. The rear view mirror of a car is a plane mirror. A driver is reversing his car at a speed of 2 m/s.

The driver sees in his rear view mirror the image of a truck parked behind his car. The speed at which

the image of the truck appears to approach the driver will be

(i) 1 m/s

(ii) 2 m/s

(iii) 4 m/s

(iv)8 m/s

Q16. State the characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror.

Q17. Explain how concave mirror can be used to burn a piece of paper.

Q18. Light travels in a _________ line and direction of light can be changed by _______.

68
Q19. Differentiate between concave and convex lens.

Q20. A real image can be obtained with

(a) a plane mirror

(b) with a concave mirror

(c) a or b

(d) with a convex mirror

69
 CHAPTER 16 - WATER : A PRECIOUS RESOURCE

Q1. Explain how groundwater is recharged.

Q2. Explain the factors responsible for the depletion of water table.

Q3. Choose the correct option. The total water

(i) in the lakes and rivers of the world remains constant.

(ii) under the ground remains constant.
(iii) in the seas’and oceans of the world remains constant
(iv) of the world remains constant.

Q4. Which one of the following is not responsible for water shortage?

(a) Rapid growth of industries

(b) Increasing population
(c) Heavy rainfall
(d) Mismanagement of water resources

Q5. Mark ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if it is false:

(a) The freshwater stored in the ground is much more than that present in the rivers and lakes of the
world. (T/F)
(b) Water shortage is a problem faced only by people living in rural areas. (T/F)
(c) Water from rivers is the only source for irrigation in the fields. (T/F)
(d) Rain is the ultimate source of water. (T/F)

Q6, Water: A Precious Resource. Explain.

Q7. How is increasing population responsible for water depletion.

Q8. State the consequences, if plants do not get enough water.

Q9. State the percentage of actual amount of water available for human use.

Q10. Explain how the traditional use of groundwater is different from the present use.

Q11. Given below are three states of water in a beaker. These states are interconvertible.

Q12. Name the process forward and backforth labelled A, B, C, D, which cause these conversions.

Q13. How can you observe the three forms of water (a) in nature and (b) at home?

Q14. How does water circulate in nature. Explain.

Q15. Planting trees help groundwater conservation. Explain how.

Q16. Mention three causes of water scarcity in our country.

Q17. Deforestation can be considered as a reason for depletion of the water table. Comment.

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Q18. What is groundwater? What are the sources of water which are fed by groundwater?

Q19. Renewable resources need to be conserved because

(a) We should not use them faster than they are replenished by nature
(b) They are slowly disappearing from the earth
(c)If we overuse them, nature will stop replacing them

Q20. How is increasing population responsible for water depletion.

71
 CHAPTER 17- FORESTS: OUR LIFELINE

Q1. What are decomposers? Name any two of them. What do they do in the forest?

Q2. Sequence that represents the series of eating and being eaten is called

(a) food series

(b) food chain
(c) food web
(d) food hub

Q3. The forest keeps on ………………. and ………………. and can ……………….(fill in the blanks).

Q4, Match the following:

Column A Column B

(i) Micro-organisms act upon the dead plant to (a) vulture

produce

(ii) Scavenger (b) canopy

(iii) Help in maintaining the supply of nutrients (c) food web

to growing plants

(iv) Roof of the forest made by the branches of (d) forest protect
tall trees

(v) Number of food chain (e) autotrophs

(vi) Soil erosion (f) purifier of air and water

(vii) Green plants (g) saprotrophs

(viii) A forest acts as (h) humus

Q5. Explain the role of forest in maintaining the balance between oxygen and carbon dioxide in the

atmosphere.

Q6. Explain how forests prevent floods.

Q7. In a forest, trees form the uppermost layer, followed by ………………. The ………………. form the

lowest layer of vegetation.

Q8. List five products we get from forests.

Q9. Explain how animals dwelling in the forest help it grow and regenerate.

Q10. Explain why there is no waste in a forest.

72
Q11. Why should we worry about the conditions and issues related to forests far from us?

Q12. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(i) Forests protect the soil from erosion.

(ii) Plants and animals in a forest are not dependent on one another.

(iii) Forests influence the climate and water cycle.

(iu) Soil helps forests to grow and regenerate.

Q13. Micro-organisms act upon the dead plants to produce

(i) sand (ii) mushrooms (iii) humus (iu) wood

Q14. Explain why there is a need of variety of animals and plants in a forest.

Q15 The various components of the forest are interdependent on one another.(True/False)

Q16. Which of the following is not a forest product?

(i) Gum (ii) Plywood (iii) Sealing wax (iv) Kerosene

Q17. Forests influence climate, water cycle and air quality.(True/False)

Q18. Fill in the blank:

(a) The insects, butterflies, honeybees and birds help flowering plants in .

(b) A forest is a purifier of and .

(c) Herbs form the layer in the forest.

(d) The decaying leaves and animal droppings in a forest enrich the .

Q19. Arrange the following components of a food chain in proper sequence – grass, frog, eagle,

insects, snake.

(a) Grass → insects → frog → snake → eagle.

(b) Grass → snake → insects → frog → eagle.

(c) Grass → snake → eagle → insects → frog.

73
(d) All are possible

Q20. Decomposers convert the dead plant and animal tissues into

(a) clay

(b) humus

(c) inorganic debris

(d) soil

74
 CHAPTER 18 : WASTEWATER STORY

Q1.What is sewage? Explain why it is harmful to discharge untreated sewage into rivers or seas.

Q2. What is sludge? Explain how it is treated.

Q3. Name two chemicals used to disinfect water

Q4. Explain the relationship between sanitation and disease.

Q5. Untreated human excreta is a health hazard. Explain

Q6. Why should oils and fats be not released into drains ?

Q7. What are the steps involved in getting purified water from waste water ?

Q8. Fill in the blanks:

(a) Cleaning of water is a process of removing ____________.

(b) Wastewater released by houses is called ____________.

(c) Dried ____________ is used as manure.

(d) Drains get blocked by ____________ and ____________.

Q9. The Eucalyptus trees are planted along sewage ponds. Give reason.

Q10. Name some organic impurities in Sewage.

Q11. Protozoa is causative organism of which waterborne disease?

Q12. Suggest two alternative arrangements for sewage disposal where there is no sewerage system.

Q13. Give reasons for each of the following.

75
(a) We should not throw used tea leaves into sink.

(b) We should not throw cooking oil and fats down the drain.

Q14. Describe septic tank. How does it function?

Q15. Discuss vermi-processing toilets. Name the useful product obtained from such toilets.

Q16. Which of the following is not an inorganic impurity present in sewage?

(a) Nitrate
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Urea
(d) Metal salt

Q17. Chlorine is used in municipal water treatment plant to

(a) change the teste of water

(b) prevent evaporation
(c) kill the harmful microorganisms
(d) prevent sedimentation

Q18. Which of the following statements about ozone are correct?

I It is essential for breathing of living organisms.

II It is used to disinfect water.
III It absorbs ultraviolet rays.
IV Its proportion in air is about 3%.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) II and IV

Q19. Which one of the following is a Quality of wastewater?

(a) Fowl smell

(b) Bad taste
(c) Dirty look
(d) All of these

Q20. Which of these is a part of the wastewater treatment plant?

(a) Clarifier
(b) Vertical bars
(c) Aeration tank
(d) All of these

76
 Answer Key
CHAPTER 1 NUTRITION IN PLANTS
1. Nutrition is the mode of taking food by an organism and its utilisation by the body.
2. The mode of nutrition in plant is autotrophic, i.e. they synthesise their own food.
3. B- leaves
4.(a) Sunlight
(b) Carbon dioxide

5. stomata
6. Chlorophyll
7. They contain chlorophyll which gives them green colour.
8.Parasites they are those organisms which grow on other plants or animals for their food,
e.g. Cuscuta
9.Rhizobium is the bacterium which can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
10. (b) grows in soils which lack in nitrogen
11. A) Lichens
12. (b) take CO2 and release O2
13.Saprophytic
14. host

15. true

16. Some organisms live together and share both shelter and nutrients. This relationship is
called symbiosis.

17. Nitrogen, potassium and phosphorus.

18. Oxygen

19.C) pitcher plant

20. chlorophyll

77
 CHAPTER- 2 NUTRITION IN ANIMALS

1.The breakdown of complex components of food into smaller substances is called digestion.

2. In an adult human, there are total 32 teeth.

3. Ingestion.

4. Saliva turns starch into sugar.

5. (a) large intestine

(b) small intestine
c) tongue
(d) liver

6.Tongue.

7. Foodpipe or Oesophagus.

8. Stomach

9. Salivary gland is present in the buccal cavity and it secretes saliva.

10. Liver

11. The inner lining of stomach secretes mucous hydrochloric acid and digestive juices.

12. The process by which absorbed food is taken by body cells and is used for energy, growth
and repair is called assimilation.

13. villi
14 . Cud

15. Ans. Carbohydrates:- glucose; Fats:- Fatty acids and glycerol; Proteins:- Amino acids.

16. Salivary gland, Liver, Pancreas.

17. Cellulose.

18. Amoeba is a microscopic single-celled organism found in pond water.

19. Food Vacuole.

20. C) salt and sweet

78
CHAPTER 3 FIBRE TO FABRIC

1.Fleece or hair

2. Lohi, Ans. Shearing > Scouring > Cleaning burrs > Dyeing > Rolling.

3. Anthrax

4. The rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk is called sericulture.

5. Eggs > Silkworm > Cocoon > Cocoon with developing moth.

6. Rampur bushair, Nali, Marwari etc.

7.Wool and Silk

8.Mulburry silk moth.

9. C) Goat

10. The process of taking out threads from the cocoon for use as silk is called reeling the silk.

11. Wool yielding animals are sheep, yak, llama, alpaca, angora goat, angora rabbit and
camel.

12. (c) protein

13. Hair

14.Cocoons

15. True.

16. False, yak hair are used to make woollen fabric.

17.False, because silkworms feed on mulberry leaves.

18. The covering of silk fibres inside which the caterpillar covers itself is called cocoon.

19. Silk and wool are two fibres which are made up of proteins.

20. Plant Fibre.

79
Chapter 4
1. A reliable measure of the hotness of an object is its temperature.

2. Thermometer

3. Clinical

4. 35°C to 42°C

5. A long narrow glass tube with a bulb containing mercury at the end.

6. 37°C

7. By another type of thermometer known as laboratory thermometer.

8. It prevents the mercury level from falling on its own.

9. (b) from a hotter object to a colder object

10. When a pan is removed from the fire, it loses heat to the surroundings and it cools down.

11. Conduction

12. The materials which allow heat to pass through them easily are conductors of heat .

13. True

14. Radiation

15. Sea breeze

16. (a)-(ii). (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv), e)- (i)

17. We use an umbrella to protect us from heat coming from the sun in the form of radiation.

18. Dark coloured

19. True

20. Convection

80
 CHAPTER – 5 ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS

1. Because they contain acids.

2. (d) Curd, vinegar

3. Turmeric, litmus, China rose petals (Gudhal), etc., are some of the naturally occurring
indicators.

4. Acids turn blue litmus paper red while bases turn red litmus paper blue.

5. Neutral, these substances are neither acidic nor basic.

6. Neutralization reaction.

7. Citric acid in lemon juice and oxalic acid in spinach.

8. C) a salt and water

9. Litmus paper ( blue)

10. Turmeric

11. b) Yellow in acid and red in base

12. B) pink

13. Salt

14. Milk of magnesia which contains magnesium hydroxide (base) is used to neutralise the
effect of excessive acid in stomach.

15. Because the soap solution is basic in nature.

16. Acidic

17. True

18. (d) colourless and pink

19. Sodium chloride

20. False

81
Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

1. Physical change
2. Chemical change
3. Blue color
4. Calcium carbonate is formed
5. C) Atoms change their identity
6. B) Boiling of water
7. D) Ripening of grapes
8. C) Burning
9. Yes, ozone changes to oxygen
10. B) both oxygen and water/water vapor
11. Galvanization
12. Obtaining pure solid state of a substance from its solution
13. Physical change
14. Bright white
15. Evaporation
16. Basic
17. Chromium and nickel
18. Physical
19. Photosynthesis
20. Evolved

82
 Chapter 7 Weather, climate and adaptations to habitat

1. Adaptation
2. Latitude
3. Amphibian, frog
4. Temperature, humidity, rainfall
5. Meteorologists are individuals who use science and math to understand and predict
weather and climate.
6. Sun
7. Heat and light
8. Wet climate
9. Yes, Andaman & Nicobar, western ghats and northeast region
10. C) Monkey
11. Weather, because it can vary over a short period of time
12. A) Condensation
13. Webbed feet and streamlined body
14. Toucan
15. To camouflage with snow as a protection from predators
16. Tropical rainforests
17. D) Distance from mountains
18. To escape extreme climate conditions and to search food
19. No
20. A layer of fat under the skin

83
 Chapter 8 Winds, storms and cyclones

1. It is not near an ocean or sea.

2. Uneven heating on the earth generates wind currents.
3. Indian ocean
4. Warm
5. Hurricane, typhoon
6. Anemometer
7. C) Soil
8. It has hot air.
9. It is because the winds would have blown in the North-South direction either from
North to South or from South to North. A change in direction is however caused by
the rotation of the earth.
10. High speed wind passing over the umbrella creates low pressure above the umbrella
with respect to below it.
11. Avoid large open spaces where you are taller than anything else around you, like a
golf course or soccer field.
Stay away from isolated objects such as trees and light posts.
Get away from unprotected vehicles, and unprotected structures, such as picnic
shelters. Avoid long metal structures, i.e. poles.
12. Tornado develops from thunderstorm and mostly forms over land.
13. Satellites and radar
14. Heat of the sun
15. Permanent winds that flow from east to west near the equator
16. Near the ceiling because hot air rises up.
17. Land to sea
18. Less
19. They carry water and thus bring rains.
20. Air inside it contracts at low temperature.

84
 Chapter 9 Soil

1. Clay-silt-sand-gravel
2. Loamy soil
3. Clayey soil
4. Percentage of water absorbed per unit volume of soil
5. Due to the presence of air between soil particles
6. Huge rock broken down into tiny particles naturally at a very slow rate
7. Parent rock
8. Topsoil-subsoil-substratum-bedrock
9. Loamy and clayey
10. Clay
11. Clay<silt<sand<gravel<rock
12. Humus
13. Plastic
14. Chemicals-pesticides-waste products
15. Clayey
16. Uppermost layer
17. Sandy soil
18. Good water retaining capacity
19. Wearing of topsoil by forces of water or wind
20. Roots of vegetation bind the soil particles together and hold them.

85
 Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms
1. Mitochondria
2. Cellular respiration that takes place in the presence of oxygen
3. Carbon dioxide-water-energy
4. Ethyl alcohol
5. Through their thin and moist skin
6. Gills
7. To prevent dirt dust and germs from entering our respiratory system
8. To help roots to respire through the air between soil particles
9. C) Esophagus
10. Larynx
11. Contracts and moves downwards
12. Spiracles
13. Stomata
14. Anaerobic respiration
15. Diaphragm
16. It decreases.
17. Oxy-hemoglobin
18. Through lungs on land and through moist skin in water
19. To yield energy for various routine activities
20. Organisms that respire anaerobically-yeast

86
 Chapter 11: Transportation in Animals and Plants
1. d
2. Plasma
3. Blood vessels, Heart
4. a
5. Haemoglobin
6. White Blood Cells
7. Platelets
8. Veins and Arteries
9. Arteries
10. Veins
11. Pulmonary Vein
12. Pulmonary Artery
13. Capillaries
14. 4; upper chambers: atrium and lower chambers: ventricles
15. Excretion
16. Kidney, Ureter, Urinary bladder, Urethra
17. Urine
18. (a) Xylem; (b) Phloem
19. Transpiration
20. Translocation
21. Stomata
22. Phloem
23. Vascular tissues; Xylem
24. c
25. d
26. c

87
 Chapter 12: Reproduction in Plants
1. asexual
2. Vegetative propagation
3. Fragmentation
4. Spores
5. Spore
6. Stamen, Pistil
7. d
8. a
9. a
10. zygote
11. Fruit
12. Embryo
13. Pollination is the process of fusion of male and female gametes.
14. Insects
15. Self-pollination: In self-pollination, pollen grains are transferred from the anther to
the stigma of the same flower.
Cross pollination: In cross-pollination, pollen grains are transferred from the anther of
one flower to the stigma of another flower of the same kind.
16. Fruit, seed
17. Stamen, pistil
18. Bud
19. c
20. By vegetative propagation.

88
 Chapter 13: Motion and Time
1. m/s
2. oscillatory
3. s
4. distance covered per unit time.
5. Linear
6. 5 km/s
7. When the object is at rest.
8. Length of the pendulum and acceleration due to gravity.
9. a
10. d
11. d
12. b
13. 1.6 seconds
14. d
15. a
16. 6 hours
17. 222.2 km
18. 20 m/s

89
 Chapter 14: Electric Current and Its Effects

1. Loudspeakers and Electric Bells

2. Compact fluorescent lamps are preferred over electric bulbs because electric bulbs
use more power of electricity and it also losses electrical energy in the form of heat
but it is not so in compact fluorescent lamps.

3. Positive ; negative
4. Magnetic effect; Chemical effect; Heating effect
5. Electric bells, motors and generators
6. a
7. When the current through the coil stops flowing, the coil does not remain an
electromagnet.
8. An open electric circuit is or electric path which begins from the positive terminal of a
battery or cell, gets broken at some point.
A closed circuit is an electric path which begins from the positive terminal of a cell or
battery and terminates at its negative terminal without any break.
9. An electromagnet can be switched OFF or switched ON as desired and this is not
possible in the permanent magnets. That is why the electromagnets are better than
the permanent magnets.
10. b
11. b
12. fuse
13. c
14. When the current is passed through the coil, it behaves as an electromagnet. Due to
this reason, the pins are attracted to the coil.
15. Electric heater, toaster, geyser
16. Battery
17. No, because the circuit is not complete.
18. d
19. b
20. b

90
CHAPTER : 15
1. Concave mirror is used by dentist, solar furnace, reflector of a torch, etc.
Convex mirror is used in rear view mirrors.
2. An optical image formed from the apparent divergence of light rays from a point, as
opposed to an image formed from their actual divergence.
3. Real image is the collection of focus points actually made by converging rays.
4. Straight, laterally inverted, same size as object
5. (a) plane
(b) lens
(c) mirror
(d) virtual
6. (d) convex lens
7. Light is a form of energy which helps us in seeing objects.
8. On passing white light through a prism, the band of colours seen on a screen is called
the spectrum.
Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red are the seven colours of the
spectrum.
11. Regular reflection occurs at the surface of a plane surface like a plane mirror.
Reflected rays after regular reflection are parallel.
12. Prism is a three-dimensional solid object in which the two ends are identical. It is the
combination of the flat faces, identical bases and equal cross-sections.On passing white
light through a prism, the band of colours seen on a screen is called the spectrum.
13. (a) True
(b) True
(c) False
(d) False
(e) False
14. A, H, I, M, O, T, U, V, W, X, Y
15.
16. straight, laterally inverted, same size as object.
17. by converging the source of light
18. straight, refraction

91
19. A concave lens is thinner in the middle and thicker at the edges. A convex lens is
thicker in the middle and thinner at the edges.
20. (d)

92
CHAPTER 16

1. The groundwater gets recharged through the process of infiltration.

2. Increased population, increasing industries, lack of water conservation techniques
and increased agricultural activities.
3. Iv
4. C
5. (a) False
(b)False
(c) False
(d) True
6. l
7. Demand of water has been increased by the increased population.
8. No plant, no oxygen
9. 0.3 %
10.
13. rain, river, glacier : nature
14.water cycle
15. avoid soil erosion and allows ground water bed maintained.
16. industries, deforestation, poor water harvesting
17. Deforestation leads to soil erosion and ground wter cannot be harvested
18.
19. (a)
20. 2. Increased population, increasing industries, lack of water conservation techniques
and increased agricultural activities

93
 CHAPTER : 17
1. Decomposers are organisms that feed on dead plants and animals and decompose
them, e.g., fungi and bacteria.
2. (b)
3. Growing, changing, regenerate
4. (i) h
(ii) a
(iii)g
(iv)b
(v) c
(vi)d
(vii)e
(viii)f
5. Plants help in oxygen supply and roots hold strong to soil to avoid flood.
6. Roots hold strong to soil.
7. Herbs, shrubs
8. timber, spices, oils, medicines and wood.
9. Food chain
10. food cycle
11. i
12. ii
13. humus
14. Ecosystem
15. True
16. Iv
17. True
18. A
19. A
20. B

94
 CHAPTER : 18
1. Waste water released by houses, industrial factories and rain water in streets etc
are known as sewage.
2. Sludge is human waste (like faeces) in waste water left during sewage treatment.
Since it is organic waste, it is used to produce biogas and manure.
3. chlorine and ozone.
4. Proper Sanitation prevents disease.
5. Impurities lead to diseases
6. They clog water bodies and make it difficult for fish to breathe.
7. Water treatment
8. A. impurities
b. sewage
c. biowaste
d. cooking oils, fats
9. Purify water
10. Animal dung, human feaces (urea), oil.
11. diarrhoea
12. i. The low cost on-site sanitation systems can be adopted like septic tank.
ii. Composting toilets- It is a dry toilet. In this, excreta, which is without any water or smell
is processed by decomposition aerobically.
13. a. blockage; b. blockage
14. A septic tank is a watertight chamber made of brick work, concrete, fibreglass, PVC or
plastic, through which blackwater from cistern or pour-flush toilets and greywater
through a pipe from inside a building or an outside toilet flows for primary treatment.
15.i
16. a
17.c
18. b
19.d
20.d

95
 Class 8 CTET Question Bank
By: Samikhya Ojha, Shagun Rastogi, Prerna Gautam, Sneha Bajpai

Chapters Name of Chapter Page No.

Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management 97

Chapter 2 Microorganisms: Friend and Foe 102

Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics 108

Chapter 4 Materials: Metals and Non-Metals 111

Chapter 5 Coal and Petroleum 118

Chapter 6 Combustion and Flame 123

Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals 126

Chapter 8 Cell — Structure and Functions 139

Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals 133

Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence 135

Chapter 11 Force and Pressure 139

Chapter 12 Friction 145

Chapter 13 Sound 151

Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current 158

Chapter 15 Some Natural Phenomena 164

Chapter 16 Light 168

Chapter 17 Stars and The Solar System 172

Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water 175

Answer Key 177 – 205

96
 CHAPTER 1: CROP PRODUCTION AND MANAGEMENT

(Samikhya Ojha)

1. Select the set of activities which replenish or enrich the soil with nutrients (CTET).
a. Adding manure, adding fertilizers, irrigation.
b. Adding fertilizers, adding manures, crop rotation.
c. Irrigation, crop rotation, adding manures.
d. Crop rotation, adding manure, deep ploughing
2. Select from the following a set of Rabi crops only (CTET):
a. Wheat, cotton, gram, mustard
b. Wheat, pea, soy & bean, groundnut
c. Wheat, pea, gram, mustard
d. Mustard, corn, gram, groundnut

3. Which of the following groups of words can be correctly identified with Rhizobium?(CTET).

a. Leguminous plants, symbiotic, stem nodes

b. Root nodules, pitcher plant, nitrogen deficient soil
c. Nitrogen fixation, root nodules, leguminous plants
d. Root of legumes, parasite, soluble nitrogen compounds

4. Select from the following a set of Kharif crops: (CTET 2013)

a) Cotton, paddy, pea, linseed

b) Paddy, maize, cotton, soybean
c) Gram, mustard, groundnut, wheat
d) Maize, paddy, lineed, soyabean

5. Study the following statements about the effects of weeds on the crop plants: (CTET 2013)

a) They help crop plants to grow healthily

b) They interfere in harvesting
c) They affect the plant growth
d) They compete with crop plants for water, nutrients, space and light.

The correct statements are :

1) C and D only

97
 2) D only
3) B C and D
4) A B and D

6. The process of loosening and turning the soil is called ______________ .

a. Broadcasting
b. Irrigation
c. Tilling
d. Leveling

7. The organic substance obtained from dead plants an animal wastes is _____________.

a. Manure
b. Fertilizer
c. Irrigation
d. Agriculture.

8. Which of the following is not a rabi crop?

a. Rice
b. Mustard
c. Wheat
d. Barley

9. Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?

a. Paddey
b. Soyabean
c. Groundnut
d. Pea

10. In which of the following methods of irrigation rotating nozzles are used?

a. Moat
b. Drip System
c. Chain Pump
d. Sprinkler System

98
11. Which of the following nutrients replenish the soil after growing leguminous plants?

a. Nitrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium

12. The management of rearing animals for food and other products is known as__________.

a. Granaries
b. Animal Husbandry
c. Poultry
d. Warehouse

13. The process of separating the grain from the claff is?

a. Threshing
b. Weeding
c. Sowing
d. Tilling

14. Weeds can be removed by using?

a. Pesticides
b. Fungicides
c. Weedicides
d. Bactericides

15. Which leaves are used by farmers to protect their crops from weeds and insects?

a. Peepal Leaves
b. Basil Leaves
c. Neem Leaves
d. Mango Leaves

16. The Crops which are grown in rainy season are called

a. Rabi Crop
b. Seasonal Crop

99
 c. Monsoon Crop
d. Kharif Crop

17. Rabi Crops are grown in __________ season.

a. Summer
b. Spring
c. Winter
d. Rainy

18. Now a days seed is sown in the field using

a. Seed Tractor
b. Seed Drill
c. Seed Tiller
d. Seed Plough

19. Which of the following description is true for describing “Fertiliser”

a. Used in larger quantity

b. Organic in nature
c. Does not cause pollution
d. Produced in factories

20. Rhizobium (a Bacteria) which fixes atmospheric nitrogen are found in nodules growing

a. Roots of leguminous plants

b. Leaves of leguminous plants
c. Stem of leguminous plants
d. All of the above

21. Before sowing the seeds, it is necessary to break soil to the size of grains to get better yield. The
main tools used for such are

a. Tractor, Hoe, Seed Drill

b. Bullock, Tiller, Tractor
c. Plough, Hoe, Cultivator
d. Plough, Seed Drill, Tractor

100
22. Growing different crops alternately on the same land is technically called

a. Crop Alteration
b. Crop Rotation
c. Crop Revolution
d. Crop Change

23. Moat, Dhekli and Rahat are different

a. Traditional methods of cultivation

b. Traditional methods of weeding
c. Traditional methods of seed sowing
d. Traditional methods of irrigation

24. In the harvested crop the grain seed is separated from the chaff. This process is called

a. Threshing
b. Seeding
c. Ploughing
d. Weeding

25. The farm appliance “Combine” is a combined

a) Plough and Harvester

b) Seed drill cum Thresher
c) Harvester and thresher
d) Harvester cum Sprayer

101
 CHAPTER 2: MICROORGANISMS : FRIEND AND FOE

1. Malaria is caused by a (CTET)

a. Protozoan
b. Virus
c. Bacteria
d. Fungi

2. The smallest of living organisms with cell wall are (CTET)

a. Algae
b. Cyanobacteria
c. Bacteria
d. Yeast

3. The process of converting sugars into alcohols is known as (CTET)

a. Sterilization
b. Homogenization
c. Fermentation
d. Pasteurization

4. Antibiotics are effective against (CTET)

a. Hepatitis A
b. Dengue Fever
c. Cholera
d. Influenza

5. Which group shows viral disease? (CTET)

a. Cholera and polio
b. Typhoid and cold
c. Chicken pox and polio
d. Polio and tuberculosis
6. Polio is caused by ( CTET)
a) Protozoa
b) Virus
c) Bacteria

102
 d) Fungi
7. Match the organisms in column A with their actions in Column B: (CTET)

COLUMN A COLUMN B

I. Lactobacillus a. Nitrogen Fixation

II. Protozoan b. AIDS

III. Rhizobium c. Malaria

IV. Virus d. Curd Formation

The correct matching is:
I ii iii iv
1) D c a b
2) D a b c
3) A b c d
4) A d c d
8. Which one of the following represents a group of human diseases caused by viruses? (CTET)
1) Measles, Chickenpox, Hepatitis-A
2) Chickenpox, Hepatitis-A, Malaria
3) Measles, Polio, Typhoid
4) Measles, Typhoid, tuberculosis
9.The pseudopodia of amoeba are used for (CTET) 2014
a) Sensing the food only
b) Capture of food only
c) Movement only
d) Movement and capture of food
10. The column A, names of the scientists are there and in Column B, some discoveries are given
(CTET) 2014

COLUMN A COLUMN B

a) Alexander Fleming i) Anthrax bacterium

b) Edward jenner ii) Fermentation

c) Louis Pasteur iii) Lactobacillus bacterium

d) Robert koch iv) Penicillin

v) Smallpox Vaccine

103
The correct match of the names of the scientists with their discoveries is
1) iv v ii i
2) i iii ii iv
3) iv ii v iii
4) iii v ii i
11. Study the following statements: (CTET) 2014
a) Germination of seeds does not take place under dry conditions.
b) Nutrients get transported to each part of the plant in dissolved form
c) The supply of water to crops at different intervals improves the texture of the soil
d) The supply of water to crops makes the soil porous due to which exchange of gases becomes
easy
e) Water protects the crops from both frost and hot air currency.
The statements which justify the need to irrigate crops are
1) A, B and C
2) B, C and D
3) C, D and E
4) A, B and E
12. Fill in the blanks:
(a) Microorganisms can be seen with the help of a_______.
(b) Blue green algae fix _______ directly from air to enhance fertility of soil.
(c) Alcohol is produced with the help of_______.
(d) Cholera is caused by_______.
13. Tick the correct answer:
(a) Yeast is used in the production of
(i) sugar (ii) alcohol (iii) hydrochloric acid (iv) oxygen.
(b) The following is an antibiotic
(i) sodium bicarbonate (ii) streptomycin (iii) alcohol (iv) yeast.
(c) Carrier of malaria-causing protozoan is
(i) female Anopheles mosquito (ii) cockroach (iii) housefly (iv) butterfly.
(d) The most common carrier of communicable diseases is
(i) ant (ii) housefly (iii) dragonfly (iv) spider,
(e) (e) The bread or idli dough rises because of
(i) heat (ii) grinding (iii) growth of yeast cells (iv) kneading.
(f) The process of conversion of sugar into alcohol is called

104
 (i) nitrogen fixation (ii) moulding (iii) fermentation (iv) infection

14. Match the organisms in Column A with their action in Column B.

Column A Column B
(i) Bacteria (a) Fixing nitrogen
(ii) Rhizobium (b) Setting of curd
(iii) Lactobacillus (c) Baking of bread
(iv) Yeast (d) Causing malaria
(v) A protozoan (e) Causing cholera
(vi) A virus (f) Causing AIDS
(g) Producing antibodies

15. Penicillin is a
a) Fungus (c) Bacteria
b) Algae (d) Yeast
16. Malaria is caused by
a) Protozoa c) Algae
b) Virus d) Bacteria
17. Rhizobium Bacteria
a) Help in Nitrogen Fixation c) Help in digestion
b) Causes disease d) All of these.
18. Amoeba belongs to
a) Protozoa c) Algae
b) Virus d) Bacteria
19. Mushroom belongs to
a) Fungi c) Algae
b) Virus d) Bacteria
20. Amount of Nitrogen in the atmosphere is
a) O.78 c) 0.58
b) 0.68 d) 0.88
21. Vaccine for smallpox was discovered by
a) Edward Jenner c) Louis Pasteur
b) Alexander Fleming d) John Mendal

105
22.What are the major groups of microorganisms?
23. Name the microorganisms which can fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil.
24. Write 10 points on the usefulness of microorganisms in our line.
25. Write a short paragraph on the harms caused by microorganisms.
26. What are antibiotics? What precautions must be taken while taking antibiotics?
27. The vaccine for smallpox was discovered by—(CTET)

(1) Ronald Ross

(2) Robert Koch

(3) Edward Jenner

(4) Alexander Fleming

28. Which one of the following is used as preservative?(CTET)

(1) Copper sulphate

(2) Sodium benzoate

(3) Ammonium sulphate

(4) Sodium chloride

29. Yeast is used for the production of— (CTET)

(1) alcohol

(2) curd

(3) sugar

(4) common salt

30. Select from the following group of diseases caused by bacteria (CTET)
a. Tuberculosis, pneumonia & typhoid
b. Chickenpox, influenza & polio

c. malaria, polio & typhoid

d. chickenpox, meningitis & tuberculosis

31. Consider the following Column-A and Column-8 in which the names of microorganisms are
given in Column-A and the groups to which they belong are given in Column-B (CTET)

106
 Column A Column B

a)Aspergillus i)Algae

b)Lactobacillus ii)Bacteria

c)Paramecium iii)Fungi

d) Spirogyra iv)Protozoa

v)Virus

The correct match of the items of Column- A with that of Column-B is

(1) a b c d
iii ii iv v
(2) a b C d
ii iii iv i
(3) a b C d
iii ii iv i
(4) a b C d
v iii ii iv

107
 CHAPTER 3: SYNTHETIC FIBRES AND PLASTICS

1. Cellulose is made up of (CTET)

a. Loose cells
b. Polycot
c. Terrycot
d. Glucose

2. PET bottles and jars are commonly used for storing edible items. PET is a very familiar form of (CTET)

a. Polyamide
b. Polyester
c. Acrylic
d. Rayon

3. Which one of the following man-made fibres is also called artificial silk? (CTET)

a. Polyester
b. Nylon
c. Rayon
d. Acrylic

4. The common characteristics properties of Plastics are (CTET)

a) Durable, good conductor of electricity, non-reactive

b) Good conductor of heat,light in weight, good conductor of electricity
c) Durable, light weight, non-reactive
d) Durable, good conductor of heat, non-reactive

5. Select the group of poor conductors of heat from the following:(CTET)

A) Air, water , plastic

B) Wool, wood, iron
C) water,copper , wood
D) Air,aluminium, wool

6. The small units used in making synthetic fibres are.

(a) molecules(b) polymers(c) cells(d) none of these.

108
7. The strongest fibre is called:

(a) rayon(b) nylon(c) acrylic(d) none of these.

8. The first man-made fibre is

(a) nylon(b) polyester(c) rayon(d) cotton.

9. The plastics which do not remould again on heating are called:

(a) thermosetting plastics(b) thermoplastic plastics (c) both of these(d) none of these.

10. The polyester is made up of

(a) Nylon(b) Rayon(c) Esters(d) Cotton.

11. The nylon is prepared first in

(a) 1921(b) 1931(c) 1941(d) 1951.

12. The fibre made up by the chemical treatment of wood pulp is

(a) Rayon(b) Nylon(c) Polyester(d) None of these.

13. A synthetic fibre which works like wool.

(a) Nylon(b) Polyester(c) Acrylic(d) PVC.

