CIVIL Engineering Interview Questions 2021

civil engineering interview questions and answers pdf download for freshers
experienced civil engineer book entrance questions

1. What are the causes of building collapse?

The passage of time is one reason. Buildings also collapse due to weak
foundations. Earthquakes, hurricanes and other natural disasters can also
damage the structure of the buildings and cause it to collapse. Bombings or
demolition of buildings is also other reasons.

2. What is Civil Engineering ?

Civil engineering is arguably the oldest engineering discipline. It deals with the
designed setting and may be dated to the primary time somebody placed a
roof over his or her head or set a stalk across a stream to form it easier to
urge across.

The designed setting encompasses abundant of what defines fashionable

civilization. Buildings and bridges area unit usually the primary constructions
that come back to mind, as they’re the foremost conspicuous creations of
structural engineering, one in every of civil engineering’s major sub-disciplines.
Roads, railroads, subway systems, and airports area unit designed by
transportation engineers, another class of engineering. so there area unit the
less visible creations of civil engineers. each time you open a water tap, you
expect water to return out, doltishly that civil engineers created it attainable.
the big apple town has one in every of the world’s most spectacular water
system systems, receiving billions of gallons of high-quality water from the
mountain chain over 100 miles away. Similarly, not many of us appear to fret
regarding what happens to the water once it’s served its functions. The recent
engineering discipline of sanitary engineering has evolved into fashionable
environmental engineering of such significance that almost all educational
departments have modified their names to civil and environmental
engineering.

These few examples illustrate that civil engineers do lots quite style buildings
and bridges. they’ll be found within the region business, coming up with
jetliners and house stations; within the automotive business, perfecting the
load-carrying capability of a chassis and rising the crash worthiness of
bumpers and doors; and that they is found within the ship building business,
the ability business, and lots of different industries where made facilities area
unit concerned. and that they arrange and supervise the development of those
facilities as construction managers.

3. What are the applications of modulus of elasticity?

As the term implies, “Modulus of Elasticity” relates to the elasticity or
“flexibility” of a material. The value of modulus of elasticity is very much
significant relating to deflection of certain materials used in the construction
industry. Take for example the general E value of mild carbon steel is about
200 Gpa compared to about 70 Gpa for aluminum. This simply translate that
aluminum is 3 times flexible than steel.

4. Define What is the difference between routing maintenance and major

maintenance in school facilities?

 The routine maintenance is the minor and consistent repairs that are
engaged in the school premises. Examples could include painting,
replacement of fixtures, louver blades, furniture repairs, and patching
cracks in the school buildings.
 The major maintenance could also be a total rehabilitation of the
school, either school buildings or any other project within the school
community. It could be total restructuring of the lighting system in the
school or sanitary system.

5. How are freeway bridges built?

After calculating the anticipated traffic for the bridge, cement/reinforced- with-
rebar stanchions are spaced over the freeway to accommodate the bridge. An
‘off-ramp’ from the freeway to the bridge is constructed, as is an ‘on-ramp’ to
the subsequent road. Cement/rebar slabs are built and lifted with cranes to
form the platform, and voila! Drive carefully.
Although the bridge deck/roadway is almost always a concrete slab, the
structure that holds up the bridge deck can be reinforced concrete, structural
steel, or a combination of steel and concrete.

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6. What is the difference between absorption & adsorption and sorption?

 Absorption generally refers to two phenomena, which are largely

unrelated. In one case, it refers to when atoms, molecules, or ions enter
some bulk phase – gas, liquid or solid material. For instance, a sponge
absorbs water when it is dry.
  Absorption also refers to the process by which the energy of a photon is
taken up by another entity, for example, by an atom whose valence
electrons make transition between two electronic energy levels. The
photon is destroyed in the process. The absorbed energy may be re-
emitted as radiant energy or transformed into heat energy. The
absorption of light during wave propagation is often called attenuation.
The tools of spectroscopy in chemistry are based on the absorption of
photons by atoms and molecules.
 Adsorption is similar, but refers to a surface rather than a volume:
adsorption is a process that occurs when a gas or liquid solute
accumulates on the surface of a solid or, more rarely, a liquid
(adsorbent), forming a molecular or atomic film (the adsorb-ate). It is
different from absorption, in which a substance diffuses into a liquid or
solid to form a solution.

7. How do you measure concrete?

Cubic feet, Cubic yards, Cubic Meter

8. Define What is the tallest man made structure in the world?

The tallest man made structure is the KVLY-TV mast which is 2063 feet tall.
The worlds tallest man made structure is Burj Dubai which is 800 meter tall.

9. Define What are the uses of alloys in daily life and how are alloys made?

 Alloying is not always done to produce a ‘superior’ material, but to

produce materials having a desired requirement in the industry or
elsewhere. A classic case is of lead solder (containing lead & tin), in
which the melting point of the constituent elements are lowered, not
necessarily a desirable property.
 Alloying can be carried out using hot press method (a sheet of material
is sandwiched with alloying material), rolling the heated base metal in a
drum full of alloying metal powder, using hot spraying, galvanizing
(dipping the base in a molten solution of alloying material) etc.
Sometimes the alloying material is added in small proportions to the
molten base metal (e.g., in production of different types of steel).

10. What is the worlds largest concrete dam?

The Grand Coulee Dam is said to be the largest concrete dam. Currently the
world’s largest concrete dam is the Itaipu Dam, an accomplishment of two
neighboring countries, Brazil and paraguay in South America.
Though it is not finished yet, the Three Gorges (or Sandapong) Dam on the
Yangtze River in China will take over as the largest upon its completion, which
is slated for 2009.

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11. What is braced excavation all about?

Excavations are braced to prevent the cave-in of surrounding unstable soil.

12. What is the meaning of soil reinforcement?

Soil reinforcement is the act of improving soil strength to enable it support or
carry more load.
Two common examples are:

1. Mixing a soil amendment such as lime into weak clayey soil and re-
compacting to improve soil-bearing capacity (often done under the road
base in highway construction)
2. Installing plastic or composite webbing layers (called geo-grid material)
alternating with compacted soil to produce a stronger sloped soil
structure (often done on steep roadway embankments to improve
strength and stability)

13. Define What is aggregate?

Aggregate is the component of a composite material used to resist
compressive stress.

14. What year was the keystone power plant in Indiana County constructed?
1967 began commercial operation on unit 1.

15. Define What is the force exerted by the Tacoma narrows bridge?
The force exerted to the Tacoma narrows bridge was initially the wind
resistance. The wind resistance caused the whole bridge to act as a system
with forced vibration with damping.

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16. How do you calculate the power of a centrifugal pump?

The input power, that is, the power required to operate the pump should be
stated in Hp (horsepower) on the pump’s nameplate. It can also be calculated
by the 3-phase power equation:
P(in Hp) = VI(1.7c) = Rated Voltage x Rated Current x 1.73/ %Efficiency
If this is a consumer grade pump that operates on 120Vac, then the equation
becomes P = VI, simply multiply the operating voltage, 120 x current (which is
the number followed by the letter “A”.

The output power, which really is not technically power, but rated in Gpm
(gallons per minute), or capacity should also be on the nameplate. If you have
the make, model, and (not necessarily needed) the serial number (also on the
nameplate) you could call the manufacturer’s customer service dept. As an
application engineer, I have contacted countless manufacturers’, and service
dept’s for assistance. It is now big deal to them, they will be happy to answer
your questions.

17. Why nautical mile is different from statute mile?

One nautical mile is defined by one latitude minute of arc (there are 60 such
minutes to a degree). This equals 1852 meters, and roughly (but
coincidentally) 2000 yards or 6000 feet. (Edit: actually, a standard nautical
mile is 6076 feet, 6000 feet and 2000 yards are commonly used
approximations, but produce an error of about 1%).
The statute mile had a little fuzzier definition to start with, as one mile was the
same as 1000 roman paces/steps. The definition has since changed, but one
statute mile equals about 1609 meters.

18. Define What is rigging?

In sailing, the ropes used to move the sails around so the boat will move in the
right direction when the wind blows.

19. What is absolute pressure?

Absolute pressure is simply the addition of the observed gage pressure plus
the value of the local atmospheric pressure.

20. How do we calculate absolute pressure?

Absolute is equal to gauge pressure plus atmospheric.

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21. What is Gravity flow?

Gravity flow is fluid flowing due to the forces of gravity alone and not to an
applied pressure head. In the Bernoulli equation, the pressure term is omitted,
and the height and velocity terms are the only ones included.

22. What is horizon or horizontal mining?

  Horizon or horizontal mining can be applied to extraction of material
from seams of any stratified mineral such as limestone or ironstone, but
it is more usually associated with coal – particularly where there are
several seams that are inclined or folded and/or faulted.
 Horizon mining involves long level roadways (horizons) being driven
from the shafts to the extremity of the area to be mined.
 The levels of the horizons are chosen to intersect the maximum number
of seams the maximum number of times. As the seams are intersected,
headings will be driven into the seam so that the desired material may
be extracted. This method of mining requires a thorough understanding
of the geological structure of the area to be mined so that the level of
the horizons can be chosen for optimum results.
 This method of mining is popular in modern coalmines with seams
worked from several horizons. The considerable capital outlay of driving
horizons before production can begin is recouped by the advantage of
having long straight level roadways of generous dimensions unaffected
by the crushing effect of nearby extraction of the mineral.

23. What is the difference between engineering stress and true stress?
In biology, Stress is something that disrupts homeostasis of an organism. In
engineering, Stress is an external force that pushes, pulls, twists, or otherwise
puts force on something.
Engineering stress assumes that the area a force is acting upon remains
constant, true stress takes into account the reduction in area caused by the
force.

24. Define What is a kip?

1 kip = 1000 lbs

25. What are some structures that may be subjected to fatigue?

Bridges, hydraulic presses, burners trains

26. Will going from a 3-tap to 6-tap increase water pressure?

No, the pressure will be the same, you will get more volume only if your pumps
can handle the GPM, to increase pressure you may need a booster pump or a
single pump that is rated for your needs.

27. Why does the pressure increase under soil?

Soil pressure increases with depth due to the overburden or self-weight of the
soil and due to loads imposed upon the soil.
For example, the pressure variation below the depth of soil is linear and the
relation is given by pressure = unit wt * depth. As depth increases, there will be
a linear increase in the soil pressure.

28. Define What is the distance between railway tracks?

4 feet, 8 1/2 inches

29. How high should the water tank be to provide a 60 PSI at base of this
water tower?
138.60ft
2.31ft of water= 1 PSI

30. Define What are the reasons for geotechnical site investigations in
Uganda?

 To know the soil properties, in so doing be in position to determine

whether the particular site is suitable for the purpose intended
 To know the history of the site
 To know what remedies need to be put in place before construction can
start
 Based on the soil properties, that can be determined on site and in the
lab, design the appropriate foundation for the structure.

31. What do you mean by honeycomb in concrete?

Some people call it an air pocket in the concrete or a void.

32. What is the purpose of the gap in the road on this bridge?
Purpose of the gap in the road is to allow the road to expand and contract with
temperature changes without causing damage or deformation to the road.

33. Define What is the tensile strength of wood?

The tensile strength of a material is the value at which the material fails when
subjected to a tensile force. (Tensile means a force pulling the wood fibers
lengthwise, as opposed to a compression force.) There are a lot of different
types and load cases for wood, so there is not one answer to this question.
For example, wood used outside will fail at a lower load than wood inside.
Wood is also an isotropic, i.e. it has different strength in different directions.
Example values of tensile strength vary anywhere from 175 pounds per square
inch for Utility Grade pine to 1400 PSI for Dense Select Structural grade
Douglas Fir. A good reference for material strength data for most species and
grades of commercially available wood can be found in the American Institute
of Timber Construction handbook.
34. How many Lbs are there in a yard?
A pound (Lb) is a unit of measurement for weight while a yard is a unit of
measurement for distance.
If you are referring to common measurements used on a construction site, a
“yard” is a common abbreviation for a “cubic yard”, which is a unit of
measurement of volume. (A cubic yard equals 27 cubic feet.)
Since dirt weighs about 110 pounds per cubic feet, a cubic yard of dirt weighs
about 2970 Lbs. Since concrete is heavier (150 PCF), a cubic yard of concrete
weighs about 4050 Lbs.

