Test Booklet Code & Serial No.

A
LAW
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.

JUN - 60220 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 24 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory. 2.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are 3.
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept (i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover (ii)
page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions
or questions repeated or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct
booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within
the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given. The same may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
(iii)
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
the correct response against each item.
Example : where (C) is the correct response.

A B D (C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR A B D
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 5.
6. Read instructions given inside carefully.
7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet. 6.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 7.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
8.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.
 JUN - 60220/II—A

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 JUN - 60220/II—A
Law
Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. Who propounded ‘Minimum content 3. Who propounded the theory of Pain

and Pleasure ?
theory of natural law’ ?
(A) Jeremy Bentham
(A) H. L. A. Hart
(B) Austin
(B) Lon Fuller (C) Kant

(C) John Finnis (D) Finnis

4. Which book is not authored by Julius

(D) Julius Stone
Stone ?
2. According to Hugo Grotius, the (A) Human Law and Human
purpose/s of social contract : Justice

(B) Legal System and Lawyer’s

(A) Internally for the justification
Reasonings
of the absolute duty of obedience
(C) Social Dimensions of Law and
of the people to the government Justice

(B) Internationally to create a basis (D) Law in the Making

for legally binding and stable 5. The jural opposite of ‘Power’ is :

(A) Disability
relations among the states
(B) Liability
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Privilege
(D) None of the above (D) Immunity

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 JUN - 60220/II—A

6. ............... sees Nagel’s claim about 10. Hans Kelsen regards law as :
states as ‘a piece of empirical
(A) Natural science
political sociology’.
(A) Julius (B) Positive science
(B) Thomas Hobbes (C) Normative science
(C) Cohen (D) Physical science
(D) Rawls
11. Which of the following rights is
7. The status of legal person is
guaranteed only to the citizens ?
determined by :
(A) Natural law (A) Right to life and personal liberty

(B) Legislation (B) Right to equality

(C) Precedent (C) Right to freedom of speech and
(D) Custom expression
8. Which is not an essential of (D) Right to freedom of religion
ownership ?
12. The President shall be elected by the
(A) The owner has a right to possess
the thing which he owns members of an electoral college
(B) The owner has the right to use consisting of ................ .
and enjoy the thing owned (A) The elected members of both
(C) The owner has the right to Houses of Parliament
consume, destroy or alienate the
thing (B) The elected members of the
(D) Ownership is determinate in Legislative Assemblies of the
duration States
9. ‘The task of social engineering is to (C) The elected members of both
build as efficient structure of the
Houses of Parliament and the
society as possible with minimum
friction and waste’, said by : elected members of the

(A) Prof. H.L.A. Hart Legislative Assemblies of the

(B) Karl Marx States

(C) Roscoe Pound (D) The elected members of the Lok

(D) Lon Fuller Sabha

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 JUN - 60220/II—A
13. Article 254(2) provides that where 16. Article 371(2) enables the President
a state law with respect to a matter
in the Concurrent List contains any to lay special responsibility on the
provision repugnant to the Governor of which states for the
provisions of a previous central law, development of certain areas of that
with respect to that matter :
states ?
(A) The state law will prevail
without the assent of the (A) Nagaland and Mizoram
President
(B) Maharashtra and Gujrat
(B) The state law prevails if having
been reserved for the (C) Maharashtra and Andhra
consideration of President and
Pradesh
has received his assent
(C) The state law will not prevail (D) Sikkim and Karnataka
(D) Both the laws will not prevail 17. The present Election Commission of
14. Which of the following writs can be India consists of :
issued by the High Court to restrain
a tribunal from acting under an (A) Chief Election Commissioner
unconstitutional law ? only
(A) Writ of Prohibition
(B) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(C) Writ of Certiorari and two Election Commissioners
(D) Writ of Mandamus (C) Chief Election Commissioner
15. Prior to the 44th Amendment, and one Election Commissioner
Article 352(1) provided that the
President could make a (D) Three Election Commissioners
proclamation declaring Emergency
18. Sir Ivor Jennings’ definition of
on the ground of :
‘Administrative Law’ does not
(A) War, External Aggression or
Internal Disturbance emphasis on ............... .
(B) War, External Aggression or (A) Administrative power
Armed Rebellion
(C) External Aggression, Armed (B) Administrative procedure
Rebellion, Internal Disturbance (C) Administrative organisation
(D) War, Armed Rebellion, External
Aggression (D) Administrative duties

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 JUN - 60220/II—A

19. A. K. Kraipak V. Union of India is 22. Which one of the following is not
a case related to : the essential attribute custom as a
(A) Tortious liability of state source of international law ?

