Admission Test 2019 Draft

Group A: Aptitude Test

Passage 1

In the future, India should strive to have a more robust and well-capitalized banking system,
with enhanced capacity to extend credit and an incentive structure suitable for productive
allocation of resources. To build a robust banking system, recapitalization will have to be
complemented by a host of other measures including corporate governance reforms, lower
entry barriers, improved financial supervision, development of a dynamic corporate debt
market and efficient debt recovery mechanisms.

1. Which of the following is not a pre-requisite to build a robust banking system:

A. Stronger barriers to entry into the banking system
B. Corporate governance reforms
C. Stronger supervision of the financial sector.
D. Developing effective debt recovery system.

Passage 2

India has suffered from persistent high inflation. Increase in administered prices, demand and
supply imbalances, imported inflation aggravated by rupee depreciation, and speculation –
have combined to keep high inflation going. If there is an element common to all of them, it is
that many of them are the outcomes of economic reforms. India’s vulnerability to the effects of
changes in international prices has increased with trade liberalisation. The effort to reduce
subsidies has resulted in a continuous increase in the prices of commodities that are
administered.

2. What is the most logical, rational and crucial message that is implied in the above
passage?
A. Under the present circumstances, India should completely avoid all trade
liberalisation policies and all subsidies.

B. Due to its peculiar socio-economic situation, India is not yet ready for trade
liberalisation process.

C. There is no solution in sight for the problems of continuing poverty and inflation in
India in the near future.

D. Economic reforms can often create a high inflation economy.

Passage 3

No Right is absolute, exclusive or inviolable. The Right of personal property, similarly, has to be
perceived in the larger context of its assumed legitimacy. The Right of personal property should
unite the principle of liberty with that of equality, and both with the principle of cooperation.

3. In the light of the argument in the above passage, which one of the following
statements is the most convincing explanation?
A. The Right of personal property is a Natural Right duly supported by statutes and
scriptures.
B. Personal property is a theft and an instrument of exploitation. The Right of personal
property is therefore violative of economic justice.
C. The Right of personal property is violative of distributive justice and negates the
principle of cooperation.
D. The comprehensive idea of economic justice demands that the Right of each person
to acquisition of property has to be reconciled with that of others.

Passage 4

In a first, the public system of delivering primary care is being redesigned in a major
way. The health facilities at the lowest level (health sub-centres), that currently
provide only selective care, are being converted to health and wellness centres
(HWCs) to provide comprehensive primary care.

Under the government’s prototype, each HWC is to be operated by a well-trained,

mid-level health provider (nurse practitioner or community health officer) who will be
supported by a team of frontline health workers to provide an expanded package of
services. The government has set a deadline of converting nearly 1.5 lakh sub-centres
to HWCs by 2022.

The scheme is not only to be implemented but also co-funded by States so that they
have a stake in it; each State is expected to develop its own road map. There is no
presumption that the Centre’s prototype is suitable for all contexts. States need to
tweak it and prepare their own roll-out plan to suit their context. For example, the
Kerala government has decided against converting sub-centres into HWCs, given the
health-seeking behaviour of its people. Instead, it has decided to provide
comprehensive primary care services at the level of primary health centres.

4. Which of the following statements about health sub-centres is-are correct according to
the passage?
 I. They are being converted to health and wellness centres
II. They provide only selective care
III. They provide health facilities at the lowest level.

A.I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

5. Which of the following statements about the centre’s primary health care scheme is/are
correct?
I. The centre has directed the states to follow the road map developed by the
centre.
II. The primary health centres should provide only selective care.
III. The states will prepare their own plan according to their primary health care
scenario.

A.I Only B. II only C. III only D. I, II and III

Questions 6-10

Study the graph and answer the questions that follow:

6. What is the ratio of exports in years 1990-91 & 1992-93 together to the imports in the
same year?
A.1.41 B. 1.17 C. 1.55 D. 1.71

7. In which of the following years was the gap in the exports and imports the maximum?
A. 1994-95
B. 1992-93
C. 1993-94
D. 1990-91

8. What is the ratio of years having above average imports to those having below average
imports in the given period?
A. 3:2
B. 4:1
C. 2:3
D. 1:4

9. Which of the following statements is true about the graph?

A. There is a continuous rise in exports.
B. From 1992-93, exports are below average.
C. Till 1992-93, imports are below average.
D. Total imports in the given period are more than the total exports.