35. Define What is a projection line?

Projection line is the way, in which the earth is shown on a flat piece of paper.

36. What are moment of inertia and its importance in civil engineering?
The moment of inertia measures the opposition any kind of body will have
against a certain momentum (along that same axis) trying to rotate that body.

37. Define What is the origin of name Railway Sleepers?

When sleepers were added below the railway, lines the trains ran more
smoothly and people fell asleep on their journeys.

38. What is BMC stands for in BMC Software?

BMC Software founders Scott Boulette, John Moores, and Dan Cloer began a
contract programming partnership that operated in and around Houston,
Texas.

39. Does brick grows bigger every year.

Usually bricks do not grow, but since stuff gets all over, it looks like it grows.

40. How did street originate in the plumbing term street ell?
A “street ell” may have gotten its name because it describes a 90° fitting
particularly useful in tight, street ditches. When installing water pipes under a
street, or from a water service, again under the street, into a home or business,
this street ell allows one to change pipe direction with one less fitting, and in
less space, than with a standard ell.

41. What is the absolute pressure scale?

Absolute pressure is calculated from a vacuum (0 PSI) and atmospheric
pressure is14.7PSIa or 14.7 PSI above a vacuum 1PSI on a tire pressure
gauge is called 1PSIg = 15.7PSIa 10PSIg=24.7PSIa 100PSIg=114.7PSIa etc.
42. What is the difference between QA and QC?
Many people and organizations are confused about the difference between
quality assurance (QA), quality control (QC), and testing. They are closely
related, but they are different concepts. Since all three are necessary to
manage the risks of developing and maintaining software, it is important for
software managers to understand the differences. They are defined below:

1. Quality Assurance: A set of activities designed to ensure that the

development and/or maintenance process is adequate to ensure a
system will meet its objectives.
2. Quality Control: A set of activities designed to evaluate a developed
work product.
3. Testing is the process of executing a system with the intent of finding
defects. (Note that the “process of executing a system” includes test
planning prior to the execution of the test cases.)

43. How did the Romans get water up hills using aqua ducts?
Technically, the Romans were not able to get water to move uphill in a general
sense. All aqueducts move water from an elevated source (spring-fed streams
in the mountains) to end-users at a lower elevation. The water flows almost
entirely downhill from the source to the end user. If the water needed to cross
a valley, the Romans would build an arched structure with an elevated channel
to cross the valley, but even this channel would have a vary slight downhill
gradient that allowed water to flow towards the end user. If a large hill was in
their way, the Romans would either divert the channel around the hill, dig a
trench through the hill, or dig a tunnel through the hill, all while maintaining a
fairly constant, slight downhill gradient towards the end user.

The only exception to the rule of a generally constant downhill slope to the
water channel is that specific tunnel segments, the Romans could build the
tunnel as an inverted siphon (mentioned above) to cross a depression or
valley and raise the water level on the downhill side almost to the level of the
uphill side. To do this requires a well-sealed tunnel strong enough to
withstand the increased water pressure within the siphon. Note, however, that
except for gaining a little bit of elevation if you slow down fast-moving water,
you normally cannot get water to flow out of the outlet at a higher elevation
than the inlet. So technically, even the Romans were not able to get water to
flow “up a hill”.

44. Will Water damage concrete?

As far as only concrete is concerned i.e. plain concrete, the effect of water
seepage is very little (depending upon the grade of concrete) whereas for RCC
(reinforced cement concrete) water that seeps in corrodes the reinforcement
and thus reduces the life of the structure. The defects that water seepage
induces in concrete are as follows:

 induces capillary formation (due to the deteriorating characteristics of

water)
 With this capillaries the concrete starts spalling out; i.e. the places
where capillaries are formed, with even slight amount of stress that
portion comes out and exposes the steel to the atmosphere
 Concrete has a pH of about 12 -13. It also reduces the pH of the
concrete when in salty water (or) when exposed to marshy areas.
 Reduces the overall strength of concrete
 Reduces durability
 Reduces permeability to further water seepage
 Results in ageing of structures

45. How do you determine Specific gravity of cement?

Cement is usually purchased as a powdery substance that is mixed with sand,
aggregate, gravel, and water to form concrete. Since the cement itself is
usually a powder, it is hard to measure a standard value for its specific gravity.
In addition, since cement is usually not used by itself, knowing its specific
gravity is not particularly useful.
A more useful question is “What is the typical density of concrete?” A rule of
thumb answer is that normal cured concrete has a density of about 150
pounds per cubic foot. This includes the weight of the cement, sand,
aggregate, and that part of the water that chemically binds with the cement to
form the concrete. Since water weighs about 62.4 pounds per cubic feet,
concrete is about 2.4 times as heavy. Thus, the specific gravity of concrete is
about 2.4. If you took cement and mixed it with water, you would eventually
have a hard lump of useless cement and it would also have a specific gravity
of between 2 and 2.4.

46. Define What is the meaning of a blue land surveyors flag?

If the flag was placed by Utility personnel responding to a “One-call” locate
request, the blue flag indicates a buried water line. You see these marked
when a contractor calls the “Call before you dig number” a couple of days prior
to excavating. This is required by law in each state to reduce the likelihood of
damaging underground utilities when excavating.
The standard color code used by almost all utility companies for painting &
flags is:
  White – “Here is the area I plan on excavating!”
 Blue – water line
 Red -electricity
 Yellow -natural gas
 Green -sewer
 Orange -telephone and/or fiber optic line

If the blue flagging was a fuzzy blue marker nailed to the top of a wood
surveyor’s stake, then it probably serves to indicate the top of the grade at
which the engineer wants the earthmoving equipment to place fill dirt. These
are called “blue-top” stakes.

47. What are advancements in civil engineering?

Unlike other fields of engineering, the major advancement of the filed has
been in the early years of the century before the last century where the use of
concrete technology is advanced. The use of cement as a construction
material is since the turn of the last century, improvement in the field increase
by the use of steel elements in the construction of buildings and bridges of
various types. With the help of two, it was possible to do multistory buildings
in the world.
Machineries were created to speed up the construction structures. The last
century has also seen the advent of sophisticated design to withstand the
effect of earthquake that was not possible before. With the use of computers,
development of model and analysis of structures under the effect of loads
was made possible. Before just two decades, it used to take months and
months to design high-rise building and big bridges. Now it is a matter of
hours.

48. Why is the statue of liberty made of copper?

Copper is a very durable material when exposed to weather and is soft enough
that it can be easily molded to curved shapes such as those in the Statue of
Liberty. It is also traditionally used in buildings for complex roofs, so there
would have been trades people available trained to use it.
Other metals that can be molded are lead but it does not have the attractive
verdigris color, and gold much is more expensive

49. Are cruise ships built for the transatlantic run?

The Queen Mary 2 was built for transatlantic crossings, but much smaller
ships can make the crossing easily. In 1995, I crossed the Atlantic from New
York to the Azores on the Royal Princess (which was not the same ship as the
current Royal Princess), which was about one-fourth the size of the QM2. Just
about any seaworthy passenger ship can navigate the Atlantic safely, if not
comfortably.

50. Define What is diversion tunnel in a dam?

When a dam is to be built, a diversion tunnel is usually bored through solid
rock next to the dam site to bypass the dam construction site. The dam is
built while the river flows through the diversion tunnel.

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51. What distance in meters on the ground is the equivalent of one second of
arc in longitude or latitude?

1. One minute of arc as measured at the center of the Earth covers one
nautical mile on the surface of the Earth at mean sea level. One nautical
mile is 6080 feet or 1853.2 meters. Therefore one second of arc would
be 6080 / 60 = 101.3 feet or 30.886 meters.
2. Lines of latitude are at regular intervals parallel to the equator. The
relationship between degrees of latitude and the distance spanned on
the earth’s surface remains constant. Therefore at all latitudes 1 minute
of latitude spans 1 nautical mile on the earths surface.
3. Lines of longitude converge at the poles. Therefore, the relationship
between degrees of longitude and the distance spanned on the earth’s
surface is reduced as the poles are approached.
4. At the equator, the distance spanned by 1 minute of longitude would be
1 nautical mile. At the poles, it would be zero. To calculate the actual
distance on the surface of the earth between two points of known
latitude and longitude requires knowledge of spherical trigonometry to
calculate the great circle distance between the two points.
5. The distances quoted are for the surface of the earth at mean sea level.
Distances will be increased above sea level and reduced below it.

52. How do you maintain water pressure?

If you have water pressure and wish to maintain it, do not cause flow in the
line, which will reduce pressure due to friction. To keep pressure up, reduce
friction by increasing the line size or eliminating some other restriction.

53. What are some facts about concrete?

Actually, drying is not directly linked to hardness in concrete. After concrete is
poured, putting it in a wet environment by spraying it constantly with water will
hasten its hardening and its curing. After concrete cures, it is hard.

54. Define Who designed the city of Washington DC?

Pierre L’enfant

55. Where is the worlds longest elevator and how long is it?
Gold mines in South Africa go a few kilometers below the surface. The
deepest mine now is the Mponeng Mine in the Orange Free State. The depth
of the mine is well over 3000m from the surface and is getting deeper. The lift
itself descends 3037m to a point 1200m below sea level. It takes 4 minutes.

56. How many kilo-Newtons equals 1000 kilogram?

When the 1000 kg are at rest, on Earth with gravitational acceleration 9.81
m/s2, 1000 kg equal 9.81 kN.

57. How is the Leaning Tower of Pisa supported?

In the same manner, it was supported when it was constructed. However, it
has gotten some “help” over the years.
In the last couple of decades, the responsible parties rolled up their sleeves
and removed something approaching 40 meters3 of earth from under the
higher side of the structure. This had the effect of straightening it toward the
vertical by about a foot and a half at the top. For the first time in its history, it
is no longer moving. In addition, in the good-news corner of the paper is that it
is open to the public again. In addition, the folks who lived near the tower in
the direction it was leaning have returned to their homes and do not have to
sleep with an eye and an ear open.

58. What does civil engineering mean?

They do many interesting things. Their job has to do a lot with design and
construction. They can tell you what works and what will not for all sorts of
situations. There is a lot of mathematics involved along with many other
disciplines. They have to have a good solid understanding of how the
environment works and how nature interacts with man made. They are
probably best known for designing bridges, interstates, skyscrapers, canals,
and so forth.

59. How long does it take concrete to harden?

It takes 28 days to cure.
60. What is the biggest dam in America?
The Grand Coulee Dam – Grand Coulee, Washington

1. Length 5,223 ft
2. Height 550 ft

61. How does siphoning work?

Pretty good if the outside hose is a lot lower than the inside hose. The siphon
works by a hose stuck in a fluid container higher than the receiving container.
Suction is shortly placed on the lower side of the hose until the fluid is flowing
down the down line. Gravity will cause a continued flow.

62. Why was the Empire State Building made of steel?

 Strength–Steel is very strong

 Flexibility–Ability to flex in the wind
 Cost–Inexpensive and fast to build; prefab construction
 Concrete, a possible alternative, has less compressive strength than
steel. The bottom support structure of the empire state building would
consist of a large percentage of solid concrete simply to support the
weight of the building.

63. What is the quantity of cement in Mix M20 concrete?

For nominal Mix Cement consumption for M25 will be 570 kg per cum. and for
Design Mix it can be optimized to 510 kg per cum.

