Sbi Po Mains 2020 Question Paper 13

SBI PO 2020 (Main)
Previous Year Solved

Paper (In English)
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Direction: Read the given passage discontinuous tree canopy. However,

carefully and answer the questions this structural definition of a savanna
that follow. Certain words are printed doesn’t take into consideration other
in bold to help you locate them while biological traits of individuals and
answering some of the these. communities, which provide clues
The grassy forests of Bandipur, like about the evolution and functional
many dry deciduous “forests” in south ecology of this ecosystem. Savanna
India, are not forests at all. The trees trees have a number of adaptations to
here are adapted to fire and the dry live in a fire-driven ecosystem. Their
grasses fuel it frequently in the dry large underground storage organs
months between monsoons. These and roots contain much of their
ecosystems are more open than resources and fire cannot damage
closed canopy forests and the hardy these stores. Saplings re-sprout
vegetation found here can withstand quickly and grow rapidly. Adult trees
drought conditions. have less dense canopies than forest
Jayashree Ratnam, associate director species, allowing more sunlight to
of the wildlife biology and permeate to the ground level. Mature
conservation programme at the trees also have thick bark. A 2019
National Centre for Biological Science, study found that on average, savanna
said that these forests are mesic tree species from peninsular India
savannas. “Having worked for a while produced twice as much bark as
in African savannas and being very evergreen forest trees.
familiar with the idea that mixed tree- Historically, indigenous people in
grass ecosystems were distinctive India used controlled burning as a
from forests, when we returned to way to manage their forests. The
India and started visiting various field Soligas of Biligiri Rangaswamy
sites, we were struck by the Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, for
similarities of these sites with African example, would set fires early in the
savannas,” she said. summer for a wide variety of reasons.
Mesic savannas receive more rainfall Ground fires, they believe, kept
than some other iconic savannas of hemiparasites at bay, and now, adult
the tropics, but such ecosystems the trees are falling prey to these
world over are characterised by organisms that depend on them in
frequent burning and drought. India, part for their survival. Soligas find
however, has a blanket fire- that the invasive Lantana has spread,
suppression policy in place and this is to the detriment of understorey
doing more harm than good to these plants and altering the structure of
tree-grass ecosystems, find a series the forest significantly in the process.
of studies. “The more we worked and This spread of Lantana can have
documented, the more we realised detrimental effects across trophic
that viewing these ecosystems as levels. “Allowing for periodic fires
forests resulted in a fundamental creates a mosaic of different densities
misunderstanding of their functional of woody vegetation and also
ecology, especially the roles of fire prevents the dominance of some
and herbivores in maintaining these weedy species such as Lantana
ecosystems,” added Ratnam. camara. What we see now in most
Savannas are ecosystems having a peninsular Indian “forests” is that fire
continuous layer of grass along with a has been totally banned and as a
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result Lantana has completely taken have to examine the inference in the
over the understorey. Since few context of the passage and decide
herbivores eat the leaves of Lantana, upon its degree of truth or falsity.
this is going to reduce ungulate “The tree-grass ecosystems of
density and therefore negatively savannas are identical throughout the
affect large carnivores such as the world.”
tiger,” said Abi T Vanak, an associate A. Definitely true
professor with the Ashoka Trust for B. Probably true
Research in Ecology and the C. The data are inadequate
Environment. D. Probably false
source: E. Definitely false
https://scroll.in/article/916442/india
s-understanding-of-forest-fires-has- 4.Which of the following statements is
been-skewed-by-colonial-era-policy true about Savannas with reference
to the given passage?
1. A. They are usually incapable of
Which of the following is/are correctly holding moisture.
inferred from the given passage? B. Their adaptation in a fire-driven
I. In a forest, the plants do not have ecosystem includes increased
distinctive roles. immunity to forest fires.
II. Presence of rainfall is often a sign C. The understorey in savannas rely
of lack of forest fires. on constant sunlight.
III. In order to protect its forests, D. Both B & C
India must let them burn. E. All A, B & C
A. Only I
B. Only III 5.Which of the following statement
C. Both II & III (s) is/are NOT TRUE in accordance
D. Both I & II with the information provided in the
E. All are correct passage?
I. There is a bigger market for
2.Which of the following is not an deciduous forest trees than evergreen
assumption that supports the forest trees.
arguments presented in the first II. Uncontrolled growth of
paragraph? hemiparasites has caused a reduction
A. Forest fires usually occur where of canopy.
there is little to no moisture in the air. III. The indigenous people were not
B. Grassy forests are common in consulted while making the forests of
southern India. India.
C. Deciduous forests are immune to A. Only I
fire. B. Only III
D. Deciduous trees do not obstruct C. Both II & III
the sunlight from reaching the D. Both I & II
ground. E. All are correct
E. None of the above
Direction: Read the given passage
3.Given below is a possible inference carefully and answer the questions
that can be drawn from the facts that follow. Certain words are printed
stated in the second paragraph. You
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familiar with the idea that mixed tree- Historically, indigenous people in
grass ecosystems were distinctive India used controlled burning as a
from forests, when we returned to way to manage their forests. The
India and started visiting various field Soligas of Biligiri Rangaswamy
sites, we were struck by the Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, for
similarities of these sites with African example, would set fires early in the
savannas,” she said. summer for a wide variety of reasons.
Mesic savannas receive more rainfall Ground fires, they believe, kept
than some other iconic savannas of hemiparasites at bay, and now, adult
the tropics, but such ecosystems the trees are falling prey to these
world over are characterised by organisms that depend on them in
frequent burning and drought. India, part for their survival. Soligas find
however, has a blanket fire- that the invasive Lantana has spread,
suppression policy in place and this is to the detriment of understorey
doing more harm than good to these plants and altering the structure of
tree-grass ecosystems, find a series the forest significantly in the process.
of studies. “The more we worked and This spread of Lantana can have
documented, the more we realised detrimental effects across trophic
that viewing these ecosystems as levels. “Allowing for periodic fires
forests resulted in a fundamental creates a mosaic of different densities
misunderstanding of their functional of woody vegetation and also
ecology, especially the roles of fire prevents the dominance of some
and herbivores in maintaining these weedy species such as Lantana
ecosystems,” added Ratnam. camara. What we see now in most
Savannas are ecosystems having a peninsular Indian “forests” is that fire
continuous layer of grass along with a has been totally banned and as a
discontinuous tree canopy. However, result Lantana has completely taken
this structural definition of a savanna over the understorey. Since few
doesn’t take into consideration other herbivores eat the leaves of Lantana,
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this is going to reduce ungulate grass ecosystems were distinctive

density and therefore negatively from forests, when we returned to
affect large carnivores such as the India and started visiting various field
tiger,” said Abi T Vanak, an associate sites, we were struck by the
professor with the Ashoka Trust for similarities of these sites with African
Research in Ecology and the savannas,” she said.
Environment. Mesic savannas receive more rainfall
source: than some other iconic savannas of
https://scroll.in/article/916442/india the tropics, but such ecosystems the
s-understanding-of-forest-fires-has- world over are characterised by
been-skewed-by-colonial-era-policy frequent burning and drought. India,
however, has a blanket fire-
6. Which of the following is one of the suppression policy in place and this is
major reasons why the author is doing more harm than good to these
concerned about spread of Lantana? tree-grass ecosystems, find a series
A. Lantanas prevent the growth of of studies. “The more we worked and
new understorey plants. documented, the more we realised
B. Lantanas are better adapted to a that viewing these ecosystems as
fire-driven ecosystem than forests resulted in a fundamental
understorey plants. misunderstanding of their functional
C. Lantanas prevent over hunting by ecology, especially the roles of fire
large carnivores. and herbivores in maintaining these
D. Their parasitic nature makes them ecosystems,” added Ratnam.
inedible for herbivores. Savannas are ecosystems having a
E. None of the above continuous layer of grass along with a
Direction: Read the given passage discontinuous tree canopy. However,
carefully and answer the questions this structural definition of a savanna
that follow. Certain words are printed doesn’t take into consideration other
familiar with the idea that mixed tree-
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Historically, indigenous people in negatively affect large carnivores

India used controlled burning as a such as the tiger”
way to manage their forests. The A. Lantanas reduce food sources for
Soligas of Biligiri Rangaswamy carnivores.
Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, for B. Lantanas cause habitat loss.
example, would set fires early in the C. Excess of Lantana will obstruct the
summer for a wide variety of reasons. field of vision of the carnivores.
Ground fires, they believe, kept D. Herbivores will be forced to
hemiparasites at bay, and now, adult migrate due to unavailability of food.
trees are falling prey to these E. None of the above
organisms that depend on them in
part for their survival. Soligas find Direction: Read the given passage
that the invasive Lantana has spread, carefully and answer the questions
to the detriment of understorey that follow. Certain words are printed
plants and altering the structure of in bold to help you locate them while
the forest significantly in the process. answering some of the these.
This spread of Lantana can have The grassy forests of Bandipur, like
detrimental effects across trophic many dry deciduous “forests” in south
levels. “Allowing for periodic fires India, are not forests at all. The trees
creates a mosaic of different densities here are adapted to fire and the dry
of woody vegetation and also grasses fuel it frequently in the dry
prevents the dominance of some months between monsoons. These
weedy species such as Lantana ecosystems are more open than
camara. What we see now in most closed canopy forests and the hardy
peninsular Indian “forests” is that fire vegetation found here can withstand
has been totally banned and as a drought conditions.
result Lantana has completely taken Jayashree Ratnam, associate director
over the understorey. Since few of the wildlife biology and
herbivores eat the leaves of Lantana, conservation programme at the
this is going to reduce ungulate National Centre for Biological Science,
density and therefore negatively said that these forests are mesic
affect large carnivores such as the savannas. “Having worked for a while
tiger,” said Abi T Vanak, an associate in African savannas and being very
professor with the Ashoka Trust for familiar with the idea that mixed tree-
Research in Ecology and the grass ecosystems were distinctive
Environment. from forests, when we returned to
source: India and started visiting various field
https://scroll.in/article/916442/india sites, we were struck by the
s-understanding-of-forest-fires-has- similarities of these sites with African
been-skewed-by-colonial-era-policy savannas,” she said.
Mesic savannas receive more rainfall
7. Which of the these presents a than some other iconic savannas of
contrast to the following sentence as the tropics, but such ecosystems the
mentioned in paragraph 6: world over are characterised by
“Since few herbivores eat the leaves frequent burning and drought. India,
of Lantana, this is going to reduce however, has a blanket fire-
ungulate density and therefore suppression policy in place and this is
doing more harm than good to these
6
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tree-grass ecosystems, find a series plants and altering the structure of

of studies. “The more we worked and the forest significantly in the process.
documented, the more we realised This spread of Lantana can have
that viewing these ecosystems as detrimental effects across trophic
forests resulted in a fundamental levels. “Allowing for periodic fires
misunderstanding of their functional creates a mosaic of different densities
ecology, especially the roles of fire of woody vegetation and also
and herbivores in maintaining these prevents the dominance of some
ecosystems,” added Ratnam. weedy species such as Lantana
Savannas are ecosystems having a camara. What we see now in most
continuous layer of grass along with a peninsular Indian “forests” is that fire
discontinuous tree canopy. However, has been totally banned and as a
this structural definition of a savanna result Lantana has completely taken
doesn’t take into consideration other over the understorey. Since few
biological traits of individuals and herbivores eat the leaves of Lantana,
communities, which provide clues this is going to reduce ungulate
about the evolution and functional density and therefore negatively
ecology of this ecosystem. Savanna affect large carnivores such as the
trees have a number of adaptations to tiger,” said Abi T Vanak, an associate
live in a fire-driven ecosystem. Their professor with the Ashoka Trust for
large underground storage organs Research in Ecology and the
and roots contain much of their Environment.
resources and fire cannot damage source:
these stores. Saplings re-sprout https://scroll.in/article/916442/india
quickly and grow rapidly. Adult trees s-understanding-of-forest-fires-has-
have less dense canopies than forest been-skewed-by-colonial-era-policy
species, allowing more sunlight to
permeate to the ground level. Mature 8. Which of the following correctly
trees also have thick bark. A 2019 describes the tone of the second
study found that on average, savanna paragraph?
tree species from peninsular India A. Analytical
produced twice as much bark as B. Decisive
evergreen forest trees. C. Formal
Historically, indigenous people in D. Laudatory
India used controlled burning as a E. Nostalgic
way to manage their forests. The
Soligas of Biligiri Rangaswamy Direction: Read the given passage
Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, for carefully and answer the questions
example, would set fires early in the that follow. Certain words are printed
summer for a wide variety of reasons. in bold to help you locate them while
Ground fires, they believe, kept answering some of these.
hemiparasites at bay, and now, adult The COVID-19 pandemic has
trees are falling prey to these probably been the most devastating
organisms that depend on them in of financial and social crisis of recent
part for their survival. Soligas find times, leading to suspension of
that the invasive Lantana has spread, almost all economic activity and
to the detriment of understorey forcing a country wide lockdown.
While the INR 20 lakh crore economic
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recovery has assuaged some safety and sanitation standard for

apprehensions, some sectors that hosting and serving its customers.
have been more affected than others, The industry must also utilise this
and sectors that could help with opportunity to adopt ecological waste
economic recovery have been disposal practices and adopt
overlooked. environment friendly day to day
Tourism, which contributes 5.06 per practices.
cent in India’s GDP (2016-17) is one It is quite evident that the tourism
such industry which has been ignored sector in India needs a redoubled and
in this recovery package. The ongoing renewed push for its revival in the
pandemic, travel restrictions, and the post COVID-19 world. The
country wide lockdown have brought government must consider an
the entire tourism industry to a immediate recovery package and plan
standstill, and unlike other sectors, that focusses on the tourism sector,
tourism will take longer to recover, not just because it is one of the worst
especially leisure tourism. This will affected, but also because it is
have a direct impact on states like arguably the largest source of
Uttarakhand, Rajasthan, Kerala, employment and source of income for
Himachal Pradesh, Goa, Sikkim and many MSMEs.
other north eastern states which Source -
depend extensively on tourism as a http://www.businessworld.in/article/
source of state revenue. Impact-Of-COVID-19-On-Tourism-
The EU has provided benefits in the In-India/16-06-2020-286114/
form of liquidity support, fiscal relief,
and easing of state aid rules for those 9.
in the tourism business and is Which of the following is not an
currently considering a tourism assumption that supports the
recovery plan. Italy, one of the worst argument – ‘India needs to provide
country to be affected by COVID-19, incentives to the domestic tourists.’?
has recently announced a four billion A. Different countries of the world
euros bailout package for tourism and have provided a bail-out package for
will incentivise domestic tourists to the tourism sector to enable it to
holiday on home soil. The French recover from the adverse effects
government too has announced an faced due to Covid.
eighteen billion euros “Marshall Plan B. India has paid close attention to it
for Tourism” bailout for tourism. for the past six years and one hopes
Countries such as US, UK and that it is reflected in their bail out
Singapore too have initiated focussed package in the post covid era.
efforts to revive tourism. India’s lack C. Many states in India are dependent
of focus on tourism and its on domestic tourists as they
conspicuous absence from the contribute a significant amount to the
recovery package is both surprising state revenue.
and disappointing. Even more so D. Even with an end to the lockdown,
when the government has been many people are afraid to travel as
paying particular attention to the India lacks a common safety and
sector these last six years. sanitation standard.
For the tourism industry, this is an E. None of these.
excellent time to develop a common
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10.Which of the following sentences and prevent domestic tourism and

connects the first and the second people visiting second homes.'
paragraph of the passage correctly? A. Definitely true
A. In order to improve the flow of B. Probably true
credit to this sector, tourism must be C. The data are inadequate
included under priority sector lending D. Probably false
(PSL). E. Definitely false
B. The Government should consider
supporting the hotel and restaurant 13.Which of the following statements
industry by subsidising their fixed can be correctly inferred from the
costs. passage?
C. Interestingly, the global scenario is A. The devastation caused by Covid
completely different. 19 is similar to that caused by other
D. The sector also has strong forward epidemics that the world has seen till
and backward linkages to other date.
sectors such as agriculture, transport, B. The Indian government has
handloom, and FMCG to name a few. provided for a comprehensive
E. Disruptions in tourism sector will recovery package for the economy.
render many people in unemployed. C. Many countries in the world are
specifically targeting only the tourism
11.Which of the following statement sector for economic recovery.
(s) is/are NOT TRUE in accordance D. Tourism can be of many types and
with the information provided in the forms.
passage? E. None of these
I) Participants in tourism sector have
adopted an ecological approach 14.Which of the following statements
towards the daily operations. mentions the purpose of the given
II) Italy is mainly focussing on their passage?
domestic tourists in order to recover A. To analyse the impact of Covid 19
from the adverse effects of Covid on on the tourism sector.
tourism. B. The measures taken to boost the
III) Majority of the state revenue is tourism sector in India after the
collected from leisure tourism in disastrous effects of Covid -19
several Indian states. C. The economic recovery programme
A. Only I of the Indian government to combat
B. Only II the effects of Covid 19
C. Both II and III D. The currect condition of the
D. All of them tourism sector in India.
E. None of them E. A comparative study on the steps
taken to recover the tourism sector
12.Given below is a possible inference after Covid 19 between India and
that can be drawn from the facts other major countries.
stated in the fourth paragraph. You
have to examine the inference in the Direction: In the given sentence,
context of the passage and decide some parts are printed in bold. The
upon its degree of truth or falsity. emboldened parts may or may not be
‘National governments and local correct. Choose the part which is
authorities are acting to discourage incorrect and needs improvement. In
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case all the parts are correct, choose Testament books, including the
(E) "All are correct" as the answer. Johannine.
15. A. The author or the final redactor
The Russians again broke out B. certain linguistic character on the
northward; but some of the book,
Japanese squadrons hanged on to C. differentiates it not only from all
the remnant of the enemy's D. and also from all the New
battle-fleet, and the others dealt Testament
with the numerous Russian vessels E. All are correct
that were unable to keep up.
A. The Russians again broke out Direction: In the given sentence,
B. of the Japanese squadrons hanged some parts are printed in bold. The
on emboldened parts may or may not be
C. remnant of the enemy's battle fleet correct. Choose the part which is
D. others dealt with the numerous incorrect and needs improvement. In
E. All are correct case all the parts are correct, choose
(E) "All are correct" as the answer.
Direction: In the given sentence, 18. In 1815, when the Dartmouth
some parts are printed in bold. The board of trustees was rent by
emboldened parts may or may not be factions, the majority, which were
correct. Choose the part which is Federalists and Congregationalists,
incorrect and needs improvement. In removed the president, John
case all the parts are correct, choose Wheelock, who was a Presbyterian,
(E) "All are correct" as the answer. and appointed Francis Brown in
16. I had better to explain our use his place.
of the manual alphabet, which A. when the Dartmouth board of
seems to puzzle people who do not trustees
know us. B. which were Federalists
A. better to explain our C. removed the president
B. the manual alphabet, which D. appointed Francis Brown in his
C. to puzzle people place
D. not know us E. All are correct
E. All are correct
Direction: In the following question,
Direction: In the given sentence, two sentences I and II have been
some parts are printed in bold. The given. In each sentence, some words
emboldened parts may or may not be have been highlighted, which may or
correct. Choose the part which is may not be grammatically and
incorrect and needs improvement. In contextually appropriate at its current
case all the parts are correct, choose place. Words in sentence I may be
(E) "All are correct" as the answer. exchanged with words in sentence II
17. The author or the final and vice versa, to make both the
redactor has impressed a certain sentences grammatically and
linguistic character on the book, contextually correct. If both the
which differentiates it not only sentences are correct as it is, choose
from all secular writings of the time, ‘No exchange required’ as your
and also from all the New answer.
19.
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I. Wind projects cooking (A) D. B-D & A-E