14. The raw materials used in making nylon

(a) Wood pulp(b) Cellulose(c) Coal, water, air(d) All of these

15. A synthetic fibre consists of numerous _____________ joined together to form a large polymer.

16. Cotton is an example of ____________ fibre.

17. ___________ soften or melt on heating

18. ____________ is a semi-synthetic fibre and is also called an artificial silk.

19. _____________ is a type of _______ and is a good absorbent. It is prepared by blending terylene
with cotton.

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20. ______________ is a type of plastics and used as coating of non-stick utensils.

21. The biggest disadvantage of plastics is that they cause environmental pollution because they are
non- ____________ .

22. PVC stands for ____________.

23. Acrylic is used as a substitute for natural __________ .

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 CHAPTER 4:MATERIALS : METALS AND NON-METALS

1. Select a compound which does not have carbon (CTET).

a. Methane
b. Ethanoic acid
c. Sulphuric acid
d. Glucose

2. Phosphorus is kept in water to (CTET)

a. Purify water
b. Make water soft
c. Prevent its contact with oxygen
d. Denature it

3. Which one of the following alloys contains non-metal as one of the constituents (CTET)
a. Amalgam
b. Steel
c. Bronze
d. Brass

4. Metallic oxides are ______ in nature (CTET).

a.Neutral
b.Acidic
c.Basic
d.Amphoteric

5. The following observations were made by students A,B,C and D when they rubbed solid
baking soda on dry litmus paper (CTET)

Student Effect on dry red litmus paper Effect on dry blue litmus paper

A Colour changed to blue No change

B No change Colour changed

C Colour changed to blue Colour changed to red

111
 D No change No change

The correct observation was made by the student

a. D
b. A
c. B
d. C

6. In order to determine acidic, basic or neutral character of solutions, a student tabulated the
following results after experimentation. Which of the following observations has been
tabulated correctly? (CTET)

Case Test Colour change on Colour change on Acidic/

Solution red litmus paper blue litmus paper Basic/
Neutral

A NaCl No change Red Acidic

B Lime water Red No change Neutral

C Vinegar No change No change Neutral

D Washing Blue No change Basic

soda

a. D
b. A
c. B
d. C
7. When a copper plate is exposed to moist air long, it acquires a dull green coating. The green
material is (CTET)
a) Copper sulfate
b) A mixture of copper hydroxide and copper sulfate
c) A mixture of copper carbonate and copper sulfate
d) A mixture of copper carbonate and copper hydroxide

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8. Anita prepared a fresh solution of sodium hydroxide in a test tube. Hse dropped a small piece of
aluminum foil into it and then brought a burning matchstick near the mouth of the test tube. She heard
a pop sound. The pop sound indicates the presence of:(CTET)

a) Water gas
b) Oxygen Gas
c) Hydrogen Gas
d) Aluminium Gas

9. When we add aluminium foil to freshly prepared sodium hydroxide solution a gas is produced. Which
of the following correctly states the property of this gas?(CTET)

a) Colourless and odourless gas which extinguishes a burning match stick

b) Colourless and odourless gas which promotes burning of a candle
c) Brown coloured pungent smelling gas
d) Colourless and odourless gas which produces a “pop” sound when a burning match
stick is brought near it.

10. An aqueous solution of which of the following oxides will change the colour of blue litmus to red?

a) Copper oxide
b) Magnesium oxide
c) Iron oxide
d) Sulphur dioxide

11. The property of metals by which they can be beaten into thin sheets is called-

a. malleability
b. Ductility
c. conduction
d. Expansion

12. Which one of the following is metal?

a. C
b. N
c. Na
d. O

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13. Which one of the following is non metal?

a. Zn
b. Al
c. Fe
d. N

14. All materials shown property of malleability expect

a. Iron

b. Graphite
c. Aluminium
d. Silver

15. The sulphuric acid turns blue litmus paper into-

a. Red
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Dark blue

16. Oxides of non metals are _______ in nature

a. Basic
b. Acidic
c. Neutral
d. All of these

17. Sodium metal is stored in-

a. Water
b. Alcohol
c. Kerosene
d. Ether

18. Which one of the following metal reacts vigorously with oxygen and water?

114
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Magnesium

19. Which metal is present in Calcium Hydroxide?

a. C
b. O
c. Ca
d. H

20. Which non-metal catches fire if the exposed to air

a. Sodium
b. Phosphorous
c. Calcium
d. Uranium

21. What is the chemical formula of copper sulphate?

a. CuSO4
b. CuCO3
c. CuCl2
d. CuO

22. Which gas are produced when metal react with acids

a. Oxygen
b. Nitrogen
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon dioxide

23. Which one of the following does not react with acids?

a. Cu
b. Ni
c. Cr
d. O

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24. Which one of the following gas burns with the "pop" sound?
a. Oxygen
b. Hydrogen
c. Chlorine
d. Hydrogen sulphide

25. Which of the following can be beaten into thin sheets?

a. Zinc
b.Phosphorus
c. Sulphur
d. Oxygen

26. Which of the following statements is true: (CTET)

a) All non - metals are gases.
b) All non- metals are non-ductile.
c) All metals are solids.
d) All metals are hard.
27. Which one of the following metals burns if kept in air?(CTET)

(1) Sodium

(2) Magnesium

(3) Zinc

(4) Aluminium

28. Which one of the following gases burns with pop sound?(CTET)

(1) Oxygen

(2) Hydrogen

(3) Nitrogen dioxide

(4) Sulphur dioxide

116
29. A student bums a magnesium ribbon in air and dissolves the ash of the ribbon left after burning in
distilled water. On pouring one drop each of this solution, first in blue litmus and then in red litmus
solution, he would observe that (CTET)

a. Blue litmus turns colourless whereas the red litmus remains red
b. blue litmus remains blue whereas the red litmus turns blue
c. blue litmus turns red whereas the red litmus remains red
d. blue litmus turns red whereas the red litmus turns blue

117
 CHAPTER 5: COAL AND PETROLEUM

1. Which one of the following is the fossil fuel (CTET)

a. Compressed natural gas (CNG)
b. Liquid Hydrogen (LH)
c. Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET)
d. Low density propane (LDP)
2. Which of the following is a pair of exhaustible natural resources? (CTET)
a) Coal and soil
b) Petroleum and water
c) Minerals and wildlife
d) Natural gas and sunlight

3. Inexhaustible natural resources in nature are

a. limited
b. Unlimited
c. Scarce
d. Not present

4. Resources which are limited in nature are Known as

a. Exhaustible
b. Inexhaustible
c. unnatural
d. None of these

5. Petroleum is ________natural resource

a. Inexhaustible
b. Exhaustible
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these

6. Fossils are the

a. Dead remains of living organism

b. Coal mines

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c. Kind of natural resource
d. Living beings
7. Coal can be formed from
a. Sunlight
b. Steam
c. Fossils
d. Plants

8. Coal can be used as a

a. Fertilizer
b. Purifier
c. Fuel
d. Insecticide

9. Other uses of fuel includes

a. Produce steam to run engine
b. Produce electricity in thermal power plants
c. Fuel in various industries
d. All of these

10. Coal mainly contains

a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Carbon
d. Sodium

11. Carbonization is
a. Slow conversion of dead vegetation into coal
b. Deposition of soil
c. falling of trees
d. None of these

12. When heated in air produces

a. Carbon monoxide

119
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Nitrogen dioxide
d. Oxygen

13. Coal is produced in industry to get

a. Coke
b. Coal tar
c. Coal gas
d. All of these

14. Coke is used in the manufacturing of

a. Lead
b. Iron
c. steel
d. Copper

15. Which is an almost pure form of carbon?

a. Coke
b. Coal tar
c. Coal gas
d. None of these

16. The characteristic of coal is

a. tough
b. Black in color
c. Porous
d. All of these

17. Coal tar has an _________ smell.

a. Unpleasant
b. Pleasant
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these

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18. Coal tar is used in manufacture of
a. Synthetic dyes
b. Drugs
c. Explosives
d. All of these

19. Naphthalene balls are obtained from

a. Carbon
b. Coke
c. Coal tar
d. Coal gas

20. Which gas is obtained during the processing of coal?

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Coal gas
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Sulphur dioxide

21. Petroleum is mixture of

a. Petrol
b. Diesel
c. Petroleum gas
d. All of these

22. The layer containing petroleum oil & gas is

a. Above that of water
b. Below water
c. Between water and sand
d. Below sand

23. Refining is
a. Extracting petroleum gas
b. Separation of various fractions of petroleum
c. Heating of coal

121
d. Sedimentation of fossil fuel

24. LPG is used in / as

a. Home
b. Vehicles
c. Aviation Fuel
d. Road surfacing
25. Which one of the following is not a product of petroleum? (CTET)

(1) Kerosene

(2) CNG

(3) Paraffin wax

(4) Bitumen

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 CHAPTER 6: COMBUSTION AND FLAME (Shagunn Rastogi)

1) 8.The calorific value of a fuel whose 1.5 kg of mass produces 67,500 kJ of heat on burning
completely will be (CTET)
a. 45,000 kJ/kg
b. 30,000 kJ/kg
c. 1,01,250 kJ/kg
d. 1,01, 250 kg/J

2) Given below are a few chemical processes (CTET):

(a) Rusting of iron

(b) Burning of a candle
(c) Respiration
(d) Photosynthesis
Which two of these represent slow combustion?
a. a and c
b. b and c
c. b and d
d. d and a

3) When CNG or LPG undergoes complete combustion, the products formed are (CTET)
a. CO2, SO2, and H2O
b. CO2 only
c. CO2, CO, and H2O
d. CO2 and H2O

4) The SI unit of calorific value is (CTET)

a. Kilocalorie/kg
b. KJ/kg
c. Calorie
d. J/kg
5) Which fuel has the highest calorific value from among the following? (CTET)
a) Coal

123
b) Petrol
c) Diesel
d) Hydrogen
6) In which of the following units is the calorific value of fuels generally expressed?(CTET)
A. Calories per gram
B. Kilocalories per mol
C. Joules
D. Kilojoules per kilogram
7) Which of the following commonly used fuels has maximum calorific value?(CTET)
A. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)
B. Diesel
C. Liquefied Petroleum Gas(LPG)
D. Petrol

8) What is combustion?
9) define ignition temperature.
10) define inflammable substances along with some examples.
11) What are the types of combustion (any two) Discuss briefly.
12) with the help of labeled diagram show different zones of candle flame.
13) discuss calorific value.
14) mention the harmful effects of burning in detail.
15) What is the role of fire extinguisher? Name the commonly used extinguisher.
16) mention any two ways to control fire.
17) name most common fuel used in homes -
18) name most common fire extinguisher –
19) What acts as a fuel for our body?
20) give examples of non- combustible substances.
21) how heat and light is produced in the sun?
22) charcoal does not produce a flame. Yes/no. Give reason
23) name the hottest zone of the flame-
24) write the unit for calorific value-
25) What are the characteristics of ideal fuel? Give an example

124
26) burning of coal, diesel and petrol is produced by ____________ and causes ________ which is
harmful for the crops, buildings and soil.
27) What is the ignition temperature of phosphorus?
28) Identify the incorrect one : (CTET)
a) Calorific value of kerosene is more than that of coal.
b) The calorific value of coal is more than that of wood.
c) The calorific value of biogas is more than that of LPG.
d) The calorific value of CNG is more than that of Diesel.

125
 CHAPTER 7: CONSERVATION OF PLANTS AND ANIMALS

1. Select the true statements about biodiversity (CTET).

I. It is maximum in a forest.
II. It refers to only the flora of a given area.
III. It refers to the various species of flora and fauna present in an area.
IV. It refers to the total number of individuals of a particular species living in an area.
a. (I) and (II)
b. (I) and (III)
c. (III) and (IV)
d. (II) and (III)

2. Biosphere reserves conserves (CTET)

a. Wildlife
b. Traditional tribal life
c. Forest resources
d. All of the above

3. Select the correct statement about biosphere reserves.(CTET)

a) These are the protected areas meant for the conservation of endemic species only.
b) These are the areas meant only for the conservation of plants and animals
c) These are the areas which help to maintain the biodiversity and culture of the areas
d) These are the protected areas reserved for wildlife where they can freely use the habitats and
natural resources

4. . Which of the following statements is true about the endemic species?(CTET)

a) They are not affected by the destruction of their habitat
b) They are found only in zoos and botanical gardens
c) They are found exclusively in a specific habitat
d) Endemic species can never become endangered

5. Species restricted to a particular area are referred to as : (CTET)

A) endemic species

B) migratory species

126
C) endangered species

D) extinct species

6. which of the following is different from the rest (CTET)

a) deforestation

b) desertification

c) erosion

d) conservation

7. Write the meaning of deforestation and mention its causes.

8. Define desertification
9. What is a biosphere?
10. Write the consequences of deforestation.
11. Name the areas where animals are protected from any disturbances to them and their
habitat.
12. Differentiate between – national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and biosphere reserve. Give
examples.
13. Quote a few examples of flora and fauna of pachmarhi biosphere reserve.
14. Write short note on :- a) endemic species b) species c) red data book
15. Name some threatened wild animal
16. . Differentiate between zoo and wildlife sanctuary.
17. Name first reserve forest of India.
18. Name the species found in Satpura National Park.
19. Discuss about Project Tiger.
20. What are the endangered species?
21. What human activities are responsible to hamper the environment?
22. Why do birds migrate?
23. ____________________ is the restocking of a destroyed forest by planting new trees.
24. .What is an ecosystem?
25. ______________________ refers to the variety of living organisms in a specific area.
26. Why is recycling of paper important?
27. Red Data Book contains a record of— (CTET)

127
(1) endangered species

(2) extinct species

(3) flora

(4) fauna

128
 CHAPTER 8: CELL — STRUCTURE AND FUNCTIONS

1. A prokaryotic cell is characterized by (CTET)

a. Well defined nucleus
b. Absence of nuclear membrane
c. Presence of nucleolus
d. Relatively young age in comparison with eukaryotic cell
2. Consider the following terms related to cells: (CTET)
A. Chromosome
B. Gene
C. Nucleolus
D. Ribosome
Out of these the parts of nucleus of a cell are:
1) C and D only
2) A, B and C
3) A and C only
4) B and C only
3. Study the following statements: (CTET)
1) Prokaryotes do not have nucleus
2) A single cell can perform all the functions in a unicellular organism
3) Blue-green algae are the examples of prokaryotes
4) Eukaryotes do not have well-organised nucleus with a nuclear member
The correct statements are
a) A, B and C
b) A, B and D
c) A, C and D
d) B, C and D
4. Study the following statements:(CTET)
A) Chromosomes are located in the nucleolus
B) Genes are located in the chromosomes
C) Unicellular organisms respire and reproduce
D) The most important function of the cell membrane is to control the entry and exit of
materials from cells.
The correct statements are:
a) A, B and C

129
 b) B, C and D
c) A, C and D
d) A, B and D

5. In the diagram of an animal cell given below, the correct labeling of parts A, B, C and D is(CTET)

a) A- cell wall, B- Vacuole, C- nucleus, D- cytoplasm

b) A-cell membrane, B- vacuole, C- nucleus, D- Cytoplasm
c) A- cell membrane, B-plastids, C-nucleus, D-chloroplast
d) A-cell wall, B- Vacuole, c- nucleus, D- mitochondria

6. Which of the following pairs is related to inheritance of character?(CTET)

a) Chromosomes and genes
b) Chromosomes and mitochondria
c) Cell membrane and cell wall
d) Cell membrane and chloroplast
7. Out of different combinations of terms given below the correct combination of terms with
reference to an animal cell is:(CTET)
a) Nucleus, plastids, cell membrane, cell wall
b) Nucleus, chromosome, ribosome, cell wall
c) The cell membrane, chromosome,ribosome,mitochondria
d) The cell membrane, ribosome,chloroplast,mitochondria
8. Who discovered the cell and how?

9. Define cell.

10. Discuss about cell on the basis of a) number b) size c) shape

130
 11.Amoeba and paramecium are examples of ___________ celled organisms

12. Describe various parts of the cell

13. What is a gene?

14. Draw animal and plant cell

15. Write the functions of a) cell membrane b) cell wall c) nucleus

16. What do you mean by prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? give examples

17. What are centrosomes?

18.What are Golgi bodies ?

19.Differentiate between animal and plant cell

20. Blank spaces found in cytoplasm ____________

21.Sac- like structures_______________

22. Thread like structures ______________

23.Describe protoplasm briefly

24. Define chromatin.

25. Largest cell of human body___________

26. _____________ is the dense fluid present in the nucleus

27. _______________- provides mechanical strength to the cells.

28. Which of the following statement about cells is true:

1. Cells of a tissue have similar structure.

2. Size of cell is same in a well organized organism

3. All cells have a nucleus.

4. All cells are round in shape.

29. All of the following are single-celled,except (CTET)

1.hen's egg

2.zygote

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3.embryo

4.paramecium

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 CHAPTER 9: REPRODUCTION IN ANIMALS

1. What is reproduction? What are the modes of reproduction? Write its importance.

2. Write a short note on a) binary fission b) budding

3. What is sexual reproduction?

4. What is asexual reproduction?

5. With the help of a diagram explain male reproductive organ.

6. With the help of a diagram explain female reproductive diagram.

7. Briefly describe sperms. Support with diagrams.

8. What does fertilization briefly describe?

9. Write about external and internal fertilization.

10. What is a fetus? .

11. How does embryo development occur in humans?

12. What is incubation?

13. Differentiate between viviparous and oviparous.

14. What do you mean by IVF?

15. Describe metamorphosis.

16. Write short note on cloning

17. Baby born through IVF is called ______________

18. Sperms are produced in ___________ and ova are produced in ____________

19. _________ duct carries sperms to the urethra.

20. Development of an embryo into a chick takes about _______ weeks.

21. Which of the following are correctly matched with the mode of reproduction.(CTET)

A. B.

a. Yeast i vegetative propagation

b. Potato ii spore formation

133
 c. Algae iii fragmentation

d. Fungi iv budding

A b c d

1. i ii iii iv

2. ii iv iii i

3. iii ii iv i

4. iv i iii ii

22. Consider the following sets of reproductive terms:(CTET)

a) Sperm, oviduct, egg, uterus

b) Ovulation,egg,oviduct,uterus
c) Sperm,testis,sperm duct, penis
d) Menstruation, egg, oviduct, uterus

23.
In human beings the correct sequence of the events during reproduction is (CTET)

a) Zygote, gamete formation, fertilization, embryo

b) Gamete formation, zygote, fertilization, embryo
c) Gamete formation, fertilization, embryo, zygote
d) Gamete formation, fertilization, zygote, embryo

134
 CHAPTER 10: REACHING THE AGE OF ADOLESCENCE

(Prerna Gautam)

1. Adolescence begins around the age of

a. 10 and lasts upto 17 years

b. 11 and lasts upto 18 or 19 years

c. 13 and lasts upto 17 years

d. 10 and lasts upto 18 or 19 years

2. The changes during adolescence marks the onset of __________ and it ends when an
adolescent reaches __________maturity.

3. The growing voice box in boys can be seen as a protruding part of the throat called ________.

4. What are endocrine glands? Give examples

5. Name secondary sexual characters that develop at adolescence stage in boys and girls.

6. Secretions from endocrine glands are called

a. Enzymes

b. Proteins

c. Hormones

d. Polypeptides

7. The production of estrogen and progesterone is under the control of

a. Adrenal gland

b. Thyroid gland

135
 c. Para thyroid gland

d. Pituitary gland

8. The female reproductive phase lasts till

a. The age of approximately 40-45 years

b. The age of approximately 45-50 years

c. The age of approximately 50-55 years

d. The age of approximately 42-45 years

9. The first menstrual flow begins at puberty is termed as ________ and the stoppage of
menstrual flow over a certain period of age is termed as _________.

10. The sex determining factor is present in the thread like structure named

a. Chromosomes

b. DNA

c. RNA

d. Villi

11. Human beings have _____ pairs of chromosomes inside the nucleus of the cell.

a. 24

b. 25

c. 23

d. 22

12. The sex of the unborn baby is determined by ________ chromosome.

a. Mother’s

136
 b. Father’s

c. Both the parents

d. None of the above

13. Goitre (a very big and bulging throat) is a disease associated with which gland?

14. Insulin is produced from

a. Adrenal gland

b. Liver

c. Pancreas

d. Pituitary gland

15. Which gland maintains the correct salt balance

a. Adrenal gland

b. Thyroid gland

c. Pancreas

d. Pituitary gland

16. Thyroxine production requires the presence of _______in water for the development of
tadpole into adult (metamorphosis).

a. Fluorine

b. Chlorine

c. Bromine

d. Iodine

17. What is balanced diet?

137
 18. If cleanliness is not maintained there are chances of catching ________ infection.

a. Fungal

b. Viral

c. Bacterial

d. All of the above

19. AIDS which is caused by a dangerous virus, HIV a dangerous virus, can pass on to a normal
person from an infected person by

a. sharing the syringes used for injecting drugs

b. infected mother through her milk

c. sexual contact

d. All of the above

20. Which hormone helps the body to adjust to stress when one is very angry, embarrassed or
worried?

21. Which of the following is correctly matched (CTET)

a. Estrogen- male hormone

b. Adrenaline- Stress reliever

c. Insulin- Provide insulation in winters

d. Eve’s pear- Girl’s neck

22. Diabetes is controlled by _____ hormone. (CTET)

(1) thyroxine
(2) adrenaline
(3) insulin
(4) thymosin

138
CHAPTER 11: FORCE AND PRESSURE

1. How many objects must interact for a force to come into play?

a. Atleast three

b. Atleast two

c. Atleast one

d. Atleast four

2. The strength of a force is usually expressed by its

a. Push

b. Pull

c. Magnitude

d. Pressure

3. If the force is applied in the direction opposite to the direction of motion, the speed of the
object______

a. Decreases

b. Increases

c. Remains the same

d. Becomes zero

4. The state of motion of an object is described by?

5. Choose the incorrect statement regarding force

a. It may make an object move from rest.

b. It may change the speed of an object if it is moving.

139
 c. It may change the direction of motion of an object.

d. It may not bring about a change in the shape of an object.

6. Which one of the following is the contact force

a. Gravitational force

b. Muscular force

c. Magnetic force

d. Electrostatic force

7. The force exerted by a charged body on another charged or uncharged body is known as

a. Gravitational force

b. Muscular force

c. Magnetic force

d. Electrostatic force

8. Which force is also known as attractive force?

9. Porters place a round piece of cloth on their heads, when they have to carry heavy loads to
increase the area of contact of the load. Which aspect is taken into consideration?

a. Force

b. Pressure

c. Friction

d. Gravity

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10. The type of force responsible for a change in the state of motion of the arrow is an example
of a _________ force.

11. While the arrow moves towards its target, the forces acting on it are due to __________ and
_________of air.

12. What happens to the atmospheric pressure if, the temperature is high

a. Decreases

b. Increases

c. Remains same

d. Does not depend on temperature

13. When we press the bulb of a dropper with its nozzle kept in water, air in the dropper is seen to
escape in the form of bubbles. Once we release the pressure on the bulb, water gets filled in the
dropper. The rise of water in the dropper is due to

a. pressure of water.

b. gravity of the earth.

c. shape of rubber bulb.

d. atmospheric pressure

14. An inflated balloon was pressed against a wall after it has been rubbed with a piece of synthetic
cloth. It was found that the balloon sticks to the wall. What force might be responsible for the
attraction between the balloon and the wall?

a. Gravitational force

b. Muscular force

c. Magnetic force

d. Electrostatic force

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15. Why do mountaineers suffer from nose bleeding at high altitudes?

16. The force applied by the archer to stretch the bow is an example of _______ force.

17. A batsman hits a cricket ball which then rolls on the level ground. After covering a short
distance the ball comes to rest. The ball stops due to ______.

18. The unit of measuring pressure is

a. newton

b. newton/metre

c. metre2

d. metre2/newton

19. When two unbalanced forces act on a body, in opposite directions, the net force is equal to

a. the sum of the individual unbalanced forces.

b. zero.

c. difference between the two unbalanced forces and is in the direction of the larger
force.

d. difference between the two unbalanced forces and is in the direction of smaller
force.

20. When two forces applied on an object are equal and opposite, then these forces

a. may move the object.

b. may stop the object.

c. may move the object and also cause a change in its shape.

d. do not move the object but may cause a change in its shape.

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 21. A rectangular box is kept on a table with its different faces touching the table. In different cases
the box exerts (CTET)

a. same thrust and same pressure.

b. different thrust but same pressure.

c. different thrust and different pressure.

d. same thrust but different pressure.

22. If the pressure over a liquid increases, its boiling point (CTET)

a. decreases

b. increases

c. does not change

d. first decreases and then increases

23. A Rectangular container given below is filled with a liquid heavier than water:(CTET)

Select the correct statement from the following about the liquid pressure.

(1) Pressure at A = Pressure at B = Pressure at C

(2) Pressure at A > Pressure at B > Pressure at C
(3) Pressure at C > Pressure at B = Pressure at A
(4) Pressure at C > Pressure at B > Pressure at A

24. Select the one which is different from the others in the manner it is applied(CTET)

a) Electrostatic force
b) Frictional force
c) Gravitational force
d) Magnetic force

25. Which of the following is/are example(s) of non-contact force? (CTET)

(1) Gravitation force

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 (2) Muscular force

(3) Magnetic force

(4) Both (1) and (2)

26. The pressure in a fluid that is at rest (CTET)

a. acts in all directions

b. acts only in vertical direction

c. acts only in downward direction

d. acts only sideways

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 CHAPTER 12: FRICTION

1. The larger number of irregularities lead to _________ friction.

a. Lesser

b. Greater

c. Zero

d. Constant

2. The force required to keep the object moving with the same speed is a measure of ________
friction.

3. The force required to overcome friction at the instant an object starts moving from rest is a
measure of _______ friction.

4. The sprinkling of powder on the carrom board _______ friction.

5. Lubricants _______ friction.

a. Increases

b. Decreases

c. Have zero effect on

d. None of the above

6. The frictional force exerted by fluids is called as

7. The frictional force on an object in a fluid depends on

a. its speed with respect to the fluid

b. the shape of the object

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 c. the nature of the fluid

d. All of the above

8. Force of friction is more in

a. marble tiles

b. wooden floor

c. playground

d. glass table

9. The energy required to overcome friction is mainly converted into

a. sound energy

b. heat energy

c. light energy

d. chemical energy

10. Out of the following, the better lubricant to be used in the moving parts of a machine,

a. Water

b. Air

c. chalk powder

d. turpentine oil

11. Tyres have cut grooves in them

a.to increase friction

b. to decrease friction

c. to make them look attractive

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 d. to save rubber

12. Friction is a /an_______

a. Evil

b. Foe

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None

13. On what force of friction depends?

a. Smoothness of surface

b. Roughness of surface

c. Inclination of surface

d. All of the above

14. Friction is a __________

a. Contact force

b. Non-contact force

c. Magnetic force

d. None of these

15. In a large commercial complex there are four ways to reach the main road. One of the path has
loose soil, the second is laid with polished marble, the third is laid with bricks and the fourth has
gravel surface. It is raining heavily and Paheli wishes to reach the main road. The path on which she
is least likely to slip is

a. loose soil.

b. polished marble.

c. bricks.

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 d. gravel.

16. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. Friction acts on a ball rolling along the ground.

b. Friction acts on a boat moving on water.

c. Friction acts on a bicycle moving on a smooth road.

d. Friction does not act on a ball moving through air.

17. A boy rolls a rubber ball on a wooden surface. The ball travels a short distance before coming
to rest. To make the same ball travel longer distance before coming to rest, he may

a. spread a carpet on the wooden surface.

b. cover the ball with a piece of cloth.

c. sprinkle talcum powder on the wooden surface.

d. sprinkle sand on the wooden surface.

18. Whenever the surfaces in contact tend to move or move with respect to each other, the force
of friction comes into play

a. only if the objects are solid.

b. only if one of the two objects is liquid.

c. only if one of the two objects is gaseous.

d. irrespective of whether the objects are solid, liquid or gaseous.

19. A toy car released with the same initial speed will travel farthest on

a. muddy surface

b. polished marble surface

c. cemented surface

d. brick surface

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 20. If we apply oil on door hinges, the friction will

a. increase

b. decrease

c. disappear altogether

d. will remain unchanged

21. You have a strong bar magnet made of steel. If you cut this magnet in three identical parts,
then you get (CTET)

a. one north pole, one south pole - and one complete magnet having two poles.

b. one north pole, one south pole and one steel bar.

c. three identical magnets.

d. two identical magnets and a steel bar

22. Which one of the following is the correct increasing order of the rolling, static and sliding
frictions (CTET).

a. Rolling, static, sliding

b. Rolling, sliding, static

c. Static, sliding, rolling

d. Sliding, static, rolling

23. A solid rectangular block of iron is kept over the top of a table with its different faces touching the
table. In different cases, the solid block exerts(CTET)

a) The same force and the same pressure

b) The same force but different pressures
c) Different forces and different pressures
d) Different forces but the same pressure

24. Identify the incorrect one: (CTET)

a) Ball bearings are used to increase friction between parts of the machine.
b) Friction between two surfaces in contact can never be eliminated on earth.
c) Rolling friction is less than sliding friction.

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 d) The friction forces on an object moving through a fluid depends upon its shape.

25. Why are the soles of the shoes treaded? (CTET)

(1) To give the shoes more protection

(2) To decrease friction

(3) To increase friction

(4) To increase life of the shoes

26. A book is lying at rest on the surface of a table. Which one of the following statements is true about
the force(s) acting on it? (CTET)

a. Only frictional force is acting on it.

b. There is no force acting on it.

c. There is a pair of balanced forces acting on it.

d. Only gravitational force is acting on it.

150
 CHAPTER 13: SOUND

1. Voice box is also known as

a. Trachea

b. Larynx

c. Wind pipe

d. Vocal cords

2. The voices of men, women and children are different due to

a. Varied length of the vocal cords

b. Varied length of trachea

c. Varied muscle attached to vocal cords

d. Varied muscle attached to trachea

3. Sound cannot travel through __________.

a. Water

b. Air

c. Vacuum

d. Solids

4. The eardrum is like a

a. Funnel

b. Stretched rubber sheet

c. Container

d. Paper sheet

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5. The number of oscillations per second is called

a. Amplitude

b. Pitch

c. Frequency

d. Vibration

6. Loudness of sound is __________ producing the sound.

a. proportional to the square of the amplitude of the vibration

b. Reversely proportional to the square of the amplitude of the vibration

c. proportional to the amplitude of the vibration

d. Reversely proportional to the amplitude of the vibration

7. The loudness is expressed in a unit called

a. Hertz

b. Decibel

c. Kilo-Hertz

d. Pascals

8. If the frequency of vibration is higher we say that the sound has a ______pitch.

a. Higher

b. Lower

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

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9. For human ear, the range of audible frequencies is roughly from

a. 10 to 10,000 Hz

b. 15 to 15,000 Hz

c. 20 to 20,000 Hz

d. 25 to 25,000 Hz

10. Voice of which of the following is likely to have a minimum frequency?

a. Baby girl

b. Baby boy

c. A man

d. A woman

11. The shrillness of a sound is determined by the ______ of vibration.

a. Time period

b. Amplitude

c. Noise

d. Frequency

12. The maximum displacement of a vibrating body on either side of its mean position, is known
as its

a. Frequency

b. Loudness

c. Amplitude

d. Pitch

13. When lightning and thunder take place, they

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 a. occur together and are also observed together.

b. occur one after the other but are observed together.

c. occur together but the thunder is observed a little after the lightning.

d. occur together but the thunder is observed a little before the lightning

14. Sounds having frequency more than 20 Hz are called

a. Infrasonic

b. Ultrasonic

c. Supersonic

d. None of these

15. The frequency of a given sound is 1.5 kHz. The vibrating body is

a. completing 1,500 vibrations in one second.

b. taking 1,500 seconds to complete one vibration.

c. taking 1.5 seconds to complete one vibration.

d. completing 1.5 vibrations in one second

16. Sound is a kind of

a. work

b. energy

c. force

d. pressure

17. The frequency of subsonic sound is

a. more than 20 Hz

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 b. 100 Hz

c. less than 20 Hz

d. more than 20,000 Hz

18. Loudness of sound is determined by

a. pitch

b. frequency

c. amplitude

d. time period

19. Vibration is also known as

a. Vibratory motion

b. Translatory motion

c. Oscillatory motion

d. None of these

20. Above _____ dB the sound becomes physically painful

a. 60

b. 40

c. 120

d. 80

21. If you have to change a feeble sound to a loud sound, the required change is to increase its
(CTET)

a. wavelength

b. velocity

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 c. frequency

d. amplitude

22. If the frequency of vibrations of a body is decreased and its amplitude is increased, then
(CTET)

a. pitch decreases but loudness increases

b. both pitch and loudness of sound produced will decrease

c. both pitch and loudness of sound produced will increase

d. pitch increases but loudness decreases

23. “Hertz” is the unit of (CTET)

a. Force

b. Pressure

c. Momentum

d. Frequency

24. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? (CTET)

a) A drum vibrates with a low frequency therefore it produces a low pitched sound
b) A whistle has a high frequency and therefore it produces a sound of higher pitch
c) Generally the voice of a man is shriller than that of a woman
d) A bird makes a high pitched sound whereas a lion makes a low-pitched roar.