64. Define What is unit weight of normal concrete?

145 PCF

65. What is the difference between shear and tensile strength?

Tensile Strength for a Bolt is determined by applying a Force along it long axis.
Shear Strength for a Bolt is determined by applying a Force across its
diameter, as it would be loaded in a lug joint.

66. How many Pyramid in Egypt?

About 80

67. Would you cause a 55-gallon drum of water to weigh more by climbing
in?
A person will sink in water if he is not holding enough air in his lungs to keep
him floating. Therefore, the person weighs more than the amount of water that
he will displace.
68. Who built the sears tower?
While he did not build the structure (he died in l959), there is some evidence
the idea was suggested under a different name (Illinois Building) by Frank
Lloyd Wright, one of the few true skyscrapers in which he had a role. The
original design for the Illinois Building would have topped off at 5,280 Feet!
The Swears tower is a quarter of this at most, but there are similarities.

69. At what point does a circle start losing area when being flattened?
The area ratio decreases slowly at first then more rapidly.
The area of an ellipse is A=pi x a X b, a and b are the 1/2 major and 1/2 minor
axis. If a = r = b the area is A=pi X r2, which is a circle. Not hard to graph this
but you will have to write the area of the ellipse in terms of the circumference.

70. How do you compute volume of airflow?

Orifice meter is used for measuring flow rate air.

71. Define What is made from large rocks, which protects the base of cliffs?
Stacks

72. Why are the bolts that hold steel rails together in oval holes?
It has to do with the design of the bolts. The reason that head of the bolt is
oval. The head of a bolt fit flush into the bar and set in opposing sets is so that
a piece of dragging equipment will not shear off all the bolts in a joint but
rather the just the nuts one side. As a result, if the hole were not oval on one
side there would be no way to tighten or loose the bolts in a joint.

73. Define What are the materials used in building a gravity dam?
There are many gravity dams constructed of compacted earth. High dams are
generally concrete. All dams require a spillway to be safe. The spillway must
be armored.

74. How many feet are in 4 square yards?

There are 9 square feet in a square yard therefore there are 36 square feet in 4
square yards.

75. What black man invented the clothes dryer?

George T. Sampson

76. What is the average density of soil?

For purposes of civil engineering, an average soil will have a density of about
100 to 110 pounds per cubic foot. (This can vary a little depending upon how
well compacted the soil is.)
77. Define What glue is least sticky?
Elmer’s glue is least sticky.

78. What are the strongest shapes in building?

The pillars

79. Which architectural movement is also known as Jazz Moderna?

Art nouveau

80. What is the withdrawal force of steel nails?

In engineering, the code-allowable withdrawal force is zero, because the wood
expands and contracts over time and the nail pullout force can reduce to zero.

81. What is the strongest bridge for a school contest?

If you are making a spaghetti bridge, bunch it all together in a triangular prism
or a big brick and just fill the gaps with paste.

82. What is the formula for figuring out how many gallons of water are in a
pipe by the foot?
0.61 * d2, where d is the diameter of the pipe in inches.

civil engineering interview questions

83. What is the tensile strength of marble?

Tensile Strength, Ultimate 7.00 – 20.0 Mpa 1020 – 2900 PSI
this is the strength in a pure tension test. For bending use:
Modulus of Rupture 0.00410 – 0.0276 Gpa 0.595 – 4.00 ksi

84. Did any of the Egyptian pyramids ever fall down?

Yes, many did. The great pyramid and others that have survived did so for a
reason. Their shapes made them sturdier over time and were not the first
design. Many steppe pyramids were built but were too steep and as the
corners eroded, the whole pyramid fell under its own weight. They were built
too steep and did not have the base structure as seen in the great pyramid.

85. Can a wave happen in the middle of the ocean like in the movie Poseidon
2006?
Yes. Rogue waves have been known to capsize ships.

86. Define What materials were used to build the Golden Gate Bridge?
Its materials were steel and concrete.
87. What is the density of most of construction materials?
If it floats it is less dense than water, 62.4 lbs/cubic ft. Wood is about 40 lbs/
cu.ft.–it floats. Concrete is 150 lbs. / cu.ft. — It does not float.

88. How and where are aqueducts built?

Aqueducts are built in areas where you have a bunch of motivated end users
(like a town or group of farmers) at a low elevation in need of a more reliable
source of water located somewhere fairly nearby at a higher elevation. The
aqueduct builders construct a series of canals, elevated channels, and tunnels
as required to get the water from the source to the end users. Some good
examples:

1. Roman engineers built aqueducts throughout Italy and France from

mountain water sources to serve city dwellers
2. Water-needy Southern California cities and farms are served by an
aqueduct that brings them water from sources in Northern California
3. New York City is supplied by an aqueduct and tunnel system from
sources upstate.
4. Inca farmers in coastal valleys built irrigation aqueducts from sources
higher up in the Rockies
5. Native American cultures in Phoenix area built irrigation canal systems
that diverted water from sources at higher elevations to irrigate their
crops.

89. Define What does civil status mean?

Civil means like, when you do not get on with someone, but only talk when you
have to. Alternatively, when you do talk you do not argue. Alternatively, if you
are with someone who is of your both friends and family, you do not ruin it for
them.

civil engineering interview questions

90. What are the advantages and disadvantages of lead products in

construction?

 Disadvantages: -Lead is very toxic; its use can result in pollution of the

ground and more importantly of water supplies. This leads to the
contamination of drinking water and can cause hazards to human
health as well as disrupting entire ecosystems.
 Advantages: Because of its toxicity, lead is being bought less and less
around the world, which of course results in the lowering of its cost. In
 addition, lead melts at a relatively low temperature, making it great for
solder. However, recently the Chinese have show an interest in buying
mass quantities to manufacture batteries made from a base of lead so
the price of this metal may soon rise.

91. How do you measure water flowing through 300mm diameter pipes?
Same as in inches 3.14159265 and PSI have to be known.

92. Define the various stages of the project planning process in construction.
First stage could be Briefing and Inception.

93. How do you convert wind speed into force?

Therometer

94. What is kn measurement?

kn (both letters lowercase) is knots, which is a speed nautical miles per hour.

95. What are the advantages of building a dam on the river Nile?
It is the same as building a dam on any river. Dams are built to control
flooding downstream during the wet season, generate power year round, and
provide irrigation in the dry season.

96. How much does the leaning tower of Pisa lean?

About 14 feet

97. Define What is the best type of wood glue?

Noob

98. Define What are the uses of Groynes?

They prevent, or slow down erosion, and stop long shore drift. This, however,
can have bad knock-on effects somewhere near.

99. What are the functions of a column in a building?

A column is used to support the weight of the roof and/or the upper floors.
Now days, many columns are used for decorative purposes. A column along
with load bearing beams can support a lot of weight.

civil engineering interview questions

100. Define What is an ice dam sock?

If you have never used a ice dam melting sock on your roof before, you will
find that they provide an inexpensive method for removing roof ice dams and
improving your home’s heating efficiency. Roof ice dams are an annoying
source of roof damage, leaks, and heat loss in the winter. The main causes
are drip melt from improperly capped warm air vent pipes and poor roof
insulation. Laying a ice melt sock onto the roof so it crosses the ice dam and
overhangs the gutter, will melt through the snow and ice and create a channel
for water to flow down into the gutters or off the roof. If done properly those
ice sickles that form as the snow melts from the edges of the gutters will
never appear, they too are a cause of much damage and are dangerous to life
and limb.

CIVIL ENGINEERING Questions Answers

101. Define What happens to Load at yielding ?

A yield strength or yield point is the material property defined as the stress at
which a material begins to deform plastically. Prior to the yield point the
material will deform elastically and will return to its original shape when the
applied stress is removed.Once the yield point is passed, some fraction of the
deformation will be permanent and non-reversible. In the three-dimensional
space of the principal stresses ( \sigma_1, \sigma_2 , \sigma_3), an infinite
number of yield points form together a yield surface.

The yield point determines the limits of performance for mechanical

components, since it represents the upper limit to forces that can be applied
without permanent deformation. In structural engineering, this is a soft failure
mode which does not normally cause catastrophic failure or ultimate failure
unless it accelerates buckling.

Yield strength is the critical material property exploited by many fundamental

techniques of material-working: to reshape material with pressure (such as
forging, rolling, or pressing), to separate material by cutting (such as
machining) or shearing, and to join components rigidly with fasteners.

102. What is Critical path in Ms-Project ?

The Critical Path consists of a series of tasks that must be completed on
schedule for a project to finish on schedule. It is the series of tasks (or even a
single task) that dictates the calculated finish date. Each task on the critical
path is a critical task.

103. where will be the reinforcement of slab placed when there is an inverted
beam and the bottom of the beam and slab are at same level ?
Irrespective of the type of reinforced concrete flexural element, the
fundamental requirement is that tension reinforcement must be placed in that
portion of the section which has tensile stresses. Depending upon the type of
element and loading, tensile stresses may not be on the same (top or bottom)
edge of the section. But it is very easy to determine the portion of the length of
the element where tension is at the top and where it is at the bottom, by
studying the bending moment diagram of the element. Reinforcement is
placed on the compression side of the elements when it is required to
increase the moment carrying capacity of the section beyond the limit
possible for an under-reinforced section. Replacing a portion of concrete in
compression by steel results in the compressive force and adding a little extra
tension steel to balance the additional compression makes it possible to
increase the moment of resistance without increasing the depth of the
section.

Having said that, an inverted beam (with slab flush with the bottom of the
beam) reverses the location of flange but not the bending moment
distribution. So, positioning of reinforcement would be the same as an a
normal beam. But it has an impact on the amount of reinforcement because
of the changed flange location.

civil engineering interview questions

104. Define What is passive earth pressure ?

Passive earth pressure is the highest limiting lateral pressure developed at the
onset of shear failure by wall moving (penetrating) in the direction opposite to
the direction of acting earth pressure (minimal wall rotation necessary for the
evolution of passive earth pressure is about 10 mrad, i.e. 10 mm/m of the wall
height). In most expressions used to compute the passive earth pressure the
sign convention is assumed such that the usual values of δ corresponding to
vertical direction of the friction resultant are negative. The program, however,
assumes these values to be positive. A seldom variant with friction acting
upwards is not considered in the program.

105. Which condition will prevail for the design of a swimming pool ? when
the pool is empty or when it is filled ?
Depends on many factors – like in-ground vs above-ground – but both is a
good answer – in-ground an empty pool has to withstand the force of the
earth pushing on it. Both when filled have to handle the force of the water on
the shape of the walls and bottom.
106. Which is stronger solid steel rod or hollow steel pipe?
On a per pound basis, steel pipe is stronger in bending and is less likely to
buckle in axial compression.

107. What is reinforced concrete?

Reinforced concrete have steels bars or mesh in them, which gives extra
strength to the construction.

civil engineering interview questions

108. What are the different types of foundation?

Three main types of foundation are

1. Basement: In this a basement is prepared first on top of it building is

constructed
2. Crawl space: A crawl space is a raised foundation, it is built above the
ground, just allowing enough space to crawl underneath
3. Slab: In this foundation, concrete is directly poured into the pit made in
the ground.

109. What is Hybrid Foundation?

Hybrid Foundation is usually used for high rise building, it contains both soil
supported mat and piles. This type of foundation is helpful in reducing the
amount of the settlement.

110. What are the common ways of demolition?

 Hydro-demolition
 Pressure Bursting
 Dismantling

111. What is floating slab foundation?

A floating concrete foundation is a type of mat foundation that consists of the

hollow mat formed by a grid of thick reinforced concrete walls between two
thick reinforced concrete slabs.

112. What is flashing?

Flashing is an extended construction that is done to seal and protects joints in
a building from water penetration. Flashing is installed at the intersecting
roofs, walls and parapets.