10. The exports in 1993-94 are approximately how many percent more than the imports of
1991-92?
A. 49%
B. 51.6%
C. 201%
D. None of these

11. In a four-day period Monday through Thursday each of the following temporary office
workers worked only one day, each a different day. Ms. Johnson was scheduled to work
on Monday, but she traded with Mr. Carter, who was originally scheduled to work on
Wednesday. Ms. Falk traded with Mr. Kirk, who was originally scheduled to work on
Thursday. After all the switching was done, who worked on Tuesday?

A.Mr. Carter B. Ms. Falk C. Ms. Johnson D. Mr. Kirk

 12. There is some relationship between diagrams A & B. The same relationship persists
between C & D. Find the right diagrams for D from the alternatives.

A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4

Passage 5

Invasive alien species are a major driver of biodiversity loss. In fact, an analysis of the IUCN Red
List shows that they are the second most common threat associated with species that have
gone completely extinct, and are the most common threat associated with extinctions of
amphibians, reptiles and mammals. Invasive alien species can also lead to changes in the
structure and composition of ecosystems leading to significant detrimental impacts to
ecosystem services, affecting economies and human wellbeing. For example the water
hyacinth Eichhornia crassipes, a native to South America is spreading across Africa, Asia,
Oceania and North America. It is a fast growing floating aquatic plant forming dense mats on
the water surface, limiting oxygen and preventing sunlight reaching the water column.
Infestations have led to reduced fisheries, blocked navigation routes, increased cases of vector
bourne diseases, reduced hydropower capacity and affecting access to water. Due to the
increase in the movement of people and goods around the world, the opportunity for the
introduction of species outside of their natural range is on the increase. The different ways in
which species are transported from one place to another, are called ‘pathways’. Common
pathways include the release of fish for fisheries into the wild, escape from farms and
horticulture, within ship ballast water and the spread through man-made corridors such as
canals.

13. Which of the following statements about invasive alien species is/are true as described
in the passage?
I. They lead to increased biodiversity.
II. They are a major cause of extinction of a number of species.
III. As endangered species they appear in the IUCN Red List.
A.I only B. II only C. III only D. I and III only

14. Which of the following statements on the effect of water hyacinth on human well-being
is/are correct according to the passage:
I. They were originally found in Africa and Asia.
II. They increase the incidence of vector bourne diseases.
III. They reduce the capacity to produce hydropower.

A.I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

15. Which of the following are common pathways for invasive alien species?
I. Man-made canals.
II. Movement of goods and people from one place to another.
III. Release of fish from fisheries into the wild.

A.I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Passage 6

Climate change is a complex policy issue with major implications in terms of finance. All actions
to address climate change ultimately involve costs. Funding is vital for countries like India to
design and implement adaptation and mitigation plans and projects. Lack of funding is a large
impediment to implementing adaptation plans. The scale and magnitude of the financial
support required by developing countries to enhance their domestic mitigation and adaptation
actions are a matter of intense debate in the multilateral negotiations under the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). The Convention squarely puts the
responsibility for provision of financial support on the developed countries, taking into account
their contribution to the stock of greenhouse gases (GHGs) in the atmosphere. Given the
magnitude of the task and the funds required, domestic finances are likely to fall short of the
current and projected needs of the developing countries. Global funding through the
multilateral mechanism of the Convention will enhance their domestic capacity to finance the
mitigation efforts.
 16. According to the passage, which of the following is/are a matter of intense debate in the
multilateral negotiations under UNFCCC regarding the role of developing countries in
climate change?
I. The scale and size of required financial support.
II. The crop loss due to climate change in the developing countries.
III. To enhance the mitigation and adaptation actions in the developing countries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A.I only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

