NEO 3.0 Answer Key

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LOGICAL REASONING

1) Five people Larry, Philip, Anna, Jane, Sarah sit in a row, not necessarily in the same order.
Sarah sits exactly in between Philip and Anna. If Larry sits exactly in between Philip and
Jane, then which of the following must be true?

A. Jane sits to the immediate right Philip

B. Larry and Anna always sit together

C. Philip sits exactly at the centre of the row

D. Sarah sits between Philip and Larry

2) Six people A through F are sitting around a circular table such that C is sitting right of E,
and F is to the right of A. If B is sitting to the left of D, and, A and C are sitting adjacent to
each other, then who is sitting opposite D?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. E

3) Four delegates Ashish, Brijesh, Chatur and Dhanesh arrive to attend a meeting. Dhanesh
arrives 10 mins after Brijesh and 20 mins before Ashish, who arrives 10 mins before
Chatur. Who is the first person to arrive at the meeting?

A. Ashish

B. Brijesh

C. Chatur

D. Dhanush
LOGICAL REASONING

4) Six colleagues K,L,M,N,O and P are sitting around a table. K and L do not sit next to each other.
O and P are opposite each other. M is sitting to the immediate right of P. If Kis not between O
and M, then N is not next to P. Which of the following is not an arrangement (in clockwise
direction) satisfying the conditions above?

A. NKOLMP

B. PKNOLM

C. LNOKMP

D. KMPNLO

5) Six classmates Tanmay, Sanjay, Ganpat, Dhruv, Nagraj and Jivan are standing in a queue
at admissions office. Further it is known that: i) Ganpat is two positions ahead Jivan. ii)
Only Nagraj is ahead Tanmay. iii) Neither Sanjay nor Jivan is standing at the end of the
queue. How many persons are ahead of Dhruv but behind Tanmay?

A. Zero

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

6) Six Friends P through U, are sitting around a hexagonal table . S is sitting adjacent to T
and Q. Q is sitting to the left of U and P is sitting to the right of R. Who among them is
sitting opposite R

A. T

B. Q

C. S

D. U
LOGICAL REASONING

7) The Principal called five persons Srinivas, Murali, Raghu, Vijay, and Krishna who are Director,
Secretary, Treasurer, Professor and student leader of a college, not necessarily in that order.
They are seated in the five seats facing the Principal. The Treasurer sat to the immediate left
of Krishna who is one seat away from the Director. Murali is two places away from the
secretary. Vijay, who is the Student Leader, is one place to the right of Murali. What is the
position of Krishna with respect to the Professor?

A. To the immediate right

B. Three places away to the left

C. Two places away to the left

D. None of the above

8) Six person A through F are sitting in a circular table such that A is sitting two places
away to the left of E, who is not adjacent to C and F. D is to the right of E, and A is sitting
between B and F who is sitting opposite D?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. F

6) Seven men A, B, C, D, E, F and G have parked their cars in row. The cars of E and F should
be next to each other. The cars of D and G should be parked next to each other. Whereas
A and B cannot park their cars next to each other. But B and D must park their cars next
to each other and C's car is parked to the immediate right of G's car. If E parks his car to
the left of F, then which of the following statements is False?

A. There are two cars in between B and G's cars

B. B and C's cars are not parked together

C. G's car is the only car in between D and C's cars

D. None of the above


LOGICAL REASONING

10) Eight Boys A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a circular table, not necessarily in the same order.
B and D sit neither adjacent to C nor opposite to C. A sits in between E and D, and F sits in
between B and H. Which of the following is definitely true?

A. H sits in between C and E

B. B sits in between A and G

C. C sits opposite G

D. None of the above

11) FIve persons- Amit, Balram, Chetan, Deepak, and Eswar are sitting in a row facing North.
The following information is known about them: i) Only Deepak is sitting between Amit
and Balram. ii) Neither Amit nor Balram is at the ends. iii) Chetan is sitting to the
immediate left of Balram. Who is sitting at the right end of the row?

A. Amit

B. Balram

C. Chetan

D. Eswar

12) P, Q, R, S, T and U are the six corners of a table which has six sides, not necessarily in the
same order. Persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting along the sides joining the corners, not
necessarily in that order. S is to the right of P and R is to the left of T. A is sitting opposite
to E and to the immediate right of F. D is sitting between the corners P and T and is
opposite to C. If F is sitting between R and U, then who sits between Q and S?

A. A

B. E

C. C

D. B
LOGICAL REASONING

13) FIve persons- Amit, Balram, Chetan, Deepak, and Eswar are sitting in a row facing North. The
following information is known about them: i) Only Deepak is sitting between Amit and
Balram. ii) Neither Amit nor Balram is at the ends. iii) Chetan is sitting to the immediate left of
Balram. How may persons are sitting between Amit and Chetan?

A. Zero

B. One

C. Two

D. Three

14) P, Q, R, S and T sit around a table. P sits two seats to the left of R and Q sits two seats to
the right of R. If S sits in between Q and R, who sits to the immediate right of P?

A. T

B. S

C. Q

D. R

15) FIve persons- Amit, Balram, Chetan, Deepak, and Eswar are sitting in a row facing North.
The following information is known about them: i) Only Deepak is sitting between Amit
and Balram. ii) Neither Amit nor Balram is at the ends. iii) Chetan is sitting to the
immediate left of Balram. What is the position of Eswar with respect to Balram?

A. Immediate Right

B. Second to the left

C. Third to the right

D. Immediate left
LOGICAL REASONING

16) Eight Persons- Arun, Pankaj, Veda, Rohan, Suman, Shanu, Dimple, and Pinky are sitting
around a circular table for a group discussion. Suman is not sitting opposite Pinky and Shanu
is sitting three places away to the right of Pankaj. Dimple is sitting in between Pankaj and
Suman. Rohan is sitting adjacent right of Pankaj who is sitting opposite Arun. Pinky is sitting
opposite of Rohan. Who is sitting opposite Dimple?

A. Pinky

B. Shanu

C. Rohan

D. Veda

17) Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a row facing North. Further it is known that: i)
Exactly two persons are sitting between P and Q. ii) Exactly one person is sitting
between T and U. iii) Q is sitting at the end of the row. If U is adjacent to S, then how
many persons are sitting between U and R?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Cannot be determined

18) Six persons- A through F sit around a circular table such that A is sitting two places away
to the left of E, who is not adjacent to either C or F. D is to the immediate right of E. A is
adjacent to both B and F. Who is sitting opposite D?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. F
LOGICAL REASONING

19) Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a row facing North. Further it is known that: i)
Exactly two persons are sitting between P and Q. ii) Exactly one person is sitting between T
and U. iii) Q is sitting at the end of the row. If S is sitting to the immediate right of T, then who
is sitting second to the right of R?

A. P

B. T

C. U

D. S

20) Six persons- A through F sit around a rectangular table, not necessarily in the same order.
Two persons sit along each of the longer sides and one sits along each of the shorter
sides. Further it is known that B is to the immediate left of D but is not adjacent to F. B is
at one of the shorter ends. Also it is known that, C sits opposite E but is not adjacent to D.
Who sits opposite B?

A. E

B. A

C. F

D. C

21) Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a row facing North. Further it is known that: i)
Exactly two persons are sitting between P and Q. ii) Exactly one person is sitting
between T and U. iii) Q is sitting at the end of the row. Who among the following cannot
be adjacent to T?

A. P

B. S

C. R

D. None of these
LOGICAL REASONING

22) Eight Persons- Arun, Pankaj, Veda, Rohan, Suman, Shanu, Dimple, and Pinky are sitting
around a circular table for a group discussion. Suman is not sitting opposite Pinky and Shanu
is sitting three places away to the right of Pankaj. Dimple is sitting in between Pankaj and
Suman. Rohan is sitting adjacent right of Pankaj who is sitting opposite Arun. Pinky is sitting
opposite of Rohan. Who is sitting opposite Veda?

A. Suman

B. Pinky

C. Shanu

D. Rohan

23) Six friends A through F stand in a queue, but not necessarily in the same order. Exactly
two persons stand ahead of D and exactly two behind C. Two person stand in between A
and E. A stands exactly between C and F. Who stands ahead of D but behind B?

A. C

B. A

C. E

D. C or A

24) Six persons A through F are seated around a circular table, but not necessarily in the
same order. A is to the immediate left of D. B is three places away from E but not
adjacent to A. C is to the immediate right of F. Who is two places away to the left of E?

A. C

B. F

C. B

D. D
LOGICAL REASONING

25) Six friends A through F stand in a queue, but not necessarily in the same order. Exactly two
persons stand ahead of D and exactly two behind C. Two person stand in between and E. A
stands exactly between C and F. How many persons stand behind B?

A. Five

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

26) Seven Persons A, B, C, D , E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre
not necessarily in that order. C is sitting third to the left of E. D is not the neighbour of
either C or E. B is sitting second to the right of F, who is not adjacent to E. A is not
adjacent to D. Who is sitting to the right of F?

A. C

B. A

C. D

D. B

27) Five persons A to E sit in a row, not necessarily in the same order. B is to the right end of D
but is is not at any one of the ends. C is to the left of A. D is to the immediate left of E, who
is at the centre. Who is to the immediate left of B?

A. C

B. D

C. A

D. E
LOGICAL REASONING

28) Seven Persons A, B, C, D , E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre not
necessarily in that order. C is sitting third to the left of E. D is not the neighbour of either C or
E. B is sitting second to the right of F, who is not adjacent to E. A is not adjacent to D. Who is
sitting between D and E?

A. A

B. G

C. F

D. C

29) Five persons A to E sit in a row, not necessarily in the same order. B is to the right end of D
but is is not at any one of the ends. C is to the left of A. D is to the immediate left of E, who
is at the centre. What is the order in which these five persons can sit?

A. ACEDB

B. CAEBD

C. ABECD

D. CDEBA

30) Seven Persons A, B, C, D , E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre
not necessarily in that order. C is sitting third to the left of E. D is not the neighbour of
either C or E. B is sitting second to the right of F, who is not adjacent to E. A is not
adjacent to D. Who is sitting to the left of A?

A. B

B. F

C. C

D. E
LOGICAL REASONING

31) In a class of 150 students, 45 take History, 65 take Geography and 10 take both History and
Geography. There are some students who did not take any of the subjects. How many
Students take only Geography?

A. 45

B. 10

C. 65

D. 55

32) In a locality three magazines are read namely India Today, Sports Star and Business India.
45 people read only one magazine, 20 read exactly two magazines and 5 read all the
three magazines. There is no one who does not read any of the three magazines. How
many people are there in the locality?

A. 65

B. 70

C. 50

D. 90

33) In a class of 100 students, 50 students passed in mathematics and 70 passed in english. 5
students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the
subjects?

A. 25

B. 50

C. 70

D. 5
LOGICAL REASONING

34) In a class, 30% of the students gave their names to participate in the NSS and 75% to
participate in the NCC. Three students participate in neither of these two and six students
wanted to participate in both. How many students are there in the class?

A. 100

B. 75

C. 60

D. 80

35) In a class of 150 students, 45 take History, 65 take Geography and 10 take both History
and Geography. There are some students who did not take any of the subjects. How
many Students take only History?

A. 65

B. 35

C. 10

D. 45

36) In a locality three magazines are read namely India Today, Sports Star and Business India.
45 people read only one magazine, 20 read exactly two magazines and 5 read all the
three magazines. There is no one who does not read any of the three magazines. How
many people read at least 2 magazines?

A. 25

B. 20

C. 50

D. 45
LOGICAL REASONING

37) In a class of 100 students, 50 students passed in mathematics and 70 passed in english. 5
students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in exactly one
of the two subjects?

A. 5

B. 15

C. 90

D. 75

38) In a class, 30% of the students gave their names to participate in the NSS and 75% to
participate in the NCC. Three students participate in neither of these two and six
students wanted to participate in both. How many students want to participate in at
least one program?

A. 97

B. 87

C. 147

D. 57

39) In a College, 150 students are members of Club X, 140 students are the members of Club Y
and 165 students are the members of Club Z. 25 students are the members of both the
Clubs X and Y. 35 students are the members of both the clubs Y and Z and 30 students
are members of Clubs X and Z. 15 students are the members of all the three clubs. Each
student is a member of at least one of the club. How many students are there in the
College?

A. 25

B. 20

C. 50

D. 45
LOGICAL REASONING

40) In a survey conducted among 200 families, it was found that 140 use Apple Mobile phones,
120 use Redmi phones and 143 use Samsung Phones. 95 use both Apple and Redmi. 85 use
both Redmi and Samsung. 93 use both Apple and Samsung. 70 families use mobile phones of
all three brands. How many families use none of the mobile phones?

A. 10

B. 70

C. 0

D. Cannot be determined

41) In a class of 150 students, 45 take History, 65 take Geography and 10 take both History
and Geography. There are some students who did not take any of the subjects. How
many Students take at least one subject?

A. 10

B. 90

C. 50

D. 100

42) In a locality three magazines are read namely India Today, Sports Star and Business India.
45 people read only one magazine, 20 read exactly two magazines and 5 read all the
three magazines. There is no one who does not read any of the three magazines. What
percentage (approx) of people who read at least one magazine read exactly two
magazines?

A. 25%

B. 20%

C. 29%

D. None of these
LOGICAL REASONING

43) In a class of 100 students, 50 students passed in mathematics and 70 passed in english. 5
students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students failed in at least one
subject?

A. 95

B. 50

C. 75

D. 70

44) In a class, 30% of the students gave their names to participate in the NSS and 75% to
participate in the NCC. Three students participate in neither of these two and six
students wanted to participate in both. What percentage of students want to participate
in only one program- either NSS or NCC?

A. 85%

B. 90%

C. 75%

D. 20%

45) In a survey conducted among 200 families, it was found that 140 use Apple Mobile
phones, 120 use Redmi phones and 143 use Samsung Phones. 95 use both Apple and
Redmi. 85 use both Redmi and Samsung. 93 use both Apple and Samsung. 70 families
use mobile phones of all three brands. How many families use mobile phones of only
Samsung?

A. 50

B. 35

C. 70

D. 143
LOGICAL REASONING

46) In a class of 150 students, 45 take History, 65 take Geography and 10 take both History and
Geography. There are some students who did not take any of the subjects. How many
Students do not take any of the two subjects?

A. 90

B. 10

C. 50

D. 100

47) In a music concert there were Cassettes containing to three types of music: Pop, Classical
and Light Music. There were 125 cassettes of Pop Music, 135 of Classical Music, and 95 of
Light Music. 60 Cassettes had a mixture of at least two of these types and 10 cassettes
had a mixture of all the three types. How many cassettes were of exactly one music type?

A. 60

B. 70

C. 225

D. 200

48) In Gokuldham Society 60% people read the newspaper 'Times India' and 35% read only
'Hindu'. 10% read both the newspaper and 240 people do not read any of the two news
paper. How many people live in Gokuldham Society?

A. 4800

B. 2400

C. 2000

D. 4000
LOGICAL REASONING

49) In a class of 130 students, 85 passed in Maths, 60 passed in Social Studies and 10 failed in both
the subjects. How many students passed in both the subjects?

A. 25

B. 15

C. 35

D. 20

50) In a survey conducted among 200 families, it was found that 140 use Apple Mobile
phones, 120 use Redmi phones and 143 use Samsung Phones. 95 use both Apple and
Redmi. 85 use both Redmi and Samsung. 93 use both Apple and Samsung. 70 families
use mobile phones of all three brands. How many families use mobile phones of exactly
one company?

A. 70

B. 63

C. 67

D. 200

51) In Gokuldham Society 60% people read the newspaper 'Times India' and 35% read only
'Hindu'. 10% read both the newspaper and 240 people do not read any of the two news
paper. How many people read only Times India?

A. 2880

B. 2000

C. 2400

D. 2800
LOGICAL REASONING

52) Referring the below Venn diagram, how many singers are Actors as well as Engineers?

A. 21

B. 3

C. 9

D. 2

53) In a music concert there were Cassettes containing to three types of music: Pop, Classical
and Light Music. There were 125 cassettes of Pop Music, 135 of Classical Music, and 95 of
Light Music. 60 Cassettes had a mixture of at least two of these types and 10 cassettes
had a mixture of all the three types. How many cassettes were there in total?

A. 285

B. 300

C. 355

D. 320

54) In a College Hostel, among 600 bicycle owners, each having one or more than one Bicycle
models. 200 students had bicycle model 'Ranger', 250 students had 'Cyclone' and 300
students had 'Atlas' with them. 70 of them had exactly two models of Bicycles. How
many had all the three models?

A. 70

B. 40

C. 60

D. 110
LOGICAL REASONING

55) In a survey conducted among 200 families, it was found that 140 use Apple Mobile phones,
120 use Redmi phones and 143 use Samsung Phones. 95 use both Apple and Redmi. 85 use
both Redmi and Samsung. 93 use both Apple and Samsung. 70 families use mobile phones of
all three brands. How many families use mobile phones of only Apple?

A. 22

B. 35

C. 15

D. 10

56) In Gokuldham Society 60% people read the newspaper 'Times India' and 35% read only
'Hindu'. 10% read both the newspaper and 240 people do not read any of the two news
paper. How many people read at most one newspaper?

A. 4200

B. 4400

C. 4560

D. 4320

57) In a College Hostel, among 600 bicycle owners, each having one or more than one Bicycle
models. 200 students had bicycle model 'Ranger', 250 students had 'Cyclone' and 300
students had 'Atlas' with them. 70 of them had exactly two models of Bicycles. How
many had only one model of bicycle with them?

A. 70

B. 200

C. 490

D. 250
LOGICAL REASONING

58) In a music concert there were Cassettes containing to three types of music: Pop, Classical and
Light Music. There were 125 cassettes of Pop Music, 135 of Classical Music, and 95 of Light
Music. 60 Cassettes had a mixture of at least two of these types and 10 cassettes had a
mixture of all the three types. How many cassettes had exactly two types of Music?

A. 60

B. 50

C. 100

D. 90

59) In a survey conducted among 200 families, it was found that 140 use Apple Mobile
phones, 120 use Redmi phones and 143 use Samsung Phones. 95 use both Apple and
Redmi. 85 use both Redmi and Samsung. 93 use both Apple and Samsung. 70 families
use mobile phones of all three brands. How many families use mobile phones of only
Redmi?

A. 15

B. 25

C. 70

D. 10

60) In a class of 130 students, 85 passed in Maths, 60 passed in Social Studies and 10 failed in
both the subjects. How many students failed in exactly one subject?