113. Define different types of roof systems?

 Slate or Stone roofs

 Wood shingle roofs
 Metal roofing systems

114. What are the phases inspections are done by local authority while
construction?

Various inspections during the construction includes

 Site Inspection
 Pre-construction or first construction Inspection
 Foundation inspection(before placing of concrete)
 Framing inspection ( before insulating or covering frame)
 Insulation inspection ( After insulation is completed)
 Final inspection (after all construction is completed, and permits are
received)

115. List out some of the checking’s, done at the completion of construction?

Some of the checking done on the exterior of the construction is

 Utility connections
 Drainage
 Retaining walls
 Compaction of fill material
 Caulking at opening
 Storm sewer system
 Safety provision ( terraces, porches, areaways)
 Accessory buildings
 Pavement edging
 Protection against moisture penetration
 Design of dwelling structure

116. What is alternate bid?

Alternate bid is the amount stated in the bid to be deducted or added from the
base bid amount. Alternate bid is proposed when there is a use of alternate
materials or methods of construction.

117. What is change order request?

Change order request is a written document issued or given by the owner,

requesting an adjustment to the contract sum or an extension of the contract
time. Usually, it is issued by the architect or owners representative.

118. What does a construction cost covers and what does not?

A construction cost covers material, labor, equipment and services,

contractor’s overhead and profit and other direct construction costs. While, it
does not cover compensation paid to the architect, consultant or engineers,
cost of the land and other cost that is owner’s responsibility.

119. What is Critical Path Method (C.P.M)?

Critical Path Method is strategy and method of representing the respective

tasks and activities involved in the construction through a symbolic diagram.

120. What is demising walls?

Demising wall is used for the boundary that separates your land or house from
neighbor’s house

121. What is labor and material payment bond?

It is a bond between the owner and the main contractor. Where a contractor
guarantees for payment to the owner if he fails to pay for all labor, materials,
equipment’s or services in accordance with the contract.

122. What is progress payment?

It is a payment done by owner to the contractor; it is a difference between the

completed work and material stored and a pre-determined schedule of values
or unit costs.

123. What is structural frames or systems?

Structural frames are a load bearing assembly of beams and columns on a

foundation. Normally, the columns and beams are generally fabricated off site
and assembled on site.
124. What is zoning permit?

Zoning permit is a document issued by governing urban authority permitting

land to be used for a particular purpose.

125. What is the release of lien?

Release of lien is a written document executed by an individual or firm

supplying labor, material or professional service on a project, which release
his mechanic’s lien against the project property.

126. What is Architect-Prepared Contract?

Architect- Prepared Contract is an agreement prepared in-house by the

architect between owner and architect, and often reviewed by an attorney,
before its execution. It is a legal contract, and it includes all terms and
conditions including adequate legal protection for both the parties.

127. What is 1/8 on the architect ruler denotes?

1/8 on the ruler is infact a scale that converts 1/8 inch on to the drawing to 1
foot. It would represent a drawing with a scale of 1/8”= 1 foot.

128. List out some of the software program that can be useful for architect?

software programs List

 AutoCAD
 Revit
 3DS Max
 Sketchup
 Photoshop
 Adobe creative suites
 Microsoft office
 Digital Media

129. What are the skills required to become an architect?

1. Conceptual understanding of designing models

2. Basic knowledge of computer and architect related software programs
3. Engineering ability
4. Business aptitude
 5. Legal knowledge
6. Designing 3D models

130. What things architect have to take care of before starting any project?

 Whether the owner has proper planning permission

 Whether the building has a certain listed grade approved
 Knowledge of building appliances and materials that includes the cost
as well
 Need to take environmental factors into consideration

131. How you can use different dimension tools in CAD? What are the
different dimensions available?

If you are using CAD and want to use dimension tools, then go to
CAD>Dimensions and you can have access to a wide range of dimensions like

 Manual dimensions
 Interior dimensions
 Auto exterior dimensions
 Auto interior dimensions
 End to end dimensions
 Point to point dimensions
 Angular dimensions
 Display temporary dimensions
 Moving objects using dimensions

132. How you can turn off the display for dimension in CAD?

The display of your dimensions can be turned off in CAD for that you have to
go under Floor Plan View and follow the following steps

1. In floor plan active, select Tools – Display Options

2. Scroll down to the dimensions- Automatic and Dimensions- Manual
layers and remove the checkmarks from the Disp column
3. When you click OK, the display of the dimensions in your plan will be
turned off

133. Which are the top apps for you civil engineering?

Some of the top Apps

  Ever note
 STEEL
 Dropbox
 Instagram
 Sketchbook
 Photoshop Express
 Flipboard
 Magic Plan
 Houzz
 AutoCAD Ws

134. What are wooden shingles?

Wooden shingles are rectangular in shapes, and they are like slats or sheets
that are nailed to the exterior surface. Shingling is a traditional weather
proofing method for building.

135. List out some of the common problems that architect have to tackle it?

 When client is not sure about what they want

 When there is a limited budget
 When customer requires custom design at standard design cost
 When architect has to work with limited space

136. How to build the floor to ceiling bookcase?

To build a floor to ceiling bookcase

 First measure the distance between the floor and ceiling

 Cut two boards of the length of that distance
 Cut two boards with the width you require
 Attach top and bottom boards to the side with 2 inch nails. Keep a gap
about one or two inches between each nail
 Attach top and bottom boards to the side boards with 2 inch nail. This
will create a frame of your bookcase. Add the shelves to the bookcase
the way you want and then paint it.

137. What should be the standard roof height like to be?

For inhabited building, standard height for roof should be one or two storeys
tall. If you don’t need to make roof taller and yet you want make it look bigger
from outside use a mansard roof containing multiple floors. The roof of the
room can be adjusted by changing its pitch or by adding a parapet.

138. List out the types of roofs?

 Half hipped roof

 Dutch gable roof
 Skillion roof
 Gambrel roof
 Gull wind roof
 Mansard roof
 Bell cast roof
 Sawtooth roof
 Monitor roof, etc.

139. What are the problems one might face while having a Cantilever
balcony?

Cantilever balcony are usually unsupported and extend outwards, so the

problem with Cantilever balconies are

 Excess deflection or bounce

 Weakness of the deck structure
 Rot and water damage to the interior of the house
 Unevenness inside the house
 Can’t use the balcony for gardening or other purposes as it is not
designed to lift excess amount of weight

140. For what building Built-on balconies are preferable? What are the
advantages?

Built on balconies are mainly designed for retrofitting older buildings. This free
standing balcony is supported in front of the facade on four columns. They are
backed to the wall with brackets.

The advantage of built-on balconies are :

 Old balconies can be dismantled, and the new ones can be erected
immediately in front of the faced without disturbing the inner structure
of the building
 The work takes place outside of the house, so there is no interference to
the interior of the building
141. What things you need to take care of before building a kitchen island?

Before you start building a kitchen island, you need to take care of

 Design the kitchen island according to the need- if it is only for cooking
purpose then use less space, but if it is also for eating then design it
accordingly
 List out what appliances you need for your kitchen island
 How high the counter should be
 How much storage space should you required
 Working sides surrounding the kitchen island should have 42 inches of
space as a minimum around the kitchen island. Don’t plan Kitchen
Island if it makes your kitchen more congested.

142. What is the difference between built area and super built up area?

1. Built up area: It includes your carpet area plus area covered by walls,
pillars and ducts. It is usually 10% more from the carpet area
2. Super built up area: It includes your built up area plus the area that you
use as building amenities like passage to lift, stairs and lifts, gym, club,
etc.

143. What is the ideal size of the living room ranges from small to large size?

 Very small size living room= 7x10ft ( for two seater sofas on one side of
the room)
 Small living room= 10x13ft ( for two 2 seater sofa)
 Medium living room= 12×18 (for 3 Seater sofa)
 Large living room= 15×20 ( for 4 seater or 5 seater sofa)

144. What are the responsibilities of a construction manager?

The responsibilities of a construction manager are

 Cost Estimates
 Pre-purchase of selected materials
 Selection of bidders for bidding phase
 Analysis of proposals
 Construction contract negotiations
 Construction Scheduling and Monitoring
 Cost control of construction
 Construction supervision
145. List out the potential risk factors for workers on the construction site?

Potential risk factors for worker on the construction site

1. Falls from heights

2. Scaffold and Trench collapse
3. Electric shock and arc blast
4. Repetitive motion injuries
5. Not using personal protective equipment correctly

146. What is OSHA compliance?

OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Act; its motive is to fulfill the
health and safety requirement of employees and workers. It is a standard for
health and safety that is followed by every industrial segment and corporate
offices throughout U.S.A.

147. What are the composition of a landfill?

For secure landfill, there are 4 critical elements

1. The bottom liner

2. A leachate collection system
3. A cover
4. Natural hydrogeologic settings

148. For the construction project what capital cost has to be taken in
consideration?

 Land acquisition ( Assembly, holding and improvement)

 Planning and feasibility studies
 Construction ( Material, equipment, and labor)
 Construction financing ( Bank loan)
 Insurance and taxes during construction
 Owner’s general office overhead
 Inspection and testing
 Equipment and furnishing not included in the construction
 Field supervision, architectural and engineering design

149. List out some of the software used in the construction sector to
estimate cost and monitoring expenses?
• Tally System
• Sage
• Maxwell System
• Premier construction software
• eTakeoff
• Construction partner, etc.

150. In block work seawalls what is the purpose of slip joints?

Joints which are formed from the cope level to the toe level of seawalls
through a complete vertical plane are known as slip joints. Such joints are
designed so as to handle the differential settlements between the seawalls
adjacent panels. In the slip joints the aggregates inside the half-rounds
channels enables some vertical movements. These vertical movements are
induced by differential settlements. This enables in the interlocking of the
adjacent panels of the seawalls to link the panels in one unit against the earth
pressure ( lateral ) which is exerted on the seawalls.

151. For a washout valve why are two gate valves required in normal
practice?

The washout valves are primarily used for normal maintenance works such as
that of water main. This can be like to allow water to flow out during the
cleaning of the water main. The junctions at which a pipe branches out to a
washout point usually a gate valve is installed so that the two pipelines are
separated. The gate valve installed above usually remains open during normal
operation. Another gate valve is installed further downstream and this remains
closed during normal operation of the washout valve. In case this valve is not
installed then the pipe section of the branched out pipe would remain dry
during normal operation and high chances of damage and leakage can take
place. When the downstream valve is installed the branched out water main
contains water under normal operation. With two gate valves installed a
leakage can be detected immediately.

152. What are the different approaches in designing the floors of the service
reservoirs?

In general there are two main approaches of designing the reservoir floors to
prevent leakage of water due to seasonal and shrinkage movements:
  In this approach the movement joints of the reservoir floor panels are
such that the free expansion and contraction of the panels takes place.
Every panel is isolated from the other panels and two panels have a
sliding layer between them to help in sliding.
 The second method does not provide any room for free movement. With
seasonal and shrinkage movements, some cracks are designed to
voluntarily occur on the floors of the service reservoirs. These tiny
cracks are spread throughout the floor and are simply too minute to
cause any leakage or corrosion of the floors. But the difference also in
this method is that the amount of reinforcement used is much more
than the first approach.

153. Why concrete barriers have curved surface profiles?

The concrete safety fencing’s are made to contain vehicles in their

carriageway being traveled so as to reduce the chances of rebounding into the
roads leading to more hazards. In the case of normal fencing’s upon vehicle
crashes the fencing’s give away so as to absorb as much energy as possible
henceforth reducing the impact on the vehicles. But in the case of concrete
barriers their purpose is not to absorb energy of vehicles crashing into the
barrier but to retain them. They have a curved design so as to allow the
vehicles that hit them to slightly go up on the barrier but not overturn. They
also prevent the vehicle from again getting back on the road by rebounds. This
helps in vastly reducing the chances of other vehicle hazards.