characterisation of the site and data E. No exchange required
collection (B) for the long-term, the
mill (C) of which has been on 22.
developers. I. Due to high terrains, (A) wind
II. Back in the day she would collect projects face a higher risk of
(D) kernels of groundnuts from a local curtailment while (B) them at a
oil onus (E) and prepare a require disadvantageous place with respect
(F) stove by making cakes out of (C) to solar projects.
them. II. putting (D) urban, high
A. B-D & C-F population density and plain areas
B. A-E & B-F saw a rapid (E) access to such
C. A-F & C-E sources, difficult variability (F) with
D. B-D, A-E & C-F low population density are yet to have
E. No exchange required such accessibility.
A. B-D & A-F
20. B. A-E & B-F
I. Risks to emerging projects elderly C. A-F & C-E
(A) costs, while states and D. B-D, A-E & C-F
distribution companies (discoms) E. No exchange required
pacify (B) the lowest-possible
stories. (C) 23.
II. Most increase (D) women, I. Agricultural workers are deprived
however, find glory in their suffering (A) of mechanised tools to ease their
and sometimes, I feel they try to work, but have no popularly (B) as
expect (E) the guilt of their reduced even basic things as irrigation pumps
functionality through such tariffs. (F) are not available (C) to them.
A. A-D, B-E & C-F II. Labour Day, respite (D) known as
B. A-E & B-F International Workers’ Day, has many
C. A-F & C-E historical anecdotes (E) attached to
D. B-D, A-E & C-F it but what it precisely is identified
E. No exchange required (F) with is the state of the world’s
labour force.
21. A. A-D & B-E
I. Competition prompts cooked (A) B. A-E & B-F
power producers (IPP) to quote low C. C-D & C-E
tariffs with the expectation of D. C-F & B-D
accessing consumed (B) and windy E. No exchange required
land but increasing demand for good
sites raises prices, making projects Direction: In the following question,
unviable. (C) two columns are given, containing a
II. I never cheap (D) food made on connector and three phrases each. In
such a stove as my mother always the first column, the phrases are A, B
independent (E) on an oven fired and C and in the second column, the
(F) by liquified petroleum gas (LPG). phrases are D, E and F. You have to
A. A-D, B-E & C-F make meaningful sentences using the
B. A-E & B-F connectors and from the phrases of
C. A-F & C-E both the columns. There are five
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options, four of which display the (E) our flight was cancelled.
sequence(s) in which the phrases (F) it's not difficult to pull together a
with the connectors can be joined to sentence.
form a grammatically and A. A-E
contextually correct sentence. If none B. B-E and A-F
of the options given forms a correct C. A-D
sentence after combination, select D. B-D
‘None of these’ as your answer. E. None of these
24. Nevertheless
I. Direction: In the following question,
(A) She has a lot of friends two columns are given, containing a
(B) In the end, we all felt connector and three phrases each. In
(C) I hope that when I've built up my the first column, the phrases are A, B
savings and C and in the second column, the
II phrases are D, E and F. You have to
(D) we ate too much. make meaningful sentences using the
(E) she has no one to talk to. connectors and from the phrases of
(F) I'll be able to travel to Mexico. both the columns. There are five
A. A-E options, four of which display the
B. B-E and A-F sequence(s) in which the phrases
C. A-D with the connectors can be joined to
D. B-D form a grammatically and
E. None of these contextually correct sentence. If none
of the options given forms a correct
Direction: In the following question, sentence after combination, select
two columns are given, containing a ‘None of these’ as your answer.
connector and three phrases each. In 26. Incidentally
the first column, the phrases are A, B I.
and C and in the second column, the (A) The objective for development
phrases are D, E and F. You have to should
make meaningful sentences using the (B) I have found the item in the
connectors and from the phrases of supermarket
both the columns. There are five (C) The school cricket team did not
options, four of which display the get disheartened by the initial setback
sequence(s) in which the phrases II
with the connectors can be joined to (D) encourage the development of
form a grammatically and industries and on the other hand
contextually correct sentence. If none ensure the preservation of the
of the options given forms a correct environment.
sentence after combination, select
‘None of these’ as your answer. (E) she performed poorly in the
25. On account of English test.
I. (F) I met Mrs Anamika, an old
(A) The hurricane classmate of mine, there.
(B) Of all the places to travel A. B-E
(C) Once you know all the elements B. B-E and A-F
II C. A-D
(D) Mexico is at the top of my list. D. B-F
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E. None of these Rodney’s sculpture shows the process

of verdigris blooming across the coins
Direction: In the following question, in strata of glowing blue and green,
two columns are given, containing a fading in places to muddy brown or
connector and three phrases each. In revealing flashes of copper as the
the first column, the phrases are A, B materials react to each other over
and C and in the second column, the time. Bodily decay, death and lost
phrases are D, E and F. You have to dreams.
make meaningful sentences using the Land of Milk and Honey II is a
connectors and from the phrases of memento mori. The Birmingham-born
both the columns. There are five artist made the piece for a 1997
options, four of which display the exhibition at the South London
sequence(s) in which the phrases Gallery that he developed as a
with the connectors can be joined to (###Q2###) to his father who had
form a grammatically and died three years earlier. The work
contextually correct sentence. If none gained further tragic resonance
of the options given forms a correct following the artist’s own untimely
sentence after combination, select death the following year.
‘None of these’ as your answer. The curdling materials represent the
27. Not only…but also artist’s body suffering from sickle cell
I. anaemia, a disease that
(A) The street door of the rooming- (###Q3###) affects people of
house was unlocked. African and Caribbean family descent,
(B) The thieves stole the jewels. where diseased red blood cells cause
(C) The staff at the consulate seemed damage and decay throughout the
insensitive. body. The title of the piece refers to
II. the hope Rodney’s father and other
(D) The staff was professionally families of their generation had when
inadequate. migrating to the UK from Jamaica in
(E) They smashed up most of the the 1950s; but like the milk in the
valuable furniture in the room. sculpture, his dreams soured when
(F) The street door of the rooming- (###4### ) to the realities of life
house was wide open. as an immigrant in Britain. Through
A. A-F these dual metaphors, Land of Milk
B. B-E & A-F and Honey II functions as a
C. C-D & A-F conceptual portrait of the tragic and
D. A-F, B-E, & C-D heroic lives of two generations.
E. None of these Rodney’s wide-ranging practice
Direction: In the following passage, (###Q5###) automaton,
there are blanks, each of which has computer programmes, photography,
been numbered. These numbers are X-ray prints and skin sculptures.
printed below the passage and Sometimes beautiful and occasionally
against each, five words are shocking, but always (###Q6###)
suggested, one of which fits the blank and eloquent, these works explore his
appropriately. experience of life in a diseased body
Copper coins, milk and honey are and living in a society diseased by
(###Q1###) in a human-sized racism.
glass vitrine. Each side of Donald
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Land of Milk and Honey II was A. Encompassed

donated by the artist’s estate and the B. Conceded
Contemporary Art Society in 2014 C. Culled
and has quickly become a star of the D. Divulged
collection. Eventually the work will E. Confided
lose all of the green colouring, as
lower parts of the sculpture already 33.Find out the appropriate word in
have, but it is this (###Q7###) – each case.
knowing that it will continue to decay A. Apathetic
– that make every moment with this B. Ambitious
compelling work a precious, C. Indolent
bittersweet interaction. D. Enervated
E. Lackadaisical
28.
Find out the appropriate word in each 34.Find out the appropriate word in
case. each case.
A. Unbolted A. Impertinence
B. Latched B. Audacity
C. Encased C. Temporality
D. Unfurled D. Effrontery
E. Anointed E. Temerity
29.Find out the appropriate word in Direction: Study the information

each case. carefully and answer the questions
A. Eulogy that follow.
B. Castigation A, B and C started a business by
C. Onslaught investing Rs. 800, Rs. 1600 and Rs.
D. Invasion 2000 respectively. In the second
E. Crucifixion quarter, they invested amounts in the
ratio 1 : 4 : 2. In the next quarter
30.Find out the appropriate word in again, they invested amounts in the
each case. ratio 3 : 2 : 3. In the last quarter, the
A. Clumsily ratio of their investments were same
B. Caressingly as in the 2nd quarter. Also, in the last
C. Abruptly quarter, the respective amounts of A,
D. Allegorically B and C was double than the
E. Disproportionately respective amounts invested in 2nd
quarter. The total investment of C
31.Find out the appropriate word in before 4th quarter was Rs 1400 more
each case. than that of A during the same
A. Swanned duration. Also, ratio of B’s share in
B. Frequented profit to total profit at the end of year
C. Exposed was 66 : 153. Please note: All the
D. Incessant investments were for one quarter
E. Abluted only.
32.Find out the appropriate word in 35.

each case.
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Find the total investment of A, B and

C. and and that of either a green
A. Rs 10,200
B. Rs 11,300
C. Rs 9,800 or orange ball is .
D. Rs 10,080
E. None of these
Quantity II: A bag contains 40 balls
36.If A, B, C invested same amount in green, orange and yellow. The
1st quarter as given in the question in probability of picking orange ball is
1st quarter and the same amount as
given in 2nd quarter in the question . If the first ball was orange and
in 2nd, 3rd and 4th quarter, then without replacement, probability of
what would be the profit of A at the
end of year out of a total profit of Rs. picking a green ball is . Number
19,350? of yellow balls.
A. Rs. 2510 A. Quantity I > Quantity II
B. Rs. 3320 B. Quantity I < Quantity II
C. Rs. 2560 C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
D. Rs. 3150 D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
E. None of these E. Quantity I = Quantity II or no
relation can be established
37.If the investments of A, B and C in
third quarter were changed and were Direction: In the following question
now in the ratio 2 : 4 : 1 (other two Quantities i.e., Quantity I and
investments being the same), then Quantity II are given. You have to
what would be the total investment of determine the relation between
all three in third quarter, if the Quantity I and Quantity II.
average investment of A, B, and C 39.
was Rs. 3100 for whole year? ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ are positive integers.
A. Rs. 700 Quantity I: Value of a in
B. Rs. 800
C. Rs. 500
D. Rs. 900 Quantity II: Value of c in
E. None of these
Direction: Each question below

A. Quantity I > Quantity II
contains a statement followed by
B. Quantity I < Quantity II
Quantity I and Quantity II. Find both
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
to find the relationship among them.
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
Mark your answer accordingly.
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or no
38.
relation can be established
Quantity I : A bag contains 50 balls
which are green, orange and yellow .
Direction: In the following question
Number of orange balls in the bag, if
two Quantities i.e., Quantity I and
probability of picking green ball is
Quantity II are given. You have to
determine the relation between
Quantity I and Quantity II.
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40. B. Only a and b

Given, a, b, c and d are positive C. Only b and d
integers. D. Only a, b and d
E. Only b and c
I: = ab× c
43.Find the ratio between value of c
II: = and d respectively.
Quantity I: Value of ‘c’ A. 3 : 2
Quantity II: Value of ‘d’ B. 4 : 3
A. Quantity I > Quantity II C. 3 : 4
B. Quantity I < Quantity II D. 2 : 3
C. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II E. None of the above
D. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
E. Quantity I = Quantity II or no 44.If another series follows the same
relation can be established pattern as the given series and the
first term of this new series is 29,
Direction: Study the following then find the fifth term of this new
information and answer the questions series.
that follow. A. 67
A number series is given as B. 56
20, a, b, c, d, 65 C. 42
Where a, b, c and d are missing D. 63
terms. E. 51
It is also given that:
I. a – 20 = (x2 + y) Direction: Each of the questions
II. The value of b is greater than a and below consists of a question and three
the difference of b and a is equal to statements numbered I, II and III
the given below it. You have to decide
[(x + 1)2 + y]. whether the data provided in the
III. The value of c is [(x + 2)2 + y] statements are sufficient to answer
more than b and the value of d is [(x the question. Read all the statements
+ 3)2 + y] more than c. and give answer.
Note: x is equal to the HCF of 2 prime 45.
numbers and the value of y is equal Find the cost price of the article.
to the smaller root of the quadratic Statement I: The article is marked up
equation z2 – z – 6 = 0. by T% and it is sold at discount of
20%. The profit earned on selling the
41. article is 44%.
What is the value of d? Statement II: If shopkeeper offers a
A. 40 discount of 40% on marked price,
B. 38 then he earns the profit of Rs. 16
C. 42 Statement III: If shopkeeper doesn't
D. 48 offer any discount on marked price,
E. 50 then the selling price will be Rs. 160
more than the cost price of the article.
42.Which of the following is/are A. Only the data given in statements
divisible by (y + 5)? I and II together is sufficient to
A. Only d answer the question.
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B. Only the data given in statements III together is sufficient to answer the
I and III together is sufficient to question.
answer the question. E. The data given in all three
C. The data given in any two statements I, II and III together is
statements together is sufficient to not sufficient to answer the question.
answer the question.
D. The data given in all three Direction: Study the given
statements I, II and III together is information carefully and answer the
sufficient to answer the question. following questions.
E. The data given in all three Three yoga masters i.e., A, B, C and
statements I, II and III together is D conducted yoga sessions in a
not sufficient to answer the question. society. These yoga sessions are of
three types viz. Basic (of 1 hour
Direction: Each of the questions each), Regular (of 2 hours each) and
below consists of a question and three Advanced (of 3 hours each). The pie
statements numbered I, II and III chart given below shows the
given below it. You have to decide percentage distribution of total
whether the data provided in the number of hours for which the given
statements are sufficient to answer yoga masters conducted sessions in
the question. Read all the statements the society.
and give answer.
46. P, Q and R entered into a
partnership by investing certain
amount for 12 months, T months and
(12 – T) months respectively. Find the
value of T.
Statement I: Q invested 50% more
amount than the amount invested by
P and R invested twice of the amount
invested by Q.
Statement II: At the end of the 47.
partnership, total profit earned by If yoga master C conducted 4 Regular
them is Rs. 700 and Q gets Rs. 100 as sessions and atleast one session of
his share of profit. each type was conducted by him,
Statement III: At the end of the then find the maximum number of
partnership, profit share of P and R is Basic sessions that were conducted
in the ratio of 1 : 2 by Yoga master C
A. Only the data given in statements A. 20
I and II together is sufficient to B. 22
answer the question. C. 19
B. Only the data given in statements D. 18
I and III together is sufficient to E. Cannot Be Determined
answer the question.
C. The data given in any two 48.If number of basic sessions
statements together is sufficient to conducted by B are more than
answer the question. number of regular sessions conducted
D. The data given in either statement by him which in turn are more than
I and II together or statement I and number of advanced sessions
conducted by him, then find the
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minimum number of basic sessions D. 320 L

conducted by Yoga master B E. 300 L
A. 4
B. 6 Direction: Study the following
C. 2 information and answer the following
D. 8 questions.
E. 5 A dishonest milkman has X litre
mixture of milk and water in the ratio
49.If number of basic sessions 5 : 1 respectively. He sold mixture to
conducted by A were twice of the three persons A, B and C in the same
number of advanced sessions order. After selling milk to each
conducted by him, then find the total person, he added certain amount of
number of sessions conducted by A milk or water or both in the remaining
A. 4 mixture. The difference between milk
B. 6 and water with the milkman just
C. 7 before selling it to person C is 250 L.
D. 9 The table given below shows how the
E. 8 exchange took place.
Direction: Study the following

information and answer the following
52. If the ratio of milk and water in
questions.
the final mixture is 9 : 2, then what is
A dishonest milkman has X litre
the value of Z?
A. 440 L
5 : 1 respectively. He sold mixture to
B. 360 L
three persons A, B and C in the same
C. 390 L
order. After selling milk to each
D. 520 L
person, he added certain amount of
E. None of these
milk or water or both in the remaining
mixture. The difference between milk
Direction: Study the following
and water with the milkman just
information and answer the following
before selling it to person C is 250 L.
questions.
The table given below shows how the
A dishonest milkman has X litre
exchange took place.
5 : 1 respectively. He sold mixture to
three persons A, B and C in the same
50. order. After selling milk to each
Find the value of X. person, he added certain amount of
A. 760 L milk or water or both in the remaining
B. 640 L mixture. The difference between milk
C. 600 L and water with the milkman just
D. 720 L before selling it to person C is 250 L.
E. None of these The table given below shows how the
exchange took place.
51.What is the value of Y?
A. 280 L
B. 220 L
C. 460 L
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53. If the cost price of pure milk is Rs. Weighted percentage of written exam
40 per litre and water is available free is 60% and that of practical exam is
of cost, then find the percentage 40%.
profit earned by the milkman on Also, maximum marks of written
selling the mixture of milk to B, if he exam is 80 and that of practical exam
sold it at Rs. 45 per litre. is 60
A. 25% It is given that:
B. 26.5% Total weighted score of A is 52 . Total
C. 30% weighted score of B is 52 and B
D. 31.25% obtained 55 marks in practical exam.
E. 34.5% C obtained 50 marks in practical
exam. Marks obtained by D in written
54.If after selling the mixture to B, examination is 70 and D obtained
the amount of milk and water to be 75% marks in practical exam.
added to the remaining mixture is
reversed, then what will be the 55.
concentration of milk in the mixture If total weighted score of C is 65, then
M? find the ratio of marks obtained by C
and that by B in written examination.
A. % A. 3 : 2
B. 4 : 5
B. % C. 5 : 4
D. 6 : 5
C. % E. None
D. %
56.If D scored 7 % more marks in
E. % written exam and C scored 60 marks
in written exam, then find the
Direction: Study the given difference between obtained
information carefully and answer the weighted score of C and D is what
following questions. percent of total maximum possible
Four students i.e. A, B, C and D weighted score?
appeared for written and practical A. 8.56%
examinations of year 2019-20 B. 9.72%
The information given below is C. 10.34%
known: D. 7.52%
Total Maximum Marks = Maximum E. None
marks of written Exam + Maximum
marks of practical Exam Direction: Study the given
Total Maximum weighted score = information carefully and answer the
Maximum marks in written exam × following questions.
weighted % + Maximum marks in Four students i.e. A, B, C and D
practical exam × weighted % appeared for written and practical
Weighted score = Marks obtained in examinations of year 2019-20
written exam × weighted % + Marks The information given below is
obtained in practical exam × known:
weighted %
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Total Maximum Marks = Maximum

marks of written Exam + Maximum Direction: Study the given
marks of practical Exam information carefully and answer the
Total Maximum weighted score = following questions.
Maximum marks in written exam × There was a football tournament of
weighted % + Maximum marks in three teams i.e. A, B and C in which
practical exam × weighted % each team played 2 matches.
Weighted score = Marks obtained in Score pattern of the tournament is:
written exam × weighted % + Marks • A team gets 2 points for scoring a
obtained in practical exam × goal against the opponent team.
weighted % • A team gets 3 points for scoring a
Weighted percentage of written exam goal against the opponent team from
is 60% and that of practical exam is the outside area.
40%. • There is a penalty of 1 point if a
Also, maximum marks of written team concedes a goal.
exam is 80 and that of practical exam • Only three players from each team
is 60 scored the goals.
It is given that: A – B Match: B is the winner of this
Total weighted score of A is 52 . Total game. Total points scored by B in this
weighted score of B is 52 and B match is 4 . Also, team A scored 2
obtained 55 marks in practical exam. goals and none of the players scored
C obtained 50 marks in practical the goal from the outside area.
exam. Marks obtained by D in written A – C Match: C scored 0 points in the
examination is 70 and D obtained match. Only one player from team A
75% marks in practical exam. scored a goal from outside area. A
scored 4 points in this match.
57. If the average marks of A, B, C B – C Match: B gets 6 points from
and D in the practical exam is 47.5 match. Team C scored 1 goal more
and both A and C scored equal marks than Team B. One player from team
in written exam, then what is the B scored a goal from outside area but
average weighted scores of C and D? none from team C.
A. 56
B. 58 59.
C. 60 The given 3 teams are ranked on the
D. 52 basis of total marks in such a way that
E. None of these the highest scoring team is ranked 1,
the second highest scoring team is
58.If ratio of marks scored by a 5th ranked 2 and the least scoring team
student X in the written exam and is ranked 3. Rank 3 got a total of Rs.
practical exam is 5 : 3 and the 60,000 as prize money. If the ratio of
weighted score of X is 52.5, then what the prize money of the rank 1, rank 2
is the sum of the marks scored by X and rank 3 team is 8 : 5 : 3, which of
in written and practical exams? the following combinations of team
A. 96 and prize money is correct?
B. 98 A. A, Rs. 1,00,000
C. 100 B. C, Rs. 1,60,000
D. 92 C. B, Rs. 1,60,000
E. None of these D. C, Rs. 1,20,000
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E. B, Rs. 1,00,000 The line graph given below shows the

percentage of orders delivered from
60. Monday to Saturday of week III out of
What is the maximum possible sum of the orders received on Sunday of
the total number of goals scored by Week II and it also shows the number
those players of all three teams, who of orders returned on any given day
score more than one goal in a as a percentage of total number of
tournament? orders delivered till previous day.
A. 18
B. 14
C. 12
D. 15
E. 9
61.In the tournament, total points

scored by team B is what percent
more than total points scored by team
A? Note:
A. 50% • Number of orders which were yet to
B. 75% be delivered after Saturday of week
C. 100% III were 25.
D. 125% • Orders cannot be returned on the
E. 80% same day of delivery. It has to be
returned on next day of delivery and
62.Find the ratio between the number no order was returned on Sunday of
of goals sored by team B in its match Week III.
against team C to the number of goals
scored by team A in its match against 64.
team C Find the average number of orders
A. 2 : 1 delivered on Monday, Tuesday and
B. 3 : 1 Thursday of week III.
C. 4 : 3 A. 70
D. 3 : 4 B. 80
E. Cannot be Determined C. 60
D. 50
63.Find the total number of goals E. 75
scored by team A and team B
together in the tournament. 65.What is the ratio between the
A. 13 number of orders returned on
B. 14 Wednesday to that returned on
C. 12 Friday?
D. 10 A. 9 : 7
E. 9 B. 4 : 5
C. 5 : 4
Direction: Study the line graph given D. 7 : 9
below to answer the following E. None of the above
questions.
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66.If 25 orders were returned on

