GATE 2015 CHEMISTRY (COMPULSORY) – XL-H

H: CHEMISTRY (COMPULSORY)
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The molecule having net ‘non-zero dipole moment’ is

(A) CCl4 (B) NF3 (C) CO2 (D) BCl3

Q.2 The Diels-Alder adduct from the reaction between cyclopentadiene and benzyne is

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Q.3 The number of possible enantiomeric pair(s) in HOOC−CH(OH)−CH(OH)−COOH is________

Q.4 2+
For the electrochemical reaction, Cu (aq) + Zn(s) ⇌ Cu(s) + Zn (aq)
2+

37
the equilibrium constant at 25 oC is 1.7 × 10 . The change in standard Gibbs free energy (ΔGo) for
this reaction at that temperature will be ________ kJ mol−1 (up to one decimal place).
(Given: R = 8.314 JK−1mol−1)

Q.5 Among the following diagrams, the one that correctly describes a zero order reaction
(X → product) is
(Given: [X]o = initial concentration of reactant X; [X] = concentration of reactant X at time t
and t1/2 = half-life period of reactant X)
(A) (B)

1/[X] t1/2

t [X]o
(C) (D)

t1/2 t1/2

1/[X]o [X]o

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GATE 2015 CHEMISTRY (COMPULSORY) – XL-H

Q. 6 – Q. 15 carry two marks each.

Q.6 If the radius of first Bohr orbit is 0.53Å, then the radius of the third Bohr orbit is

(A) 2.12 Å (B) 4.77 Å (C) 1.59 Å (D) 3.18 Å

Q.7 If 50 mL of 0.02 M HCl is added to 950 mL of H2O, then the pH of the final solution will
be________

3− 3− 3−
Q.8 Stability of [CrCl6] (X), [MnCl6] (Y) and [FeCl6] (Z) follows the order
(Given: Atomic numbers of Cr = 24, Mn = 25 and Fe = 26)
(A) X > Y > Z (B) X < Y < Z (C) Y < X < Z (D) X < Y = Z

Q.9 Among the following pairs, the paramagnetic and diamagnetic species, respectively, are
− − + −
(A) CO and O2 (B) NO and CO (C) O22 and CO (D) NO and O2

Q.10 In compounds K4[Fe(CN)6] (P) and Fe(CO)5 (Q), the iron metal centre is bonded to
−
(A) C of CN in P and C of CO in Q
−
(B) N of CN in P and C of CO in Q
−
(C) C of CN in P and O of CO in Q
−
(D) N of CN in P and O of CO in Q

Q.11 Among the following reactions, the one that produces achiral alcohol (after hydrolysis) is
O
(A) + CH3CH2MgBr
H3C H
O
(B) +
H3C Ph CH3CH2MgBr

O
(C) + CH3CH2MgBr
H3C OEt
O
(D) + CH3CH2MgBr
H3 C CH3

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GATE 2015 CHEMISTRY (COMPULSORY) – XL-H

Q.12 The major product from the following reaction is

R 1) SO3, H2SO4
2) HNO3, H2SO4

3) H , H2O, heat
R = tert-Butyl

(A) (B) (C) (D)

R R R R
NO2 NO2

NO2 NO2
SO3H SO3H

Q.13 The order of resonance energy for the following molecules is

N S O
H
(1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) (1) > (3) > (2) > (4) (B) (1) > (3) > (4) > (2)
(C) (1) > (4) > (2) > (3) (D) (1) > (4) > (3) > (2)

Q.14 The molar enthalpy of vaporization for a liquid (normal boiling point = 78.3 oC) is 39 kJ mol−1. If
the liquid has to boil at 25 oC, the pressure must be reduced to ________Torr (up to one decimal
place).
(Given: R = 8.314 JK−1mol−1; 1 atm = 760 Torr)

Q.15 For the process, H2O(l) ⇌ H2O(s) at 0 oC and 1 atm, the correct statement is

(A) ΔSsystem = 0 (B) ΔStotal > 0 (C) ΔStotal = 0 (D) ΔStotal < 0

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

XL-H 3/3
GATE 2015 BIOCHEMISTRY – XL-I

I : BIOCHEMISTRY
Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Which one of the following small molecules is a prerequisite for fatty acid oxidation?
(A) Inositol (B) Choline (C) Carnitine (D) Glycerol

Q.2 Which one of the following bases is NOT found in the T-arm of an aminoacyl t-RNA?
(A) Dihydrouridine
(B) Pseudouridine
(C) Uracil
(D) Guanine

Q.3 Oxidation of one molecule of glucose via the glycerol-phosphate shuttle produces
(A) 32 molecules of ATP (B) 32 molecules of NADPH
(C) 30 molecules of ATP (D) 30 molecules of NADPH

Q.4 Ribulose-5-phosphate epimerase is involved in which one of the following processes?