154. Why is the use of granular sub-base in concrete carriageways not

preferred, explain?

Some of the reasons why granular sub-base is not preferred in concrete

carriageways:

 Sub bases are permeable and hence water can seep through them
easily. The soil particles get pumped out through the joints on the
application of traffic loads. This results in the creation of voids
underneath the pavement structure. This leads to the weakening of the
concrete surface and it can crack easily upon intense traffic loads.
 Instead if lean concrete is used for carriageways it greatly increases the
strength of the roads and the load carrying capacity of the roads is
increased.
  Sub-bases implementation requires a lot of workmanship which can
lead to an un-uniform distribution of the sub-base. This can lead to the
cracking of the carriageway when there is severe traffic loading.

155. Why are separation membranes used between concrete pavement slab
and sub-base?

The purpose of separation membrane between the concrete pavement slab

and the sub-base are as follows:

 The separation membrane reduces the frictional forces between the

concrete slabs and the sub-base. The membrane aids the movement of
the concrete slab in reference to the sub-base when changes in the level
of the moisture and temperature occurs.
 It aids in the segregation of sub-base materials from freshly placed
concrete.
 The separation membrane also helps in the reduction of cement and
water loss in the form of immature concrete. Immature concrete greatly
affects the strength of the concrete. It also affects the durability of it.
A good example of a separation membranes is polythene sheeting
which is commonly used.

156. In the roof of a pumping station explain briefly the components of a

waterproofing system.

The components of a typical waterproofing system on the roof of a pumping

station are as follows:

 Right above the structural finish level of the roof ( concrete ) a uniform
thickness screed is applied so as to facilitate the application of the
waterproofing membrane. The surface provide for the membrane
should always possess good cohesion properties and must be thin so
as to prevent any un-uniformity. This thin layer also acts as a layer of
thermal insulation.
 Right above this layer the waterproofing membrane is deployed to
secure the water tightness of the roof.
 In order to enhance the thermal insulation of the roof an insulation
board is sometime placed right above the waterproof membrane. The
insulation board helps in the maintenance of a stable temperature in
both weathers.
157. During reclamation how can the occurrence of mud waves can be
rectified?

There are several solution to the rectification of the problem of mud waves:

 Complete removal of all the disturbed mud: This method can be

considered to be one of the fastest methods. As soon as the disturbed
mud is removed some filling material is used to replace the disturbed
mud. But economically this method can be expensive as compared to
others.
 Accelerated consolidation of disturbed mud: In this method surcharging
loads are placed on top of the mud waves. Along with this band drains
are installed to accelerate the consolidation process. This method is
quite slow compared to the other methods.
 Partial removal of the disturbed mud: This method is the hybrid of the
above two methods where the top layer is removed whereas the lower
level is treated with the surcharging process.

158. In reclamation works what are the importance of geotextiles and sand?

The primary purposes of geotextiles and sand in reclamation works are as

follows:

 Geotextiles: They are used to separate the marine mud from the

reclamation fill. Also geotextiles are used as reinforcements in
reclamation processes to increase its stability. It is still debated as to
whether the usage of geotextiles is better or are the old processes
followed are better as the performance has not been comparable to the
conventional methods.
 Sand: In reclamation process sand is used to spread the load of any
future public dumps placed on top of it. Sand also acts as a drainage for
the excess pore water pressure of band drain installations.

159. What are the different type of slump test indications?

Slump tests are performed to empirically measure the workability of fresh

concrete. It is used to measure the consistency of the concrete. In general
there are three different types of slumps that occur in slump tests. They are as
follows:

 True Slump
 Shear Slump
  Collapse Slump

True Slump: This type of slump is characterized by the general drop of the

concrete mass evenly without visible signs of deterioration or disintegration.
Shear Slump: It indicates that the concrete mix is deficient in cohesion. This
type of slump leads to segregation and bleeding. Henceforth in the long run
effecting the durability of the concrete.
Collapse Slump: This type of slump is indicates that the mix of concrete is
simply too wet. The mix is considered to be harsh and lean.

160. Why is propping required for long structures once the formwork is
removed?

Once the process of concreting is performed the striking of the formworks

should be done as soon as possible as delay in this process can lead to the
discoloration of the concrete structures. In case of long structures particularly
long span structures once the structures have attained enough strength to
support themselves it is essential to provide them with propping as creep
deflection can take place which can greatly reduce the integrity of the
structure. Due to the above mentioned reasons propping should be done after
the removal of formwork. Also the props should not be made to stand long as
it can lead to overstress for the structures.

161. Explain the mechanism of cavitations in pipes and drains?

The formation of air bubbles in a fluid due to low pressure conditions lower
than the saturation pressure is known as cavitations. This is considered to be
a high potential damage condition where the strength and durability of the
pipes can be greatly reduced. Cavitation works on the principle of Bernoulli’s
Equation. When fluids are at high velocities the pressure head of fluids reduce
accordingly. But since the fluid pressure is lower than the saturation pressure
the dissolved gases get released from the flowing fluid. These air bubbles
suddenly collapse on entering a region of high pressure. This leads to the
damage of the pipelines as a high level of dynamic pressure is created.

162. For what purpose bedding is used under storm water drains, explain?

Beddings are primarily made up of granular or concrete materials. They are

primarily used for the following purposes:

 They are used to provide a more uniform support for the under pipes so
that the bending moment longitudinally can be reduced greatly.
  In order to enable the pipes to get more load-supporting strength.
 They are also used to act as a platform to achieve a more correct
alignment and level pre and post construction.
 In case of pipes which contain spigot and socket joints, it enables pipes
to get supported along pipe lengths in place of sockets. Otherwise it
can lead to uneven stress being induced on the pipes eventually
damaging it.

163. Why are pull-out tests performed for soil nails?

Pull out tests are performed for primarily the following reasons:

 In order to detect and the verification of the bond strength among the
soil and the grout adopted during the design of soil nails. This is
considered to be as the primary objective of performing pull out tests
for soil nails.
 For the detection of any slippage or occurrence of creeps.
 To detect the elastic and deformations (plastic) of any of the test nails
employed. Observations are made during the loading and unloading
cycles of the soil nails repetitively.
 To achieve the perfect balance the test nails should always be loaded
so that the ultimate soil/grout mixture with an upper limit of 80%.

164. Explain briefly the advantages and disadvantages of using plastic and
timber fenders?

The advantages and disadvantages of using plastic fenders are as follows:

Plastic fenders are low in strength with a relatively high resistance to
abrasion. Plastic fenders are resistant to chemical and biological attacks.
Plastic fenders have moderate energy absorption capacity. The berthing
reactions are also comparatively moderate and depends on the point of
contact. Also since they are made from recycled material they are
environmental friendly.
The advantages and disadvantages of using timber fenders are:
timber fenders are low in strength and are very susceptible to marine borer
attacks and rotting. The energy absorption capacity is very low. Also generally
the contact pressure between the vessels and the fender are high.

165. In the design of bridge arguments what considerations should be made

to select the orientation of the wing walls?
Some of the most common arrangements of wing walls in cases of bridge
arguments are as follows:

 Wing walls parallel to abutments: This method is considered to take

least amount of time to build and is simple as well. But on the downside
this method is not the most economical. The advantage of this type of
design being that they cause the least amount of disturbance to the
slope embankment.
 Wing walls at an angle to abutments: This design method is considered
to be the most economical in terms of material cost.
 Wing walls perpendicular to abutments: The characteristic of this
design is it provides an alignment continuous with the bridge decks
lending a support to the parapets.

166. In case if concrete box girder bridges how is the number of cells
determined?

When the depth of a box girder bridge exceed 1/6th or 1/5th of the bridge
width then the design recommended is that of a single cell box girder bridge.
But in case the depth of the bridge is lower than 1/6th of the bridge width then
a twin-cell or in some cases multiple cell is the preferred choice. One should
also note that even in the cases of wider bridges where there depths are
comparatively low the number of cells should be minimized. This is so as
there is noticeably not much improvement in the transverse load distribution
when the number of cells of the box girder is higher than three or more.

167. Under what circumstances should pot bearings be used instead of

elastomeric bearings?

Pot bearings are preferred over elastomeric bearings in situations where there
are chances of high vertical loads in combinations of very large angle of
rotations. Elastomeric bearings always require a large bearing surface so that
a compression is maintained between the contact surfaces in between the
piers and the bearings. This is not possible to maintained in high load and
rotation environment. Also the usage of elastomeric bearings leads to the
uneven distribution of stress on the piers. This results in some highly induced
stresses to be targeted at the piers henceforth damaging them. Due to the
above reasons pot bearings are preferred over elastomeric bearings in such
cases.

168. Why should pumping be not used in case of concreting works?

During the pumping operation the pump exerted pressure must overcome any
friction between the pumping pipes and the concrete, also the weight of the
concrete and the pressure head when the concrete is placed above the
pumps. Since only water is pump able, all the pressure generated is by the
water that is present in the concrete. The major problem due to pumping are
segregation effects and bleeding. In order to rectify and reduce these effects,
generally the proportion of the cement is increased in order to increase the
cohesion , which leads to the reduction of segregation and bleeding. Also if a
proper selection of the aggregate grading can vastly improve the concrete
pump ability.

169. Why should curing not be done by ponding and polythene sheets?

The primary purpose of curing is to reduce the heat loss of concrete that is
freshly placed to the atmosphere and in order to reduce the temperature
gradient across the cross-section of the concrete. Ponding is not preferred for
curing as this method of thermal curing is greatly affected by cold winds. In
addition to that in ponding large amounts of water is used and has to be
disposed off from the construction sites. Polythene sheets are used on the
basis that it creates an airtight environment around the concrete surface
henceforth reducing the chances of evaporation over fresh concrete surfaces.
But the usage of polythene can be a drawback as it can be easily blown away
by winds and also the water lost by self-desiccation cannot be replenished.

170. What are the steps involved in the concreting process, explain?

The major steps involved in the process of concreting are as follows:

1. Batching
2. Mixing
3. Transporting and placing of concrete
4. Compacting.

1. Batching: The process of measurement of the different materials for

the making of concrete is known as batching. batching is usually done
in two ways: volume batching and weight batching. In case of volume
batching the measurement is done in the form of volume whereas in the
case of weight batching it is done by the weight.
2. Mixing: In order to create good concrete the mixing of the materials
should be first done in dry condition and after it wet condition. The two
general methods of mixing are: hand mixing and machine mixing.
 3. Transportation and placing of concrete: Once the concrete mixture is
created it must be transported to its final location. The concrete is
placed on form works and should always be dropped on its final
location as closely as possible.
4. Compaction of concrete: When concrete is placed it can have air
bubbles entrapped in it which can lead to the reduction of the strength
by 30%. In order to reduce the air bubbles the process of compaction is
performed. Compaction is generally performed in two ways: by hand or
by the use of vibrators.

171. Describe briefly the various methods of concrete curing.

Curing is the process of maintaining the moisture and temperature conditions

for freshly deployed concrete. This is done for small duration of time to allow
the hardening of concrete. The methods that are involved in saving the
shrinkage of the concrete includes:
(a) Spraying of water: on walls, and columns can be cured by sprinkling water.
(b) Wet covering of surface: can be cured by using the surface with wet gunny
bags or straw
(c) Ponding: the horizontal surfaces including the slab and floors can be cured
by stagnating the water.
(d) Steam curing: of pre-fabricated concrete units steam can be cured by
passing it over the units that are under closed chambers. It allows faster
curing process and results in faster recovery.
(e) Application of curing compounds: compounds having calcium chloride can
be applied on curing surface. This keeps the surface wet for a very long time.

172. What do you understand by “preset” during the installation process of

bridge bearings?