17. In this passage, the Convention puts the responsibility for the provision of financial
support on the developed countries because of:
I. Their higher level of per capita incomes
II. Their large quantum of GDP
III. Their large contribution to stock of ( GHGs) in the atmosphere
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.I only B. I and II C. III only D. I, II, III

18. With regards to developing countries, it can be inferred from the passage that climate
change is likely to have implications on their
I. Domestic finances
II. Capacity for multilateral trade

Select the correct answer using the code given:

A.I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

19. Which one of the following is essentially discussed in the passage?

A. Conflict between developed and developing countries regarding support for

mitigation
B. Occurrence of climate change due to excessive exploitation of natural resources by
the developed countries.
C. Lack of Political will on the part of all the countries to implement adaptation plans.
D. Government problems of developing countries as a result of climate change.

Questions 20 – 22
In a group of 60 students, 25 play table tennis, 16 do swimming and 22 play cricket, 8 play
table tennis and do swimming, 6 play cricket and do swimming, 5 play table tennis and
cricket, and 12 students do not play any of these game.

20. How many students are involved in all the three activities?
A.4 B. 20 C. 60 D. 8

21. How many students play table tennis but not cricket?
 A.25 B. 6 C. 16 D. 20

22. How many play table tennis and cricket but not do swimming?
A.12 B. 4 C.1 D. 19
23. If two pipes function simultaneously, the reservoir will be filled in 12 hours. One pipe
fills the reservoir 10 hours faster than the other. How many hours does the faster pipe
take to fill the reservoir?
A.35 hours B. 30 hours C. 40 hours D. None of the above

24. Find the least number which when divided by 16, 18, 20 and 25 leaves 4 as remainder in
each case but when divided by 7 leaves no remainder.
A.8004 B. 13004 C. 18004 D. 18014

25. A man sold two watches for Rs. 3750 each. On one he gained 5% and on the other he
lost 5%. What was the total gain or loss percentage?
A.1¼ % B. ½ % C. ¼ % D. none of the above

26. In an examination, Yamini has to select 4 questions from each part. There are 6,7 and 8
questions in Part I, Part II and Part III respectively. What is the number of possible
combinations in which she can choose questions?
A.39650 B. 37650 C. 36750 D. 38750

Passage 7

Languages are not preserved by documentation but by having a profusion of people speaking
them. State support continues to remain necessary. There remains little institutional support
for growing languages like Bhojpuri, or declining languages like Mehali (Maharashtra), Sidi
(Gujarat) and Majhi (Sikkim). Their revival is dependent on ensuring livelihood support for the
speakers of the language.

India is one of the most linguistically rich countries. When we lose a language, it is a loss of an
entire universe, including its cultural myths and rituals. Ignoring languages with fewer speakers
will simply not do. Languages like Hindi have over 126 languages feeding into them. Cutting
down on such roots will harm the larger languages as well.

There is still hope. A language like Bhil has showcased an 85% growth in speakers in the last 20
years. We need a new social contract where we seek to preserve the orality and textual nature
of languages using digital means. Such a practice would keep India’s purported pluralism alive,
giving it renewal.
 27. According to the passage languages can be preserved by:
I. Documentation
II. Profusion of people speaking the languages
III. Providing livelihood support for the speakers of the language.

A.I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. III only

28. The author expresses alarm at loss of languages as

I. It leads to the loss of an entire culture with its rituals and myths.
II. It will harm larger languages which has the roots in these endangered languages.

A.I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

29. The author stresses on social contract for preservation of language because:
A. Social contract ensures pluralism.
B. It ignores the languages with fewer speakers.
C. Through social contract both the oral and textual nature of the language can be preserved.
D. Social contract uses digital sequencing.
30. The meaning of the word ‘profusion’ in the context of the passage is:
A.Extravagance B. Emergence C. Supply D. Proliferation