(A) Glycolysis
(B) TCA cycle
(C) Glycosylation
(D) Pentose phosphate pathway

Q.5 Proteolytic enzymes are usually biosynthesized as large, inactive precursors known as
(A) holoenzymes (B) ribozyme
(C) zymogens (D) apoenzymes

Q.6 The formation of a carbocation, also called an oxonium ion, occurs during the reaction catalyzed by
(A) aldolase (B) lysozyme (C) ribonuclease A (D) ) carboxypeptidase

Q.7 Which one of the following amino acid substitutions is likely to cause the largest change in protein
conformation?

(A) Phe → Ile (B) Ser → Thr (C) Gln → Tyr (D) Glu → Val

Q.8 Which one of the following does NOT constitute the lipid moiety in lipid-linked membrane
proteins?
(A) Palmitic acid (B) Stearic acid
(C) Farnesyl groups (D) Myristic acid

Q.9 A closed circular B-DNA of 4000 base pairs is negatively supercoiled by introduction of 4 writhes.
The super helical density of the resultant DNA molecule will be _________

Q.10 Which one of the following is NOT a receptor tyrosine kinase?

(A) Platelet derived growth factor receptor
(B) Insulin like growth factor - 1 receptor
(C) Macrophage colony stimulating factor receptor
(D) Transforming growth factor β receptor

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GATE 2015 BIOCHEMISTRY – XL-I

Q. 11 – Q. 20 carry two marks each.

Q.11 Match the entries in Column-1 with those in Column-2

Column-1 Column-2

P. Vitamin B1 1. Thiamine pyrophosphate

Q. Carboxypeptidase 2. Aconitase
R. TCA cycle 3. Sucrose
S. Reducing sugar 4. Zn2+
5. Riboflavin
6. Lactose

(A) P-1; Q-4; R-2; S-6

(B) P-5; Q-1; R-2; S-3
(C) P-1; Q-4; R-5; S-6
(D) P-5; Q-2; R-1; S-6

Q.12 The following table provides information about four proteins.

Protein Native mol. wt. (Da) pI Type

P 32000 6.4 monomer
Q 40000 8.5 homodimer
R 25000 4.9 monomer
S 45000 8.5 homotrimer

Which one of the following options correctly identifies the order of elution in size exclusion
chromatography and the increasing order of mobility in SDS polyacrylamide gel?
(A) Chromatrography: SQPR; Electrophoresis: RPQS
(B) Chromatrography: RPQS; Electrophoresis: SQPR
(C) Chromatrography: PRQS; Electrophoresis: PRQS
(D) Chromatrography: SQPR; Electrophoresis: PRQS

Q.13 The predicted molar extinction coefficient at 280 nm for the peptide
GEEFHISFLLIMFGAWSTHMYRTYWFIHEMISTRY is _______ M-1cm-1.

[Molar extinction coefficients for phenylalanine, tryptophan and tyrosine at 280 nm are 200, 5600
and 1400 M-1cm-1, respectively]
Q.14 Match the contents of Column I with the most appropriate options in Column II

Column I Column II

P. Complement C1q i. CD34

Q. L-Selectin ii. Complement C5b
R. Membrane Attack Complex iii. Fc region of antibody
S. T-Helper cells iv. Complement C5a
v. CD40L
(A) P-iii ; Q-v ; R-iv ; S-i
(B) P-i ; Q-ii ; R-iv ; S-v
(C) P-iii ; Q-i ; R-ii ; S-v
(D) P-iv ; Q-v ; R-ii ; S-i

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GATE 2015 BIOCHEMISTRY – XL-I

Q.15 The value of ∆G at 37 °C for the movement of Ca2+ ions from the endoplasmic reticulum where
[Ca2+] is 1 mM to the cytosol where [Ca2+] is 0.1 µM at −50 mV membrane potential is
_______________ kJ mol-1 .

[ R = 8.314 JK −1mol −1 and 1 Faraday = 96500 Coulombs]

Q.16 R1 H O Z R3

Cα N C Cα
C Cα N

O R2 H
W X Y

Column I Column II
W i. ψ
X ii. χ
Y iii. φ
Z iv. ω

Which of the following identifies the correctly matched pairs?