During the installation of bridge bearings the size of the upper plates is
reduced to save the material costs. This process is known as preset.
Generally the upper bearing plate comprises of the following components:

 Length of bearing
 2 x irreversible movement.
 2 x reversible movement.

The bearing initially is placed right in the middle point of the upper bearing
plate. No directional effects of irreversible movement is considered. But since
the irreversible movement usually takes place in one direction only the
displaced direction is placed away from the midpoint. In such cases the length
of the upper plate is equal to the length of the length of the bearing +
irreversible movement + 2 x reversible movement.

173. Why are steel plates inserted inside bearings in elastomeric bearings?

In order to make a elastomeric bearing act/ function as a soft spring it should

be made to allow it to bulge laterally and also the stiffness compression can
be increased by simply increasing the limiting amount of the lateral bulging. In
many cases in order to increase the compression stiffness of the bearing the
usage of metal plates is made. Once steel plates are included in the bearings
the freedom of the bulge is restricted dramatically, also the deflection of the
bearing is reduced as compared to a bearing without the presence of steel
plates. The tensile stresses of the bearings are induced into the steel plates.
But the presence of the metal plates does not affect the shear stiffness of the
bearings.

174. What reinforcements are used in the process of prestressing?

The major types of reinforcements used in prestressing are:

 Spalling Reinforcement: The spalling stresses leads to stress behind

the loaded area of the anchor blocks. This results in the breaking off of
the surface concrete. The most likely causes of such types of stresses
are Poisson`s effects strain interoperability or by the stress trajectory
shapes.
 Equilibrium reinforcements: This type of reinforcements are required
where several anchorages exist where the prestressing loads are
applied in a sequential manner.
 Bursting Reinforcements: These kinds of stresses occur in cases where
the stress trajectories are concave towards the line of action of load. In
order to reduce such stresses reinforcements in the form of bursting is
required.

175. What are the duties and responsibilities of civil site engineer in road and
building construction?

 While in duty of supervision of building, you should ensure that the

concrete mixing is according to the grade specified. While supervision
of road, you should ensure that the different layers of the road are laid in
proper thickness.
  Civil site engineer. Is responsible for execution of all construction
activity allowed to him & he should take responsibility towards all scope
of work under him. He should carryout work allowed to him.

There are two types of site civil engineer , first job is a supervisory one if he
works with the consultant, in this case he needs to make sure that the
document in hand is the correct designed.

176. What is responsibility of civil foreman ?

A Civil foremen duties/responsibilities is inspect on sides and management of

each work on side and labor work, work quality also record of all work and
each labor man & control work on time,on side accident,
machines,material,tools. etc are full responsibility a side foremen.

177. Strength of brick?

178. what is Brest Wall?

179. what is Brick crushing strength(PSI)?

180. what is Bearing Capacity,How to determine it?

181. How much is the curing time period?

182. How many types of slabs are there & how to design it?

183. How many are the types of joints?

184. Why joints are provided?

185. How many bricks are there in 100cft?

186. Types Of DPC and its Thickness used?

187. How many bricks are there in 100 cft?

188. Which are the Steel tests ?

189. How much is the cover for slab?

190. What is packing Factor ?

191. Forces in a Shear Wall are in plane or out of plane ?

192. What is fineness modulus ? and its sieve # ?

193. What is Base Shear ?

194. What is Time period of a building and its relation with frequency ?

195. There are two buildings one taller and one shorter whose time period will
be grater and similarly the frequency ?

196. Define Work ability ?

197. Sulfate Resisting Cement ?

198. Special thing in designing a overhead reservoir ? which is different from

an ordinary design

199. Maximum %age of Steel in columns and beams ?

200.Types of foundation?
300+ TOP Applied Mechanics & Graphic
Statics MCQs Pdf

1. A force P of 50 N and another force Q of unknown magnitude act at 90° to

each other. They are balanced by a force of 130 N. The magnitude of Q is
a) 60 N
b) 80 N
c) 100 N
d) 120 N
Ans: d

2. If the resultant of two forces has the same magnitude as either of the
force, then the angle between the two forces is
a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 120°
Ans: d

3. A rod AB carries three loads of 30 N, 70 N and 100 N at distances of 20

mm, 90 mm and 150 mm respectively from A. Neglecting the weight of the
rod, the point at which the rod will balance is
a) 109.5 mm from A
b) 119.5 mm from A
c) 125.5 mm from A
d) 132.5 mm from A
Ans: a

4. The angles between two forces to make their resultant a minimum and a
maximum respectively are
a) 0° and 90°
b) 180° and 90°
c) 90° and 180°
d) 180° and 0°
Ans: d

5. When two forces, each equal to P, act at 90° to each other, then the
resultant will be
a) P
b) PV2
c) P/V2
d) 2P
Ans: b

6. The resultant of two forces P and Q is R. If Q is doubled, the new resultant

is perpendicular to P. Then,
a) P = R
b) Q = R
c) P = Q
d) None of the above is correct
Ans: b

7. A funicular polygon cannot be made to pass through

a) one specified point
b) two specified points
c) three specified points
d) more than three specified points
Ans: d

8. If the given forces P,, P2, P3 and P4 are such that the force polygon does
not close, then the system will
a) be in equilibrium
b) always reduce to a resultant force
c) always reduce to a couple
d) both (a) and (c)
Ans: b

9. The condition of equilibrium for any system of forces in a plane is

a) that polygon of forces must close
b) that resultant couple must be zero
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans: c

10. In which of the following trusses, the method of substitution is required

for determining the forces in all the members of the truss by graphic statics ?
a) howe truss
b) king post truss
c) fink truss
d) warren truss
Ans: c

11. For a non-concurrent force system to be in equilibrium

a) only the closure of force polygon is sufficient
b) only the closure of funicular polygon is sufficient
c) both force polygon and funicular polygon must close
d) none of the above
Ans: c

12. A cube on a smooth horizontal surface

a) cannot be in stable equilibrium
b) cannot be in neutral equilibrium
c) cannot be in unstable equilibrium
d) can be in any of these states
Ans: d

13. The following is in unstable equilibrium

a) a uniform solid cone resting on a generator on a smooth horizontal plane
b) a uniform solid cone resting on its base on a horizontal plane
c) a solid cube resting on one edge
d) a satellite encircling the earth
Ans: c

14. A block in the shape of a parallelopiped of sides lm x 2m x 3m lies on the

surface. Which of the faces gives maximum stable block ?
a) 1 m x 2 m
b) 2 m x 3 m
c) 1 m x 3m
d) equally stable on all faces
Ans: b

15. A uniform pyramid and a uniform prism of same height lie with their base
on the surface. Which is more stable ?
a) pyramid
b) prism
c) both equally stable
d) none of the above
Ans: a
16. Minimum potential energy of a system will be in the position of
a) stable equilibrium
b) unstable equilibrium
c) neutral equilibrium
d) all of the above
Ans: a

17. A rigid body is in a stable equilibrium if the application of any force

a) can raise the CG of the body but can not lower it
b) tends to lower the CG of the body
c) neither raises nor lowers the CG of the body
d) none of above
Ans: a

18. Which of the following represents the state of neutral equilibrium ?

a) a cube resting on one edge
b) a smooth cylinder lying on a curved surface
c) a smooth cylinder lying on a convex surface
d) none of the above
Ans: d

19. If a set of given forces are such that their free vectors build a closed
polygon, then
a) the resultant force and resultant couple are always zero
b) the resultant force is zero but resultant couple is not zero
c) the resultant force is zero but resultant couple may not be zero
d) the resultant force and resultant couple both may not be zero

20. The bending moment in an arch is proportional to

a) vertical ordinate of funicular polygon
b) vertical ordinate of the arch
c) intercept between the arch axis and the funicular polygon
d) none of these
Ans: c

21. The member forces in a statically in determinate truss

a) can be obtained by graphic statics
b) cannot be obtained by graphic statics
c) may be obtained by graphic statics
d) can be obtained by graphic statics by trial and error
Ans: b
22. An ordinate in a funicular polygon represents
a) shear force
b) resultant force
c) bending moment
d) equilibrium
Ans: c

23. The pole distance is measured in

a) distance scale
b) force scale
c) mass scale
d) time scale
Ans: b

24. The number of funicular polygons which can be drawn to pass through
two specified points in the space diagram are
a) zero
b) 1
c) 2
d) infinity
Ans: d

Ans: c

25. Two circular discs of same weight and thickness are made from metals
having different densities. Which disc will have the larger rotational inertia
about its central axis ?
a) disc with larger density
b) disc with smaller density
c) both discs will have same rotational inertia
d) none of the above
Ans: b

31. The total kinetic energy of a hoop of mass 2 kg and radius 4 m sliding
with linear velocity 8 m/sec and angular velocity 5 radian/sec is
a) 64 J
b) 400 J
c) 464 J
d) 89 J
Ans: c
32. A symmetrical body is rotating about its axis of symmetry, its moment of
inertia about the axis of rotation being 2 kg -m2 and its rate of rotation 2
revolutions/see. The angular momentum of the body in kg-m2/sec is
a) 4
b) 6 7i
c) 8TC
d) 8
Ans: c

33. The angular speed of a car while taking a circular turn of radius 100m at
36 km/hour, is
a) 0.1 radian/sec
b) 1 radian/sec
c) 100 radian/sec
d) 1000 radian/sec
Ans: a

34. The torque produced by a force depends on

i) the magnitude of the force
ii) the direction of the force
iii) the’point of application of the force relative to origin The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d

35. The ratio of the speed of a rolling cylinder to the speed of sliding cylinder
is
a) less than 1
b) equal to 1
c) between 1 and 2
d) greater than 2
Ans: a

36. A sphere and a cylinder having the same mass and radii start from rest
and roll down the same inclined plane. Which body gets to the bottom first ?
a) sphere with greater rotational energy at bottom than cylinder
b) sphere with lesser rotational energy at bottom than cylinder
c) cylinder with greater rotational energy at bottom than sphere
d) both reach the bottom simultaneously with equal rotational energy at
bottom
Ans: b

37. Williot-Mohr diagram is used to determine deflection in

a) trusses only
b) beam only
c) rigid frames only
d) any type of structure
Ans: a

38. A hoop of radius 3 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so
that at its centre of mass has a speed of 200 mm/sec, . The work required to
stop the hoop is
a) 2 J
b) 4 J
c) 6 J
d) 8 J
Ans: b

39. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls down an inclined plane
without slipping. The acceleration of center of mass of rolling cylinder is
a) (1/3) g sinB
b) (2/3) g cos 9
c) (2/3) g sin 0
d) g sin 9
where ‘g’ is acceleration due to gravity and 0 is inclination of plane with
horizontal.
Ans: c

40. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R rolls down a plane inclined at 0
with the horizontal. The acceleration of sphere is
a) (1/3) g sin0
b) (2/5) g sin 0
c) (3/7) g sin 0
d) (5/7) g sin0
where g is acceleration due to gravity
Ans: d

41. A cylinder will slip on an inclined plane of inclination 0 if the coefficient

of static friction between plane and cylinder is
a) less than (1/3) tan 0
b) less than (2/3) tan 0
c) less than (1/3) sin 6
d) less than (2/3) sin 6
Ans: a

42. Rate of change of angular momentum is equal to

a) force
b) torque
c) linear momentum
d) impulse
Ans: b

43. If the angular distance, 0 = 2t3 – 3t2, the angular acceleration at t = 1

sec. is
a) 1 rad/sec2
b) 4 rad/sec2
c) 6 rad/sec2
d) 12 rad/sec2
Ans: c

44. A circular disc rotates at n rpm. The angular velocity of a circular ring of
same mass and radius as the disc and to have the same angular momentum
is
a) n rpm
b) n/2 rpm
c) n/4 rpm
d) 2n rpm
Ans: b