Passage 8

Lurking beneath Antarctica’s ice are 91 volcanoes that until now no one knew existed. This may
be one of the most extensive volcanic regions on Earth. These volcanoes are hidden beneath
the vast, slowly moving West Antarctic Ice Sheet. Most lie in a region called Marie Byrd Land.
Together, they form one of the planet’s largest volcanic provinces, or regions. This newfound
province stretches across a span as large as the distance from Canada to Mexico — some 3,600
kilometers (2,250 miles). If this region hosts a lot of live volcanoes, what might happen if they
interact with the ice above them? The scientists don’t yet know. But they describe three
possibilities in their study. Melting ice raises sea levels around the globe. The West Antarctic Ice
Sheet is already crumbling around its edges, where it floats on the sea. If the whole West
Antarctic sheet melted, sea level would rise at least 3.6 meters (12 feet) worldwide. That’s
enough to flood most coastal communities. A second possible impact of all of those volcanoes
is that they might actually slow the flow of ice. Why? Those volcanic cones make the land
surface under the ice bumpier. Like speed bumps in a road, those cones might slow the ice, or
tend to “pin” it in place.
A third option: Ice thinning due to climate change might work to trigger more eruptions and ice
melting. Ice is heavy, which serves to weigh down Earth’s rocky crust below. As an ice sheet
thins, that pressure on the crust would diminish. This reduced pressure might then “uncap”
magma inside the volcanoes. And that could trigger more volcanic activity.

31. Which of the following statements about Antarctica is/are true according to the
passage:
I. Antarctica stretches across Canada to Mexico.
II. Antarctica is also known as Marie Byrd Land
III. 91 volcanoes have been recently discovered in Antarctica.

A.I Only B. II and III only C. II only D. III only

32. According to the passage the crumbling of the parts of West Antarctic ice sheet will
result in:
A. Rise in the sea level in the Antarctic region by 3.6 metres.
B. Submersion of islands under the sea.
C. Flooding of the coastal regions.
D. Global warming.
33. How can volcanic actions lead to slowing of the flow of ice?
A. The rising of the volcanic cones creates bumpers on the way of the ice sheet.
B. The lava flow is heavier and comes in the way of the ice.
C. The eruptions create high peaks where ice sheets cannot reach.
D. Volcanic activity makes the ice heavier so that it is unable to flow.
34. Climate change can lead to more volcanic eruptions in the Antarctic region because:
A. Increase in global temperature induces more volcanic activity.
B. Global warming heats up the magma below the Earth’s surface that erupts
frequently.
C. Global warming loosens the rocky surface developing cracks to vent out the lava.
D. Thinning of ice sheets reduces the pressure on the crust letting the magma inside
the volcanoes to come out.

Questions 35-38

There are seven Indian footballers, namely A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Each of them belongs
to a different state like Maharashtra, Jharkhand, UP, Punjab, Delhi, Karnataka and Tamil
Nadu.
 Moreover, each of them also has a liking for different foods, namely Chicken Tikka, Veg.
Biryani, Fish Curry, Chicken Biryani, Mutter Paneer, Mutton Curry and Afghani Chicken
but not necessarily in the same order.
A, who likes Fish Curry, is neither from Maharashtra nor from Punjab.
E is not from Jharkhand and does not like Chicken Tikka. F, who hails from Tamil Nadu,
does not like Veg. Biryani.
D, who likes Afghani Chicken, is not from Karnataka. The one who is from Jharkhand is
fond of Mutton Curry.
C likes Mutter Paneer and is from UP while B, who likes Veg. Biryani is from Delhi. The
player from Punjab does not like Chicken Biryani.

35. Who among the players are from Jharkhand?

A. E B. F C. G D. B
36. What is the favourite food of the person from Karnataka?
A.Fish Curry B. Mutton Curry C. Mutter Paneer D. Veg. Biryani

37. Whose favourite food is Chicken Tikka?

A.E B. F C. G D. A

38. The person who is fond of Afghani Chicken hails from

A.Maharashtra B. Tamil Nadu C. Punjab D. Cannot be determined

39. Divide Rs. 3010 among A, B, C respectively in such a way that A gets double of what B
gets and B gets double of what C gets.
A. Rs.1720, Rs. 860, Rs. 430
B. Rs. 1640, Rs. 920, Rs. 450
C. Rs. 1690, Rs. 825, Rs. 495
D. Rs. 1800, Rs. 400, Rs. 810
40. Rohit walked 25 metres towards South. Then he turned to his left and walked 20
metres. He then turned to his left and walked 25 metres. He again turned to his right
and walked 15 metres. At what distance is he from the starting point and in which
direction?
A.35 metres East B. 35 metres North C. 40 metres East D. 60 metres East
 Group B: General Studies