A. 35

B. 60

C. 95

D. 105
LOGICAL REASONING

61) Referring the below Venn diagram, how many Engineers are either singers or actors but not
both?

A. 25

B. 28

C. 35

D. 30

62) At Least two boys out of A, B , C and D and at least two girls out of P, Q, R and S have to be
chosen to form a group of 5 members. Neither A nor C can go with Q. Neither P nor S can
go with B. Q and RF cannot be together. Which of the following is an acceptable team?

A. ARCQP

B. ASQPD

C. ASQRP

D. PSRAD

63) Adam, Andy, Anil, Ann, Jack, John, James and Jill want to go to a nearby city. Only two
vehicles, a van and a car, are available. Only Alen and Jack know how to drive the van,
hence at least one of them must be in the van. Each vehicle has a seating capacity of
exactly four persons. Adam and Anil cannot go in the same and John and James must go
in the same vehicle. Which of the following cannot be the list of persons who are in the
car?

A. John, James, Andy, Alen

B. Adam, James, John, Jack

C. Anil, James, John, Jill

D. Anil, Andy, Jill, Alen


LOGICAL REASONING

64) For a Gully cricket tournament, a team of five players is to be selected from the available
group of ten kids- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. i) Exactly one of G and H must be selected. ii) H
and A must be selected together, if selected. iii) B and F must be selected together, if
selected. iv) F and J cannot be selected together. v) C and D cannot be selected together. If G
is not selected and J is selected, then the total number of possible selections are:

A. Four

B. Five

C. Two

D. Six

65) For a Gully cricket tournament, a team of five players is to be selected from the available
group of ten kids- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. i) Exactly one of G and H must be selected. ii)
H and A must be selected together, if selected. iii) B and F must be selected together, if
selected. iv) F and J cannot be selected together. v) C and D cannot be selected together.
Which of the following statements must be true?

A. If G is selected, then at least one of E and I is selected

B. If G is selected, then B is selected

C. If H and B are selected, then E cannot be selected

D. If J is not selected, then B is selected

66) For a Gully cricket tournament, a team of five players is to be selected from the available
group of ten kids- A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J. i) Exactly one of G and H must be selected. ii)
H and A must be selected together, if selected. iii) B and F must be selected together, if
selected. iv) F and J cannot be selected together. v) C and D cannot be selected together.
If G is selected, then which of the following can be the group of players who are not
selected?

A. H, A, F, D, I

B. H, A, D, E, I

C. H, C, D, J, A

D. H, D, J, E, I
LOGICAL REASONING

67) A group of five is to be formed from a group of nine students A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I. If A is


selected, then F is selected. If F is selected then D is not selected. G is selected only if I is
selected. If H is selected then C is not selected. If B is not selected, then C is selected. If D is
selected, then who among the following must be selected?

A. C

B. G

C. D

D. I

68) Each of P, Q, and R has to select two items from the six items- A, B, C, D, E, F. If P selects A,
then Q does not select E. Only if R selects E, Q does not select B. If P selects D, then R will
not select C. If P does not select F, then R will select B. If Q selects E, then P selects : ?

A. B and D

B. F and D

C. C and D

D. F and C

69) In a college hostel, a group of four students is to be selected from a set of eight friends to
book an Uber. Agni, Ravi, Tarum, Daman, Mohan, Nikesh, lalit, and Bindu, under the
following conditions: i) Nikesh and Ravi cannot be selected together. ii) At least one
between Tarun and Lilit must be selected. iii) At most, one among Agni, Daman and
Bindu can be selected. iv) Unless Mohan is selected, Tarun cannot be selected. Who must
always be there in the team?

A. Mohan

B. Tarun

C. Lalit

D. More than one of the above


LOGICAL REASONING

70) In a college hostel, a group of four students is to be selected from a set of eight friends to
book an Uber. Agni, Ravi, Tarum, Daman, Mohan, Nikesh, lalit, and Bindu, under the following
conditions: i) Nikesh and Ravi cannot be selected together. ii) At least one between Tarun and
Lilit must be selected. iii) At most, one among Agni, Daman and Bindu can be selected. iv)
Unless Mohan is selected, Tarun cannot be selected. Which of the following is not a possible
team?

A. Mohan, Tarun, Lalit, Agni

B. Nikesh, Mohan, Tarun, Daman

C. Bindu, Nikesh, Mohan, Lalit

D. Lalit, Nikesh, Tarun, Bindu

71) In a college hostel, a group of four students is to be selected from a set of eight friends to
book an Uber. Agni, Ravi, Tarum, Daman, Mohan, Nikesh, lalit, and Bindu, under the
following conditions: i) Nikesh and Ravi cannot be selected together. ii) At least one
between Tarun and Lilit must be selected. iii) At most, one among Agni, Daman and
Bindu can be selected. iv) Unless Mohan is selected, Tarun cannot be selected. In how
many ways can the team be selected if Lalit is not selected?

A. Eight

B. Six

C. Ten
D. None of these

72) In a college hostel, a group of four students is to be selected from a set of eight friends to
book an Uber. Agni, Ravi, Tarum, Daman, Mohan, Nikesh, lalit, and Bindu, under the
following conditions: i) Nikesh and Ravi cannot be selected together. ii) At least one
between Tarun and Lilit must be selected. iii) At most, one among Agni, Daman and
Bindu can be selected. iv) Unless Mohan is selected, Tarun cannot be selected. Which of
the following conditions would help to get only one possible way to select the team?

A. Tarun and Daman should always be selected together

B. At most, one among Agni and Rani can be selected

C. Unless Agni is selected, Nikesh is not to be selected

D. None of these
LOGICAL REASONING
73) Three girls- Anjali, Bharathi and Chandrika and four boys- Kiran, Lala, Manoj and Naveen are
to be divided into two teams under the following constraints: i) Each team must have at least
one girl and at least one boy and at least three persons in total. ii) If Anjali and Bharathi are
selected in a team, then the team must have only one boy. iii) Kiran and Lala cannot be in the
same team. iv) Chandrika and Naveen can be in the same team, only if Bharathi is selected in
that team. If Kiran and Chandrika are in the same team, then in how many ways can the other
team be selected?

A. Six

B. Four

C. Three

D. Five

74) Three girls- Anjali, Bharathi and Chandrika and four boys- Kiran, Lala, Manoj and Naveen
are to be divided into two teams under the following constraints: i) Each team must have
at least one girl and at least one boy and at least three persons in total. ii) If Anjali and
Bharathi are selected in a team, then the team must have only one boy. iii) Kiran and Lala
cannot be in the same team. iv) Chandrika and Naveen can be in the same team, only if
Bharathi is selected in that team. If Manoj is not in the same team as Bharathi, then in
how many ways can the teams be selected?

A. Three

B. Four

C. Five

D. Six

75) Three girls- Anjali, Bharathi and Chandrika and four boys- Kiran, Lala, Manoj and Naveen
are to be divided into two teams under the following constraints: i) Each team must have
at least one girl and at least one boy and at least three persons in total. ii) If Anjali and
Bharathi are selected in a team, then the team must have only one boy. iii) Kiran and Lala
cannot be in the same team. iv) Chandrika and Naveen can be in the same team, only if
Bharathi is selected in that team. If three boys are selected into one team, then in how
many ways can the teams be selected?

A. Four

B. Five

C. Six

D. Three
LOGICAL REASONING

76) A team is to be selected from eight persons- P, Q, R, S T, U, V and W under the following
constraints. i) At Least one of P, Q, and R must be selected. ii) At most two of S, T and U can be
selected. iii) V and W cannot be selected together. iv) If one Q, S and V is selected, then the
other two must not be selected. v) If one of R, U and W is selected, then the other two must be
selected. What can be the maximum size of the team?

A. Six

B. Five

C. Four

D. Three

77) A team is to be selected from eight persons- P, Q, R, S T, U, V and W under the following
constraints. i) At Least one of P, Q, and R must be selected. ii) At most two of S, T and U
can be selected. iii) V and W cannot be selected together. iv) If one Q, S and V is selected,
then the other two must not be selected. v) If one of R, U and W is selected, then the
other two must be selected. If W is selected, then at most how many more persons can
be selected along with him?

A. Six

B. Five

C. Four
D. Three

78) A team is to be selected from eight persons- P, Q, R, S T, U, V and W under the following
constraints. i) At Least one of P, Q, and R must be selected. ii) At most two of S, T and U
can be selected. iii) V and W cannot be selected together. iv) If one Q, S and V is selected,
then the other two must not be selected. v) If one of R, U and W is selected, then the
other two must be selected. If S is not selected, then what can be the minimum size of
the team?

A. Three

B. Two

C. One

D. None of these
LOGICAL REASONING

79) A team of four persons is to be selected from seven persons - Anuj, Bindu, Chanti, Dheeraj,
Eswar, Farhaan and Ganesh under the following constraints: i) At most two of Chanti, Eswar
and Ganesh can be selected. ii) At Least one of Anuj and Bindu must be selected. iii) If Farhaan
is selected, then neither Anuj nor Chanti can be selected. If Dheeraj is selected, then in how
many ways can the team be selected?

A. Eight

B. Ten

C. Nine

D. Eleven

80) A team of four persons is to be selected from seven persons - Anuj, Bindu, Chanti,
Dheeraj, Eswar, Farhaan and Ganesh under the following constraints: i) At most two of
Chanti, Eswar and Ganesh can be selected. ii) At Least one of Anuj and Bindu must be
selected. iii) If Farhaan is selected, then neither Anuj nor Chanti can be selected. If at
most one of Farhan and Ganesha can be selected, then in how many ways can the team
be selected?

A. 11

B. 12

C. 13
D. 14

81) A team of four persons is to be selected from seven persons - Anuj, Bindu, Chanti,
Dheeraj, Eswar, Farhaan and Ganesh under the following constraints: i) At most two of
Chanti, Eswar and Ganesh can be selected. ii) At Least one of Anuj and Bindu must be
selected. iii) If Farhaan is selected, then neither Anuj nor Chanti can be selected. If Eswar
is not selected, then in how many ways can the team be selected?

A. Six

B. Seven

C. Eight

D. Nine
LOGICAL REASONING

82) A team of three is to be selected from six persons - Amar, Bhawan, Chetan, Dawan, Ekta and
Farheen under the following constraints. i) If Amar or Bhavan is selected, then Chetan must
not be selected. ii) If Chetan or Dawan is selected, then at least one of Ekta and Farheen must
be selected. If Dawan is selected, then who must not be selected?

A. Amar

B. Bhavan

C. Chetan

D. None of these

83) A team of three is to be selected from six persons - Amar, Bhawan, Chetan, Dawan, Ekta
and Farheen under the following constraints. i) If Amar or Bhavan is selected, then
Chetan must not be selected. ii) If Chetan or Dawan is selected, then at least one of Ekta
and Farheen must be selected. If Amar is selected, then in how many ways the team can
be selected?

A. Five

B. Six

C. Four

D. Seven

84) A team of three is to be selected from six persons - Amar, Bhawan, Chetan, Dawan, Ekta
and Farheen under the following constraints. i) If Amar or Bhavan is selected, then
Chetan must not be selected. ii) If Chetan or Dawan is selected, then at least one of Ekta
and Farheen must be selected. If Bhavan is selected, then who must be selected?

A. Dhavan

B. Ekta

C. Farheen

D. Either B or C
LOGICAL REASONING
85) Vincent asked Anthony to select 6 pens of different colours from the available ten colours-
Orange, Red, Blue, White, Pink, Yellow, Black, Grey, Violet and Brown. Vincent has laid down
some conditions for Anthony, as given below: i) If Anthony selects the Grey pen, then he must
select the Black pen also, and vice versa. ii) If Anthony selects the Blue pen, then he must
select the Orange pen also, and vice versa. iii) If Anthony selects the Yellow pen, then he
cannot select the Grey pen. iv) Exactly one of Red and Violet pens must be selected. If
Anthony does not select the Grey or the Brown pen, then among the following choices he can
reject the:

A. Pink Pen

B. White Pen

C. Red Pen
D. Orange Pen

86) Vincent asked Anthony to select 6 pens of different colours from the available ten
colours- Orange, Red, Blue, White, Pink, Yellow, Black, Grey, Violet and Brown. Vincent
has laid down some conditions for Anthony, as given below: i) If Anthony selects the Grey
pen, then he must select the Black pen also, and vice versa. ii) If Anthony selects the Blue
pen, then he must select the Orange pen also, and vice versa. iii) If Anthony selects the
Yellow pen, then he cannot select the Grey pen. iv) Exactly one of Red and Violet pens
must be selected. Which of the following can be the list of colours of pens selected by
Anthony?

A. Yellow, Pink, White, Blue, Brown, Orange

B. Red, Blue, Orange, White, Grey, Yellow

C. Black, Grey, Brown, Violet, Pink, White

D. Red, Pink, Blue, Orange, Violet, White

87) Vincent asked Anthony to select 6 pens of different colours from the available ten
colours- Orange, Red, Blue, White, Pink, Yellow, Black, Grey, Violet and Brown. Vincent
has laid down some conditions for Anthony, as given below: i) If Anthony selects the Grey
pen, then he must select the Black pen also, and vice versa. ii) If Anthony selects the Blue
pen, then he must select the Orange pen also, and vice versa. iii) If Anthony selects the
Yellow pen, then he cannot select the Grey pen. iv) Exactly one of Red and Violet pens
must be selected. Which of the following can confirm the selection of pens?
A. Blue and Yellow pens are selected

B. Red and Grey pens are selected

C. Orange and Red pens are not selected


D. Grey pen is not selected, but the orange pen is selected
LOGICAL REASONING

88) A team of three persons is to be selected for a game of Golf from a group of five persons- A, B,
C, D, and E under the following constraints: i) If A is selected, then B must be selected. ii) If C is
not selected, then E must be selected. In how many ways can the team be selected?

A. Eight

B. Six

C. Seven

D. None of these

89) A team of three persons is to be selected for a game of Golf from a group of five persons-
A, B, C, D, and E under the following constraints: i) If A is selected, then B must be
selected. ii) If C is not selected, then E must be selected. If D is not selected, then who
must always be selected?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. E

90) A team of three persons is to be selected for a game of Golf from a group of five persons-
A, B, C, D, and E under the following constraints: i) If A is selected, then B must be
selected. ii) If C is not selected, then E must be selected. Which of the following is not a
possible team?

A. C, E, D

B. E, A, B

C. C, B, D

D. A, B, D
LOGICAL REASONING

91) The question consists of six statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find the
set in which the third statement can be logically concluded from the first two statements. a)
No wolf is a tiger. b) No deer is tiger. c) Some bears are not tigers. d) Many deers are not bears.
e) Some bears are wolves. f) No deer is wolf.

A. aec

B. bfd

C. efd

D. fbd

92) The question consists of six statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find
the set in which the third statement can be logically concluded from the first two
statements. a) Anything which is kind is gentle.b) Everything which is gentle is not hard.
c) Nothing which is firm is gentle. d) Something which is firm is hard. e) Many things
which are hard are not kind. f) Nothing which is kind is firm.

A. acf

B. dfe

C. abe

D. More than one of the above

93) The question consists of six statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find
the set in which the third statement can be logically concluded from the first two
statements. a) Screening is sedimentation. b) Sedimentation is purification. c)
Purification is filtration. d) Filtration is screening e) Screening is purification. f)
Sedimentation is filtration.

A. cde

B. bfc

C. bcf

D. aeb
LOGICAL REASONING

94) The question consists of six statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find the
set in which the third statement can be logically concluded from the first two statements. a)
No fish is bird. b) Flyers are gliders. c) No flyer is fish. d) Some gliders are birds. e) No flyer is
bird. f) Some flyers are birds.

A. dbf

B. ace

C. efd

D. None of these

95) The question consists of six statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find
the set in which the third statement can be logically concluded from the first two
statements. a) Junk food contains more fat. b) Fast food is not healthy. c) Fast food does
not contain more fat. d) Junk foods are fast foods. e) Some fast food are junk foods. f)
Junk food is not healthy.

A. dbf

B. ace

C. efd

D. None of these

96) The question consists of five statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find
the set in which the third statement can be logically concluded from the first two
statements. a) All experiments are good results. b) Some experiments are mistakes. c) All
scientists are mistakes. d) Some mistakes are good results. e) Some scientists are
experiments.

A. bce

B. adb

C. bad

D. aeb
LOGICAL REASONING

97) The question consists of five statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find the
set in which the third statement can be logically concluded from the first two statements. a)
All advertisements are bulletins. b) All notifications are bulletins. c) All bulletins are
notifications. d) All advertisements are notifications. e) All notifications are reports.

A. abd

B. adc

C. ace

D. dba

98) The question consists of five statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find
the set in which the third statement can be logically concluded from the first two
statements. a) All hey days are working days. b) No Sunday is a working day. c) Some
public holidays are Sundays. d) Some public holidays are hey days. e) Hey days are not
Sundays.

A. abe

B. ced

C. bde

D. aeb

99) The question consists of six statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find
the set in which the statements are logically related. a) Shed is not shelter. b) Roof is
protection. c) Roof is shed. d) Roof is shelter. e) Some shelter is not protection. f) Shed is
protection.

A. cde

B. aef

C. bcf

D. More than one of the above


LOGICAL REASONING

100) The question consists of six statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find the
set in which the statements are logically related. a) Engineers are not doctors. b) Some
doctors are psychologists. c) Some doctors are not professors. d) Some engineers are
professors. e) No professor is a psychologist. f) Some psychologists are not engineers.

A. acf

B. def

C. bfa

D. All the above

101) The question consists of six statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find
the set in which the statements are logically related. a) All cricketers are footballers. b)
All footballers are magicians. c) All magicians are cricketers. d) Some cricketers are
footballers. e) Some footballers are magicians. f) Some magicians are cricketers.

A. abc

B. efb

C. bcd

D. def

102) The question consists of six statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find
the set in which the statements are logically related. a) Some RCs are not DCs. b) All PCs
are ACs. c) Some ACs are not RCs. d) Some ACs are not DCs. e) Many RCs are PCs. f) Some
PCs are not DCs.

A. ceb

B. fdb

C. afe

D. dbe
LOGICAL REASONING

103) The question consists of six statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find the
set in which the statements are logically related. a) Truss is not roof. b) Truss is not timber. c)
Post is roof. d) Timber is roof. e) Post is not truss. f) Timber is post.