(A) W-iii ; X-i ; Y-iv ; Z-ii
(B) W-i ; X-iii ; Y-iv ; Z-ii
(C) W-i ; X-iii ; Y-ii ; Z-iv
(D) W-iii ; X-i ; Y-ii ; Z-iv

Q.17 Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT about hemoglobin (Hb)?
I. Hb demonstrates higher oxygen carrying capacity compared to myoglobin
II. There is covalent bonding between the four subunits of Hb
III. During deoxygenation the loss of the first oxygen molecule from oxygenated Hb promotes
the dissociation of oxygen from the other subunits
(A) II (B) II & III (C) I & III (D) III

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GATE 2015 BIOCHEMISTRY – XL-I

Q.18 A 1.2 kb DNA fragment was used as a template for PCR amplification using primers P1, P2, P3
and P4 as shown in the scheme below. The annealing positions of primers on the template are
indicated by numbers. Primers P2 and P3 contain single base mismatches as indicated by filled
triangles.

PCR was performed using primer pair P1 and P3 in one vial and P2 and P4 in another vial. The
purified PCR products from the two vials were mixed and subjected to another round of PCR with
primers P1 and P4. The final PCR product will correspond to a
(A) 1.2 kb wild type DNA
(B) 1.2 kb DNA with two point mutations
(C) 0.9 kb DNA with one point mutation
(D) 0.5 kb DNA with one point mutation

Q.19 A cell suspension was subjected to membrane disruption followed by differential centrifugation to
fractionate the cellular components.
Match the centrifugal conditions in Column I to the appropriate subcellular components in Column
II.

Column I Column II

P. 1000 g, 10 min i. Microsomes and small vesicles

Q. 20000 g, 30 min ii. Ribosomes
R. 80000 g, 1 hour iii. Nuclei
S. 150000 g, 3 hours iv. Lysosomes and peroxisomes

(A) P-iii ; Q-iv ; R-i ; S-ii

(B) P-i ; Q-iv ; R-iii ; S-ii
(C) P-iii ; Q-iv ; R-ii ; S-i
(D) P-ii ; Q-i ; R-iv ; S-iii

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GATE 2015 BIOCHEMISTRY – XL-I

Q.20 Given below are the maps of a 1200 base pairs (bp) long DNA insert and a 3000 bp expression
vector. The BamHI (B) and HindIII (H) restriction sites and DNA length between them are
indicated in base pairs.

The insert is cloned into the vector at the BamHI site and the desired orientation is shown by the
arrow. After cloning, the orientation of the insert in the recombinant plasmid is tested by complete
HindIII digestion followed by agarose gel electrophoresis. Which one of the following band
patterns reveals the correct orientation of the insert in the construct?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

XL-I 5/5
GATE 2015 BOTANY – XL-J

J : BOTANY

Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Nuclear membrane is absent in
(A) Chlamydomonas
(B) Nostoc
(C) Volvox
(D) Chlorella

Q.2 An organized and differentiated cell having cytoplasm but no nucleus is found in
(A) Companion cell
(B) Xylem parenchyma
(C) Sieve tube element
(D) Phloem parenchyma

Q.3 Double haploids in plants can be induced by

(A) Mitomycin-C
(B) Mirin
(C) Colchicine
(D) 5-Azacytidine

Q.4 During fatty acid biosynthesis, the first intermediate malonyl-CoA is formed from
(A) Acetyl-CoA and bicarbonate
(B) Two acetyl-CoA molecules
(C) Acetyl-CoA and biotin
(D) Palmitoyl CoA and acyl-carrier protein (ACP)

Q.5 Which of the following techniques is NOT applicable for evaluating the expression of a transgene?
(A) Northern blot
(B) RT-PCR
(C) Western blot
(D) Southern blot

Q.6 Identify the CORRECT family possessing the following characters: presence of glucosinolates,
tetradynamous stamens, superior ovary with parietal placentation and siliqua type fruit
(A) Brassicaceae
(B) Capparidaceae
(C) Fumariaceae
(D) Papavaraceae

Q.7 Which of the following reduces the transpiration rate when applied to aerial parts of plants?
(A) Phosphon-D
(B) Paraquat
(C) Phenyl mercuric acetate
(D) Valinomycin