Sunday of week III, then what
percent of the total number of orders
placed on Sunday of week II were not
returned by the customers till Sunday
of week 2?
A. 64%
B. 66%
C. 68%
D. 70% Note:
E. 72% • Number of orders which were yet to
be delivered after Saturday of week
67.If the average number of orders III were 25.
returned from Tuesday to Sunday of • Orders cannot be returned on the
week III is 30, then the number of same day of delivery. It has to be
orders returned on Sunday of week returned on next day of delivery and
III is what percent more/less than the no order was returned on Sunday of
number of orders returned on Week III.
Tuesday of week III?
A. 50% more 69. Total number of orders returned
B. 87.5% less on Tuesday, Wednesday and Friday
C. 62.5% more together are what percent more than
D. 87.5% more the number of orders returned on
E. 62.5% less Saturday?
A. 25%
68.Find the ratio between the total B. 10%
number of orders delivered from C. 40%
Monday to Thursday of week III to the D. 30%
total number of orders returned on E. 35%
Wednesday, Friday and Saturday
together. Direction: Study the following
A. 3 : 2 information carefully and answer the
B. 4 : 1 given questions.
C. 1 : 4
D. 6 : 5 There are six people i.e. P, Q, R, S, T
E. 5 : 1 and U sitting in a circular table with
equidistance to each other and some
Direction: Study the line graph given of them are facing towards the centre
below to answer the following of the table and the rest are facing
questions. outside the table. Not more than two
The line graph given below shows the people sit together who face the same
percentage of orders delivered from direction. There are three married
Monday to Saturday of week III out of couples.
the orders received on Sunday of
Week II and it also shows the number Note: Husband and wife do not sit
of orders returned on any given day adjacent to each other. The age of the
as a percentage of total number of husband is more than his wife’s age.
orders delivered till previous day. If the age of the husband is an even
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number then the age of the wife is an 73.Who amongst the following is the
odd number and vice-versa. husband of the one who sits to the
immediate left of S?
The one who is 49 years old sits A. The one who is 51 years old
second to the right of S. The one who B. U
is 43 years old is the spouse of the C. Q
one whose age is a perfect square of D. R
a number. The husband of T sits to E. None of these
the immediate right of the one who is
43 years old. S sits opposite to U who 74.Which amongst the following pair
does not sit adjacent to P. S does not is correct?
sit to the immediate right of P. The A. S – 56 years
one who is 51 years sits second to the B. P – 38 years
left of S. The one who is 43 years old C. T – 44 years
sits second to the right of P. The wife D. Q – 51 years
of S is 5 years younger than S. T is 7 E. All are correct
years younger than her husband. The
difference between the ages of T and Direction: Each of these questions
P is 6 years. Q is not the neighbour of consists of a question followed by
T. The one who is 43 years old faces information in two statements I and
outside the table. II. You have to study the question and
70. the statements and decide that the
How many people sit between T and information in which of the
the one who is the husband of P when statement/s is/are required to answer
counted from the left of T? the question.
A. None
B. Two In the following question, the symbols
C. Three *, %, #, @, &, $, and © are used with
D. One the following meanings as illustrated
E. None of these below.
71.What is the difference between the A * B = A is the father of B

age of R and the wife of U? A % B = A is the sister of B
A. 14 years A @ B = A is the mother of B
B. 15 years A # B = A is the brother of B
C. 12 years A & B = A is the husband of B
D. 13 years A $ B = A is the son of B
E. None of these A © B = A is the daughter of B
75.
72.Which amongst the following There are three married couples and
statement is true? S is not married to K and V is
A. Q sits opposite to P unmarried, then who is the uncle of
B. Two people sit between the one K?
who is 56 years old and P I. P * R, T @ S, R & U, Q * K, V © R,
C. The wife of S is 51 years old P & T.
D. All are correct II. P @ U, Q * S, T % K, R * V, S & T,
E. None is correct V & P.
A. Only statement I is sufficient
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B. Only statement II is sufficient 78.Six people have off on different

C. Either statement I or statement II days of the same week, starting from
is sufficient Monday and ends on Saturday. How
D. Neither statement I nor statement many people have off between K and
II sufficient P?
E. Both statements I and II are I. Not more than two people have off
sufficient after F. Two people have off between
F and W. The number of people have
76.What is the relation of Q with off after F is same as the number of
respect to T if K is not V's child? people have off before P.
I. P * R, T @ S, R & U, Q * K, V © R, II. Three people have off after W. One
P & T. person has off between W and K.
II. P @ U, Q * S, T % K, R * V, S & T, A. Only statement I is sufficient
V & P. B. Only statement II is sufficient
A. Only statement I is sufficient C. Either statement I or statement II
B. Only statement II is sufficient is sufficient
C. Either statement I or statement II D. Neither statement I nor statement
is sufficient II sufficient
D. Neither statement I nor statement E. Both statements I and II are
II sufficient sufficient
E. Both statements I and II are
sufficient Direction: Study the data carefully
and answer the questions
Direction: Each of these questions accordingly.
consists of a question followed by
information in two statements I and A % B (11) - A is 21m north of B
II. You have to study the question and A & B (15) – A is 25m south of B
the statements and decide that the A * B (30) - A is 40m east of B
information in which of the A @ B (10) - A is 20m west of B
statements(s) is/are required to
answer the question. N @ R (10m), R & M (8m), P @ M
77. If ‘fa pa’ means ‘red query’ then (5m), P % F (15m), F @ S (10m), H
what is the code for ‘sa fa ri’? & S (20m), H * I (10m)
I. If ‘ra ta’ means ‘tiger biscuits’ and Note: ‘A &* B’ means A is in the
‘ga fa’ means ‘red flowers’. south-east of B.
II. If ‘sa ra’ means ‘save tiger’ and ‘la 79.
pa’ means ‘jungle safari’. Point N is in which direction of point
A. Only statement I is sufficient S?
B. Only statement II is sufficient A. & @
C. Either statement I or statement II B. % *
is sufficient C. & *
D. Neither statement I nor statement D. % @
II sufficient E. None of these
E. Both statements I and II are
sufficient 80.Point I is in which direction of point
P and what is the distance between
them according?
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A. % (45) number of boxes is kept above the

B. * (55) one which contains Red colour is
C. % (55) same as the number of boxes is kept
D. & (45) below the one which contains Black
E. None of these colour. The box which contains Black
colour is not kept adjacent to box K.
81.If J % S (15) then point F is in Three boxes are kept between those
which direction of point J? which contain Black colour and Purple
A. * @ colour. Box N is kept one of the boxes
B. %* above the one which contains Orange
C. & @ colour. Box Q is kept just above the
D. % @ box which contains Purple colour. Not
E. None of these more than two boxes are kept above
the box which contains Red colour.
82.If T & F (40) then which of the More than two boxes are kept
following is true? between box Q and box K. The box
A. N % T (47) which contains Blue colour is kept just
B. The difference between I and T is above the one which contains Green
30m colour. Three boxes are kept between
C. I, T, and P are in a straight line the box which contains Blue colour
D. S % @ T and the box O. Two boxes are kept
E. None is true between the box K and the box which
contains White colour. More than two
83.What is the shortest distance boxes are kept between the box N
between R and S? and the box which contains Yellow
A. 20m colour.
B. √76m
C. 13m 84.
D. √74m How many boxes are kept between
E. None of these the box Q and the one which contains
Yellow colour?
Direction: Study the following A. Four
information carefully and answer the B. Two
given questions. C. Three
D. Five
Eight boxes i.e. K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and E. None of these
R kept one above the other. All the
boxes are arranged from top to 85.Which amongst the following box
bottom in a stack. Each box contains contains Purple colour?
different colour i.e. Blue, Red, Black, A. Box N
Orange, Yellow, White, Green and B. Box P
Purple. All the information is not C. Box M
necessarily in the same order. D. Box L
Three boxes are kept between box L E. None of thesea
and box R which is kept above box L.
Box O does not contain Yellow colour. 86.How many boxes are kept above
Two boxes are kept between the box the one which contains Orange color?
which contains Red colour and M. The A. Three
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B. Five leaders to sign an agreement

C. Four whereby they will no longer engage in
D. Six acts of violence.
E. None of these II. Along with the edict, the Muslim
scholars should also appeal to the
87.Which amongst the following United Nations and seek their help in
statement is false? persuading the Taliban.
A. One box is kept above the box N III. The Muslim scholars should send
B. Two boxes are kept between the a petition to the Islamic Court of
box Q and the box which contains Justice asking them to force the
Orange colour Taliban to stop their violent activities.
C. The box which contains Green A. Only course of action I follows
colour is kept at second position from B. Only course of action II follows
the bottom C. Both I and II follow
D. Two boxes are kept between the D. Both II and III follow
boxes which contain Yellow colour E. None of them follow
and Purple colour
E. None is true Direction: A statement is followed by
three inferences numbered I, II, and
88.Four of the following five are alike III. Consider the statement to be true
in a certain way and hence form a even if it is at variance with commonly
group. Which is the one that does not known facts. You have to decide
belong to that group? which of the inferences, if any, follow
A. R, Blue from the given statement.
B. Q, N
C. Yellow, Black 90. Statement:
D. Orange, L The Food Standards Agency was
E. P, Purple created in 2001 as a central regulator
after a series of food and farming
Direction: In the question given scandals, with a mission to put
below, a statement is given followed consumers’ interests first.
by three courses of action. A course
of action is taken for improvement, Inferences:
follow up, etc. Read the statement I. The Food Standards Agency is
carefully and give your answer. responsible for public health in
89. Statement: relation to food.
Muslim scholars from three countries II. The Agency’s main duty is to
– Afghanistan, Pakistan, and ensure that the public get access to
Indonesia – issued an edict on safe food.
Saturday saying that violent III. The Food Standards Agency was
extremism and terrorism, including set up after several high-profile
suicide attacks, are against Islamic outbreaks and deaths from foodborne
principles, in an effort to convince the illness.
Taliban to end their violence. A. Only I follows
B. Only II follows
Courses of Action: C. Only III follows
I. The Muslim scholars from the three D. Both I and II follow
countries should force the Taliban E. All of them follow
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A. 24
Direction: Read the following B. 29
information carefully to answer the C. 21
questions based on it. D. 32
A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S sit in a two-
parallel row. Four people in each row. 93.If P gives 5 chocolates to R and C
People seated in row-1 face towards lends 4 chocolates to B. Then how
the south and people seated in row-2 many chocolates R and B would have?
face towards north. People seated in A. 42
row-1 face people seated in row-2. All B. 35
people have a different number of C. 46
chocolates. D. 29
Q has 8 chocolates less than R. The
one who has 10 chocolates faces the 94.The number of people sitting to
one who has 13 chocolates. One the right of the one who has 8
person sits between P and C who has chocolates is same as the number of
22 chocolates. P faces the one who people sitting to the right of__.
sits immediate left of A . S has fewer A. C
chocolates than A. A does not like 13 B. D
chocolates. One person sits between C. B
A and D. Three people sit to the left D. R
of the one who faces Q who faces E. None of the above
towards the north. The one who has
38 chocolates sits immediately to the Direction: Read the given passage
right of R. S has thrice as many below and answer the questions.
chocolates as Q has. A has 8
chocolates more than P. The sum of India’s abstention from voting on a
the total number of chocolates having UN Human Rights Council draft
the people sitting in row-1 is 86. One resolution, in March this year, on the
person sits between S and the one “situation of human rights in
who sits opposite the person who has Myanmar” needs closer examination.
38 chocolates. Two people sit Co-sponsored by the European Union
between the one who has 13 (EU) and Bangladesh which is a home
chocolates and Q. to several victims, the resolution
91. “expresses grave concern at
Who amongst the following sits continuing reports of serious human
second to the left of the person rights violations and abuses in
having 24 chocolates? Myanmar”, particularly in Rakhine,
A. Q Kachin and Shan States, and calls for
B. A a full inquiry into these by the
C. D Council’s own mechanism and the
D. R International Criminal Court (ICC). In
E. None of the above its follow-up explanatory statement,
India’s permanent representative to
92.What is the sum of the number of the UN in Geneva, Rajiv Kumar
chocolates Q and S have? Chander, said that it would “only be
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counter-productive” to support Coomaraswamy, who was a part of

“extensive recommendations the three-member UN FFM, during a
regarding legislative and policy recent briefing, said, “Acknowledging
actions” and “threatening Myanmar that human rights violations have
with punitive action, including at the been committed, holding people
ICC, to which that state is not a accountable and reforming the
signatory”. It is understandable that Tatmadaw is the only way forward.”
as a non-signatory of the Rome India, for its part, continues to
Statute, New Delhi would register its maintain ties with the Myanmar
dissent against any punitive armed forces (Tatmadaw), supplying
interventions by the ICC on another them with combat hardware and
non-signatory country (Myanmar). imparting UN peacekeeping training.
However, what is deeply unfortunate An edition of the India-Myanmar
is India’s continued diplomatic and bilateral army exercise, IMBEX 2018-
moral passivity on the Rohingya 19, took place this January at
crisis. Despite the Myanmar Army Chandimandir.
facing charges of serious war crimes,
including genocide — according to a 95.
UN Fact-Finding Mission (FFM) and Which of the following is an apt
several other international human conclusion on the basis of the
rights organisations — India refuses information provided?
to take a strong moral stand for the
sake of maintaining cordial bilateral I. One analysis by the Dutch advocacy
relations with Naypyidaw. group, Stop Wapenhandel (Stop Arms
India continues to toe Myanmar’s line Trade), claims that India transferred
on the issue, which harps on the combat equipment in violation of
“complexity” of the whole situation, international embargoes.
lays emphasis on economic II. For now, India is happy to be in a
development rather than political stable, but morally tenuous, friends-
rights for the Rohingya, lays stress on with-benefit relationship with
internal inquiries instead of Myanmar. The victims continue to be
international mechanisms, and even the stateless Rohingya.
refuses to call the Rohingya III. According to the arms transfer
community by its name. In fact, database of the Stockholm
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has not International Peace Research
even publicly condemned the horrible Institute (SIPRI), India is one of
atrocities that the Rohingya have Myanmar’s top arms suppliers, and
faced at the hands of Myanmar’s weapons sales include military
security forces. On his last visit to aircraft, artillery, naval vessels and
Myanmar in September 2017, he reconnaissance equipment, armoured
simply expressed concern at the “loss vehicles, anti-submarine torpedoes,
of lives of security forces and innocent and missiles.
people due to the extremist violence A. Only I
in Rakhine State”. There was no B. Only II
reference to the excessive and C. Only III
arbitrary force used by security forces D. None of the above.
on Rohingya civilians in response to E. All of the above.
the “extremist violence”. Radhika
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96.Which of the following is/are a people have meeting after W is same

suitable assumption on the basis of as the number of people have
the information provided in the given meeting before U. How many people
context? have meeting before L?
A. Two
I. Whether Myanmar is using some of B. One
its India-supplied weapons to maim C. Three
non-combatant civilians in Rakhine D. Four
State and other ethnic regions is a E. None of these
question that New Delhi has not
asked so far. Further, Indian Direction: Study the following
companies continue to invest in information carefully and answer the
Myanmar, with several having direct given questions.
links with Tatmadaw-owned
businesses. Seven people i.e. K, L, M, N, O, P and
II. But India’s soft, backfoot approach Q were born in different years i.e.
is being increasingly seen by 1973, 1978, 1982, 1985, 1992, 1993
Bangladesh, which is hosting many and 1996. All of them like different
Rohingya refugees, to be tilted in colours i.e. Red, Black, Green, White,
Myanmar’s favour. Blue, Orange and Yellow. All the
III. India has so far refused to exert information is not necessarily in the
any pressure on Myanmar, instead same order.
choosing to balance ties with Dhaka
and Naypyidaw by sending (Note: Consider the base year as
humanitarian aid to both. 2021)
IV. India’s core logic here is to
“modernize” the Tatmadaw with the O was born after the one who likes
intent of securing its 1,640-km plus Red colour but neither likes Green nor
border with Myanmar and forge a Blue colour. One person sits between
sustainable strategic partnership at K and the one who likes the Blue
China’s doorstep. But, in this colour. The difference between the
inflexible realpolitik approach, there ages of those who like Black and
is little space for end-user Green colour is 3 years. The
accountability and human rights. difference between the age of P and
A. None of the following. the one who likes White colour is 4
B. Only I years. Three people were born
C. Only II between M and the one who likes
D. Only III Yellow colour. L was born just after
E. Both I and IV the one who likes the Orange colour.
Three people were born between L
97.Six people i.e. Q, W, K, U, R and L and the one who likes Black colour.
have meeting on different days of the Two people were born between the
same week starting from Monday and one who likes Blue colour and P. The
ends on Saturday. K has meeting just age of K is a perfect square of a
after Q but not on Thursday. Not more number. The number of people born
than two people have meeting after after the one who likes White colour
R. Three people have meeting is same as the number of people born
between R and W. The number of
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before M. N was born before L but information in three statements I, II

neither likes Orange nor Blue colour. and III. You have to study the
98. How many people were born question and the statements and
between O and the one who likes decide that the information in which
Green colour? of the statements(s) is/are required
A. Two to answer the question.
B. One 103.
C. None Conclusions:
D. Three I. Some Colours are not Black
E. None of these II. Some Hair can be Brown
Statements:
99.Who amongst the following likes A. Some Colours are Black. All Hair is
Blue colour? Black. Some Black is Brown.
A. M B. Only a few Colours are Black. All
B. N Hair is Black. Some Hair is Brown.
C. The one who is 43 years old C. Only a few Colours are Black. All
D. The one who is 28 years old Hair is Black. Some Black is Brown.
E. None of these D. Only a few Colours are Black. All
Hair is Black. All Hair is Brown.
100.How many people are elder than E. Only a few Colours are Black. All
the one who likes Red colour? Hair is Black. No Hair is Brown.
A. None
B. Five 104.Conclusions:
C. Two I. All Phones can be Calculators
D. Three II. Some Phones are not Computers
E. None of these Statements:
A. Some Mobiles are not Phones.
101.What is the difference between Some Phones are Computers. All
the age of Q and the one who likes Computers are Calculators.
Orange colour? B. Some Mobiles are not Phones. Only
A. 14 years a few Phones are Computers. No
B. 7 years Phones are Calculators.
C. 15 years C. Some Mobiles are not Phones. Only
D. 9 years a few Phones are Computers. Only a
E. None of these few Phones are Calculators.
D. Some Mobiles are not Phones. Only
102.Four of the following five are a few Phones are Computers. Some
alike in a certain way and hence form Phones are not Calculators.
a group. Which is the one that does E. Some Mobiles are not Phones. Only
not belong to that group? a few Phones are Computers. All
A. White, K Computers are Calculators.
B. M, Blue
C. Black, Green 105.Conclusions:
D. Yellow, O I. Some Chalks are not Pencils
E. O, L II. Some Chalks are not Pens
Statements:
Direction: Each of these questions
consists of a question followed by
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A. All Markers are Chalks. Only a few E. All Apps are Websites. Some Apps
Chalks are Pens. Only a few Pens are are Blogs. No Blogs are Vlogs.
Pencils.
B. All Markers are Chalks. Only a few Direction: Study the following
Chalks are Pens. Some Pens are not information carefully and answer the
Pencils. given questions.
C. All Markers are Chalks. All Chalks
are Pens. No Pens are Pencils. Twelve people i.e. O, P, Q, R, S, T, U,
D. All Markers are Chalks. Only a few V, W, X, Y and Z sitting around two
Chalks are Pens. No Pens are Pencils. hollow square-shaped tables. The
E. All Markers are Chalks. Only a few small table is inscribed in another
Chalks are Pens. Some Pens are outer table. Eight people are sitting in
Pencils. the outer table, four of them are
sitting at the corners of the table and
106.Conclusions: facing outside the table and the
I. Some Telegrams are not Postcards remaining four are sitting at the
II. All Telegrams can be Letters middle of the sides and facing inside
Statements: the table. Four persons are sitting at
A. Some Mails are not Telegrams. the corners of the inner table and
Some Telegrams are Postcards. All they are facing inside the table.
Postcards are Letters.
B. Some Mails are not Telegrams. Note: If A sits opposite to B that
Only a few Telegrams are Postcards. means both A and B sit on a different
No Postcards are Letters. table at the nearest distance to each
C. Some Mails are not Telegrams. other.
Only a few Telegrams are Postcards.
All Postcards are Letters. Z sits second to the left of V who does
D. Some Mails are not Telegrams. not sit to the immediate left of W. R
Only a few Telegrams are Postcards. sits third to the right of the one who
No Telegrams are Letters. sits opposite to U. Y sits opposite to
E. Some Mails are not Telegrams. the one who sits second to the left of
Only a few Telegrams are Postcards. W. O sits adjacent to Y. Two people
Only a few Telegrams are Letters. sit between X and T who does not sit
at the middle of the sides of the table.
107.Conclusions: P and S sit to the immediate right of
I. Some Websites can never be Vlogs each other. S does not sit at the
II. Some Apps can be Blogs corner of the table. One person sits
Statements: between U and W who does not sit
A. All Apps are Websites. Only a few opposite to R. X does not sit adjacent
Websites are Blogs. Some Blogs are to W and Y.
Vlogs. 108.
B. All Apps are Websites. No Apps are Who amongst the following sits third
Blogs. No Blogs are Vlogs. to the left of the one who sits opposite
C. All Apps are Websites. No Websites to V?
are Blogs. No Blogs are Vlogs. A. X
D. All Apps are Websites. Only a few B. P
Websites are Blogs. No Blogs are C. S
Vlogs. D. Q
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E. None of these journals checking for plagiarism at