25. The ultrasound equipment used for investigating medical problems work at a frequency(CTET)

a) Below 20 Hz
b) Between 20Hz and 200000 Hz
c) Between 2000 Hz and 20000 Hz
d) Above 20000 Hz

26. If the frequency of a simple pendulum is 2 Hz, how many oscillations will it complete in 16 seconds?
(CTET)

(1) 8

(2) 16

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(3) 32

(4) 64

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 CHAPTER 14: CHEMICAL EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

1. Oxygen bubbles formed on the electrode connected to the ___________of the battery.

a. Negative terminal

b. Positive terminal

c. Both a and b

d. None of these

2. Which of the following does not conduct electricity?

a. Sugar solution

b. Vinegar solution

c. Lemon juice solution

d. Caustic soda solution

3. Which of the following is a bad conductor of electricity?

a. Distilled water

b. Silver nitrate

c. Sulphuric acid

d. Copper sulphate

4. The negative charged ions are called

a. Cations

b. Ions

c. Anions

d. None of these

158
5. An electric current can produce

a. heating effect

b. chemical effect

c. magnetic effect

d. all of these

6. Polythene is

a. a conductor

b. an insulator

c. both (a) and (b)

d. none of these

7. Electroplating is based on

a. heating effect of electricity

b. chemical effect of electricity

c. physical effect of electricity

d. magnetic effect of electricity

8. Flow of electron is called

a. electrolyte

b. electroplating

c. electrodes

d. electric current

9. An electric lamp glows due to

159
 a. heating effect

b. magnetic effect

c. chemical effect

d. physical effect

10. Electroplating prevents

a. Corrosion

b. passing of current

c. dissociation

d. shining

11. Waste from an electroplating factory must be disposed off

a. in the nearby river

b. in the nearby pond

c. in the nearby cornfield

d. according to the disposal guidelines of Waste Management Bodies

12. Which of the following is not used for electroplating metal articles?

a. Nickel

b. Silver

c. Chromium

d. Sodium

13. Iron objects can be protected by electroplating them with

a. chromium

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 b. nickel

c. zinc

d. all of these

14. In LEDs, the longer lead (wire) is always connected to the _______ terminal

a. negative

b. neutral

c. positive

d. Any terminal

15. Tap water is a good conductor of electricity while distilled water is not because

a. Tap water contain salts

b. Distilled water do not contain salt

c. Only (a) is correct

d. Both (a) & (b) is correct

16. When electrodes are immersed in water and electricity passed, the bubbles formed on the
negative terminal is actually _______ gas.

a. Hydrogen

b. Carbon dioxide

c. Oxygen

d. Nitrogen

17. Why do we add little dilute sulphuric acid to copper sulphate solution during electroplating?

a. To increase acidity

b. To increase conductivity

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 c. So that the colour becomes more prominent

d. To burn copper sulphate

18. A coating of _________is deposited on iron to protect it from corrosion and formation of
rust

a. copper

b. aluminium

c. zinc

d. silver

19. Tin cans, used for storing food, are made by electroplating tin onto iron. Why?

a. Tin gives a shiny appearance

b. To make the vessel cheap

c. Tin is less reactive than iron

d. To make the vessel lighter

20. Chromium plating is done on many objects such as car parts, bath taps, kitchen gas stove
etc. Why?

a. It does not corrode and prevents scratches

b. It looks beautiful

c. It costs less

d. Articles can be sold at higher price

21. When electric current is passed through a metallic conductor, amount of heat produced in
the conductor depends on its (CTET)

a. material, length and thickness

b. material and length only

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 c. length and thickness only

d. material and thickness only

22. Bakelite is used in making electrical appliances because it is a (CTET)

a. thermoplastic

b. good conductor of heat

c. good conductor of electricity

d. good insulator of electricity

23. Which of the following is not a conductor of electricity?(CTET)

a) Vinegar
b) Lime Juice
c) Salt water
d) Distilled water

24. Sarika took distilled water in a bottle and tried to find whether it conducts electricity or not.
What is she likely to find? (CTET)

(1) It is a good conductor of electricity.

(2) It is an insulator.

(3) It is a poor conductor of electricity.

(4) None of the above

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 CHAPTER 15: SOME NATURAL PHENOMENON

(Sneha Bajpai)

1. The most abundant element found in the earth's crust is (CTET)

a. Carbon
b. Nitrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Silicon

2. Which of the following statements related to earthquakes is not correct? (CTET)

a. The seismograph records the seismogram
b. The Richter Scale is not linear but logarithmic.
c. The seismic waves originate from focus.
d. The record of the seismic waves is called seismograph

3. The green house effect which is causing an increase in the atmospheric temperature is mainly due to
(CTET)
a. Oxygen
b. Nitrogen
c. carbon dioxide
d. sulphur
4. Consider the following terms:(CTET)
a) Lightning
b) Landslide
c) Thundering
d) Tsunami
e) Floods

Earthquakes can cause

1) B, C and E
2) A, B and C
3) B only
4) B and E

5. Select the correct statements regarding rods and cones in the human eye:(CTET)

a) Cones are sensitive to dim light

b) Cones are sensitive to bright light
c) Rods can sense colour

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 d) Rods are sensitive to bright light.

6. Which one of the following places is most likely to be affected by a cyclone?(CTET 2018)

(1) Porbandar

(2) Puri

(3) Mumbai

(4) Goa

7. The charges of the same kind ______ each other, while charges of different kind _____each other.

8. True or false

The electrical charge can be transferred from a charged object to another through a metal conductor.

9. The process of electric discharge can occur between two or more clouds, or between

a. clouds and the earth.

b. Earth and water

c. Water and air

10. Which safety measure should be taken to avoid lightning stroke?

a. Carry an umbrella

b. Stay in open car or an elevated shelter

c. Stay away from tall trees

11. Lightning Conductor is a device used to protect buildings from the effect of________.

12. An earthquake is caused by a disturbance deep inside the earth’s

a. Core

b. Mantle

c. Crust

13. The zones where earthquakes are more likely to occur are known as________.

14. The power of an earthquake is expressed in terms of a magnitude on a scale called the________.

15. The electrical charges produced by rubbing are called

165
 a. Dynamic charges

b. Positive charges

c. Static charges

d. Negative charges

16. What can be used to detect whether a body is charged or not

a. Microscope

b. Kaleidoscope

c. Electroscope

d. Electrometer

17. Which of the following cannot be charged easily by friction?

(a) A plastic scale (b) A copper rod (c) An inflated balloon (d) A woollen cloth.

18. Earthquake is more likely to occur in

a. Kerala

b. Madhya Pradesh

c. Runn of kutch

d. Jharkhand

19. Waves of an earthquake are recorded by

a. Seismometer

b. Wavesgraph

c. Seismograph

20. Destructive earthquakes have magnitudes higher than

a. 6.5

b. 8

c. 7

d. 7.5

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21. The lightning is caused by the ________of charges in the clouds.

22. True or false

When charges move, they constitute an electric current.

23. The process of transferring charge from a charged object to the earth is called_________.

24. A major earthquake occurred on 26 January 2001 in Bhuj district of________.

25. A sudden shaking or trembling of the earth which lasts for a very short time is known as

a. Cyclone

b. Lightning

c. Earthquake

d. Thunderstorm

26. The Central Building Research Institute, Roorkee, has developed knowhow to make
________houses.

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 CHAPTER 16: LIGHT

1. Which one of the following can be used to form a virtual and magnified image of an
object?(CTET)
a) Both convex mirror and convex lens
b) Both concave mirror and convex lens
c) Concave lens only
d) Convex lens only

2. Medium A is optically denser than Medium B. Which one of the following statements is true?(CTET)

a) Speed of light is moe in medium A than in Medium B

b) Speed of light is more in medium B than in medium A
c) Speed of light is same in both A and B
d) Cannot be compared.

3. Light is falling on the surface S1, S2, and S3 as shown below:(CTET)

The surface on which the angle of the incidence is equal to angle of reflection are

a) S1 & S2
b) S2 & S3
c) S1 & S3
d) All of the three surfaces.

4. In the diagram of the human eye given below the parts marked by A, B , C and D should be labeled
as:(CTET)

a) A- ciliary muscles. B - Pupil C, Lean, D- Cornea

b) A-iris, B-pupil, C- lens, D - Cornea
c) A-Iris, B- Cornea, C-pupil, D- lens
d) A-ciliary muscle, B -iris, C- lens , D - cornea

5. The impression of an image persisted on the retina of the human eye for about(CTET)

a) 1 sec

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 b) ½ sec
c) 1/15 sec
d) 1/25 sec

6. The image of a distant coloured object formed in a pinhole camera is always(CTET)

a) Virtual, erect, coloured and diminished

b) Real, erect, coloured and diminished
c) Real,inverted,balack and white and diminished
d) Read, inverted, coloured and diminished

7. You are provided with a concave mirror, a concave lens, a convex mirror and a convex lens. To obtain
an enlarged image of an object, you can use either(CTET)

a) Concave lens or convex lens

b) Concave mirror or convex mirror
c) Concave mirror or concave lens
d) Concave mirror or convex lens

8. Which of the following statements are true about image formation in a plane mirror?(CTET)

A.The image is larger in size than the object.

B. The image is formed at the same distance as the object.
C. The image is laterally inverted.
D.The image is virtual.
(1) A, B, C and D
(2) A, Band C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, C and D

9. The light ray, which strikes any surface, is called the

a. Reflected ray
b. Incident ray
c. Refracted ray
10. The line which is perpendicular to the reflecting surface is known as ________.
11. True or false: The angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection.
12. The incident ray, the normal at the point of incidence and the reflected ray all lie in the__________.
a. Different plane
b. Vertical plane
c. Same plane
d. Horizontal plane
13. In an image formed by a mirror the left of the object appears on the right and the right appears on
the left. This is known as________.

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14. When all the parallel rays reflected from a rough or irregular surface are not parallel, the reflection
is known as
a. Regular reflection
b. Diffused reflection
c. Plain reflection
15. Everything we see around is due to________ light.
16. ________are used in submarines, tanks and also by soldiers in bunkers to see things outside.
17. True or false
Sunlight is a white light.
18. Splitting of light into its colours is known as _______of light.
a. Reflection
b. Dispersion
c. Dissection
19. The transparent front part of an eye is called______
a. Iris
b. Cornea
c. Pupil
20. The _______controls the amount of light entering into the eye.
21. The nerve cells in an eye, rods & cons are responsible
a. To sense bright colours
b. To sense Bright light
c. To sense Dim light & colour
22. The most comfortable distance at which one can read with a normal eye is about_____
a. 20 cm
b. 25 cm
c. 30 cm
23. True or false
Butterflies can see not only in the front and the sides but the back as well.
24. The night blindness is caused due to lack of vitamin___
a. B
b. D
c. C
d. A
25. Who developed a system for visually challenged persons and published it in 1821?
a. Louis William
b. Arthur Fredrick
c. Louis Braille
26. ______was an American author & lecturer who was visually challenged & authored the book called
the story of my life.
27. Two mirrors inclined to each other give______ images.

170
 a. Single
b. No
c. Multiple
28. The size of the pupil is controlled by the _____.

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 CHAPTER 17: STARS AND THE SOLAR SYSTEM

1. Which one of the following planets has no natural satellite of its own? (CTET)
a) Uranus
b) Venus
c) Jupiter
d) mars

2. There are two planets in our solar system which rotate from east to west. There planets are:(CTET)

a) Mercury and Uranus

b) Venus and Uranus
c) Mercury and Venus
d) Uranus and neptune

3. The change in seasons on the earth occurs because— (CTET)

(1) the axis of rotation of the earth is perpendicular to the plane of its orbit

(2) the axis of rotation of the earth is tilted with respect to the plane of its orbit

(3) the distance between the earth and the sun is not constant

(4) the axis of rotation of the earth is parallel to the plane of its orbit

4. The study of celestial objects and associated phenomena is called

a. Astrology

b. Archaeology

c. Astronomy

5. On the fifteenth day the moon is not visible. This day is known as the_______.

a. Full moon day

b. New moon day

c. No moon day

6. Who landed on the moon for the first time?

a. Edwin Aldrin

b. Rakesh Sharma

c. Neil Armstrong

7. Name the star which is situated in the direction of the earth’s axis.

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 a. Axis star

b. Bright star

c. Pole star

8. The stars forming a group that has a recognisable shape is called a __________.

9. True or false

Ursa major is not a constellation, which moves around the pole star.

10. A well-known constellation that can be seen during winter in the late evenings is

a. Ursa major

b. Orion

c. Cassiopeia

11. Any celestial body revolving around another celestial body is called its ________.

12. The practice of astronomy in ancient India is mentioned in

a. Yajur veda

b. Sama veda

c. Rig veda

13. the smallest planet of our solar system is

a. venus

b. mars

c. mercury

14. Which planet is known as the morning or evening star

a. Mars

b. Jupiter

c. Venus

d. Mercury

15. ______ is India’s first Mars orbiter mission which was launched on November 5,2013.

173
16. Name the largest planet of the solar system in which 1300 earths can be placed.

17. Which planet has rings that are not visible to our naked eyes?

18. The large gap between the orbits of mars & Jupiter is occupied by a large number of small objects.
These are called

a. Meteors

b. Meteorites

c. Asteroids

d. Comets

19. Name the comet which appears after nearly every 76 years.

20. True or false: The friction due to the atmosphere heats up the meteors due to which they glow with
a bright streak.

21. Which is the first Indian satellite?

a. Aryabhata

b. INSAT

c. IRS

d. EDUSAT

22. Which planet has the highly tilted rotational axis?

a. Jupiter

b. Mercury

c. Uranus

d. Venus

23. True or false: The density of Saturn is less than that of water.

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 CHAPTER 18: POLLUTION OF AIR AND WATER

1. The gases present in atmosphere that cause greenhouse effect are (CTET)
a. Carbon dioxide, oxygen, nitrogen
b. Carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide methane
c. Nitrous oxide, oxygen, water vapour
d. Methane, water vapour, carbon dioxide

2. Identify the correct statement(s) (CTET)

a. The freshwater stored in the ground is less than that present in the rivers and lakes of the
world.
b. Water shortage is a problem faced by people only in rural areas.
c. Water from rivers is the only. source for irrigation in the fields.
d. Rain is the ultimate source of water.
(1) Only D

(2) A and C

(3) A and B

(4) A, Band C

3. What percentage of oxygen is present in the air?

a. 20%

b. 25%

c. 21%

d. 24%

4. The substances which contaminate the air are called ________.

5. Name the pollutant which is produced by incomplete burning of fuel.

a. Carbon dioxide

b. Carbon monoxide

c. Smoke

6. Fog like layer in the atmosphere during winters is made up of smoke & fog is called _______.
7. __________is produced by combustion of fuels like coal in power plants.
8. The ozone layer of the atmosphere is damaged by__________.
9. Deforestation leads to an increase in the amount of_____ in the air because the number of
trees which consume_____ is reduced.
10. The harmful substances such as sewage, toxic chemicals, silt, etc., get mixed with water, the
water becomes polluted. . The substances that pollute water are called ________.

175
11. A plan which was launched to save river Ganga

a. Save Ganga

b. River cleaning plan

c. Ganga action plan

d. Gaga project

12. The Ganga is most polluted at ______in U.P.

13. arsenic, lead and fluorides lead to contamination of

a. air

b. water

c. land

14. true or false

Hot water can be a pollutant, adversely affecting the animals & plants living in it.

15. Water which is suitable for drinking is called ______.

16. _______________is a commonly used chemical method for purifying water.
17. True or false

Boiling is a method for obtaining safe drinking water.

18. diseases like cholera, typhoid and jaundice can be caused due to

a. air contamination

b. water contamination

c. food contamination

19. solar energy, hydropower and wind energy are _____fuels.

20. The use of CNG & unleaded petrol can lead to reduction in

a. Water pollution

b. Air pollution

c. Soil pollution

21. The average temperature of the earth’s atmosphere is gradually increasing. This is called
_______.
22. Acid rain corrodes the marble of the monument. The phenomenon is also called_________.

176
 Answer Key
CHAPTER 1: CROP PRODUCTION AND MANAGEMENT

1. B. Adding fertilizers, adding manures, crop rotation.

2. C. Wheat, pea, gram, mustard
3. C. Nitrogen fixation, root nodules, leguminous plants
4. B.Paddy, maize, cotton, soybean
5. 3. B C and D
6. C. Tilling
7. B. Manure
8. A. Rice
9. D. Pea
10. D. Sprinkler System
11. A. Nitrogen
12. B. Animal Husbandry
13. A. Threshing
14. C. Weedicides
15. C. Neem Leaves
16. D. Kharif Crop
17. C. Winter
18. D. Seed Drill
19. D. Produced in factories
20. A. Roots of leguminous plants
21. C. Plough, Hoes, Cultivator
22. B. Crop Rotation
23. D. Traditional Methods of Irrigation
24. A. Threshing
25. C. Harvester and Thresher

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 CHAPTER 2: MICROORGANISMS : FRIEND AND FOE

1. A. Protozoan
2. C. Bacteria
3. C. Fermentation
4. C. Cholera
5. C. Chicken pox and polio
6. B. Virus
7. 1.D c a b
8. 1. Measles,Chickenpox, Hepatitis - A
9. b) Capture of food only
10. 1) iv v ii i
11. 4) A, B and E
12. (a) microscope
(b) atmospheric nitrogen
(c) yeast

(d) bacteria.
13. (a) (ii) alcohol (b) (ii) Streptomycin (c) (i) female Anopheles mosquito (d)
(ii) housefly (e) (iii) growth of yeast cells (f) (iii) fermentation.
14. Column A Column B
(i) Bacteria (e) Causing cholera
(ii) Rhizobium (a) Fixing nitrogen
(iii) Lactobacillus (b) Setting of curd
(iv) Yeast (c) Baking of bread
(v) A protozoan (d) Causes malaria
(vi) A virus (f) Causing AIDS
15. a) Fungus
16. a) Protozoa
17. a) Help in Nitrogen Fixation
18. a) Protozoa
19. a) Fungi
20. a) 0.78
21. a) Edward Jenner
22.There are following four major groups of microorganisms:
(i) Bacteria (ii) Fungi (iii) Protozoa (iv) Algae.

178
23. Bacteria like Rhizobium and Azotobacter and blue green algae can fix atmospheric nitrogen in soil.
27. (3) Edward Jenner
28.(2) Sodium benzoate
29.(1) alcohol
30.a)Tuberculosis, pneumonia & typhoid
31.(3) a b c d
iii ii iv i

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 CHAPTER 3: SYNTHETIC FIBRES AND PLASTICS

1. D. Glucose
2. C. Rayon
3. B. Polyester
4. C. Durable, light weight, non-reactive
5. A. Air, water, plastic
6. B) Polymers
7. B) Nylon
8. c) Rayon
9. A) Thermosetting plastics
10. C) Esters
11. B) 1931
12. A) Rayon
13. C) Acrylic
14. C) Coal, Water, Air
15. monomers
16. Natural
17. Thermoplastics
18. Rayon
19. Terycot, polyester
20. Teflon
21. Non-Biodegradable
22. Polyvinyl chloride
23. Wool

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 CHAPTER 4:MATERIALS : METALS AND NON-METALS

1. C. Sulphuric acid H2SO4

2. C. Prevents its contact with oxygen
3. B. Steel
4. C. Basic
5. B. student A. Effect on dry red litmus paper à Colour changed to blue
6. A. Student D Washing soda change red litmus to blue, hence it is basic in nature
7. D. A mixture of copper carbonate and copper hydroxide
8. C. hydrogen Gas
9. D. Colourless and odourless gas which produces a “pop” sound when a burning match stick is
brought near it.
10. D. Sulphur Dioxide
11. a. malleability
12. c. Na
13. d. N
14. b. Graphite
15. a. Red
16. b. Acidic
17. c. Kerosene
18. a. Sodium
19. c. Ca
20. B. Phosphorous
21. B. CuCO3
22. C. Hydrogen
23. D. O
24. B. Hydrogen
25. a. Zinc
26. B. All non-metals are no-ductile.
27. (1) Sodium
28. (2) Hydrogen
29. (b)blue litmus remains blue whereas the red litmus turns blue

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 CHAPTER 5: COAL AND PETROLEUM

1. A. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)

2. C. Minerals and wildlife
3. b. Unlimited
4. a. Exhaustible
5. b. Exhaustible
6. a. Dead remains of living organism
7. c. Fossils
8. b. Purifier
9. d.All of these
10. c. Carbon
11. a. Slow conversion of dead vegetation Into coal
12. b. Carbon dioxide
13. d. All of these
14. c. steel
15. c. Coal gas
16. d. All of these
17. a. Unpleasant
18. d. All of these
19. c. Coal tar
20. b. Coal gas
21. d. All of these
22. a. Above that of water
23. b. Separation of various fractions of petroleum
24. a. Home
25. (2) CNG

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 CHAPTER 6: COMBUSTION AND FLAME

1. A. 45,000 kJ/kg
2. A. A(Rusting of iron) and C(Respiration)
3. D. CO2 and H2O
4. B. KJ/kgAnswers
5. D. Hydrogen
6. D Kilojoules per kilogram
7. Liquefied Petroleum Gas(LPG)
8. Combustion is the process in which a substance combines chemically with oxygen to produce
heat and light energy.
9. Ignition temperature is the minimum temperature at which a substance starts burning.
10. Inflammable substances are the ones which have low ignition temperature.
11. Types of combustion- a) spontaneous combustion – combustion of a substance on its own at
room temperature without being ignited eg spontaneous forest fires.
12. b) rapid combustion – combustion of substance in which large amounts of heat and light are
released in a very short time example burning of coal, wood and candle.
13. The amount of fuel produced when 1g of fuel undergoes complete combustion is called calorific
values.
14. The conditions necessary for combustion are – presence of combustible substances, presence
of a supporter of combustion and the heat to raise the temperature of a substance to its ignition
temperature.
15. Fire extinguisher removes the conditions which support combustions by cutting off the supply
of oxygen and cooling the combustible substances below their ignition temperature. Most
common type of extinguisher is water
16. 9. Two ways to control fire:-
17. A) fire extinguisher

B) Wrapping the blanket around the body.

18. LPG
19. Water
20. Glass, iron and stones.
21. White flame
22. no flame is not produced when the charcoal is burnt as it does not vaporize.
23. Non-luminous

183
24. KJ/Kg
25. ideal fuel must be cheap, readily available, must not produce the poisonous fumes and should
have the high calorific value
26. oxides of sulphur, acid rain
27. 86 degree F or 30 degree C
28. c) The calorific value of biogas is more than that of LPG.

184
 CHAPTER 7: CONSERVATION OF PLANTS AND ANIMALS

1. B. I and III. It is maximum in a forest. It refers to the various species of flora and fauna present
in an area.
2. D. All of the above
3. C. These are the areas which help to maintain the biodiversity and culture of the areas
4. C. They are found exclusively in a specific habitat
5. A. Endemic species
6. D. conservation
7. Deforestation is clearing of forest and using the land for other purposes. Some of its causes
could be – a) urbanization b) multiple uses of wood in furniture, paper c) to make roads d)
firewood collection e) timber harvesting f) utilization of lands to make industries.
8. The conversion of fertile land into dryland is called desertification.
9. Biosphere is an ecosystem composed of living organisms as well as non living factors from which
they derive the energy and nutrients.
10. Consequences of deforestation are climate change, soil erosion and soil degradation with
destruction of the habitat.
11. Wildlife Sanctuary
12. National parks- areas strictly reserved for the betterment of wildlife. Animals can use habitat
and natural resources. Example- kanha national park, Satpura national park.

b) Biosphere reserve- large area protected land for the conservation of wildlife, plant and
animal resources. Examples- pachmarhi, Sunderban.

c) Wildlife sanctuary- these areas provide protection and suitable living conditions to wild
animals.

13. 7. Mango, silver ferns, sal, teak – flora and chinkara, bull, wolf, barking deer, leopard.
14. 8. Species - these are the group of living organisms consisting of similar individuals.

b) Red data book- these are the source book maintained by IUCN containing a record of all
threatened species of plants and animals which are on the verge of extinction.

c) Endemic species – species of plants and animals found exclusively in a particular area.

15. Asiatic lion and great Indian bustard

185
16. In a zoo animals are brought from different areas to a particular habitat whereas in wildlife
sanctuaries animals are found locally in that area.
17. . Satpura national park
18. Finest teak wood is found
19. Project tiger is a wildlife conservation project in India initiated in 1972 to protect royal Bengal
tigers.
20. . Species which are in danger of extinction in near future.
21. Overgrazing, deforestation, hunting and construction of dams
22. Ecosystem is the system comprising all the plants animals and the climatic condition to sustain
life.
23. Birds migrate due to the climatic conditions and in search of food
24. Afforestation
25. Biodiversity
26. recycling of paper would help saving trees and would prevent deforestation.
27. (1) endangered species

186
 CHAPTER 8: CELL- STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION

1. B. Absence of nuclear membrane

2. 2. A, b and c
3. A. A, B and C
4. B. B, C and D
5. B. A-cell membrane, B- vacuole, C- nucleus, D- Cytoplasm
6. A. chromosomes and genes
7. C. The cell membrane, chromosome,ribosome,mitochondria
8. Robert Hooke discovered the cell while studying about the dead cork cells. These cells formed
honeycomb-like structures.
9. Cell is the structural and functional unit of complex structure of life.
10. On the basis of number cells are of 2 types - unicellular and multicellular.
a) Shape of cells - disc shaped , spindle shaped , elliptical egg cell , oval shaped and
irregular shaped and long branched nerve cells
b) Size of cells - smallest bacterial cell is 0.1 - 0.5 microns whereas the largest cell is
170mm and is an ostrich egg.
11. Unicellular
12. Cell has - cell wall which is the thick rigid layer present outside the cell membrane of the plant
cell and is made of cellulose.

Cell membrane - thin outer protective covering enclosing the cytoplasm and other cell
organelles.

Cytoplasm - it is the jelly like substance present between the cell membrane and the nucleus

Nucleus - the most important component of the cell generally situated in the centre of cell.

13. Genes are the unit of hereditary . they control the transfer of characteristics from the parents
to the offspring

187
 14. . the diagram of plant and animal cells.
15. Functions of :- a) cell wall - provides a protection against variation in temperature , high wind
and atmospheric moisture .

b) it provides mechanical strength

c) It controls the shape and size of the cell

Cell membrane - a) it provides protection to the cell.

b) it gives shape to the cell.

c) it is permeable

Nucleus a) brings about cell division

b) responsible for the transmission of hereditary material from one generation to the other.

c) it acts as a control centre for all the activities in the cell

16. Prokaryotic cells- when the nucleus is not well organised like multicellular organisms. Nuclear
material lies scattered in the cell without a nuclear membrane . the cells are not well
differentiated in various cell organelles. Example blue green algae.

Eukaryotic cells- the nucleus is well organised and other well organised cell organelles. Example homo
sapiens.

17. Centrosomes are the round bodies found in animal cells which helps in cell division.
18. . Golgi bodies are the organelles which perform secretory functions and are found only in the
animal cells
19.

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 Animal cell Plant cell

1. Cell wall is absent 1. Cellulosic cell wall is present

2. Plastids are absent 2. Plastids are present

3. Centrosomes are present in them 3. No centrosome is present

4. Vacuoles are either absent or very small 4. Larger prominent vacuole is present

5. Generally small in size 5. Larger than the animal cells

20. Vacuoles
21. Lysosomes and centrosomes
22. Chromatin
23. Protoplasm is a jelly like substance surrounded by cell membrane and can be divided into 3
basic components - cell membrane , cytoplasm and nucleus
24. Chromatin is the decondensed form of thread like structures present in the nucleus.
25.
26. Cytoplasm
27. Cell wall
28.
29. 3)embryo

189
 CHAPTER 9: REPRODUCTION IN ANIMALS

1. Reproduction is the method by which animals reproduce their young ones. There are 2 modes
of reproduction- sexual and asexual reproduction and it is important for the continuation of
life of animals.
2. a) Binary fission - it a method of asexual reproduction which involves the division of nucleus
which divides into 2 and is followed by the division of its body into two. Most commonly seen
in amoeba.

b) budding - in animals like hydra budding is observed. The bulges are developed on the
lateral sides of the body and the bulges are called buds. These buds further detach from the
parent body and grow as separate individuals

3. Sexual reproduction is the method of reproduction in which two parents are involved to
produce their young ones. One is male and the other is female.
4. Asexual reproduction is the method of reproduction theat involves only one or single parent.
And the offspring is completely identical to the parent.

5. female reproductive organ

6. Sperms are very small in size, each has a head , a middle piece and a tail. It is a single cell with
only one set of chromosomes. Head contains the nucleus , the middle piece contains
mitochondrion which provides energy to the sperms for the movement.

190
7. Male gamete fuses with the female gamete to form zygote. And is considered as the first step
of reproduction when sperms come in contact with the ovum. Only one sperm gets the
chance to fuse with an ovum. Such fusion of sperm and egg is fertilisation.
8. External fertilization - the fertilization which takes place outside of the female body. Example
frogs and aquatic animals.

Internal fertilisation - when the fertilization takes place inside of the female body. example -
human, cow, goat.

9. After fertilisation, zygote begins to divide and redivide repeatedly to give rise to the ball of
cells. Cells then reorganise and develop into different tissues and organs of the body which is
called embryo.
10. A foetus develops when the embryo development occurs like - the heads, eyes , ears and
hands. This stage is referred to as an embryo.
11. When the hen provides sufficient warmth for the chick embryo development. This is called
incubation.
12. Some animals give birth to the young ones are considered as viviparous example - human ,
cat , dog whereas the animals who lay eggs are called oviparous example - hen , birds.
13. IVF or in - vitro fertilisation is a technique where fertilisation of ovum with the sperm occurs in
the test - tube outside of the body
14. The transformation of larvae into an adult through different stages of drastic changes is called
metamorphosis . The life cycle of frogs passes through 3 stages - eggs - tadpole larvae - adult.
15. Cloning is a technique by which an exact copy of the cell or any other part of the body can be
produced. Birth of dolly , the first mammalian clone was cloned by Dr. Ian Willmut and his
colleagues at Roslin Institute in Edinburgh, Scotland.
16. Test tube baby
17. Testis , ovaries
18. Spermatic duct
19. 3 weeks
20. B. Ovulation,egg,oviduct,uterus
21. D. Gamete formation, fertilization, zygote, embryo

191
 CHAPTER 10: REACHING THE AGE OF ADOLESCENCE

1. B. 11 and lasts upto 18 or 19 years

2. Puberty, Reproductive

3. Adam’s apple

4. Endocrine glands (Ductless glands) release hormones directly into the bloodstream. Examples:
thyroid, pituitary, ovaries, testis, adrenal glands

5. In girls: Development of breast and in boys: Facial hair growth (Moustaches, beard), hair on
chest. In both hair grows under the arms and in the region above the thighs or the pubic region.

6. C. Hormones

7. D. Pituitary gland

8. B. The age of approximately 45-50 years

9. Menarche and menopause

10. A. Chromosomes

11. C. 23 pairs of chromosomes

12. B. Father’s

13. Thyroid gland and it stop producing the hormone thyroxine.

14. C. Pancreas

15. A. Adrenal gland

16. D. Iodine

17. Balanced diet means that the meals include proteins, carbohydrates, fats and vitamins in
requisite proportions. Examples: roti/rice, dal (pulses), milk, fruits and vegetables.

18. C. Bacterial

192
19. D. all. sharing the syringes used for injecting drugs, infected mother through her milk and sexual
contact

20. Adrenalin

21. B. Adrenaline- Stress reliever

22. (3) insulin

193
 CHAPTER 11: FORCE AND PRESSURE

1. B. Atleast two

2. C. Magnitude

3. A. Decreases

4. The state of motion of an object is described by its speed and the direction of motion. The
state of rest is considered to be the state of zero speed. An object may be at rest or in motion; both
are its states of motion.

5. D. It may not bring about a change in the shape of an object (wrong). Example: apply a force
on an inflated balloon by pressing it between your palms? What happens to the shape of a ball of
dough when it is rolled to make a chapati?

6. B. Muscular force

7. D. Electrostatic force

8. Gravitational force

9. B. Pressure

10. Contact force

11. Gravity and friction

12. A. Decreases

13. D. atmospheric pressure

14. D. Electrostatic force

15. The atmospheric pressure decreases with high altitude. Since the pressure of the blood inside
the body is high, the nose starts bleeding.

16. Muscular force

17. Frictional force

194
18. newton/metre

19. c. difference between the two unbalanced forces and is in the direction of the larger force.

20. D. do not move the object but may cause a change in its shape.

21. D. same thrust but different pressure.

22. B. increases

23. 4. Pressure at C > Pressure at B > Pressure at A

22. B. Frictional force

23. (3) Magnetic force
24. (a) acts in all directions

195
 CHAPTER 12: FRICTION

1. B. Greater

2. Sliding friction

3. Static friction

4. Reduces

5. B. Decreases

6. Drag

7. D. All, its speed with respect to the fluid, the shape of the object and the nature of the fluid.

8. C. playground

9. B. heat energy

10. D. turpentine oil

11. A. to increase friction

12. C. both, Evil and Foe

13. D. Smoothness of surface, Roughness of surface and Inclination of surface

14. A. Contact force

15. D. gravel

16. D. Friction does not act on a ball moving through air.

17. C. sprinkle talcum powder on the wooden surface.

18. D. irrespective of whether the objects are solid, liquid or gaseous.

19. B. polished marble surface

20. B. decrease

196
21.three identical magnets

22. B. Rolling, sliding, static

23. B. The same force but different pressures

25. (3) To increase friction

26. (c)There is a pair of balanced forces acting on it.

197
 CHAPTER 13: SOUND

1. B. Larynx

2. A. Varied length of the vocal cords

3. C. Vacuum

4. B. Stretched rubber sheet

5. C. Frequency

6. A. proportional to the square of the amplitude of the vibration

7. B. Decibel

8. A. Higher

9. C. 20 to 20,000 Hz

10. C. A man

11. D. Frequency

12. C. Amplitude

13. C. occur together but the thunder is observed a little after the lightning.

14. B. Ultrasonic

15. A. completing 1,500 vibrations in one second.

16. B. energy

17. C. less than 20 Hz

18. C. Amplitude

19. C. Oscillatory motion

20. D. 80

198
 21. D. amplitude

22. A. pitch decreases but loudness increases

23. D. Frequency

24. C. Generally the voice of a man is shriller than that of a woman

25. D. Above 20000 Hz

26. (3) 32

199
 CHAPTER 14: CHEMICAL EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

1. B. positive terminal

2. A. Sugar solution

3. A. Distilled water

4. A. Cations

5. D. An electric current can produce heating effect, chemical effect, magnetic effect

6. B. an insulator

7. B. chemical effect of electricity

8. D. electric current

9. A. heating effect

10. A. Corrosion

11. D. according to the disposal guidelines of Waste Management Bodies

12. D. Sodium

13. D. all of these

14. C. positive

15. B. Distilled water do not contain salt

16. A. Hydrogen

17. B. To increase conductivity

18. C. zinc

19. C. Tin is less reactive than iron

20. A. It does not corrode and prevents scratches

200
21. A. material, length and thickness

22. D. good insulator of electricity

23. D. Distilled water

24. (3) It is a poor conductor of electricity.