Q.8 A tube like membrane structure that forms the connection between the endoplasmic reticulum of
neighboring cells through plasmodesmata is
(A) Desmotubule (B) Desmosome (C) Dictyosome (D) Microtubule

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GATE 2015 BOTANY – XL-J

Q.9 Which one of the followings is NOT a cryoprotectant for plant tissue?
(A) Dimethyl sulfoxide
(B) Glycerol
(C) Ethylene glycol
(D) Liquid nitrogen

Q.10 Two similar holotypes are called

(A) Monotype (B) Neotype (C) Isotype (D) Syntype

Q. 11 – Q. 20 carry two marks each.

Q.11 A cross was made between AABBCCDDEE and aabbccddee. The resultants F1 were selfed.
Applying Mendelian principle, PREDICT the proportion of phenotype showing all the recessive
characters in F2 generation.

(A) 1 64 (B) 1 256 (C) 1 512 (D) 1 1024

Q.12 Identify the CORRECT statements with respect to functioning of ecosystem.

P. A food chain is a series of organisms, each one feeding on the organism succeeding it
Q. Food web presents a complete picture of the feeding relationships in any given ecosystem
R. In ecosystem, energy flows in unidirectional way, whereas nutrients flow in cyclic fashion
S. In biogeochemical cycles, nutrients do not alternate between organisms and environment

(A) P, Q (B) P, R (C) R, S (D) Q, R

Q.13 Match the name of the diseases with their causal organisms.

Disease Causal Organism

P. Loose smut of wheat 1. Cercospora personata

Q. Wart disease of potato 2. Alternaria solani
R. Panama disease of banana 3. Synchytrium endobioticum
S. Tikka disease of groundnut 4. Ustilago tritici
5. Fusarium oxysporum
6. Erwinia amylovora

(A) P-6, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-6, R-1, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-1 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-2, S-6

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GATE 2015 BOTANY – XL-J

Q.14 Match the plant products with their sources and the plant parts from which they are obtained.

Product Source Plant part

P. Annatto 1. Acacia catechu i. Seed

Q. Cutch 2. Rubia tinctorum ii. Leaf
R. Henna 3. Bixa orellana iii. Root
S. Alizarin 4. Lawsonia inermis iv. Stem

(A) P-3-ii, Q-4-i, R-2-iii, S-1-iv (B) P-3-i, Q-1-iv, R-4-ii, S-2-iii
(C) P-2-ii, Q-1-iii, R-4-iv, S-3-i (D) P-4-ii, Q-3-iv, R-1-iii, S-2-i

Q.15 Match the floral structures with the families and representative plant species.

Floral structure Family Plant

P. Gynostegium 1. Orchidaceae i. Ocimum sanctum

Q. Gynostemium 2. Lamiaceae ii. Cleome gynandra
R. Gynobasic style 3. Capparidaceae iii. Calotropis procera
S. Gynophore 4. Asclepiadaceae iv. Vanilla planifolia

(A) P-2-i, Q-3-iii, R-4-ii, S-1-iv (B) P-3-ii, Q-4-I, R-2-iii, S-1-iv
(C) P-4-iii, Q-1-iv, R-2-i, S-3-ii (D) P-4-ii, Q-2-iii, R-1-iv, S-3-i

Q.16 Identify the INCORRECT statements with respect to plastid transformation.

P. Antibiotic used for selection of trasplastomic plant is spectinomycin

Q. Chances of gene escape from transplastomic plants are high
R. Microprojectile bombardment is the method of DNA delivery
S. Levels of transgene expression are low

(A) P, R (B) P, Q (C) Q, S (D) R, S

Q.17 Which of the following statements are TRUE with regard to the similarities between Crassulacean
Acid Metabolism (CAM) and C4 cycle?

P. Stomata open during night and remain closed during the day
Q. PEPcase is the carboxylating enzyme to form C4 acid
R. C4 acid is decarboxylated to provide CO2 for C3 cycle
S. Kranz anatomy is predominant in both CAM and C4 plants

(A) P, S (B) Q, R (C) P, Q (D) R, S

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GATE 2015 BOTANY – XL-J

Q. 18 With respect to germination of seeds, the CORRECT sequence of events is

P. Seed imbibes water

Q. Mobilization of starch reserve to embryo
R. Diffusion of gibberellin from embryo to aleurone layer
S. Synthesis of α-amylase in the aleurone layer

(A) P, Q, S, R (B) P, R, S, Q
(C) R, P, Q, S (D) R, Q, P, S

Q.19 Identify the CORRECT statements with regard to the function of plant hormones

P. ABA is synthesized from chorismate and promotes viviparous germination

Q. Auxin induces acidification of cell wall followed by turgour-induced cell expansion
R. Gibberellin-reponsive genes become activated by the repression of DELLA protein
S. Cytokinin regulates the G2 to M transition in the cell cycle

(A) P, Q (B) Q, R (C) Q, S (D) P, R

Q.20 Statements given below are either TRUE (T) or FALSE (F). Find the correct combination.