some stage before papers get
109.How many people sit between Q published. So, now, Indian
and O when counted from the right of researchers seem to have gained
Q? expertise at another kind of fraud —
A. Three manipulating images, producing
B. Four images by repeatedly using certain
C. Two portions in one frame and reuse of
D. Five images in the same paper or from
E. None of these those published earlier. Or probably,
Indian researchers manipulated
110.What is the position of X with images the same way they used
respect to the one who sits opposite plagiarised content. Only that papers
to W? with manipulated images are now
A. Immediate left being exposed as more researchers
B. Immediate right based outside India have started
C. Second to the left looking for them. At last count, 73
D. Second to the right papers published between 2004 and
E. None of these 2017 by scientists at the Indian
Institute of Toxicology Research
111.If all the people are arranged (CSIR-IITR), Lucknow have serious
according to English alphabetical problems with the images. The final
order starting from O in clock wise numbers might be way higher if one
direction only in outer table (people of were to critically look at all papers
inner table remain same), then how published by scientists at IITR during
many people remain unchanged the last 20-25 years.
(except O)? All the 73 papers have been posted on
A. None the Pubpeer website by independent
B. Two researchers who have an eye to spot
C. Three image manipulation and duplication,
D. One something that peer-reviews seem to
E. None of these have failed to spot at the time of
reviewing the manuscripts. Leading
112.If U and T interchange their the pack with 40 problematic papers
positions, then who amongst the is Dr. Yogeshwer Shukla, a senior
following sits to the immediate right scientist at IITR. In a blog post in For
of T? Better Science, Smut Clyde has
A. V exposed Dr. Shukla's unethical
B. Z practices in about 25 papers. In an
C. O email, Dr. Shukla says: “It may
D. R please be noted that for reasons other
E. None of these than originality the papers are now
appearing in Pubpeer. I have also
Direction: Read the given passage been informed that this information of
below and answer the questions. Pubpeer is addressed by a committee
at our institute to verify authenticity.”
Publishing papers through plagiarism While not denying that the problems
is on the wane in India with almost all cited on Pubpeer, over telephone he
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says: “We are hurt. I admit that noise or similarities using false-colour
unintentional mistakes might have imaging.
been made. There was no way to III. In the absence of the data
check if the images have already been underlying the figures and in light of
used in other papers. This is done just the concerns, the PLOS ONE Editors
to create doubts about Ayurveda and retract the article.
to target someone. A committee is A. Only I
looking into it and we will clarify each B. Only II
and every query raised by the C. Only III
committee.” D. All of the above.
A pattern with problematic papers, E. None of the above.
there is a pattern to the kind of
manipulation that IITR researchers Direction: In each question below is
seem to resort to. Manipulated and given a statement followed by two
reused Western Blots are the most assumptions numbered I and II. An
common. They are also a little harder assumption is something supposed or
to spot. The most common practice is taken for granted. You have to
to duplicate bands of Western Blot for consider the following assumption
completely different experiments and decide which of the assumption is
mostly in the same paper and at implicit in the statement.
times in other papers. “Western blots 114.
are the most common types I see in Statement: Reliance
papers with photographic images and Communications (RCom) has
those are also the ones I seem to find completed paying Swedish telecom
the most,” Dr. Elisabeth M. Bik, gear maker Ericsson nearly Rs 580
Science consultant at Harbers-Bik crore, thereby, ensuring the telco’s
LLC, San Francisco, California says in chairman Anil Ambani does not go to
an email. Dr. Bik has an eye for jail. With payment of Rs 462 crore on
manipulated images and has caught March 18, the debt-laden telco ends
tens of papers. its 18-month long battle with Ericsson
which had claimed dues for its
113. Which of the following is/are maintenance services. Ericsson has
relevant according to the information received the payment along with upto
provided in the above passage? date interest and it will accordingly be
withdrawing the petitions filed for
I. For the similarities noted in insolvency.
experimental figures, the authors
commented that this could have Assumptions:
arisen due to similarity in equipment I. RCom’s financial woes though don’t
and protocols. end with this payment. It has already
II. There is no good software yet on defaulted on a Rs 21 crore spectrum
the market to automatically screen payment to the telecom department
images for duplications, but several and needs to pay another Rs281 crore
journals and publishers use human to the government in April. It has said
eyes for initial screening, and it will voluntarily seek insolvency
subsequently software to help protection in the National Company
confirm irregularities in background Law Tribunal (NCLT) to sell off its
assets in a time-bound manner and
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repay lenders, having failed to push 118.Who has been appointed as the
through its spectrum sale to Reliance new Prime Minister of Lebanon by the
Jio due to legal hurdles. President Michel Aoun?
II. The battle between Ericsson and A. Hassan Diab
RCom started when the Swedish B. Saad al-Hariri
company moved a bankruptcy court C. Tammam Salam
in 2017, alleging that it had not been D. Najib Mikati
paid dues of around Rs 1,500 crore E. Fouad Siniora
after signing a seven-year deal in
2013 to operate and manage the 119.In August 2019, Prime Minister
telco’s nationwide network. Narendra Modi inaugurated the
A. Both I and II are implicit Mangdechhu hydroelectric power
B. Either I or II is implicit plant in which country?
C. None is implicit A. Indonesia
D. Only II is implicit B. Bhutan
E. Only I is implicit C. Bangladesh
D. Sri Lanka
115.Which of the following banks has E. Maldives
launched ‘Home Utsav’, a virtual
property exhibition that digitally 120.Who became the first female
showcases real estate projects by umpire to officiate in a men’s Test
renowned developers from key cities match?
across the country? A. Kathy Cross
A. State Bank of India B. Claire Polosak
B. HDFC Bank C. Kim Cotton
C. Bank of Baroda D. Lauren Agenbag
D. ICICI Bank E. Humaira Farah
E. Yes Bank
121.Who has been honoured with the
116.Prime Minister Narendra Modi Lifetime Achievement Award 2020 at
virtually laid the foundation for how the At the 3rd India International Film
many Light House Projects (LHPs)? Festival of Boston (IIFFB) 2020 based
A. four in Boston, USA?
B. five A. Anupam Kher
C. six B. Kadar Khan
D. seven C. Amrish Puri
E. eight D. Om Puri
E. Irfan Pathan
117.Kajiranga National park is
located in: 122.Keetham lake lake is located in
A. Uttar Pradesh which city of India which has recently
B. Assam been added to the Ramsar site list?
C. Rajasthan A. Lucknow
D. Orissa B. Prayagraj
E. Madhya Pradesh C. Kanpur
D. Agra
E. Meerut
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123.Who amongst the following is the C. Punjab

author of the Book "Dreams From My D. Haryana
Father: A Story of Race and 128.The share of digital transactions
Inheritance"? in the total volume of non-cash retail
A. Barack Obama payments increased to ______ during
B. John Evans Aatta Mill 2019-20
C. Nelson Mandela A. 76 per cent
D. Danny Boyle B. 83 per cent
E. None of the above C. 88 per cent
D. 92 per cent
124.Where was the Advanced E. 97 per cent
Hypersonic Wind Tunnel (HWT) test
facility inaugurated by the Union 129.What is the maximum insurance
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh? payout for COVID-19 under Pandemic
A. Bengaluru Emergency Financing Facility (PEF)
B. Coimbatore insurance window of World Bank?
C. Hyderabad A. USD 175.84 million
D. Chennai B. USD 185.84 million
E. New Delhi C. USD 195.84 million
D. USD 200.84 million
125.‘QIP’ is, at its core, a way for E. USD 250.84 million
listed companies to raise capital,
without having to submit legal 130.In consultation with Government
paperwork to market regulators, of India, the Reserve Bank of India
majorly used in India and other has increased the Ways and Means
southeast Asian countries. What does Advances (WMA) for the second half
‘QIP’ stand for? of the financial year 2020-21
A. Quality Investor Protocol (October 2020 to March 2021) to
B. Qualified Institutional Placement _____.
C. Qualified International Programme A. ₹1,25,000 crore.
D. Qualified Institutional Programme B. ₹1,50,000 crore.
E. Quality International Placement C. ₹1,75,000 crore.
D. ₹2,00,000 crore.
126.Who has taken over as first-ever E. ₹2,25,000 crore.
woman head of Steel Authority of
India Limited (SAIL)? 131.Who has been appointed as the
A. Soma Mondal Prime Minister of Ivory Coast?
B. Varsha Joshi A. Hamed Bakayoko
C. Rekha Priyadarshini B. Amadou Gon
D. Arya Rajendran C. Alassane Ouattara
E. Sabitha Beegam D. Daniel Kablan Duncan
E. Seydou Diarra
127.Which of the following state
government has launched the 132.Which Small Finance Bank has
Mukhyamantri Mahila Utkarsh Yojana launched 3-in-1 account (savings
(MMUY)? +trading+ demat)?
A. Gujarat A. AU Small Finance Bank
B. Uttar Pradesh B. Ujjivan Small Finance Bank
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C. Equitas Small Finance Bank D. 2027

D. Jana Small Finance Bank E. 2029
E. ESAF Small Finance Bank
138.Name the two countries which
133.Palle Pragathi program has been had the Hypersonic Wind Tunnels,
launched in which state? before it was launched in India.
A. Andhra Pradesh A. UK and France
B. Telangana B. China and Germany
C. Karnataka C. USA and Russia
D. Kerala D. Italy and Germany
E. Tamil Nadu E. None of the above
134.Which country ranks immediately 139.The Asian Development Bank

below India in the Global Hunger (ADB) and the Government of India
Index 2020? signed a $ 231 million loan to
A. Nepal augment electricity generation
B. Pakistan capacity in which state?
C. Ethiopia A. West Bengal
D. Sudan B. Bihar
E. Mali C. Meghalaya
D. Odisha
135.Defence Acquisition Council E. Assam
(DAC) has proposed to acquire
defence hardware worth ______ from 140.Identify the Kharif crop among
Indian industry. the option
A. Rs 27,000 crore A. Wheat
B. Rs 57,000 crore B. Maize
C. Rs 67,000 crore C. Barley
D. Rs 77,000 crore D. Potato
E. Rs 87,000 crore E. Gram
136.Satpura Tiger Reserve is located 141.12th GRIHA Summit was

in which state? conducted in December 2020 . What
A. Uttar Pradesh does “H” stand for?
B. Madhya Pradesh A. House
C. Chhattisgarh B. Habitat
D. Maharashtra C. Husbandry
E. Gujarat D. Heritage
137.Prime Minister Shri Narendra
Modi launched a new Central Sector 142.Which country is the biggest
Scheme of financing facility under the crude oil producer?
Agriculture Infrastructure Fund of 1 A. Saudi Arabia
Lakh. The program will run from 2020 B. China
to _____? C. USA
A. 2022 D. Iraq
B. 2024 E. Iran
C. 2025
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143.Which entity hold 51 percent services in an affordable manner, the

share holdings in LIC? Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
A. IDBI Bank released a National Strategy for
B. Allahabad Bank Financial Inclusion (NSFI) 2019-24 .
C. United Bank of India It also suggested making the public
D. Corporation Bank credit registry fully –database of
E. UCO Bank credit information of borrowers--
operational by ________
144.Which company has been A. January 2021
selected as the reporting actuary for B. March 2021
the embedded value of Life Insurance C. October 2021
corporation of India? D. December 2021
A. Deloitte E. March 2022
B. Milliman Advisors LLP India
C. SBI Caps 148.What is the theme of the Second
D. Tata Capital Cohort under the Regulatory Sandbox
E. None of the above (RS) announced by the Reserve Bank
of India?
145.the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) A. ‘Make Digital Payment a Habit’
has set up a 5-member internal B. ‘Cross Border Payments’
working group (IWG) headed by its C. ‘Hassel Free Payments’
Central Board Director Prasanna D. ‘Digital Payment Secure Payment’
Kumar (PK) Mohanty which also will E. None of the above
the present regulations on holding of
financial subsidiaries through a 149.Capital to Risk-Weighted Asset
NOFHC . In NOHFC, what does “O” Ratio (CRAR) of scheduled
stand for? commercial banks dropped to ______
A. Operation in March 2020.
B. Operative A. 7.5%
C. Observation B. 9.5%
D. Overdue C. 10.5%
E. Omission D. 11.5%
E. 14.8%
146.Which of the following is the
major objective of the recently 150.Medium - term strategy
created Payments Infrastructure framework, in line with evolving
Development Fund (PIDF) from RBI? macro-economic environment
A. Creation of physical and digital Utkarsh 2022 was launched by which
wallets Organisation?
B. Deploying Points of Sale (PoS) A. SEBI
infrastructure B. SBI
C. Promotion of UPI payments C. RBI
D. Both A and B D. IRDAI
E. All of the above E. IBA
147.In order to promote financial 151.Which company owned the iconic

literacy among customers and to Java bike in 2018?
provide access to formal financial A. Mahindra
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B. TATA E. 9%
C. HERO
D. Royal Enfield 154.Government has announced the
E. Bajaj launch of the modified Pradhan Mantri
Vaya Vandana Yojana- 2020 (PMVVY-
152.Name the Unified Payments 2020) Scheme for those over and
Interface (UPI) Recurring Payment above 60 years. Which is not correct
feature launched by National about the scheme?
Payments Corporation of India A. LIC is solely authorised to operate
(NPCI)? this scheme that offers a total payout
A. UPI AutoDebit not exceeding Rs 15 lakhs.
B. RuPay Autopay B. The scheme is a Non-Linked, Non-
C. UPI AutoPay Participating, Pension Scheme
D. RuPay AutoDebit subsidised by the Centre.
E. None of the above C. The policy has a 20-year tenure
and for policies sold in the 1st
153.Under the Modified scheme of financial year March 2021
producing ethanol from feed stocks D. The scheme will offer an assured
such as Sugarcane, cereals etc, what rate of return of 7.40% per annum
percentage of interest subvention to E. The maximum pension amount is
be provided for five years? limited at Rs 10,000 per month.
A. 2%
B. 4%
C. 6%
D. 7%
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###ANSWERS###
1. Ans. A. forest fires. We can, thus, safely
Only option I is correct. The reasons conclude that there are forest fires
are as follows: occurring in deciduous forest and
I: “...viewing these ecosystems as option doesn't support the arguments
forests resulted in a fundamental in the first paragraph. Hence, the
misunderstanding of their functional correct answer is C.
ecology, especially the roles of fire 3. Ans. B.
and herbivores in maintaining these In the passage, Jayashree Ratnam
ecosystems.” This clearly states that makes two observations. First, tree-
the only reason experts stopped grass ecosystems of savannas are
classifying 'these systems' as forests distinguishable from forests. This
is when they realised the plants have leads us to believe that worldwide,
different roles in the ecosystem. So, experts use the same parameters to
option I is true. identify savannas.
II: “Mesic savannas receive more Secondly, there are similarities
rainfall than some other iconic between Indian grasslands and
savannas of the tropics, but such African savannas. It is very likely that
ecosystems the world over are Ratnam used the aforementioned
characterised by frequent burning parameters to draw the conclusion.
and drought.” This shows us that So, we can say that if we apply the
despite receiving 'more rainfall', same parameters to other tree-grass
mesic savannas are prone to frequent ecosystems, we can find similar
burning or forest fires. So, option II is 'savannas', similar, not identical,
false. savannas. So, the given inference is
III: India needs to lift its "blanket fire- probably true. Hence, the correct
suppression policy" because it is answer is B.
"doing more harm than good”. But in 4. Ans. E.
paragraph 5 and paragraph 6, it is All the given statements are true
said that 'controlled burning' can be about Savannas with reference to the
used to manage forest and keeps given passage. The reasons are as
weeds, like Lantana camara, under follows:
control. We can, thus, conclude that A: "...dry grasses fuel it frequently in
in order to create forests, India must the dry months between monsoons.”
allow controlled burning. So, option This shows that the plants are dry in
III is false. the absence of monsoons. This would
Hence, the correct answer is A. not have been the case if they could
2. Ans. C. hold moisture. So, sentence A is true.
“The trees here are adapted to fire B: “Savanna trees have a number of
and the dry grasses fuel it frequently adaptations to live in a fire-driven
in the dry months between ecosystem. Their large underground
monsoons.” Here, the 'trees' and 'dry storage organs and roots contain
grasses' refer to the vegetation of much of their resources and fire
deciduous trees. 'dry grasses fuel it cannot damage these stores. Saplings
frequently' suggests that there are re-sprout quickly and grow rapidly.”
frequent forest fires in deciduous This indicates that the savanna trees
forests. The trees can be adapted only have adapted to fire, but not by being
if they are constantly faced with immune to it. They store their 'organs
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and roots' underground, protecting suppression policy”. Since, the

them from fire that rages above. passage doesn't provide any
These trees depend on fire for future additional information on the opinion
growth. So, sentence B is true. of indigenous people, we can safely
C: “Adult trees have less dense conclude that they were not consulted
canopies than forest species, allowing during policy making. So, option III is
more sunlight to permeate to the true.
ground level.” Since, this is a result of Hence, the correct answer is D.
the structural definition of savannas 6. Ans. A.
(discontinuous tree canopy). We can “...the invasive Lantana has spread,
safely conclude that constant sunlight to the detriment of understorey
is important to the understorey in plants and altering the structure of
savannas. So, sentence C is true. the forest significantly in the
Hence, the correct answer is E. process.” We can conclude that the
5. Ans. D. spread of Lantana has been
Only option III is correct. The reasons detrimental to the understorey
are as follows: plants. The only way this will lead to
I: In the first paragraph, it is stated change in the structure of the forest
that India has dry deciduous is when Lantana takes up space that
“forests”. In the second paragraph, is meant for other understorey plants,
Ratnam states that these are therefore preventing their growth.
comparable to African Savanna trees. Hence, the correct answer is A.
So, in the fourth paragraph "savanna 7. Ans. C.
tree species" refers to deciduous The sentence states that herbivores
trees. The study in the fourth do not eat Lantana. This will result in
paragraph states that "...on average, them migrating away from their
savanna tree species from peninsular natural habitat. The reducing number
India produced twice as much bark as of herbivores will cause food scarcity
evergreen forest trees." This does not among the carnivores. This is the
say anything about market status for actual negative effect on large
the two varieties. So, option I is false. carnivores, which is completely
II: “Ground fires, they believe, kept different from the reason stated in
hemiparasites at bay…” which option A. Hence, the correct answer is
indicates that hemiparasites are C.
present at the bottom of the forest 8. Ans. B.
floor. “...Lantana has spread, to the Jayashree Ratnam is giving a
detriment of understorey plants and conclusion about the mesic savannas.
altering the structure of the forest This can be described as decisive,
significantly in the process” further which is producing a definitive result.
proves that hemiparasites has only Hence, the correct answer is B.
attacked the understorey plants and 9. Ans. B.
has not affected the canopy in any An argument is an expression of
way. So, option II is false. opinion that is developed in a
III: “Historically, indigenous people in passage. Some arguments contain
India used controlled burning as a hidden assumptions sometimes
way to manage their forests.” The intended to subtly bias the reader. An
forest laws of India completely differ assumption is a belief that the author
from this, as there is a “blanket fire- takes for granted, based on opinion or
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experience. Assumptions are soil. The passage also mentions that

presented as facts. Sometimes the several states in India depend on
author states an opinion but doesn’t tourism to collect their state revenue
supply any supporting details, you and how leisure tourism will take time
should suspect that it is an to recover.
assumption. Hence, option A is the correct answer.
Statement A is a fact as supported by 12. Ans. C.
the numerous examples as provided The given inference talks about how
in the passage. Statement C is an tourism is being actively discouraged
assumption supporting the author’s in order to prevent the spread of the
viewpoint. Statement D is also an infection. In the given passage, we
assumption as the author talks about come across several examples of
how the tourism industry needs a different countries that either support
standard for safety and sanitation. the statement or is against it. But
But statement B talks about an there are numerous countries in the
assumption that has already been world whose example has not been
disapproved in the passage. So, provided. Examples from countries
option B is the correct answer. like those in South America, Japan etc
10. Ans. C. have not been given. Hence, we can
The first paragraph of the passage conclude that the data is inadequate
talks about the situation with respect to arrive to the given inference.
to tourism in India and how it has Hence option C is the correct answer.
been affected by the Covid situation. 13. Ans. D.
It also mentions how the Indian Option A is not a correct inference as
government has ignored the situation the passage uses the superlative
affecting the tourism sector. adjective ‘most’ to describe the
Paragraph 2 from the passage talks devastation caused by the Covid 19
about the international situation. It pandemic. This shows that it cannot
mentions several steps taken by the be compared to other pandemics and
governments of the foreign countries its effect has been the worst.
to bolster the affected tourism sector. Option B is also not correct as the
Hence, the best sentence to connect passage clearly states that several
the two paragraphs is option C which sectors have been ignored in the
talks about how the global scenario is economic recovery programme
completely different. provided by the Indian government.
11. Ans. A. Option C is also incorrect as although
Statement I is not true with respect the focus of the passage is on
to the given passage. The passage tourism, the focus is not only on it but
clearly mentions that the tourism also on other sectors.
sector could utilize this time provided Option D is a correct inference. The
by the covid situation to adopt more passage talks about how tourism will
ecologically friendly practices in their take time to recover and it mentions
day to day operations. ‘leisure tourism’. This implies that
Statement II and III are true with there are other forms of tourism also.
respect to the given passage. The Hence option D is the correct answer.
passage talks about how Italy has 14. Ans. E.
issued incentives to the local The given passage talks about how
population for holidaying on domestic the Covid 19 pandemic had a
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disastrous effect on the world’s Therefore, ‘and’ must be replaced