A. bfe

B. cae

C. cdf

D. More than one of the above

104) The question consists of six statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find
the set in which the statements are logically related. a) Some sellers are buyers. b) All
consumers are shoppers. c) Some buyers are shoppers. d) All shoppers are sellers. e)
Some customers are consumers. f) All sellers are consumers.

A. eac

B. fdb

C. dfb

D. acd

105) The question consists of six statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find
the set in which the statements are logically related. a) Some rational are real. b) All
rational are typical. c) All real are natural. d) All natural are rational. e) Some real are not
rational. f) Some typical are rational.

A. ade

B. ace

C. dbf

D. cdb
LOGICAL REASONING

106) The question consists of six statements followed by sets of three statements each. Find the
set in which the statements are logically related. a) Some bowlers are not cricketers. b) Some
cricketers are not batsman. c) No Bowler is a batsman. d) All bowlers are batsmen. e) Some
cricketers are batsmen. f) Some cricketers are not bowlers.

A. bea

B. eda

C. aec

D. fdb

107) The questions given below have four groups of three statements each. Read the
statements in each group and identify the groups where the third statement logically
follows the first two statements in the group. a) i) Some lawyers are principled. ii) No
principled is a liar. iii) Some lawyers are not liars. b) i) All dreamers are practical. ii) Some
dreamers are achievers. iii) Some achievers are nationals. c) i) All citizens are nationals. ii)
All foreigners have xenophobia. iii) Some citizens are foreigners. d) i) No winner is a
stopper. ii) All stoppers are losers. iii) Some losers are not winners.

A. Only a and c

B. Only d and c

C. Only d and b

D. Only a and d

108) The questions given below have four groups of three statements each. Read the
statements in each group and identify the groups where the third statement logically
follows the first two statements in the group. a) i) All evenings are pleasant. ii) Some days
are pleasant. iii) Some days are evenings. b) i) No painters are seller. ii) All painters are
taxpayers. iii) Some sellers are tax prayers. c) i) All children are active. ii) All elders are
hyper. iii) All hyper are active. d) i) SOme fashions are vogue. ii) No style is vogue. iii)
Some fashions are styles.

A. Only a, b and d

B. Only b

C. Only d

D. None of these
LOGICAL REASONING
109) The questions given below have four groups of three statements each. Read the statements
in each group and identify the groups where the third statement logically follows the first
two statements in the group. a) i) All deserts are cactus. ii) All camels are cactus. iii) Camels
are found in deserts. b) i) Dogs are not rats. ii) Rats are rodents. iii) Dogs are not rodents. c) i)
All rulers are emperors. ii) No ruler is chanakya. iii) Chanakya is not an emperor. d) i)
Condolence is compassion. ii) Concern is condolence. iii) Concern is compassion.

A. Only a and b
B. Only b and c
C. Only a and c

D. Only d

110) The questions given below have four groups of three statements each. Read the
statements in each group and identify the groups where the third statement logically
follows the first two statements in the group. a) i) All palaces are villas. ii) Some
mansions are palaces. iii) Some villas are mansions. b) i) Politicians are polite. ii) Pluto is
not polite. iii) Pluto is not a politician. c) i) Some countries are good governments. ii) Only
democracies are good governments. iii) Some countries are democracies. d) i) Some
opinions are judgements. ii) All decisions are judgements. iii) Some decisions are
opinions.

A. Only a

B. Only b

C. Only a,b and c


D. Only b and d

111) The following question consists of six statements followed by options consisting of three
statements put together in a specific order. Choose the options that indicates a
combination where the third statement can be logically deduced from the first two
statements and that option will be your answer. i) All R is X. ii) Some X is P. iii) No P is Q.
iv) No X is T. v) Some Q is R. vi) No R is T.

A. [ i,ii, v]

B. [ ii, iii,v]

C. [ i, iv, vi]

D. [ iii,v,vi]
LOGICAL REASONING

112) The following question consists of six statements followed by options consisting of three
statements arranged in the right order. The correct option indicates a combination where
third statement can be logically deduced from the first two statements. i) All A is R. ii) All X is
R. iii) Some R is X. iv) Some P is A. v) Some X is A. vi) Some P is Z.

A. [vi, iv, i]

B. [ i,iii, vi]

C. [ i, ii, iv]

D. [i ,v, iii]

113) The following question consists of six statements followed by options consisting of three
statements arranged in the right order. The correct option indicates a combination
where third statement can be logically deduced from the first two statements. i) All
Smart are Dogs. ii) Some Dogs are Banana. iii) No Banana is Parrot. iv) Some Parrot is
Rabbit. v) All Rabbit is Xebra. vi) Some Xebra is Parrot.

A. [ iv, vi, v]

B. [ i, ii, v]

C. [ ii, iii, vi]

D. [ iv, v ,vi]

114) The following question consists of two statements followed by four options, select the
alternative that logically follows from the two given statements, but not from one
statement alone. 1) Some shirts are pants. 2) All pants are shorts.

A. No shirt is shorts.

B. Some shirts are shorts.

C. All shirts are shorts.

D. None of the above


LOGICAL REASONING

115) The following question consists of two statements followed by four options, select the
alternative that logically follows from the two given statements, but not from one statement
alone. 1) Some gauges are cages. 2) Some cages are not catches.

A. Some gauges are not catches

B. No gauge is a catch

C. Some gauges are catches.

D. None of the above.

116) The following question consists of two statements followed by four options, select the
alternative that logically follows from the two given statements, but not from one
statement alone. 1) No red is black. 2) All blue are black.

A. All red are blue

B. Some red are blue

C. No red is blue

D. None of the above

117) The following question consists of two statements followed by four options, select the
alternative that logically follows from the two given statements, but not from one
statement alone. 1) Some hammers are tools. 2) All tools are made of iron.

A. Some hammers are made of Iron

B. Some hammers are not made of Iron

C. No hammer is made of Iron

D. None of the above


LOGICAL REASONING

118) The following question consists of two statements followed by four options, select the
alternative that logically follows from the two given statements, but not from one statement
alone. 1) Some MBA's are CEO's. 2) All CEO's are directors.

A. Some MBA's are not directors.

B. Some MBA's are directors

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

119) The following question consists of two statements followed by four options, select the
alternative that logically follows from the two given statements, but not from one
statement alone. 1) All cigarettes are cigars. 2) Some cigarettes are not good for health.

A. Some cigars are not good for health

B. Some cigars are good for health

C. No cigar is good for health

D. Both A and B

120) The following question consists of two statements followed by four options, select the
alternative that logically follows from the two given statements, but not from one
statement alone. 1) Some tools are not hammers. 2) All tools are made of Iron.

A. Some hammers are made of Iron

B. Some hammers are not made of Iron

C. Some things made of Iron are not hammers

D. None of the above


LOGICAL REASONING

121) A # B means B is at 1 metre to the right of A.


A $ B means B is at 1 metre to the North of A.
A * B means B is at 1 metre to the left of A.
A @ B means B is at 1 metre to the south of A.
Given that, first person from the left is facing North. According to X @ B * P, P is in which
direction with respect to X?

A. North

B. South

C. North-East

D. South-West

122) A # B means B is at 1 metre to the right of A.


A $ B means B is at 1 metre to the North of A.
A * B means B is at 1 metre to the left of A.
A @ B means B is at 1 metre to the south of A.
Given that, first person from the left is facing North. According to P # R $ A * U, in which
direction is U with respect to P?

A. East

B. West

C. North

D. South

123) A # B means B is at 1 metre to the right of A.


A $ B means B is at 1 metre to the North of A.
A * B means B is at 1 metre to the left of A.
A @ B means B is at 1 metre to the south of A.
Given that, first person from the left is facing North. According to M # N $ T, T is in which
direction with respect to M?

A. North-West

B. North-East

C. South-West

D. South-East
LOGICAL REASONING

124) A # B means B is at 1 metre to the right of A.


A $ B means B is at 1 metre to the North of A.
A * B means B is at 1 metre to the left of A.
A @ B means B is at 1 metre to the south of A.
Given that, first person from the left is facing North. According to M # A # T # B, in which
direction is M with respect to B?

A. East

B. West

C. North

D. South

125) A # B means B is at 1 metre to the right of A.


A $ B means B is at 1 metre to the North of A.
A * B means B is at 1 metre to the left of A.
A @ B means B is at 1 metre to the south of A.
Given that, first person from the left is facing North. According to Z $ K $ L $ F, in which
direction is L with respect to Z?

A. East

B. West

C. North

D. South

126) One day Rakesh left home to go to an Ice cream parlour. He walked 5 km northwards,
turned right and walked for 10 km and turned left and walked 5 km more and finally
turned left and walked 10km. How many kilometres will he have to walk straight to
reach his home?

A. 15 km

B. 10 km

C. 20km

D. 25km
LOGICAL REASONING

127) Tom decides to go 30 km towards North from a fixed point, then after turning to her right she
goes 15 km. After this she goes 30 km after turning to her right. How far and in what direction
is she from her starting point?

A. 10m East

B. 15m East 

C. 20m East

D. 30m East

128) From his house, Ram went 15 kms to the north. Then he turns west and covered 20 km.
Then he turned south and covered 5 km. Finally turning to east, he covered 25 km. In
which direction is he from his house?

A. north west

B. north east

C. south east

D. South west

129) Nick walks 30 meter in the north direction, after that he took a right turn and walks 40
meter. After that he took a right turn and walks 40 meter more and finally he took a right
turn and stop after walking 40 meter. Find the distance of nishant from the initial
position?

A. 20

B. 15

C. 10

D. 5
LOGICAL REASONING

130) Ricky wanted to travel from a point X straight to point Y at a distance of 50 meters. He turned
to his right and walks 50 meter more, then again turned right and walks 60 meter. Finally, he
turned to right and walks 50 meters. How far is he from the starting point?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 30

D. 40

131) Rekha starts walking in the north direction and after walking some distance she took a
left turn followed by a right turn. After that she took two consecutive left turn, now she is
walking in which direction?

A. East

B. West

C. North

D. South

132) Cliff is facing west. He turns 45 degree in the clockwise direction and then another 180
degree in the same direction and then 270 degree in the anticlockwise direction. In
which direction is Cliff facing now?

A. South west

B. East

C. West

D. North
LOGICAL REASONING

133) Nile river flows north to south and on the way turns left and goes in a quarter-circle round a
hillock and then turns right at a right angle. In which direction in the river finally flowing?

A. East

B. West

C. North

D. South

134) Sukshitha moves towards South east a distance of 7 km, then she moves towards West
and travels a distance of 14 m. From here, she moves towards North-west a distance of 7
m and finally she moves a distance of 4 m towards East and stood at that point. How far
is the starting point from where she stood?

A. 3m

B. 4m

C. 5m

D. 10m

135) One day, Rahul started walking and move 3 km towards east direction and then turned
right and move 9 km and again he turned right and move 15 km straight. Find the
shortest distance covered by Rahul from starting point to destination and in which
direction is he from starting point?

A. 45 km in the south

B. 15 km in the south-west

C. 13 km in the north-east

D. 10 km in the west
LOGICAL REASONING

136) Jake leaves his school and travels 20 km towards the north. He takes a left turn and travels 30
km, then he turns towards the east direction and travels 50 km further. Finally, he turns to his
right and travels 20 km more. Which direction is he now with respect to his school?

A. South west

B. East

C. West

D. North east

137) Charlie is facing south. He turns right and walks 40 metre. Then he turns right again and
walks 20 metre. Then he turns left and walks 20 metre and then turning right walk 40
metre. Then he turns right again and walks 120 metre. In which direction he is from the
starting point?

A. South west

B. East

C. West

D. North east

138) Tejas starts from point X goes 5km towards East then he takes his left and goes 5 km, at
last he takes his right and goes 4 km, reached point Y, Now in which direction point Y
with respect to point X.

A. South west

B. East

C. West

D. North east
LOGICAL REASONING

139) One Day, Latika noticed Geeta who was doing Soorya namaskar facing the rising sun. She
went to her, greeted her Good Morning and took a left turn. In which direction, is she walking
now?

A. East

B. West

C. North

D. South

140) Vicky starts running from point A and runs 15 km towards south. He takes a left turn and
runs 20 km. Now he runs 9 km after taking a right turn. He finally takes a right turn and
runs 20 km and stops at point B. How far is point B with respect to point A ?

A. 24km

B. 40km

C. 36km

D. 40km

141) Alex starts walking from point X in south direction and walks 10m, then takes a right
turn and walks 8m to reach at point Y. From point Y he takes two consecutive left turn
and walks 5m and 16m respectively and reach at point Z. What is the direction of point Z
with respect to point X?

A. South east

B. East

C. West

D. North east
LOGICAL REASONING

142) Jairam was doing an exercise with his legs up and head down. He is facing west. In which
direction, will his left hand be?

A. East

B. West

C. North

D. South

143) Jesse walks 12m towards southeast and stops at point P and then she walks 24m
towards west and again she walks 7m towards northwest direction and stops at point Q.
Finally she walks 5m towards east and stops at point S. She is facing which direction
from starting point?

A. South west

B. East

C. West

D. North east

144) Sarah walks 3 km North, then turns West and walks 4 km, then turns South and walks 7
km, then turns to her left and walks 4 km. Where is she now with reference to her
starting position?

A. 10 km, South

B. 4 km, North

C. 10 km, North

D. 4 km, South
LOGICAL REASONING

145) A Boeing 747 flies 100 km West, then it turns South and flies 150 km, then it turns West and
flies 300 km, then it turns to its right and flies 150 km. Where is it now with reference to its
starting position?

A. 400 km East

B. 200 km West

C. 400 km West

D. 200 km East

146) After walking 6 km Farhan turned right and covered a distance of 2 km, then turned left
and covered a distance of 5 km. In the end, Farhan was moving towards the north. In
which direction did Farhan start the journey?

A. East

B. West

C. North

D. South

147) Vinod walks 10 metres west, turns left and walks 10 metres, again turns left and walks 10
metres and finally turns right 45° and walks straight. In which direction is he walking
now

A. South East

B. West

C. North

D. South west
LOGICAL REASONING

148) Anna and Bellie starts from the starting point. Anna cycles 10 km South, then turns to her
right and cycles 9 km. Bellie cycles 2 km North, then turn West and cycles 15 km, then turn to
her left and cycle 12 km. Where is Bellie with respect to Anna now?

A.  6 km, West

B. 6 km, East

C. 24 km, West

D. 24 km, East

149) Timken walks 4 km towards north, turns right and walks 5 km. Then he turns towards
south and walks 2 km. Again he takes a turn towards west walks 3 km and stops for a
while. Then he further walks 2 km in the same direction. What is the distance of Timken
from starting point?

A. 2km

B. 4km

C. 16km

D. 3km

150) Harry travels 14 km westwards and then turns left and travels 6 km and further turns left
and travels 26 km. How far is Harry now from the starting point?

A. √180 km

B. √80 km

C. √100 km

D. √120 km
LOGICAL REASONING

151) Larra introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is that man related to
Larra?

A. Nephew

B. Son

C. Cousin

D. Uncle

152) Walter introduced Mia as his son's maternal grandfather's only son's only sister's mother-
in-law. How is Mia related to Walter?

A. Mother

B. Mother-in-law

C. Wife

D. Maternal aunt

153) Ashish and Brijesh are brothers. Chatur and Dia are sisters. Ashish's son is Dia's brother.
How is Brijesh related to Chatur?

A. Father

B. Brother

C. Uncle

D. Son
LOGICAL REASONING

154) Pointing to a lady in the photograph, Rajeshwari said, "Her son's father is the son-in-law of my
mother." How is Rajeshwari related to the lady?

A. Aunt

B. Sister

C. Mother

D. Cousin

155) Pointing towards a man in a photograph Ricky said, "He is the son of the mother of the
brother of my sister". How is the man in the photograph related to Ricky?

A. Father

B. Brother

C. Uncle

D. Son

156) Pointing out a man receiving the prize, Susan said, “He is the brother of my uncle’s
daughter.” Who is the man to Susan?

A. Son

B. Brother-in-law

C. Nephew

D. Cousin
LOGICAL REASONING

157) 'X+Y' means 'X is the son of Y'


'X-Y' means 'X is the wife of Y'
'X*Y' means 'X is the brother of Y'
'X÷Y' means 'X is the mother of Y'
'X=Y' means 'X is the sister of Y'
Which of the following represent P is the maternal uncle of Q ?

A. R*P÷Q

B. P*R÷Q

C. P+R÷Q

D. P+R*Q

158) Pointing towards a woman in the picture, sarita said. "She is the mother of Neha whose
father is my son." How is sarita related to the woman in the picture?

A. Mother-in-law
B. Aunt

C. Cousin

D. None of these

159) If,
'P+Q' means P is the sister of Q
'P@Q' means P is the wife of Q
'P$Q' means P is the son of Q
'P÷Q' means P is the mother of Q
What is the relationship between 'J and A' in the
expression
'A @ F $ M ÷ J + T' ?

A. J is the mother-in-law of A

B. A is aunt of J

C. J is the sister-in-law of A

D. A is the husband of J


LOGICAL REASONING

160) 'Six members of a family A, B, C, D E, and F are travelling together. B is the son of C but C is not
the mother of B. A and C are married couple. E is the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is
the brother of B. How many male members are there in the family?

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1

161) Pointing to a photograph, Kangana says, "This man's son's sister is my mother-in- law."
How is Kangana's husband related to the man in the photograph?

A. Grandson

B. Son

C. Son-in-law

D. Nephew

162) IA, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family. One couple has parents and their children
in the family. A is the son of C and E is the daughter of A. D is the daughter of F who is the
mother of E. Which of the following pairs is the parents of the couple?

A. CF

B. AB

C. AF

D. BC
LOGICAL REASONING

163) A, B, C, D, E, F, and G are members of a family consisting of four adults and three children, two
of whom, F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to
one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?

A. E's daughter

B. F's father

C. G's brother

D. A's son

164) A family consists of six people L, M, N, P, Q and R.


R is the son of L but L is not the mother of R. P and L are married couples. N is the brother
of L. M is the daughter of P. Q is the brother of P. Find the maternal uncle of M?

A. P

B. Q

C. R

D. L

165) A family consists of six people L, M, N, P, Q and R.


R is the son of L but L is not the mother of R. P and L are married couples. N is the brother
of L. M is the daughter of P. Q is the brother of P. Find the maternal uncle of R?

A. Q

B. P

C. M

D. N
LOGICAL REASONING

166) P and Q are brothers of R. Q is son of S and T. S is the daughter of U. A is the father-in-law of T.
B is son of U. What is the relationship of Q to B?