201
 CHAPTER 15: SOME NATURAL PHENOMENON

1. C. Oxygen, 46.1%
2. A. the seismograph records the seismogram
3. C. carbon dioxide
4. 1. B, C and E
5. B. cones are sensitive to bright light
6. (2) Puri
7. Repel, attract
8. True
9. (a) clouds & the earth
10. (c) stay away from tall trees
11. Lightning
12. (c) crust
13. Fault zones
14. Richter scale
15. (c)static charges
16. (c)electroscope
17. (b)a copper rod
18. (c)runn of kutch
19. (c)seismograph
20. (c)7
21. Accumulation
22. True
23. Earthing
24. Gujrat
25. (c)earthquake
26. quake-resistant

202
 CHAPTER 16: LIGHT

1. B. Both concave mirror and convex lens

2. Speed of light is more in medium B than in medium A
3. D. All of the three surfaces
4. D. A-ciliary muscle, B -iris, C- lens , D - cornea
5. C. 1/15 sec
6. D. Read, inverted, coloured and diminished
7. D. Concave mirror or convex lens
8. (3) B,C & D
9. (b)incident ray
10. Normal
11. True
12. (c)same plane
13. Lateral inversion
14. (b) difussed reflection
15. Reflection of
16. Periscopes
17. False
18. (b)dispersion
19. (b)cornea
20. Iris
21. (c)to sense dim light & colour
22. (b)25 cm
23. True
24. (d)A
25. (c)Louis Braille
26. Helen Keller
27. (c)Multiple
28. iris

203
 CHAPTER 17: STARS AND THE SOLAR SYSTEM

1. B Venus
2. B. Venus and Uranus
3. (2) the axis of rotation of the earth is tilted with respect to the plane of its orbit
4. (c)Astronomy
5. (b)New moon day
6. (c)Neil Armstrong
7. (c)Pole Star
8. Constellations
9. False
10. (b)Orion
11. Satellite
12. (c)Rig Veda
13. (c)Mercury
14. (c)Venus
15. Mangalyaan
16. Jupiter
17. Saturn
18. (c)Asteroids
19. Halley’s comet
20. True
21. (a)Aryabhata
22. (c)Uranus
23. True

204
 CHAPTER 18: POLLUTION OF AIR AND WATER

1. D. methane, water vapour, carbon dioxide

2. (1) only D
3. (c)21%
4. Air pollutants
5. (b)Carbon monoxide
6. Smog
7. Sulphur dioxide
8. Chlorofluorocarbons
9. Carbon dioxide, carbon dioxide
10. Water pollutants
11. (c)Ganga action plan
12. Kanpur
13. (b)Water
14. True
15. Potable water
16. Chlorination
17. True
18. (b)Water contamination
19. Alternative
20. (b)Air pollution
21. Global warming
22. Marble cancer

205
 Class 9 CTET Question Bank
- By: Sonia Suri, Taneesha Sethi, Shaskiya Sultana, Josmy Jose

Chapters Name of Chapter Page No.

Chapter 1 Matter in Our Surroundings 207

Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure 208

Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules 210

Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom 212

Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life 214

Chapter 6 Tissues 216

Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms 220

Chapter 8 Motion 224

Chapter 9 Forces and Laws of Motion 226

Chapter 10 Gravitation 227

Chapter 11 Work and Energy 229

Chapter 12 Sound 230

Chapter 13 Why do We Fall Ill 232

Chapter 14 Natural Resources 234

Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources 237

Answer Key 238 – 265

206
Chapter 1: Matter in our Surroundings

Q1. State the characteristics of particles of matter.

Q2. What is diffusion?
Q3. The rate of diffusion of liquids is higher than that of solids. Why?
Q4. Gases show the property of diffusing very fast into other gases. Justify
Q5. What do you mean by latent heat of fusion?
Q6. What is the importance of melting point?
Q7. What happens to the particles of matter during the change of states? (At the time of change
of temperature of matter- consider water in this case)
Q8. Define fusion?
Q9. Define boiling point.
Q10. The change of state directly from solid to gas is-
i. Deposition
ii. Evaporation
iii. Sublimation
iv. Solidification

Q11. Why solid Co2 is called dry ice?

Q12. What is the effect of change of pressure on matter? Q13.
What is evaporation?
Q14. Why do clothes dry faster on a windy day?
Q15. What are the factors affecting evaporation?
Q16. Discuss, after a hot sunny day people sprinkle water on the roof or open ground. Q17. Why
should we wear cotton clothes in summer?
Q18. Convert the following temp to Celsius scale- 470K.
Q19. Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day? Q20.
What are the characteristics of solid state?

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Chapter 2 : Is matter Around Us Pure

1. Define Substance.
2. What is a Mixture? Its types.

3.Define Solution. What are its components?

4. What are alloys?

5. What is the Concentration of a solution?

6. The difference between Solution, Suspension and Colloids.

7. What is Tyndall Effect?

8.Which of the following is liquid- liquid solution? A. Face-

cream
B. Emulsion
C. Milk
D. All of them

9.Fog, clouds are an example of:- A.

Aerosol
B. Sol
C. Emulsion
D. Suspension

10.Sponge can be compressed, it is a

A. Solid ‘
B. Liquid
C. Gas
D. Foam

11. How can colored components of a Dye be obtained?

A. Crystallization
B. Distillation
C. Filtration
D. Chromatography

12. To separate two miscible liquids by fractional distillation, it should have one of the following
conditions
A. Should be miscible
B. Should be immiscible
C. Difference in the boiling points should be less than 25K.
D. None of these

208
13. To obtain toned and Double toned milk from full- cream we can
A. Filter it
B. Centrifuge it
C. Sediment it
D. Distillate it

14. A mixture of Ammonium Chloride and Salt can be separated by?

15. What is an Element?

16. What is a Compound?

17. Distinguish between a Physical and chemical Change.

209
Chapter 3: Atoms & Molecules

MCQ 1. The ratio of the mass of hydrogen to the mass of oxygen is ……….. in water.

A. 1:8
B. 14:3
C. 4:3
D. 5:18

MCQ 2. Atomic radius is measured in ………

A. Millimeter
B. Micrometer
C. Nanometer
D. icometer

MCQ 3. The ratio of the mass of nitrogen to the mass of hydrogen is ……….. in ammonia.
A. 1:8

B. 14:3

C. 4:3

D. 5:18

MCQ 4. One atomic mass unit is a mass unit equal to exactly 1/….. the mass of one atom of
carbon-12.
A. 14

B. 22

C. 12

D. 2

MCQ 5. The smallest particle of an element that is capable of independent existence is ……

A. Molecule

B. Atom

C. Ion

D. Mole

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MCQ 6. A negatively charged ion is called ……. And the positively charged ion is called…….
A. Cation, Anion B. Anion,
Cation C. Anion, Anion D.
Cation, Cation

MCQ 7. The value of Avogadro Number is

A. 6.023 X 1022

B. 6.022 X 1023

C. 6.022 X 1022

D. 6.023 X 1023

Q1. What is law of conservation of mass?

Q2. What is law of constant proportions?
Q3. Write a short note on Dalton’s atomic theory.
Q4. Write a short note on nomenclature of atoms.
Q5. Why was 1/16 of the mass of an atom of naturally occurring oxygen taken as a unit?
Q6. Define atomicity.
Q7. What is valency?
Q8. Define molecular mass and calculate the relative molecular mass of water.

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Chapter 4: Structure of the atom

MCQ 1. E. Goldstein in 1886 discovered the presence of new radiations in a gas discharge
and called them …..
A. Radial rays
B. Canal rays
C. Positive rays
D. Negative rays
MCQ 2. The atomic particles which have no charge and a mass nearly equal to that of protons are
A. Neutrons B.
Electrons C. Anions
D. Cations
MCQ 3. The maximum no. of electrons present in as shell is given by the formula
A. 2n
B. 2n2
C. n2
D. 2n-2
MCQ 4. The maximum no. of electrons that can be accommodated in the outermost orbit is
A. 10
B. 2
C. 8
D. 18
MCQ 5. Valency of hydrogen is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 5
MCQ 6. Protons are present in the ………….. of an atom.
A. Outer shell
B. Nucleus
C. Interior
D. Core
MCQ 7. Protons and …………… are also called nucleons.
A. Electrons B.
Neutrons C. Anions
D. Cations
MCQ 8. ……………. Are atoms of the same element which have different mass numbers.
A. Isotopes B.
Isobars C.
Isotones D.
Protons
MCQ 9. ………………. Are atoms having the same mass number bt different atomic numbers.
A. A. Isotopes

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 B. Isobars C.
Isotones D.
Protons E.
Q1. Write a short note on Thomson’s model of an atom. Q2. Write a
short note on Rutherford’s model of an atom.

Q3. What are the drawbacks of Rutherford’s model of atom? Q4. Write
a short note on Bohr’s model of atom.
Q5. What are valence electrons?
Q6. Define atomic number. Q7.
Define mass number.
Q8. What are isotopes? Give its applications. Q9. What
are isobars?

213
Chapter5 : Fundamental Unit of Life

1. Who discovered and coined the term cells?

2. The Cell theory was given by;
3. What is Osmosis?
4. The different types of solutions and their effect on the cell immersed in them.
5. Cell wall is mainly composed of .
6. What is Plasmolysis?
7. Why is plasma membrane called selectively permeable membrane?
8. Discovered by its called as the brain of the cell. What am I ?
9. Functional Segment of DNA is called .
10. What is Endoplasmic Reticulum and its function ?
11. What are SER and RER?
12. How is Prokaryotic Cell different from Eukaryotic Cell?
13. Name the autonomous organelles in the cell.
14. What are Ribosomes? What is its function?
15. Which organelle is responsible for Packaging and transport (in vesicles form) of the material?
A. Mitochondria B.
Golgi bodies C.
Lysosomes
D. Ribosomes

16. The organelle that helps in membrane Biogenesis is

A. Lysosomes
B. Golgi bodies
C. Endoplasmic reticulum
D. Nucleus

17. Energy currency of the Cell is . Which organelle is responsible for its production?
A. Adinosine Triphosphate, Mitochondria
B. Adinosine Triphosphate, Plastid
C. Adinosine Triphosphatase, Mitochondria
D. Adinosine Triphosphatase, Plastid

18. Plastids containing chlorophyll are called

A. Luekoplasts
B. Cyanoplasts
C. Chloroplasts
D. Chromoplasts

19. The function of Cell Sap in Vacuoles of the Plant cells is to provide
and .

214
A. Turbidity and strength
B. Flexibility and Rigidity
C. Rigidity and Turgidity
D. Turgidity and Flexibility

215
 Chapter 6: Tissues

Q1. If the tip of the sugarcane plant is removed from the field, even then it keeps on growing in
length. It is due to the presence of
(a) Cambium
(b) Apical meristem
(c) Lateral meristem
(d) Intercalary meristem

Q2. Meristematic tissues are those which help in increasing the length and girth of the plan. Which
of the following statements given below is correct about the meristematic tissue?
(a) It is made up of cells that are incapable of cell division (b) It is
made up of cells that are capable of cell division (c) It is composed of
single type of cells
(d) It is composed of more than one type of cells

Q3. Xylem is the specialised tissue of the plants that transports water and nutrients from the soil to
the upper parts like stems and leaves of plant and provides mechanical support to them. It is
composed of four different types of the cells. Which of the following is not one a type of cell found in
xylem tissues?
(a) Tracheids
(b) Vessels
(c) Xylem parenchyma
(d) Sieve tubes

Q4. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (i)

Parenchyma tissues have intercellular spaces.
(ii) Collenchymatous tissues are irregularly thickened at corners. (iii)Apical
and intercalary meristems are permanent tissues (iv)Meristematic tissues,
in its early stage, lack vacuoles.

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) Only (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (ii)

Q5. Tiny pores are found on the surface of the leaves of plants. These pores are called stomata.
These stomata surrounded by the kidney shaped guard cells provide many vital functions to the
plants.

216
Which of the following functions is not served by the stomata for the plants? (a)
Exchange of gases, particularly CO2 and O2, with atmosphere
(b) Loss of water in the form of vapours during transpiration
(c) Helps to create pressure for the water to rise upward, by its process of
transpiration
(d) Helps the leaves to carry out the process of photosynthesis

Q6. Tissue is a group of similar kind of cells specialized to perform a particular function in the body.
Therefore presence of tissues in a multicellular organism ensures:
(a) Faster development
(b) Division of labour
(c) Higher reproductive potential
(d) Body strength

Q7. Given below is a diagram showing the structure of a neuron tissue.

Choose the correct labelling for the parts A, B, C, D and E.

(a) A – Nucleus; B – Cell body; C – Dendrite; D – Axon; E – Nerve ending.
(b) A – Nucleus; B – Dendrite; C – Cell body; D – Nerve ending; E – Axon.
(c) A – Nucleus; B – Axon; C – Cell body; D – Dendrite; E –Nerve ending.
(d) A – Nucleus; B – Dendrite; C – Cell body; D – Axon; E – Nerve ending

Q8. Lysosome is a cytoplasmic organelle containing enzymes that break down biological
polymers. Lysosomes function as the digestive system of the cell. It is also called the suicide bag of
the cell because:
(a) It causes any cell to commit suicide
(b) Its enzymes digest the cell itself
(c) Its enzymes kill surrounding cells
(d) All of the above

Q9. While doing work and running, you move your organs like hands, legs, etc. Which
among the following is correct?
(a) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones (b)
Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones
(c) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones
(d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones

217
Q10. Cardiac muscle is one of the three major types of muscles, the others being
skeletal and smooth muscles. It is found in the walls and histological foundation of
the heart. Which one of the following statements is not related to the cardiac muscles?
(a) They muscles show rhythmic contraction and relaxation throughout life.
(b) They do not work according to our will, so they are called involuntary muscles.
(c) They are non-striated, multinucleated and branched muscles.
(d) The contraction and relaxation of the heart muscles help to pump and
distribute blood to different parts of the body.

Q11. In a test of biology a figure of smooth muscle labelled as A, B, C and D for different parts of
the muscles. Four students P, Q, R and S in a way to attempt the question named the four parts as
given below. But only one student could name all the four parts correctly.

Which of the following options is the answer written by that student?

(a) A – Intercalated disc; B – Sarcoplasm; C – Branched fibres; D – Nucleus
(b) A – Intercalated disc; B – Branched fibres; C – Sarcoplasm; D – Nucleus
(c) A – Branched fibres; B – Intercalated disc; C – Sarcoplasm; D – Nucleus
(d) A – Branched fibres; B – Sarcoplasm; C – Intercalated disc; D – Nucleus

Q12. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of his hand were dislocated.
Which among the following may be the possible reason for this?
(a) Tendon breaks
(b) Break of skeletal muscles tissue
(c) Ligament breaks
(d) Areoelar tissue breaks

Q13. Epithelial tissue always has an exposed outer surface and an inner surface anchored to
connective tissue by a thin, non- cellular structure called the
(a) Non-stratified layer
(b) Stratified layer
(c) Basement membrane
(d) Fibroblast

Q14. Connective tissues are the tissues that help to bind or connect other tissues in the body. They
have widely spaced cells embedded in a matrix having a variety of proteins, polysaccharides and
mineral salts. Can you identify the connective tissues among the following?
(i) Ligament (ii)
Epithelium (iii)Tendon
(iv)Blood

218
 (a) Both (i) and (iii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Q15. Simple epithelium is a tissue, which form the outer protective layer of the skin of the animal
body, is composed of cells which are
(a) Hardened and provide support to organs
(b) Continuously diving to provide to form an organ
(c) Cemented directly to one another to form an irregular layer
(d) Loosely connected to one another to form an irregular layer

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS Q16. Define

the term “tissue”.
Q17. How many types of elements together make up the xylem tissue? Name them.
Q18. What are the functions of the stomata?
Q19. Name the regions in which parenchyma tissue is present.
Q20. What is the role of epidermis in plants?

219
Chapter 7: Diversity in Living Organisms

MCQ
Q1. Fungus and algae both are placed under the same division “Thallophyta”.
What is the reason that both share the same group?
(a) Both are autotrophic
(b) Both are saprophytic
(c) Plant body in both is not differentiated into root, stem and leaves
(d) Both have false roots

Q2. Choose the option that best describes the characteristics of the kingdom to which the
mushroom belongs:
(a) Unicellular prokaryotic organisms
(b) Saprophytic, eukaryotic, multicellular organisms
(c) Unicellular eukaryotic organisms
(d) Autotrophic eukaryotic organisms

Q3. Given below is the figure of funaria– a moss plant.

Here the parts indicated by the letters A, B, C and D represent which of the following structures?
(a) A → foot; B → rhizoids; C → seta; D → capsule
(b) A → rhizoids; B → foot; C → seta; D→ capsule
(c) A → foot; B→ seta; C→ rhizoids; D → capsule
(d) A → rhizoids; B → seta; C → foot; D→ capsule

Q4. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) Aves are warm blooded, egg laying and have four four-chambered heart.
(b) Aves have feather covered body, fore limbs are modified as wing and breathe through
lungs.
(c) Most of the mammals are viviparous.
(d) Fishes, amphibians and reptiles are oviparous.

Q5. The various species of organisms are grouped together on the basis of similarities and
dissimilarities, which is known as the classification. It helps in an easy study of the organisms.
Among the following which is not an advantage of classification of organisms?

220
 (a) It helps to understand the interrelationship among the different groups of
organisms.
(b) It helps to study the geographical distribution of the plants and animals.
(c) It helps to study the nuclear structure of the organisms.
(d) It depicts before us a picture of all the life forms at a glance.

Q6. Among the following choose the correct option that best describes the
characteristics of spirogyra
(a) Multicellular, autotrophic, root like rhizoids.
(b) Cytoplasmic strands, autotrophic, presence of rhizome.
(c) Presence of male cones, nonvascular, filaments.
(d) Filamentous, presence of Cytoplasmic strands, presence of pyrenoids.

Q7. Paramecium has tiny hair like projections all around the outside of their cell that give the
paramecium locomotion and help the food to move in its oral cavity.

Can you choose the correct name for these locomotory organelles? (a) Villi
(b) Cilia
(c) Oral groove
(d) Cytopyge

Q8. Angiospermae is a division of kingdom Plantae. The main characteristic feature of

angiosperms is
(a) Seeds are naked in fruits
(b) Seeds are covered with coats and are in fruits
(c) Fruits are without seeds
(d) Seeds are naked without fruits

Q9. The international Code of Biological Nomenclature provides the scientific nomenclature
for every organism that consists of the genus name and the species name of the organism.
Can you guess who introduced this system of binomial nomenclature of the organisms?
(a) Carolus Linnaeus
(b) Robert Hooke
(c) Robert Whittaker
(d) Ernst Haeckel

Q10. Which among the following is a common feature of chrodates?

(a) Presence of notochord
(b) Presence of triploblastic condition
(c) Presence of coelom

221
 (d) Presence of gill pouches

Q11. Here alongside are shown the pictures of some reptiles. Among the following can you opt out
the statement that does not Match of the characteristics of this family?

(a) Process of fertilization is internal in these organisms. (b) Their

eggs have a hard covering or shell.
(c) Their eggs have a hard covering or shell. (d) They
have three chambered heart.

Q12. Which of the following have an open circulatory system?

(i) Arthropoda (ii) Mollusca (iii)
Annelida (iv) Cnidaria
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

Q13. The lowest category of classification is

(a) Phylum
(b) Genus
(c) Species
(d) Families

Q14. Prokaryotic organism is found in kingdom

(a) Protista
(b) Fungi
(c) Monera
(d) Plantae

Q15. Which of the following structure are characteristic of reptiles but not of amphibians
(a) Scales
(b) Lungs
(c) Smooth moist skin
(d) Vertebral column

222
 SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

Q16. Why do we classify organism?

Q17. What is the primary characteristics on which the first division of organism is
made?
Q18. On what bases do plants and animals put into different categories?
Q19. How are pteridophytes different from phanerogams?
Q20. Name two egg laying mammals.

223
Chapter 8 : Motion

Q1. If the displacement of an object is proportional to square of time, then the object moves with
(a) Uniform velocity
(b) Uniform acceleration
(c) Increasing acceleration
(d) Decreasing acceleration
Q2. Suppose a boy is enjoying a ride on a marry-go-round which is moving with a constant
speed of 10 m/s. It implies that the boy is
(a) At rest
(b) Moving with no acceleration
(c) In accelerated motion
(d) Moving with uniform velocity
Q3. Which of the following statement is correct regarding velocity and speed of a moving
body?
(a) Velocity of a moving body is always higher than its speed
(b) Speed of a moving body is always higher than its velocity
(c) Speed of a moving body is its velocity in a given direction
(d) Velocity of a moving body is its speed in a given direction
Q4. Which of the following is most likely not a case of uniform circular motion?
(a) Motion of the earth around the sun
(b) Motion of a toy train on a circular track
(c) Motion of a racing car on a circular track
(d) Motion of hours’ hand on the dial of a clock
Q5. In a free fall the velocity of a stone is increasing equally ion equal intervals of time under the
effect of gravitational force of the earth. Then what can you say about the motion of this stone?
Whether the stone is having
(a) Uniform acceleration
(b) Non-uniform acceleration
(c) Retardation
(d) Constant speed
Q6. The numerical ratio of displacement to distance for a moving object is
(a) Always less than 1
(b) Equal to 1 or less than 1 (c)
Always more than
(d) Equal to 1 or more than one
Q7. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Both speed and velocity are same
(b) Speed is scalar and velocity is vector
(c) Speed is vector and velocity is scalar
(d) None of these
Q8. What is the slope of the body when it moves from uniform velocity
(a) Positive
(b) Negative

224
 (c) Zero
(d) Maybe positive or negative
Q9. What does area velocity time graph give?
(a) Distance
(b) Acceleration
(c) Displacement
(d) None of above
Q10. If a body starts from rest, what can be said about the acceleration of the body?
(a) Positive acceleration
(b) Negative acceleration
(c) Uniform acceleration
(d) None of the above
Q11. What does slope of position time graph gives?
(a) Speed
(b) Acceleration
(c) Uniform speed
(d) Both a and b depending upon type of graph
Q12. What does the slope of velocity-time graph gives?
(a) Distance
(b) Displacement
(c) Acceleration
(d) Change in velocity
Q13. The displacement of the body can be
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) All of these
Q14. Which of the following gives both direction and magnitude?
(a) Scalar
(b) Vector
(c) Both
(d) None
Q15. If a moving body comes to rest, then its acceleration is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) All of these depending upon initial acceleration

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS Q16.

Distinguish between speed and velocity
Q17. What does odometer of automobile measures?
Q18. What does the path of an object looks like when it is uniform motion?
Q19. What is the quantity which is measured by area occupied below the velocity time graph?
Q20. Under what condition is the magnitude of average velocity of an object equal to its average
speed?

225
Chapter 9 : Force and Laws of Motion

1. What is Force?
2. SI Unit of Force? A.
Joules
B. Newton
C. Km square
D. Celsius

3. The Product of mass and velocity gives a physical quantity

A. Force
B. Inertia
C. Momentum
D. Newton

4. The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to

A. Mass of the body
B. Velocity of the body
C. Net force applied on the body
D. None of these

5. If two balls of different masses are dropped on sand, the depth of penetration is same if:
A. Heavier ball is dropped faster than the lighter ball
B. Lighter ball is dropped faster than heavier ball
C. The product ‘mv’ is same for both bodies. D. None
of these

6. Action and reaction forces

A. Acts on same body
B. Acts on different body C. Acts
in same direction D. Both A and C

7. What is Inertia?
8. Define Frictional force.
9. State the three laws of Motion by Newton.
10. What is the law of conservation of momentum?
11. Why are roads on mountains inclined inwards at turns?

226
Chapter 10: Gravitation

MCQ 1. The formula of Universal gravitation constant is

A. G = FD/ M X m B. G =
FD2/ M X m C. G = FM / D X
m2
D. G = Fm2 / D X M MCQ 2. The SI
unit of G is
A. Nmkg
B. Nm-2kg2
C. Nm2kg-2
D. Nmkg2
MCQ 3. The accepted value of G is
A. 6.673 x 10-11 Nm2kg-2
B. 6.673 x 10-14 Nm2kg-2
C. 6.673 x 10-12 Nm2kg-2
D. 6.673 x 10-13 Nm2kg-2
MCQ 4. The value of g is
A. 9.8 ms-2
B. 9.8 ms
C. 10.8 ms-2
D. 19.8 ms-2
MCQ 5. The …… of an object is the force with which it is attracted towards the earth.
A. Mass
B. Volume C.
Weight D. Force
MCQ 6. The force acting on an object perpendicular to the surface is called
A. Pressure
B. Thrust C.
Stress D. Work
MCQ 7. The magnitude of buoyant force depends on the ……… of the fluid.
A. Density
B. Mass
C. Volume
D. Area
MCQ 8. The formula of relative density is
A. Density of a substance/ Density of water B. Density
of a water/ Density of substance C. Density of a
substance/ Density of air
D. Density of a air/ Density of substance

227
Q1. If the moon attracts the Earth, why does the Earth not move towards the moon. Q2. Explain
Universal law of Gravitation.
Q3. Write about the importance of the Universal law of Gravitation. Q4. Why is
the value of g greater at the poles than at the Equator? Q5. What do you mean
by acceleration due to gravity?
Q6. Define pressure.
Q7. Why objects float or sink when placed on the surface of water?
Q8. Explain Archimedes’ Principle and its applications.

228
 Chapter11: Work and energy

Q1. When is work said to be done-

i. When a force acts on an object

ii. When an object is displaced
iii. Both 1 and 2
iv. None of the above

Q2. Work has only

i. Magnitude ii.
ii. Direction
iii. Displacement
iv. None of the above

Q3. Define 1 joule?

Q4. Write an expression for the work done when a force is acting on an object in the direction of
its displacement?
Q5. Explain work done can be either positive or negative.

Q6. A force of 7N acts on an object. The displacement is 8m in the direction of force so what is the
work done?
Q7. Can any object that possess energy do work?
Q8. What is kinetic energy?
Q9.. Write an expression for the kinetic energy of an object?
Q10. What is potential energy? Write an expression for the same? Q11. What
is the law of conservation of energy?
Q12. Define power?
Q13. Define 1 Watt?
Q14. Define average power?

Q15. The energy used in 1 hour at the rate of 1kwh is called –

i. 1 kwh ii.1000
w iii.Both
iv. None of the above

Q16. Can there be any displacement of an object in the absence of any force?

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Chapter 12: Sound

1. Sound is produced by objects.

A. Fast moving
B. Stationary
C. Rotating
D. Vibrating

2. Is sound wave longitudinal or transverse ?

3. A key of mechanical piano is first struck gently and then struck but much harder this time.
What kind of change in sound will you observe in the second case?
A. Sound will be louder but the pitch will not be different
B. Sound will be louder and the pitch will also be higher
C. Sound will be louder but the pitch would be lower
D. Both loudness and pitch will be unaffected

4. What is ‘note’ of sound?

5. A wave in slinky travelled to and fro in 5 sec the length of the slinky is 5cm. The velocity of
wave is ?
A. 10 m/s
B. 5m/s
C. 2m/s
D. 25m/s

6. Speed of sound depends upon

A. Temperature of medium
B. Pressure of medium
C. Temperature of source producing sound
D. Temperature and pressure of medium

7. Speed , wavelength and frequency of sound are related as :

A. Wavelength = speed x frequency
B. Frequency= wavelength x speed
C. Speed = wavelength x frequency
D. Speed = wavelength/ frequency

8. What is one Hz?

9. What is reverberation ?
10. What should be the time interval between the original sound and the reflected sound to
be heard distinctly?
11. Define Wave motion.
12. Define Amplitude, time period and Frequency of a sound wave.
13. What is an Echo? Why don’t we get an echo in a small room?

230
14. Give two applications of echo/ reflection of sound.
15. What is the velocity of sound ? why does sound travels faster in summer tahn in winters?
16. A sound wave causes the density of air at a place to oscillate 1200 times in 2 minutes .
Find the time period and frequency of the wave.
17. Give 3 uses of Ultrasound.
18. A thunder clap is heard 5.5 seconds after lightning flash. The distance of the flash is ( velocity of
sound in air 330m/s)?
19. What is the function of middle ear ?
20. Before playing the orchestra in a musical concert, a sitarist tries to adjust the tension and
pluck the string suitably. By doing so, he is adjusting
(a) intensity of sound only
(b) amplitude of sound only
(c) frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments
(d) loudness of sound

231
 Chapter 13: Why do we fall ill?

MCQ 1. All …… live inside host cells.

A. Bacteria
B. Protozoa
C. Viruses
D. Fungi
MCQ 2. The animals carrying the infecting gents from a sick person to another potential
host are called
A. Vectors
B. Carriers
C. Host
D. Agents
MCQ 3. …………… feed on many warm blooded animals.
A. Insects
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. Mosquitoes
MCQ 4. HIV will spread to …….. all over the body.
A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Heart
D. Lymph nodes
MCQ 5. If the ….. are the target then symptoms will be cough and breathlessness.
A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Heart
D. Lymph nodes
MCQ 6. If …… is targeted there will be jaundice.
A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Heart
D. Lymph nodes

MCQ 7. If the … is the target, we will observe headaches, vomiting fits or

unconsciousness.
A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Lymph nodes
D. Brain

Q1. Define health and disease.

Q2. State any two conditions essential for good health. Q3.
Define acute and chronic diseases.

232
Q4. What are infectious and non- infectious diseases?
Q5. State a few diseases caused by viruses, fungi, bacteria and protozoa. Q6. How do
antibiotics work?
Q7. How are communicable diseases spread? Q8.
What are the principles of treatment?
Q9. Why is making anti viral medicines harder than making anti bacterial medicines? Q10. How can
we prevent exposure to infectious microbes?
Q11. What is immunization?

233
 Chapter14: Natural resources

Q1. What would happen if all the oxygen present in the environment is converted into Ozone?
i. We will be protected more
ii. It will be poisonous and kill all living beings
iii. Ozone is not stable, hence it will be toxic
iv. It will allow harmful sun radiations to reach earth and damage many life forms

Q2. When we breathe in air, nitrogen also goes inside along with oxygen. What is the fate of
nitrogen?

i. It moves along with oxygen into the cells

ii. It comes out with the Co2 during exhalation
iii. It is absorbed only by the nasal cells
iv. Nitrogen concentration is already more in the cells, so it is not at all absorbed

Q3. There is always a cycle of Co2 running in the atmosphere due to which the concentration of
Co2 remains constant in the atmosphere. Choose the correct sequence in this cycle:
i. Co2 in atmosphere- decomposers- organic carbon in animals- inorganic carbon in
soil
ii. Co2 in atmosphere – organic carbon in plants- organic carbon in animals- inorganic
carbon in soil
iii. Inorganic carbonates in water- organic carbon in plants-organic carbon in animals-
scavengers
iv. Organic carbon in animals – decomposers- Co2 in atmosphere- organic carbon in plants

Q4. You must have observed that during the winters it becomes difficult to see even the objects
which are at a short distance apart. This low visibility in cold weather is due to:

i. Formation of fossil fuel

ii. Unburnt carbon particles of hydrocarbons suspended in air
iii. Lack of adequate power supply
iv. None of these

Q5. The water pollution can be best defined as

i.The addition of the undesirable substances to water bodies

ii. The removal of the desirable substances from water bodies
iii. A change in pressure of the water bodies
iv. A change in temperature of water bodies

234
 Q6. The amount of nitrogen in the atmosphere is maintained by a biological cycle which involves
two process i. withdrawing nitrogen from the atmosphere ii. Addition of nitrogen to atmosphere.
What are these processes called?
i. Nitrogen fixation and nitrification
ii. Nitrogen fixation and de-nitrification
iii. Nitrification and de-nitrification
iv. Nitrification and nitrogen fixation

Q7. What does hole in an ozone layer mean?

i. A large sized hole in the ozone layer

ii. Thinning of the ozone layer
iii. Small holes scattered in the ozone layer
iv. Thickening of the ozone layer

Q8. Aquatic organisms are used to a particular range of temperature in the water bodies where
they live. A sudden marked change in this temperature can affect-
i. Breeding of animals
ii. Growth of aquatic plants
iii. Process of digestion in animals
iv. Both I and II

Q9. Presence of excess sewage in polluted water bodies provides a lot of nitrogen, causing
excessive growth of algae which in turn reduces the amount of dissolved oxygen in water. This
process of reduction of dissolved oxygen due to excess growth of algae is called-
i. Biomagnification
ii. Eutrophication
iii. Algal bloom
iv. Decomposition

Q 10. A cool breeze after a hot day brings a relief. This breeze is actually the moving air. What is
the basic process that cause movement of air?
i. Pressure difference between the air of two regions
ii. Moving leaves of the plants
iii. Temperature difference between the two plants
iv. Striking of air with the mountains

Q11. If the Co2 content in the atmosphere is increased then which one of the following
would not get affected?

235
 i. Amount of heat retained by the environment.
ii. Process of photosynthesis in plants
iii. Global warming
iv. Existence of desert plants

Q 12. The nitrogen molecules present in the air can be converted into nitrates by-
i. A biological process of nitrogen fixing bacteria present in the soil
ii. A biological process of carbon fixing factor present in the soil
iii. Any of the industries manufacturing nitrogenous compounds
iv. The plants used as cereal crops in field

Q 13. Top soil is the best for the vegetation. The main component of this productive top layer is-
i. Humus and living organisms only
ii. Humus and soil particles only
iii. Humus, living organisms and plants
iv. Humus, living organisms and soil particles

Q14. The process of nitrogen fixation by bacteria does not take place in the presence of –
i. Molecular form of hydrogen
ii. Elemental form of oxygen
iii. Water
iv. Elemental form of nitrogen
Q15. The biotic component of an ecosystem consists of –

i. Producers
ii. Consumers
iii. Decomposers
iv. All of the above

236
Chapter 15: Improvement in food resources

Q1. Define kharif crops and rabi crops with some examples?
Q2. What is hybridization and its types?
Q3. What are the two ways to incorporate desirable characters into crop?
Q4. Explain, maturity duration of a crop is directly related to its production?
Q5. How do biotic and abiotic factors affect crop production?
Q6. What are the desirables agronomic characteristics for crop improvement? Q7. What
are micro and macro nutrients?
Q8. How do plants get nutrients –

i. Through air, water and soil

ii. Through water
iii. Through soil
iv. Through air

Q9. State the different kinds of manure. Q10. What

are the advantages of manure?
Q11. How does the use of fertilizer effect the soil? Q12.
What is organic farming?
Q13. What are the different types of irrigation systems used?
Q14. Write the difference between mixed cropping and inter-cropping? Q15. What
is crop rotation?
Q16.What are weeds and different control methods?
Q17. What are the three ways by which insect pests attack the plants?
Q18. List the factors that are responsible for loss of grains during storage?
Q19. What is cattle farming what are the requirements for success of cattle farming? Q20. Name
an Italian bee variety? Why are they preferred for commercial honey production?
Q21. What is composite fish culture? State its advantages and disadvantages
Q22. What management practices are required for poultry farming?

237
 ANSWER KEY
CHAPTER 1: MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS

Ans 1. Particles of matter have space in between them, are continuously moving and they attract
each other

Ans 2. The intermixing of particles of two different types of matter on their own is called
diffusion

Ans 3. In liquid state, particles move freely and have greater space in between them as
compared to solid state.so higher rate of diffusion.

Ans 4. Due to the high speed of particles and large spaces in between the particles of gases they
diffuse rapidly into other gases.

Ans 5. The amount of heat energy that is required to change 1 kg of solid into liquid at
atmospheric pressure at its melting point is called latent heat of fusion.

Ans 6. Melting point of a solid is an indication of the strength of the force of attraction
between its particles.

Ans 7. On supplying heat energy to water, particles start moving faster. At a certain temperature
particle gain enough energy in such a manner that they can break the force of attraction in
between them. At this temperature the liquid turns into the gas. Ans 8. The process of melting
that is change of solid state into liquid state is called fusion.