41. Consider the following statements about the Mahadayi river:

I. It originates as Belagavi in Karnataka.
II. It is known as Mandovi in Goa.
III. It is called Malaprabha as it flows through Maharashtra.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A.I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

42. Consider the following statements on joint comprehensive plan of action:

I. It is an Agreement on nuclear programme of Iran
II. It is an agreement between Iran and five permanent members of the security council
and Germany adopted in July, 2015.
III. Under JCPOA Iran agreed to restrict its stockpile of Uranium in next 15 years.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A.I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

43. Himalayan Trillium is a

A. Species of langur found in the Himalyan region of Nepal which is believed to have gone
extinct in recent years.
B. Roadway that traces the old silk route linking India to China and Nepal which is being
revived at present.
C. Kind of herb, used in the production of steroidal drugs, which is facing extinction due to
excessive harvesting.
D. Variety of snake found in the mountainous regions of Uttarakhand which is recently found
to be a source of life saving drugs.
44. Which of the following statements about trans fat is/are correct?
I. The FSSAI has set the highest limit of trans fat in food to 2% in 2015.
II. Trans fat helps to increase the shelf life of oils and food and stabilizes their flavors.
III. Trans fat tends to raise the level high-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol in blood.
A. Only I B. Only II C. Only II and III C. I, II and III
45. The standards for implementation of Bharat Emission Stage Standards (BESS) set by the Central
Pollution Control Board (CPCB) does NOT include which of these pollutants?
A.Carbon Dioxide B. Nitrogen Oxides C. Particulate Matter D. Hydrocarbons

46. Which of the following measurements related to the population density is/are correct?
I. Physiological density refers to total population divided by net geographical area of a
country.
 II. Agricultural density refers to the total population divided by net cultivated area of a
country.
III. Arithmetic density compares the number of people trying to live on a given piece of land
in different regions of the world.

A.I and II only B. II and III only C. III only D. All

47. Which of the following statements with respect to different schemes launched under Ntional
Population Stabilization fund is/are correct?
I. Santushti Strategy to push up the age of marriage of girls and space the birth of
children.
II. Prerna Strategy to conduct sterilization operations under PPP mode in highly populated
states of India.

A.Only I B. Only II C. Both D. None

48. Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. World Development Report is published by WTO.
II. Gross National Income is used to compare the level of development in different
countries.
III. All the rich countries are called developed countries.

A.I only B. I and II only C. III only D. None

49. Which of the following statements is/are true about government budgeting?
I. Interest payments and subsidies by the government come under capital expenditure.
II. Primary deficit is revenue deficit minus net interest liabilities.
III. Salaries and pensions of government employees come under revenue expenditure.

A.I only B. III only C. II and III D. None

50. Consider the following statements regarding an ecosystem:

I. Non-living components of the environment are not part of the ecosystem.
II. Edaphic factors are the components of ecosystem.
III. Biome is the form of sub-continental ecosystem having similarity in vegetation.
IV. Ecosystem is the structural and functional unit of the biosphere.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 A.I and II B. II and III C. I and IV D. II, III and IV

51. Which of the following statements is/are true about ocean acidification?
I. Burning of fossil fuels and acid rain contributes to ocean acidification.
II. It reduces the population of Pteropods thus affects food security.
III. Ocean acidification lowers the amount of carbonate ions present in oceans and thus
reduces shell formation.