(B) Delegated legislature (A) Antiquity

(C) Abuse of Discretion (B) Continuity

(D) Rule against bias (C) Consistency

20. A law which gives uncanalised (D) Maneuverability

power/discretion to an authority to 23. When in the opinion of the
refuse licence to carry a normal recognizing state, the state or
trade on its subjective consideration, government to be recognized
without provision for review by formally fulfils the requirements of
the superior authority is to be held statehood it grants which type of
as .................... . recognition ?
(A) Reasonable restriction (A) De facto recognition
(B) Unreasonable restriction (B) De jure recognition
(C) Constitutional (C) Conditional recognition
(D) Non-arbitrary power (D) Ad hoc recognition
21. Who said that the supreme will of 24. The international movement of
the state by consenting to be bound people into a destination country
by customary or conventional rules where they were not natives or
of international law, places citizens or where they do not possess
limitation on sovereignty ? citizenship is known as ............... .
(A) Anzilotti (A) Immigration
(B) Hegel (B) Refuge
(C) Jellinik (C) Internal displacement
(D) Bynkershoek (D) Migration
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25. In which landmark case the 28. Who was the first Director General
International Court of Justice dealt of World Trade Organization ?
with extra-territorial or diplomatic
asylum ? (A) Mike Moore
(A) Caroline Case (B) Roberto Azvedo
(B) Luther V. Sagor
(C) Pascal Lamy
(C) Haya de la Torre Case
(D) Abu Salem Case (D) Peter Sutherland

26. The advisory opinion of ICJ may be 29. What are the persons who are
sought by whom ?
uprooted from their home country
(A) The General Assembly and
and find themselves seeking asylum
Security Council only
(B) The General Assembly, Security and protection in another country
Council, other organs of UNO called ?
and specialized agencies or
other members of the United (A) Prisoners of war
Nations family if authorised by (B) Refugees
the General Assembly
(C) The specialised agencies only (C) Aliens

(D) The Security Council and (D) Offenders

specialised agencies only
30. Which one of the following is a major
27. A forcible or dictatorial interference
by a state in the affairs of another challenge in enforcement of
state calculated to impose certain International humanitarian law ?
conduct or consequences on that
other state is known as ................ . (A) Consent of parties involved

(A) Retorsion (B) Internal armed conflict

(B) Reprisal
(C) Non-cooperation of states
(C) Blockade
(D) All of the above
(D) Intervention
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 JUN - 60220/II—A

31. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) 32. Match List I with List II and select

and with the help of codes given the correct answer using the codes

below point out the correct given below it :

explanation. List I

Assertion (A) : In murder both the (a) Mens rea

elements of intention and knowledge (b) Motive

are required to be proved the (c) Law presumes innocence
intention to injure and the (d) Knowledge of the act to be
knowledge about the consequences unlawful
of injury relating to a particular List II
victim.
(1) Always not necessary
Reason (R) : The word ‘knowledge’
(2) Condition precedent for any
imparts ascertaining and not merely offence
probability.
(3) Relevant and to impute
Codes : intention

(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually (4) Until crime is proved beyond
true and (R) is the correct doubt
explanation of (A) Codes :