economy. It goes on to explain how with ‘but’ to form a grammatically
the Indian government has correct sentence.
announced an economy recovery Hence, option E is the correct
package which ignores the tourism answer.
sector. It then presents a comparison 18. Ans. B.
between the Indian government’s Of the given parts, 2nd one contains
decision and the global scenario on the error. We need to replace 'which'
the topic. It emphasizes how the with 'who' to rectify the sentence.
Indian government needs to follow Hence, option B is the correct
the global example and help the answer.
tourism sector also. Hence option E is 19. Ans. C.
the correct statement to define the in sentence II, the word ‘require’
purpose of the passage. before stove is incorrect. It is best
15. Ans. B. replaced by the word ‘cooking’ to
The error is in the segment 'of the clarify the context. So, A-F is a correct
Japanese squadrons hanged on'. interchange.
'Hanged' is erroneous in the sentence ‘Mill’ means a building equipped with
since it does not convey the exact machinery to grind things. ‘onus’
meaning. 'To hang' when used as means something that is one's duty or
'come or cause to come unexpectedly responsibility. Thus, C and E should
to a state in which no further interchange. This makes option C the
operations can be carried out' has correct answer.
past participle form 'hung' and not 20. Ans. A.
'hanged'. In sentence II we need an adjective
Therefore, 'hanged' must be replaced to describe the type of women and
with 'hung' to form a grammatically ‘increase’ is a verb. So, A and D
and contextually correct sentence. should interchange as ‘elderly’ is the
Hence, option B is the correct answer only highlighted adjective.
16. Ans. A. In sentence I, ‘pacify’ is a verb which
The error is in the segment 'better to means quell the anger, agitation, or
explain our'. excitement of. This is wrong in
The infinitive is always used without context of the sentence. It should be
'to' after 'had better'. exchanged with the other highlighted
Hence, it should have been 'had verb ‘expect’ which means regard
better explain' to make the sentence (something) as likely to happen. So,
grammatically correct. B-E.
Therefore, option A is the correct In sentence I, states and discoms
answer. cannot expect the lowest possible
17. Ans. D. ‘stories’. It is best exchanged with
The error is in the segment 'and also ‘tariffs’ to make the sentence
from all the New Testament '. contextually correct.
The correlative conjunction comes in Thus, option A is the correct answer.
the pair ‘not only…but also’. Also, 21. Ans. D.
when using ‘not only… but also’, we When we observe the two sentences
must make sure that both parts of I and II, we can see that all
this conjunction go before the words highlighted words in I are verbs, while
of the same parts of speech.
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all the words highlighted in II are Part A talks about a person who has
adjectives. many friends and E says there’s no
In sentence II, E needs to be replaced one to talk to despite something.
by A as it would show the action of Thus we can clearly see using the
the mother. connector in question, A and E form a
In sentence I, we need an adjective pair. Thus we can negate options C
to describe the land needed. So, B and B. Part B and D clearly make a
and D should interchange. pair, however, the connector given in
In sentence II, we need the correct question would be grammatically
verb to describe the action on the incorrect.
oven. Thus, C and F should The correct sentence is:
interchange. She has a lot of friends; nevertheless,
This makes option D the correct she has no one to talk to.
answer. Therefore going by the above
22. Ans. A. explanation, we can say option A is
In sentence II, we need a conjunction the correct answer.
in place of the verb ‘putting’. The only 25. Ans. A.
highlighted conjunction in sentence I We use ‘on account of’ to introduce
is ‘while. So, B and D should the reason or explanation for
interchange. something.
While ‘due to high terrains’ is Examples: 1) The President declined
meaningful, it is out of context in to deliver the speech himself, on
sentence I. A and F should be account of a sore throat. 2) A newly-
interchanged to make the sentence married couple, he thought, on
correct, as ‘variability’ means lack of account of their walking so close
consistency or fixed pattern. So, A together.
and F should interchange. Part A talks about hurricane and E
Thus, option A is the correct answer. further elaborates on it by saying that
23. Ans. D. the hurricane was the reason why
it is clear from the context of sentence their flight got cancelled. Thus they
I that agricultural workers have a both make a pair. Thus we can negate
hard life. Thus, C (identified) should options C and B. Part B and D make a
be replaced by F (available - able to pair however they don’t require a
be used or obtained). connector to connect them.
Again, in sentence II, respite (a short The correct sentence is:
period of rest or relief from something On account of the hurricane, our flight
difficult or unpleasant.) should be was cancelled.
replaced with popularly (by many or Therefore going by the above
most people). explanation, we can say option A is
Thus, option D is the correct answer. the correct answer.
24. Ans. A. 26. Ans. D.
We use ‘nevertheless’ to add Clearly, parts B and F make a pair.
surprising information or something The connector is one of change of
in contrast to what was already said subject; from shopping, the subject is
or written. Example: Morgan stopped changed to meeting someone, and
working as a doctor in 1973; that is accomplished by using the
nevertheless he remained active in connector ‘incidentally’. Thus we can
medical research until his death. negate options A and B. The parts A
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and D make a pair but the connector 32. Ans. A.

given in the question is not going to Option A is the correct answer.
be grammatically correct. 33. Ans. B.
The correct sentence is: Option B is the correct answer.
I have found the item in the 34. Ans. C.
supermarket; incidentally, I met Mrs Option C is the correct answer.
Anamika, an old classmate of mine, 35. Ans. A.
there. Quarters mean 3 months each
Therefore going by the above Ratio of investments in 2nd quarter for
explanation, we can say option D is A, B, C is in the ratio 1 : 4 : 2, so let
the correct answer. amounts be Rs. x, Rs. 4x and Rs. 2x
27. Ans. D. respectively.
"Not only… but also" is a correlative Ratio of investments in 3rd quarter for
conjunction. It is used to connect and A, B, C is in the ratio 3 : 2 : 3, so let
emphasize two words or two phrases amounts be Rs. 3y, Rs. 2y, Rs. 3y
at the same position. respectively.
Sentences A and F tell the In the last quarter, investments of A,
characteristics of the street door of B, C are double of that in the 2nd
the rooming-house. quarter, so amounts would be Rs. 2x,
Sentences B and E tell what the Rs. 8x, Rs. 4x respectively.
thieves did. Given:
Sentences C and D provide the (2000 + 2x + 3y) = 1400 + (800 + x
characteristics of the staff at the + 3y)
consulate. ⇒ x = 200
Hence, the above pairs can be Now ratio of profit share of A : B : C
combined using 'not only…but also' to is
form grammatically and contextually 800 × 3 + x × 3 + 3y × 3 + 2x × 3 :
correct sentences. 1600 × 3 + 4x × 3 + 2y × 3 + 8x ×
The sentences will be: 3 : 2000 × 3 + 2x × 3 + 3y × 3 + 4x
• The street door of the rooming- ×3
house was not only unlocked but wide ⇒ (800 + 3x +3y) : (1600 + 12x +
open. 2y) : (2000 + 6x + 3y)
• The thieves not only stole the jewels After putting x = 200, we get
but also smashed up most of the 1400 + 3y : 4000 + 2y : 3200 + 3y
valuable furniture in the room. ATQ,
• The staff at the consulate seemed
not only insensitive but also =
professionally inadequate.
Therefore, option D is the correct ⇒ =
answer. ⇒ y = 200
28. Ans. C.
Option C is the correct answer.
So now the total investment = (800 +
29. Ans. A.
3x + 3y) + (1600 + 12x + 2y) +
Option A is the correct answer.
(2000 + 6x + 3y) = (4400 + 21x +
30. Ans. E.
8y)
option E is the correct answer.
After putting x = 200 and y = 200,
31. Ans. C.
total investment = Rs 10,200
Option C is the correct answer.
36. Ans. D.
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Investments of A, B, C are Rs. 800, Probability of picking a green ball =

Rs. 1600, Rs. 2000 for 3 months, and
then for next 9 months Rs. x, Rs. 4x
and Rs. 2x.
So ratio of profit share A : B : C = 800
× 3 + 200 ×9 : 1600 × 3 + 800 × 9
: 2000 × 3 + 400 × 9 = 7 : 20 : 16 =
So profit share of A = 19350 = No. of green balls = 30

Rs. 3150 Probability of picking either a green or
37. Ans. A.
Quarters mean 3 months each orange ball =
Ratio of investments in 2nd quarter for
A, B, C is in the ratio 1 : 4 : 2, so let Probability of picking either a green or
amounts be Rs. x, Rs. 4x and Rs. 2x orange ball =
respectively.
In the last quarter, investments of A,
B, C are double of that in the 2nd
quarter, so amounts would be Rs. 2x,
Let number of orange balls be x
Rs. 8x, Rs. 4x respectively.
Let the new investments of A, B, C
were Rs. 2z, Rs. 4z, and Rs. z
respectively. So,
Investment of A = Rs. (800 + 3x + ⇒ x = 10

2z), B = (1600 + 12x + 4z) and C =
(2000 + 6x + z) Quantity I = 10
Given:
(2000 + 2x + 3y) = 1400 + (800 + x For Quantity II:
+ 3y)
⇒ x = 200 Probability of picking an orange ball =
After putting, x = 200
Investment of A = 1400 + 2z, B =
4000 + 4z and C = 3200 + z
Probability of picking orange ball =
Now given,
= 3100
After solving, z = 100
So total investment for quarter 3 = 2z
+ 4z + z = 7z = Rs. 700
38. Ans. B.
For Quantity I: Number of orange balls = 15
Probability of picking a green ball = Now number balls left in the bag = 39
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Probability of picking a green ball =
⇒
Probability of picking a green ball =
{ Using identity p3 q3 = (p q)(p2 +

pq + q2) }
⇒
⇒
Number of green balls = 12
Number of orange balls = 15

⇒
Number of Yellow balls = Total balls –
(Number of green balls + Number of ⇒
orange balls) ⇒ 16b2 =
∴ Number of Yellow balls = 40 – (12 ⇒ 5b2 =
+ 15) = 13
⇒c= b
Comparing Quantities I and II-
Quantity II = 13
For all possible values of b, Quantity
II > Quantity I.
So, Quantity I < Quantity II.
39. Ans. B. 40. Ans. E.
Quantity I:
I. = ab× c
⇒ a = a2b× c
a
⇒ aa – 2b = c ….(i)
⇒ = 1 { II. =
⇒ a2 = b × d3
Using identity p2 q2 = (p + q)(p
q) } ⇒ = d3
⇒ =1
⇒d= ….(ii)
⇒ =1 Now, assuming different values of ‘a’
and ‘b’ to get value of ‘c’ and ‘d’.
⇒ = If a = 1 and b = 1
Then, c = 1 and d = 1
i.e., c = d
⇒ = (a + b)
If a = 4 and b = 2
Then, c = 1 and d = 2
⇒a=b
i.e., c < d
Quantity II:
If a = 9 and b = 3
Then, c = 729 and d = 3
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i.e., c > d d = c + [(x + 3)2 + y] = 28 + [(1 +

Thus, no relation can be established 3)2– 2] = 28 + 16 – 2 = 42
between c and d. (y + 5) = (–2 + 5) = 3
Hence, option E is the correct answer. a = 19, b = 21, c = 28 and d = 42
41. Ans. C. Among a, b, c and d only b and d are
x = HCF of 2 prime numbers = 1 (Two divisible by 3.
prime numbers are always co-prime Hence, option C is the correct answer.
to each other) 43. Ans. D.
z2 – z – 6 = 0 x = HCF of 2 prime numbers = 1 (Two
⇒ z2 – 3z + 2z – 6 = 0 prime numbers are always co-prime
⇒ z(z – 3) + 2(z – 3) = 0 to each other)
⇒ (z + 2)(z – 3) = 0 z2 – z – 6 = 0
So, roots of z2 – z – 6 = 0 are 3 and ⇒ z2 – 3z + 2z – 6 = 0
–2 ⇒ z(z – 3) + 2(z – 3) = 0
Thus, y = –2 ⇒ (z + 2)(z – 3) = 0
Given, a – 20 = (x2 + y) So, roots of z2 – z – 6 = 0 are 3 and
a = 20 + (12 – 2) = 20 – 1 = 19 –2
b – a = [(x + 1)2 + y] = [(1 + 1)2– 2] Thus, y = –2
=2 Given, a – 20 = (x2 + y)
⇒ b = a + 2 = 19 + 2 = 21 a = 20 + (12 – 2) = 20 – 1 = 19
Also given, b – a = [(x + 1)2 + y] = [(1 + 1)2– 2]
c = b + [(x + 2)2 + y] = 21 + [(1 + =2
2)2– 2] = 21 + 9 – 2 = 28 ⇒ b = a + 2 = 19 + 2 = 21
And Also given,
d = c + [(x + 3)2 + y] = 28 + [(1 + c = b + [(x + 2)2 + y] = 21 + [(1 +
3)2– 2] = 28 + 16 – 2 = 42 2)2– 2] = 21 + 9 – 2 = 28
The value of d = 42 And
Hence, option C is the correct answer. d = c + [(x + 3)2 + y] = 28 + [(1 +
42. Ans. C. 3)2– 2] = 28 + 16 – 2 = 42
x = HCF of 2 prime numbers = 1 (Two Required ratio = 28 : 42 = 2 : 3
prime numbers are always co-prime Hence, option D is the correct answer.
to each other) 44. Ans. E.
z2 – z – 6 = 0 x = HCF of 2 prime numbers = 1 (Two
⇒ z2 – 3z + 2z – 6 = 0 prime numbers are always co-prime
⇒ z(z – 3) + 2(z – 3) = 0 to each other)
⇒ (z + 2)(z – 3) = 0 z2 – z – 6 = 0
So, roots of z2 – z – 6 = 0 are 3 and ⇒ z2 – 3z + 2z – 6 = 0
–2 ⇒ z(z – 3) + 2(z – 3) = 0
Thus, y = –2 ⇒ (z + 2)(z – 3) = 0
Given, a – 20 = (x2 + y) So, roots of z2 – z – 6 = 0 are 3 and
a = 20 + (12 – 2) = 20 – 1 = 19 –2
b – a = [(x + 1)2 + y] = [(1 + 1)2– 2] Thus, y = –2
=2 Given, a – 20 = (x2 + y)
⇒ b = a + 2 = 19 + 2 = 21 a = 20 + (12 – 2) = 20 – 1 = 19
Also given, b – a = [(x + 1)2 + y] = [(1 + 1)2– 2]
c = b + [(x + 2)2 + y] = 21 + [(1 + =2
2)2– 2] = 21 + 9 – 2 = 28 ⇒ b = a + 2 = 19 + 2 = 21
And Also given,
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c = b + [(x + 2)2 + y] = 21 + [(1 + 180x = Rs. (100x + 160)

2)2– 2] = 21 + 9 – 2 = 28 ⇒ 80x = 160
And ⇒x=2
d = c + [(x + 3)2 + y] = 28 + [(1 + ∴ Cost price of the article = 100x =
3)2– 2] = 28 + 16 – 2 = 42 Rs. 200
Given first term of new series = 29 So, data given in statements I and III
Second Term = 29 + (12 – 2) = 28 together is sufficient to answer the
Third Term = 28 + [(1 + 1)2 – 2] = question.
30 From statements II and III together:
Fourth Term = 30 + [(1 + 2)2 – 2] = (100x + 16) = (100x + 160) × 0.6
37 ⇒ (100x + 16) = 60x + 96
Fifth Term = 37 + [(1 + 3)2 – 2] = 51 ⇒ 40x = 80
Hence, option E is the correct answer. ⇒x=2
45. Ans. C. ∴ Cost price of the article = 100x =
Let the cost price of the article be Rs. Rs. 200
100x, then So, data given in statements II and
From statement I: III together is sufficient to answer the
Marked Price = Rs. (100 + T)x question.
Selling Price = Marked price × (1 – Hence, the data given in any two
20%) statements together is sufficient to
144x = (100 + T)x × (1 – 20/100) answer the question.
⇒ 144 = (100 + T) × 0.8 46. Ans. D.
⇒ 180 = 100 + T Time Period of P’s investment = 12
⇒ T = 80 months
So, marked price = Rs. (100 + T)x = Time Period of Q’s investment = T
Rs. 180x months
From statement II: Time Period of R’s investment = (12
New selling Price = Marked price × (1 – T) months
– 40%) Statement I:
(100x + 16) = Marked price × 0.6 Let the amount invested by P = Rs.
From statement III: 2a
When shopkeeper doesn't offer any Then, amount invested by Q = 150%
discount on marked price, then he of 2a = Rs. 3a
sells the article on marked price. And amount invested by R = 2 × 3a
Marked price = Cost price + Rs. 160 = Rs. 6a
= Rs. (100x + 160) Thus, respective ratio of investments
From statements I and II together: of P, Q and R is
100x + 16 = Marked price × 0.6 = 12 × 2a : T × 3a : (12 – T) × 6a
⇒ (100x + 16) = 180x × 0.6 = 8 : T : (24 – 2T)
⇒ 16 = 8x We cannot find the value of T from the
⇒x=2 above ratio. Thus, statement I alone
∴ Cost price of the article = 100x = is not sufficient.
Rs. 200 Statement II:
So, data given in statements I and II Total profit earned by P, Q and R =
together is sufficient to answer the Rs. 700
question. Profit earned by Q = Rs. 100
From statements I and III together:
(100x + 16) = Marked price × 0.6
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Since, there is nothing given about Number of hours for which basic
the investments of P, Q and R so sessions were conducted by yoga
statement II alone is not sufficient. master C = 22 – 1 × 3 = 19 hours
Statement III: As each basic session is of 1 hour.
Ratio of profit share of P and R = 1 : Required answer = 19 sessions
2 Hence, option C is correct.
So, statement III is not sufficient. 48. Ans. B.
Statement I and II together: Total number of hours for which yoga
Ratio of amount invested by P, Q and master B conducted sessions = 25%
R = 8 : T : (24 – 2T) of 60 = 15 hours.
Total profit earned by P, Q and R = For number of basic sessions to be
Rs. 700 minimum,
Profit earned by Q = Rs. 100 Let number of advanced sessions = 2
So, profit earned by P and R together Then, number of regular sessions will
= Rs. 600 be atleast 3.
So, remaining hours = 15 – 3 × 2 – 2
Thus, = × 3 = 3 hours
⇒ 3200 – 200T = 600T i.e., number of basic sessions is also
⇒ 3200 = 8T 3. But this does not satisfy the given
⇒ T = 4 months condition.
Thus, statement I and II together are Now, let number of advanced
sufficient to answer the question. sessions = 1
Statement I and III together: Then remaining hours = 15 – 1 × 3 =
Ratio of amount invested by P, Q and 12 hours.
R = 8 : T : (24 – 2T) If number of regular sessions = 4
Ratio of profit share of P and R = 1 : Then, number of basic sessions will
2 also be 4, which will not satisfy the
given condition.
i.e., = When number of regular sessions = 3
⇒ 16 = 24 – 2T i.e., 3 × 2 = 6 hours
⇒ T = 4 months Then number of basic sessions = 6
Thus, statement I and III together are i.e., 6 × 1 = 6 hours
sufficient to answer the question. Required answer = 6 sessions
Hence, option D is the correct answer. Hence, option B is correct.
47. Ans. C. 49. Ans. C.
Total number of hours for which yoga Total number of hours for which yoga
master C conducted sessions = 50% master A conducted sessions = 20%
of 60 = 30 hours of 60 = 12 hours
Number of regular sessions Let number of advanced sessions
conducted by C = 4 conducted by A = x
Remaining number of hours = 30 – 2 And number of basic sessions
× 4 = 22 hours conducted by A = 2x
Now it is given that, yoga master C Let number of regular sessions
conducted atleast 1 session of each conducted by A = y
type. According to the question,
So, for number of basic sessions to be 2x × 1 + y × 2 + x × 3 = 12
maximum, let number of advanced ⇒ 5x + 2y = 12
sessions conducted by him = 1
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Above equation is satisfied when, x = Amount of mixture left after the

2 and y = 1 milkman sold mixture to B = 350
Required number of sessions litres
conducted by A = x + 2x + y And ratio of milk to water in this
=2+4+1=7 mixture is 6 : 1
Hence, option C is the correct answer. i.e., Milk = 300 litres and Water = 50
50. Ans. C. litres
Amount of mixture sold to C = 70
litres
So, amount of milk sold = 60 litres
and amount of water sold = 10 litres
Now, 3r and r litres of milk and water
were added.
And ratio of milk to water in final
mixture = 9 : 2
ATQ, So, (300 – 60 + 3r) = 9k
X – 120 + 80 + 0 = 560 And (50 – 10 + r) = 2k
⇒ X = 600 Liters On solving, we get:
Hence, option C is correct r = 40
51. Ans. A. Now, Z = 350 – 70 + 4r = 280 + 160
= 440 litres
Hence, option A is correct.
53. Ans. D.
Ratio of milk & water in Mixture M will

be 6 : 1 also.
So, 6a – a = 250
⇒ a = 50 Amount of pure milk sold to B = 240
Now, M = 6a + a Litres
= 6 × 50 + 50 Cost of 240 Litres pure milk = 240 ×
= 350 40 = Rs. 9600
ATQ, Total amount of mixture sold to B =
560 – Y + 60 + 10 = M (240 + 40) = 280 Litres
⇒ 560 – Y + 60 + 10 = 350 Total selling price of 280 Litres
⇒ Y = 280 L mixture of milk = 280 × 45 = Rs.
Hence, option A is correct. 12600
52. Ans. A. Profit = 12600 – 9600 = Rs. 3000
Required Profit Percentage = ×