Ans 9. The temperature in which a liquid starts boiling at the atmospheric pressure is called as
Boiling point.

Ans 10. Sublimation

Ans 11. This is because solid Co2 gets directly converted into gaseous state on decreasing the
pressure to 1 atm. Without coming into liquid state. So, it is always stored under high pressure
and hence called as dry Ice.

Ans 12. On applying pressure, the particles of matter come closer to each other and further on
reducing the temperature liquification of gases takes place, so the state of matter changes on
applying pressure.

Ans 13. The change of liquid into vapours at any temperature below it’s boiling point is called
evaporation.

Ans 14. This is because as the wind speed increases the particles of water vapour move away
with the wind. So, this decreases the amount of water vapour in the surrounding so clothes dry
faster.

238
Ans 15. An increase in surface area, an increase in temperature, a decrease in humidity, an
increase in wind speed.

Ans 16. Due to the latent heat of vaporization.

Ans 17. Cotton is a good absorber of water so absorbs sweat and eventually evaporation.

Ans 18. 197 degree C

Ans 19. On a dry day as the moisture is less in atmosphere evaporation takes place rapidly. Thus,
when water evaporates it gives cooling effect.

Ans 20. Definite shape, boundaries, fixed volume, negligible compressibility. They are rigid since
the particles are held together strongly.

239
CHAPTER 2 : IS MATTER AROUND US PURE

Ans1. A pure substance consists of a single type of Particles. A substance is a pure single form of
matter.

Ans2. A mixture is made up of 2 or more elements or compounds (substances) mixed in any relative
ratio or proportion.

There are 2 types of mixtures:

Homogeneous Mixtures Heterogeneous Mixture

1. It has Uniform Composition. 1. It does not have a uniform

composition.
2. No visible boundaries of Separation.
2. Shows visible boundaries of
3. They consists of only one Phase. separation.

Eg: Sugar + Water forming a sugar solution. 3. They consists of more than one phase. Eg:
Sugar with sand.

Ans3. Solution is a homogeneous mixture of 2 or more substances. Its components are Solute
and Solvent.

Ans4. Alloys are the Homogeneous mixture of 2 or more metals or metal and a non- metal is called
an Alloy. Eg:- Brass is an alloy of Zinc and Copper.

Ans5. The concentration of a solution is the amount of solute present in a given amount of
solution or the amount of solute dissolved in a given mass or volume of solvent. Depending upon
the concentration the the solution can be dilute or concentrated.

Ans6.

Basis Solution Colloid ( Sol) Suspension

Mixture heterogeneous heterogeneous Heterogeneous

Size Less than 1nm Between 1 to 100 nm. More than 100
nm.(Visible to naked
eye.)

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 Stability Stable Stable Unstable

Components Solute and Solvent. Dispersed Phase and Solute and Solvent.
Dispersed Medium.

Tyndall Effect The light beams pass The light beam The light beam
through without scattering. scatters and makes scatters and makes its
its path visible. path visible.

Not Separated via Separated through

Separation Not separated through Filtration but Filtration
Filtration.

241
Ans7. The scattering of light by colloidal particles is known as Tyndall effect.

Ans8. B

Ans9. A

Ans10. D

Ans11. D

Ans12. C

Ans13. B

Ans14. Sublimation. Sublimation is direct conversion of Solid to gaseous state on heating.

Ans15. An element is a pure substance which cannot be split into its components by a chemical
reaction.

Ans16. A compound is a substance composed of two or more elements chemically combined

with one another in a fixed proportion.

Ans 17.

Physical Change Chemical Change

1. No new substances are formed they are 1. A new substance is formed.

chemically the same.

2. Properties of the constituent elements/

2.Properties of the constituent elements/
substances are related.
substances changes.

3. Change does not involves loss or gain of heat. 3. Loss or gain of heat may be involved in
this reaction.

4. This change is generally reversible. 4. This change is generally irreversible

( can be reversible alos.)

242
CHAPTER 3: ATOMS AND MOLECULES

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. C

5. A

6. B

7. B

A1. It states that mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction. A2. It states
that in a chemical substance the elements are always present in definite proportions by mass.

A3. According to Dalton’s atomic theory, all matter, whether an element, a compound or a mixture is
composed of small particles called atoms. The postulates of this theory are:

1. All matter is made of very tiny particles called atoms, which participate in chemical
reactions.

2. Atoms are indivisible particles, which cannot be created or destroyed in a chemical

reaction.

3. Atoms of a given element are identical in mass and chemical properties.

4. Atoms of different elements have different masses and chemical properties.

5. Atoms combine in the ratio of small whole numbers to form compounds.

243
 6. The relative no. and kinds of atoms are constant in a given compound.

A4. In the beginning, the names of elements were derived from the name of the place where they
were found for the first time. Eg. Copper came from Cyprus. Some names were taken from
specific colours. Eg. Gold was taken from the English word meaning yellow. Now a days, IUPAC
(International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry) approves names of elements, symbols and
units. Many of the symbols are the first one or two letters of the element’s name in English. Eg. H
for hydrogen, Al for aluminium. Symbols of some elements are formed from the first letter of the
name and a letter appearing later in the name. eg. Cl for Chlorine. Some symbols have been taken
from the names of elements in Latin, German or Greek. Eg. The symbol for iron is Fe from its latin
name Ferrum.

A5. It was due to 2 reasons: 1. Oxygen reacted with a large no. of elements and formed
compounds. 2. This atomic mass unit gave masses of most of the elements as whole numbers.

A6. The number of atoms constituting a molecule is known as its atomicity.

A7. The combining power( or capacity) of an element is known as its valency. It can be used to find
out how the atoms of an element will combine with the atoms of another element to form a
chemical compound.

A8. The molecular mass of a substance is the sum of the atomic masses of all the atoms in a
molecule of the substance.

Atomic mass of hydrogen = 1u, Atomic mass of oxygen = 16u

So the molecular mass of water which contains two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen is

2 X 1+ 1 X 16 = 18u

244
CHAPTER 4:STRUCTURE OF THE ATOM

1. B

2. A

3. B

4. C

5. A

6. B

7. B

8. A

9. B

A1. During cathode ray tube experiment, a negatively charged particle was discovered by J.J.
Thomson. This experiment took place in the year 1897. Cathode ray tube is a vacuum tube. The
negative particle was called an electron. Thomson assumed that an electron is two thousand times
lighter than a proton and believed that an atom is made up of thousands of electrons. In this atomic
structure model, he considered atoms surrounded by a cloud having positive as well as negative
charges.

Postulates of Thomson’s atomic model:

1: An atom consists of a positively charged sphere with electrons embedded in it

2: An atom as a whole is electrically neutral because the negative and positive charges are equal in
magnitude

Thomson atomic model is compared to watermelon. Where he considered: Watermelon seeds as

negatively charged particles

The red part of the watermelon as positively charged

245
A2. Rutherford designed an experiment to know how the electrons are arranged within an atom. In
this experiment, fast moving alpha particles were made to fall on a thin gold foil.

He selected gold foil because he wanted as thin a layer as possible. This gold foil was about 1000
atoms thick. Alpha particles are doubly charged helium ions. Since they have a mass of 4u, the fast
moving alpha particles have a considerable amount of energy. It was expected that alpha particles
would be deflected by the sub atomic particles in the gold atoms. Since the alpha particles were
much heavier than the protons, he did not expect to see large deflections.

The observations made by Rutherford led him to conclude that:

1. A major fraction of the α-particles bombarded towards the gold sheet passed through it
without any reflection, and hence most of the space in an atom is empty.

2. Some of the α-particles were deflected by the gold sheet by very small angles, and hence the
positive charge in an atom is not uniformly distributed. The positive charge in an atom is
concentrated in a very small volume.

3. Very few of the α-particles were deflected back, that is only a few α-particles had nearly
180o angle of deflection. So the volume occupied by the positively charged particles in an
atom is very small as compared to the total volume of an atom.

A3. The drawbacks are:

1. Rutherford proposed that the electrons revolve around the nucleus in fixed paths called
orbits. According to Maxwell, accelerated charged particles emit electromagnetic radiations
and hence an electron revolving around the nucleus should emit electromagnetic radiation.
This radiation would carry energy from the motion of the electron which would come at the
cost of shrinking of orbits. Ultimately the electrons would collapse in the nucleus.
Calculations have shown that as per the Rutherford model, an electron would collapse in the
nucleus in less than 10-8 seconds. So Rutherford model was not in accordance with
Maxwell’s theory and could not explain the stability of an atom.

2. One of the drawbacks of the Rutherford model was also that he did not say anything about
the arrangement of electrons in an atom which made his theory incomplete.

3. Although the early atomic models were inaccurate and failed to explain certain experimental
results, they were the base for future developments in the world of quantum mechanics.

A4. In order to overcome the objections raised against Rutherford’s model of the atom, Neil Bohr put
forward the following postulates about the model of an atom:

1. Only certain special orbits known as discrete orbits of electrons are allowed inside the
atom.

246
 2. While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do not radiate energy. These orbits
or shells are called energy levels.

A5. The electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom are known as the valence electrons.

A6. The no. of electrons gained, lost or shared so as to make the octet of electrons in the outermost
shell, gives us directly the combining capacity of the element that is the valency.

A7. The atomic number is defined as the total number of protons present in the nucleus of
an atom.

A8. The mass number is defined as the sum of the total number of protons and neutrons
present in the nucleus of an atom.

A9. Isotopes are defined as the atoms of the same element having the same atomic number but
different mass numbers. There are 3 isotopes of hydrogen atom, namely protium (1 H),
deuterium (2 H) and tritium (3 H).

1 1 1

Applications:

1. An isotope of uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear reactors.

2. A isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer.

3. An isotope of iodine is used in the treatment of goitre.

4. A10. Atoms of different elements with different atomic numbers which have the same mass
number are known as isobars. For example, Calcium has atomic number 20 and Argon has
atomic number 18. The no. of protons in

these atoms is different but the mass number of both these elements is 40. That is, the total
number of nucleons is the same in the atoms of this pair of elements.

247
CHAPTER 5: FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE

1. Robert Hooke in 1665 discovered cell by observing them under a crude microscope and seeing
small compartment like rooms which he then termed as Cells.

2. The cell theory was given by Shleiden and Schwann in 1838 and 1839 respectively. It states that All
plants and animals are composed of cells the basic unit of life. Virchow added to it “ All cells come
from pre- existing cells.

3. Osmosis is the process of movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration
through a semi- permeable membrane to a region of lower water concentration.

4. The Different types of solutions are:

A. Hypotonic solution- where the concentraction of water is more in the suspension medium than
in the cell and the cell swells up.

B. Isotonic Solution- When the concentration of water is the same in both the medium and
the cell. The cell remains the same.

C. Hypertonic solution- The concentration of water is higher in the cell as compared to the medium
and the water moves out of the cell , thus the cell shrinks.

5. Cellulose.- A complex substance which providees structural strength to plant cells.

6. When a living plant cell looses water through osmosis there is shrinkage or concentration of
contents of the cell away from the cell wall. This phenomenon is called Plasmolysis.

7. Plasma Membrane is called selectively permeable because it controls the movement of materials/
substances in and out of the cell via passive and active channels.

8. Robert Brown in 1831 , Nucleus.

9. Gene is the functional segment of DNA.

10. Endoplasmic Reticulum is a cell organelle. Its a large network of membrane bound tubules and
sheets and is similar in structure to Plasma Membrane. It acts as a network channel and is there for
transport of materials between various regions of the cytoplasm or between cytoplasm and
nucleus. Site of biochemical activities of the cell and is important for the detoxification of many
poisons and drugs.

11. SER - Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum is a type of ER which is responsible for manufacturing of
fats and lipids necessary for the cell functioning.

248
 RER- Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum is a type of ER which has Ribosomes on its surface
responsible for Protein production and manufacturing. Its attached to the Nuclear membrane
through its surface.

12.

Prokaryotic Cell Eukaryotic Cell

1. The cell where the membrane bound 1. The cells with the presence of membrane
organelles are absent. bound cell organelles such as Mitochondria,
Endoplasmic Reticulum, Golgi Bodies, etc.

2.The nuclear membrane is present and thus

nucleus is well defined.

2. The Nuclear membrane for the Nucleus is 3.Plastids contains chlorophyll.

absent, thus Nuclear Region is poorly defined
and is called as a Nucleoid.

3. Membranous vesicles have chlorophyll

attached.

4. There is a single chromosome. 4.There are more than 1 chromosomes.

5. Comparatively smaller in size ( 1- 10 5.Comparatively larger 5- 100

micrometer.) micrometer.

249
13. Autonomous organelles are Mitochondria and Chloroplasts, because they have their own
DNA and ribosomes.

14. Ribosomes are spherical organelles present freely or attached to the ER in the cytoplasm of
the cell and consists of RNA and Protein. They are responsible for the Production of Protein.

15. B 16. C 17. A 18. C 19.

250
CHAPTER-6 : TISSUE

A1. D

A2. B

A3. D

A4. B

A5. D

A6. B

A7. D

A8. B

A9. D

A10. C

A11. B

A12. C

A13. C

A14. C

A15. C

A16. A tissue is defined as a cluster of cells which are similar in structure and work together to
perform a particular function

A17. The xylem tissue is made up of four main elements, namely:

➢ Vessels

➢ Tracheids

➢ Xylem fibres

➢ Xylem parenchyma

251
A18. Stomata are the tiny pores present on the outer layer of the cells, the epidermis. Stomata
bring about the exchange of gases and transpiration.

A19. The parenchyma is found in:

The pith of stems and roots

When parenchyma contains chlorophyll it is called as chlorenchyma, it is found in green

leaves

Parenchyma found in aquatic plants has large air cavities which enables them to float and
are hence called Paerenchyma.

A20. The epidermis in plants forms an uninterrupted and continuous layer that has no intercellular
spaces. It provides protection.

252
CHAPTER-7: DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISM

A1. C

A2. B

A3. B

A4. D

A5. C

A6. D

A7. B

A8. B

A9. A

A10. A

A11. D

A12. A

A13. C

A14. C

A15. A

A16. A large number of organisms exist on this earth. We cannot study such enormous biodiversity
one by one i.e studying variety of life forms individually is an impossible task. Hence, we make
groups or categories of organism depending upon their similarities and difference with other
organisms. This allows systematic study of the life form.

A17. The primary characteristic on which the first division of organisms is made is the form and
the functions of that organism.

A18. On the basis of their mode of nutrition plants and animals are put into different categories.

A19. Pteridophytes do not produce seeds but develop naked embryos while phanerogams
are seed producing plants like gymnosperms and anigiosperms.

A20. Mammals give birth to young one but some mammals lay eggs like – platypus and
echidna.

253
CHAPTER8: MOTION

A1. B

A2. C

A3. D

A4. C

A5. A

A6. B

A7. B

A8. C

A9. C

A10. A

A11. A

A12. C

A13. D

A14. B

A15. B

A16. Speed of a body is the distance travelled by it per unit time while velocity is displacement
per unit time of the body during movement.

A17. The odometer of an automobile measures the distance covered by that automobile.

A18. Graphically the path of an object will be linear i.e look like a straight line when it is in uniform
motion

A19. The area occupied below the velocity-time graph measures the distance moved by any object.

A20. If distance travelled by an object is equal to its displacement then the magnitude of average
velocity of an object will be equal to its average speed.

254
CHAPTER 9 : FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION

1. Force is the push or pull on an object that produces acceleration in the body on which it acts.

2. B 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. B

7.Inertia is the natural tendency of an object to resist a change in their state of rest or of uniform
motion.

8. The force that always opposes the motion of an object is called as Force of Friction.

9. The three laws of Newton are:-

1. an object remains in a state of rest or uniform motion in a straight line unless acted upon by an
external unbalanced force.

2. The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the applied unbalanced

force in the direction of the force.

3. To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction and they act on two different
bodies.

10.Law of conservation of momentum states that momentum of two bodies before collision is
equal to the momentum after a collision. In an isolated system the momentum remains
conserved.

11. A vehicle moving on mountains is in the inertia of motion. At a sudden turn there is a tendency of
vehicle to fall off the road due to sudden change in the line of motion hence the roads are inclined
inwards so that the vehicles not fall down the mountain.

255
CHAPTER 10 : GRAVITATION

1. B

2. C

3. A

4. A

5. C

6. B

7. A

8. A

A1. According to the third law of motion, the moon attracts the Earth. But according to the second
law of motion, for a given force, acceleration is inversely proportional to the mass of an object. The
mass of moon is very small compared to that of the Earth so we do not see the Earth moving
towards the moon.

A2. Every object in the universe attracts every other object with a force which is proportional to the
product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

A3. The Universal law of Gravitation successfully explained several phenomena which were
believed to be unconnected:

1. The force that binds us to the Earth

2. The motion of the moon around the Earth

3. The motion of planets around the Sun

4. The tides due to the moon and the Sun

A4. The Earth is not a perfect sphere. As g = GM/ R2, so as the radius of the e=Earth increases from
the poles to the Equator, the value of g becomes greater at the poles than at the Equator.

A5. When an object falls freely towards the surface of earth from a certain height, then its
velocity changes and this change in velocity produces acceleration in the object which is known
as acceleration due to gravity denoted by g. The value of acceleration due to gravity is g=9.8ms-
2.

256
A6. The thrust on unit area is called pressure. Thus, Pressure = Thrust/ Area. SI unit of
pressure is N/m2.

A7. Objects of density less than that of a liquid float on the liquid. The objects of density greater
than that of a liquid sink in the liquid. The density of an iron nail is more than the density of
water so it sinks.

A8. When a body is immersed fully or partially in a fluid, it experiences an upward force that is
equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it. It has many applications.

It is used in designing ships and submarines. Lactometers which are used to determine the purity of a
sample of milk and hydrometers used for determining density of liquids are based on this principle.

257
CHAPTER 11: WORK AND ENERGY

Ans 1. When a force is applied and displacement occurs on an object. Ans 2.

Magnitude

Ans 3. 1 Joule is the amount of work done on an object when a force of 1 N displaces it by 1m along
the line of action of the force.

Ans 4. W= F x s Nm or Joules.

Ans 5. If force is applied in the direction of displacement then work done is positive but if in
opposite direction then negative work done.

Ans 6. 56 Nm

Ans 7. Yes, measured in Joules (Energy)

Ans 8. The energy possessed by moving objects is kinetic energy. It increases with the speed of an
object.

Ans 9. Ek= ½ m(v2)

Ans 10. An energy possessed by an object by virtue of it’s position or configuration. Ep= mgh
Joules

Ans 11. Energy can be converted from one form to another but it can neither be created or
destroyed. The total energy before and after the transformation remains the same.

Ans 12. It is the rate of doing work or the rate of transfer of energy.

Ans 13. It is the unit of power. It is the power of an agent which does work at the rate of 1 joule per
second. 1 watt = 1 j/sec

Ans 14. It is the work done by the agent at different rate and at different intervals of time.

Ans 15. 1Kwh

Ans 16. No.

258
CHAPTER 12: SOUND

1. D

2. Longitudinal

3. C

4. The sound produced due to a mixture of several frequencies is called a note, it is pleasant to
listen to.

5. C

6. A

7. C

8. Hz is the unit of frequency , called Hertz. One hertz is equal to one cycle per second.

9. Reverberation are repeated reflection that results in the persistence of sound.

10. At least 0.1 seconds.

11. A wave is disturbance that moves through a medium when the particles of the medium set
neighbouring particles into motion. The particles of the ,medium do not move forward but the
disturbance is carried forward.

12. Amplitude : The magnitude of the maximum disturbance in the medium on either side of the
mean value is called Amplitude of the wave. SI meter.

Time period: The time taken by two consecutive compressions or rarefactions to cross a fixed
point is called the time period of the wave.

Frequency : The number of oscillations, occurring per unit time is called the

Frequency of sound wave.

13. The distinct sound heard after reflection of sound from the source is called echo. A distance of
17.2m is necessary between the reflecting surface and the source for an echo to be produced.

14. A. Ships use reflection of sound technique “ SONAR” which helps in locating the depths,
distance, direction and speed of underwater objects.

B.Ceiling of concert halls are curved so that sound after reflection reaches all corners of the hall.

259
15. Velocity of sound is the speed a of sound in a given medium at a given temperature. As the
temperature increases the speed of sound also increase , hence in summer the sound travels faster
than in winter.

16. Frequency = 1200/2x60 = 10 Hz.

Time period = 1/ frequency = 0.1 sec.

17.Use of ultra sound :

A. Its is used in ‘echo-cardiography’ . The UV waves are made to reflect from various parts of the
heart and for the image of the heart.

B. Its used in Ultrasonography to detect the image of organs or to detect the abnormalities in the
organs. Its also used to examine the foetus during the -regnancy to detect congenital defects.’

18.1815 m.

19. Middle ear has 3 mall bones hammer, anvil and stirrup. These 3 bones receive the sound
vibrations and increase the strength of these vibrations received by ear- drum. These amplified
vibrations are further passed to the inner ear.

20.C

260
CHAPTER 13 : WHY DO WE FALL ILL?

1. C

2. A

3. D

4. D

5. B

6. A

7. D

A1. Health is a state of being well enough to function well physically, mentally and socially. During
disease, the functioning of one or more systems of the body will change for the worse.

A2. Social environment plays an important role in our individual health. Public cleanliness is also
very important for individual health. So if there is a great deal of garbage thrown out in streets or if
there is open drainage water lying stagnant around where we live, the possibility of poor health
increases.

A3. The diseases which last only for very short periods of time are called acute diseases like
common cold. Diseases which last for a long time, even as much as a lifetime are called chronic
diseases like an infection causing elephantiasis.

A4. Diseases where microbes are the immediate causes are called infectious diseases. This is because
the microbes can spread in the community and the disease they cause will spread with them.

Diseases that are not caused by infectious agents are called non infectious diseases and they are
mostly internal. For example, some cancers are caused by genetic abnormalities; high blood
pressure can be caused by excessive weight and lack of exercise.

A5. Viruses – Common cold, influenza, dengue fever and AIDS. Bacteria –
Typhoid fever, cholera, tuberculosis and anthrax

Fungi – skin infections

Protozoa – Malaria and kala- azar

A6. Many bacteria make a cell wall to protect themselves. The antibiotic penicillin blocks the
bacterial processes that build the cell wall. As a result, the growing bacteria become unable to make
cell wall and die easily.

A7. Disease causing microbes can spread through the air. This occurs through the little droplets
thrown out by an infected person who sneezes or coughs. Someone standing close by can breathe in
these droplets and the microbes get a chance to start a new infection.

261
A8. One principle is to reduce the effects of the disease and the other to kill the cause of the
disease. For the first we can provide treatment that will reduce the symptoms and for killing we can
use medicines.

A9. It is because viruses have few biochemical mechanisms of their own. They enter our cells and
use our machinery for their life processes. This means there are relatively few virus – specific
targets to aim at.

A10. For air borne microbes, we can prevent exposure by providing living conditions that are not
over crowded. For water borne microbes, we can prevent exposure by providing safe drinking
water. This can be done by treating the water to kill any microbial contamination. For vector borne
infections, we can provide clean environments.

A11. Immunization is a process in which an organism is made immune to fight against the disease
causing pathogen. This is done by administration of vaccines. Vaccines are drugs or medicines,
which contain a biological agent which mimic the one that resembles a disease causing pathogen,
present inside the body. This agent kills the pathogen inside the body, hence provide immunity.

262
CHAPTER 14: NATURAL RESOURCES

Ans1. B.

Ans2. B

Ans3.b

Ans 4. B

Ans 5.b

Ans 6. B

Ans 7.b

Ans 8. A

Ans 9. B

Ans 10. C

Ans 11.d

Ans 12. A

Ans 13. B

Ans 14.b

Ans 15. D

263
CHAPTER 15 : IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES

Ans1. Kharif- rainy season and rabi-winter season.

Ans 2. They are of three types- Intervarietal, Interspecific, Intergeneric. Ans.3

Through hybridization and Genetic modification.

Ans 4. Shorter duration of crop from sowing to harvesting makes it economical as farmers can grow
multiple rounds of crops in a year. It reduces the cost of production. Ans 5. Biotic include- diseases,
insects and nematodes. Abiotic include- Drought, salinity heat cold etc.

Ans 6. Higher yield, improved quality, biotic and abiotic resistance, crop maturity, wide adaptability,
tallness and profuse branching in fodder crops, dwarfness in cereals so less nutrient intake.

Ans 7. Nutrients required in large quantity are called macro nutrients and those required in
less quantity are micro-nutrients.

Ans 8. Through air, water and soil

Ans 9. Compost and vermicompost, Green manure

Ans 10. Manure helps in enriching soil with nutrients and organic matter, increases the soil fertility,
soil structure and also the water holding capacity of soil. In clayey soil helps in drainage and avoids
water logging.

Ans 11. Fertilizers can destroy the soil fertility because the organic matter is not replenished in the
soil and it harms the microbes in the soil. If not in proper quantity it can be washed away in
excessive irrigation thus polluting water bodies.

Ans 12. In organic farming chemicals are not used in the form of fertilizers instead organic
manures, recycled farm wastes, biofertilizers and bio-pesticides are used. Healthy cropping
systems like mixed cropping, inter-cropping and crop rotation is practiced.

Ans 13. Wells, canals, river lift systems, tanks.

Ans 14. Mixed cropping involves growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of
land eg – wheat and gram

Intercropping involves growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field in a definite
pattern. Eg- Soyabean and maize.

Ans 15. The growing of different crops on a piece of land in a pre-planned succession is known as
crop rotation.

264
Ans 16. Weeds are un-wanted plants in the cultivated field. They compete for food, space and
light. They take up most of the nutrients and reduce the growth of crops. Control of weeds include
mechanical removal, proper seed bed preparation, timely sowing of crops, inter-cropping and crop
rotation.

Ans 17. Insect-pests cut the root, stem or leaves of plants, suck the cell sap from various
parts of plant and they bore into stems and fruits.

Ans 18. Losses can occur due to biotic and abiotic factors such as insects, fungi, mites, inappropriate
moisture, and temperature in the place of storage which ultimately cause degradation in quality, loss
in wt., poor germinability, discoloration of produce and these all factors lead to poor marketability.

Ans 19. Farming of animals for milk and as drought labour for agricultural work is cattle farming.

Proper cleaning and shelter facilities, regular cleaning of animals, well-ventilated roof sheds, proper
food, protection from diseases and if needed timely administration of vaccines.

Ans 20. Apis mellifera. They have high honey collection capacity, sting less, stay in a given bee-hive
for long periods and also breed very well.

Ans 21. In this system a combination of five or more six fish species are grown in a single
fishpond in such a manner that all the selected species have different food habits. This increases
the fish yield from the pond. A disadvantage is that these fish breed only during the monsoon
season, lack of availability of good quality seed.

Ans 22. Same as 19

265
 Class 10 Science Questions
By: Anupama, Archana, Anupriya, Chhaya

Chapter Page. No.

Chemical Reactions and Equations 267

Acids, Bases and Salts 269

Metals and Non metals 271

Carbon and its compounds 273

Periodic Classification of Elements 275

Life Processes 277

Control and Co-ordination 279

How do Organisms Reproduce? 280

Heredity and Evolution 282

Light – Reflection and Refraction 285

The Human Eye and the Colorful World 287

Electricity 288

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 290

Sources of Energy 292

Our Environment 294

Sustainable Management of Natural Resources 296

Answer Key 299-346

266
 CHAPTER 1 –CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

Q1.Give reasons for the following:

a. Silver Nitrate solution cannot be stored in Copper containers.
b. Gold and Silver do not corrode in air
c. Blue colour of copper sulphate solution starts fading when a zinc rod is dipped in it.
d. Respiration is an endothermic reaction.
e. Photo chemical decomposition reaction finds application in photography.

Q2.why does stale food gives a bad smell and bad taste? How can this be prevented?

Q3. Give examples for the following:

a. Precipitation reaction.
b. Thermal decomposition.
c. Natural oxidation.
d. Exothermic reaction.

Q4 Identify the substances that are oxidized and the substances that are reduced in the following
reactions.

(i) 4Na(s) + O2(g) → 2Na2O(s)

(ii) CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(l)

Q5 Differentiate between: Combination and Decomposition reaction.

Q6. Differentiate between: Displacement and Double displacement reaction.

Q7. Differentiate between: Oxidation and Reduction reaction.

Q8. Differentiate between: Balanced and unbalanced chemical equation.

Q9. Differentiate between: Corrosion of iron and Copper.

Q10. Define
a. Reactant
b. Product
c. Balanced chemical equation

Q11. Balance the following chemical equation and identify the reactants and products.

a. _____ Zn (s) + _____ AgNO3 (aq) → _____ Zn(NO3)2 (aq) + _____ Ag (s)
b. _____ N2 (g) + _____ H2 (g) → _____ NH3 (g)
c. _____ Mg(OH)2 (aq) + _____ H3PO4 (aq) → _____ H2O (l) + _____ Mg3(PO4)2(aq)
d. _____ HNO3 (aq) + _____ Ni (s) → _____ Ni(NO3)2 (aq) + _____ H2 (g)
e. _____ Ba(HCO3)2 (s) → _____ BaCO3 (s) + _____ H2O (g) + _____ CO2 (g)
f. _____ BaCl2 (aq) + _____ Na2SO4 (aq) → _____ NaCl (aq) + _____ BaSO4 (s)
g. _____ Al2(CO3)3 (s) → _____ Al2O3 (s) + _____ CO2 (g)
h. _____ Ca (s) + _____ H2O (l) → _____ Ca(OH)2 (aq) + _____ H2 (g)
i. _____ LiHCO3 (s) → _____ Li2CO3 (s) + _____ H2O (g) + _____ CO2 (g)
j. _____ N2 (g) + _____ O2 (g) → _____ N2O5 (g)
k. _____ MgBr2 (aq) + _____ KOH (aq) → _____ KBr (aq) + _____ Mg(OH)2 (s)

267
l. _____ Mn (s) + _____ CuCl (aq) → _____ Cu (s) + _____ MnCl2 (s)
m. _____ Zn (s) + _____ S8 (s) → _____ ZnS (s)
n. _____ NaOH (aq) + _____ H2SO4 (aq) → _____ H2O (l) + _____ Na2SO4 (aq)
o_____ K (s) + _____ H2O (l) → _____ KOH (aq) + _____ H2 (g)
p. _____ C5H12 (l) + _____ O2 (g) → _____ H2O (g) + _____ CO2 (g)
q. _____ KOH (aq) + _____ H2CO3 (aq) → _____ H2O (l) + _____ K2CO3 (aq)
r. _____ C4H8O2 (l) + _____ O2 (g) → _____ H2O (g) + _____ CO2 (g)

Q12. . Which type of reaction produces insoluble salts?

Q13. Why do we store silver chloride in dark colour bottles?

Q14. What is rust?

Q15. Suggest two ways to check the rancidity of food articles.

Q16. Name two metals which do not get corroded.

Q17. What happens chemically when quick lime is added to water?

Q18. Why decomposition reactions are called the opposite of combination reactions? Write equations
for these reaction?

Q19. What happens when: CO2 (g) is bubbled through lime water (i) in small amount (ii) in excess?

Q20. Aluminium is a reactive metal but is still used for packing food articles. Why?

268
CHAPTER 2- ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
1. Explain with equations which gas is evolved on the reaction of metals with acid. Give a
simple method to test the presence of gas evolved.

2. Give chemical equation for reaction of :

a. Metal carbonates and metal hydrogencarbonates reaction with acids
b. Reaction of metallic oxides with acids

3. Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?

4. Why should water be never added dropwise to concentrated sulphuric acid?

5. There are two jars A and B containing food materials. Food in jar A is pickled with acetic acid
while B is not. Food of which jar will stale first?

6. Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity?

7. What is milk of magnesia and its significance?

8. You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 5 and pH of solution B is 9. Which
solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic and which one is basic?

10. Name the acids present in the following foodstuffs which attribute to a sour taste to them
a. Lemon juice
b. Vinegar
c. Vitamin C tablet
d. Tamarind
e. Sour milk

11. What does pH stand for? What does pH scale indicate?

12. What will happen :

a. If a solution of sodium hydrocarbonate is heated? Give the equation of the reaction involved.
b. If plaster of paris reacts with water.

13. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 mL of a given

solution of HCl. If we take 20 mL of the same solution of NaOH, the amount HCl solution (the
same solution as before) required to neutralise it will be

14. Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorised as
acids. Describe an Activity to prove it.

269
15. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk. Explain :
a. Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
b. Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?

16. For a farmer when should the soil in his field be treated with quick lime (calcium oxide) or
slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate)?

17. How can nettle sting be treated?

18. Write balanced chemical equations for the reactions taking place when dry blue crystals of
copper sulphate are dropped into concentrated sulphuric acid.

19. State the chemical property in each case on which the following uses of baking soda varies
a. As an antacid
b. As a constituent of baking powder

20. How is chlorine of lime is chemically different from calcium chloride?

270
CHAPTER 3 - METALS AND NON METALS
1. Define the following terms with an example each :
a. Malleability
b. Ductility

2. Name two metals which react violently with cold water .Write any three observations which
would you make when such metal is dropped in cold water. How would you identify the gas
evolved, if any, during the reaction.

3. Define the term alloy .Write two advantages of making alloy.

4. Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of
extraction.Why?

5. In what forms are metals found in nature? With the help of examples, explain how metals
react with air and dilute acids. Also write chemical equation for the reactions.

6. Name the constituents of the following alloys :

a. Brass
b. Stainless steel

7. Define corrosion throwing light on the importance of protection of metals against corrosion.
Is there any metal that does not corrode?

8. We have often seen copper vessels that has been tarnished being cleaned with tamarind or
lemon juice to make then shiny and clean. Why are they used to clean?

9. Give reasons for the following :

a. Aluminium is a highly reactive metal still it is widely used to make cooking utensils.
b. Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.

10. Draw a labelled diagram depicting the conductivity in metals.

11. Briefly explain the process of anodising.

12. Can ionic compounds conduct electricity in solid state . Explain with suitable reasoning.

13. Briefly explain the method involved in the extraction of ore in the form of a diagram.

14. Write the chemical equations for reactions taking place when:
a. Manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium.

271
b. Steam is passed over red hot iron.
c. Aluminum Oxide is reacted with Sodium hydroxide
d. Calcium reacts water
e. Iron reacts with dilute Sulphuric acid

15. When calcium metal is added to water ,the gas evolved does not catch fire but the same
gas evolved on adding sodium metal to water catches fire .Why is it so?

16. In electrolytic refining of copper, what is used as :

a. An Anode
b. A cathode
c. The electrolyte

17. Give reasons why copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel (an alloy of iron).

18. Neha took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. She collected the gas evolved by
inverting a test tube over it.
a.What will be the gas evolved and if so explain the effect of the gas on dry and moist litmus
paper?
b. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.