A. Nephew

B. Neice

C. Maternal Uncle

D. Paternal Aunt

167) An American family has six members coded as P, Q, R, S, T, and U. T is the daughter of Q.
Q and S are married couple. P is the brother of Q. R is the son of S but S is not the mother
of R. U is the brother of S. How many female members are there in the family?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

168) An American family has six members coded as P, Q, R, S, T, and U. T is the daughter of Q.
Q and S are married couple. P is the brother of Q. R is the son of S but S is not the mother
of R. U is the brother of S. How many male members are there in the family?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4
LOGICAL REASONING

169) "X + Y means X is brother of Y


X - Y means X is father of Y
X * Y means X is uncle of Y
X / Y means X is sister of Y" From the given expresion A / B - C + D which of the following is
true ?

A. A is the aunt of D

B. A is the sister of D

C. A is the maternal uncle of D

D. A is the sister in law of D

170) D is the son-in-law of B, who is the brother-in-law of A who is the brother of C. How is A
related to B?

A. Brother

B. Son

C. Father

D. None of these

171) Pointing to Chuck, Sarah said. "He is the son of my father's only son." How is Chuck's
mother related to Sarah?

A. Mother

B. Sister-in-law

C. Aunt

D. Daughter
LOGICAL REASONING

172) "Pointing to an old man, Ken said, "His son is my son's uncle." How is the old man related to
Ken?

A. Brother

B. Uncle

C. Father

D. Grandfather

173) Pointing to a lady, a man said, "The son her only brother is the brother of my wife." How is
the lady related to the man?

A. Mother's sister

B. Grandmother

C. mother-in-law

D. Sister of father-in-law

174) A man pointing to a photograph says, "The lady in the photograph is my nephew's
maternal grandmother." How is the lady in the photograph related to the man's sister
who has no other sister?

A. Cousin

B. Sister-in-law

C. Mother

D. Mother-in-law
LOGICAL REASONING

175) Pointing to a person, a man said to a woman, "His mother is the only daughter of your father."
How was the woman related to the person?

A. Aunt

B. Mother

C. Wife

D. Daughter

176) Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, "His brother's father is the only son of
my grandfather." How is the woman related to the man in the photograph?

A. Mother

B. Aunt

C. Sister

D. Daughter

177) Aaron Paul said, "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother." Who is Aaron to the
girl?

A. Father

B. Grandfather

C. Husband

D. Father-in-law
LOGICAL REASONING

178) Pointing to the lady on the platform, Manora said, "She is the sister of the father of my
mother's son." Who is the lady to Manora?

A. Mother

B. Sister

C. Aunt

D. Niece

179) Denver said to Neil, "That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brothers
of the daughter of my father's wife." How is the boy playing football related to Denver?

A. Son

B. Brother

C. Cousin

D. Nephew

180) Introducing a man, a woman said, "His wife is the only daughter of my father." How is
that man related to the woman?

A. Brother

B. Father-in-law

C. Maternal uncle

D. Husband
LOGICAL REASONING

181) If 'books' is called 'watch', 'watch' is called 'bag', 'bag' is called 'dictionary' and 'dictionary' is
called 'window', which is used to carry the books ?

A. Dictionary

B. Bag

C. Books

D. Watch

182) If in a certain code, 'GLAMOUR' is written as 'IJCNMWP' and 'MISRULE' is written


'OGUSSNC', then how will 'TOPICAL' be written in that code ?

A. VMRJEUN

B. VMRHACJ

C. VMRJACJ

D. VNRJABJ

183) In a certain code language,


‘Bhavani Dinesh Dheeraj Harsh’ is coded as ‘yi pq mn as’
‘Adarsh Shivani Dinesh Dheeraj’ is coded as ‘mn bn st pq ‘
‘Adarsh Aman Dheeraj Harsh’ is coded as ‘cd as mn bn’. What may be the code of Aman
orange?

A. st pq

B. cd mn

C. pq bn

D. cd qw
LOGICAL REASONING

184) In a certain code language,


‘Bhavani Dinesh Dheeraj Harsh’ is coded as ‘yi pq mn as’
‘Adarsh Shivani Dinesh Dheeraj’ is coded as ‘mn bn st pq ‘
‘Adarsh Aman Dheeraj Harsh’ is coded as ‘cd as mn bn’. Which of the following word is coded
as ‘bn’?

A. Aman

B. Harsh

C. Shivani

D. Adarsh

185) In a certain code language,


‘Bhavani Dinesh Dheeraj Harsh’ is coded as ‘yi pq mn as’
‘Adarsh Shivani Dinesh Dheeraj’ is coded as ‘mn bn st pq ‘
‘Adarsh Aman Dheeraj Harsh’ is coded as ‘cd as mn bn’. Which of the following is the
code for 'Shivani'?

A. st

B. bn

C. pq

D. mn

186) In certain code language, BAD is written as '7' and SAP is written as'9'. How is 'BAN' is
written in that code language ?

A. 8

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6
LOGICAL REASONING

187) In a certain code language, 'ACCOUNT' is written as 'DFFRXQW'. How is 'MATHS' written in
that code language ?

A. PDWKV

B. PKLKP

C. PEWLU

D. PWDVK

188) If 'OPTIONAL' is written as 'ITPOLANO" how is 'PRACTICE' written as


code?

A. RPACITEC

B. CARPECIT

C. CRAPECTI

D. CRAPEICT

189) If FRUIT is coded as 58281, then how is GRAPES


coded?

A. 718116519

B. 791751

C. 680649

D. 680640
LOGICAL REASONING

190) In certain code language “Exam results may declare soon” is coded as “vx fa ba sx tz”, “The
unnecessary surprise of result” is coded as “sx nt oz pq fz”, “Result come before the holy” is
coded as “lx vt fq nt sx”, “Happy holy message surprise soon” is coded as “bq vx cx oz fq”
What is the code for “the happy holy” ?

A. nt fq bq

B. nt fq oz

C. cx nt fq

D. Either (a) or (c)

191) If FISH is written as EHRG in a certain code, how would JUNGLE be written in that
code?

A. ITMFKD

B. ITNFKD

C. KVOHMF

D. TIMFKD

192 In a SPY code language 'how many goals scored' is written as '5 3 9 7'. 'Many more
matches' is written as '9 8 2' and 'he scored fire' is written as '1 6 3'. How is 'goals' written
in that code language.

A. 5

B. 7

C. 5 or 7

D. Data inadequate
LOGICAL REASONING

193) In a certain code language, CONCENTRATION is written as QQJGZIGQGDMLX. How will


NITRIFICATION be written in that code language?

A. QQJGZXRIKSGRM

B. QQJGYXRIKSGRM

C. QQJGZXRIKSGRN

D. QQJGZRIKSGSM

194) In a certain code PERINATH is written as QFQHOBSG and POLE as QPKD, how will
SYNDROME be written in that code?

A. RXOEQNNF

B. TZOEQNLD

C. TZMCSPKD

D. TZMCSPLD

195 These questions are based on a certain code languages. Understand the logic in the
coding and answer the following questions.
PROCESSOR is coded as D4F3C5C1E1S1S1E3C6. Then, QUADRANT is coded as ?

A. Q1C7A1B2F6A1B7E4

B. Q1D6A1B2F3A1B7E4

C. Q1C7A1B2F3A1B7E4

D. Q1C7A1D2C6A1B7E5
LOGICAL REASONING

196) In a certain code language ' sera dum kuro ' means ' water no color ' then ' dum kuro jena '
means ' no color reflect ' and ' jena sera dum ' means ' reflect water no '.
The code word ' sera ' represents which one of the following option ?

A. no

B. color

C. reflect

D. water

197) In a certain code language ' sera dum kuro ' means ' water no color ' then ' dum kuro jena '
means ' no color reflect ' and ' jena sera dum ' means ' reflect water no '. Find the code
language for reflect ?

A. dum or color

B. sera

C. dum

D. jena

198 In a certain code, 'always create new ideas‘ is written as ‘ba ri sha gi‘ , 'ideas and new
thoughts‘ is written as 'fa gi ma ri‘, 'create thoughts and insights‘ is written as 'ma jo ba
fa‘, and 'new and better solutions‘ is written as 'ki ri to fa‘. What is the code for 'thoughts'?

A. ma

B. fa

C. jo

D. ba
LOGICAL REASONING

199) In a certain code, 'always create new ideas‘ is written as ‘ba ri sha gi‘ , 'ideas and new
thoughts‘ is written as 'fa gi ma ri‘, 'create thoughts and insights‘ is written as 'ma jo ba fa‘,
and 'new and better solutions‘ is written as 'ki ri to fa‘. What is the code for 'ideas'?

A. sha

B. ba

C. gi

D. ma

200) In a certain code ‘for profit order now’ is written as ‘ho ja ye ga’, ‘right now for him’ is
written as ‘ga ve ja se’, 'place order for profit’ is written as ‘ga bi ho ye’ and ‘only in right
order’ is written as ‘ve du ye zo’. What is the code for 'order'?

A. ye

B. ga

C. bi

D. ja

201 In a certain code ‘for profit order now’ is written as ‘ho ja ye ga’, ‘right now for him’ is
written as ‘ga ve ja se’, 'place order for profit’ is written as ‘ga bi ho ye’ and ‘only in right
order’ is written as ‘ve du ye zo’. What does 'bi' stand for?

A. profit

B. order

C. place

D. for
LOGICAL REASONING

202) In a certain secret intelligence code ‘for profit order now’ is written as ‘ho ja ye ga’, ‘right now
for him’ is written as ‘ga ve ja se’, 'place order for profit’ is written as ‘ga bi ho ye’ and ‘only in
right order’ is written as ‘ve du ye zo’. What is the code for 'him'?

A. ga

B. ve

C. ja

D. se

203) If in a certain code, ALMIRAH is written as BNPMWGO, which word would be written as
DNRWLUA?

A. COSGOLT

B. TOGSOLC

C. TOGCLOS

D. CLOSGOT

204) If QOSCFLBJO is the code for PORCELAIN, which word is coded as


BKMOUSPP ?

A. ALTOLROPY

B. ALLOTROPY

C. ALOTROLPY

D. ATLOROPLY
LOGICAL REASONING

205) If QKKQUGQL is the code for OMISSION, which word is coded as RYVIWZB?

A. PATKUBZ

B. BZWIVYR

C. BZWVIYR

D. PTAKBZU

206) If EHFNRQ is the code for BECKON, which of the following word has the code for
QDFWXULQ?

A. NCAUTIRN

B. NACUTIRN

C. NATCRIUN

D. NACTURIN

207) If in a certain language, DIUGNAL is the code for LANGUID, which word would be coded
as ELKCAHS ?

A. SHINGLE

B. SHERBET

C. SHACKLE

D. SHOCKLE
LOGICAL REASONING

208) If in a certain language, ITNIETAM is the code for INTIMATE, which word has the code
TREVNIETARBI ?

A. INVRETIBRATE

B. INVERTIBARTE

C. INVERTIBRETA

D. INVERTIBRATE

209) If ELCSUM is the code for MUSCLE, which word has the code
LATIPAC ?

A. CONFESS

B. CONDUCE

C. CAPITAL

D. CAPRICE

210) If in a certain language, TRIANGLE is coded as SQHZMFKD, Which word would be coded
as DWZLOKD ?

A. EXAMPLE

B. FIGMENT

C. DISMISS

D. DISJOIN
LOGICAL REASONING

211) Fill the missing term in the series


3, 12, 27, 48, 75, 108, ?

A. 147

B. 183

C. 162

D. 192

212) Fill the missing term in the series


4.5, 18, 2.25, ? , 1.6875, 33.75

A. 35

B. 25.5

C. 27

D. 43

213) Find the missing series


2 ,3 , 8 , 63, ?

A. 3900

B. 3636

C. 3968

D. 3988
LOGICAL REASONING

214) Find the missing series


2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, ?

A. 61

B. 64

C. 72

D. 70

215) Find the missing series


1, 7, 3, 9, 6, 12, 10, 16, 15, ?

A. 18

B. 15

C. 20

D. 21

216) Find the missing series


3, 7, 16, 35, ?, 153

A. 84

B. 74

C. 78

D. 63
LOGICAL REASONING

217) Find the missing series


10, 67, 341, 1369, ?

A. 7311

B. 4111

C. 5665

D. 8576

218) Find the missing series


13, 21, 48, 112, ?

A. 237

B. 280

C. 255

D. 290

219) Find the missing series


9, 21, 45, 93, ?, 381

A. 189

B. 198

C. 188

D. 112
LOGICAL REASONING

220) Find the missing series


520, 1851, 3579, ?, 8520

A. 5798

B. 5776

C. 4670

D. 5274

221) Find the missing series


5, 7.5, 12.5, 22.5, ?

A. 42.5

B. 42

C. 44

D. 43.5

222) Find the missing series


6, 3, 3, 4.5, ?

A. 5.5

B. 7

C. 9

D. 11.5
LOGICAL REASONING

223) Find the missing series


4, 6, 10, 14, 22, 26, 34, 38, 46, ?

A. 62

B. 58

C. 26

D. 42

224) Identify the missing term in the following


number series:
25 29 56 72 ? 233

A. 124

B. 197

C. 97

D. 112

225) Identify the missing term


in the following number
series:
4, 8, 28, 144, ?

A. 1000

B. 1011

C. 1012

D. 428
LOGICAL REASONING

226) Identify the missing term in the following number series:


1357, 3085, 5282, 8026, ?

A. 9961

B. 10441

C. 11321

D. 11401

227) Identify the missing term in the following


number series:
5, 11, 17, 25, 33, 43, ?

A. 49

B. 51

C. 52

D. 53

228) In questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the
correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
3, 17, 45, 87, ?

A. 143

B. 153

C. 183

D. 123
LOGICAL REASONING

229) Identify the missing term in the following number series:


151, 7, 181, 10, 211, 4, 241, ?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 7

D. 9

230) In questions, a series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct
alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
3, 11, 38, 102, ?, 443

A. 227

B. 237

C. 247

D. 217

231) Choose the correct alternative which can replace '?' mark.
6 2 5 4
3 6 2 3
2 3 4 5
18 24 28 ?

A. 60

B. 35

C. 12

D. 40
LOGICAL REASONING

232) Find the next two terms of the series


11 14 14 17 17 20 20

A. 21, 21

B. 23, 23

C. 25, 25

D. 21, 23

233) Find the next two terms:


17, 32, 19, 29, 21, 26, 23,

A. 25, 25

B. 23, 29

C. 23, 25

D. 23, 27

234) Find the next two terms of the series :


10, 34, 12, 31, 14, 28, 16,

A. 25, 18

B. 22, 18

C. 12, 18

D. 10,18
LOGICAL REASONING

235) Find the next two terms :


32, 31, 32, 29, 32, 27, 32,

A. 25, 32

B. 31, 32

C. 38, 32

D. 41, 32

236) Below given a series of some five numbers :


419 383 525 466 281
Answer the following questions based on these numbers : Which of the
following number yields maximum remainder, when it is divided by 15 ?

A. 419

B. 383

C. 525

D. 466

237) Below given a series of some five numbers :


419 383 525 466 281
Answer the following questions based on these numbers : Which of the
following number yields maximum remainder, when it is divided by 14
?

A. 419

B. 383

C. 525

D. 466
LOGICAL REASONING

238) Find the missing term : 11, 21, 41, 81, ?

A. 121

B. 131

C. 151

D. 161

239) Find the missing term : 6, 7, 11, 20, ?

A. 41

B. 35

C. 36

D. 37

240) Find the missing term: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?

A. 33

B. 39

C. 37

D. 31
LOGICAL REASONING

241) If ‘-’ means ‘+’, ‘+’ means ‘-’, ‘*’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘*’ then which of the following will be the
correct equation?

A. 10 + 5 - 14 ÷ 10 * 15 = 158

B. 30 + 5 + 14 - 10 * 15 = 122

C. 30 - 5 + 14 ÷ 10 * 15 = 162

D. 30 * 5 - 4 ÷ 10 + 15 = 31

242) Substitute the correct mathematical symbols in place of * in the following


equation:
16 * 4 * 5 * 14 * 6

A. ÷ - = *

B. - * + =

C. ÷ x = +

D. ÷ + = -

243) Which interchange of signs will make the following equation correct?
35 + 7 * 5 ÷ 5 - 6 = 24

A. (+ and - )

B. (+ and * )

C. ( ÷ and +)

D. ( - and ÷)
LOGICAL REASONING

244) Which one of the four interchanges in signs and numbers would make the given equation
correct? Given equation: 6 x 4 + 2 = 16

A. (= and x, 2 and 4)

B. (+ and x, 2 and 6)

C. (+ and x, 4 and 6)

D. (+ and x, 4 and 16)

245) Directions: In the following question, different letters stand for various
symbols as indicated below:
R : Addition
S : Subtraction
T : Multiplication
U : Division
V : Equal to
W : Greater than
X : Less than
Out of the four alternatives given in the following question, only one is
correct according to the above letter symbols.
Identify the correct one according to the symbols given in the directions.

A. 24 U 3 R 2 S 2 W 8

B. 24 S 3 X 2 T 2 U 8

C. 24 R 3 S 2 X 2 T 8

D. 24 U 3 T 2 V 2 T 8
LOGICAL REASONING

246) The following equation becomes mathematically correct when you interchange either the
sign or the Numbers as indicated in the question. Find the correct alternative.
Given equation;
(16 - 4) x 6 ÷ 2 + 8 = 30

A. 4 and 2

B. ÷ and -

C. 16 and 6
D. - and +

247) If > = ÷, < = +, ^ = -, x = <, - = >, + = = and v = x, then which of the following
equation is correct?

A. 6 > 3 < 2 ^ 4 v 8 - 13

B. 6 ^ 3 < 2 > 4 v 8 + 13

C. 6 v 3 ^ 2 > 4 < 8 x 13

D. 6 v 3 > 2 < 4 ^ 8 x 13

248) If * means /, - means *, / means + and + means -, then (3 - 15 / 19) * 8 + 3 = ?

A. 5

B. 4

C. 2

D. -1
LOGICAL REASONING

249) If 'A' means 'subtraction', 'B' means 'division', 'C' means 'addition' and 'D' means
'multiplication', then
330 B 6 A 32 C 45 D 12 = ?