P. Somatic embryo is unipolar in nature

Q. Heterokaryon can be selected using a fluorescence-activated cell sorter (FACS)
R. The term somaclonal variation is coined by Larkin and Scowcroft
S. Differentiation of shoot buds during in vitro culture is known as somatic embryogenesis

(A) P-T, Q-F, R-T, S-F (B) P-F, Q-T, R-F, S-T
(C) P-T, Q-F, R-F, S-T (D) P-F, Q-T, R-T, S-F

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

XL-J 4/4
GATE 2015 MICROBIOLOGY – XL-K

K: MICROBIOLOGY

Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each.

Q.1 Lophotrichous bacteria have

(A) one flagellum
(B) a cluster of flagella at one or both ends
(C) flagella that are spread evenly over the whole surface
(D) a single flagellum at each pole

Q.2 In aerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is

(A) hydrogen (B) nitrogen (C) sulfur (D) oxygen

Q.3 A process in which fatty acids are shortened by two carbons at a time resulting in release of acetyl-
CoA is known as
(A) photophosphorylation (B) carboxylation
(C) β-oxidation (D) oxidative phosphorylation

Q.4 Limulus Amoebocyte Lysate (LAL) assay is used to identify the presence of
(A) endotoxin (B) exotoxin (C) anthrax toxin (D) tetanus toxin

Q.5 Match scientists in Group I with terms related to their major scientific contributions in Group II

Group I Group II
(P) Sanger (i) DNA double helix structure
(Q) Watson and Crick (ii) DNA sequencing
(R) Waksman (iii) Complement
(S) Bordet (iv) Streptomycin
(v) Immune tolerance
(A) P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-i (B) P-ii, Q-iii, R-iv, S-v
(C) P-iv, Q-i, R-ii, S-v (D) P-ii, Q-i, R-iv, S-iii

Q.6 Base-pair substitutions caused by the chemical mutagen ethyl methane sulfonate are a result of
(A) hydroxylation (B) alkylation (C) deamination (D) intercalation

Q.7 The classical way of representing taxonomic hierarchy of living organisms in ASCENDING
ORDER is
(A) genus, species, class, order, family (B) species, genus, order, family, class
(C) species, genus, family, order, class (D) genus, species, order, class, family

Q.8 Of the following, the most effective method to kill bacterial endospores is
(A) moist heat sterilization (B) UV irradiation
(C) filtration (D) pasteurization

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GATE 2015 MICROBIOLOGY – XL-K

Q.9 The class of enzymes, which catalyze addition of groups to double bonds and non-hydrolytic
removal of chemical groups, is
(A) oxidoreductase (B) transferase (C) hydrolase (D) lyase

Q.10 Anammox organisms carry out

(A) anaerobic reduction of NO (B) anaerobic oxidation of NH
(C) aerobic oxidation of NH (D) aerobic oxidation of NO

Q. 11 – Q. 20 carry two marks each.

Q.11 Which combination of the following statements about specialized transduction is TRUE?

(P) Specialized transducing phages can transport only certain genes between bacteria
(Q) Specialized transducing phages can transport any gene between bacteria
(R) Phage P22 is a specialized transducing phage
(S) Phage lambda (λ) is a specialized transducing phage
(A) P and S only (B) Q and R only
(C) P and R only (D) Q and S only

Q.12 Which combination of profiles in the following figure accurately represents the transport rate of
glycerol and oxygen into E. coli cells as a function of their extracellular concentration?

(A) glycerol-(ii) and oxygen-(iii) (B) glycerol-(ii) and oxygen-(i)

(C) glycerol-(iii) and oxygen-(i) (D) glycerol-(i) and oxygen-(ii)

Q.13 Which one of the following about the standard free energy change (ΔGo′) and the equilibrium
constant (Keq) of an exergonic reaction, at pH 7.0, is TRUE?