100 = 31.25%
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
54. Ans. A.
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Let marks obtained by B in written

exam = Y
Given, marks obtained by B in
practical exam = 55, then
0.6 × Y + 0.4 × 55 = 52
⇒ 0.6Y + 22 = 52
⇒ Y = 50
Marks obtained by D in written exam
Amount of milk in the mixture M will
= 70
be = (300 – 60) + 10 = 250 litres
Marks obtained by D in practical exam
And, amount of water in the mixture
= 75% of 60 = 45
M will be = (50 – 10) + 60 = 100 litres
Total weighted score of D = 0.6 × 70
Required concentration of Milk =
+ 0.4 × 45 = 60
× 100 = %
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
55. Ans. A.
Actual marks scored by D in written
exam = 70
New marks scored by D in written
exam = 70 + 7 % of 70 = 75
exam = Y
New total weighted score of D = 0.6
Given, marks obtained by B in
× 75 + 0.4 × 45 = 63
practical exam = 55, then
Marks scored by C in written exam =
0.6 × Y + 0.4 × 55 = 52
60
⇒ 0.6Y + 22 = 52
Total weighted score of C = 0.6 × 60
⇒ Y = 50
+ 0.4 × 50 = 56
Marks obtained by D in written exam
Difference between the new weighted
= 70
score of C and D = 63 – 56 = 7
Marks obtained by D in practical exam
Total maximum possible weighted
= 75% of 60 = 45
score = 60% of 80 + 40% of 60
Total weighted score of D = 0.6 × 70
= 48 + 24 = 72
+ 0.4 × 45 = 60
So, required percentage = × 100 =
9.72%
Hence, option B is correct.
Let marks obtained by C in written 57. Ans. B.
exam be Y, then
0.6 × Y + 0.4 × 50 = 65
⇒ 0.6Y + 20 = 65
⇒Y= = 75 exam = Y
So, required ratio = 75 : 50 = 3 : 2 Given, marks obtained by B in
Hence, option A is correct. practical exam = 55, then
56. Ans. B. 0.6 × Y + 0.4 × 55 = 52
⇒ 0.6Y + 22 = 52
⇒ Y = 50
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Marks obtained by D in written exam Let the marks scored by X in written

= 70 and practical exams = 5a and 3a,
Marks obtained by D in practical exam then
= 75% of 60 = 45 Total weighted score of X = 0.6 × 5a
Total weighted score of D = 0.6 × 70 + 0.4 × 3a
+ 0.4 × 45 = 60 ⇒ 52.5 = 3a + 1.2a = 4.2a
⇒a= = 12.5
The sum of the marks scored by X in
Marks scored by A in practical exam written and practical exams = 5a + 3a
= 47.5 × 4 – (55 + 50 + 45) = 8a = 8 × 12.5 = 100
= 190 – 150 = 40 Hence, option C is correct.
Let marks scored by A in written 59. Ans. C.
exam = x, then A – B match:
Total weighted score of A = 0.6 × x + Total points scored by B = 4
0.4 × 40 And total goals scored by A = 2
⇒ 52 = 0.6x + 16 So, 2 points must have been
⇒ 0.6x = 36 subtracted from B’s score, as it
⇒ x = 60 conceded 2 goals.
Marks scored by C in written exam = i.e., Actual points scored by B without
Marks scored by A in written exam = penalty = 4 + 2 = 6
x = 60 Also, it is given that none of the
Total weighted score of C = 0.6 × 60 players scored from the outside area.
+ 0.4 × 50 = 36 + 20 = 56 So, total number of goals scored by B
So, required average = = 58 in the match = = 3

Hence, option B is correct. i.e., B scored 3 goals and A scored 2
58. Ans. C. goals in the match.
Points scored by A in this match = 2
×2–3=1
A – C Match:
Let marks obtained by B in written C scored 0 points in the match and
exam = Y only one player from team A scored a
Given, marks obtained by B in goal from outside area. And A secured
practical exam = 55, then 4 points from this match.
0.6 × Y + 0.4 × 55 = 52 Given, 1 goal was scored by Team A
⇒ 0.6Y + 22 = 52 from outside area. So, points from
⇒ Y = 50 this goal = 3
Marks obtained by D in written exam But team A has secured 4 points.
= 70 So, it must have scored 1 more goal
Marks obtained by D in practical exam against C and also team A must
= 75% of 60 = 45 concede 1 goal to make its points 4.
Total weighted score of D = 0.6 × 70 So, team C scored 1 goal in this
+ 0.4 × 45 = 60 match.
i.e., A scored 2 goals (out of which
one was from outside area) and C
scored 1 goal in the match.
B – C Match:
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B gets 6 points from the match. Team Points scored by A in this match = 2
C scored 1 goal more than team B. ×2–3=1
One player from team B scored a goal A – C Match:
from outside area C scored 0 points in the match and
Let number of goals scored by B = P only one player from team A scored a
And number of goals scored by C = P goal from outside area. And A secured
+1 4 points from this match.
Since, one player from team B scored Given, 1 goal was scored by Team A
a goal from outside area. So, total from outside area. So, points from
points scored by B would be: this goal = 3
2P + 1 – P – 1 = 6 (because B But team A has secured 4 points.
conceded (P + 1) goals, So, (P + 1) So, it must have scored 1 more goal
need to be subtracted) against C and also team A must
i.e., P = 6 concede 1 goal to make its points 4.
So, Team B scored 6 goals and team So, team C scored 1 goal in this
C scored 7 goals in the match. match.
Points scored by team C = 2 × 7 – 6 i.e., A scored 2 goals (out of which
=8 one was from outside area) and C
Now, Total points scored by team A = scored 1 goal in the match.
1+4=5 B – C Match:
Total points scored by team B = 4 + B gets 6 points from the match. Team
6 = 10 C scored 1 goal more than team B.
Total points scored by team C = 0 + One player from team B scored a goal
8=8 from outside area
So, rank of team B, C and A is 1st, 2nd Let number of goals scored by B = P
and 3rd And number of goals scored by C = P
Prize money of team A = Rs. 60,000 +1
Since, one player from team B scored
Prize money of team B = 60000 × = a goal from outside area. So, total
Rs. 1,60,000 (Team B received Rs. points scored by B would be:
1,60,000) 2P + 1 – P – 1 = 6 (because B
Hence, option C is correct. conceded (P + 1) goals, So, (P + 1)
60. Ans. D. need to be subtracted)
A – B match: i.e., P = 6
Total points scored by B = 4 So, Team B scored 6 goals and team
And total goals scored by A = 2 C scored 7 goals in the match.
So, 2 points must have been Points scored by team C = 2 × 7 – 6
subtracted from B’s score, as it =8
conceded 2 goals. Now, Total points scored by Team A
i.e., Actual points scored by B without =1+4=5
penalty = 4 + 2 = 6 Total points scored by Team B = 4 +
Also, it is given that none of the 6 = 10
players scored from the outside area. Total points scored by Team C = 0 +
So, total number of goals scored by B 8=8
Total number of goals scored by Team
in the match = = 3 A=2+2=4
i.e., B scored 3 goals and A scored 2 Total goals scored by Team B = 3 + 6
goals in the match. =9
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Total goals scored by Team C = 1 + 7 B gets 6 points from the match. Team
=8 C scored 1 goal more than team B.
Since, it is given that 3 players from One player from team B scored a goal
each team scored a goal. from outside area
So, maximum goals that can be Let number of goals scored by B = P
scored by a single player in team A = And number of goals scored by C = P
2 +1
Similarly, for team B it is = 7 Since, one player from team B scored
And for team C = 6 a goal from outside area. So, total
Required Answer = 2 + 7 + 6 = 15 points scored by B would be:
Hence, option D is correct. 2P + 1 – P – 1 = 6 (because B
61. Ans. C. conceded (P + 1) goals, So, (P + 1)
A – B match: need to be subtracted)
Total points scored by B = 4 i.e., P = 6
And total goals scored by A = 2 So, Team B scored 6 goals and team
So, 2 points must have been C scored 7 goals in the match.
subtracted from B’s score, as it Points scored by team C = 2 × 7 – 6
conceded 2 goals. =8
i.e., Actual points scored by B without Now, Total points scored by Team A
penalty = 4 + 2 = 6 =1+4=5
Also, it is given that none of the Total points scored by Team B = 4 +
players scored from the outside area. 6 = 10
So, total number of goals scored by B Total points scored by Team C = 0 +
8=8
in the match = = 3
i.e., B scored 3 goals and A scored 2 Required Percentage = × 100 =
goals in the match. 100%
Points scored by A in this match = 2 Hence, option C is the correct answer.
×2–3=1 62. Ans. B.
A – C Match: A – B match:
C scored 0 points in the match and Total points scored by B = 4
only one player from team A scored a And total goals scored by A = 2
goal from outside area. And A secured So, 2 points must have been
4 points from this match. subtracted from B’s score, as it
Given, 1 goal was scored by Team A conceded 2 goals.
from outside area. So, points from i.e., Actual points scored by B without
this goal = 3 penalty = 4 + 2 = 6
But team A has secured 4 points. Also, it is given that none of the
So, it must have scored 1 more goal players scored from the outside area.
against C and also team A must So, total number of goals scored by B
concede 1 goal to make its points 4.
So, team C scored 1 goal in this in the match = = 3
match. i.e., B scored 3 goals and A scored 2
i.e., A scored 2 goals (out of which goals in the match.
one was from outside area) and C Points scored by A in this match = 2
scored 1 goal in the match. ×2–3=1
B – C Match: A – C Match:
C scored 0 points in the match and
only one player from team A scored a
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goal from outside area. And A secured And total goals scored by A = 2
4 points from this match. So, 2 points must have been
Given, 1 goal was scored by Team A subtracted from B’s score, as it
from outside area. So, points from conceded 2 goals.
this goal = 3 i.e., Actual points scored by B without
But team A has secured 4 points. penalty = 4 + 2 = 6
So, it must have scored 1 more goal Also, it is given that none of the
against C and also team A must players scored from the outside area.
concede 1 goal to make its points 4. So, total number of goals scored by B
So, team C scored 1 goal in this
match. in the match = = 3
i.e., A scored 2 goals (out of which i.e., B scored 3 goals and A scored 2
one was from outside area) and C goals in the match.
scored 1 goal in the match. Points scored by A in this match = 2
B – C Match: ×2–3=1
B gets 6 points from the match. Team A – C Match:
C scored 1 goal more than team B. C scored 0 points in the match and
One player from team B scored a goal only one player from team A scored a
from outside area goal from outside area. And A secured
Let number of goals scored by B = P 4 points from this match.
And number of goals scored by C = P Given, 1 goal was scored by Team A
+1 from outside area. So, points from
Since, one player from team B scored this goal = 3
a goal from outside area. So, total But team A has secured 4 points.
points scored by B would be: So, it must have scored 1 more goal
2P + 1 – P – 1 = 6 (because B against C and also team A must
conceded (P + 1) goals, So, (P + 1) concede 1 goal to make its points 4.
need to be subtracted) So, team C scored 1 goal in this
i.e., P = 6 match.
So, Team B scored 6 goals and team i.e., A scored 2 goals (out of which
C scored 7 goals in the match. one was from outside area) and C
Points scored by team C = 2 × 7 – 6 scored 1 goal in the match.
=8 B – C Match:
Now, Total points scored by Team A B gets 6 points from the match. Team
=1+4=5 C scored 1 goal more than team B.
Total points scored by Team B = 4 + One player from team B scored a goal
6 = 10 from outside area
Total points scored by Team C = 0 + Let number of goals scored by B = P
8=8 And number of goals scored by C = P
Number of goals scored by Team B in +1
its match against team C = 6 Since, one player from team B scored
Number of goals scored by Team A in a goal from outside area. So, total
its match against team C = 2 points scored by B would be:
Required ratio = 6 : 2 = 3 : 1 2P + 1 – P – 1 = 6 (because B
Hence, option B is the correct answer. conceded (P + 1) goals, So, (P + 1)
63. Ans. A. need to be subtracted)
A – B match: i.e., P = 6
Total points scored by B = 4
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So, Team B scored 6 goals and team So, total number of orders received
C scored 7 goals in the match.
Points scored by team C = 2 × 7 – 6 on Sunday of week II = 25 × =
=8 500
Now, Total points scored by Team A Now, we can calculate the number of
=1+4=5 orders delivered on each day and also
Total points scored by Team B = 4 + the number of orders which were
6 = 10 returned.
Total points scored by Team C = 0 +
8=8
Required Answer = 2 + 2 + 3 + 6 = Required Ratio = 14 : 18 = 7 : 9
13 Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Hence, option A is the correct answer. 66. Ans. C.
64. Ans. B. Total percentage of orders delivered
Total percentage of orders delivered from Monday to Saturday of week III
from Monday to Saturday of week III =
= 16% + 12% + 24% + 20% + 8% +
16% + 12% + 24% + 20% + 8% + 15% = 95%
15% = 95% Remaining Orders = 100% – 95% =
Remaining Orders = 100% – 95% = 5%
5% It is given that, number of orders
It is given that, number of orders which were not delivered = 25
which were not delivered = 25 Thus, 5% of total orders = 25
Thus, 5% of total orders = 25 So, total number of orders received
So, total number of orders received
on Sunday of week II = 25 × =
on Sunday of week II = 25 × = 500
500 Now, we can calculate the number of
Now, we can calculate the number of orders delivered on each day and also
orders delivered on each day and also the number of orders which were
the number of orders which were returned.
returned.
Total number of orders returned till

Sunday of week III = 24 + 14 + 39 +
Required average = = 80 18 + 40 + 25 = 160
Hence, option B is the correct answer. Number of orders which were not
65. Ans. D. returned = 500 – 160 = 340
Total percentage of orders delivered
from Monday to Saturday of week III Required percentage = × 100 =
= 68%
16% + 12% + 24% + 20% + 8% + Hence, option C is the correct answer.
15% = 95% 67. Ans. D.
Remaining Orders = 100% – 95% = Total percentage of orders delivered
5% from Monday to Saturday of week III
It is given that, number of orders =
which were not delivered = 25 16% + 12% + 24% + 20% + 8% +
Thus, 5% of total orders = 25 15% = 95%
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Remaining Orders = 100% – 95% = Total number of orders delivered from

5% Monday to Thursday = 80 + 60 + 120
It is given that, number of orders + 100 = 360
which were not delivered = 25 Total number of orders returned on
Thus, 5% of total orders = 25 Wednesday, Friday and Saturday
So, total number of orders received together = 14 + 18 + 40 = 72
Required Ratio = 360 : 72 = 5 : 1
on Sunday of week II = 25 × = Hence, option E is the correct answer.
500 69. Ans. C.
Now, we can calculate the number of Total percentage of orders delivered
orders delivered on each day and also from Monday to Saturday of week III
the number of orders which were =
returned. 16% + 12% + 24% + 20% + 8% +
15% = 95%
Remaining Orders = 100% – 95% =
Average number of orders returned 5%
from Tuesday to Sunday = 30 It is given that, number of orders
Total number of orders returned from which were not delivered = 25
Tuesday to Sunday = 30 × 6 = 180 Thus, 5% of total orders = 25
Number of orders returned on Sunday So, total number of orders received
of week III = 180 – (24 + 14 + 39 +
18 + 40) = 45 on Sunday of week II = 25 × =
500
Required Percentage = × 100 = Now, we can calculate the number of
87.5% more orders delivered on each day and also
Hence, option D is the correct answer. the number of orders which were
68. Ans. E. returned.
Total percentage of orders delivered
from Monday to Saturday of week III
= Total number of orders returned on
16% + 12% + 24% + 20% + 8% + Tuesday, Wednesday and Friday = 24
15% = 95% + 14 + 18 = 56
Remaining Orders = 100% – 95% = Number of orders returned on
5% Saturday = 40
It is given that, number of orders
which were not delivered = 25 Required percentage = × 100 =
Thus, 5% of total orders = 25 40%
So, total number of orders received 70. Ans. C.
(In figure, (+) denotes the male
on Sunday of week II = 25 × = person and (-) denotes the female
500 person)
Now, we can calculate the number of 1) The one who is 43 years old is the
orders delivered on each day and also spouse of the one whose age is a
the number of orders which were perfect square of a number.
returned. 2) The one who is 43 years old sits
second to the right of P.
Here, we have two possible cases i.e.
Case 1 and Case 2:
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(In Case 1: There is no position left

for T because T does not sit adjacent
to her husband and her age is less
than her husband. So, Case 1 gets
eliminated.)
3) The one who is 43 years old faces

outside the table.
4) The husband of T sits to the
immediate right of the one who is 43
years old.
(In Case 1a: The position left for T
where T is 49 years old and her
husband is 51 years old and it is not
possible as the ages of both person
cannot be and odd number. So, Case
1 gets eliminated.)
6) S sits opposite to U who does not

sit adjacent to P.
7) S does not sit to the immediate
right of P.
8) The one who is 51 years sits
10) The wife of S is 5 years younger
second to the left of S.
Here, we have two more possible than S.
(U is 43 years old and is the spouse
cases i.e. Case 1a and Case 2a:
of the one whose age is a perfect
square of a number. So, U is not the
wife of S)
11) T is 7 years younger than her

husband.
9) The one who is 49 years old sits

second to the right of S.
12) The difference between the ages

of T and P is 6 years.
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Now, it is clear that the spouse of U is

P, so P’s age is a perfect square.
In Case 2:
If P – T = 6; T = 42 so P = 48,
If T – P = 6; T = 42 so P = 36
In Case 2a:
If P – T = 6; T = 44 so P = 50,
If T – P = 6; T = 44 so P = 38. 3) The one who is 43 years old faces
Hence, Case 2a gets eliminated: outside the table.
years old.
5) P is 2 years elder than the husband
of T.
13) Q is not the neighbour of T.

Here, we have the final arrangement:

sit adjacent to P.
right of P.
Here, we have two more possible
Clearly, three people sit between T

and the one who is the husband of P
when counted from the left of T.
71. Ans. B.
person and (-) denotes the female
person)
1) The one who is 43 years old is the
spouse of the one whose age is a
perfect square of a number.
second to the right of P. 9) The one who is 49 years old sits
Here, we have two possible cases i.e. second to the right of S.
Case 1 and Case 2:
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In Case 2:
If P – T = 6; T = 42 so P = 48,
eliminated.)
If T – P = 6; T = 42 so P = 36
In Case 2a:
If P – T = 6; T = 44 so P = 50,
If T – P = 6; T = 44 so P = 38.
Hence, Case 2a gets eliminated:

1 gets eliminated.)

than S.
wife of S)
Clearly, the difference between the

11) T is 7 years younger than her age of R and the wife of U is 15 years.
husband. 72. Ans. C.
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person)
second to the right of P. 9) The one who is 49 years old sits
Here, we have two possible cases i.e. second to the right of S.
Case 1 and Case 2:

outside the table.
eliminated.)
years old.
of T.

6) S sits opposite to U who does not possible as the ages of both person
sit adjacent to P. cannot be and odd number. So, Case
7) S does not sit to the immediate 1 gets eliminated.)
right of P.

than S.
wife of S)
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husband.
Clearly, ‘The wife of S is 51 years old’

is true.
12) The difference between the ages 73. Ans. C.
of T and P is 6 years. (In figure, (+) denotes the male
Now, it is clear that the spouse of U is person and (-) denotes the female
P, so P’s age is a perfect square. person)
In Case 2: 1) The one who is 43 years old is the
If P – T = 6; T = 42 so P = 48, spouse of the one whose age is a
If T – P = 6; T = 42 so P = 36 perfect square of a number.
In Case 2a: 2) The one who is 43 years old sits
If P – T = 6; T = 44 so P = 50, second to the right of P.
If T – P = 6; T = 44 so P = 38. Here, we have two possible cases i.e.
Hence, Case 2a gets eliminated: Case 1 and Case 2:

outside the table.
13) Q is not the neighbour of T. 4) The husband of T sits to the
Here, we have the final arrangement: immediate right of the one who is 43
years old.
of T.

sit adjacent to P.
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right of P.
than S.
wife of S)

9) The one who is 49 years old sits husband.
second to the right of S.

In Case 2:
If P – T = 6; T = 42 so P = 48,
eliminated.)
If T – P = 6; T = 42 so P = 36
In Case 2a:
If P – T = 6; T = 44 so P = 50,
If T – P = 6; T = 44 so P = 38.

1 gets eliminated.)
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years old.
of T.

sit adjacent to P.
right of P.
Clearly, Q is the husband of the one

who sits to the immediate left of S.
74. Ans. A.
person)
2) The one who is 43 years old sits 9) The one who is 49 years old sits
second to the right of P. second to the right of S.
Case 1 and Case 2:

outside the table.
eliminated.)
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If P – T = 6; T = 44 so P = 50,
If T – P = 6; T = 44 so P = 38.

cannot be and odd number. So, Case 13) Q is not the neighbour of T.
1 gets eliminated.) Here, we have the final arrangement:

than S.
wife of S)
Clearly, ‘S – 56 years’ pair is correct.

75. Ans. A.
From statement I:
P * R, T @ S, R & U, Q * K, V © R, P
&T

husband.
12) The difference between the ages Hence, R is the uncle of K.

of T and P is 6 years. From statement II:
Now, it is clear that the spouse of U is P @ U, Q * S, T % K, R * V, S & T, V
P, so P’s age is a perfect square. &P
In Case 2:
If P – T = 6; T = 42 so P = 48,
If T – P = 6; T = 42 so P = 36
In Case 2a:
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78. Ans. E.
From statement I:
Not more than two people have off
after F. Two people have off between
F and W.
Clearly, only statement I is sufficient.