19. Write the symbol, atomic number of the following elements along with the distribution of
electrons in the shell:
a. Calcium
b. Potassium
c. Helium
d. Sulphur
e. Chlorine

20 . Account for the following

(i) Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid.
(ii) The reaction of iron(III) oxide with aluminium is used to join cracked iron parts of machines.

272
CHAPTER - 4 CARBON AND ITS COMPOUND

Q1. The earth’s crust has ______% carbon in the form of minerals and the atmosphere has
_____% of carbon dioxide.

Q2. How does Carbon obtain its Noble Gas configuration?

Q3. What is the atomic number of Chlorine?

Q4. Name the compound which is widely used as a fuel and is a major component of Biogas
and CNG?

Q5. What is the formula of Methane?

Q6. What is a Covalent Bond?

Q7. Name any 3 Allotropes of Carbon.

Q8. What is Catenation?

Q9. What is Tetravalency?

Q10. C2H6 is the molecular formula of which Compounds.

Q11. What are Saturated Compounds?

Q12. C2H2 is the molecular formula of which Compounds?

Q13. What are Heteroatoms?

Q14. What are Homologous Series? Give example.

Q15. How many Structural Isomers can you draw for Pentane?

Q16. What is Oxidizing Agents? Give Examples

Q17. What is Addition Reaction? Give example and the Catalyst involved.

Q18. What is a Substitution Reaction? Give example.

Q19. What is Ethanol commonly known as?

273
Q20. List the properties of Ethanol.

Q21. What are Micelles?

Q22. Explain the mechanism of the cleansing action of Soap.

Q23. What are the uses of Carbon containing compounds in our daily life?

Q24. Explain the term Hydrophobic and Hydrophilic.

274
 CHAPTER 5: PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS

1. The elements of the second period of the Periodic Table are given below:
Li Be B C N O F
(a) Give reason to explain why atomic radii decrease from Li to F.
(b) Identify the most:
(i) metallic and
(ii)non-metallic element.

2. The elements of the third period of the Periodic Table are given below:

(a) Which atom is bigger, Na or Mg? Why?

(b) Identify the most (i) metallic and (ii) non-metallic element in Period 3.

3. The position of three elements A, B and C in the Periodic Table is shown below:

Giving reasons, explain the following:

(a) Element A is a non-metal.
(b) Element B has a larger atomic size than element C.
(c) Element C has a valency of 1

4. What physical and chemical properties of elements were used by Mendeleev in creating his
periodic table?

5. List two observations which posed a challenge to Mendeleev’s Periodic Law.

6. Table given below shows a part of the Periodic Table.

(a) Atomic size of Mg is less than that of Na.

(b) Fluorine is more reactive than Chlorine.

275
7. Why do we classify elements?

8. What were the two criteria used by Mendeleev in creating his Periodic Table?

9. Why did Mendeleev leave some gaps in his Periodic Table?

10. In Mendeleev’s Periodic Table, why was there no mention of Noble gases like Helium, Neon and
Argon?

11. Would you place the two isotopes ‘ of chlorine, CI-35 and CI-37 in different slots because of their
different atomic masses or in the same slot because their chemical properties are the same? Justify
your answer.

12. Lithium, sodium and potassium form a Dobereiner’s triad. The atomic masses of lithium and
potassium are 7 and 39 respectively. Predict the atomic mass of sodium.

13. Why was the system of classification of elements into triads not found suitable?

14. State Mendeleev’s periodic law. Write two achievements of Mendeleev’s periodic table

15. What is meant by periodicityin properties of elements with reference to the periodic table?

16. Why do all the elements of the same group have similar properties?

17. How will the tendency to gain electrons change as we go from left to right across a period? Why?

18. Upto which element, the Law of Octaves was found applicable?

(a) Oxygen
(b) Calcium
(c) Cobalt
(d) Potassium

19. An atom of an element has the electronic confi-guration 2,8,2. To which group does it belong?
(a) 4th group
(b) 6th group
(c) 3rd group
(d) 2nd group

20. Element ‘X’ forms a chloride with the formula XCl2, which is a solid with high melting point. X
would most likely be in the same group of the periodic table as:
(a) Si
(b) Mg
(c) Al
(d) Na

276
CHAPTER 6- LIFE PROCESSES

Q1.What are the functions of lymph in our body?

Q2.How is haemoglobin associated with respiration explained?

Q3.What are the modes of excretion in plants?

Q4.Give an experiment to prove the essentiality of light for photosynthesis

Q5. What is “translocation”? Why it is essential for plants.

Q6. How respiration does takes place in plants?

Q7. How is transpiration pull responsible for upward movement of water?

Q8. How are lungs designed in human beings to maximize the area of exchange of gases?

Q9. What processes would you consider essential for maintaining life?

Q10. What are difference between autotrophic and heterotrophic nutrition?

Q11. Where do plants get each of the raw materials required for photosynthesis?

Q12. How is small intestine deigned to absorb digested

Q13. What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have with regard to
obtaining oxygen for respiration?

Q14. What are different ways in which glucose is oxidized to provide energy in various organisms?

Q15. What are the components of the transport system in human beings? What are the functions
of
these components?

Q16.Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals and birds?

Q17. What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products?

Q18. How amount of urine is produced regulated?

277
Q19. What are differences between aerobic and anaerobic respiration? Name some organisms that
use anaerobic mode of respiration.

Q20. Compare the functioning of alveoli in the lungs and nephron in the kidneys with respect to
their structure and functioning.

Q21. How does respiration in plants differ from that in animals?

Q22. What would be the consequence of a deficiency of haemoglobin in our bodies?

Q23. Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with petroleum jelly. How will it affect the plant?
State two reasons.

Q24. How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this process take place?

Q25. What are the components of transport system in highly organized plants?

278
CHAPTER-7 CONTROL AND COORDINATION

Q1. How are movements coordinated and controlled in animals?

Q2. Where are the receptors of the nerve cells located in our body?

Q3. Gustatory Receptors detects?

Q4. What do you mean by the term Reflex in human body?

Q5. Where are Reflex Arcs formed?

Q6. Give examples of Voluntary and Involuntary Actions.

Q7. Which is the main thinking part of the brain?

Q8. Involuntary actions are controlled by which part of the brain?

Q9. What is the role of brain in Reflex Action?

Q10. Explain in brief the coordination in Plants.

Q11. What are Plant Hormones? Give some examples.

Q12.What is Hydrotropism?

Q13. Name the hormone in animals secreted by Adrenaline glands.

Q14. State its function.

Q15 State the function of Hypothalamus.

Q16. Name the important hormones and their functions.

Q17. Goiter can be cured by adding which substance in our diet?

Q18. What is Synapse?

Q19. What is Phototropism?

Q20. The timing and amount of hormone released are regulated by which mechanism?

Q21. What is the function of Feedback Mechanism?

279
CHAPTER 8- HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE

1. Define reproduction. What is the basic event in reproduction and why is it crucial?

2.Is variation needed and if so is it beneficial to the species or the individual?

3. Differentiate between

a. Fission and fragmentation

b. Budding and regeneration
with examples.

4. Can you think of reasons why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new individuals through
regeneration?

5. How is the process of pollination different from fertilisation?

6. How is fission in Amoeba different from fission in leishmania?

7. What is the basic difference between asexual and sexual mode of reproduction? Shed light on the
limitation of asexual mode and significance of sexual mode of reproduction.

8. Categorise papaya, mustard, watermelon and hibiscus plant into bisexual and sexual briefly
explaining your reason for categorising.

9. Diagrammatically represent male and female reproductive organ with well- defined labelling.

10. What happens when :

Egg is not fertilised
A woman uses copper -T. Will it help prevent sexually transmitted diseases?

11. Explain briefly the role of

a. Seminal vesicles
b. Prostate gland
c. Ovary
d. Fallopian tube

12. What are the different methods of contraception?

13. Reproduction is linked to stability of population of a species. Justify this statement

14. What are the reasons for poor living standards in our country?
15. Name the type of reproduction involved in the following:
a. A slice of bread has greenish –yellow patches.
b. Potato in the store-room starts sprouting.

280
16. What is the significance of pollination? describe its types.

17. Explain the significance of tissue culture.

18. Briefly explain the process of fertilisation.

19. Why scrotum is located outside the human body?

20. What is the role of villi on the walls of placenta?

281
 CHAPTER 9 – HEREDITARY AND EVOLUTION

1. What is a gene?

2. What is meant by analogous organs? Taking a suitable example, explain how they support the
theory of Organic Evolution.

3. What is a sex chromosome?

4. Define ‘evolution’.

5. Explain the terms: (i) Speciation (ii) Natural selection

6. Which chromosomes are called autosomes?

7. What happens if DNA copying is not perfectly accurate?

8. Why is DNA copying necessary during reproduction?

9. What do you mean by dominant traits?

10. What do you mean by recessive traits?

11. The process where characteristics are transmitted from parent to off springs is called:

a. Variation
b. Heredity
c. Gene
d. Allele
e. None of the above

`12. The phenomenon where individuals of a species exhibit differences in characteristics are called:

a. Adaptation
b. Evolution
c. Variation
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

13. Which of the following statements is Incorrect?

a. Gene is a sequence of nucleotides

b. During the process of gene expression, DNA is first copied into RNA
c. Genes can acquire mutations in their sequence
d. Genes cannot acquire mutations in their sequence
e. None of the above

14. _______ is the observable set of characteristics of an organism

282
 a. Phenotype
b. Genes
c. DNA
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

15. When a new plant is formed as a result of cross-pollination from different varieties of a plant, the
newly formed plant is called:

a. Dominant plant
b. Mutant plant
c. Hybrid plant
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

16. Who proposed the theory of evolution?

a. Charles Darwin
b. Stanely Miller
c. Harold Urey
d. Aristotle
e. None of the above

17. Homologous organs are organs that have:

a. Different function with a different structure

b. Same function with the same structure
c. Same function but with a different structure
d. Different function but the same structure
e. None of the above

18. Which part of the DNA provides information for a protein?

a. Chromosome
b. Mitochondria
c. RNA
d. Gene
e. None of the above

19. Which of the following is not controlled by genes?

a. Eye colour
b. Height
c. Hair colour
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

20. Which of the following can be inherited from parents to off spring

a. Swimming technique
b. Big nose

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c. Sculpted body
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

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CHAPTER 10-LIGHT- REFLECTION AND REFRACTION

Q1. Define power of a lens. What is its unit? One student uses a lens of focal length 50 cm and another
of -50 cm. What is the nature of the lens and its power used by each of them?

Q2. Define lens. What is difference between convex and concave lens?

Q3. Draw ray diagrams showing the image formation by a convex mirror when an object is placed-
a. at infinity
b. at finite distance from the mirror

Q4. Write down the uses of concave and convex mirror.

Q5. Write the laws of refraction. Explain the same with the help of ray diagram, when a ray of light
passes through a rectangular glass slab.

Q6. What Is Meant By The Light? What Are The Properties Of Light?

Q7. What Is Known As The Image Of The First Point?

Q8. What Is Meant By The Pole And The Centre Of Curvature?

Q9. What Is Meant By The Principle Axis And Focal Length Of The Mirror?

Q10. What Is Formula Of Focal Length?

Q11. What Is The Relation Between Mirror Formulas?

Q12. What Is Meant By The Refracted Index?

Q13. Discuss About The Position Of Image Formed By A Lens?

Q14. List two possible ways in which a concave mirror can produce a magnified image of an object
placed in front of it. State the difference, if any, between these two images.

Q15. List four characteristics of the images formed by plane mirrors

Q16. What does its sign (+ve or -ve) indicate in the power of lens? State its S.I. unit. How is this unit
related to focal length of a lens?

Q17. Draw the ray diagram and also state the position, the relative size and the nature of image formed
by a concave mirror when the object is placed at the centre of curvature of the mirror.

Q18. Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through triangular glass prism and mark angle
of deviation on it.

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Q19. Mention the types of mirrors used as
(i) rear view mirrors,
(ii) Shaving mirrors.

List two reasons to justify your answers in each case.

Q20. Name the type of mirror used

(i) by dentists
(ii) In solar furnaces.

Give two reasons why such mirrors are used in each case.

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CHAPTER-11-THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLORFUL WORLD

Q1. List the different components of a Human Eye.

Q2. In which part of the eye the light first enters through?

Q3. Images are form in which part of the eye?

Q4. Name the dark muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil.

Q5. What is Accommodation?

Q6. What is Cataract?

Q7. What is Focal Length?

Q8. Name the three common refractive defects of vision.

Q9. What is the far point and near point of a human eye?

Q10. What is Myopia?

Q11. What is Hypermetropia?

Q12. What is Presbyopia?

Q13. How can myopic eye be corrected?

Q14. What is the corrective lens for Hypermetropia?

Q15. What type of lens is required to correct Presbyopia?

Q16. What is Angle of Prism?

Q17. What is Dispersion? Give example

Q18. Why do Stars twinkle?

Q19. What is Atmospheric Refraction? Give examples

Q20. Why don’t the planet twinkle?

Q21. What is Tyndall effect? Give examples

Q22. Why is the color of the clear Sky Blue?

Q23. Why does the sun look reddish at sunrise and sunset?

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CHAPTER 12- ELECTRICITY

1. Define electric current and its unit and draw a schematic diagram of electric circuit.

2. A current of 0.5 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 10 minutes. Find the amount
of electric charge that flows through the circuit.

3. Which device is used to maintain a potential difference across a conductor. How much energy is
given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 10 V battery?

4. Draw the symbols for the following :

a. Variable resistance or rheostat.
b. Wires crossing without joining.
c. A battery or a combination of cells.

5. Graphically represent and explain ohm's law.

6. Briefly explain the factors on which the resistance of a current depends.

7. How much current will an electric bulb draw from a 220 V source, if the resistance of the bulb filament
is 1200 Ω? (b) How much current will an electric heater coil draw from a 220 V source, if the resistance
of the heater coil is 100 Ω?

8. Resistance of a metal wire of length 1 m is 26 Ω at 20°C. If the diameter of the wire is 0.3 mm, what
will be the resistivity of the metal at that temperature? Also predict the nature of the material.

9. The coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal. Why?

10. Diagrammatically differentiate resistor in series and parallel giving examples.

11. An electric lamp, whose resistance is 20 Ω, and a conductor of 4 Ω resistance are connected to a 6
V battery. Calculate
(a) The total resistance of the circuit.
(b) The current through the circuit.
(c) The potential difference across the electric lamp and conductor.
12. How can three resistors of resistances 2 Ω, 3 Ω, and 6 Ω be connected to give a total resistance of
(a) 4 Ω
(b) 1 Ω?

13. What is the advantage of connecting the electrical devices in parallel with the battery instead of
connecting it in series.

14. Explain joule's law of heating with derivation.

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15. 50 J of heat is produced each second in a 2 Ω resistance. Find the potential difference across the
resistor.

16. The heating element of an electric heater glows while the cord does not. Why?

17. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel.
If the equivalent resistance of this combination is R′, then the ratio R/R′ is?

18. Give any 2 practical applications of heating effect of electric current.

19. A copper wire has diameter 0.5 mm and resistivity of 1.6 × 10–8 Ω m. What will be the length of
this wire to make its resistance 10 Ω? How much does the resistance change if the diameter is doubled?

20. Explain with proper reasoning :

(a) Why is the tungsten used almost exclusively for filament of electric lamps?
(b) Why is the series arrangement not used for domestic circuits?
(c) How does the resistance of a wire vary with its area of cross-section?

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 CHAPTER 13 – MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

1. How can you convert an A.C. into a D.C. generator?

2. What is a magnetic field?

3. Which effect of electric current is utilized in the working of an electric fuse?

4. What will you do if you see a person coming in contact with a live wire?

5. Name an instrument in which the directive property of a magnet is used.

6. Name the elements of Earth’s magnetic field.

7. What is the cause of earth’s magnetism?

8. State the composition of the alloy called nipermag?

9. What is a fuse wire?

10. Why don’t two magnetic field lines intersect each other?

11. Which sources produce alternating current?

12. Name some sources of direct current.

13. What is the pattern of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor?

14. What is galvanometer?

15. What is electric motor?

16. The device used for producing current is called

a. Generator
b. Voltmeter
c. Ammeter
d. Galvanometer.

17. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current

a. is zero.
b. decreases as we move towards its end.
c. increases as we move towards its end.
d. is the same at all points.

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18. A rectangular coil of copper wires is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of the induced
current changes once in each

a. two revolutions
b. one revolution
c. half revolution
d. one-fourth revolution

19. The essential difference between an AC generator and a DC generator is that

a. AC generator has an electromagnet while a DC generator has permanent magnet.
b. DC generator will generate a higher voltage.
c. AC generator will generate a higher voltage.
d. AC generator has slip rings while the DC generator has a commutator.

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CHAPTER 14- SOURCES OF ENERGY

Q1. What is meant by non-renewable sources of energy?

Q2. Name two non-renewable or conventional sources of energy.

Q3. What is a fossil fuel?

Q4. What does “LPG” stands for?

Q5. Name the device/technique to produce electricity by burning fossil fuels.

Q6. Name two gases, other than carbon-dioxide, that are given out during burning of fossil fuel and
contribute towards acid rain formation.

Q7. Justify in one sentence that hydro power (hydel electricity) is a renewable source of energy.

Q8. Construction of dams submerges large areas of forests, how does this contribute to the greenhouse
effect?

Q9. How is charcoal obtained from wood?

Q10. Name the residue obtained when wood is burnt in a limited supply of air.

Q11. What is a biogas?

Q12. What is the minimum wind velocity required to obtain useful energy with a wind mill?

Q13. Name two activities in our daily life in which solar energy is used.

Q14. What is the range of temperature attained inside a box type solar cooker when placed in the sun
for two to three hours?

Q15. Name the factor which enables the ocean to act as a store house of energy.

Q16. Write two different ways of harnessing energy from ocean.

Q17. What are hot spots inside earth’s crust?

Q18. The mass number of three elements A, B and C are 2, 180 and 235- Which one of them is suitable
to make a hydrogen bomb?

Q19. “Burning of fossil fuels leads to acid rain”, Justify this statement.

Q20. Explain how burning of fossil fuels cause acid rain.

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Q21. List two steps of energy transformation that take place in a thermal power plant.

Q22. What is the importance of hydropower plants in India? Describe how electric energy is generated
in such plants.

Q23. Write the problems faced in construction of big dams.

Q24. What are the advantages of constructing dams over rivers?

Q25. How does biogas plant help to reduce the problem of pollution?

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CHAPTER -15- OUR ENVIRONMENT
Q1. What does an Ecosystem comprise of?

Q2. What are the components of an Ecosystem?

Q3. Give an example of a Human made Ecosystem.

Q4. What is a Self-sustaining system?

Q5. Which organisms can make organic compounds like sugar and starch from inorganic
substances using the radiant energy of the sun in the presence of Chlorophyll?

Q5. What are Decomposers?

Q6. Name some of the Decomposers.

Q7. What is a Food Chain?

Q8. What is a Food Web?

Q9. What are Trophic Levels?

Q10. Which organisms is placed at the first Trophic Level?

Q11. In a Food Chain/Food Web the flow of energy is?

Q12. What is the role of Decomposer in an Ecosystem?

Q13. How much is the percentage of the energy of sunlight does green plants in a terrestrial
ecosystem capture?

Q14. What is the average percentage for the amount of organic matter that is made available for the
next level of consumers at each level?

Q15. What is Biological Magnification?

Q16. How many atoms of Oxygen are there in Ozone?

Q17. What is the essential role/function of Ozone in the atmosphere?

Q18. Which chemical is responsible for the depletion of Ozone layer?

Q19. Ozone at the higher levels of atmosphere is a product of?

Q20. Write the full form of CFC

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Q21. What is Ozone and how does it affect our Ecosystem?

Q22. What are Biodegradable substances?

Q23. What are Non- Biodegradable substances?

Q24. Give any two reasons through which biodegradable substances would affect the
environment.

Q25. Give any two reasons through which non- biodegradable substances would affect the
environment.

Q26. What will happen if we kill all the organisms in one trophic level?

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CHAPTER-16- SUSTAINABLE MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES
1. List any two causes for deforestation taking place.

2. Name any two forest products each of which is the basis for some industry.

3. Mention any one negative effect of our affluent life style on the environment.

4. List any two measures that you suggest for better management of water resources.

5. Name any two items which can be easily recycled but are generally thrown in the dustbins by us.

6. Write the main objective of conservation of biodiversity.

7. Which among the following is a major programme that was started to replenish the damaged
forests?

a. Agriculture
b. Tissue culture
c. Silviculture
d. Horticulture

8. Which of the following is/ are not the consequence/consequences of building high-rise dams?

I. Loss of biodiversity
II. Depletion of the natural habitats of wild animals
III. Soil erosion leading to the infertility of land
IV. Fall in the groundwater level

Choose the correct option from the following:

a. (i) and (iv)

b. (ii) and (iii)
c. (iii) and (iv)
d. (ii) and (iv)

9. Which of the following activities will prove to be effective in preventing floods?

I. Removing the topsoil

II. Afforestation
III. Construction of dams
IV. Cutting of trees

Choose the correct option from the following:

a. (i) and (iv)

b. (ii) and (iii)
c. (iii) and (iv)
d. (ii) and (iv)

10. Which among the following was a message conveyed by the ‘Chipko Movement’?

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 a. To promote more and more developmental projects
b. To involve the community in forest conservation efforts
c. To ignore the forest conservation efforts in sake of development
d. None of these

11. The quality of environment can be improved by-

a. Deforestation
b. Overuse of natural environment
c. Erosion
d. Conservation

12. Which among the following is an eco-friendly activity?

a. Making use of automobiles

b. Making use of poly bags for shopping
c. Making use of dyes for colouring the clothes
d. Making windmill to generate power for irrigation

13. Which of the following does not lead to the depletion of groundwater?

a. Establishing thermal power plants

b. Cultivation of high yielding varieties of crops
c. Process of deforestation
d. Process of afforestation

14. Government launched the ‘Ganga Action Plan’ (GAP) project in 1985. The main purpose of this
project was to:

a. Build new dams over the Ganga river

b. Make its water pollution free
c. Utilise the river water for irrigation purposes
d. Promote the growth of water animals like fish, in the river

15. Which among the following factors help in confirming the contamination of river water?

I. Measurement of pH of river water

II. Presence of chlorine in river water
III. Existence of diverse life forms in river water
IV. Presence of coliform bacteria in river water

Choose the correct option from the following:

a. (i) and (iv)

b. (ii) and (iii)
c. (iii) and (iv)
d. (ii) and (iv)

16. Among the following choose the correct option which includes acts related to the three R's
strategy which can be useful for conserving our natural resources?

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 a. Recycle, regenerate, reuse
b. Reduce, regenerate, reuse
c. Reduce, reuse, redistribute
d. Reduce, recycle, reuse

17. Who started chipko andalon?

a. A. K. Banerjee
b. Amrita devi bisni
c. Sundar lal Bahuguna
d. Medha patkart

18. Sardar Sarovar Dam is situated on river:

a. Ganga
b. Narmada
c. Yamuna
d. Godavari

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 ANSWER KEY
CHAPTER 1: CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

ANSWER 1-
a. We cannot store silver nitrate, AgNO3 solution in the copper container because according to
the reactivity series copper is more reactive than silver. Thus it will displace silver from AgNO3
solution forming copper nitrate solution.

b. Gold and silver are the least reactive metals in the reactivity series, hence cannot bond with
oxygen easily. Therefore they both cannot get corroded easily.

c. The blue color of CuSO4 fades when the zinc rod is dipped in it. This happens because zinc is
higher up in the reactivity series than copper. So zinc reacts with the solution displacing copper
to form ZnSO and the Cu metal gets deposited over the rod.

d. Biological respiration is breathing to bring oxygen into the body. It is not a chemical reaction at
all, so it is neither exothermic nor endothermic. ... It is exothermic, but not as exothermic as
respiration with oxygen, as the nutrients are not broken down as far, and less energy is
released.

e. Photochemical is caused by the chemical reaction of light. Photography is based on the

photochemical process. When a picture is taken, the silver salts in the photographic film absorb
light and chemically change into metallic silver, which produces a dark image on the negative
when the film is developed.

ANSWER 2-
Stale food gives a bad taste and smell due to bacteria formation. This can be prevented by adding
preservatives, keeping it in a refrigerator, blast freezing it, etc.

ANSWER 3-
Precipitation reaction- AgNO3+KCl=AgCl+KNO3
Thermal Decomposition reaction- CuCO3= CuO+ CO2

Natural oxidation reaction- 2Fe+ O2= Fe2O3

Exothermic reaction- Fe2O3+ 2Al= Al2O3+ 2Fe

ANSWER 4-
(i) oxidized is 4Na and reduced is O2
(ii) oxidized is H2 and reduced is Cuo

ANSWER 5-
Combination reaction:- It is a chemical reaction in which two or more reactants combine to form a new
single product. It releases heat during the chemical reaction.

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Examples:-
C + O2 → CO2

Decomposition reaction:- It is a chemical reaction in which one reactant breaks down into simpler
compounds. It absorbs heat from the surroundings during the chemical reaction.
Examples:-
C12H22O11 → 12 C + 11 H2O

ANSWER 6-
Displacment reaction- In a displacement reaction, a more reactive element replaces a less reactive
element from a compound.
Example-
CuSO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + Cu
Double displacement reaction-
In a double displacement reaction, two atoms or a group of atoms switch places to form new
compounds.
Example-
Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl

ANSWER 7-
Oxidation occurs when a reactant loses electrons during the reaction.
EXAMPLE- Mg→Mg2++2e−
Reduction occurs when a reactant gains electrons during the reaction. This often occurs when metals
are reacted with acid.
EXAMPLE- 1/2Cl2+e−→Cl−

ANSWER 8-
A balanced chemical equation has an equal number of atoms of different elements in the reactants and
products. It has equal masses of various elements in the reactants and products.

Example-Zn+H2SO4→ZnSO4+H2

An unbalanced chemical equation has an unequal number of atoms of one or more elements in the reactants
and products. It has unequal masses of various elements in the reactants and products.

Example-H2+O2→2H2O

ANSWER 9-
• Corrosion of iron

Red oxide is the product when a redox reaction is taking place. In a redox reaction, iron and oxygen
react with water or moisture in the air. Rusting is the comma word used for the corrosion of iron. The
corrosion is taking place in other metals too but not with term rust.

• Corrosion of copper

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copper corrosion is a word used for corrosion of copper material. copper oxide is a product of corrosion
when copper material exposed to the atmosphere and caused the surface to turn into a bright color
surface

ANSWER 10-
a. A reactant is a substance that is present at the start of a chemical reaction.
b. A product is a substance that is present at the end of a chemical reaction.
c. A balanced chemical equation has an equal number of atoms of different elements in the reactants
and products. It has equal masses of various elements in the reactants and products.

ANSWER 11-

a. Zn+2AgNo3----→ Zn(No3)2 + 2Ag

b. N2+3H2-----→2NH3
c. 3Mg(OH)2+2H3PO4------→ 4H2O + Mg(PO4)2
d. 2HNO3+Ni-----→ Ni(NO3)2+ H2
e. It is already a balanced equation
f. BaCl2 + Na2 SO4-----→ 2NaCl+BaSO4
g. Al2(CO3)3-----→Al2O3 +3CO2
h. Ca+2H2O---→ Ca(OH)2+H2
i. 2LiHCO3----→ Li2CO3+H2O + CO2
j. 2N2 + 5O2------→ 2N2O5
k. MgBr2 +2KOH-----→ 2KBr+Mg(OH)2
l. Mn+2CuCl----→ 2Cu +MnCl2
m. 8Zn +S8-----→ 8ZnS
n. 2NaOH+H2SO4→Na2SO4+2H2O
o. K(s)+H2O(l) →KOH(aq)+1/2H2O(g)
p. C5H12+8 O2→6 H2O+5 CO2
q. 2KOH + H2CO3 → 2H2O + K2CO3
r. 5C4H8O2 +5O2 → 20CO2 +H2O

ANSWER 12-

PRECIPITATION REACTION
ANSWER-13
Silver chloride on exposure to sunlight may decompose as per the following reaction

Therefore it is stored in dark-colored bottles.

ANSWER-14
It is a brown mass known as hydrated ferric oxide. Its formula is Fe2O3. xH2O.

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ANSWER 15-
The two ways to check the rancidity of food articles are
(i) Keep the food articles in airtight containers.
(ii) (ii) Keep the food articles in the refrigerator.

ANSWER 16-
Gold (Au) and platinum (Pt) do not get corroded.
ANSWER 17-
When quicklime is added to water, it forms slaked lime along with the evolution of heat. There will be
a rise in the temperature of the bucket. Calcium oxide reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide,
also called slaked lime.
Cao + H2O → Ca(OH)2

ANSWER 18-
In a combination reaction, two or more substances are combined to form a new substance while in the
decomposition reaction one substance decomposes into two or more substances. Hence, the
decomposition reactions are called the opposite of combination reactions.

Decomposition reaction CaCO3 (s) ⇨ CaO (s) + CO2 (g)

Combination reaction H2 (g) + Cl2 ⇨ 2HCl (g)

ANSWER 19-
When CO2 gas is bubbled through lime water:-
i) In a small amount then the lime water turns milky due to the formation of calcium
carbonate. Reaction:
Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
The insoluble CaCO3 is the reason that the solution turns milky
ii) in excess amount then the milkiness of the lime water disappears due to the formation of
Calcium bicarbonate.

ANSWER 20-
Aluminum is quite reactive, when it is kept in air or oxygen for some time, the upper surface gets
converted into its oxide called aluminum oxide (Al2O3), which gets deposited as a thin coating on the
surface of the metal. This aluminum oxide is passive which means that it is not reactive. Therefore, this
metal is used for packing food articles that do not get spoiled in the foil.

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CHAPTER 2- ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
1.Hydrogen (H2) gas is liberated when an acid reacts with a metal. The simple method to test the
presence of gas evolved is:
Bring a burning candle near the mouth of the apparatus filled with gas. The hydrogen gas burns with a
pop sound and it will be clearly heard when done precisely.

2. a. Metal carbonates reaction with acid

2HCl+Na2CO3⟶2NaCl+CO2+H2O
Metal hydrogen carbonates reaction with acid
NaHCO3(s)+HCl(aq)→NaCl(aq)+ H2O (l)+CO2(g)
b. Metallic oxides react with acids to give salts and water. Let us consider the reaction of copper oxide
with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Acids react with metal oxides to produce a salt and water.
Acid + metal oxide ⟶ salt + water
For example:
2HCl+CuO⟶CuCl +H2O

3. Curd and sour substances should not be kept in brass and copper vessels because these and other
sour food-stuffs contain acids which can react with the metal of the vessel to form poisonous metal
compounds which can cause food poisoning and affect our health adversely.

4. The reaction between acid and water is highly exothermic and produces an enormous amount of
heat. Hence, when water is added to acid, it results in vigorous boiling of the solution and the amount
of heat produced is so large that it splashes the acid out of the container, which can
result in acid burns.

5. Food in Jar B will stale first as it does not contain acetic acid commonly used to preserve food
materials.

6. Acids undergo dissociation in aqueous solution to form H+ ions.

When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of an acid, the H+ ions reach the cathode and
each H+ ion picks up one electron from the cathode to form H2 gas. Because of this reaction, an
aqueous solution of acid conducts electricity.

7. Milk of magnesia is an alkaline (basic) water suspension and creamy like suspended form of
magnesium hydroxide, Mg (OH)2. It is used as an antacid to neutralize excess stomach acid. Magnesium
can also be used in the form of Epsom salts as a treatment for rashes and as a laxative. A more important
commercial use of Epsom salts is in the tanning of leather as well as in the dyeing of fabrics.

8. pH value of 5 indicates it is a highly acidic solution and pH value of 9 indicates it is highly basic solution.
The more the acidic the solution is, more will be hydrogen ion concentration. So solution with pH 5 will
have more hydrogen ion concentration

9. Name the acids present in the following foodstuffs which attribute to a sour taste to them
a. Citric Acid

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b. Acetic acid
c. Citric acid
d. Tartaric acid
e. Lactic acid

10. pH is defined as the measure of hydrogen ion concentration used to measure the acidity or alkalinity
of a given solution. pH scale indicates the level of acidity or basicity of a substance and it acts as a
measure for the hydrogen ion concentration in different solutions.

11. a. Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate also known as Sodium Bicarbonate or Baking Soda. It is a crystalline
solid white which has no odour. In its crystalline form, it has a density of 2.2 g/mL whereas in its powder
form it has a density of 1.2 g/mL. It readily dissolves in water. When heated, baking soda gradually
decomposes to form sodium carbonate, water along with the evolution of carbon dioxide gas.
NaHCO3(s)+HCl(aq)→NaCl(aq)+ H2O (l)+CO2(g)
b. If plaster of paris reacts with water, heat is released through crystallisation. Gypsum is made by
heating plaster of Paris to about 150 degrees Celsius.
CaSO4.1/2H2O + 3/2H2O → CaSO4.2H2O

12. Since 10 mL of NaOH requires 8 mL of HCl.

1mLof NaOH will require 8/10 mL of HCl
Let X mL of HCl to be required to neutralize 20 mL of NaOH
So, X = (20 × 8)/10
X = 16 ml
16 mL of HCl is required to neutralize 20 mL of NaOH

13. Take samples of alcohol, glucose and hydrochloric acid. Take a 100 mL Beaker and take a fork and
fix the nails. Place the cork inside the beaker and connect the nails to two terminals of a 6-volt battery
through a bulb and a switch. Add some hydrochloric acid to the beaker and on the current. Repeat the
procedure with alcohol and glucose.
In the case of acid, the bulb will glow. And in the case of alcohol and glucose, it does not glow.
Since ions carry the electric current through the solution, the above conclusion can be made. Acid
ionizes to give H+ ions in an aqueous medium but glucose and alcohol do not furnish H+ ions even
though they contain hydrogen atoms.

14. a. Milk is made slightly alkaline so that it may not get sour easily due to the formation of lactic acid
in it.
b. The alkaline milk takes a longer time to set into curd because the lactic acid being formed has to first
neutralise the alkali present in it.

15.If the soil is acidic and unsuitable for agriculture, the farmer can treat it with quick lime, slaked lime,
or chalk to neutralize the acidity. Quicklime, slaked lime and chalk are basic in nature.

16. Baking soda is the simplest home remedy for nettle stings. It’s an alkaline which neutralizes the
nettle sting’s acid that is formic acid. Mix a few drops of cold water with some baking soda in a cup. And
then spread it over the sting.