(A) ΔGo′ is positive and Keq is less than one

(B) ΔGo′ is negative and Keq is less than one
(C) ΔGo′ is negative and Keq is greater than one
(D) ΔGo′ is positive and Keq is greater than one

Q.14 An oil immersion objective of a light microscope has a numerical aperture of 1.25. Using the Abbé
equation, the maximum theoretical resolving power (in nm) of the microscope with this objective
and blue light (wavelength = 450 nm) is ______
GATE 2015 MICROBIOLOGY – XL-K
-1
Q.15 The working volume (in liter) of a chemostat with 0.1 h dilution rate and 100 ml/h feed flow rate
is______

Q.16 If the decimal reduction time for spores of a certain bacterium at 121oC is 12 seconds, the time
required (in minutes) to reduce 1010 spores to one spore by heating at 121oC is _______

Q.17 The doubling time (in minutes) of a bacterium with a specific growth rate of 2.3 h-1 in 500 ml of
growth medium is ______

Q.18 A bacterial culture is grown using 2.0 mg/ml fructose as the sole source of carbon and energy. The
bacterial biomass concentrations immediately after inoculation and at the end of the growth phase
are 0.1 mg/ml and 0.9 mg/ml, respectively. Assuming complete utilization of the substrate, the
bacterial growth yield (Y) on fructose is ______

Q.19 The volume (in ml) of a 1.0 mg/ml stock solution of ampicillin to be added to 0.1 liter of growth
medium for achieving a final ampicillin concentration of 50 µg/ml is ______

Q.20 An E. coli strain is grown initially on glucose as the sole carbon source. Upon complete
consumption of glucose following 12 h of growth, lactose is added as the sole carbon source and
the strain is further grown for 12 h. Assuming that the E. coli strain has a functional wild type lac
operon, which one of the following profiles is the most ACCURATE representation of β-
galactosidase (β-gal) expression (in arbitrary units)?

(A) i (B) iii (C) ii (D) iv

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GATE 2015 ZOOLOGY – XL-L

L : ZOOLOGY

Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each.

Q.1 The term “paedomorphosis” refers to
(A) Accelerated reproductive development as compared to somatic development
(B) A transient stage in the developmental event
(C) Two independent structures resembling each other, yet performing different functions
(D) A form of mimicry

Q.2 Which one of the following statements is TRUE when determining the age of a fossil using carbon
dating?
(A) Carbon dating is based on carbon-13 to carbon-12 ratio in fossils
(B) Carbon dating is useful for determining the age of only fossils older than 100,000 years
(C) Older the fossil, lesser the carbon-14 to carbon-12 ratio
(D) Older the fossil, lesser the carbon-12 to carbon-14 ratio

Q.3 Constitutive enzymes are

(A) Induced by effector molecules
(B) Repressed by repressors
(C) Encoded by sequences that occur as part of an operon
(D) Always produced in the cell

Q.4 Which one of the following is a function of intermediate filaments?

(A) Chromosome movement during the cell division
(B) Cytoplasmic streaming
(C) Formation of tight junctions
(D) Anchorage of the nucleus

Q.5 Which one of the following statements is FALSE with respect to phospholipids?
(A) Phospholipids have amphipathic character
(B) Phospholipids form the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane
(C) Phospholipids form micelles in living systems
(D) Some phospholipid molecules may contain a double bond in hydrophobic tails

Q.6 Which one of the following organs is INCORRECTLY paired with its function?
(A) Intestinal villi – absorption (B) Epiglottis – closure of larynx
(C) Gall bladder – carbohydrate digestion (D) Parietal cells – hydrochloric acid

Q.7 Where do B lymphocytes acquire immune competence?

(A) Thymus (B) Bone Marrow (C) Lymph nodes (D) Spleen

Q.8 Which one of the following life cycle stages of Plasmodium falciparum is infectious?
(A) Sporozoite (B) Cryptozoite (C) Merozoite (D) Trophozoite

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GATE 2015 ZOOLOGY – XL-L

Q.9 What is the role of the notochord during organogenesis in a vertebrate embryo?
(A) Signaling the development of placenta
(B) Induction of neural plate formation
(C) Stimulation of the umbilical chord formation
(D) Suppression of the development of extra-embryonic membranes

Q.10 The behavior of young ducks following their mother is known as

(A) Imprinting (B) Innate behavior (C) Habituation (D) Mimicry

Q. 11 – Q. 20 carry two marks each.

Q.11 Match the species names with class names

P. Calotes versicolor i. Insecta
Q. Periplaneta americana ii. Reptilia
R. Glyphidrilus birmancus iii. Actinopterygii
S. Clarias batracus iv. Clitellata