A.I only B. I and II only C. III only D. I, II and III

52. Which of the following are the Ex-Situ method of biodiversity conservation?
I. Botanical Gardens
II. Arboreta
III. Sacred forests
IV. Biosphere reserves
V. Zoological parks
VI. National parks
VII. Vulture restaurants

A.I, II and V only B. III, IV, VI and VII C. IV, V and VI D. I, II, III and VII

53. Consider the following statements in the context of alluvial soil:

I. Alluvial soil belongs to zonal order.
II. Alluvial soils are rich in potash, lime and humus content but deficient in nitrogen.
III. Alluvial soil decomposes very slowly due to excessive wetness as found in doab region.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

A.I only B. I and II C. I and III D. I, II and III

54. During the South-West monsoon period after having rains for a few days , if rain fails to occur
for one or more weeks, it is known as break in monsoon. These breaks in the different regions
are due to different reasons. Consider the following statements in this context:
I. When rain-bearing storms are not very frequent along the monsoon trough or the ITCZ,
it results into failure of rainfall in Northern India.
II. When the winds blow in transverse direction over the West Coast, it results into dry
spells over the region.
 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A.I only B. II only C. None D. Both

55. What does the term ‘longevity dividend’ mean?

A. The economic and health benefits that would accrue to individuals and society when the
ageing process is slowed down.
B. The social impact of the increasing aged population on the society at large.
C. The effect of high population growth with the subsequent increase in aged population.
D. Both the statements B and C are correct.
56. Which of the following functions is/are performed by RBI?
I. Protection of depositors’ interest
II. Managing of foreign exchange
III. Performs merchant banking function for the central and the state governments\

A.I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

57. The term ‘Davos man’ is associated with which of the following organizations?
A. Doctors without Borders (MSF)
B. World Economic Forum (WEF)
C. International Olympic Committee (IOC)
D. Federation Internationale de Football Association (FIFA)
58. Which of the following can be used in the production of second generation ethanol to power
motor vehicles?
I.Rice straw II. Jatropha III. Bamboo

A.II only B. I and II only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

59. Consider the following statements:

I. Majority of cotton cultivation areas are irrigated.
II. Gossypium arboretum and Gossypium herbaceum are varieties of cotton.
III. China is the largest producer of cotton in the world.

Which of the above statements is/are not correct?

A.I only B. II and III only C. III only D. None of the above

60. The Idukki Dam was built as a part of a hydroelectric project in

A. Karnatak,a on the river Tungabhadra.
 B. Kerala, on the river Periyar.
C. Tamil Nadu, on the river Cauvery.
D. Andhra Pradesh, on the river Godavari.
61. Which of the following statements about Insolvency and Bankruptcy code is/are correct?
I. The code seeks to form a special purpose vehicle to coordinate between Indian and
foreign courts for overseas insolvency issues.
II. The NCLT will act as the negotiating authority for insolvency and bankruptcy
proceedings.
III. A new class of insolvency professionals will be created to help the sick companies.

A.I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II, III

62. India has recently launched Lithium –ion battery project. Which of the following statements
about Li-ion battery is/are correct?
I. These batteries can store 150 watt-hours electricity per kg of battery.
II. These batteries last for 6-8 years.

A.I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

63. A quadrivalent flu vaccine is:

A. a vaccine with four courses of injection to be given each year for four years for lifetime
protection.
B. One vaccine that protects from four vector borne diseases dengue, chikungunya, malaria
and encephalitis.
C. A vaccine that protects against diseases caused by virus, bacteria, protozoa and fungi
D. A single vaccine that protects against two influenza A viruses and two influenza B viruses.
64. Recently a city has taken up a unique project named ‘Via Verde’ to convert its motorway
(flyover) pillars to vertical gardens for cleaner air. Name the city.
A.Ottawa B. France C. Stockholm D. Mexico

65. Cambridge Analytica, which is at the centre of a cyber controversy is a

A. Social network platform.
B. Software developed by a Cambridge University professor.
C. Global election management firm.
D. U.K. based academic research organization.
66. The NRC (National Register of Citizens) was first prepared in the year
A.1951 B. 2010 C. 2018 D. 1971

67. Kilawea, which recently erupted in Hawaii is a fissure volcano. Which of the following
statements about fissure volcanoes is/are correct?
 I. In these volcanoes lava erupts through linear volcano vent.
II. They are mostly flat with no caldera.
III. The eruptions are almost always highly explosive.