A. 525

B. 547

C. 582

D. 563

250) Which of the following interchanges in signs will make the given equation
correct?
17 - 15 x 5 = 250

A. = and x

B. + and -

C. = and -

D. x and -

251 In a certain code language, '+' represents 'x', '-' represents '+', 'x'
represents '÷' and '÷' represents '-' What is the answer to the following
question?
27 x 3 ÷ 30 + 5 - 125 = ?

A. 69

B. 67

C. -15

D. -16
LOGICAL REASONING

252) In the following question you have to identity the correct response from the given premises
stated according to following symbols. It + means /, - means *, / means + and * means -, then
63 * 24 + 8 / 4 + 2 - 3 = ?

A. 54

B. 66

C. 186
D. 48

253) If + means *, / means -, * means / and - means +, what will be the value of 4 + 11
/ 5 - 55 = ?

A. None of these

B. -11

C. 79

D. 91

254) If 17@1 = 8; 9@1 = 4; 6@4 = 1; then what is the value of 8@2 = ?

A. 3

B. 26

C. 23

D. 47
LOGICAL REASONING

255) If 'P' denotes 'multiplied by', 'Q' denotes 'subtracted from', 'R' denotes 'added to' and 'S'
denotes 'divided by', then 12 R 45 P 34 S 17 Q 6 = ?

A. 108

B. 96

C. 102
D. 94

256) In a certain code language, ‘+’ represents ‘÷’, ‘÷’ represents ‘+’, ‘×’ represents ‘-’
and ‘-’ represents ‘×’. What is the answer to the following question? 45 + 5 - 11
÷1=?

A. 100

B. 200

C. 59

D. 39

257) Insert arithmetical signs in the equation for it to be correct 8 4 2 = 16.

A. (+, * )

B. ( -, + )

C. ( /, + )

D. (+, /)
LOGICAL REASONING

258) If ‘+’ means ‘÷’; ‘÷’ means ‘-’; ‘-’ means ‘*’; ‘*’ means ‘+’, then 8 + 2 ÷ 3 - 4 * 6 = ?

A. -12

B. -2

C. -10

D. -15

259) If '*' means '+', '÷' means '-', '+' means '÷' and '-' means '*' then what should be
the value of the given equation ?
14 * 4 ÷ 70 + 10 - 2 = ?

A. 33

B. 15

C. 30

D. 4

260) If A is coded as -, B is coded as +, C is coded as * and D is coded as / then


evaluate 8 A 1 B 11 C 12 D 4 C 5?

A. 173

B. 174

C. 182

D. 172
LOGICAL REASONING

261) If A is coded as +, B is coded as -, C is coded as * and D is coded as / then evaluate 7 A 7 B 2 C 27


D 3 C 4?

A. -58

B. -56

C. -48

D. -38

262) If A is coded as -, B is coded as +, C is coded as * and D is coded as / then


evaluate 6 A 7 B 2 C 32 D 2 C 3?

A. 95

B. 97

C. 105

D. 115

263) If A is coded as +, B is coded as -, C is coded as * and D is coded as / then


evaluate 5 A 5 B 3 C 18 D 4 C 2?

A. -16

B. -17

C. -7

D. 3
LOGICAL REASONING

264) In a certain code language, '+' means '*', '*' means '-', '-' means '/' and '/' means '+', then the
value of 9 + 4 - 6 * 6 / 18.

A. 18

B. 17

C. 16

D. 15

265) In a certain code language, '+' means '÷', '÷' means '*', '*' means '-', '-' means '+'.
5 * 10 - 15 ÷ 20 + 25 ÷ 30

A. 355

B. 365

C. 345

D. 385

266) If 'P’ means '+’, 'Q’ means ‘-‘, 'R’ means ‘X‘; and ‘S’ means ‘/‘; then 54 S 9 R
3 Q 3 P 12 R 2 is equal to:

A. 37

B. 38

C. 39

D. 40
LOGICAL REASONING

267) If A denotes '/', B denotes 'X', C denotes '+', and D denotes '-'; then, 52 C 24 A 3 D 7 B 6 is equal
to?

A. 18

B. 19

C. 20

D. 22

268) In a certain code language, '+' means '*', '*' means '-', '-' means '/' and '/' means
'+', then find the value of 16 * 4 / 4 + 14 - 2

A. 40

B. 44

C. 50

D. 54

269) In a certain code language, '+' means '/', '/' means '*', '*' means '-', '-'
means '+', then the value of (10 - 2 * 3) / (4 - 5 * 8) * (2 - 3) / 2.

A. -1

B. -2

C. 3

D. 6
LOGICAL REASONING

270) In a certain code language, '+' means '*', '*' means '-', '-' means '/' and '/' means '+', then the
value of 16 - 2 + 4 / 16 - 8 * 2

A. 30

B. 31

C. 32

D. 33
LOGICAL REASONING

264) In a certain code language, '+' means '*', '*' means '-', '-' means '/' and '/' means '+', then the
value of 9 + 4 - 6 * 6 / 18.

A. 18

B. 17

C. 16

D. 15

265) In a certain code language, '+' means '÷', '÷' means '*', '*' means '-', '-' means '+'.
5 * 10 - 15 ÷ 20 + 25 ÷ 30

A. 355

B. 365

C. 345

D. 385

266) If 'P’ means '+’, 'Q’ means ‘-‘, 'R’ means ‘X‘; and ‘S’ means ‘/‘; then 54 S 9 R
3 Q 3 P 12 R 2 is equal to:

A. 37

B. 38

C. 39

D. 40
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A salesman calculated his profit percentage on his selling price and says it is 20%. What is
the actual profit percentage?

A. 25%

B. 15%

C. 20%

D. 4%

Q) Mohan purchased a certain amount of rice. If he sold one-third of the rice at a profit of 20%,
then find the profit percent he needs to make on the remaining rice to make an overall profit
of 25%?
A. 30%

B. 25%

C. 27.50%

D. None of these

Q) Two vehicles were bought at the same price. One was sold at 20% profit and the other was
sold at 10% loss. What is the profit or loss percent on the whole trade?

A. 5% Profit

B. 5% Loss

C. 10% Loss

D. 10% Profit
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) The selling price of a ointment tube is decreased by 20%. It now sells for Rs. 20. What was
the original selling price of the tube in in Rs.?

A. 25

B. 22

C. 18

D. None of these

Q) Population of a village this year is twice the population of of the same village last year.
Find the percentage increase in the population of the village from last year to this year.

A.200

B. 50

C. 100

D. None of these

Q) An art entrepreneur sold a guitar at a loss of 10%. Had he sold it for Rs. 104 more he would
have earned a profit of 10%. Find the cost price of the Guitar.

A. Rs. 400

B. Rs. 520

C. Rs. 640

D. Rs. 840
Quantitative Aptitude

Q)At what rate of simple interest will a sum of Rs. 32,000 yield an interest of Rs. 15,360 in six
years?

A. 8%

B. 4%

C. 6%

D. None of these

Q) A bank promises to triple the sum of money at compound interest in 7 years. In how many
years will it become 27 times itself?

A. 14

B. 21

C. 20

D. 28

Q) Arun lent Rs. 3000 in two parts. He lent each part for a year. He lent Rs. 1200 at 6% p.a and
the remaining at 10% p.a both at simple interest. Find the effective rate of interest at which
he lent the entire amount?
A. 7.60%

B. 8.40%

C. 6.40%

D. 8.20%
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) If Rs. 2000 amounts to Rs. 2880 in two years at compound interest, what is the rate of
interest per annum if the interest is being compounded annually.

A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 15%

D. 25%

Q) An investment proposal promises a rate of interest of 10% p.a, compounded every six
months. Find the effective rate of interest (per annum).

A. 5.00%

B. 20%

C. 15%

D. 10.25 %

Q) A person invested a sum of Rs. 1250 in a bank at a certain rate of simple interest. After 6
years he received Rs. 2150. Find the rate of interest offered by the bank.

A. 10% p.a

B. 20% p.a

C. 11% p.a

D. 12% p.a
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) If A travels at 50 kmph, he reaches his destination at 4 p.m and if he increases his speed to
60 kmph he reaches one hour earlier. Find the distance he has to travel to reach his
destination?
A. 240

B. 60

C. 120

D. 300

Q) A person travels a from his home to office at a speed of 40 km/hr and returns to his home
at a speed of 60 km/hr. What is the average speed for his entire trip Home-Office- Home?

A. 50 kmph

B. 48 kmph

C. 52 kmph

D. 46 kmph

Q) A bus covered a distance of 160 km in 4 hours, covering a part of it at 30 km/hr and the
remaining at 70 km/hr. For how much time did the bus travel at 70 km/hr?

A. 1/2 hr

B. 1 hr

C. 1.5 hrs

D. 2 hrs
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In an 100 m race, Rahul beats Rohan by 10m and Rohan beats Raj by 10m. By what distance
does Rahul beat Raj (in m)?

A. 15

B. 19

C. 12

D. 14

Q) A train 400m long travels at a speed of 36 km/hr. Find the time (in seconds) it would take
to cross a platform 600m long

A. 100

B. 150

C. 200

D. 72

Q) A man rows 22 km upstream in 4 hours and 45 km downstream in 6 hours. In 10 hours, how


much more distance (in km) can he row downstream than the distance he can row upstream?

A. 22

B. 15

C. 20

D. 10
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) The ratio of incomes of A and is 5:4 and the ratio of their expenditures is 1:2. If B saves one-
third of his income, find the ratio of their savings.

A. 11:4

B. 4:5

C. 3:4

D. 1:2

Q) A sum of money which was supposed to be divided between A and B in the ratio of 3:5 was
divided among A, B, C in the ratio of 6:5:4. Due to this A gained Rs. 3000. What was the loss
incurred by B?
A. 6000

B. 24000

C. 35000

D. 18000

Q) A beats B by 125 m in a kilometer race. Find B's speed in m/sec, if P's speed is 10 m/sec.

A. 12

B. 14

C. 10

D. 8.75
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) If P:Q = 3:4, find 6P:7Q.

A. 20/37

B. 3/4

C. 18/28

D. 20/37

Q) Quantities X and Y are inversely proportional to each other. When X=8, Y=240. Find Y when
X=6.

A. 320

B. 480

C. 280

D. 300

Q) The ratio of present ages of a man and his wife is 5:4. Which of the following can't be a
possible ratio of their ages 20 years ago?

A. 7:5

B. 3:2

C. 13:10

D. 6:5
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A can complete a task in 100 days and B can complete the same work in 150 days. If A and
B work together and earn Rs. 6000, find the individual earning of A.

A. 4000

B. 1200

C. 2400

D. 3600

Q) Pipes A and B take 50 minutes and 75 mins respectively to fill an empty tank. How long will
it both of them together to fill the tank?

A. 45 minutes

B. 20 minutes

C. 30 minutes

D. 50 minutes

Q) If 30 men can build a wall in 30 days, find the part of the wall that can be done by 1 man in 1
day.

A. 1/30

B. 1/90

C. 1/900

D. None of these
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Tim can read a book in 'r' minutes. What part of the book can he read in 8 minutes? (r>8)

A. 8+r

B. 8/r

C. r/8

D. (r-8)/r

Q) For how many days will 60 kg of Rice be sufficient for a family of 6 members if each
member consumes 1.25kg rice per day?

A. 8

B. 6

C. 10

D. 12

Q) 25 men take 20 days to construct a wall 4m high. How many men would be required to
construct a similar wall, which is 8m high, if the work is planned to be completed in 5 days?

A. 40

B. 150

C. 250

D. 200
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) The angles of elevation of an electric pole from two points A and B lying on the level
ground on either side of the pole are 30 and 60 degrees respectively. If the two points A and B
are 500 m apart, then at what distance from point A is the electric pole?
A. 250 m

B. 350 m

C. 375 m

D. 400 m

Q) A cylinder has its height equal to its diameter. If the diameter measures 8 cm, find its
volume.

A. 32π

B. 128π

C. 64π

D. 256π

Q) A clock that is set at noon. If the clock stops functioning after the minute hand has swept
an angle of 270°, then what is the time the clock is showing?

A. 12:30 PM

B. 12:35 PM

C. 12:35 PM

D. 12:55 PM
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A bullock cart wheel makes 12 revolutions per minute. The radians it turns through in 2
minutes is:

A. 8π

B. 48π

C. 40π

D. 24π

Q) Find the volume of the largest sphere which can be cut from a cube having edges of 7 cm
length. (in cu. cm)

A. 569/3

B. 539/3

C. 200

D. None of these

Q) The altitude of an isosceles triangle is drawn to its base is 4√5. If each of its equal sides
measure 12, find its perimeter.

A. 40 units

B. 48 units

C. 32 units

D. 22 units
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Rocky observes from a point on the ground with the angles of elevation of the top and
bottom of a flag post standing on the top of a building 300m high to be 45° and 60°
respectively. What is the height (in meters) of the flag post?
A. 300 m

B. 300(√3-1) m

C. 210(√3-1) m

D. 283 m

Q) A plot in the shape of an equilateral triangle. A Pillar was erected at its centroid. The top of
the pillar was connected to each of the vertices of the plot by rope. The angle of elevation of
the top of pillar at each vertex was 30°. If the height of the pillar is 24 m, the side of the
triangle (in m) is:
A. 12 m

B. 72 m

C. 24 m
D. 48 m

Q) If two sides of a triangle are 8 units and 10 units and the angle between these two sides is
45°, then find the area of the triangle

A. 40/√2

B. 80√2

C. 40√2

D. 40
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In a right angled isosceles triangle ABC, SinA + SinB + SinC = ?

A. √2 + 1

B. √2 - 1

C. 0

D. √2

Q) A merry-go-round makes 90 revolutions in a minute, what would be the angle in radians


swept in 5 seconds?

A. 10π

B. 30π

C. 45π

D. 15π

Q) In triangle ABC, if AB = 5 units, BC = 3 units and ∠A=30°, then find the value of SinC.
A. 1

B. 5/6

C. 3/5

D. 0

Q) An examination paper contains 120 questions. For each correct answer a student earns 4
marks and loses 1 mark for an incorrect answer and zero marks is given for unanswered
question. If a student has scored 200 marks in the examination, find the range of the number
of questions attempted correctly by the student. (Range is the difference between minimum
number of questions attempted correctly and maximum number of questions attempted
correctly)?
A. 7
B. 21
C. 14
D. 5
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In a square plot LMNO, a triangular fence is built inside, forming an equilateral triangle

LPO, where P is a vertex of the triangle. Find the angle LPN (in degrees)

A. 120

B. 180

C. 150

D. 60

Q) A circle of radius 6 cm is inscribed in a right angled triangle . Another smaller circle is


drawn, touching the bigger circle as shown in the figure. Find its radius (in cm)

A. 6(3 - 2√2)

B. 4(5 - 2√2)

C. 6(3 + 2√2)

D. 6(7 - 2√2)

Q If tanθ = 4/5, then θ lies in which quadrant?

A. Q1

B. Q2

C. Q3

D. Q1 or Q3
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Two towers in a city are separated by a distance of 600m. At a point midway between
them, the angles of elevations of the towers are 30° and 45°. Find the ratio of their heights.

A. 1 : √3

B. 2 : √3

C. 3 : 1

D. 3 : 2

Q) A wooden ladder is resting against a wall such that it makes an angle of 75° with the
ground surface. If the foot of the ladder is at a distance of 2 m from the bottom of the wall,
then the tip of the ladder is at what height?
A. 6 m

B. 4.5 m

C. 3(2-√3) m

D. 3(√3+2) m

Q) Find the height of a chimney, after walking 100m towards it, in a horizontal line through its
base , the angle of elevation of its top changes from 45° to 60°.

A. 50√3

B. 50 (√3 + 3) m

C. 50 (3 - √3) m

D. 100 (3 + √3) m
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) The upper part of a pole, broken over by the wind, makes an angle of 45° with the ground.
The distance from the foot of the pole to the point where the top of the pole touches the
ground is 30 ( √2 - 1 ) m. What was the original height of the pole? (in m)
A. 30

B. 30( 2 - √2 )

C. 60

D. 30( 2 + √2 )

Q) Tulip and Lily are names of two buildings across a road. The height of Lilly building is 120
m. From the top of Tulip building the angle of elevation of the top of the Lilly building is 30°
and the angle of depression of the bottom of the building Lilly is 60°. Find the height of Tulip
Building.
A. 90 m

B. 60 m
C. 120 m

D. 100 m

Q) If the lengths of the sides of a triangle are 1, √3 and 2, then the angles opposite to these
sides are

A. 45°, 60°, 75°

B. 30°, 60°, 90°

C. 30°, 45°, 105°

D. None of these
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A swimming pool 150 m long and 50 m wide is 1 m deep at the shallow end and 6m deep at
the deep end. Find the volume of water in the pool.

A. 26250 cu. m

B. 22250 cu. m

C. 27650 cu. m

D. 25350 cu. m

Q) In triangle ABC, BC = 10 cm. If the area of the biggest rectangle that can be inscribed in a
triangle is 10√3 cm², find the length of the altitude AD. (in cm)

A. 4√3

B. 3√3

C. 2√3

D. 5√3

Q) Mr. Sharma is an internationally renowned swimmer. He purchased a plot in the shape of a


right triangle in which the longest side was 100m and one of the other sides was 80 m. What
is the maximum area of a circular swimming pool that he can construct on his plot?
A. 400 π sq. m

B. 600 π sq. m

C. 625 π sq. m

D. 675 π sq. m
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) There are four cities A, B, C, D. A is 100 km from B and 75 km from C. D lies on the straight
line road joining B and C. If the triangles formed; Triangle BAC and Triangle ADB are right
angled, how far is A from D?
A. 80 km

B.40 km

C. 85 km

D. 60 km

Q) In triangle ABC, line segment XY intersects AB in X and AC in Y such that XY is parallel to


BC. The area of triangle AXY is half of the triangle ABC. Find the ratio of BX:AB.

A. √2/(√2-1)

B. (√2-1)/√2

C. (1- √2)/√2

D. None of these

Q) In a triangle ABC, AB = AC and BC = 4.5 cm. D is a point on the side AC such that BC² = (AC)
(AD). Find the length of BD.

A. 2.25 cm

B. 4.5 cm

C. 6.75 cm

D. Cannot be determined
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) The angles of depression of two ships due east of a lighthouse from the top of the
lighthouse are 37° and 45° . If the ships are 80m apart, then the height of the lighthouse is?
(Given sin 37° = 0.6)
A. 240 m

B. 120 m

C. 200 m

D. 100 m

Q) Find the value of cos 20°* cos 40°* cos 80°, Given that 4 cos A cos(60°+A) cos(60°-A) = cos3A.