(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually (a) (b) (c) (d)
true and (R) is not the correct (A) (2) (1) (4) (3)
explanation of (A) (B) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false (C) (2) (1) (4) (3)
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true (D) (1) (2) (4) (3)
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33. Which one of the following will 36. ‘A’ beat his wife. She fell down and
amount to criminal conspiracy ? became unconscious. Believing her
(A) Two or more persons agreed to to be dead and to save himself from
commit a criminal act in being arrested for murder, ‘A’
furtherance of their common hanged her to the fan with rope.
intention Postmortem report disclosed her
(B) Intention of each of the accused death from hanging. ‘A’ is liable
persons is known to the rest of for :
them and is shared (A) Murder
(C) Unity of criminal behaviour
(B) Culpable homicide
actuated by common consent
(C) Causing death by negligence
(D) Agreement to commit an
offence even if no overt act is (D) Grievous hurt
done to carry out the agreement 37. ‘Z’ dies in possession of furniture and
34. If a criminal act is done by several money. His servant ‘A’, before the
persons in furtherance of common money comes into the possession of
intention of all, each of such persons any person entitled to such
is liable for : possession, dishonestly misappro-
(A) Abetment to commit such an priates the same causing.
offence (A) An aggravated form of
(B) Conspiracy to commit such an misappropriation as per section
offence 404 of IPC
(C) The part of the act done by him (B) A type of possession by some
(D) As if whole of the act is done process as per section 405 of
by him alone IPC
35. Which of the following offences is (C) No offence because the property
punishable at preparation stage ? in question was entrusted to ‘A’
(A) Murder before the death of ‘Z’
(B) Theft (D) No offence because the property
(C) Cheating in question was possessed by
(D) Dacoity some casualty

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 JUN - 60220/II—A

38. Which of the following Sections of

42. “Tort is a civil wrong for which the
IPC deals with ‘stalking’ ?
remedy is a common law action for
(A) Section 354-A
(B) Section 354-B unliquidated damages and which is
(C) Section 354-C not the exclusive breach of contract
(D) Section 354-D
or breach of trust or merely
39. Awarding a lesser punishment on
special grounds is known as .......... . equitable obligation.”
(A) Reprieve
The above definition is given by :
(B) Respite
(C) Remission (A) Winfield

(D) Commutation (B) Sir Frederick Pollock

40. The term ‘Victim’ has defined
under : (C) John Salmond

(A) Section 2 (wa) Cr.P.C.

(D) Lord Atkin
(B) Section 2 (wb) Cr.P.C.
(C) Section 2 (xa) Cr.P.C. 43. “There is no Law of Tort, but there

(D) Section 2 (za) Cr.P.C. is a Law of Torts.”

41. “Tort is an infringement of a right
Which legal thinker propounded this
in rem of a private individual, giving
a right of compensation at the suit view ?
of injured party.”
(A) Granville Williams
This definition has been given by :
(A) Sir John Salmond (B) Sir John Salmond
(B) Winfield
(C) Winfield
(C) Fraser
(D) Sir Frederick Pollock (D) Sir Frederick Pollock

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44. Match the pairs : 45. Match the pairs :

List I
List I
(a) Damnum sine injuria
(a) Mutual agreement to do
(b) Strict liability
something in satisfaction of the
(c) Injuria sine damnum
cause of action
(d) Inevitable accident
(b) Actual payment of the sum
List II
agreed upon
(1) Ashby V. White
(c) Surrending the right of action (2) Gloucester Grammar School
against the wrong doer Case

(d) Neglect to enforce the right to (3) Stanley V. Powell Case

take action for a length of time (4) Donghue V. Stevenson

(5) Ryland V. Fletcher Case
List II
Choose the correct option :
(1) Acquiescence
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) Release
(A) (3) (1) (2) (5)
(3) Accord
(B) (2) (5) (4) (1)
(4) Satisfaction (C) (2) (5) (1) (3)

Choose the correct option : (D) (2) (3) (1) (5)

(a) (b) (c) (d) 46. Which one of the following cases
discusses “Negligence” ?
(A) (4) (2) (1) (3)
(A) Ryland V. Fletcher
(B) (3) (4) (2) (1)
(B) Donghue V. Stevenson
(C) (3) (2) (4) (1) (C) Ashby V. White
(D) (1) (4) (2) (3) (D) Vaugan V. Menlov 1837