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17. Balanced chemical equations for the reactions taking place when dry blue crystals of copper
sulphate are dropped into concentrated sulphuric acid is:
CuSO4 . 5H2O + conc. H2SO4 (aq.) = CuSO4 (s) + SO2 (g) + H2O (l)

18. State the chemical property in each case on which the following uses of baking soda varies
a. It acts as an antacid in stomach
It is weakly alkaline in nature and neutralizes acid (HCl) formed in the stomach.
NaHCO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2
b. It acts as a constituent of baking powder in the following case:
2NaHCO3 → Na 2CO3 + H2O + CO2
It evolves NO2 in the form of bubbles when cake is made by baking. As a result, the cake becomes
porous as well as fluffy.

19. Chloride of lime is also known as bleaching powder having chemical formula CaOCl2 while Calcium
chloride has formula CaCl2. It losses its chlorine by the action of CO2.

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CHAPTER 3 - METALS AND NON-METALS
1. a. Malleability: A metal that can be beaten into thin sheets on hammering is called malleable or it is
defined as metals that can be pressed, or rolled into thin sheets without breaking and the property is
called malleability.
Example: Malleable metals are gold, iron, aluminium, copper, silver and lead.
b. Ductility: A metal which can be drawn into thin wires is called ductile and the property is called
ductility.
Example: Most ductile elements are aluminum, copper and magnesium alloys.

2. Sodium (Na) and potassium (K) are the two metals that react violently with cold water.
The observations that are made when these metals are dropped into water are given below:
• The reaction is exothermic and a huge amount of heat is produced.
• Hydrogen gas is evolved.
• A small explosion with a pop sound is observed.

The gas that gets evolved during the experiment is hydrogen gas can be identified by a pop sound by
bringing a burning matchstick close to the apparatus.

3. Alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more metals/non-metals.

Advantages of using/making alloys are:
• Increases hardness of metals.
• Increases resistance of metals towards corrosion.

4. Sulphide ores are converted to oxides by heating in the presence of excess air. This process is known
as Roasting. Carbonates are changed into oxides by strongly heating them in limited air. The process is
known as Calcination. Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process
of extraction because extraction of metal is easier from their oxides rather than from their carbonates
or sulphides.
A reaction involving calcination can be represented as follows:
When zinc carbonate is heated strongly in the absence of air, it decomposes to form zinc oxide and
carbon dioxide.
ZnCO3(s)→ZnO(s)+CO2(g)
A reaction involving roasting can be represented as follows:
When zinc sulphide is strongly heated in the presence of air it gets converted to zinc oxide
2ZnS(s)+3O2(g)→2ZnO(s)+2SO2(g)
Now, we have obtained zinc (oxide of the desired metal) in both the cases. Since, we know that carbon
is more reactive than metals like zinc. Hence, this zinc oxide is heated with carbon. This results in Carbon
displacing zinc to form carbon monoxide and yielding zinc metal.
ZnO(s)+C(s)→Zn(s)+CO(g)

5. Metals are found in both free and combined nature on earth crust.
Reaction of metals with oxygen:
All metals combine

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with oxygen with different rate to form metal oxides.
1Example: Sodium forms sodium oxide at room temperature on reacting with oxygen.

4Na + O2 → 2Na2 O
Copper forms copper oxide when it is heated in the presence of air.
Cu + O2 → 2CuO
Reaction of metals with acids:
Metals react with acids to form salt and evolve hydrogen gas.
Example: Magnesium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to form magnesium chloride and evolve H2.
Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2

6. a. Brass – Copper and Zinc

b. Stainless steel - Carbon and Chromium

7. Corrosion is usually defined as the degradation of metals due to an electrochemical process. The
formation of rust on iron, tarnish on silver, and the blue-green patina that develops on copper are all
examples of corrosion. Corrosion is usually an undesirable phenomenon since it negatively affects the
desirable properties of the metal. For example, iron is known to have good tensile strength and rigidity.
However, when subjected to rusting, iron objects become brittle, flaky, and structurally unsound.
Preventing corrosion is of utmost importance in order to avoid huge losses. Majority of the structures
we use are made out of metals. This includes bridges, automobiles, machinery, household goods like
window grill, doors, railway lines, etc. Some of the popular methods to prevent corrosion include
Electroplating, Galvanization, Painting and Greasing, Use of Corrosion Inhibitor, etc. Stainless steel,
aluminium alloys don’t corrode. Aluminum is considered as an extremely corrosion-resistant material
due to a thin, protective, highly adherent oxide film which it forms on the surface.

8. Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in air to form copper carbonate and as a result, copper
vessel loses its shiny brown surface forming a green layer of copper carbonate. The citric acid present
in the lemon or tamarind neutralises the basis copper carbonate and dissolves the layer. That is why,
tarnished copper vessels are cleaned with lemon or tamarind juice to give the surface of the copper
vessel its characteristic lustre.

9. a. This is true that aluminium is a highly reactive element but it has a property of non-corrosion.
That's why it is used to make cooking utensils. The property comes from the fact that aluminium reacts
with oxygen and forms a thin layer of aluminium oxide which acts a protective coating layer to resist
further corrosion.
b. Platinum Gold and silver are used to make jewellery because they are highly lustrous metals which
are resistant to corrosion and are also highly malleable and ductile so can be transformed into any
shape or design.

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10.

11. Anodising is the process of forming a thick oxide layer of aluminium. This aluminium oxide coat
makes it resistant to further corrosion. Anodising is a process of electrolytic passivation to increase the
natural oxide layer’s thickness on the surface of metal parts. This process converts the metal surface
into a decorative, durable, corrosion-resistant, anodic oxide finish.

The process is done by immersing the aluminium into an acid electrolyte bath and passing an electric
current through the medium. A cathode is mounted inside the anodizing tank; the aluminium acts as
an anode so that oxygen ions are released from the electrolyte to combine with the aluminium atoms
at the surface of the part anodised. It has the following uses:
• Protect satellites from the harsh environment of space.
• Used in one of the world’s tallest buildings – the Willis Tower in Chicago, Illino.

12. The compounds formed by the transfer of electrons from a metal to a non - metal are called ionic
compounds. Ionic compounds in the solid state do not conduct electricity because movement of ions
in the solid is not possible due to their rigid structure, but in the molten state ions move freely.

13.

14. a. When Manganese dioxide is heated with aluminium the following reaction takes place:

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When manganese dioxide (MnO22) is heated with aluminium powder, displacement reaction takes
place, and manganese is obtained as the product along with aluminium oxide. It is an exothermic
reaction and hence Mn is obtained in molten form.
3MnO2(s)+4Al(s) → 3Mn(l)+2Al2O3(s)+ heat
b. When steam is passed over red-hot iron, iron oxide will be formed with the release of hydrogen gas.
3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2.
c. When Aluminum Oxide is reacted with Sodium hydroxide the following reaction takes place:
Al2O3 + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + H2O
Aluminum oxide react with sodium hydroxide to produce sodium aluminate and water. This reaction
takes place at a temperature of 900-1100°C.
d. When Calcium reacts water the following reaction takes place:
Ca+2H2O→Ca(OH)2(aq)+H2(g).
A hydroxide is produced known as calcium hydroxide, which is soluble in water and also releases
hydrogen gas.
e. When Iron reacts with dilute Sulphuric acid the following reaction takes place:
Fe+H2SO4(dil)→FeSO4+H2

15. In both cases, the gas evolved is H2. When calcium reacts with water the heat evolved is not
sufficient for hydrogen to catch fire. On the other hand, potassium reacts with water violently and lot
of heat is evolved which is sufficient for hydrogen to catch fire.

16. In electrolytic refining of copper, the following is involved:

a. An Anode – impure copper
b. A cathode – sheet of pure copper
c. The electrolyte - electrolyte bath of copper sulfate, CuSO4, and sulfuric acid H2SO4

17. Copper does not react with cold water, hot water or steam however iron reacts with steam. If water
tanks are made of steel which is an iron alloy than iron would react with steam formed from hot water.
3Fe+4H2O → Fe 3O4+4H2
That is why copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel.

18. a. There will be no action on dry litmus paper. When the moist litmus paper is brought closer. It
will turn the litmus red since the gas is an oxide of non-metal.
b. The balanced chemical reaction is as follows:
S + O2 → SO2

19. Write the symbol, atomic number of the following elements along with the distribution of electrons
in the shell:
a. Calcium – Ca
Atomic number = 20
Electronic configuration - (K, L, M, N) = (2, 8, 8, 2)
b. Potassium -K
Atomic number = 19
Electronic configuration - (K, L, M, N) = (2, 8, 8,1)
c. Helium – He

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Atomic number = 2
Electronic configuration - (K) = (2)
d. Sulphur – S
Atomic number = 16
Electronic configuration - (K, L, M, N) = (2, 8, 6)
e. Chlorine -Cl
Atomic number = 17
Electronic configuration - (K, L, M, N) = (2, 8, 7)

20. (i) Hydrogen gas is not evolved when a metal reacts with nitric acid. It is because HNO 3 is a strong
oxidising agent. It oxidises the H2 produced to water and itself gets reduced to any of the nitrogen
oxides (N2O, NO, NO2).
(ii) The reaction of iron (III) oxide with heated aluminium is a displacement reaction and highly
exothermic in nature. The amount of heat produced is so large that it can be used to join cracked
machine parts as the metals gets converted into the molten state.
The reaction is as follows:
Fe2O3 + Al → Fe + Al2 O3 + Heat

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 CHAPTER 4 CARBON AND IT’S COMPOUND

1. 0.02%, 0.03%
2. CARBON OBTAIN ITS NOBLE GAS CONFIGURATION BY SHARING OF ELECTRONS WITH OTHER
ATOMS OF CARBON OR WITH ATOMS OF OTHER ELEMENTS.
3. 17
4. METHANE
5. CH4
6. A COVALENT BOND IS A BOND THAT FORMS DUE TO SHARING OF ELECTRONS BETWEEN ATOMS
OF SAME ELEMENT OR ATOMS OF OTHER ELEMENTS
7. DIAMOND, GRAPHITE, FULLERENE
8. CARBON HAS A UNIQUE ABILITY TO FORM BONDS WITH OTHER ATOM, GIVING RISE TO LARGE
MOLECULES.THIS PROPERTY IS CALLED CATENATION.
9. THE TETRAVALENCY OF CARBON IS THE ABILITY TO FORM BONDS WITH OTHER ATOMS BY
SHARING ITS FOUR VALENCE ELECTRON.
10. ETHANE
11. COMPOUNDS OF CARBON WHICH ARE LINKED BY ONLY SINGLE BOND BETWEEN CARBON ATOMS
ARE CALLED SATURATED COMPOUNDS.
12. ETHYNE
13. IN A HYDROCARBON, THE ELEMENTS REPLACING HYDROGEN ARE REFFERED TO AS HETEROATOMS
14. A SERIES OF COMPOUNDS IN WHICH THE SAME FUNCTIONAL GROUPS SUBSTITUTES FOR
HYDROGEN IN A CARBON CHAIN IS CALLED HOMOLOGOUS SERIES. EXAMPLE: CH3OH, C2H5OH,
C3H7OH AND C4H9OH
15. 3 (n-pentane, Iso-pentane and neo-pentane)
16. SUBSTANCES CAPABLE OF ADDING OXYGEN TO OTHERS ARE KNOWN AS OXIDIZING AGENTS.
ALKALINE POTASSIUM PERMANGANATE (kmno4 ), ACIDIFIED POTASSIUM DICHROMATE (K2Cr2o7)
17. IN ADDITION, REACTION, UNSATURATED HYDROCARBONS ADD HYDROGEN IN THE PRESENCE OF
CATALYSTS. THIS REACTION IS COMMONLY USED IN THE HYDROGENATION OF VEGETABLE OILS
USING A NICKEL CATALYST. THE CATALYST INVOLVED IS NICKEL.
18. A REACTION IN WHICH ONE TYPE OF ATOM OR A GROUP OF ATOMS TAKES THE PLACE OF
ANOTHER IS CALLED A SUBSTITUTION REACTION. EXAMPLE: A REACTION INVOLVING SATURATED
HYDROCARBONS WHERE HYDROGEN BY CHLORINE IN THE PRESENCE OF SUNLIGHT
19. ALCOHOL
20. ETHANOL IS LIQUID IN ROOM TEMPERATURE, MELTING POINT 156 K, BOILING POINT 351 K, GOOD
SOLVENT, SOLUBLE IN WATER,
21. MICELLES ARE CLUSTER OF SOAP MOLECULES FORMING STRUCTURE IN WHICH THE
HYDROPHOBIC TAILS ARE IN THE INTERIOR OF THE CLUSTER AND THE IONIC ENDS ON THE
SURFACE.SOAP IN THE FORM OF MICELLES IS ABLE TO CLEAN OILY DIRT SUSPENDED INSIDE IT.
22. CLEANSING ACTION OF SOAP: THE MOLECULES OF SOAP ARE SODIUM OR POTASSIUM SALTS OF
LONG-CHAIN CARBOXYLIC ACIDS.THE IONIC-END OF SOAP INTERACTS WITH WATER WHILE THE
CARBON CHAIN INTERACTS WITH OIL. THE SOAP MOLECULES THUS FORM STRUCTURES CALLED
MICELLES WHERE ONE END OF THE MOLECULES IS TOWARDS THE OIL DROPLET WHILE THE IONIC-
ENDS FACES OUTSIDE. THIS FORMS AN EMULSION IN WATER. THE SOAP MICELLE THUS HELPS IN
PULLING OUT THE DIRT IN WATER.
23. SOAP, DETERGENTS, INK, NEWSPAPER, PENCIL LEAD, CHARCOAL etc
24. HYDROPHILIC: SURFACE OF A SUBSTANCE THAT HAVE HIGH AFFINITY AND READILY DISSOLVES
AND INTERACT IN WATER. HYDROPHOBIC: SURFACE OF SUBSTANCE THAT HAS LOW AFFINITY AND
DRAWS AWAY FROM WATER.

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Chapter 5 - Periodic classification of elements
1. (a) Atomic radii decreases in moving from left to right along a period due to increase in nuclear charge
which pull the electrons closer to the nucleus and reduces the size of the atom
(b) Li: most metallic F: most non-metallic
2. Atomic size goes on decreasing along a period from left to right. It is due to increased nuclear charge
because of which force of attraction between the nucleus and valence electrons increases therefore
atomic size decreases, so Na is bigger in size than Mg.
(b) (i) Most metallic element: Na
Metallic character decreases along a period due to decrease in tendency to lose electrons.
(ii) Most non-metallic element: Cl
Non-metallic character increases along a period from left to right due to increase in tendency to gain
electrons.

3. (A) metallic character decreases along the period and therefore A is non metal since it is in group 17.

(B) As we move along the period from left to right atomic size goes on decreasing and therefore element
B has larger atomic size than element C.

(C) element C has a valency of 1 because it is in group 7 and has 7 electrons in its outermost shell. Since
it requires only 1 electron to complete its octet, therefore it has valency of 1.
4. Mendeleev arranged the elements on the basis of their atomic mass.

Physical properties...

Melting and boiling point were used as the physical characteristics in deciding the position of elements.

Chemical Properties...

He arranged the elements and wrote the formula of their oxides and hydrides which seemed to possess
same chemical formula.

5. The challenge were

Position of isotopes(which had same atomic mass)

The atomic mass was not increasing at each interval(coblat was placed before nickle)

Position of hydrogen can't be determined

6. As we move along the period from left to right atomic size goes on decreasing and therefore Atomic
size of Mg is less than Na.
As we move down the group, reactivity decreases and therefore fluorine is more reactive than chlorine.
7. Due to discovery of different elements, it was difficult to organize the information and properties of
the elements, so there was a strong need to find some pattern in the properties of
different elements so that they can be grouped. That's why we classify elements.

8. Atomic mass and similarity of chemical properties ( compounds formed by elements with oxygen
and hydrogen )were the two criteria used by Mendeleev in his Periodic Table.

9. Mendeleev left some gaps in his Periodic Table as he predicted the existence of some elements that
had not been discovered at that time.

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10. Noble gases like helium, neon, argon etc. were not mentioned in Mendeleev's Preiodic Table
because these gases were discovered later as they are very inert andpresent in extremely low
concentrations in our atmosphere . After the discovery of noble gases they could be placed in a new
group without disturbing the existing order of the Periodic Table.

11. The two isotopes of chlorine Cl-35 and Cl-37 would be placed in different slots of Mendeleev's
Periodic Table as both have different atomic masses. But the two isotopes have same chemical
properties so would also be placed in the same slot. This is a contradiction. Thus position of isotopes of
an element is not defined in Mendeleev's Periodic Table.

12. Atomic mass of Na=7+39/2=46/2=23

13. The system of classification of elements into triads was not found suitable because it failed to
arrange all the then known elements in the form of triads of elements having similar chemical
properties. Only three triads from the elements known at that time could be identified

14. ‘Properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic masses.’
Achievements:
(i) It could classify all the elements discovered at that time.
(ii) It helped in the discovery of new elements.
(iii) it helped in the correction of the atomic mass of some elements.
15. Repetition of properties after a certain interval is called periodicity of properties. If elements are
arranged in increasing order of their atomic number in the periodic table, then elements repeat
its properties after a definite interval. This repetition of properties is known as periodicity of properties

16. The elements in a given group possesses similar electronic configuration, as the number of
electrons in the respective outermost shells is the same. So, they have similar physical and
chemical properties.

17. As we move from left to right across a period in the periodic table, the tendency to gain
electron increases. ... As a result, the effective nuclear charge acting on the valence electrons increases.
Hence, the tendency to gain electrons increases.

18. (b) Calcium

19. (d) 2nd group

20. (b) Mg

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 CHAPTER 6- LIFE PROCESSES
ANSWER 1-
a. Lymph supplies mature lymphocytes to the blood.
b. Lymph acts to remove bacteria and other particles.
c. It also maintains fluid balance.
d. Lymph carries digested and absorbed fat from the intestine and drains excess fluid from
extracellular space back into the blood.

ANSWER 2-
Haemoglobin in the blood carries oxygen from the respiratory organs to the rest of the body. There it
releases the oxygen to permit aerobic respiration to provide energy to power the functions of the
organism in the process called metabolism.

ANSWER 3-
Excretion is carried out in the plants in the following ways:
a. The gaseous wastes, oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water vapour are removed through
the stomata of leaves and lenticels of stems.
b. Some waste products collect in the leaves and bark of trees.
c. When the leaves and bark are shed, the wastes are eliminated

ANSWER 4-
To prove the necessity of sunlight in photosynthesis following steps need to do
a. Take a plant with destarched leaf.
b. Leaf is partially covered with black paper on which a design is cut.
c. Expose this plant to sunlight for few hours and perform a starch test with iodine solution.

Observation-
a. Covered leaf part shows brown coloration.
b. Exposed leaf shows a blue-black color.

Result- Starch is present in the exposed leaf.

Conclusion- Leaf exposed to sunlight give iodine test, proving that sunlight is necessary for
photosynthesis.

ANSWER 5-
Translocation in plants occurs in the vascular tissue known as phloem. Translocation is the movement
of materials from leaves to other tissue throughout the plants. Without translocation, the food
prepared by the plant can’t reach other parts of the plant. The translocation of food (carbohydrates)
occurs in the sieve tubes with the help of companion cells.

ANSWER 6-
Basics of Plant Respiration. The process of respiration in plants involves using the sugars produced
during photosynthesis plus oxygen to produce energy for plant growth. ... Respiration takes place in the
mitochondria of the cell in the presence of oxygen, which is called "aerobic respiration"

ANSWER 7-

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Transpiration pull responsible for upward movement of water and minerals. This upward movement is
called ascent of sap. it is responsible for the cohesion - adhesion which leads to transpiration of water
from the leaves.

ANSWER 8-
Within the lungs, the air passage divides into smaller and smaller tubes which finally terminate in
balloon like structures called alveoli. The alveoli provide a surface where the exchange of gases can take
place. The 2 lungs together have about 300-500 million alveoli. The walls of the alveoli are supplied
with an extensive network of blood vessels. So lungs maximise the area for gaseous exchange through
the presence of large number of alveoli which are richly supplied with blood.

ANSWER 9-
The maintenance function of living organisms must go on even when they are not doing anything
particular. The various processes essential for maintaining life are nutrition, respiration, transportation,
excretion, control and coordination. In absence of any one of these, the life become, difficult.

ANSWER 10-

ANSWER 11-
The following raw materials are required for photosynthesis:
a. Carbon Dioxide – Plants get CO2 from atmosphere through stomata.
b. Water – Plants absorb water from soil through roots and transport to leaves.
c. Sunlight – Sunlight, which is absorbed by the chlorophyll and other green parts of the plant.

ANSWER 12-
Small intestine in human body has numerous villi which looks as tiny projections that helps to absorb
the digested food.

ANSWER 13-
Animals living in water need use the oxygen dissolved in water. However the amount of dissolved
oxygen is fairly low compared to the amount of oxygen in the air. Hence, the aquatic organisms has
much faster rate of breathing. Terrestrial organisms, on the other hand, obtain oxygen from the oxygen

315
- rich atmosphere through respiratory organs. So, they breathe at a lesser rate than aquatic
organisms. Thus terrestrial organisms can facilitate better utilization of food by way of respiration.

ANSWER 14-
Breaking down of glucose involves two processes. In the first step, it is broken into three carbon
molecules called pyruvate. The pyruvate is further broken down into energy in following different ways
in various organisms.
1) Aerobic respiration: In this case pyruvate is broken down into water and carbon dioxide along with
release of energy. It commonly occurs in mitochondria of cells.
2) Anaerobic respiration in yeast: In yeast cells during fermentation pyruvate is converted into ethanol
and C02 in the absence of 02.
3) Anaerobic respiration in muscles: Due to lack of oxygen, eg. During vigorous running or exercise, in
human muscles, pyruvate is converted to lactic acid.

ANSWER 15-
The components of the transport system in human beings are the heart, blood, and blood vessels. The
function of the heart is to pump oxygenated blood throughout the body and receives deoxygenated
blood from the various body parts and sends this impure blood to the lungs for oxygenation. Blood has
three main functions: transport, protection, and regulation. Blood transports the following substances:
Gases, namely oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2), between the lungs and rest of the body. Nutrients
from the digestive tract and storage sites to the rest of the body. The function of blood vessels is to
transport blood throughout the body.

ANSWER 16-
Both mammals and birds are warm-blooded animals i.e. they maintain a constant body temperature
despite the changes in the surrounding temperature.
Therefore, it is necessary to keep the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separate to maintain
constant body temperature.
It also helps in easy circulation of oxygen to different body parts and carries carbon dioxide from
different body parts as waste material to expel out of the body.

ANSWER 17-
The removal of the waste products of metabolism from living organisms is called as excretion. In plants,
waste products are removed by diffusion. Plants, excrete oxygen, a product of photosynthesis. Plants
get rid of water by transpiration. Waste products may be stored in vacuoles or may be stored in leaves
which fall off. Resins and gums are stored in xylem which are harmless to trees. When the leaves and
bark are shed, the wastes are eliminated.

ANSWER 18-
The total amount of urine produced in humans is regulated by the presence of:
a. The total amount of water.
b. The total amount of dissolved nitrogenous wastes present in the urine
c. Certain hormones that help in controlling the movement of water and sodium ions into and
out of the nephrons.

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ANSWER 19-

Organisms that undergo these kinds of respiration

Aerobic respiration: Most of the plants and animals, birds, humans, and other mammals.
Anaerobic respiration: Fermentation in yeast

ANSWER 20-
Alveoli are tiny air sacs present in the lungs with the appearance of a bunch of grapes. These are also
known as pulmonary alveoli. They mainly facilitate the exchange of gases. Whereas, nephrons are
divided into renal corpuscle and renal tubule. These are mainly concerned with blood filtration.

ANSWER 21-
Plants take in oxygen at night-time and give out the carbon dioxide produced by respiration. ... But at
night photosynthesis stops and respiration carries on. Animals take in oxygen by through lungs by
internal respiration and cellular respiration takes place inside the animal body and release carbon
dioxide.

ANSWER 22-
The haemoglobin is very important component of our blood which helps to conduct the oxygen in our
body.
But the deficiency of haemoglobin can cause various problems, some of them are;
1) Extreme body weakness is the major problem.
2) Deficiency of oxygen in our body
3) Extreme deficiency of haemoglobin can even cause death.

ANSWER 23-
The plant could not remain healthy because it because blockage of stomata, as petroleum jelly will not
let the air to pass through and will make the stomata unable to respire and the petroleum jelly absorbs
heat this will adversely affect the plant and will harm its leaves and stomata's. The chemical
composition of Vaseline contains the residue and compounds of petrol and its product which is very
harmful for the plants and these composition can dry up a potted plant if applied on their leaves.

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ANSWER 24-
The large globules of fats are broken down by bile salts into smaller globules. The pancreas secretes
pancreatic juice which contains lipase for breaking down emulsified fats. The enzymes in intestinal juice
finally converts these fats into fatty acids and glycerol. The process takes place in small intestine.

ANSWER 25-
In highly organized plants, transport system consists of vascular tissue, namely xylem and phloem

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 CHAPTER-7 CONTROL AND COORDINATION

1. MOVEMENT IN ANIMALS INVOLVES MUSCULAR TISSUES AND SYSTEM CALLED THE NERVOUS
SYSTEM THAT PROVIDE CONTROL AND COORDINATION IN ANIMALS
2. SENSE ORGANS
3. TASTE
4. SUDDEN ACTION IN RESPONSE TO SOMETHING IN THE ENVIRONMENT
5. UPON RESPONSE TOWARDS HEAT, CONNECTION BETWEEN NERVE AND MUSCLE IS CALLED A
REFLEX ARC. THE PROCESS OF DETECTING THE SIGNAL OR THE INPUT AND RESPONDING TO IT BY
AN OUTPUT ACTION MIGHT BE COMPLETED QUICKLY. SUCH A CONNECTION IS CALLED A REFLEX
ARC
6. VOLUNTARY ACTION: DRAWING AWAY WHILE TOUCHING A HOT PAN. INVOLUNTARY ACTION:
HEART BEAT, SALIVATION
7. FORE BRAIN
8. MID-BRAIN AND HIND BRAIN
9. APART FROM SPINAL CORD, THE BRAIN CONSTITUTE THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM WHICH
RECEIVES INFORMATIO FROM ALL PARTS OF THE BODY AND INTEGRATE IT. THE FORE BRAIN IS
THE MAIN THINKING PART OF THE BRAIN. MANY OF THE INVOLUNTARY ACTIONS ARE
CONTROLLED BY THE MID-BRAIN AND HIND-BRAIN
10. COORDINATION IN PLANTS SHOWS TWO DIFFERENT TYPES OF MOVEMENT-IMMEDIATE
RESPONSE TO STIMULI BY CHANGING THE AMOUNT OF WATER RESULTING IN SWELLING OR
SHRINKING AND BY MOVEMENT DUE TO GROWTH TRIGGERED BY LIGHT, GRAVITY, SUPPORT etc.
11. CHEMICAL PRODUCE BY PLANTS WHICH REGULATES MOVEMENT AND GROWTH IN PLANTS.
EXAMPLE AUXIN, GIBBERELLINS, CYTOKININ
12. HYDROTROPISM – WHEN PLANTS SHOW TROPISM IN RESPONSE TO WATER IT IS CALLED
HYDROTROPISM. EXAMPLE PLANT ROOT GROWING TOWARDS MOISTURE OR HIGH HUMIDITY
LEVEL
13. ADRENALINE
14. FUNCTION OF ADRENALINE: TARGETS ORGANS OR SPECIFIC TISSUES ON WHICH IT ACTS INCLUDE
THE HEART. AS A RESULT, HEART BEATS FASTER, RESULTING IN SUPPLY OF MORE OXYGEN,
INCREASE BREATHING RATE, CONTRACTION OF DIAPHRAGM AND THE RIB MUSCLES ETC
ENABLING THE BODY TO BE READY AND DEAL WITH SITUATION.
15. HYPOTHALAMUS PLAYS AN IMPORTANT ROLE IN THE RELEASE OF MANY HORMONES. EXAMPLE
RELEASE GROWTH HORMONES WHICH STIMULATE THE PITUITARY GLAND TO RELEASE GROWTH
HORMONE.
16. GRWOTH HORMONE- STIMULATES GROWTH, INSULIN- REGULATES BLOOD SUGAR LEVEL.
TESTOSTERONE-PRODUCTION OF MALE SEX HORMONES, DEVELOPMENT OF MALE SEX ORGANS
MUSCLE MASS etc. ESTROGEN- DEVELOPMENT OF FEMALE SEX ORGANS, REGULATES MENSTRUAL
CYCLE, etc. ADRENALINE- ENABLES BODY TO BE READY AND DEAL WITH SITUATION- FASTER
HEART BEAT, BREATHING etc. RELEASING HORMONES- STIMULATES PITUITARY TO RELEASE
HORMONES.
17. IODINE
18. A SYNAPSE IS A SMALL GAP AT THE END OR TIP OF NEURON.
19. THE RESPONSE OF PLANTS TOWARDS LIGHT.
20. FEEDBACK MECHANISM
21. A MECHANISM IN WHICHT THE TIMING AND AMOUNT OF HORMONE RELEASE ARE REGULATED IS
CALLED FEEDBACK MECHANISM. EXAMPLE: INSULIN PRODUCTION WHEN BLOOD SUGAR FALLS

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 CHAPTER 8- HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE
1. Reproduction is the process by which new individuals are produced by the parents. The process of
reproduction ensures that a plant or animal species does not disappear from Earth. This process is very
important in maintaining stability in the ecosystem and for the continuation of life on earth. Had there
been no reproduction, all the species would have become extinct.
Importance of Reproduction
• Reproduction maintains a balance between the birth rate and death rate.

• The new individuals replace the old and the dying population.

• It also helps in increasing the number of species in the ecosystem.

• The genes are transmitted from the parents to the offspring.

• This leads to the evolution of species.

• Variations in species and their ability to survive in different environments is the result of
reproduction.

2. Variations are important for species survival because variation causes the organism to overcome
extreme situations. Organism species occupy well-defined positions in the ecosystem, utilizing their
reproductive capacity.
Variation is indeed beneficial to the species.
Even so, for factors beyond the control of the species, such locations will alter and can even destroy
the entire species. If any differences in all of these species were to be found in a few individuals, they
would have a chance of surviving.
• Variations can be beneficial or harmful according to the ecological niche of the organism.
• A variation suitable for the particular niche is selected by nature in evolution. Thus, variations are
necessary for the survival of the species.
• Variation is important for the evolution of the species.
• Variations are beneficial to the species than individuals because sometimes, survival will be difficult
for a species under certain environmental conditions. For example, if the water temperature is
increased suddenly, the microorganisms living in the water will die soon, and some percentage will
survive due to the heat withstanding capacity. Thus, if variations are not there, all the
microorganism would have been destroyed.

3. a. Fission and fragmentation

Fragmentation is the mode of asexual reproduction in which multicellular organism splits into two or
more fragments, which survive as new individual e.g., Spirogyra.
Fission is the mode of asexual reproduction in which unicellular organisms split into two (binary) or
more (multiple) daughter cells, which survive as individuals e.g., Amoeba (binary fission) and
Plasmodium (multiple fission).
b. Budding and regeneration
Regeneration:
Small broken parts or cut of the organisms body grow or regenerate into separate individuals.
Lizards cast off their tails to escape predators & then regenerate them.
Planaria can be cut into any number of pieces and each piece grows into a complete organism.

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Budding:
In budding small parts of the body of the parent grows out as a bud which then detaches and become
a new organism.
Hydra reproduces by budding using the regenerative cells. A bud develops as an outgrowth in Hydra
due to repeated cell division at one specific site. When fully mature, the bud detaches itself from the
parent body and develops into new independent individuals.
4. Regeneration happens through mitosis and a particular type of tissue can give rise to its own kind
only. In complex organisms, different tissues and organs have altogether different structures.
Regenerating a different kind of tissue from another kind is not possible. So complex multicellular
organisms cannot give rise to new organism because the tissue and specialised cell make up the organs
in the body. Due to this high degree of specialisation, multicellular organisms cannot reproduce by
regeneration of a part of some tissue. They indeed have organization of their organs system at different
levels. All these organ systems are interconnected and work in full coordination. They can regenerate
a few of their lost body parts like skin, blood, muscles, etc. but can’t give rise to new individuals.
5.
Pollination Fertilisation
Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from an Fertilization is defined as the biological process in
anther to a stigma of a carpel. which the fusion of the male and the female
gamete occurs.

Pollen can be transferred by an animal or by the Fertilization occurs once the pollen grain reaches
wind. the stigma, it produces a pollen tube, which
grows down through the style to the ovary.

The process can be done by the plant itself or For flowering plants, there can be no fertilization
through outside agents. if there is no pollination. However, fertilization
applies to almost every organism in this world.

6. In amoeba, splitting of the cell into two during cell divison can take place in any plane. Leishmania
has a whip like structure at one end of the cell, hence binary fission occurs in a definite orientation in
relation to this structure.
7.
Sexual Reproduction Asexual Reproduction
Two parents are involved. One parent is involved.

Characteristics of both parents are inherited. Characteristics of only one parent are inherited.

It requires the formation of gametes. It doesn’t require the formation of gametes.

Special organs for reproduction are required. Special organs for reproduction are not required.
Examples – Potato, Jasmine, Rose, Yeast,
Examples – Mangoes, coconut, Hibiscus etc. Bryophyllum etc

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The disadvantages of asexual reproduction include:
• It does not lead to genetic variation in a population.
• The species may only be suited to one habitat.
• Disease may affect all the individuals in a population.

Advantage of sexual reproduction:

The advantages of sexual reproduction:
• Produces genetic variation in the offspring.
• The species can adapt to new environments due to variation, which gives them a survival
advantage.
• A disease is less likely to affect all the individuals in a population.

8. Here hibiscus and mustard are bisexual and watermelon and papaya are unisexual. The reason for
the same is that the flower that have either male or female sexual organ is called unisexual flower and
the flower that has both male and female sexual organ is called bisexual flower.
9.

Female Reproductive Organ Male Reproductive Organ

10.
a) When the egg is not fertilized, the thick uterus lining breaks down and the blood, tissues, and
the unfertilized egg come out of the vagina commonly known as menstruation. When the egg
is not fertilized the menstrual cycle takes place as the egg is shredded off from the body.
b) The Copper -T can remain in your body for as long as 10 years. Itis more effective than most
other forms of birth control. However, it does not protect against sexually transmitted diseases
(STDs).