A. 1/2

B. 1/4

C. 1/6

D. 1/8

Q) If SinA + Cos A = 2, then sin^4 A + cos^4 A = ?

A. 1/2

B. 1

C. 0

D. 1/4

Q) The weight of 9 melons is equal to the total weight of 9 lemons and one and a half turnips.
The total weight of 9 melons and four and a half turnips is equal to the weight of 18 lemons. if
every object of the same kind weighs the same, then which of the following will be equal to
the total weight of 1 melon, 1 lemon and 1 turnip?

A. 3 Melons

B. 3 Lemons

C. 2 Turnips

D. Indeterminate
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Statement 1 alone is sufficient and Statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
Choice B: Statement 2 alone is sufficient and Statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
Choice C: Statement 1 and Statement 2 together are sufficient but neither statement alone is
sufficient to answer the question.
Choice D: Statement 1 and Statement 2 both together are not sufficient to answer the
problem, additional data is required.
Problem: Find the area of the rectangle whose perimeter is 28 cm. 1) The length of the
rectangle is 8 cm. 2) The length of the rectangle is greater than its breadth.

A. A
B. B

C. C

D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Statement 1 alone is sufficient and Statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer
the question.
Choice B: Statement 2 alone is sufficient and Statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer
the question.
Choice C: Statement 1 and Statement 2 together are sufficient but neither statement alone is
sufficient to answer the question.
Choice D: Statement 1 and Statement 2 both together are not sufficient to answer the
problem, additional data is required.
Problem: If X and Y are positive integers, then is X+Y odd? 1) 4x+6y is even. 2) 5x+3y is odd.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Statement 1 alone is sufficient and Statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
Choice B: Statement 2 alone is sufficient and Statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
Choice C: Statement 1 and Statement 2 together are sufficient but neither statement alone is
sufficient to answer the question.
Choice D: Statement 1 and Statement 2 both together are not sufficient to answer the
problem, additional data is required.
Problem: Find the area of the rectangle . 1) The length of the rectangle is 12 cm. 2) The breadth
of the rectangle is 10 cm.
A. A
B. B

C. C
D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Statement 1 alone is sufficient and Statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
Choice B: Statement 2 alone is sufficient and Statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the
question.
Choice C: Statement 1 and Statement 2 together are sufficient but neither statement alone is
sufficient to answer the question.
Choice D: Statement 1 and Statement 2 both together are not sufficient to answer the
problem, additional data is required.
Problem: Find the area of the rectangle. 1) The perimeter of the rectangle is 36 cm. 2) The
length of the rectangle is greater than 10 cm.
A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: How many sons does Shyamsunder have? 1) Other than Suraj, Shyamsunder's
eldest son, all the other children have the same number of brothers. 2) Suraj, Shyamsunder's
eldest son has one more sister than each of his other siblings.

A. A

B. B

C. C
D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: How many Sundays are there in a month? 1) 1st of the month is a Saturday. 2) 29th
of a month is a Monday.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: What does the shorter side of the rectangle measure? 1) The area of the maximum
square that can be cut out of the rectangle is 64 sq. cm. 2) After a square of maximum
possible area is cut from the rectangle, the area of the remaining portion of the rectangle is 32
sq. cm.
A. A
B. B

C. C
D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: Is x>y? 1) Three times x is equal to twice y. 2) Twice of x is 7 more than y.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: What does the longer side of the rectangle measure? 1) The area of the maximum
square that can be cut out of the rectangle is 64 sq. cm. 2) After a square of maximum
possible area is cut from the rectangle, the area of the remaining portion of the rectangle is 32
sq. cm.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: Amit is given a rectangle of a particular dimension. He is asked to cut the square of
maximum possible area from this rectangle. What is the area of the square obtained? 1) The
area of the rectangle is 50 sq. cm. 2) The perimeter of the rectangle is 30 cm.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: Is y > x ? 1) y - x is negative. 2) 3x² > 4y².

A. A
B. B

C. C
D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: Find the value of x + y. 1) x + y = xy. 2) x and y are integers.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: Is x-y positive? 1) Four times x is two more than y. 2) x - 2y is positive.

A. A

B. B

C. C
D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: If P is a real number, then P is odd? 1) 5P is odd. 2) 6P is even.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: What is the value of (x + y + z) ? 1) 3x + 5y + 6z = 29. 2) 7x + 5y + 4z = 21.

A. A

B. B

C. C
D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: What is the speed of Train T? 1) Length of the train T is 100 m. 2) Train T takes 60
seconds more to cross a 600 m long platform than to cross a man standing on the platform.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: A triangle PQR is constructed with each side twice that of another triangle ABC.
What is the perimeter of triangle PQR? 1) The area of the triangle is ABC is 100 cm² 2) The
inradius of triangle PQR is 4 cm.

A. A

B. B

C. C
D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: Is the function f(x) > 2? 1) f(x) = | x- 2 | + | x - 5 |. 2) f(x) = 2 - 4x².

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: How many doors are there in a bungalow? 1) A thief can enter the bungalow
through any on of the doors and exit through any one of the windows in 180 ways. 2) There
are 45 windows in the bunglow.

A. A

B. B

C. C
D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: What is the number of sides of a regular polygon? 1) The number of triangles that
can be formed with two sides of the polygon as two of the sides of the triangle is six. 2) The
angle between two sides of the polygon is 120°.
A. A

B. B

C. C
D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: Ajay bought some pens for Rs. x each. As they are slightly damaged, he sold them
at a loss of x%. If x < 50, find the cost of each pen. 1) Ajay sold each pen at Rs. 12.75/- 2) He
purchased a total of 30 pens.

A. A
B. B

C. C
D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: In how many days does a piece of work get completed, if A and B work on alternate
days? 1) A alone can do the work in 20 days, while B can do the same in 30 days. 2) B starts the
work..
A. A
B. B
C. C

D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: What is the average age of the four brothers if their ages are in arithmetic
progression? 1) The average age of the eldest and the youngest brothers is 21 years. 2) The
second brother is 24 years old and the third brother is 18 years old.

A. A

B. B

C. C
D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: For the positive integers x, y and z, is x + y + z < 200 ? 1) 5x + 6y + 7z = 1000. 2) 6x + 5y
+4z =1200.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: Is the percentage increase in the perimeter of a rectangle less than 15%? 1) The area
of the rectangle is increased by 14%. 2) The length of the rectangle is increased by 20% and
the breadth is increased by 10%.

A. A
B. B

C. C
D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: A natural number x lies in between 1000 and 2000. Find x. 1) The number formed by
the first two digits is not a perfect square and the number formed by the last two digits is a
perfect cube. 2) x is a perfect square.
A. A
B. B
C. C

D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: Is the LCM of a and b greater than the HCF of a and b? 1) a and b are two distinct
proper fractions. 2) The LCM of (a,b,12) = 48, and the HCF of (a,b,12) = 12.

A. A
B. B

C. C
D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: Is x > 0? 1) x² < x 2) x³ > x² .

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: What is the distance between A and B? 1) The distance between A and C is 600 km.
2) The distance between B and C is 1700 km.

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

Q) Directions: The problem contains a question and two statements, I and II, giving certain
data. You have to select the correct answer from (A) to (D) depending on the sufficiency of
data given in the statements to answer the question.
Choice A: Question can be answered by one of the statements alone but not by the other.
Choice B: Question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choice C: Question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be
answered by using either statement alone.
Choice D: Question cannot be answered by either of the statements.
Question: Is x > y? 1) x² > y² 2) x³ < y³

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A cone has its height equal to a third of its diameter. If the height measures 12 cm, find its
volume.

A. 936π cu. cm

B. 1120π cu. cm

C. 1296π cu. cm

D. 1469 π cu. cm

Q) The base of a right angled triangle is 7 cm and its area is 84 sq. cm. Find its hypotenuse.

A. 25 cm

B. 50 cm

C. 125 cm

D. 6.25 cm

Q) The sides of a triangle are 3, 4, 5 cm long. What is its area?

A. 12 sq. cm

B. 3 sq. cm

C. 8 sq. cm

D. 6 sq. cm

Q) There are some white balls, red balls, black balls and green balls in a box. If all the green
balls are taken out of the box, the number of balls in the box are reduced by half. If half of the
red balls is equal to one-third of black balls, twice the number of red and black balls put
together is 4 more than three times the black balls, and half of white balls is equal to one-
third of green balls, find the number of green balls.

A. 30
B. 60
C. 80
D. 45
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) If the area of an equilateral triangle is is 12√3 sq. cm, then find its side.

A. √48 cm

B. √24 cm

C. √12 cm

D. 6 cm

Q) In a rhombus ABCD, AC = 24 cm and BD = 20 cm. Find the area of the Rhombus.

A. 120 sq. cm

B. 240 sq. cm

C. 64 sq. cm

D. 12 sq. cm

Q) The cost of carpeting a floor 20 m long at Rs.12 per square meter is Rs. 2520. Find the
breadth of the room.

A. 10 m

B. 11.5 m

C. 10.5 m

D. 11 m
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) If the base of a parallelogram is 9 cm and the area is 54 sq. cm, find the height of the
parallelogram

A. 4 cm

B. 6 cm

C. 8 cm

D. 12 cm

Q) Find the lateral surface area and the volume of a cuboid whose length is 12 cm, breadth is
10 cm and height is 8 cm.

A. 156 cm², 1000 cm³

B. 352 cm², 900 cm³

C. 252 cm², 1000 cm³

D. 352 cm², 960 cm³

Q) If the circumference of one circle is 5/2 times that of the other, how many times the area of
the smaller circle is the bigger one?

A. 3

B. 6.5

C. 25/4

D. 25/2
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Two circles of radii 9 cm and 4 cm touch each other externally. Find the length of their
direct common tangent.

A. 3 cm

B. 12 cm

C. 6 cm

D. 8 cm

Q) The angle subtended by an arc at the centre of a circle is 70°. If the circumference of the
circle is 132 cm, then find the area of the sector formed.

A. 128 cm²

B. 222 cm²

C. 296.5 cm²

D. 269.5 cm²

Q) If the radius of a right cylinder is increased by 20% and its height is decreased by 10%, find
the percentage increase in its volume.

A. 22.20%

B. 29.60%

C. 25.60%

D. 26.50%
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A metallic cone of diameter 48 cm and height 18 cm is melted into identical spheres each
of radius 2 cm. How many such spheres can be made?

A. 230

B. 320

C. 234

D. 324

Q) The area of the of the base of a right circular cone shaped tent is 154 cm² and its height is
24 cm. Find its volume.

A. 1060 cm³

B. 1232 cm³

C. 1211 cm³

D. 1320 cm³

Q) The area of the of the base of a right circular cone shaped tent is 154 cm² and its height is
24 cm. Find its curved surface area.

A. 550 cm³

B. 650 cm³

C. 463 cm³

D. 440 cm³
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A metallic solid cylinder of 14 cm diameter and 32 cm height is cast into 77 solid cubes of
equal size. What is the edge of each cube thus formed?

A. 8 cm

B. 4 cm

C. 6 cm

D. 2 cm

Q) What is the maximum number of spherical balls of radius 4 cm that can be packed in a box
of size 40 cm x 24 cm x 8 cm?

A. 15

B. 20

C. 18

D. 16

Q) A square shed of side 7 m is in the middle of a huge grass field. A horse is tethered at one of
the corners outside the shed with a rope of length 14 m. It can graze only outside the shed.
What is the area of the field over which the horse can graze? ( in m³)
A. 539 m³

B. 469 m³

C. 582 m³

D. 564 m³
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) What is the length of the pendulum (in cm) which swings through an angle of 60° in
describing an arc of 44 cm in length?

A. 42

B. 40

C. 21

D. 32

Q) OABC is a rhombus. The vertices A, B, C lie on the circumference of a circle whose centre is
at O. Find the area of the circle if the area of the Rhombus is 8√3 cm²

A. 10π cm²

B. 12π cm²

C. 14π cm²

D. 16π cm²

Q) A water tank of dimensions 33m x 10 m x 20 m is full of water. The tank is emptied through
a sluice of cross section of 220 cm³ in five hours. Find the speed of flow of water (in km/hr).

A. 80 km/hr

B. 60 km/hr

C. 20 km/hr

D. 40 km/ hr
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Find the two perpendicular sides of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 65 cm and
whose perimeter is 144 cm

A. 16 cm, 63 cm

B. 29 cm, 60 cm

C. 25 cm, 45 cm

D. None of these

Q) The sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are 10 cm, 14 cm, 12 cm and 15 cm. If one of its diagonal is
15 cm, then find the other diagonal (in cm)

A. 22 cm

B. 23 cm

C. 24 cm

D. 25 cm

Q) Two parallel chords of a circle of radius 25 cm have lengths of 30 cm and 48 cm. Find the
distance between the two chords (in cm).

A. 6.5 or 13.5

B. 13 or 27

C. 19.5 or 40.5

D. None of these
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A, B, C and D are points on the circumference of a circle. ABD is equilateral and AC is the
diameter of the circle. Find the ratio of the perimeter of ABCD and the length of AC.

A. 1 + (√3/2)

B. (1/2) + √3)

C. 1 +√3

D. 2 +√3

Q) In triangle ABC, AD and BE are medians and G is the centroid. ∠AGE = 30°, AD = 12, BE = 18.
Find the area of the triangle.

A. 72 sq. units

B. 48 sq. units

C. 64 sq. units

D. 60 sq. units

Q) If ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and AD = 3 units, CD = 4 units, BC = 5 units and AB = 6 units


then the product of AC and BD is?

A. 29 sq. units

B. 35 sq. units

C. 39 sq. units

D. 41 sq. units


Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In triangle ABC, AD is perpendicular to BC, D divides BC in the ratio 1:3 internally. If AB = 9


cm and AC = 21, find BC.

A. 12√5

B. 15√5

C. 16√5

D. 18√5

Q) In triangle ABC, AB = AC and D is a point on BC. If AB = 65 cm, AD = 63 cm and CD = 8 cm, find


BD (in cm)

A. 38 cm

B. 32 cm

C. 28 cm

D. 26 cm

Q) The total number of diagonals in a regular polygon is 20. What is the interior angle of the
polygon?

A. 90°

B. 115°

C. 120°

D. 135°
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) If each angle of a regular polygon of n sides is 144°, find the value of n.

A. 10

B. 12

C. 11

D. 8

Q) How many scalene triangles with integral sides (in cm) have a perimeter of 20 cm?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

∠ ∠
Q) In triangle ABC, ABC = 80°, ACB = 40°, AP is the bisector of ∠BAC and AQ is

perpendicular to BC. Find PAQ?

A. 10°

B. 15°

C. 20°

D. 25°

Q) On an island, with a total population of 55009, a war was fought between ‘Benos’ and
‘Malos’ the only tribes residing in the island. During the war every ‘Benos’ fought with a
different number of ‘malos’. One of them fought with exactly 140 ‘Malos’, a second one fought
with exactly 141 ‘Malos’, a third one fought with exactly 142 ‘Malos’, a fourth one with exactly
143 ‘Malos’ and so on till one of them fought with every ‘Malos’ residing in the island.
Find the number of ‘Malos’ residing in the island.

A. 27574

B. 27356

C. 30000

D. 33000
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) An equilateral triangle has a side of 36 cm. Find the circumradius of the triangle (in cm).

A. 6√3

B. 8√3

C. 12√3

D. 16√3

Q) In triangle PQR, PA, QB and RC are the medians. The centroid is at point G. What is the ratio
of the area of quadrilateral CQAG and the area of triangle PQR?

A. 1:4

B. 1:3

C. 1:2

D. 1:6

Q) In trapezium ABCD, AB and CD are the parallel sides. The diagonals AC and BD intersect at
X. The ratio of the area of triangle AXB to the area of triangle CXD is 25 : 49. Find the ratio of
the area of triangle AXD and the area of ABCD.

A. 35/144

B. 5/7

C. 1/4

D. 1/5

Q) Ajay has a certain number of Re. 1, Rs. 2 and Rs. 10 notes with him. The ratio of the number
of Re. 1 notes and that of Rs. 2 notes is 4 : 3. If the number of Rs. 10 notes is more than the total
number of Re. 1 and Rs. 2 notes put together, then total amount with Ajay cannot be less than

A. Rs. 80

B. Rs. 175

C. Rs. 90

D. Rs. 171
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) ABC is a triangle D and E are points on AB and AC respectively. F is a point on BC. DF is


parallel to AC and EF is parallel to AB. The areas of the triangles EFC and ABC are 64 and 400
respectively. Find the area of the quadrilateral ADFE.
A. 162

B. 192

C. 148

D. 136

Q) A triangle has its circumcentre on one of its sides. It can be:

A. Acute angled
B. obtuse angled

C. right angled

D. acute, obtuse or right angled

Q) The radius of a circle is 15 cm. Find the length of a chord which is 9 cm from the centre of
the circle.

A. 24

B. 22

C. 16

D. 18

Q) In a test, consisting of 28 questions, 5 points are deducted for each incorrect answer, 2
points are deducted for each unanswered question and 9 points are awarded for each correct
answer. Arun writes the test and obtains a final score of 0 (zero). If Arun answered all the
questions, how many questions did he answer correctly?
A. 10

B. 20

C. 5
D. 25
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A regular hexagon has a side of 4 cm. Find its area (in cm cube)

A. 24√3

B. 18√3

C. 36√3

D. None of these

Q) A right circular cone is cut parallel to its base at one third of its height from the top. Find
the ratio of the volume of the smaller piece to that of the original cone.

A. 1 : 26
B. 1 : 27

C. 2 : 25

D. 1 : 8

Q) In triangle PQR, if ∠P = 50°, find ∠QIR, where I is the incentre of the triangle (in degrees)
A. 115°

B. 90°

C. 75°

D. 135°

Q) Find the sum of the series given below.


2 + 1 + 4 + 2 + 8 + 3 + 16 + 4 + 32 + 5 + … + 20th term.

A. 2312

B. 2301

C. 2100

D. 2101
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Among a parallelogram, a Rhombus and an isosceles trapezium, how many are necessarily
cyclic quadrilaterals?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 0

Q) How many degrees are there in an angle which is equal to one-fifth of its complement?