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 JUN - 60220/II—A

47. On April fool’s day, the local 48. ‘X’ erected a building overhanging
the land of another.
newspaper published the news Which of the following statements
regarding the murder of Prime is correct ?
(A) “X” is liable for the nuisance as
Minister of Democratic of Industan, he disturbs the enjoyment of
land to another
para-materia to India. The people (B) “X” is liable for the negligence
found Prime Minister alive on the as he has not taken prior
permission before erection
television on the same day. Hence, (C) “X” is liable for the act of trespass
(D) “X” is not liable for anything as
Democratic Janta Dal (DJD) a party
erected building is hardly
of Prime Minister instituted suit created any legal damage to
another
against the owner and editor and 49. The state constructed a reservoir for
editor of such local newspaper. the supply of drinking water for the
village. The overflow channel from
In the light of above facts, which of reservoir was partially constructed
and then was left incomplete. Due
the following statements stands to rain, the water overflowed and
plaintiff’s land and crops were
correct ?
damaged.
(A) DJD will win the case as the In the light of above facts, if the
plaintiff brings suit against state,
newspaper intended to cause it consider the following statements :
(1) The state can raise the plea of
emotional distress sovereign immunity
(2) The state can raise the plea of
(B) DJD will lose due to absence of act of God, as overflow of water
locus standi is natural phenomenon
(3) The state can raise the plea of
(C) DJD will lose unless they can inevitable accident
(4) The state can’t raise any plea
show that the Prime Minister as in the given fact, negligence
is alive is apparent
In the light of above, choose the
(D) DJD will lose unless it prove correct option from the following :
(A) Only (1) is correct
malice behind the publication of (B) Only (2) is correct
(C) (1), (2) and (3) are correct
news item
(D) Only (4) is correct
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50. The maximum period of limitation 52. Which of the following statements
to file a complaint before the is true as to Minor’s Contract under
Consumer Dispute Redressal the Contract Act, 1872 ?
Agencies :
(A) It can be enforced after he
(A) Within six months from the
attains majority
date of incidence
(B) Within two years from the date (B) Minor is liable to pay
of cause of action compensation after he attains

(C) Within three years from the majority

date of incidence (C) It cannot be validated even
(D) No limitation period prescribed after he attains majority
to file a complaint at National (D) Minor is liable to repay the
Consumer Dispute Redressal
amount under the contract to
Agencies
the opposite party.
51. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
53. No one can enrich at the expense
and with the help of the codes
given below point out the correct of the other signifies.
explanation. (A) Damages
Assertion (A) : An article displayed (B) Penalty
at the window of shop is only on
(C) Quasicontract
invitation to make an offer.
Reason (R) : The person pick the (D) Compensation
article and tender at shopkeeper to 54. Which of the following is not a
purchase is an offer based on the ground for the termination of an
price tag. agency ?
Codes : (A) Revocation and Renounciations
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(B) Death or unsound mind
(R) is a good explanation of (A)
(C) Agent’s interest coupled with
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
(R) is not a good explanation of (A) subject-matter of agency

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false (D) Agent adjudicated as an

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true insolvent

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55. The term ‘Unpaid Seller’ has been 59. Which of the following powers is to
defined in which section of the Sale be exercised by resolution at board
of Goods Act, 1930 ?
meetings ?
(A) Section 44
(A) to make calls, to authorise buy
(B) Section 45
back of shares and sale of
(C) Section 46
undertakings of the company
(D) Section 47
(B) to diversify the business of the
56. The maximum number of partners
in limited liability partnership is : company, to approve
(A) 10 amalgamation, merger and

(B) 20 reconstruction and to issue

(C) 30 securities including debentures

(D) No limit (C) to give time for repayment of

57. The term ‘Allonge’ under Negotiable debt from a director, to make
Act, 1881 means : calls and to authorise buy back
(A) a piece of paper attached to the of shares
negotiable instrument for the
(D) to borrow money, to sell
purpose of further negotiation
undertaking of the company
(B) a paper attached with negotiable
and to invest compensation
instrument when it was with
full negotiations money in otherwise
(C) Both (A) and (B) 60. The activities to be undertaken by
(D) Either (A) or (B) corporate social responsibility
58. A prospectus which does not include committee of a company are
complete particulars of the quantum specified in which Schedule of
or price of the securities is known Companies Act, 2013 ?
as ................ .
(A) Schedule V
(A) Red herring prospectus
(B) Shelf prospectus (B) Schedule III
(C) Abridged prospectus (C) Schedule VI
(D) Deemed prospectus (D) Schedule VII