A.I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II, III

68. ‘Baikho’ festival is a spring festival of the

A. Rabha tribe of Assam.
B. Angami tribe of Nagaland.
C. Muri tribe of Chhattisgarh,
D. Lepcha tribe of Sikkim.

69. At the time of British rule in India, the direct elections were for the first time incorporated under
which law/Act?
A. Indian Councils Act, 1892
B. Indian Councils Act, 1909
C. Government of India Act, 1919
D. Government of India Act, 1935
70. A democratic polity is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty. With regard to this principle
consider the following:
I. Plebiscite II. Referendum III. Recall IV. Initiative
Which of the above is/are used in direct democracy?
A. II, III and IV B. I, II C. I, II, III D. All of the above

71. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution?
I. The Preamble is a source of power to the legislature
II. Preamble is a part of the Constitution
III. Preamble cannot be amended
IV. It is non-justiciable, or it is not enforceable in courts of law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) II and IV
B) II only
C) I, III and IV
D) I, II and IV

72. The first schedule of the Indian Constitution pertains to:

I. Names of States
II. Names of Union Territories
 III. Citizenship
IV. Forms of Oaths and Affirmation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) I and III B) I and II C) IV only D) I only
73. According to the Constitution of India, Article 3 authorizes the Parliament to reorganize the
States. With this authority, the Parliament can:
I. Alter the name of any state
II. Diminish the area of any state
III. Alter the boundaries of any state
IV. Increase the area of any state
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. I, III and IV B. I and III C. II, III and IV D. All of the above

74. ‘Right to Property’ was under major controversy since its inception in the Constitution of India.
With regard to its present position, consider the following:
I. It is a Constitutional right
II. The Supreme Court can issue writ jurisdiction, for the violation of the right.
III. The right to property was deleted from Fundamental Rights by the 42nd Amendment
Act, 1976.
Select the correct answer:
A) III only B) I only C) I and II D) I and III
75. By signing the famous ‘Subsidiary Alliance’, Indian state virtually lost control over most of their
rights. Which among the following can best represent the status of Indian states under
‘Subsidiary Alliance’?
I. Lost control over sovereignty in external and internal matters.
II. Limited rights in defense and foreign relations.
III. The Indian rulers become insolvent as a result of exploitation and heavy maintenance of
British army.
IV. Indian ruler (ally) had a provision to station on European for maintaining diplomatic ties with
their neighboring state on his discretion.
Select the correct:
A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II, III, IV
D. None of the above
76. Consider the following Statements:
I. Lord Dalhousie’s Government was responsible for passing two important acts related to
social reform- Women Disability Act and Widow Remarriage Act (1856)
II. Hindu Women was not permitted to remarry as per the Veda, Shastras and Smritis.
Choose the correct options:
A. Only I
B. Only II
 C. Both
D. None
77. With reference to Ryotwari System, consider the following statements:
I. The pioneer of Ryotwari Settlement was Thomas Munro.
II. Land Revenue was collected directly from peasant or ryot.
III. The other name of this system is ‘Permanent Settlement.’
IV. As the Ryots had direct link with the Governments the role of money lenders was
minimal.
Choose the correct options:
A. I, III and IV
B. I and II
C. I, II and III
D. All

78. Which of the following were the demands of non-cooperation movement?

I. Solving Khilafat issue
II. The redressal of the Jallainwallah massacre
III. Attainment of Swaraj
Select the correct code:
A) I only B) I and III only C) I and II only D) All of above
79. Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act, 1935.
I. Governor’s provinces were given autonomy.
II. The Act restricted powers of the Governor to act in his discretion.
III. Ministers held office during the governor’s pleasure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) I and II only B) I only C) I and III only D) II and III only

80. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Amravati School of Art’.

I. The Amaravati School of art and architecture was the indigenous.
II. The Amaravati School developed under the patronage of the Satavahanas of the Andhra
region.
III. Sculptures were carved out of red sandstone.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
A) I and III only B) III only C) I and II only D) All the above