A. 15°

B. 10°

C. 20°

D. 35°

Q) The cost of a precious stone varies as the cube of its weight. A certain precious stone broke
into three pieces whose weights are in the ratio 1:2:3, as a result of which its cost reduces by
Rs. 96000. What was the cost of the stone before breaking?
A. Rs. 115200

B. Rs. 96336

C. Rs. 102400

D. Rs. 112880
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Aniket said to Pramod "I am thrice as old as you were, when I was as old as you are now."
What could be the present age of Aniket, provided the sum of their present ages is 75 years?

A. 65 Years

B. 45 years

C. 50 years

D. 75 years

Q) Tim, John and Vin had a total of Rs. 10550 with them. They spent Rs. 50, Rs. 100, and Rs.
200 respectively. The remaining amounts with them are in the ratio 14 : 22 : 15. What was the
amount with John initially?
A. Rs. 3500

B. Rs. 3400

C. Rs. 4500

D. Rs. 6500

Q) The monthly telephone bill of Sarah and Karina has a fixed tariff for upto 50 outgoing calls.
Outgoing calls in excess of 50 are charged at a certain fixed rate per call. The monthly bills of
Sarah and Karina who made 98 and 218 outgoing calls respectively were Rs. 300 and Rs. 450
respectively. What will be the monthly bill of a their mother who has made 160 outgoing
calls? (in Rs.)
A. Rs. 377.5

B. Rs. 389

C. Rs. 428
D. Rs. 652
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A world automobile designer gets a fixed amount for his work apart from the royalty that
he gets per car sold. He gets Rs. 30000 and Rs. 50000 for 1000 cars sold and 2000 cars sold
respectively. What is his income per car sold, when 5000 cars are sold?
A. Rs. 28

B. Rs. 22

C. Rs. 26

D. Rs. 25

Q) (x+y) varies directly as (x-y), then (x²+y²) will vary as:

A. x²-y²

B. xy

C. Both A and B

D. None of these

Q) If x:y = 3:7, find the value of (5x+y) : (4x + 5y).

A. 15:44

B. 22:35

C. 15:49

D. 22:47

Q) If sum of 28 consecutive integers is 294, what is the fourth smallest number?

A. -3

B. -1

C. 0

D. 1
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A varies directly as the sum of the two quantities B and C. B in turn varies directly as x and
C varies inversely as x. When x = 2, A = 6 and when x = 4, A = 9. What will be the value of A when
x = 16?
A. 2.5

B. 1

C. 8.5

D. 32.25

Q) Rohit's present age is greater than Rohan's present age. Which of the following will be the
relation between the ratio of the squares of their ages after 7 years (A) and the ratio of the of
their ages after 12 years (B)?
A. A<B

B. A=B

C. A>B

D. A≤B

Q) The income and expenditure of a person are in the ratio 5:4. If the income of the person is
Rs. 26590, what are his savings (in Rs.) ?

A. Rs. 7845

B. Rs. 5318

C. Rs. 6218

D. Rs. 3456
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Lucy's bag contains 1 rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins in the ratio 1:2:4. The total amount
in the bag is Rs. 75, what are the number of 50 paise coins in the bag?

A. 50

B. 75

C. 100

D. 60

Q) Present age of Ms. Tokyo and Mr. Berlin are in the ratio of 7:8. Twenty years ago the ratio of
their ages was 9:11. What is the present age of Mr. Berlin?

A. 64 years

B. 72 years

C. 56 years

D. 40 years

Q) Seventy eight is divided into two parts such that five times the first part and four times the
second part are in the ratio of 15:14. What is value of the first part?

A. 9

B. 72

C. 18

D. 36
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) What value should be subtracted from numbers that are in the ratio 3:4, so that the ratio
becomes 2:3?

A. 4

B. 6

C. 10

D. Cannot be determined

Q) In a calligraphy class there are 80 students in total.Which of the following can't represent
the ratio of the number boys and girls in the class?

A. 3:5

B. 1:3

C. 2:3

D. 1:6

Q) Ram and Lakhan are two workers working at a construction site. For every hour of work
Ram earns Rs. 3 less than Lakhan. The hourly early earnings of Ram and Lakhan are in the
ratio of 4:5. Find the total earnings of both on a day on which both work for 9 hours.
A. Rs. 223

B. Rs. 283

C. Rs. 243

D. Rs. 236
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) It is believed that a freely falling object travels a distance directly proportional to the
square of the time for which it falls. An object fell 95 m in the 10th second. Find the distance
(in m) it fell in the 14th second.
A. 235 m

B. 135 m

C. 145 m

D. 125 m

Q) Rahul work with a customer service team in a multinational firm, his monthly salary varies
directly with the number of working days in that month. His salary would be Rs. 9000 if there
are 20 working days in a month. Find his monthly salary if there are 21 working days in that
month.
A. Rs. 9550
B. Rs. 9450

C. Rs. 9650
D. Rs. 9850

Q) It is known that the price of 1 litre petrol is equal to 2 litres of Diesel and 3 litres of CNG.
Equal quantities of each fuel were purchased. Rs. 510 was spent on diesel, what was the total
money spent on petrol, diesel and CNG?
A. Rs. 1020

B. Rs. 1080

C. Rs. 510

D. Rs. 680
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) The volume of a sphere varies directly as the cube of its radius. If three cubes of radii 3 cm,
4 cm, and 5cm are melted and recast into one sphere then find the radius of the sphere.

A. 6 cm

B. 5 cm

C. 8 cm

D. 12 cm

Q) In an Engineering class, (2/5)th of the students are girls and (3/4)th of them travel to school
by a private bus. Further, it is known that 12 girls of that class do not travel to school by bus.
Find the strength of the class.
A. 40

B. 120

C. 60

D. 80

Q) The ratio of two numbers is 3:5 and their sum is 40. Find the larger of the two numbers.

A. 45

B. 12

C. 25

D. 20
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) If r is (3/4)th of s, s is 3/2 times of t and u is (1/4)th of t then find r : u.

A. 9 : 1

B. 9 : 2

C. 8 : 3

D. 8 : 1

Q) If 3x + y - 5z = 0 and 4x + 5y - 14z = 0. Find x:y:z.

A. 1 : 1 : 1

B. 2 : 1 : 1

C. 1 : 2 : 1

D. 1 : 1 : 2

Q) There are 2 numbers a² and 9. Their mean proportion is b, then find the value of (a² + b²) /
(b² - a²).

A. 1.75

B. 1.5

C. 1.25

D. 1

Q) The sum of two digit number and its reverse is k times the sum of its digits. Find the value
of k.

A. 9

B. 11

C. 10

D. Cannot be determined
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Ten years ago, the ratio of the ages of a woman and her daughter was 3:2. Which of the
following cannot be the ratio of their ages 5 years from now?

A. 6: 5

B. 7:3

C. 8:7

D. 11:9

Q) The ratio of two numbers is 2:3. If 12 is added to these numbers, the ratio of the resulting
numbers would be 3:4. Find the original numbers.

A. 24, 36

B. 22, 33

C. 20, 30

D. 26, 39

Q) The ratio of the monthly salaries of Aishwarya and Benita is 5:3. If they together earn Rs. 24,
800 per month, what is the annual salary of Aishwarya?

A. 196000

B. 186000

C. 176000

D. 166000
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Rajesh and Praneet are 2 classmates, the ratio of the marks scored by Rajesh and Praneet
in an exam are in the ratio of 4:3. If Rajesh scored 15 marks more than Praneet, find the marks
scored by Praneet.
A. 45

B. 65

C. 55

D. 40

Q) Quantity P varies inversely with the product of Q and R. When Q = 6 and R = 12, P = 75. Find P
when Q = 5 and R = 10.

A. 106

B. 104

C. 108

D. 110

Q) Shyam Transport plans to purchase 102 trucks. One truck costs Rs.19 lakh. Shyam transport
has a budget of Rs.12 crores, what percentage of trucks can be successfully purchased?

A. 61.76 %

B. 62 %

C. 61%

D. 65%
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) If Rajesh spends 30% of his income on rent & food and 40% of the remaining income on his
children’s education, then he is left with Rs.4,200. What is his income?

A. Rs. 7500

B. Rs. 8000

C. Rs. 9000

D. Rs. 10000

Q) Jyoti's monthly expense on shopping is 25%, travelling is 20%, food is 45% and 10% on
other recreational activities. What is the total amount she spent on travelling and food
together?
A. Rs. 15000

B. Rs. 18000

C. Rs. 12000

D. Cannot be determined

Q) The difference between 20% of a number and 4/5 of the same number is 2499. What is 2/7
of that number?

A. 2156

B. 1190

C. 1090

D. 1465
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) If the length and the breadth of a rectangle are increased by 10% and 15% respectively,
then what is the percentage increase in the perimeter of the rectangle?

A. 25%

B. 26.50%

C. 27.50%

D. Cannot be determined

Q) The difference between 71% of a number and 58% of the same number is 299. What is 67%
of that number?

A. 1608

B. 1407

C. 1541

D. 1474

Q) 37% of a number is 114.7. What is 130% of the number?

A. 406

B. 403

C. 405

D. 4407

Q) In 't' minutes, the time would be 8:00 am. If 40 minutes ago, the time was 3t minutes past
2:00 a.m, then find the present time.

A. 6 : 20 AM

B. 6 : 40 AM

C. 5 : 20 AM

D. 5 : 40 AM
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) The height of A is 25% more than the height of B and 20% less than the height of C. By
what percent the height of C is more than that of B?

A. 45

B. 50.5

C. 56.25

D. None of these

Q) There are three schools in a city - A, B and C. The number of students in A is 20% more than
that in B but 20% less than that in C. The difference between number of students in B and C is
225. What is the number of students in school A?
A. 450

B. 560

C. 675

D. 540

Q) Abhilash spends Rs.50 per month on the purchase of 1200 gm of sugar. If the price of sugar
is increased by 20%, then find the maximum amount (in gm) that Abhilash can buy in a
month if he keeps his expenditure constant.
A. 1000

B. 1100

C. 1050

D. 1150
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Marks scored by A in a test was 20% less than the marks scored by topper of the class. If
maximum marks that can be scored in the test are 25% more than the marks scored by the
topper of the class, then by what percent was the marks scored by A less than the maximum
marks?
A. 30 %
B. 45 %
C. 40 %
D. None of these

Q) Raju purchased an item for Rs.8,200 and sold it at a gain of 25%. From that amount he
purchased another item and sold it at a loss of 20%. What is his overall gain/ loss?

A. Loss of Rs. 140

B. Gain of Rs. 120

C. Loss of Rs. 150

D. No Loss, No Gain

Q) If a shopkeeper sells a mobile at a discount of 28%, he loses 16%. At what discount should
he sell the mobile to earn a profit of 12%?

A. 2%

B. 4%

C. 8%

D. 12%
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) The ratio of the cost prices of articles A and B is 4 : 5 respectively and that of their selling
prices is 7 : 6 respectively. If the profit on selling article A is 40%, then what is the profit / loss
percentage on selling article B?
A. 4% Profit

B. 4% Loss

C. 8% Profit

D. 8% Loss

Q) If two successive discounts of 25% and Z% is equivalent to an overall discount of 47.5%.


Find the value of Z.

A. 18%

B. 20%

C. 30%

D. 6%

Q) On selling a cycle for Rs.4698, Anil incurs a loss of 19%. The cost price of the cycle for Anil is

A. Rs.5500

B. Rs. 5800

C. Rs. 6200

D. Rs. 5000

Q) Find the greater of the two numbers such that their sum is 200 and the difference of their
squares 8000.

A. 80

B. 100

C. 120

D. 140
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Krishnan has 12 eggs with himself. He sells x eggs at a profit of 10% and the remaining eggs
at a loss of 10%. If he gains 5% on the whole then the value of x is

A. 6

B. 8

C. 9

D. 10

Q) A trader used to make 5% profit on an item selling at usual marked price. One day, he
trebled the marked price of the item and finally offered a discount of 30%. Find the
percentage profit he made on the item that day.
A. 120.50%

B. 100%

C. 99.50%

D. 94.50%

Q) The price of monthly issue of Economist, a popular magazine, is Rs.150. The yearly
subscription cost of the magazine is Rs.900 for the first year and Rs.1500 for subsequent
years. The money saved by a person who gets a 3-year subscription instead of buying monthly
issues for 3 years is what percent of the subscription cost for 3 years?
A. 50

B. 20

C. 38.46
D. 22.5
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Nine-tenths of 40% of a number is two-thirds of 162. Find the number.

A. 200

B. 400

C. 300

D. 500

Q) Arjun’s salary is 25% less than Krishna’s salary. Krishna’s salary is what percentage more
than that of Arjun?

A. 25%
B. 30%

C. 33.33%

D. 50%

Q) If 8.1 liters of milk is mixed with 36.9 liters of water, then the percentage of milk in the
mixture is

A. 12%

B. 15%

C. 16%

D. 18%

Q) If a Log200 2 + b Log200 5 = c, where a, b, c are natural numbers, then find the minimum
possible value of (a + b + c).

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 6
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) The price of a share increases by Rs.15 per day. The price on the first day was Rs.200. Find
the percentage increase in the price of the share on the 5th day over that of the first day.

A. 20

B. 40

C. 30

D. 10

Q) If the price of rice increases by 45%, then approximately by how much percent should
people cut down their consumption of rice so that their expenditure on rice remains
constant?
A. 22

B. 20

C. 35

D. 31

Q) Ranjan’s income is 20% more than Jeewan’s income and their expenses are 70% and 60%
of their respective incomes. By what percentage is Ranjan’s saving more/less than Jeewan’s?

A. 11.11

B. 10

C. 12

D. 13
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In a colony, 60% of the total population of the colony are men and 12% of the total
population of the colony is literate. If 20% of the women in the particular colony are literate,
then find the number of illiterate men in the colony as a percentage of the total number of
men in the colony. [Assume, that every person in the colony is either literate or illiterate.]
A. 80%
B. 83.33%
C. 92%
D. 93.33%

Q) 44% of 36% of 4375 is

A. 688

B. 693

C. 697

D. 702

Q) The price of an article is first increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. What is the net
percentage increase/decrease in the price?

A. 4% increase

B. 4% decrease

C. 4% increase

D. 6% increase
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In an examination, a student needs 45% to secure pass marks. Alok got 138 marks and
failed by 15%. What were the maximum marks?

A. 400

B. 450

C. 460

D. 500

Q) The price of sugar when drops by 20% allows the housewife to buy more quantity of sugar
at the same price. The percentage increase in the quantity of sugar at the given price drop is

A. 25%

B. 75%

C. 20%

D. 80%

Q) What is the total number of factors of 3360?

A. 40

B. 48

C. 34

D. 56

Q) The area (in sq. unit) bounded by the graphs of the equations |x + y| = 1, |x| = 1, and |y| = 1, is
equal to

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) How many odd factors are there for the 3-digit number 'bbb' where 'b' is the smallest
prime number?

A. 8

B. 27

C. 9

D. 4

Q) If 'p' is the remainder when 27 × 31 × 35 is divided by 20 and 'r' is the remainder when 17 × 21
× 25 is divided by 10, then what will be the remainder left when 'p' is divided by 'r'?

A. 7
B. 0

C. 5

D. 2

Q) What is the remainder when 445 × 460 × 475 × 490 is divided by 33?

A. 0

B. 32

C. 19

D. 1

Q) Surender says to Harpreet, " I am twice as old as you were when I was as old as you are."
The sum of their present ages is 63 years. Find the present age of Surender.

A. 24 years

B. 36 years

C. 39 years

D. 42 years
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) The remainder when 3334 is divided by 35 is

A. 2

B. 9

C. 1

D. 0

Q) The average of the first 5 prime numbers is

A. 3.4

B. 4.6

C. 5.6

D. 5.8

Q) Which of the following is the least positive integer which must be added to 2690 to get a
perfect cube?

A. 53

B. 321

C. 54

D. 545

Q) The cost of two pancakes and 3 omelettes is Rs. 46. The cost of a pancake and two
omelettes is Rs. 26. Find the cost of four pancakes and four omelettes is:

A. 48

B. 40

C. 80

D. 88
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) The square root of 27 −12√2 is

A. ±(2√6 − √3 )

B. ±(2√5 − √3 )

C. ±(3 − √2)

D. ±(√6 + 2√3 )

Q) A number when divided by a divisor leaves a remainder 44. When thrice the original
number is divided by the same divisor, the remainder is 12. What could be the value of the
divisor?
A. 30

B. 60

C. 75

D. 76

Q In an election contested by two parties, party X secured 22 percentage points more votes
than party Y. If party X got 323300 votes, then by how many votes did X win the election?

A. 265000

B. 58300

C. 36700

D. 64400
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A three-digit positive number ‘X’ is in the decimal system. ‘X’ is equal to cube of its unit
digit and also equal to the square of a two-digit positive number formed by its other two
digits. Find the sum of the digits of ‘X’.
A. 21

B. 18

C. 15

D. None of these

Q) The difference between the values of a number when increased by 15% and when
decreased by 30% is 90. What is the number?

A. 100

B. 200

C. 175

D. 225

Q) A heap of watermelons is divided into groups of 12, 15 and 18, and each time three
watermelons are left. What is the least number of watermelons in the heap?

A. 163

B. 173

C. 183

D. 193
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) When a natural number P is multiplied by 9, the number obtained contains only 1’s. Which
of the following is definitely not a digit of P?

A. 9

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

Q) The product of four consecutive even numbers is always divisible by

A. 400
B. 416

C. 348

D. 384

Q) When a number is divided by 36, the remainder is 25. What is the remainder when the
same number is divided by 12?

A. 5

B. 3

C. 1

D. None of these

Q) The difference between a three digit number and the number formed by reversing its
digits is divisible by:

A. 9

B. 11

C. Both 9 and 11

D. Neither 9 nor 11
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) What is the sum of all prime factors of 91800?

A. 77

B. 27

C. 71

D. 73

Q) How many 2-digit numbers are there which are divisible by 3 but not 5?

A. 27

B. 25

C. 24

D. 26

Q) Find the number of consecutive zeros at the end of the number (10! + 50! + 90! +100!)(15! +
25! + 50!)

A. 24(15! + 25! + 50!)

B. 15! + 25! + 50!

C. 2(15! + 25! + 50!)

D. None of these
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) The sum of the reciprocals of the factors of 120 is

A. 2

B. 4

C. 3

D. 5

Q) How many four-digit numbers, with distinct digits, are there such that the sum of the
digits of each of these numbers is an odd natural number?

A. 2160

B. 2090

C. 1880

D. 2376

Q) If 150! is converted to base 7, how many consecutive zeros would be there at the end of it?