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61. Match the following and select the 62. ‘A’ bequeaths a legacy “to Thomas,
the second son of my brother John”.
correct answer using the codes given The testator has an only brother
below it : John, whose first son is named
Thomas and whose second son is
List I named William. The person who gets
a property under the bequeath is :
(a) Remedy for deprivation of (A) William
custody of a child (B) Thomas
(b) Removal of a testamentary (C) The testator himself
(D) No one
guardian
63. Consider the following statements
(c) Appointment of a guardian ad- and give the correct answer :
litem (I) Every petition under Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955 must state
(d) Apostacy that there is no collusion
between the petitioner and the
List II other party to the marriage.
(1) Insolvency of the guardian (II) The statements contained in
every petition under the said
(2) Application under sec.-97, 98 of Act shall be verified in the
manner required by law for
Criminal Procedure Code 1973 verification of plaints.
(3) Disability of a guardian (III) Every proceeding under this Act
shall be conducted in camera.
(4) Order 32 of Civil Procedure Codes :
Code (A) Content in statement I is
mandatory and II, III are
Codes : optional
(a) (b) (c) (d) (B) Contents in all statements I, II,
III are mandatory
(A) (1) (3) (4) (2) (C) Contents in statement I are
optional and II, III are
(B) (2) (1) (3) (4)
mandatory
(C) (4) (2) (1) (3) (D) Contents in statements I, III
are optional and II are
(D) (2) (1) (4) (3) mandatory
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64. Which of the following is not 66. Which one of the following is an
considered to be the power of a approved form of marriage among
Hindus under uncodified law ?
marriage officer under Special
(A) Asura
Marriage Act ?
(B) Gandharva
(A) Discovery and Inspection
(C) Prajapatya
(B) Issuing commissions for (D) Paishacha
examination of witnesses
67. Which one of the following is an
(C) Maintain the marriage authoritative text for Dayabhaga
dissolution book school ?
(A) Vyavahara Mayukha
(D) Register marriages solemnized
(B) Vivada Tandava
under this Act
(C) Dattaka Chandrika
65. A, a Hindu male during his
(D) Nirnay Sindhu
bachelorhood adopts a son P. After
68. Which of the following is not a valid
some period, he marries B. He did
talaq/divorce as per Muslim Law of
not have any son from B, and hence present time ?
adopts another son Q. (A) Talaq initiated by wife under
Which one of the following the power delegated to her by
her husband
statements is correct ?
(B) Talaq initiated by wife with an
(A) P’s adoption is valid, Q’s
offer to relinquish her claim of
adoption is invalid dower and offer accepted by
(B) Adoption of both P and Q are husband

valid (C) Talaq initiated by husband, by

pronunciating three times in
(C) Adoption of P is invalid and
one seating
adoption of Q is valid
(D) Talaq effected by Mutual
(D) Adoption of both P and Q is Consent of the husband and
invalid wife
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69. Read the Assertion (A) and Reason 71. What are the causes of land
(R) and with the help of codes given
below, point out correct explanation. pollution ?
Assertion (A) : A marriage (A) Rising population and mining
between a man and a descendant or
ascendant of his wife is void under (B) Industrialisation, unplanned
Muslim Law.
mining, rising population and
Reason (R) : There is absolute bar
on marriage between the relations urbanisation
of affinity.
(C) Industrialisation and
Codes :
unplanned mining
(A) (A) is correct, (R) is false
(B) (A) is false, (R) is true (D) Only urbanisation and
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true but
industrialisation
(R) is not a correct explanation
of (A) 72. Which international convention
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct and
recognised that wild animals are an
(R) is the correct explanation
of (A) irreparable part of the earth’s
70. Which of the following is not a valid natural system and it is an
defence available to wife in a suit
for restitution of conjugal rights ? obligation of mankind to ensure that