11. Role of
a. The seminal vesicle and the prostate glands add their secretions so that the sperm are in a fluid that
makes their transport easier, and this fluid also provides nutrition.
b. A bilobed structure that surrounds the urethra close to its origin from the bladder. It pours an alkaline
secretion into the semen as it passes through the urethra. Its secretions activate the sperms and
prevent the semen from coagulating.
c. Ovaries act as the main female sex organs that produce the female gamete and various hormones.
These organs are situated one on both the side of the lower abdomen. Each ovary measures about 2
to 4 cm in length which is then connected to the uterus and pelvic wall through ligaments. They produce

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oocytes (eggs) for fertilisation and they produce the reproductive hormones, oestrogen and
progesterone. The ovaries release an egg (oocyte) at the midway point of each menstrual cycle.
d. The main function of the fallopian tube is to collect the mature ovum from ovaries and provide
passage to the fertilized ovum to reach the uterus for implantation. The fertilisation of the ovum with
sperm takes place in the ampulla region of the fallopian tube.
12. The different methods of contraception available are Natural/Traditional methods, Barriers, IUDs
(IntraUterine Devices), Oral contraceptives, Implants, Injectables, and surgical methods.
13. Reproduction is directly linked to the stability of the population of species because it helps in
replacing the ageing population with the new population and thus ensures the survival of the species.
In the absence of reproduction one particular species will disappear with time.
14. The main reasons of poverty are stated below:
• Increase rate of rising population.
• Less productivity in agriculture.
• Less utilization of resources.
• A short rate of economic development.
• Increasing price rise.
• Unemployment.
• Shortage of capital and able entrepreneurship.
• Social factors.

15. Type of reproduction:

a. Spore formation
b. Vegetative propagation
16. Pollination is a method where pollen grains are picked from an anther, which is the male part of a
flower and transferred to the flower’s female part called the stigma.
Types of Pollination
All plants having flowers completely rely on pollination method for reproduction. There are 2 types of
pollination –
• Self-Pollination: elf-pollination occurs when pollen grains fall directly from anther into the stigma
of the flower.
• Cross-Pollination: It refers to a complex type of pollination that allows the transfer of pollen grains
from the anther of the flower into the stigma of another flower.

Significance of pollination:
• Pollination is a significant process as it helps in fertilisation by bringing the male gamete closer to
the female and allowing their fusion. It, therefore, helps in the production of seeds and fruits and
thereby help in reproduction as the seeds formed helps in generation of new offsprings.

17. Tissue culture is a technique in which fragments of plants are cultured and grown in a laboratory.
Many times, the organs are also used for tissue culture. The media used for the growth of the culture
is broth and agar. Importance of tissue culture is:
• Tissue culture is very important in biology due to its wide range of applications.
• Both plant and animal tissues can be used for culturing. For eg., animal tissue culture helps in
preserving an organ or tissue.

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• Plant tissue culture may be used for genetic modification of a plant or simply increase its yield. the
cells of the plants can be genetically altered to produce plants with desirable characteristics.
• This technique utilizes the plant’s ability to rejuvenate the tissues rapidly. It produces exact copies
of itself known as clones.
• It is a technique of quickly producing plants without any tubers, seeds or bulbs.
• It also helps in the conservation of plant biodiversity by the production of endangered plants.

18. Fertilization is defined as the biological process in which the fusion of the male and the female
gamete occurs. The process of fertilization involves the following steps:
• The sperms are released from the male reproductive organ called the penis.
• The sperm enters the female body through one of the parts of her reproductive organ called the
vagina.
• Then the sperm travels through the fallopian tubes and meets the egg produced by the female
organs.
• The process of fertilization takes place in fallopian tubes.
• The first step in the process of reproduction is the fusion of a sperm and an ovum.
• During fertilization, the nuclei of the sperm and the egg fuse to form a single nucleus. This results
in the formation of a fertilized egg or zygote.
• The zygote is the beginning of a new individual.

Fertilization thus results in the formation of a zygote which begins to develop into an embryo.
19. The testes is located outside the abdominal cavity because sperm formation requires a temperature
lower than the body temperature. It is because scrotum has a temperature 1-3 degree Celsius lower
than the normal body temperature, which is essential for the production of sperm or male gametes.
20. Role of Villi on the walls of placenta is that it allows the transfer of nutrients, and other material
from the mother’s blood to fetus. Chronic Villi helps for digestion and respiration processes and also, it
provides maximum contact area with maternal blood.

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Chapter 9 - heredity and evolution
1. A gene is a basic unit of heredity and a sequence of nucleotides in DNA or RNA that
encodes the synthesis of a gene product, either RNA or protein

2. Analogous, organs have different developmental origin and structural design but
perform similar function,e.g. the wings of birds and insects are analogous

3. organs indicating that they have different, ancestors but have a convergent evolution.
In this way, analogous organ supports the theory of organic evolution

4. Sex chromosome, either of a pair of chromosomes that determine whether an

individual is male or female.

5. Evolution is change in the heritable characteristics of biological populations over

successive generations. These characteristics are the expressions of genes that are
passed on from parent to offspring during reproduction.

6. Speciation is the evolution of reproductive isolation among once-interbreeding

populations, i.e. the development of one or more species from an existing species.
(ii) Natural selection is the process, according to Darwin, which brings about the
evolution of new species of animals and plants.

7. An autosome is any of the numbered chromosomes, as opposed to the

sex chromosomes. Humans have 22 pairs of autosomes and one pair of
sex chromosomes (the X and Y). Autosomes are numbered roughly in relation to their
sizes.

8. The DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate in the reproduction process results in
variations in populations for the survival of species. If the variation are more drastic
then the DNA will not be able to function properly leading to the death of the cell.

9. During reproduction, copying of DNA is necessary, because: - DNA replication ensures

that an equivalent amount of DNA is obtained by each daughter cell produced at the
end of the cell division. - If DNA is not replicated then the cells of the daughter will not
obtain all the requisite genes.

10. A genetic trait is considered dominant if it is expressed in a person who has only one
copy of that gene. A dominant trait is opposed to a recessive trait which is expressed
only when two copies of the gene are present.

11. A recessive trait is the weak, unexpressed trait of a dichotomous pair

of alleles (dominant-recessive) that has no effect in the phenotype of heterozygous
individuals.

12. (b) heredity

13. (c) variation

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14. (d)

15. (a) phenotype

16. (c) hybrid plant

17. (a) Charles Darwin

18. (d) different functions but the same structure

19. (d) gene

20. (e) none of the above

21. (b)

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 CHAPTER 10-LIGHT- REFLECTION AND REFRACTION

ANSWER 1-
Power of lens is known as the inverse of the focal length of the lens measured in meter (m).
S.I unit of power = Dioptre (D)

ANSWER 2-
Lenses are basically magnifying glasses with curved sides. A lens is a piece of transparent glass which
concentrates or disperses light rays when passes through them by refraction.
1. Convex lens:
2. (1)The converging lens in air.
3. (2)The principal focus behind the lens.
4. (3)Used as magnifying lens.
5. (4)Forms both real and virtual images.
6.
7. Concave lens:
(1)The diverging lens in air
(2)Principal focus is in front of lens.
3) Used in projectors.
4) Only form virtual image.

ANSWER 3-
8.

ANSWER 4- Uses of a concave mirror:

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1. In torch, search light, head lights etc. concave mirror is used as reflector.

2. It is used as dentist's head mirror.

Uses of a convex mirror:

1. It is used as reflector in street lamps.

2. It is used as a rear view mirror in vehicles.

ANSWER 5-

Laws of refraction:

1. The incident ray, the normal to any refracting surface at the point of incidence, and the
refracted ray all lie in the same plane called the plane of incidence or plane of refraction.
2. The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the angle of refraction is always constant.

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ANSWER 6-
Light is a form of energy that causes the sensation of vision. Different theories on the nature of light
were proposed on the basis of the fact that energy can be transferred from one point to another, either
by particle motion or by wave motion.
The important properties of light –

• Light travels in a straight line.

• The speed of light is faster than sound. Light travels at a speed of 3 x 108 m/s.

ANSWER 7-

When a beam of rays starting from a point source of light suffers a change in direction due to reflection
or refraction, and the reflected or refracted rays actually converge or appear to diverge from another
point, then the second point is called the optical image of the first point.

ANSWER 8-
Pole: The centre of a spherical mirror is called its pole.
Centre of curvature: Centre of curvature of a spherical mirror is the centre of the hollow sphere of a
glass of which the mirror is a part.

ANSWER 9—

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Principal axis: The straight line passing through the centre of curvature and pole of a spherical mirror
is called its principal axis
Focal length of the spherical mirror is defined as the distance of pole of mirror from the point on the
axis of the mirror at which the rays, parallel to the principle axis, appear to converge.

ANSWER 10-

1/F = 1/V+ 1/U

ANSWER 11-

Suppose an object is placed u cm in front of a spherical mirror of focal length f such that the image is
formed v cm from the mirror, then u, v and f are related by the equation;

1/f= 1/u + 1/v.

This equation is referred to as the mirror formula. The formula holds for both concave and convex
mirrors.

ANSWER 12-
The refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first medium is given by the ratio of
the magnitude of the velocity of light in medium first to that in 2nd medium.

ANSWER 13-

ANSWER 14-

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 A concave mirror can produce a magnified image of an object when it is placed:

1. Within its pole and its focus.

2. In between its focus and its centre of curvature.

ANSWER 15-
• Image formed by a plane mirror is always virtual and erect.
• The size of the image is equal to that of the object.
• The image formed is as far behind the mirror as the object is in front of it.
• The image is laterally inverted.

ANSWER 16-
The +ve sign of the power indicates that the lens is a converging lens or convex lens, whereas the
negative sign of the power indicates that the lens is concave or diverging lens.

The S.I unit of the power is Dioptre or 1/metre.

Power = 1/focal length (in m)

ANSWER 17-
Position of image: Beyond the centre of curvature.
Size of image: Magnified
Nature of image: Real and inverted

ANSWER 18-

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ANSWER 19-
i. Rear view mirrors: Convex mirrors are used.
Reason: (a) They produce virtual and erect image of the objects.
(b) They have a wider field of view as they are curved outwards.
ii. Shaving mirrors: Concave mirrors are used.
Reason: (a) Image formed is magnified so as to see the details of the object clearly.
(b) Image formed is virtual and erect when the object is placed close to the mirror.

ANSWER 20-
Concave mirrors are used by dentists and in solar furnaces.

• Concave mirrors are used by dentists because these mirrors give clear and real images.

• Concave mirrors provide the dental specialists to see the movement points of the tooth in an
amplified shape.

• Concave mirrors used in solar furnaces because these mirrors help in pointing the sun's light on the
furnace.

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 CHAPTER-11 THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD

1. CILIARY MUSCLES, CRYSTALLINE LENS PUPIL, IRIS, CORNEA, RETINA, OPTIC NERVE, VITREOUS
HUMOUR, AQUEOUS HUMOUR.
2. CORNEA
3. RETINA
4. IRIS
5. THE ABILITY OF THE EYE LENS TO ADJUST ITS FOCAL LENGTH IS CALLED ACCOMODATION
6. SOMETIMES, THE CRYSTALLINE LENS OF PEOPLE AT OLD AGE BECOMES MILKY AND CLOUDY. THIS
CONDITION IS CALLED CATARACT
7. THE MEASUREMENT OF CURVATURE OF EYE.
8. MYOPIA OR NEAR-SIGHTEDNESS, HYPERMETROPIA OR FAR-SIGHTEDNESS AND PRESBYOPIA
9. NEAR POINT OF THE EYE- THE MINIMUM DISTANCE AT WHICH OBJECTS CAN BE SEEN MOST
DISTINCTLY WITHOUT STRAIN IS CALLED THE LEAST DISTANCE OF DISTINCT VISION OR NEAR POINT
OF THE EYE. FAR POINT OF THE EYE- THE FARTHEST POINT UPTO WHICH THE EYE CAN SEE
OBJECTS CLEARLY IS CALLED THE FAR POINT OF THE EYE.
10. MYOPIA IS A TYPE OF COMMON REFRACTIVE DEFECTS OF VISION. MYOPIA IS ALSO KNOWN AS
NEAR-SIGHTEDNESS. A PERSON WITH MYOPIA CANNOT SEE DISTANT OBJECTS DISTINCTLY. IN A
MYOPIC EYE, THE IMAGE OF A DISTANT OBJECT IS FORMED INFRONT OF THE RETINA AND NOT ON
THE RETINA ITSELF.
11. HYPERMETROPIA- ALSO KNOWN AS FAR-SIGHTEDNESS. A PERSON CANNOT SEE NEARBY OBJECTS
DISTINCTLY. THE OBJECT IS FORMED BEHIND THE RETINA.
12. AN EYE DEFECT WHERE THE PERSON SUFFER FROM BOTH MYOPIA AND HYPERMETROPIA.
13. A CONCAVE LENS WILL BRING THE IMAGE BACK ON TO THE RETINA
14. CONVERGING LENS
15. BI-FOCAL LENS
16. IN A PRISM, THE ANGLE BETWEEN TWO LATERAL FACES IS CALLED THE ANGLE OF PRISM.
17. THE SPLITTING OF LIGHT INTO ITS COMPONENT COLOURS. EXAMPLE: DISPERSION OF WHITE
LIGHT BY THE GLASS PRISM, RAINBOW.
18. THE TWINKLING OF STARS IS DUE TO ATMOSPHERIC REFRACTION OF STARLIGHT.
19. THE ATMOSPHERIC REFRACTION OCCURS IN A MEDIUM OF GRADUALLY CHANGING REFRACTIVE
INDEX. THE TWINKLING OF STARS IS DUE TO ATMOSPHERIC REFRACTION OF STARLIGHT.SINCE THE
ATMOSPHERE BENDS STARLIGHT TOWARDS THE NORMAL, THE APPARENT POSITION OF THE STAR
IS SLIGHTLY DIFFERENT FROM ITS ACTUAL POSITION. ANOTHER EXAMPLE IS ADVANCE SUNRISE
AND DELAYED SUNSET DUE TO ATMOSPHERIC REFRACTION
20. PLANETS ARE MUCH CLOSER TO THE EARTH AS EXTENDED SOURCES; THEY ARE CLOSER AND
APPEARS LARGE. THE ATMOSPHERIC REFRACTION IS SMALLER THEREBY NULLIFYING THE
TWINKILING EFFECT.
21. THE PHENOMENON OF SCATTERING OF LIGHT BY THE COLLOIDAL PARTICLES GIVE RISE TO
TYNDALL EFFECT. EXAMPLE: FIRE BEAM OF SUNLIGHT ENTERING SMOKE-FILLED ROOM THROUGH
A SMALL HOLE, SUNLIGHT PASSING THROUGH TH CANOPY OF A DENSE FOREST.
22. THE COLOUR OF THE SKY IS BLUE DUE TO SCATTERING OF LIGHT. WHEN SUNLIGHT PASSES
THROUGH THE ATMOSPHERE, THE FINE PARTICLES IN AIR SCATTER THE BLUE COLOR (SHORTER
WAVELENGTHS MORE STRONGLY THAN RED.
23. NEAR THE HORIZON DURING SUNRISE AND SUNSET, MOST OF THE BLUE LIGHT AND SHORTER
WAVELENGHTS ARE SCATTERED AWAY BY THE PATICLES. THEREFORE, THE LIGHT THAT REACHES
OUR EYES IS OF LONGER WAVELENGTHS GIVING RISE TO REDDISH APPEARANCE OF THE SUN.

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 CHAPTER 12- ELECTRICITY
1. A circuit diagram is a graphical representation of an electrical circuit. A circuit diagram also called an
electrical diagram, elementary diagram or electronic schematic is defined as a simplified graphical
representation of an electrical circuit. Circuit diagrams are used for the design, construction and
maintenance of electrical and electronic equipment. The SI unit of electric current is the ampere, or
amp, which is the flow of electric charge across a surface at the rate of one coulomb per second.

2. Given parameters
Current (I) = 0.5 A
Time = 10 minutes
Time in minutes can be converted into seconds as follows
Time (t) = 10 × 60 = 600 sec
Q=I×t
Q = 0.5 × 600
Q = 300 C
3. Voltmeter is used to maintain a potential difference across a conductor.
The energy is given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 10 V battery is 10 J.
So,
Given that, q = 1 C; Potential V = 10 V
The energy is given to each coulomb of charge is equal to the amount of work required to move it. The
amount of work is given by the formula of potential difference
V = W/q
The work done is
W = qxV ……. (I)
Where, W = work done
V = potential difference
q = charge
Put the value of V and q in equation (I)
W = 10 x 1
W= 10 J
Hence, the energy given to each coulomb of charge passing through a 10 V battery is 10 J.

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4. a. Variable resistance or rheostat.

b. Wires crossing without joining.

c. A battery or a combination of cells.

5. Ohm’s law states the relationship between the current flowing through a metallic wire and the
voltage across its terminals. The law states that the current flowing through a conductor is directly
proportional to the voltage across it.
Mathematically, the law is represented as follows:
V = IR
where R is the constant for a given metallic wire known as resistance.
It can be graphically represented as:

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6. The resistance of the conductor depends on the following factors:
• The temperature of the conductor.
• The cross-sectional area of the conductor.
• Length of the conductor.
• Nature of the material of the conductor.

Electrical resistance is directly proportional to the length (L) of the conductor and inversely proportional
to the cross-sectional area (A). It is given by the following relation.
R=ρl/A
where ρ is the resistivity of the material (measured in Ωm, ohm meter)
Resistivity is a qualitative measurement of a material’s ability to resist flowing electric current.
Obviously, insulators will have a higher value of resistivity than of conductors.
7. (a) Here,
V = 220 V
R = 1200 Ω
So,
I = V/R
I = 220/1200
I = 0.183 A
(b) Here,
V = 220 V
R = 100 Ω
So,
I = V/R
I = 220/100
I = 2.2 A

8. Here,
l= 1m
R = 26 Ω

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d= 0.3 mm = 3 × 10-4 m
The resistivity of the given metallic wire is
ρ = (RA/l) = (Rπd2/4l)
So,
ρ = 26x3.14x (3x10-4)2 / 4x1
Substitution of values in this gives
ρ = 1.84 × 10–6 Ω m
The resistivity of the metal at 20°C is 1.84 × 10–6 Ω m. This is the resistivity of manganese.

9. Coils of electric toasters and electric irons made of an alloy rather than a pure metal due to the
following reasons: The resistivity of an alloy is higher than the pure metal. At high temperatures, the
alloys do not oxidize. Alloy does not melt readily and get deformed.

10.
Series Circuit Parallel Circuit
The same amount of current flows through all The current flowing through each component
the components. combines to form the current flow through the
source.
In an electrical circuit, components are arranged In an electrical circuit, components are arranged
in a line. parallel to each other.
When resistors are put in a series circuit, the When resistors are put in a parallel circuit, the
voltage across each resistor is different even voltage across each of the resistors is the same.
though the current flow is the same through all Even the polarities are the same.
of them.
If one component breaks down, the whole circuit Other components will function even if one
will burn out. component breaks down, each has its own
independent circuit
If Vt is the total voltage then it is equal to If Vt is the total voltage then it is equal to
V1+V2+V3 V1=V2=V3

11. (a) The total resistance of the circuit =20Ω+4Ω=24Ω

(b) The current through the circuit= current through the bulb= current through the conductor.
The current through the circuit= The voltage of the battery/voltage applied
The current through the circuit = 24/6
The current through the circuit = 0.25 A
(c) The potential difference across the lamp and the conductor.
(i) The potential difference across the electrical lamp =0.25×20=5volt
(ii) The potential difference conductor =0.25×4=1 volt

12. There are three resistors of resistances 2 Ohm, 3 Ohm, and 6 Ohm respectively.
Let R₁ = 2 Ω
R₂ = 3 Ω
R₃ = 6 Ω
(a) Total resistance 4 ohm

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To obtain a total resistance of 4 Ω from three resistors of given resistances, Firstly, connect the two
resistors of 3Ω and 6Ω in parallel to get a total resistance of 2Ω which is less than the lowest individual
resistance.
When R2 and R3 are connected in parallel with R₁ in series we get
1/R = 1/R₂ + 1/R₃
1/R = 1/3 + 1/6
1/R = 1/2
R=2Ω
Resistance in series = R + R₁=2 + 2 = 4 Ω
Hence, the total resistance of the circuit is 4 Ω.
(b) To obtain a total resistance of 1Ω from three resistors of 2Ω, 3Ω and 6Q, all the three resistors should
be connected in parallel.
When R₁, R₂, R₃ are connected in parallel we get
1/R = 1/R₁ + 1/R₂ + 1/R₃
1/R = 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/6
1/R = 1 Ω.
Hence, the total resistance of the circuit is 1 Ω
13. What is the advantage of connecting the electrical devices in parallel with the battery instead of
connecting it in series.

14. Joule’s law is a mathematical expression of the rate at which resistance in a circuit turns electric
energy into heat energy. The heat produced because of the current flow in an electric wire is
represented in Joules.
The joule’s law of heat displays the connection between heat generated Via a conductor by flowing
electric current.
Q = I2 ✕ R ✕ T
Where
Q = Amount of heat
I = Electric current
R = Amount of electric resistance in the conductor
T = Time

15. Here,
Q= I2Rt
50 J = I2 × 2 ×1
50J = 2I2
I2 = 50/2
I2 = 25
I=5A
So current is 5 Ampere .
Potential difference i.e, V = IR
V = 5 × 2 = 10 volt
So, potential difference across the resistor = 10 volt

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16. The heater’s heating element is made up of an alloy that has very high resistance, so when current
flows through the heating element, it becomes too hot and glows red. But the cord’s resistance, which
is usually of copper or aluminium, is low, so it does not glow.

17. Let the length of resistance R be L

Let the resistance of each part after cutting be Rs
Since resistance is proportional to the length of the resistor,
Rs=R/5 – (a)
For resistors in parallel,
1/R′=1/R1+1/R2+1/R3+1/R4+1/R5
R′=Rs/5 - (b)
From (a) and (b),
R′=R/25
R/R′=25

18. Applications of heating effect of electric current

• Electric bulbs: The heating effect of electric current is utilised in electric bulbs (electric lamps)
for illumination. When electric current passes through a very thin, high resistance tungsten
filament of an electric bulb, the filament becomes white-hot and emits light.

• Electric Fuse: The heating effect of electric current is utilised in electric fuse for protecting
household wiring and electrical appliances. A fuse is a short length of a thin tinplated copper
or zinc wire having low melting point. The thin fuse wire has a lower resistance than the rest of
the electric wiring in a house. So, when the current in a household electric circuit rises too much
due to some reason, then the fuse wire gets heated too much, melts and breaks the circuit
(due to which the current stops flowing). This prevents the fire in house.

19. Resistivity (ρ) = 1.6 × 10-8 Ω m

Resistance (R) = 10 Ω
Diameter (d) = 0.5 mm
d = 5 × 10⁻⁴ m
Hence, we will get radius
Radius (r) = 0.25 mm
r = 0.25 × 10⁻³ m
r = 2.5 × 10⁻⁴ m
We need to find the area of cross-section
A = πr2
A = (22/7) (2.5 × 10⁻⁴)2
A = (22/7) (6.25×10⁻⁸)
A = 1.964 × 10-7 m2
Let length of wire be L.
We know that
R = ρ (L) / (A)
L = (R × A) / ρ
Substituting the values in the above equation we get

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L = (10 × 1.964 × 10⁻⁷) / 1.6 × 10⁻⁸ m
L = 1.964×10-6 /1.6 × 10-8
L = 122.72 m
If the diameter of the wire is doubled, the new diameter = 2 × 0.5 = 1mm = 0.001m
Let new resistance be R′
R = ρ (L) / (A)
R’ = ρ (L) / (4A)
R’ = ρ (L) X 1/(4A)
Hence, if diameter doubles, resistance becomes 1/4 times.
Therefore, the length of the wire is 122.7 m and the new resistance becomes 1/4 times.

20. Explain with proper reasoning:

(a) The metal tungsten is almost exclusively used for the filament of the electric lamp because it has a
very high melting point due to which it does not melt even when it is heated to high temperatures due
to the passage of electric current.
(b) In series circuits voltage is divided. Each component of a series circuit receives a small voltage so
the amount of current decreases and the device becomes hot and does not work properly. Hence, the
series arrangement is not used in domestic circuits.
(c) Electrical resistance is directly proportional to the length (L) of the conductor and inversely
proportional to the cross-sectional area (A). It is given by the following relation.
R = ρL/A,
where ρ is the resistivity of the material.
Resistance is inversely proportional to the area of cross-section. When the area of cross-section
increases the resistance decreases and vice versa.

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Chapter 13: Magnetic effect of electric current

1. To convert an AC generator into DC generator

a. split-ring type commutator must be used.
b. slip rings and brushes must be used.
c. a stronger magnetic field has to be used.
d. a rectangular wire loop has to be used.

2. Magnetic field, a vector field in the neighborhood of a magnet, electric current, or

changing electric field, in which magnetic forces are observable.

3. Heating effect of the current

4. Don't touch them directly. If you see someone come into contact with
electricity, do not touch them directly. Shut off the power, if possible. Separate them
from the source. Call for help.

5. Compass

6. Magnetic declination, Magnetic inclination or magnetic dip, and Horizontal component

(H).

7. The Earth's core contains conductive material, such as iron, that when exposed to an
electric current can produce magnetic fields. The electric currents are thought to be
created by convection currents due to heat escaping from the core.

8. Nipermag is an alloy of iron that contains nickel, aluminium and titanium.

9. Fuse wire is used to break the circuit when the load is high so that higher currents do
not damage the appliances. Complete step-by-step answer: Fuse is an essential
component is a metal wire or strip that melts when too much current flows through it,
thereby stopping or interrupting the current.

10. The magnetic field lines never intersect each other because if two or more lines
intersect each other than it means that at that point of intersection, the magnetic
field has two directions at the same point. This is not possible for a magnetic field to
point in more than one direction at the same point.

11. The sources are hydroelectric power plants, thermal power generators,nuclear power
generators, AC generators produce alternating current.

12. Some sources of direct current are cell, DC generator, etc. Dry cell, dry cell battery, car
battery

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13. The nature of the magnetic field lines around a straight current carrying conductor is
concentric circles with centre at the axis of the conductor. The direction of
the magnetic field lines of force around a conductor is given by the Maxwell's right
hand grip rule or the right handed corkscrew rule.

14. A galvanometer is an electromechanical measuring instrument for electric current.

15. An electric motor is an electrical machine that converts electrical energy into
mechanical energy. Most electric motors operate through the interaction between the
motor's magnetic field and electric current in a wire winding to generate force in the
form of torque applied on the motor's shaft.

16. The system used to generate electrical current is called a Generator. The generator
converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.

17. The magnetic field inside a long straight solenoid-carrying current is the same at all
points.

18. The direction of the induced current varies once every half revolution when a
rectangular coil is rotated in a magnetic field.

19. The essential difference between ac generator and DC generator is that

AX generator has a slip rings while the DC generator has commutator.

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 CHAPTER 14- SOURCES OF ENERGY

ANSWER 1- A non-renewable source of energy is defined as the source of energy which has
accumulated in nature over a very, very long time and cannot be quickly replaced when exhausted.
ANSWER 2- Coal, petroleum etc.
ANSWER 3- The fuel which is formed from the dead remains of plants and animals, million years ago.
ANSWER 4- Liquefied Petroleum Gas
ANSWER 5- Burning of fossil fuels produces heat that boils water the steam so produced is used to
rotate huge turbines that produces electricity.
ANSWER 6- The gases are sulphur dioxide and nitric oxide.
ANSWER 7- Hydropower is a renewable source of energy since, the water in the reservoirs can be
refilled each time by rainfall and the water can be reused to produce electricity.
ANSWER 8- When dams are built large areas of forests are submerged. When this submerged
vegetation undergoes anaerobic respiration, it releases gases like methane and CO2 which are
greenhouse gases. Thus it contributes to greenhouse effect.
ANSWER 9- Charcoal is made by burning wood in insufficient air .it is also known as coal.
ANSWER 10- Charcoal
ANSWER 11- Biogas refers to a mixture of different gases produced by the breakdown of organic matter
in the absence of oxygen
ANSWER 12- the minimum wind velocity required to obtain useful energy with a wind mill IS 20 KM /
HR
ANSWER 13- Solar cooker and solar heater.

ANSWER 14- The temperature range can be between 150 F (66 c) to 400 F (204 c)

ANSWER 15- it is because the large mass of the water in ocean and large amount of water.

ANSWER 16- tidal energy, hydro electricity

ANSWER 17- Hot spots are places within the mantle where rocks melt to generate magma.

ANSWER 18- Hydrogen bomb is based on nuclear fusion reaction which occurs due to the fusion of light
elements. So element A is suitable to make a hydrogen bomb.

ANSWER 19- Gases produced due to the burning of fossil fuels react with water vapours in air to
produce acids like carbonic acid, sulphuric acid and nitric acid. These acids come down to earth with
rain known as acid rain.

ANSWER 20- Gases produced due to burning of fossil fuels give rise to acids after reacting with water
vapours in air. For example.

CO2+ Water ———> Carbonic acid

SO2 + Water ——–> Sulphuric acid

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NO2+ Water ———> Nitric acid

These acids come down to the earth with rain. The rain containing these acids is called acid rain.

ANSWER 21- Chemical energy of fossil fuel is converted into heat energy. This heat energy is converted
into mechanical energy which is then converted into electrical energy.

ANSWER 22- In India, hydropower plants fulfils l/4th or 25% demand for the total energy requirement.
Hydro Power or Hydro Electric Power Plant: Flowing water is the major source of energy. The electricity
produced by the flowing water is known as hydro-electric power. A plant used to produce hydro-electric
power is known as hydro-electric power plant (For the generation of electric energy in hydropower
plant).

ANSWER 23-

A. A large area of fertile land is submerged in water at the site of the dam.
B. A large number of people residing near the site of dam are dislocated. Hence, lot of problems are
to be faced in rehabilitating this population.
C. A large number of plants and wild life in the area of the dam is submerged in water.

ANSWER 24- Dams are helpful to:

1. Control floods over rivers.

2. Generate hydroelectricity.
3. Irrigate agriculture land.
4. develop water sports for recreation
5. Develop fishing zones.

ANSWER 25- Biogas is used for cooking food and heating water. It is a good source of energy because

1. Biogas does not produce smoke during burning and hence there in no air pollution.
2. It is a cheaper source of energy.

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 CHAPTER 15 OUR ENVIRONMENT

1. ALL THE INTERACTING ORGANISMS IN AREA TOGETHER WITH THE NON-LIVING CONSTITUENTS OF
THE ENVIRONMENT.
2. BIOTIC AND ABIOTIC COMPONENTS
3. GARDENS, CROP FIELDS, AQUARIUM
4. IN AN ECOSYSTEM WERE ORGANISMS ARE GROUPED TOGETHER AS PRODUCERS, CONSUMERS
AND DECOMPOSERS ACCORDING TO THE MANNER IN WHICH THEY OBTAIN THEIR SUSTENANCE
FROM THE ENVIRONMENT IS CALLED A SELF-SUSTAINING SYSTEM.
5. ALL GREEN PLANTS AND CERTAIN BACTERIA LIKE ALGAE
6. FUNGI, BACTERIA, EARTHWORM
7. THE SERIES IN WHICH ORGANISMS FEEDING ON ONE ANOTHER TAKING PART AT VARIOUS BIOTIC
LEVELS FORMS A FOOD CHAIN
8. FOOD WEB IS A NETWORK OF FOOD CHAIN
9. EACH STEP OR LEVEL OF THE FOOD CHAIN FORMS A TROPHIC LEVEL
10. AUTOTROPHS OR PRODUCERS
11. UNIDIRECTIONAL
12. TO BREAK DOWN THE COMPLEX ORGANIC MOLECULES INTO SIMPLE INORGANIC SUBSTANCES
THAT GO INTO THE SOILAND ARE USED UP ONCE MORE BY THE PLANTS
13. 1%
14. 10%
15. THE PEHENOMENA IN WHICH THE MAXIMUM CONCENTRATION OF CHEMICALS FROM FOOD,
WATER WHEN INGESTED GETS ABSORBED AND ACCUMULATED IN AN ORGANISM IS CALLED
BIOMAGNIFICATION.
16. 3
17. SHIELDS THE SURFACE OF THE EARTH FROM ULTRAVIOLET RADIATION FROM THE SUN.
18. CHLOROFLUOROCARBONS (cfcs)
19. UV RADIATION ACTING ON OXYGEN MOLECULE
20. CHLOROFLUOROCARBONS
21. OZONE IS A MOLECULE FORMED BY THREE ATOMS OF OXYGEN. OZONE HAS TWO ROLE, ONE IT IS
A DEADLY POISON, SECONDLY HOWEVER AT THE HIGHER LEVELS OF THE ATMOSPHERE OZONE
SHILEDS THE SURFACE OF THE EARTH FROM UV RADIATION. OZONE DEPLETION DUE TO USE OF
cfcs MAKES THE SURFACE OF THE EARTH VULNERABLE TO UV RAYS WHICH MAY HARMFULLY
AFFECT THE ECOSYSTEM
22. SUBSTANCES THAT ARE BROKEN DOWN BY BIOLOGICAL PROCESSES ARE SAID TO BE
BIODEGRADABLE SUBSTANCES. EXAMPLE: PAPER
23. SUBSTANCES THAT ARE NOT BROKEN DOWN BY BIOLOGICAL PROCESSES ARE SAID TO BE NON-
BIODEGRADABLE. EXAMPLE: PLASTIC
24. FOUL SMELL FROM DURING DECOMPOSITION PROCESS, PRODUCTION OF HARMFUL GASES LIKE
AMMONIA, CARBON DIOXIDE WHICH CAUSES GLOBAL WARMING.
25. DUMPING OF NON BIODEGRADABLE WASTE LEADS TO ACCUMULATION OF THE SUBSTANCES IN
THE ENVIRONMENT, BIOLOGICAL MAGNIFICATION, SOIL FERTILITY AS WELL AS AQUATIC LIFE GETS
AFFECTED.

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Chapter 16: Sustainable management of natural resources

1. (a) Natural causes as hurricanes, fires, parasites and floods.

(b) Human activities as agricultural expansion, cattle breeding, timber extraction,
mining, oil extraction, dam construction and infrastructure development.

2. Wood is the main forest product and is the base of many industries like paper industry,
match industry, sports goods industry, handicraft industry, furniture industry etc. 2.
Silk is taken from mulberry trees and thus forms a major forest product

3. Affluent lifestyle has led to the exploitation of natural resources. ... Excess exploitation
of groundwater leads to a drastic fall in water table. This is the reason many places are
experiencing acute shortage of drinking water. Overuse of fertilisers and insecticides
leads to soil pollution and soil erosion.

4. Encouraging Rainwater harvesting so as to prelocate the water into the soil efficiently,
Reusing of water.

5. Steel cans and paper can be easily recycled, but we generally throw them in dustbins.

6. To preserve the diversity of species. Sustainable utilization of species and ecosystem.

To maintain life-supporting systems and essential ecological processes.

7. Silviculture

8. (a)

9. (b)

10. (b)

11. (d)

12. (d)

13. (d)

14. (b)

15. (c)

16. (d)

17. (b)

18. (b)

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