76. Ans. C.
From statement I:
P * R, T @ S, R & U, Q * K, V © R, P
&T
The number of people have off after F

is same as the number of people have
off before P.
Hence, Q is the son-in-law of T. Here, Case 1 gets eliminated:
From statement II:
P @ U, Q * S, T % K, R * V, S & T, V
&P
Hence, Q is the father-in-law of T.

Clearly, either statement I or
statement II is sufficient.
77. Ans. D.
From the given codes, we can find
that: From statement II:
Three people have off after W. One
person has off between W and K.
Clearly, neither statement I nor

statement II sufficient.
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From both statements I and II:

Not more than two people have off
after F. Two people have off between
F and W. The number of people have
off after F is same as the number of
people have off before P. Three
people have off after W. One person
has off between W and K.
Hence, point N is in north-west of
point S.
80. Ans. D.
A % B (11) - A is 21m north of B.
A & B (15) – A is 25m south of B.
A * B (30) - A is 40m east of B.
A @ B (10) - A is 20m west of B.
(A pattern is followed in which the
difference between the given
numbers in each statement is 10m.
So to solve each statement, we will
add 10m to the given number)
Hence, three people have off between

K and P.
Clearly, both statements I and II are
sufficient.
79. Ans. D.
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82. Ans. C.
‘& (45)’ means ‘south 55m’. Hence,

point I is in south of point P and the
distance between them is 55m.
81. Ans. C.
‘T & F (40)’ means T is 50m south of

F. Hence, the points I, T, and P are in
a straight line.
83. Ans. D.
‘J % S (15)’ means J is 25m north of

S then F is in south-west of J.
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5) Box Q is kept just above the box

which contains Purple colour.
6) More than two boxes are kept
between the box Q and the box K.
7) The box which contains Black
colour is not kept adjacent to the box
K.
Required distance = √7² + 5² =

√74m
84. Ans. C.
1) Not more than two boxes are kept
above the box which contains Red
colour. 8) Two boxes are kept between the
Here, we have two possible cases i.e. box K and the box which contains
Case 1 and Case 2: White colour.
9) The box which contains Blue colour
is kept just above the one which
contains Green colour.
Here, we have one more possible case
i.e. Case 1a:
2) Two boxes are kept between the

box which contains Red colour and M.
3) The number of boxes are kept
above the one which contains Red 10) Three boxes are kept between the
colour is same as the number of box which contains Blue colour and
boxes are kept below the one which the box O.
contains Black colour. 11) Three boxes are kept between the
4) Three boxes are kept between box L and the box R which is kept
those which contain Black colour and above the box L.
Purple colour. Here, Case 3 gets eliminated:
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above the one which contains Red
colour is same as the number of
boxes are kept below the one which
contains Black colour.
4) Three boxes are kept between
those which contain Black colour and
Purple colour.
between the box N and the box which
contains Yellow colour.
13) Box N is kept one of the boxes
above the one which contains Orange
colour.
Here, Case 1a gets eliminated.
14) Box O does not contain Yellow
colour.
Here, Case 2 gets eliminated and we
have the final arrangement:
K.
Clearly, three boxes are kept between

the box Q and the one which contains
Yellow colour.
85. Ans. C.
above the box which contains Red 8) Two boxes are kept between the
colour. box K and the box which contains
Here, we have two possible cases i.e. White colour.
Case 1 and Case 2: 9) The box which contains Blue colour
i.e. Case 1a:
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colour.
Case 1 and Case 2:
10) Three boxes are kept between the

box which contains Blue colour and
the box O.
box L and the box R which is kept
above the box L.
Here, Case 3 gets eliminated:
contains Black colour.
4) Three boxes are kept between
those which contain Black colour and
Purple colour.
between the box N and the box which
contains Yellow colour.
13) Box N is kept one of the boxes
colour.
colour.
have the final arrangement: 5) Box Q is kept just above the box
K.
Clearly, box M contains Purple colour.

86. Ans. B.
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colour.

box K and the box which contains
White colour.
i.e. Case 1a:
Clearly, five boxes are kept above the
one which contains Orange color.
87. Ans. C.
colour.
10) Three boxes are kept between the Here, we have two possible cases i.e.
box which contains Blue colour and Case 1 and Case 2:
the box O.
above the box L.

12) More than two boxes are kept contains Black colour.
between the box N and the box which 4) Three boxes are kept between
contains Yellow colour. those which contain Black colour and
13) Box N is kept one of the boxes Purple colour.
colour.
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5) Box Q is kept just above the box 12) More than two boxes are kept
which contains Purple colour. between the box N and the box which
6) More than two boxes are kept contains Yellow colour.
between the box Q and the box K. 13) Box N is kept one of the boxes
7) The box which contains Black above the one which contains Orange
colour is not kept adjacent to the box colour.
K. Here, Case 1a gets eliminated.
colour.

White colour.
i.e. Case 1a:
Clearly, ‘The box which contains
Green colour is kept at second
position from the bottom’ is false.
88. Ans. E.
colour.
10) Three boxes are kept between the Case 1 and Case 2:
box which contains Blue colour and
the box O.
above the box L.
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i.e. Case 1a:

colour is same as the number of 10) Three boxes are kept between the
boxes are kept below the one which box which contains Blue colour and
contains Black colour. the box O.
4) Three boxes are kept between 11) Three boxes are kept between the
those which contain Black colour and box L and the box R which is kept
Purple colour. above the box L.

6) More than two boxes are kept 12) More than two boxes are kept
between the box Q and the box K. between the box N and the box which
7) The box which contains Black contains Yellow colour.
colour is not kept adjacent to the box 13) Box N is kept one of the boxes
K. above the one which contains Orange
colour.
colour.

White colour.
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92. Ans. D.
Clearly, ‘P, Purple’ does not belong to

that group because all the other pairs
are kept adjacent to each other.
89. Ans. B.
Only course of action II follows.
Appealing to the United Nations and
seeking their help in persuading the
Taliban to end their violence is 93. Ans. B.
something practical and might have a
positive effect. Both courses of action
I and III are too dogmatic, the use of
the word ‘force’ in both the cases hint
at a sense of compulsion, something
that a violent organization like the
Taliban might not take too well.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
90. Ans. D.
Both inferences I and II follow. The 94. Ans. C.
given statement tells us that the Food
Standards Agency is a central
regulator whose mission is to put
consumers’ interests first. This means
the Agency is a government body that
is responsible for the health of the
public when it comes to food. Or in
other words, the Agency’s job is to
ensure the public gets access to safe
food. Inference III is not true because
95. Ans. B.
though we know the Agency was set
The correct answer is option B, i.e.
up because of a scandal, we cannot
For now, India is happy to be in a
infer details of what had happened
stable, but morally tenuous,
from what is given. Therefore, option
friends-with-benefit relationship
D is the correct answer.
with Myanmar. The victims
91. Ans. A.
continue to be the stateless
Rohingya.
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A conclusion is a judgement or Thus, it is a suitable conclusion on the

decision reached by reasoning. basis of the information provided.
The given question asks which of the Option C is also baseless as it also
following is an apt conclusion on the presents information that is not even
basis of the information provided thus discussed in the context provided. It
we must look for any such information sheds light upon SIPRI and its arms
that can be derived from the passage transfer database which is totally out
stated. of scope of the given context and is
The given context draws attention as a result not a suitable answer
towards the Rohingya issue and the choice.
nature of the governments (mainly As none of the choices except B can
India’s) reaction regarding the same. be concluded based on the
Option A is rejected as it states information stated in the given
analysis by the Dutch advocacy group context, thereby, we can infer that
and presents conclusion based on the correct answer is option B.
that analysis which cannot be inferred 96. Ans. C.
from the given information because The correct answer is option C,
no such analysis has been discussed i.e. But India’s soft, backfoot
in the matter. Since, it is not approach is being increasingly
appropriate it is not a suitable answer seen by Bangladesh, which is
choice. hosting many Rohingya refugees,
Option B talks about the fact that to be tilted in Myanmar’s favour.
‘India is happy to be in a stable, but An assumption is a statement
morally tenuous, friends-with-benefit that is used as the premise of a
relationship with Myanmar. The particular agreement but may not
victims continue to be the stateless be accepted otherwise. In simpler
Rohingya’. The first half of the words an assumption is
statement can be understood from The given context draws attention
the end of the second paragraph towards the Rohingya issue and the
which states the nature of nature of the governments (mainly
relationship between the two nations India’s) reaction regarding the same.
as India supplies combat hardware Option B is totally vague as the fact
and imparts UN peacekeeping regarding Indian companies
training to Myanmar and continues to investing in Myanmar, with
maintain ties with the Myanmar several having direct links with
armed forces (Tatmadaw). Attributing Tatmadaw-owned businesses is
to this fact an edition of the India- totally baseless and cannot be
Myanmar bilateral army exercise, assumed from the given passage.
IMBEX 2018-19, took place this Option C is a suitable assumption that
January at Chandimandir. can be assumed on the basis of the
The second part of the statement information provided. It talks about
which discusses the idea of stateless the soft, backfoot approach of
rohingyas being the victim can be India that can be understood as
understood from the first paragraph India continues to maintain ties
where it is clearly stated that ‘India’s with Myanmar by supplying
continued diplomatic and moral equipments and this nature is
passivity on the Rohingya crisis’. being scrutinized by Bangladesh
which can be understood from the
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facts stated that EU and number of people have meeting

Bangladesh which is a home to before U.
several (rohingya) victims expressed
grave concern at continuing reports of
serious human rights violations and
abuses in Myanmar which India did
not pay heed to.
Option D can be rejected as the fact
that India is supplying humanitarian
aid to balance ties with Dhaka
and Naypyidaw is nowhere
evident from the given piece of
information as a result it presents 4) K has meeting just after Q but not
baseless claims and can be on Thursday.
rejected. Here, Case 2 gets eliminated and we
Option E can be rejected as it is too have the final arrangement:
specific in terms of facts presented
like 1,640-km plus border with
Myanmar. Moreover, the core
logic of ‘modernising the
Tatmadaw’ and forging a
sustainable strategic partnership
at China’s doorstep is totally out
of scope of the information
presented.
Thus, the most correct answer choice Clearly, three people have meeting
is option C and rest of the options can before L.
be rejected. 98. Ans. B.
97. Ans. C. 1) The age of K is a perfect square of
1) Not more than two people have a number.
meeting after R. Here, we have two possible cases i.e.
Here, we have two possible cases i.e. Case 1 and Case 2:
Case 1 and Case 2:
2) One person sits between K and the

2) Three people have meeting one who likes Blue colour.
between R and W. Here, we have one more possible case
3) The number of people have i.e. Case 1a:
meeting after W is same as the 3) Two people were born between the
one who likes Blue colour and P.
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4) The difference between the age of

P and the one who likes White colour
is 4 years.
5) The number of people born after

the one who likes White colour is 11) O was born after the one who
same as the number of people born likes Red colour but neither likes
before M. Green nor Blue colour.
6) Three people were born between M Here, Case 2 gets eliminated and we
and the one who likes Yellow colour. have the final arrangement:
Here, Case 1a gets eliminated:
Clearly, one person was born between

7) L was born just after the one who O and the one who likes Green colour.
likes Orange colour. 99. Ans. C.
Here, we have one more possible case 1) The age of K is a perfect square of
i.e. Case 1b. a number.
8) Three people were born between L Here, we have two possible cases i.e.
and the one who likes Black colour. Case 1 and Case 2:
9) The difference between the ages of

those who like Black and Green colour
is 3 years. 2) One person sits between K and the
Here, Case 1 gets eliminated. one who likes Blue colour.
10) N was born before L but neither Here, we have one more possible case
likes Orange nor Blue colour. i.e. Case 1a:
3) Two people were born between the
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is 4 years.

7) L was born just after the one who Clearly, the one who is 43 years old
likes Orange colour. likes Blue colour.
Here, we have one more possible case 100. Ans. A.
i.e. Case 1b. 1) The age of K is a perfect square of
8) Three people were born between L a number.
and the one who likes Black colour. Here, we have two possible cases i.e.
Case 1 and Case 2:

is 3 years.
Here, Case 1 gets eliminated.
10) N was born before L but neither 2) One person sits between K and the
likes Orange nor Blue colour. one who likes Blue colour.
i.e. Case 1a:
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is 4 years.

7) L was born just after the one who Clearly, no one is elder than the one
likes Orange colour. who likes Red colour.
Here, we have one more possible case 101. Ans. C.
Case 1 and Case 2:

is 3 years.
Here, Case 1 gets eliminated. 2) One person sits between K and the
10) N was born before L but neither one who likes Blue colour.
likes Orange nor Blue colour. Here, we have one more possible case
i.e. Case 1a:
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is 4 years.
5) The number of people born after 11) O was born after the one who
the one who likes White colour is likes Red colour but neither likes
same as the number of people born Green nor Blue colour.
before M. Here, Case 2 gets eliminated and we
6) Three people were born between M have the final arrangement:
and the one who likes Yellow colour.
Clearly, the difference between the

7) L was born just after the one who age of Q and the one who likes
likes Orange colour. Orange colour is 15 years.
Here, we have one more possible case 102. Ans. A.
Case 1 and Case 2:

is 3 years.
Here, Case 1 gets eliminated. 2) One person sits between K and the
10) N was born before L but neither one who likes Blue colour.
likes Orange nor Blue colour. Here, we have one more possible case
i.e. Case 1a:
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is 4 years.

7) L was born just after the one who Clearly, ‘White, K’ does not belong to
likes Orange colour. that group because all the other pairs
Here, we have one more possible case were born adjacent to each other.
i.e. Case 1b. 103. Ans. C.
8) Three people were born between L Only a few Colours are Black. All Hair
and the one who likes Black colour. is Black. Some Black is Brown.
Conclusions:
I. Some Colours are not Black – It is
true as only a few Colours are Black
that means some Colours are not
9) The difference between the ages of Black.
those who like Black and Green colour II. Some Hair can be Brown – There
is 3 years.
is no direct relation between Hair and
Here, Case 1 gets eliminated. Brown hence it can be possible.
10) N was born before L but neither Hence, ‘Only a few Colours are Black.
likes Orange nor Blue colour. All Hair is Black. Some Black is
Brown.’ statement logically follows.
104. Ans. E.
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Some Mobiles are not Phones. Only a I. Some Telegrams are not Postcards
few Phones are Computers. All – It is true as only a few Telegrams
Computers are Calculators. are Postcards that means some
Telegrams are not Postcards.
II. All Telegrams can be Letters – It is
true as some Telegrams are Postcards
and all Postcards are Letters so it can
Conclusions: be possible.
I. All Phones can be Calculators – It Hence, ‘Some Mails are not
can be possible as some Phones are Telegrams. Only a few Telegrams are
Computers and all Computers are Postcards. All Postcards are Letters.’
Calculators. statement logically follows.
II. Some Phones are not Computers – 107. Ans. D.
It is true as only a few Phone are All Apps are Websites. Only a few
Computers that means some Phones Websites are Blogs. No Blogs are
are not Computers. Vlogs.
Hence, ‘Some Mobiles are not Phones.
Only a few Phones are Computers. All
Computers are Calculators.’
statement logically follows.
105. Ans. D. Conclusions:
All Markers are Chalks. Only a few I. Some Websites can never be Vlogs
Chalks are Pens. No Pens are Pencils. – It is true as some Websites are
Blogs and no Blogs are Vlogs.
II. Some Apps can be Blogs – It is true
as there is no direct relation between
Apps and Blogs hence it can be
Conclusions: possible.
I. Some Chalks are not Pencils – It is Hence, ‘All Apps are Websites. Only a
true as some Chalks are Pens and no few Websites are Blogs. No Blogs are
Pens are Pencils. Vlogs.’ statement logically follows.
II. Some Chalks are not Pens – It is 108. Ans. C.
true as only a few Chalks are Pens 1) R sits third to the right of the one
that means some Chalks are not who sits opposite to U.
Pens. Here, we have the final arrangement:
Hence, ‘All Markers are Chalks. Only
a few Chalks are Pens. No Pens are
Pencils.’ statement logically follows.
106. Ans. C.
Some Mails are not Telegrams. Only a
few Telegrams are Postcards. All
Postcards are Letters.
2) One person sits between U and W
who does not sit opposite to R.
3) Y sits opposite to the one who sits
second to the left of W.
4) O sits adjacent to Y.
Conclusions:
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Here, we have one more possible case Here, we have the final arrangement:
i.e. Case 2a:
5) Two people sit between X and T

who does not sit at the middle of the 2) One person sits between U and W
sides of the table. who does not sit opposite to R.
6) X does not sit adjacent to W and Y. 3) Y sits opposite to the one who sits
i.e. Case 2a:
7) P and S sit to the immediate right

of each other.
8) S does not sit at the corner of the
table. 5) Two people sit between X and T
who does not sit at the middle of the
sides of the table.
6) X does not sit adjacent to W and Y.
9) Z sits second to the left of V who

does not sit to the immediate left of 7) P and S sit to the immediate right
W. of each other.
Here, Case 1 gets eliminated and we Here, Case 2a gets eliminated.
have the final arrangement: 8) S does not sit at the corner of the
table.

does not sit to the immediate left of
Clearly, S sits third to the left of the W.
one who sits opposite to V. Here, Case 1 gets eliminated and we
109. Ans. B. have the final arrangement:
1) R sits third to the right of the one
who sits opposite to U.
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table.

W.
Clearly, four people sit between Q and
O when counted from the right of Q.
110. Ans. B.
1) R sits third to the right of the one
who sits opposite to U.
2) One person sits between U and W Clearly, X sits to the immediate right
who does not sit opposite to R. of Q who sits opposite to W.
3) Y sits opposite to the one who sits 111. Ans. D.
second to the left of W. 1) R sits third to the right of the one
4) O sits adjacent to Y. who sits opposite to U.
Here, we have one more possible case Here, we have the final arrangement:
i.e. Case 2a:

sides of the table. 2) One person sits between U and W
6) X does not sit adjacent to W and Y. who does not sit opposite to R.
i.e. Case 2a:
7) P and S sit to the immediate right
of each other.
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sides of the table.
Clearly, one person remains

unchanged (except O).
112. Ans. B.
7) P and S sit to the immediate right 1) R sits third to the right of the one
of each other. who sits opposite to U.
Here, Case 2a gets eliminated. Here, we have the final arrangement:
table.
2) One person sits between U and W

who does not sit opposite to R.
W.
i.e. Case 2a:

sides of the table.
If all the people are arranged

according to English alphabetical
order starting from __ in clock wise 7) P and S sit to the immediate right
direction only in outer table (people of of each other.
inner table remain same): Here, Case 2a gets eliminated.
table.
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The given passage is a bit lengthy but

is self explanatory in terms of
language and flow of ideas. It focuses
on plagiarism as adopted by the
researchers in their papers.
Option A is relevant to the given
information as it is in the same
9) Z sits second to the left of V who direction as the given passage as it
does not sit to the immediate left of talks about the duplication in the
W. experimental figures. But the fact
Here, Case 1 gets eliminated and we that it specifically talks only about
have the final arrangement: experimental figures makes it centric
towards manipulations and
duplications in experimental results
only which is no apt as a result it is
rejected as a suitable answer choice.
Option B is relevant to the information
provided as it talks about the absence
of a dedicated software to figure out
the duplications because in the entire
passage it is noted that ‘human eye
for detail’ like phrases have been used
to refer o researchers who pointed out
If U and T interchange their positions: the duplications in the papers or the
journals.
Option C is also relevant to the given
context and the flow of ideas but is
quite specific in terms of mentioning
‘PLUS ONE’. As it is specific to it
requires a strong evidence regarding
the claim which is not evident as a
result it is rejected.
Thus, the most correct answer choice
is option B and rest of the options can
be rejected.
Clearly, Z sits to the immediate right 114. Ans. C.
of T.
113. Ans. B. The correct answer is option C, i.e.
The correct answer is option B, i.e. None is implicit.
There is no good software yet on the An assumption is a thing that is
market to automatically screen accepted as true or as certain to
images for duplications, but several happen, without proof.
journals and publishers use human From the statement, it is evident that
eyes for initial screening, and Reliance Communications (RCom)
subsequently software to help has completed its payment of nearly
confirm irregularities in background Rs 580 crore to the Swedish telecom
noise or similarities using false-colour gear maker Ericsson which had
imaging. claimed dues for its maintenance
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services. The move was triggered to (Jharkhand), Agartala (Tripura) and