(A) It is unsafe for her to live with this legacy is conserved for future
her husband because of his
generations ?
cruelty
(B) The husband grossly neglects (A) Bonn Convention
the performance of the marital
obligations (B) Ramsar Convention

(C) The marriage is irregular (C) Rome Convention

(D) The husband is living with his
parents (D) Nairobi Convention

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73. In which of the following cases the 75. According to Section 20 of National
Hon'ble Supreme Court declared Green Tribunal Act, 2010 the
that intergenerational equity and National Green Tribunal has to
sustainable development have come apply which principles ?
to be firmly embedded in our
(A) Polluter pays principle and
constitutional jurisprudence as an
intergenerational equity
integral part of the fundamental
principle only
rights conferred by Article 21 of the
(B) Only polluter pays principle and
Constitution ?
public trust doctrine
(A) Samaj Parivartana Samudaya
Vs. State of Karnataka (2013) (C) Principle of sustainable

(B) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad development, the precautionary

Vs. Union of India (2012) principle and the polluter pays

principle
(C) Subhash Kumar Vs. State of
Bihar (D) Intergenerational equity and

(D) Susetha Vs. State of TN (2006) precautionary principle only

74. When were the plastic waste 76. The modern conception of human

management rules introduced by rights developed in the aftermath of

MOEF notification ? the :

(A) 2016 (A) First World War

(B) 2015 (B) Second World War

(C) 2018 (C) Gulf War

(D) 2017 (D) World War
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77. Which year was designated by 80. The National Human Rights
the General Assembly as the Commission can enquire, Suo Motu
International Year of Disabled or on a petition presented to it by
Persons ? a victim or any person on his behalf,
(A) 1980 into a complaint of :
(B) 1981 (A) Violation of human rights or
(C) 1982 abetment thereof
(D) 1983 (B) Negligence in the prevention of
78. The International Bill of Human violation of human right by a
Rights consists of : public servant
(A) The Universal Declaration of
(C) Both (A) and (B)
Human Rights
(D) Violation by non-state sector
(B) The International Covenant on
81. Which one of the following doctrines
Economic, Social and Cultural
Rights prevailing in most of the legal
systems that allows a court to hold
(C) The International Covenant on
Civil and Political Rights a party liable for patent
infringement even though the
(D) All of the above
infringing device or process does not
79. The World Assembly on Ageing at
fall within the literal scope of a
Vienna to focus world attention on
patent claim, but nevertheless is
the problems of the elderly and the
aged was held in the year : equivalent to the claimed.

(A) 1982 (A) Doctrine of Literal Conflict

(B) 1993 (B) Doctrine of Deceptive Similarity

(C) 1966 (C) Doctrine of Equivalents

(D) 1972 (D) Doctrine of Colourable Deception

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82. The developing of the personality is 84. Which one of the following is not an
exception given under S/52 of the
inherent to the property right. The
Copyright Act, 1957 which allows
IPR permit and protect the the use of copyrighted material as
developing of the personality which “fair deal” ?

extends to the material things. (A) The commercial use of copy-

righted material
The above statement represents
(B) The academic use of copy-
which one of the theory of IPR ? righted material

(A) The Utilitarian Theory of IPR (C) The use of copyrighted material
for research purpose
(B) The Natural Right Theory of
(D) The use of copyrighted material
IPR for private use

(C) The Ethics and Reward Theory 85. Which one of the committee had
examined the question of revision of
of IPR
patent law and advised the
(D) The Personhood Theory of IPR government in 1959 to retain the
patent system in India, however
83. Which one of the following was not
recommended major changes in the
the subject matter of Paris law which formed the basis of the
Convention 1883 for the protection introduction of the Patents Bill,
1965 ?
of industrial property ?
(A) Dr. Bakshi Tek Chand
(A) Copyright Committee