A. 24

B. 23

C. 37

D. 36

Q) A company, intending to advertise its products through a particular TV channel, finds that
the advertisement rates applicable for a particular day for time slot 0600 hours to 1200 hours
is Rs. 300 per minute and for time slot 1200 hours to 1800 hours is Rs. 125. If the company
spent Rs. 10,000 for advertising on the given day, which of the following can be a value of the
number of advertisements (between 0600 hrs and 1800 hrs), of one minute each, that the
company can get advertised on the given television on that day?

A. 32

B. 50

C. 72

D. 59
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) N is a five-digit number. P is a six-digit number formed by appending a “1” to the right of N,


and Q is another six-digit number formed by appending a “1” to the left end of N. If P = 3Q,
what is the value of N?
A. 42857

B. 41587

C. 42657

D. 42987

Q) When cube of a natural number is divided by 7, the remainder obtained is 5. How many
values can the number assume?

A. 3

B. 1

C. 0

D. 2

Q) Find the number of 3 digit numbers which are divisible by 5 and the sum of the digits is
divisible by 3.

A. 30

B. 90

C. 60

D. 300

Q) Six years ago, the age of Tony was two years more than five times the age of his son. Four
years hence, his age will be two years less than three times the age of his son. After how
many years from now will their combined age be 100 years?

A. 48 years

B 14 years

D.19 years

D. 38 years
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Number of two-digit numbers which are equal to the sum of the product of their digits and
the sum of their digits is

A. 9

B. 8

C. 7

D. 6

Q) Vikramaditya and Betal were born and died in the 18th century. In the same century, at the
end of the year x3, Vikramaditya was ‘x’ years old and at the end of the year y2 Betal was ‘y’
years old. What was the difference between their ages (when they were alive)?

A. 4 years

B. 12 years

C. 6 years

D. 8 years

Q) If x = 2100, y = 375 and z = 550, then which of the following relations is correct?

A. y > x > z

B. x > y > z

C. y > z > x

D. z > y > x

Q) Ankita tells Bellie, "When I was 3/5th your present age, you were 5/7th of my present age. If
the present age, of Ankita is 28 years, what is the present age of Bellie?

A. 30 years

B. 35 years

C. 40 years

D. 32 years
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Golu and Chotu , who are two brothers share a herd of x cows. They take the cows to the
market and sell each cow for Rs. x. All money is in either Rs.10 notes or Re.1 notes. One at a
time they take out Rs.10 notes. The brother who draws first also draws last (for 10 rupee
notes). The second brother complains about getting one less Rs.10 note. So the first brother
offers him all the Re.1 notes without taking any. The second brother still received a total less
than the first brother, so he asks the first brother to write him a cheque to balance things out.
What should be the amount (in Rs.) to be paid by cheque?
A. 6
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4

Q) X, Y and Z are three distinct natural numbers such that X < Y < Z. The only factors of the
number (X + Y + Z) are (X – 7), (X – 6), (X + 9), (Y – 10), (Y – 5), (Y + 1), (Z – 12), (Z – 7) and (Z + 20).
Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. X is a perfect square
II. Y is a prime number
III. Z is a perfect square

A. I only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. All three of them

Q) When two dice are rolled what is the probability that the sum of the two numbers is 11?

A. 1/18

B. 1/36

C. 1/12

D. 1/9
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A husband and wife appeared in an interview for two vacancies in the same organisation.
The probability of husband's selection is 1/7 and that of wife's is 1/5. What is the probability
that neither of them will be selected?
A. 6/7

B. 4/5

C. 24/35

D. 11/35

Q) If two dice are thrown simultaneously,what is the probability of getting 4 appears exactly
once?

A. 1/4

B. 1/3

C. 2/9

D. 5/18

Q) There are 10 different fruits and 5 different vegetables. A grocer has to choose 3 fruits and 2
vegetables in all the possible ways he can do so. What is the number of selections in which a
particular fruit and a particular vegetable are always there?
A. 120

B. 144

C. 160

D. 140
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A mathematics problem is given to two students, Dabloo and Babloo. The probability of
Dabloo solving it is 3/5 and the probability of Babloo not solving it is 4/5. The respective
probabilities for
i. both solving the problem,
ii. Dabloo not solving it and Babloo solving it are
A. 2/25, 3/25
B. 3/25, 8/25

C. 3/25, 2/25

D. 12/25,1/25

Q) Boxes numbered 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are kept in a row, each of which are to be filled with one
ball, either a red one or a blue one. No two adjacent boxes can be filled with blue balls. Then
how many different arrangements are possible, given that all balls of the same colour are
exactly identical in every respects?
A. 1440

B. 10

C. 13

D. 22

Q) If in a certain year, the month of January had exactly four Wednesdays and four Sundays,
then January 1 of that year was a

A. Saturday

B. Monday

C. Wednesday

D. Thursday
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) There are 3 roads from A to B, from B to C there are 4 roads, 3 direct roads from A to D and
from C to D there is only 1 road. How many combinations of roads are there from A to D?

A. 11

B. 15

C. 14

D. 12

Q) A lady is four years younger than her husband and he is four times as old as his daughter
who was 10 years old three years back. What is the present age of the lady?

A. 48

B. 50

C. 52

D. None of these

Q) You are selecting 10 numbers randomly out of the first 100 odd numbers. Sum of these 10
odd numbers is A. How many different values of A are possible?

A. 900

B. 1801

C. 1800

D. 901
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Three coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of getting at least one head
and one tail.

A. 1/2

B. 1/4

C. 3/4

D. 1/8

Q) If 2 dices and 8 coins are tossed simultaneously, then the number of elements in the
sample space is

A. 6^8 × 2^2

B. 6^2 × 2^8

C. 6^2 × 3^9

D. 3^2 x 4^4

Q) A husband and wife appeared in an interview for two vacancies in the same organisation.
The probability of husband's selection is 1/7 and that of wife's is 1/5. What is the probability
that only one of them will be selected?
A. 2/7

B. 5/7

C. 4/35

D. 6/35
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In a chess competition involving some boys and girls of a school, every student had to play
exactly one game with every other student. It was found that in 45 games both the players
were girls, and in 190 games both were boys. The number of games in which one player was a
boy and the other was a girl is
A. 200
B. 216
C. 235

D. 256

Q) In a class of 100 students, 60 can play cricket and 70 can play hockey, what is the minimum
and maximum number of students who play both the games respectively.

A. 0,30

B. 30,60

C. 60,70

D. 30, 70

Q) In how many ways can 5 persons sit in a line such that two particular persons are never
together?

A. 120

B. 48

C. 72

D. 96
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In a room there are three lamp holders and there are twelve bulbs of which five are
defective. If three bulbs are selected at random to be put into the holders, then what is the
probability that the room is not lighted?
A. 1/11

B. 1/22

C. 1/4

D. 1/6

Q) Two dices are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum is a multiple of
4?

A. 7/36

B. 11/36

C. 3/4

D. 1/4

Q) If two dice are rolled, what is the probability that exactly one of them shows a 4?

A. 1/4

B. 1/3

C. 5/18

D. 2/9
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) A husband and his wife appear in an interview for two vacancies in the same post. The
probability of husband's selection 1/7 is and that of wife's is 1/5. What is the probability that at
least one of them will be selected?
A. 5/7

B. 2/35

C. 34/35

D. 11/35

Q) A husband and his wife appear in an interview for two vacancies in the same post. The
probability of husband's selection is 1/7 and that of wife's is 1/5. What is the probability that
only one of them will be selected?

A. 5/7

B. 2/7

C. 4/35

D. None of these

Q) If one die is rolled twice, what is the probability that 6 appears at least once?

A. 1/6

B. 11/36

C. 1/3

D. 5/18

Q) When Saurav was born, his mother Lakshmi was 24 years old. When Saurav turned 50, his
mother was still alive. In these 50 years how many times was Lakshmi’s age divisible by
Saurav’s age? (Assume that the number that denotes the age of a person is always an
integer.)

A. 6

B. 7

C. 8

D. 12
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Ramanujan was given the digits 2, 4 and 9 and asked to make a three-digit number using
these digits, without repeating any of them. What are the chances that the number he makes
will be greater than 450 but lesser than 900?
A. 1/12

B. 1/6

C. 1/4

D. 1/3

Q) A speaks the truth in 70% cases and B in 80% cases. What is the probability that they will
contradict each other in describing a single event?

A. 0.36

B. 0.38

C. 0.62

D. 0.42

Q) A number x is chosen at random from a set of first 100 natural numbers, find the
probability that ( x + (100/x) ) > 50.

A. 1/2

B. 51/100

C. 11/20

D. 52/100

Q) If a is an odd natural number and b is an even natural number, then what is the total
number of solutions of the equation ab + 2 = 2a + b + 600?

A. 16

B. 12

C. 5

D. 6
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) The probability that a teacher will give a test in a class meeting is 1/5. A student is absent
for two classes. What is the probability of that he will miss at least one test.
A. 4/25
B. 1/5
C. 1
D. 16/25

Q) A, B play a match of throwing a pair of dice alternatively till one gets a sum total of 9 and
wins the match. If A has the first throw, what is the probability that A wins the match.

A. 9/17

B. 8/17

C. 17/18
D. 3/17

Q) A coin is tossed 5 times, find the probability that no three consecutive toss results in the
same outcome.

A. 1/2

B. 7/16

C. 9/16

D. 15/32

Q) A cylinder has its height equal to its diameter. If the diameter measures 8 cm, find its
volume.

A. 15

B. 16

C. 17

D. Data insufficient
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) 6 coins are tossed simultaneously find the probability that number of heads obtained is
not odd.

A. 15/32

B. 1/2

C. 31/64

D. 17/32

Q) A leap year is chosen at random, what is the probability that it will have exactly 52
sundays.

A. 1/2

B. 5/7

C. 6/7

D. 1

Q) One unit of A is made by mixing 4 units of B and 5 units of C. One unit of B is made by
mixing 1 unit of X and 4 units of Y. One unit of C is made by mixing 2 units of X and 6 units of Y.
The weight of 1 unit each of X and Y is 5 kg and 3 kg respectively. What is the total quantity of
Y required to make 1040 kg of A?

A. 630 kg

B. 720 kg

C. 690 kg

D. 870 kg

Q) If the system of equations 2x + 5y + 3z = 4, 4x + 3y = –1 and 2y + 5z = 19, where x, y and z are


real numbers, has a unique solution, then find the value of (x + y + z).

A. 4

B. 3

C. 2

D. 1
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Total number of bananas with three friends Moti, Sumit and Manky together is 10. If sum of
reciprocals of the number of bananas with the three friends is 1, what is the absolute
difference between number of bananas with Moti and Sumit?
A. 2

B. 3

C. 0

D. Either A or C

Q) A generous man set aside a certain sum of money for equal distribution among the certain
number of persons. If there are five fewer persons, then each will receive two dollars more
and if there are four more persons, then each will receive one dollar less. How much did each
person received when there were four more persons?
A. 15

B. 16

C. 17
D. Data insufficient

Q) Raju, a rice dealer, has packets of 10 kg, 50 kg, 100 kg and 1000 kg of rice with him. He has
to deliver an order of 1,380 kgs of rice. The cost price of rice for Raju is Re.1/kg. The
transportation cost is Rs. 8 per packet, irrespective of packet’s weight. If he delivers full
packets only, what is the minimum cost (cost price and transportation cost together) that he
would incur in order to deliver the order?
A. Rs. 1444

B. Rs. 1414

C. Rs. 1448

D. Rs. 1426
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) Manoj has a certain amount of money in the form of denominations Re 1 and Rs. 10. The
amount (in Rs.) with him is the product of the number of Re 1 notes and the number of Rs. 10
notes. The number of Rs. 10 notes is less than 15. What is the possible amount(in Rs.) that he
can have?
A. 121
B. 144

C. 64
D. 81

Q) Rohan and five of his friends contributed equal money and hired a car to Goa. At least one
of his friends pulled out of the trip at the last moment and so they decided to divide the
expenses between the rest of the people. During the journey the car required some minor
repair for which they paid Rs. 250 extra. The total travelling expenses, including the repair
charges, amounted to Rs. 410 per person. If each of the six friends had contributed an integral
amount more than Rs. 100 initially, then what was their total initial contribution?

A. Rs. 1800

B. Rs. 570

C. Rs. 2460

D. Cannot be determined

Q) Seven years ago at the time of the marriage, the average age of a man and his wife was 28
years. At present they have two children. Their daughter is 2 years older than their son. One
year after the birth of the daughter, the average age of the man, wife and their daughter was
21 years. Find the present age of the son.
A. 1 year

B. 2 years

C. 3 years
D. 4 years
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In the figure given below: the value of 'x' is unknown. Find the area of the triangle and
value of x.

A. 6 units, 4√3 sq. units

B. √3 units, 8√3 sq. units

C. 4 units, 4√3 sq. units

D. 4 units, 8√3 sq. units

∠ ∠
Q) In the given figure, not necessarily to scale, BDA = 80°, DAC = 40° and ABC is an

isosceles triangle. Which of the following can be the measure of BAD?

A. 60°

B. 80°

C. 40°

D. 70°
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In the figure , AB = AC = AD and ∠BCA = 30°. Find ∠BDA.

A. 60°

B. 40°

C. 45°

D. 70°

Q) In the figure given below, if the area of parallelogram ABCD is 208 cm², then find the
height of the parallelogram ABEF.

A. 16 cm

B. 8 cm

C. 12 cm

D. None of these
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In the figure AB =2 cm, BC = 22 cm and DE = 8 cm. Find AD (in cm).

A. 8 cm

B. 4 cm

C. 6 cm

D. 2 cm

Q) In the figure, AB = 5, BC = 6, CA = 7. Find the area of the circle (in sq. units)

A. (4π)/3

B. (8π)/3

C. (8π)/9

D. (16π)/9
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In the figure above, ABCD is a square BE = 36 and AF = 25. Find the area of the square. (in sq.
units)

A. 450

B. 600

C. 900

D. 1200

Q) In the figure, a circle is circumscribes a regular hexagon and another circle of radius r is
inscribed in the hexagon. Find the radius of the outer circle.

A. 2r

B. (2r)/√3

C. √3r

D. √(2r)
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In the figure, XZ is the diameter of the circle. ∠XZY = 35°. Find ∠YXZ (in degrees)

A. 60°

B. 35°

C. 55°

D. 45°

Q) In the figure, AB = 5 cm, BC = 6 cm, CA = 7 cm. Find DC (in cm)

A. 3 cm

B. 4 cm

C. 5 cm

D.6 cm
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In the given figure, PT and PR are two tangents to the circle at T and R respectively. If O is
∠ ∠
the centre of the circle and TPR = 60°, find TSR.

A. 40°

B. 60°

C. 120°

D. None of these

Q) In the given figure, ABCD is a quadrilateral. If AB = 10 cm, AD = 3 cm and CD = 4 cm, then


what is the length of BC?

A. 11 cm

B. 12 cm

C. 10 cm

D. Cannot be determined
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In the given figure, the lengths of BD and DC are in the ratio of 2:3 and BC = 5 cm. Find AC.

A. √17

B. √23

C. √29

D. √21

Q) In the right angled triangle ABC, the right angle is at B and BD is perpendicular to AC. The
lengths of AD = 5 units and CD = 6 units. Find AB².

A. 144

B. 121

C. 132

D. None of these
Quantitative Aptitude

Q) In the figure below, QS = QT and RU = RT. ∠QPR = 36° Find ∠STU.

A. 96°

B. 84°

C. 72°

D. 60°

Q)In the figure, QS : SR = PV : VS = 4 : 3, PT = 8 cm. Find PR (in cm).

A. 12 cm

B. 14.5 cm

C. 16.5 cm

D. 18.5 cm
Visual Reasoning
(Analogy)
There is a definite relationship between figures A and B. Establish a similar relationship between figures C and D, by
selecting a suitable figure from the answer. What will come in place of (?)

1)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C

2)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A

3)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A

4)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- B

5)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C
Visual Reasoning
(Analogy)

6)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- B

7)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A

8)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- E

9)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- E

10)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- B
Visual Reasoning
(Analogy)

11)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C

12)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C

13)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C

14)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C

15)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A
Visual Reasoning
(Analogy)

16)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- D

17)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C

18)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- D

19)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C

20)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- B
Visual Reasoning
(Analogy)

21)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A

22)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A

23)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A

24)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C

25)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- D
Visual Reasoning
(Analogy)

26)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C

27)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- B

28)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A

29)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- D

30)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A
Visual Reasoning
(Analogy)

31)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- E

32)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- E

33)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- E

34)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C

35)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- B
Visual Reasoning
(Analogy)

36)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C

37)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C

38)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- B

39)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A

40)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- B
Visual Reasoning
(Analogy)

41)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- D

42)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- D

43)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C

44)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- B

45)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A
Visual Reasoning
(Analogy)

46)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A

47)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A

48)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- B

49)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- A

50)

A) B) C) D) E)

Ans:- C
Visual Reasoning
(Series)
All five figures are related to each other in a serial logic. Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which will
continue the same series as established by the five.

51)

Ans:- 3

52)

Ans:- 2

53)

Ans:- 4

54)

Ans:- 1

55)

Ans:- 1
Visual Reasoning
(Series)

56)

Ans:- 2

57)

Ans:- 1

58)

Ans:- 1

59)

Ans:- 4

60)

Ans:- 5
Visual Reasoning
(Series)

61)

Ans:- 4

62)

Ans:- 5

63)

Ans:- 1

64)

Ans:- 3

65)

Ans:- 3
Visual Reasoning
(Series)

66)

Ans:- 3

67)

Ans:- 2

68)

Ans:- 2

69)

Ans:- 4

70)

Ans:- 5
Visual Reasoning
(Series)

71)

Ans:- 3

72)

Ans:- 4

73)

Ans:- 3

74)

Ans:- 4

75)

Ans:- 3
Visual Reasoning
(Series)

76)

Ans:- 1

77)

Ans:- 3

78)

Ans:- 1

79)

Ans:- 3

80)

Ans:- 2
Visual Reasoning
(Series)

81)

Ans:- 5

82)

Ans:- 5

83)

Ans:- 3

84)

Ans:- 5

85)

Ans:- 1
Visual Reasoning
(Series)

86)

Ans:- 1

87)

Ans:- 2

88)

Ans:- 5

89)

Ans:- 3

90)

Ans:- 3
Visual Reasoning
(Series)

91)

Ans:- 2

92)

Ans:- 3

93)

Ans:- 3

94)

Ans:- 3

95)

Ans:- 5

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