(A) P-ii; Q-i, R-iv; S-iii (B) P-i; Q-ii; R-iii; S-iv
(C) P-ii; Q-i; R-iii; S-iv (D) P-iii; Q-i; R-ii; S-iv

Q.12 A population of spotted deer found in a national forest is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. For a
particular genetic locus in this deer species, only two alleles A and a are possible. If the frequency
of the A allele in this population is 0.6, and the frequency of the a allele is 0.4, what will be the
frequency of the genotype Aa?
(A) 0.24 (B) 0.48 (C) 0.96 (D) 1.6

Q.13 In Drosophila, the gene for eye colour is present on the X chromosome. When a red-eyed female
was mated with a white-eyed male, a total of 100 progeny were obtained – 50 females and 50
males. Of the 50 females, 25 were red-eyed, and 25 were white-eyed. How many of the male
progeny were red-eyed?
(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 20 (D) 25

Q.14 Defect in poly-A tail formation in eukaryotic mRNA leads to

(A) Increased translation of the resulting mRNA
(B) Decreased translation of the resulting mRNA
(C) Premature transcription termination
(D) Decreased mRNA stability

Q.15 Assuming equal frequency for all 4 nucleotides (G, A, T, C), how many EcoRI recognition sites
(GAATTC) are possible in a bacterial artificial chromosome of 100,000 base pairs?
(A) 6 (B) 12 (C) 24 (D) 48

Q.16 Choose the correct option that shows pairing of the organelle to its function
P. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum i. Internalization of receptors
Q. Peroxisome ii. Protein secretion
R. Golgi apparatus iii. Membrane biogenesis
S. Endosome iv. Breakdown of fatty acids
(A) P-i, Q-ii, R-iii, S-iv (B) P-i, Q-iii, R-ii, S-iv
(C) P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-i (D) P-ii, Q-iii, R-iv, S-i

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GATE 2015 ZOOLOGY – XL-L

Q.17 Choose the correct option based on your understanding of the circulatory system
P. Open circulatory system i. Fish
Q. Closed circulatory system ii. Frog
R. Three chambered heart iii. Earthworm
S. Two chambered heart iv. Grasshopper

(A) P-iv; Q-iii; R-ii; S-i (B) P-iv; Q-i; R-ii; S-iii
(C) P-i; Q-iv; R-ii; S-iii (D) P-i; Q-iii; R-iv; S-ii

Q.18 The popular birth control pills for women have a combination of synthetic forms of estradiol and
progesterone. Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT with regard to their function
as contraceptive?
(A) The pills inhibit the release of GnRH leading to inhibition of gonadotropin-stimulated ovarian
function
(B) They act directly on the pituitary gland to inhibit gonadotropin surges
(C) The low dose of estradiol in the pill inhibits the release of FSH, and thus blocks ovulation
(D) The synthetic forms of estradiol and progesterone bring about their effects by binding to their
respective intracellular receptors

Q.19 Which one of the following is consistent with the germplasm theory of August Weismann?
(A) Regulative development observed in frog embryos
(B) Mosaic development observed in tunicates
(C) Normal embryonic development of embryos formed by somatic nuclear transfer
(D) Ability of differentiated cells to form pluripotent stem cells under certain conditions

Q.20 Which one of the following statements DOES NOT explain altruism?
(A) Altruism reduces the fitness of the individual that displays this behavior
(B) Altruism increases the fitness of other individuals in the population
(C) Altruism reduces the fitness of the individual that displays this behavior and at the same time
increases the fitness of other individuals in the population
(D) Altruistic behavior helps the individual escape from predators

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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GATE 2015 FOOD TECHNOLOGY – XL-M

M: FOOD TECHNOLOGY
Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each.
Q.1 Standard pasteurization protocol for milk is adequate for destroying
(A) Clostridium sporogenes (B) Bacillus cereus
(C) Clostridium botulinum (D) Listeria monocytogenes

Q.2 Which one of the following is NOT a component of an evaporator?