(B) Patents (B) Justice N. Rajgopala Ayyangar

Committee
(C) Trademarks
(C) Wolfenden Committee
(D) Utility models (D) Justice M.C. Chhagla Committee
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86. While determining the cases of 88. It has been observed that India has
deceptive similarity in contesting been traditionally one of the soft
claim of trademarks, the court while target of biopiracy. Which among
deciding the issue of “identity”, the following is the reason for it ?
“similarity”, “Like to cause (A) Because India was the colony
confusion” from the perspective of under British Government and
which one of the following fictitious therefore open to Bio-piracy for
characters ? European Nation
(A) An average man of ordinary (B) Because India has large
intelligence with imperfect amount of Biodiversity
recollection
(C) Because Government of India
(B) The person ordinarily skilled in has Liberal approach for its
Art resources and therefore it is easy
(C) Lay observer to carry away the Bio-diversified
(D) A reasonable and prudence material
man (D) Because National Bio-diversity
87. Which of the following has been authority is not effectively
awarded protection under the established in India to control
Geographical Indications of Goods the Bio-piracy
Act, 1999 ? 89. What is the maximum penalty for
(1) Dharwad Petha damage to computer, computer
system, unauthorised access,
(2) Darjeeling Tea
download of data, infecting with
(3) Kadaknath Chicken
virus, denial of access etc. as per
(4) Gondwana Dhokra S-43 of the Information Technology
Choose the correct option : Act, 2000 ?
(A) (1), (2) and (4) (A) 2 lakhs
(B) (1), (2) and (3) (B) 50 lakhs
(C) (2), (3) and (4) (C) 1 crore
(D) (2) and (4) (D) 5 crores
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90. In order to safeguard the secure use 92. An insurer is absolved from the
liability under section 149 (2) (a) of
of the electronic medium and for
the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988 if :
promotion of e-governance and
(A) Motor vehicle developed a fault
e-commerce, which of the following while it was in use
authority has been empowered to (B) The driver was skilled and
prescribe the modes or methods possessed valid licence
for encryption u/s 84A of the (C) No part committed any breach
Information Technology Act, 2000 ? of condition of contract of
insurance
(A) The controller of certifying
(D) The owner was aware that the
authority
driver has fake driving licence
(B) The adjudicating officer and still he permitted the driver
appointed by Central to drive the vehicle

Government 93. In Canada, Federation is primarily

contained in the ................ .
(C) The Ministry of Information
(A) Constitution Act, 1982
and Technology in consultation
(B) Canadian Charter of Rights and
with Department of Telecomm- Freedoms
unication (C) British North America Act,
(D) Central Government 1867
(D) Crown Proceeding Act
91. ‘A firm having market power
94. The Presidential system is a form
substantial enough to act
of Government in which :
independent of the competitive forces
(A) Ministers are collectively
that prevail in the relevant market.’ responsible to the legislature
What does this statement refer to ? (B) President is indirectly elected
(A) Cartel (C) Total executive responsibility is
assigned to the President as an
(B) Dominant position
individual
(C) Market equilibrium (D) Head of the State is merely a
(D) Predominant nature of activity constitutional head

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95. The term ‘Separation of Powers’ is 98. The first 10 amendments to the
ascribed to political philosopher : United States Constitution passed

(A) A. V. Dicey are known collectively as :

(A) Voting Rights
(B) Beron de Montesquieu
(B) Women Rights
(C) Lord Denning
(C) Bill of Rights
(D) Voltaire
(D) Abolition of Slavery
96. Dicey enumerated the doctrine of
99. Which of the following statements
................ which involved three
is not true about the appointment
distinct proportions or kindred
of members of Lokpal ?
conceptions.
(A) Total number of members shall
(A) Separation of powers
not exceed right
(B) State action
(B) Out of total at least fifty percent
(C) Rule of law shall be Non-Judicial Members
(D) Political question (C) Members shall not be a person
97. 24th Constitutional Amendment who has been removed or
Act, 1971 inserted Art, 13(4) in the dismissed from the service of the
Indian Constitution to overrule the Union or a State
view taken by the Supreme Court (D) Members shall not be of less
of India in the case of : than 45 years of age
(A) Sajjan Singh Vs. State of 100. ................. was the first country to
Rajasthan adopt the institution of Ombudsman

(B) Keshavand Bharati Vs. Union in 1809.

of India (A) Finland

(C) Minerva Mills Vs. Union of (B) Sweden

India (C) Denmark

(D) Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab (D) Norway

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ROUGH WORK

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