45. A particle moves in a straight line and its position is defined by the
equation x = 6 t2 – t3 where t is expressed in seconds and x in meters. The
maximum velocity during the motion is
a) 6 m/sec
b) 12 m/sec
c) 24 m/sec
d) 48 m/sec
Ans: b

46. A flywheel of moment of inertia 20 kg-m” is acted upon by a tangential

force of 5 N at 2 m from its axis, for 3 seconds. The increase in angular
velocity in radian persecond is
a) 1/2
b) 3/2 ‘
c) 2
d) 3
Ans: b

47. A disc of mass 4 kg, radius 0.5m and moment of inertia 3 kg-m2 rolls on
a horizontal surface so that its center moves with speed 5 m/see. Kinetic
energy of the disc is
a) 50 J
b) 150 J
c) 200 J
d) 400 J
Ans: c

48. When a circular wheel rolls on a straight track, then the shape of body
centrode and space centrode respectively are
a) straight line and parabola
b) straight line and circle
c) circle and straight line
d) circle and parabola
Ans: c

49. Select the correct statement

a) The body centrode rolls on the space centrode.
b) The space centrode rolls on the body centrode.
c) Both body and space centrodes may role on each other.
d) The body centrode never touches space centrode.
Ans: a

50. At the instantaneous center, the velocity of the moving lamina at any
instant is
a) zero
b) maximum
c) minimum
d) varying
Ans: a

51. Instantaneous center is at infinity when the angular velocity is

a) constant
b) zero
c) maximum
d) minimum
Ans: b

53. A 2 m long ladder rests against a wall and makes an angle of 30° with the
horizontal floor. Where will be the instantaneous center of rotation when the
ladder starts slipping ?
i) 1.0 in from the wall
ii) 1.732 m from the wall
iii) 1.0 m above the floor
iv) 1.732 m above the floor The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: d

54. For a given velocity of a projectile, the range is maximum when the angle
of projection is
a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 90°
d) 0°
Ans: b

55. The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum
height of a projectile are equal to
a) 36°
b) 45°
c) 56°
d) 76°
Ans: d

56. The maximum value of the horizontal range for a projectile projected with
a velocity of 98 m/sec is
a) 98 m
b) 490 m
c) 980 m
d) 1960 m
Ans: c
57. A stone is thrown vertically upwards with a vertical velocity of 49 m/sec.
It returns to the ground in
a) 5 sec
b) 8 sec
c) 10 sec
d) 20 sec
Ans: c

58. A projectile has maximum range of 40 m on a horizontal plane. If angle of

projection is a and the time of flight is 1 second, then sin a must be about
a) 1/4
b) 1/3
c) 1/2
d) 1/5
Assume g = 10 m/sec2
Ans: a

60. If the direction of projection bisects the angle between the vertical and
the inclined plane, then the range of projectile on the inclined plane is
a) zero
b) maximum
c) minimum
d) unpredictable
Ans: b

61. If a projectile is fired with an initial velocity of 10 m/sec at an angle of 60°

to the horizontal, its horizontal and vertical velocity at the highest point of
trajectory are
a) 0 and 5 m/sec
b) 5 m/sec and 0
c) 5 V3 m/sec and 0
d) 5 and 5V3 m/sec
Ans: b

62. The angle of projection at which the horizontal range and maximum
height of a projectile are equal to
a) 45°
b) tan-1 (2)
c) tan-‘ (4)
d) tan”1 (1/4)
Ans: c
64. A stone is thrown up a slope of inclination 60° to the horizontal. At what
angle to the slope must the stone be thrown so as to land as far as possible
from the point of projection ?
a) 15°
b) 30°
c) 45°
d) 75°
Ans: a

66. In a simple harmonic motion, the position of equilibrium is always

a) stable
b) unstable
c) neutral
d) none of the above
Ans: a

67. If A is the amplitude of particle executing simple harmonic motion, then

the total energy E of the particle is
a) proportional to A
b) proportional to A2
c) proportional to 1/A2
d) independent of A
Ans: b

68. The time period of a simple pendulum depends on

i) mass of suspended particle
ii) length of the pendulum
iii) acceleration due to gravity The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (ii) and (iii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all are correct
Ans: b

69. A particle of mass 2 kg executes simple harmonic motion of frequency

6/71 Hz and amplitude 0.25 m. Its maximum kinetic energy is
a) 4.5 J
b) 9.0 J
c) 12.0 J
d) 18.0 J
Ans: b
70. The maximum displacement of a particle executing S.H.M. corresponds
to
a) zero potential energy and maximum kinetic energy
b) zero kinetic energy and maximum potential energy
c) maximum kinetic energy and maxi-mum potential energy
d) minimum kinetic energy and minimum potential energy
Ans: b

71. It is observed that in a certain sinusoidal oscillation, the amplitude is

linearly dependent on the frequency f. If the maximum velocity during the
oscillation is V, then V must be proportional to
a) f
b) 1/f
c) 1/f2
d) f2
Ans: d

72. A simple pendulum of length 1 has an energy E when its amplitude is A. If

its amplitude is increased to 2 A, the energy becomes
a) E
b) E/2
c) 2E
d) 4E
Ans: d

73. If the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator
of amplitude A are both equal to half the total energy, then the displacement
is equal to
a) A
b) A/2
c) A/V2
d) AV2
Ans: c

74. The ratio of kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic
oscillator, at a displacement equal to half its amplitude is given by
a) 1:2
b) 1:1
c) 2:1
d) 3:1
Ans: d
75. A simple pendulum of length / has an energy E, when its amplitude is A. If
the length of pendulum is doubled, the energy will be
a) E
b) E/2
c) 2E
d) 4E
Ans: b

76. Time period and length of a seconds pendulum respectively are

a) 1 sec and 99.4 cm
b) 1 sec and 92.7 cm
c) 2 sec and 99.4 cm
d) 2 sec and 92.7 cm
Ans: c

77. One end of an elastic string of natural length / and modulus X is kept
fixed while to the other end is attached a particle of mass m which is hanging
freely under gravity. The particle is pulled down vertically through a distance
x, held at rest and then released.
The motion is
a) a simple harmonic motion
b) a rectilinear motion with constant speed
c) a damped oscillatory motion
d) none of the above
Ans: a

78. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion in a line 1.0 m long. If the
time of one complete vibration is 1 sec, then the maximum velocity of the
particle is
a) 1.00 m/sec
b) 1.57 m/sec
c) 3.14 m/sec
d) 6.28 m/sec
Ans: c

79. The potential energy of a particle falling through a straight shaft drilled
through the earth (assumed homogenous and spherical) is proportional to
a) log r
b) r
c) r2
d) 1/r
where r is the distance of’the particle from centre of the earth
Ans: c

80. Joule is the unit of

a) power
b) impulse
c) work
d) momentum
Ans: c

Applied Mechanics and Graphic Statics Objective Type Questions pdf ::

81. One Newton is equivalent to

a) 105 dyne
b) 106 dyne.
c) 107 dyne
d) 981 dyne
Ans: a

82. A quantity whose dimensions are M2L2 T3 could be the product of

a) force and pressure
b) mass and power
c) energy and velocity
d) force and velocity
Ans: b

83. The dimensions of Gravitational Universal constant ‘G’ are

a) M-‘L2r2
b) M-‘L3r2
c) M-2L3T2
d) M’L3T2
Ans: b

84. If y is force and x is velocity, then dimensions of —=r are dx2

a) M’^T’
b) M’L-‘T0
c) M’L-‘T1
d) M2L’T3
Ans: b
85. One Joule is equivalent to
a) 9.81 Newton – metre
b) 1 Newton – metre
c) 1 kg wt – metre
d) 1 dyne – metre
Ans: b

86. The dimensions of centrifugal force are

a) M1 L2 T2
b) M’L’T1
c) M’L’T2
d) M’L-‘T2
Ans: c

87. A quantity measured in the C.G.S system of units has dimensions M”2L3
T3/2. What numerical factor would be required to convert the quantity to SI
units ?
a) 1
b) 100
c) 1/100
d) 1/10000
Ans: a

88. The unit of rotational inertia of a body in C.G.S system is

a) cm4
b) kg-cm2
c) gm-cm2
d) gm-cm3
Ans: c

89. The ratio of unit of force in gravitational system to that in absolute

system is
a) 1
b) g
c) 1/g
d) none of the above
where ‘g’ is acceleration due to gravity
Ans: b

91. In SI units, the units of force and energy are respectively

a) Newton and watt
b) Dyne and erg
c) Newton and joule
d) kg-wt and joule
Ans: c

92. The dimensions of power are.

a) M’L2T2
b) M’L’T3
c) M’L’r2
d) M’L-‘T*
Ans: b

93. Impulse can be obtained from a

a) force-displacement diagram
b) force-time diagram
c) velocity-time diagram
d) velocity-displacement diagram
Ans: b

94. One Newton is equivalent to

a) 1 kg-wt
b) 9.81 kg-wt
c) 981 dyne
d) 1/9.81 kg-wt
Ans: d

95. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

a) energy
b) momentum
c) torque
d) impulse
Ans: a

97. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in
equilibrium if
a) floor is smooth and wall is rough
b) floor is rough and wall is rough
c) both floor and wall are rough
d) both floor and wall are smooth
Ans: d
98. Coefficient of friction depends on
a) nature of surfaces only
b) area of contact only
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans: a

100. A rope is wrapped twice around a rough pole with a coefficient of

friction ‘A . It is subjected to a force Fj at one end and a gradually increasing
force F2 is applied at the other end till the rope just starts slip-ping. At this
instant the ratio of F2 to Fi is
a) 1
b) e2*
c) e4*
d) e*72
Ans: b

101. A ladder of weight ‘w’ rests against a smooth vertical wall, and rests on
rough horizontal ground, the coefficient of friction between the ladder and
the ground being 1/4. The maximum angle of inclination of the ladder to the
vertical, if a man of weight ‘w’ is to walk to the top of it safely, is tan’1 x,
where x is
a) 1/4
b) 1/3
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: b

102. If a body is lying on a plane whose inclination with the horizontal is less
than the angle of friction, then
i) a force is required to move the body upwards
ii) a force is required to move the body downward
iii) the body will not be in equilibrium The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) only (ii)
c) both (i) and (ii)
d) both (i) and (iii)
Ans: c

103. Intrinisic equation of catenary is given by

a) S = C tan q>
b) S = C cos cp
c) S = C sin cp
d) S = C cot <p
where C is some constant.
Ans: a

104. The shape of a suspended cable for a uniformly distributed load over it
is
a) circular
b) parabolic
c) catenary
d) cubic parabola
Ans: b

105. Cartesian form of the equation of catenary is

a) y = c cosh x/c
b) y = c sinh x/c
c) y = c tan x/c
d) y = c sin”1 x/c
Ans: a

106. A cable loaded with 10 kN/m of span is stretched between supports in

the same horizontal line 100 m apart. If the central dip is 10 m, then the
maximum and minimum pull in the cable respectively are
a) 1346.3 kN and 1500 kN
b) 1436.2 kN and 1250 kN
c) 1346.3 kN and 1250 kN
d) 1436.2 kN and 1500 kN
Ans: c

107. Minimum pull in a suspended cable with supports at two ends is equal
to
a) horizontal thrust
b) support reactions
c) resultant of horizontal thrust and support reaction
d) half the weight of the cable
Ans: a

108. A light rope is loaded with many equal weights at equal horizontal
intervals. The points of suspension on the rope lie on a
a) parabola
b) catenary
c) cycloid
d) ellipse
Ans: a

109. The maximum pull in a cable, carrying a uniformly distributed load and
supported at two ends which are at the same level, is at
a) supports
b) quarter span
c) mid span
d) none of the above
Ans: a