(A) Heat exchanger (B) Vacuum separator
(C) Condenser (D) Cyclone separator

Q.3 Among the following animal foods, the fat content is least in
(A) Beef (B) Chicken meat (C) Pork (D) Lamb flesh

Q.4 The enzyme that hydrolyzes starch to maltose is

(A)-amylase (B) -amylase
(C) glucoamylase (D) cyclodextrin glucanotransferase

Q.5 Which one of the following is NOT enriched in endosperm during parboiling of paddy?
(A) Thiamine (B) Niacin (C) Iron (D) Fat

Q.6 Heat-treated legume seed proteins are more digestible than those of untreated legume seed proteins
due to
(A) reaction of reducing sugars with-amino group of lysine
(B) increased binding of lectins to intestinal mucosal cells
(C) thermolabile nature of lectins and Kunitz-type protease inhibitors
(D) thermolabile nature of Bowman-Birk type of inhibitor

Q.7 What is the percent relative humidity at which both the dry bulb and wet bulb thermometers would
record equal temperatures?
(A) 0 (B) 10 (C) 50 (D) 100

Q.8 How many fold would the g-number of a centrifuge increase by doubling both the spinning speed
and bowl diameter?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16

Q.9 Prolonged fermentation of cocoa seeds lead to "off-taste" due to the release of
(A) glucose
(B) short chain fatty acids
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) phospholipids

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GATE 2015 FOOD TECHNOLOGY – XL-M

Q.10 The gradual decrease in viscosity of tomato paste during storage can be prevented by quickly
heating it to 82 °C, because
(A) water soluble pectin interacts with calcium
(B) hemicellulose prevents decrease in viscosity
(C) lignin prevents decrease in viscosity
(D) pectin methyl esterase is inactivated

Q. 11 – Q. 20 carry two marks each.

Q.11 Match the enzyme in Group I with its corresponding application in Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Chymosin (1) Removal of cooked flavor from milk
(Q) Sulfhydryl oxidase (2) Soybean milk coagulation
(R) Galactosidase (3) For rennet puddings
(S) Microbial proteases (4) Lactose removal

(A) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Q.12 Milk is flowing at 0.12 m3/min in a 2.5 cm diameter pipe. The temperature of the milk is 21 °C and
the corresponding viscosity and density are 2.1 x 10-3 Pas and 1029 kg/m3, respectively. If the flow
is found to be turbulent under the given conditions, the Reynolds number is _________

Q.13 Whole milk (34,950 kg) containing 4% fat is to be separated in 6 h period into skim milk with
0.45% fat and cream with 45% fat. The flow rate of cream stream (kg/h) from the separator is
__________

Q.14 Match the edible plant tissue in Group I with the type of carotenoid given in Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Corn (1) Lycopene
(Q) Red pepper (2)-Carotene
(R) Pumpkin (3) Capsanthin
(S) Tomato (4) Lutein

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3

Q.15 Green tea is considered to be a more healthy option than black tea because it
(A) has high content of polyphenols
(B) is richer in thearubigin
(C) does not require any sweetener during tea preparation
(D) has no microbial load

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GATE 2015 FOOD TECHNOLOGY – XL-M

Q.16 A dilute pineapple juice is heated in a double pipe heat exchanger from 28 °C to 75 °C by heat
exchanging with hot water flowing in shell in counter current direction. Hot water is entering the
shell at 95 °C and leaving at 85 °C. The log mean temperature difference (°C) is __________

Q.17 Granulated sugar, having an average particle size of 500 µm, is milled to produce icing sugar
having an average particle size of 25 µm. The power requirement was 10 kW as obtained by
Rittinger's law. If the same mill were to be used to produce fondant sugar having an average
particle size of 20 µm at the same capacity, the power requirement (kW) would be _____

Q.18 One ton of soybean containing 18% oil, 35% protein, 27.1% carbohydrates, 9.4% of fibre and ash,
and 10.5% moisture is crushed and pressed. The residual oil content in the pressed cake is 6%.
Assuming that there is no loss of protein and water with oil, the amount of oil (kg) obtained from
the crusher is ________

Q.19 Match the processing method in Group I with the operation carried out in Group II
Group I Group II
(P) Degumming (1) Crystallization of triacylglycerol by cooling to remove fat crystals
(Q) Deacidifying (2) Passing heated oil over charcoal
(R) Bleaching (3) Using alkaline solution to remove fatty acids
(S) Winterizing (4) Wetting with water to remove lecithin

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Q.20 The order of succession of microbes in the spoilage of milk, involving (P) Lactobacillus, (Q)
protein digesting bacteria, (R) Lactococcus lactis, (S) yeasts and molds, is
(A) S>R>Q>P (B) S>Q>R>P (C) R>P>S>Q (D) Q>S>P>R

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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