avoid jail term of RCom’s chairman Lucknow (Uttar Pradesh).
Anil Ambani and thereby, putting an • These will be developed as a part of
end to the 18-month long battle. the Global Housing Technology
Thus, a suitable assumption must be Challenge-India (GHTC-India)
relevant to this context only. initiative under which 1,000 houses at
Assumption (I) can be rejected as the each location are to be constructed in
figure of 21 crore is not relevant to a year (12 months), using six distinct
the given context and NCLT is also not technologies.
discussed in the given context. As we • GHTC-India aims to adopt
cannot comprehend anything innovative technologies in the
regarding which no evidence is housing construction sector.
evident thus, it is irrelevant and is • Other government schemes will also
eliminated. be linked to these projects to provide
Based on similar grounds, assumption facilities such as water supply,
(II) is also rejected as none of the electricity and LPG connection to the
facts presented in the given beneficiaries.
statement supports the fact that 117. Ans. B.
Ericson and Jio entered in a deal in Although Kaziranga National Park is
2013. situated in the northeastern part of
Thus, the most appropriate answer the country in the district of
choice is option C. Golaghat and Nagaon in Assam, the
115. Ans. D. nearest airport to the park is in Jorhat
• ICICI Bank has launched ‘Home District, i.e. Rowriah Airport.
Utsav’, a virtual property exhibition 118. Ans. B.
that digitally showcases real estate • Lebanon's President Michel Aoun
projects by renowned developers designated Sunni Muslim politician
from key cities across the country. Saad al-Hariri as prime minister to
• The exhibition is available for form a new government to tackle the
everyone, including ICICI Bank’s worst crisis since the country's 1975-
customers and those who are not 1990 civil war.
customers of the Bank. • Hariri won the backing of a majority
• It offers them enhanced of parliamentarians in consultations
convenience, as they can simply with Aoun.
browse through these projects online, • He faces major challenges to
from the comfort of their home and navigate Lebanon's power-sharing
office. politics and agree a cabinet, which
• They can also avail exclusive offers must then address a mounting list of
such as attractive interest rates, woes: a banking crisis, currency
special processing fees and digital crash, rising poverty and crippling
sanction of loans, on buying a state debts.
property through this exhibition. • A new government will also have to
116. Ans. C. contend with a COVID-19 surge and
• Prime Minister Narendra Modi the fallout of the huge August
virtually laid the foundation of six explosion at Beirut port that killed
Light House Projects (LHPs) in Indore nearly 200 people and caused billions
(Madhya Pradesh), Rajkot (Gujarat), of dollars of damage.
Chennai (Tamil Nadu), Ranchi 119. Ans. B.
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• Prime Minister Narendra Modi Ray, Shyam Benegal, Govind Nihalni

inaugurated the Mangdechhu and Mrinal Sen and he has also
hydroelectric power plant, one of the worked with various Hollywood
major projects under Bhutan's directors like Roland Joffe, Mike
initiative to generate 10,000 MW Nichols, Lasse Halstrom etc.
hydropower by 2020 with the Indian 122. Ans. D.
government's support. • Sur Sarovar also known as Keetham
• The Rs 4,500-crore hydroelectric Lake in Agra, Uttar Pradesh has been
plant touted as a Bhutan-India added to the ‘Ramsar Sites’.
friendship project, is a 720MW run-of- • This wetland has been included in
river power plant built on the the ‘List of Wetlands of International
Mangdechhu River in Trongsa Importance’ established by Article 2.1
Dzongkhag district of central Bhutan. of the convention.
• It was developed by the • Sur Sarovar is the 2440th site of
Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project Ramsar site.
Authority (MHPA), which was jointly • Sur Sarovar is the 40th Ramsar
constituted by the Indian and the Sites in India.
Bhutanese governments. • With the inclusion of this wetland,
120. Ans. B. the total number of Ramsar Sites in
• Claire Polosak became the first India is 41, the highest in South Asia.
female umpire to officiate in a men’s 123. Ans. A.
Test match when she took up the role “Dreams From My Father: A Story of
of a fourth umpire for the India vs Race and Inheritance” is a memoir by
Australia third Test match. Barack Obama. It was first published
• The 32-year-old already holds the in 1995 as Obama was preparing to
distinction of being the first woman to launch his political career in a
officiate (as an on-field umpire) in a campaign for Illinois Senate. The
men’s ODI match. book chronicles the events of
• Polosak had umpired in ICC’s World Obama’s life up until his entry into law
Cricket League Division 2 final match school in 1988.
between Namibia and Oman in 2019. 124. Ans. C.
In Sydney though, Polosak will * Union Defence Minister Rajnath
officiate as a fourth umpire. Singh inaugurated the advanced
121. Ans. D. Hypersonic Wind Tunnel (HWT) test
• At the 3rd India International Film facility during his visit to Defence
Festival of Boston (IIFFB) 2020 based Research and Development
in Boston, United States of America Organisation’s (DRDO’s) Dr APJ Abdul
(USA) held as a virtual event from Kalam Missile Complex in Hyderabad.
16th to 18th October 2020, the * The state-of-the-art HWT Test
Lifetime Achievement Award 2020 facility is pressure vacuum driven
was accorded to Late Actor Om Puri enclosed free jet facility having nozzle
which was received by his wife Nadita exit diameter of 1 meter and will
Puri. simulate Mach No 5 to 12 (Mach
• Chef Vikas Khanna was honoured represents the multiplication factor to
with “Pride of India” a special award the speed of sound).
at the 3rd IIFFB 2020. * After USA and Russia, India is the
• Om Puri was an acclaimed actor who third country to have such a large
worked with directors like Satyajit facility in terms of size and operating
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capability. It is an indigenous 128. Ans. E.

development and an outcome of • The share of digital transactions in
synergistic partnership with Indian the total volume of non-cash retail
industries. payments increased to 97.0 per cent
125. Ans. B. during 2019-20, up from 95.4 per
Qualified institutional placement cent in the previous year.
(QIP) is a capital-raising tool, 129. Ans. C.
primarily used in India and other • The maximum payout for
parts of southern Asia, whereby a coronavirus is US$195.84 million. Q:
listed company can issue equity How much in total premiums did
shares, fully and partly convertible donors pay for the insurance window
debentures, or any securities other coverage? Donors paid US$107.2
than warrants which are convertible million in premiums while the
to equity shares to a Qualified insurance window paid out
Institutional Buyer (QIB). US$195.84 for COVID-19.
126. Ans. A. 130. Ans. A.
• Soma Mondal has taken over as • "It has been decided, in consultation
Chairman of Steel Authority of India with the Government of India, that
Limited (SAIL). the limits for ways and means
• She was the Director (Commercial) advances (WMA) for the second half
of SAIL prior to this. of the financial year 2020-21
• Before joining SAIL as a Director, (October 2020 to March 2021) will be
Mondal was the Director Rs 1,25,000 crore
(Commercial) at fellow Central public 131. Ans. A.
sector enterprise, National Aluminium • Ivory Coast‘s Defence Minister,
Company Limited (NALCO). Hamed Bakayoko has been named as
• In a company statement, Mondal the Prime Minister of the country. He
said that the first target is to improve was presently serving as the as
the financial performance of SAIL. interim PM of the country since the
127. Ans. A. sudden death of former Prime
• Gujarat state government Minister Amadou Gon Coulibaly.
launched the Mukhyamantri 132. Ans. C.
Mahila Utkarsh Yojana (MMUY) • Equitas Small Finance Bank has
on September 17, 2020. launched a 3-in-1 account which
• Mukhyamantri Mahila Utkarsh allows its customers to invest in wide
Yojana (MMUY) is a scheme of variety of financial product. A 3-in-1
providing interest-free loans to account (savings +trading+ demat) is
women’s groups in the state. a convenient option that helps the
• Under the scheme, loans of ₹1 customers to keep all their banking
lakh will be given to women self- and financial investments under one
help groups (SHGs) each umbrella entity.
comprising 10 members. • The bank provides stock broking
• Under the scheme, around one lakh and demat services through referral
Joint Liability and Earning Group arrangement with brokerage firms for
(JLEG) would be set up in the state, trading and depository services.
of which, 50,000 groups would be These arrangements enables Equitas
made in rural areas and the rest in Savings Bank customers to invest
urban areas.
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funds across the investment products • The defence ministry has given its
using a single platform. nod for the acquisition of weapon
• The financial products offered systems worth Rs 28,000 crore,
through the 3-in-1 account includes including an indigenous programme
direct equity and F&O trading, MF to develop a large Airborne Early
investment across all AMCs, ETFs, Warning and Control System
corporate FDs, corporate bonds, govt (AWACS) and next generation
bonds, insurance products, National offshore patrol vessels.
Pension Scheme (NPS) and initial • The go ahead was given by the
public offerings (IPOs). Rajnath Singh-led Defence
133. Ans. B. Acquisition Council (DAC), with Rs
• The second phase of Telangana 27,000 crore worth of systems to be
Palle Pragathi was launched across developed indigenously.
the district by conducting grama 136. Ans. B.
sabhas on Thursday. Senior IAS • Satpura Tiger Reserve Located in
officer and member of State-level the south of the river Narmada, The
Flying Squad of Telangana Palle forest of the Satpura ranges are rich
Pragathi Neethu Prasad participated in biodiversity and are inhabited by
in the programme at Gorukondla many endangered species. Keeping
village of Chinthapally mandal. this specialty in mind, Satpura Tiger
134. Ans. D. Reserve was declared as the first
• The GHI 2020 report has placed biosphere reserve of Madhya Pradesh
India 94th position among 107 in the year 1999
countries, much behind Bangladesh, 137. Ans. E.
Pakistan and Nepal. The situation is • The Agriculture Infrastructure Fund
grim and the country is battling is a medium - long term debt
widespread hunger. financing facility for investment in
• The GHI score is determined on a viable projects for post-harvest
100-point scale based on these four management infrastructure and
parameters. Countries with score community farming assets through
within the range 20-34.9 are interest subvention and credit
considered to be grappling with acute guarantee.
hunger. High-income countries and • The duration of the scheme shall be
those with very low populations were from FY2020 to FY2029 (10 years).
excluded from evaluation. Under the scheme, Rs. 1 Lakh Crore
• At the time of the release of GHI will be provided by banks and
2019 report, the country had a food financial institutions as loans with
stock of more than 68 million tonnes interest subvention of 3% per annum
(excluding un-milled paddy) in the and credit guarantee coverage under
central pool stored at different CGTMSE scheme for loans up to Rs. 2
warehouses of Food Corporation of Crore.
India. • The beneficiaries will include
• Till September 2020, the food stock farmers, PACS, Marketing
went up to 70 million tonnes Cooperative Societies, FPOs, SHGs,
(excluding un-milled paddy), which is Joint Liability Groups (JLG),
enough to ensure that no one went Multipurpose Cooperative Societies,
hungry. Agri-entrepreneurs, Startups, and
135. Ans. A. Central/State agency or Local Body
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sponsored Public-Private Partnership • The theme of the Summit was

Projects. “Rejuvenating Resilient Habitats”. It
138. Ans. C. is the annual flagship event organized
• Union Defence Minister Rajnath by GRIHA Council in association with
Singh inaugurated the advanced ‘key stakeholders in the construction
Hypersonic Wind Tunnel (HWT) test industry’ to discuss and deliberate on
facility during his visit to Defence the furtherance of Sustainable
Research and Development Habitat Development in India.
Organisation’s (DRDO’s) Dr APJ Abdul 142. Ans. C.
Kalam Missile Complex in Hyderabad.
• The state-of-the-art HWT Test
facility is pressure vacuum driven
enclosed free jet facility having nozzle
exit diameter of 1 meter and will
143. Ans. A.
simulate Mach No 5 to 12 (Mach
• IDBI Bank said that the insurance
represents the multiplication factor to
behemoth LIC has completed
the speed of sound).
acquisition of 51 per cent controlling
• After USA and Russia, India is the
stake in the bank, making it the
third country to have such a large
lender's majority shareholder.
facility in terms of size and operating
• Of the 21 state-owned banks, 11 are
capability. It is an indigenous
under the PCA framework. These are
development and an outcome of
Allahabad Bank, United Bank of India,
synergistic partnership with Indian
Corporation Bank, IDBI Bank, UCO
industries.
Bank, Bank of India, Central Bank of
139. Ans. E.
India, Indian Overseas Bank, Oriental
• The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
Bank of Commerce, Dena Bank and
and the Government of India on
Bank of Maharashtra.
December 30, 2020 signed a $ 231
144. Ans. B.
million loan to augment electricity
• Finance Ministry has selected
generation capacity in the state of
Milliman Advisors LLP India as the
Assam through construction of a 120
Reporting Actuary to derive the
megawatts (MW) hydroelectric power
embedded value of Life Insurance
plant that will enhance availability of
Corporation (LIC) ahead of its IPO.
electricity for households
• The firm was chosen from three in
140. Ans. B.
the race including EY Actuarial
Except maize all are Rabi crops
Services and Willis Towers Watson
141. Ans. B.
Actuarial Advisory.
• The 12th GRIHA (Green Rating for
145. Ans. B.
Integrated Habitat Assessment)
• India’s central bank, the Reserve
Summit was held virtually. It was
Bank of India (RBI) has set up a 5-
inaugurated by Vice President of India
member internal working group
Venkaiah Naidu virtually. The Summit
(IWG) headed by its Central Board
provides a platform to deliberate on
Director Prasanna Kumar (PK)
innovative technologies and solutions
Mohanty to review ownership
to help in creating robust mechanisms
guidelines and corporate structure for
for developing sustainable and
private banks in light of recent
resilient solutions for the benefit of
developments in the banking sector.
the entire community.
92
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The committee is due to submit its services in an affordable manner, the

report by 30th September 2020. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
• The RBI has asked the panel to released a National Strategy for
review the guidelines and licensing Financial Inclusion (NSFI) 2019-24.
regulations regarding ownership, • NSFI has been finalized and
promoters’ holding, requirement of approved by the Financial Stability
dilution, control and voting rights in Development Council (FSDC). The
private banks. document was formally released by
• In addition, the group will examine Mahesh Kumar Jain, Deputy
and review the eligibility criteria for Governor, RBI.
individuals or entities which/who • Key Recommendations:
apply for a banking license. - There should be universal access to
• Similarly, after issuance of the financial services wherein every
license at the initial/licensing stage, village should have access to a formal
the Panel will look into the existing financial services provider within a 5-
provisions relating to the promoter’s km radius.
shares and make appropriate - The banking outlets of commercial
recommendations. banks to be increased to provide easy
• The IWG will also examine the and hassle-free digital process.
present regulations on holding of - The strengthening of digital financial
financial subsidiaries through a non- services in all tier-II to tier-VI centres
operative financial holding company is required to facilitate a less-cash
(NOFHC) and suggest solutions of society by March 2022.
migrating all banks to a uniform - Every eligible adult should be
regulation. provided with basic financial services
146. Ans. E. like savings account, credit, micro-life
• Payments Infrastructure and non-life insurance products,
Development Fund (PIDF) has been pension product, and a suitable
created to encourage deployment of investment product.
Point of Sale (PoS) infrastructure, - By March 2020, every adult enrolled
both physical and digital, in tier-3 to under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan
tier-6 centres and north eastern Yojna (PMJDY) should be enrolled
states. under an insurance scheme and
• The setting of PIDF is in line with the pension scheme.
measures proposed by the vision - The Public Credit Registry(PCR) has
document on payment and to be made fully operational by March
settlement systems in India 2019- 2022.
2021. 148. Ans. B.
• It is also in line with the RBI’s • Post announcement of
proposal to set up an Acceptance commencement of Test Phase under
Development Fund which will be used the First Cohort on Retail Payments
to develop card acceptance vide Press Release dated November
infrastructure across small towns and 17, 2020, the Reserve Bank now
cities. announces opening of Second Cohort
147. Ans. E. under the Regulatory Sandbox (RS)
• In order to promote financial with 'Cross Border Payments,' as its
literacy among customers and to theme.
provide access to formal financial
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• The first cohort was based on retail • The Jawa and Jawa Forty, two are
payments and two offline payments the brand’s new torch bearers,
ideas 'eRupaya' and 'Payse' were bringing back the classic appeal of
selected by the RBI to push digital Jawa with modern fittings.
payments in the rural areas. • The bikes have an all-new 293cc,
149. Ans. E. liquid cooled, single cylinder, DOHC
• The capital to risk-weighted assets engine nestled within a double cradle
ratio (CRAR) of SCBs edged down to chassis.
14.8 per cent in March 2020, mainly 152. Ans. C.
due to reduction of CRARs of the • National Payment Corporation of
PSBs. India (NPCI) launched UPI AutoPay
• Their RoA continued to be negative feature for recurring payments.
as a group, notwithstanding • With this new facility, customers can
lukewarm credit growth and enable recurring e-mandate using
moderate slippages. any UPI application for recurring
• Among bank groups, PVBs recorded payments such as mobile bills,
a marginal rise in CRAR whereas the electricity bills, EMI payments,
ratio weakened for PSBs and FBs entertainment and OTT subscriptions,
(Chart 2.2 g). insurance, mutual funds and loan
• Tier I leverage ratio contracted in payments, among others of up to
March 2020 for all bank groups ₹2000.
150. Ans. C. • If the amount exceeds ₹2000,
• RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das customers have to execute every
launched Utkarsh 2022, the central mandate with UPI PIN.
banks' medium- term strategy 153. Ans. C.
framework, in line with evolving • The government has notified a
macro-economic environment. "modified" scheme to provide
• The framework has been launched financial assistance to distilleries
to achieve excellence in the producing first-generation ethanol
performance of RBI's mandates and from feedstocks, including cereals.
strengthening the trust of citizens and • The assistance will be given for
other institutions. capacity expansion, setting up of new
• A formal strategic management ethanol distilleries or converting
framework was launched in April 2015 molasses-based distilleries to dual
to re-articulate the core purpose, feedstock.
values and vision statement of the • Under the scheme, the government
RBI so as to delineate its strategic will bear interest subvention for five
objectives in contemporary terms to years, including one-year moratorium
provide a framework and backdrop against the loan availed by project
within and against which its policies proponents from banks at 6 per cent
would be formulated. per annum or 50 per cent of the rate
151. Ans. A. of interest charged by banks
• Jawa, the iconic Czech motorcycle whichever is lower, for setting up of
brand, has been reborn under the new distilleries or expansion of
ownership of the Mahindra group as existing distilleries or converting
the company launched the first range molasses-based distilleries to dual
in India. feedstock.
154. Ans. C.
94
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• The Union Cabinet has recently

extended the pension plan till 31
March 2023 which is a social security
scheme for senior citizens.
• LIC is solely authorised to operate
this scheme that offers a total payout
not exceeding Rs 15 lakhs.
• The scheme is a Non-Linked, Non-
Participating, Pension Scheme
subsidised by the Centre.
• The policy has a 10-year tenure and
for policies sold in the 1st financial
year March 2021, the scheme will
offer an assured rate of return of
7.40% per annum, but will be paid
monthly for the entire 10 year period.
• For policies sold over the next two
fiscal years, the applicable assured
interest rate will be reviewed and
decided by the government at the
beginning of each financial year.
• Senior citizens can draw a minimum
pension of Rs 1,000 per month(p.m)
depending on the amount invested in
the scheme. The maximum pension
amount is limited at Rs 10,000 p.m
95

Sbi Po Mains 2020 Question Paper 13

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SBI PO 2020 (Main)

Previous Year Solved

Direction: Read the given passage discontinuous tree canopy. However,

this is going to reduce ungulate grass ecosystems were distinctive

Historically, indigenous people in negatively affect large carnivores

tree-grass ecosystems, find a series plants and altering the structure of

recovery has assuaged some safety and sanitation standard for

10.Which of the following sentences and prevent domestic tourism and

I. Wind projects cooking (A) D. B-D & A-E

E. None of these Rodney’s sculpture shows the process

Land of Milk and Honey II was A. Encompassed

29.Find out the appropriate word in Direction: Study the information

32.Find out the appropriate word in 35.

Find the total investment of A, B and

Direction: Each question below

40. B. Only a and b

minimum number of basic sessions D. 320 L

Direction: Study the following

Total Maximum Marks = Maximum

E. B, Rs. 1,00,000 The line graph given below shows the

61.In the tournament, total points

66.If 25 orders were returned on

71.What is the difference between the A * B = A is the father of B

B. Only statement II is sufficient 78.Six people have off on different

A. % (45) number of boxes is kept above the

B. Five leaders to sign an agreement

counter-productive” to support Coomaraswamy, who was a part of

96.Which of the following is/are a people have meeting after W is same

before M. N was born before L but information in three statements I, II

E. None of these journals checking for plagiarism at

123.Who amongst the following is the C. Punjab

C. Equitas Small Finance Bank D. 2027

134.Which country ranks immediately 139.The Asian Development Bank

136.Satpura Tiger Reserve is located 141.12th GRIHA Summit was

143.Which entity hold 51 percent services in an affordable manner, the

147.In order to promote financial 151.Which company owned the iconic

and roots' underground, protecting suppression policy”. Since, the

experience. Assumptions are soil. The passage also mentions that

disastrous effect on the world’s Therefore, ‘and’ must be replaced

and D make a pair but the connector 32. Ans. A.

Investments of A, B, C are Rs. 800, Probability of picking a green ball =

So profit share of A = 19350 = No. of green balls = 30

Investment of A = Rs. (800 + 3x + ⇒ x = 10

Probability of picking a green ball =

{ Using identity p3 q3 = (p q)(p2 +

Number of orange balls = 15

i.e., c > d d = c + [(x + 3)2 + y] = 28 + [(1 +

c = b + [(x + 2)2 + y] = 21 + [(1 + 180x = Rs. (100x + 160)

Above equation is satisfied when, x = Amount of mixture left after the

Ratio of milk & water in Mixture M will

Required Profit Percentage = ×

Let marks obtained by B in written

Marks obtained by D in written exam Let the marks scored by X in written

So, required average = = 58 in the match = = 3

Total number of orders returned till

Remaining Orders = 100% – 95% = Total number of orders delivered from

(In Case 1: There is no position left

3) The one who is 43 years old faces

6) S sits opposite to U who does not

11) T is 7 years younger than her