111. A ball moving on a smooth horizontal table hits a rough vertical wall, the
coefficient of restitution between ball and wall being 1/3. The ball rebounds
at the same angle. The fraction of its kinetic energy lost is
a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c) 1/9
d) 8/9
Ans: d

113. A particle is dropped from a height of 3 m on a horizontal floor, which

has a coefficient of restitution with the ball of 1/2. The height to which the
ball will rebound after striking the floor is
a) 0.5 m
b) 0.75 m
c) 1.0 m
d) 1.5 m
Ans: b

114. A ball is dropped from a height of 16 m on a horizontal floor. If it

rebounds to a height of 9 m after striking the floor, the coefficient of
restitution between ball and floor is
a) 1/4
b) 2/3
c) 3/4
d) 4/3
Ans: c
115. Two balls of masses 3 kg and 6 kg are moving with velocities of 4
m/sec and 1 m/sec respectively, towards each other along the line of their
centers. After impact the 3 kg ball comes to rest. This can happen only if the
coefficient of restitution between the balls is
a) 2/3
b) 1/5
c) 3/5
d) 1/3
Ans: b

117. When a body slides down an inclined surface, the acceleration of the
body is given by
a) g
b) gsinG
c) g cos 6
d) g tan 6
Ans: b

118. A body is dropped from a height of 100 m and at the same time another
body is projected vertically upward with a velocity of 10 m/sec. The two
particles will
a) never meet
b) meet after 1 sec
c) meet after 5 sec
d) meet after 10 sec
Ans: d

119. A shell travelling with a horizontal velocity of 100 m/sec explodes and
splits into two parts, one of mass 10 kg and the other of 15 kg. The 15 kg
mass drops vertically downward with initial velocity of 100 m/sec and the 10
kg mass begins to travel at an angle to the horizontal of tan”1 x, where x is
a) 3/4
b) 4/5
c) 5/3
d) 3/5
Ans: d

120. A car goes round a curve of radius 100 m at 25 m/sec. The angle to the
horizontal at which the road must be banked to prevent sideways friction on
the car wheels is tan”1 x, where x is (Assume g = 10 m/sec2)
a) 3/8
b) 1/2
c) 9/5
d) 5/8
Ans: d

121. A shell of mass 100 kg travelling with a velocity of 10 m/sec breaks into
two equal pieces during an explosion which provides an extra kinetic energy
of 20000 Joules. If the pieces continue to move in the same direction as
before, then the speed of the faster one must be
a) 20 m/sec
b) 30 m/sec
c) 40 m/sec
d) 50 m/sec
Ans: b

122. If a flywheel increases its speed from 10 rpm to 20 rpm in 10 seconds,

then its angular acceleration is
a) —rad/sec 10
b) —rad/sec 20
c) —rad/sec 30
d) none of the above
Ans: c

124. Two objects moving with uniform speeds are 5 m apart after 1 second
when they move towards each other and are 1 m apart when they move in the
same direction.
The speeds of the objects are
a) 2 m/sec and 2 m/sec
b) 3 m/sec and 2 m/sec
c) 3 m/sec and 3 m/sec
d) 4 m/sec and 6 m/sec
Ans: b

125. The angular speed of a car taking a circular turn of radius 100 m at 36
km/hr will be
a) 0.1 rad/sec
b) 1 rad/sec
c) 10 rad/sec
d) 100 rad/sec
Ans: a
126. A bullet weighing 10 gm moves with a velocity of l km/sec. Its kinetic
energy is
i) 5000 N.m
ii) 5000 kg.m
iii) 5000 J The correct answer is
a) only (ii)
b) both (i) and (iii)
c) both (ii) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: b

127. A stone was thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity
of 50 m/sec. After 5 seconds another stone was thrown vertically upwards
from the same place. If both the stones strike the ground at the same time,
then the velocity with which the second stone was thrown should be
(Assume g = 10 m/sec2)
a) 15 m/sec
b) 25 m/sec
c) 40 m/sec
d) 50 m/sec
Ans: b

128. The condilion for a lifting machine to be reversible is that its efficiency
should be
a) less than 50%
b) more than 50%
c) more than 66.67%
d) equal to 100%
Ans: b

129. In a lifting machine a weight of 5 kN is lifted through 200 mm by an

effort of 0.1 kN moving through 15 m. The mechanical advantage and
velocity ratio of the machine are respectively
a) 50 and 75
b) 75 and 50
c) 75 and 75
d) 50 and 50
Ans: a

130. In a lifting machine with efficiency 60%, an effort of 200 N is required to

raise a load of 6 kN. The velocity ratio of the machine is
a) 30
b) 50
c) 60
d) 80
Ans: b

132. Free body diagram is an

a) isolated joint with only body forces acting on it
b) isolated joint with internal forces acting on it
c) isolated joint with all the forces, internal as well as external, acting on it
d) none of the above
Ans: c

133. A system of copianar forces acting on a rigid body can be reduced to

a) one force only
b) one couple only
c) one force and one couple only
d) none of the above
Ans: c

134. A system of copianar forces is in equilibrium when

a) force polygon closes
b) funicular polygon closes
c) both force polygon” and funicular polygon close
d) all the forces are concurrent
Ans: c

135. Force polygon method is applicable for

a) any copianar force system
b) a system of parallel forces only
c) concurrent copianar force system
d) non-concurrent copianar force system
Ans: c

136. The force polygon representing a set of forces in equilibrium is a

a) triangle
b) open polygon
c) closed polygon
d) parallelogram
Ans: c
137. The diagram showing the point of application and line of action of
forces in their plane is called
a) vector diagram
b) space diagram
c) force diagram
d) funicular diagram
Ans: b

140. If two forces are in equilibrium, then the forces must

i) be equal in magnitude
ii) be opposite in sense
iii) act along the same line
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i) and (iii)
c) only (i)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d

141. The graphical method of determining the forces in the members of a

truss is based on
a) method of joint
b) method of section
c) either method
d) none of the two methods
Ans: a
300+ TOP BUILDING MATERIALS and CONSTRUCTION Objective
Questions and Answers
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. Gypsum is a
a) mechanically formed sedimentary rock
b) igneous rock
c) chemically precipitated sedimentary rock
d) metamorphic rock
Ans: c

2. Which of the following sedimentary rocks changes into quartzite by

metamorphic action ?
a) sand stone
b) lime stone
c) shale
d) gypsum
Ans: a

3. Which of the following represents a metamorphic rock?

i) slate
ii) shale
iii) quartzite
The correct answer is
a) only (iii)
b) both (i) and (iii)
c) both (ii) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: b

4. Quartitze is a
a) silicious rock
b) argillaceous rock
c) calcareous rock
d) aqueous rock
Ans: a
5. Which of the following is a mineral ?
a) basalt
b) granite
c) quartz
d) syenite
Ans: c

6. Slate is formed by metamorphic action on

a) shale
b) lime stone
c) sand stone
d) granite
Ans: a

7. Sandstone is a
i) sedimentary rock
ii) aqueous rock
iii) silicious rock
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d

8. Which of the following is a rock ?

a) quartz
b) mica
c) gypsum
d) none of the above
Ans: c

9. Based on the following rocks and minerals, select the correct statement,
quartz, shale, basalt, granite, marble, gypsum, mica
a) basalt and marble are the only metamorphic rocks
b) there is no sedimentary rock
c) granite is the only igneous rock
d) quartz and mica are minerals
Ans: d
10. A heavy stone is suitable for
a) arches
b) rubble masonry
c) roads
d) retaining walls
Ans: d

11. The stone suitable for rubble masonry should be.

a) hard
b) tough
c) heavy
d) light
Ans: a

12. Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the most weather
resisting characteristics?
a) marble
b) quartzite
c) slate
d) lime stone
Ans: b

13. A good building stone should not absorb water more than
a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
Ans: a

14. Which of the following has more fire resisting characteristics ?

a) marble
b) lime stone
c) compact sand stone
d) granite
Ans: c

15. Jumper is a tool used for

a) testing of stones
b) quarrying of stones
c) dressing of stones
d) none of the above
Ans: b

16. The important test to be conducted on a stone used in docks and harbors
is-
a) hardness test
b) work ability test
c) weight test
d) toughness test
Ans: c

17. The predominant constituent which is responsible for strength in granite

is
a) quartz
b) feldspar
c) mica
d) none of the above
Ans: a

18. Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because

a) it can not be polished
b) it is not a fire proof material
c) it is costly
d) it has less crushing strength
Ans: c

19. Which of the following stone is best suited for construction of piers and
abutments of a railway bridge ?
a) granite
b) sand stone
c) lime stone
d) quartzite
Ans: a

20. The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or to obtain

stones of required size and shape is known as
a) quarrying of stones
b) blasting of stones
c) seasoning of stones
d) dressing of stones
Ans: d

21. Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more than

a) 50 MPa
b) 100 MPa
c) 150 MPa
d) 200 MPa
Ans: b

22. Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between
a) 1.5 to 2.0
b) 2.0 to 2.5
c) 2.5 to 3.0
d) 3.0 to 3.5
Ans: c

23. Spalling hammer is used for

a) driving wooden headed chisels
b) rough dressing of stones
c) carving of stones
d) breaking small projection of stones
Ans: b

24. Cross cut saw is used for

a) cutting soft stones
b) cutting hard stones
c) cutting large blocks of stones
d) dressing stones
Ans: b

25. Sapwood consists of

a) innermost annular rings around the pith
b) portion of timber between heartwood and cambium layer
c) thin layers below the bark
d) thin fibre which extends from the pith outwards and holds the annular rings
together
Ans: b
26. Which of the following trees yields hard wood ?
a) deodar
b) chir
c) shishum
d) pine
Ans: c

27. The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower
towards the pith are known as
a) heart shakes
b) cupshakes
c) starshakes
d) rindgalls
Ans: c

28. In which of the following pairs both trees yield soft wood?
a) deodar and shishum
b) chir and sal
c) sal and teak
d) chir and deodar
Ans: d

29. Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports goods ?
a) mulberry
b) mahogany
c) sal
d) deodar
Ans: a

30. Assertion A : Shishum is used for decorative woodwork.

Reason R : Shishum can be polished to an excellent finish.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: a
31. The disease of dry rot in timber is caused by
a) lack of ventilation
b) alternate wet and dry conditions
c) complete submergence in water
d) none of the above
Ans: a

32. Plywood has the advantage of’

a) greater tensile strength in longer direction
b) greater tensile strength in shorter direction
c) same tensile strength in all directions
d) none of the above
Ans: c

33. In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum ?

a) parallel to grains
b) 45° to grains
c) perpendicular to grains
d) same in all directions
Ans: a

34. The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is

a) 4% to 6%
b) 10% to 12%
c) 15% to 20%
d) 100%
Ans: b

35. The trunk of tree left after cutting all the branches is known as
a) log
b) batten
c) plank
d) baulk
Ans: a

36. The age of a tree can be known by examining

a) cambium layer
b) annular rings
c) medullary rays
d) heart wood
Ans: b

37. Plywood is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in such a way
that the angle between grains of any layer to grains of adjacent layers is
a) 0°
b) 30°
c) 45°
d) 90°
Ans: d

38. The plywood

a) has good strength along the panel only
b) can be spilt in the plane of the panel
c) has greater impact resistance to blows than ordinary wood
d) cannot be bent more easily than ordinary wood of same thickness
Ans: c

39. The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air drying of timber is
a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 25%
d) 35%
Ans: b

40. First class timber has an average life of

a) less than one year
b) 1 to 5 years
c) 5 to 10 years
d) more than 10 years
Ans: d

41. A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not
absorb water more than
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 22%
d) 25%
Ans: b
42. Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than
a) 3.5 N/mm2
b) 7.0 N/mm2
c) 10.5 N/mm2
d) 14.0 N/mm2
Ans: c

43. The main function of alumina in brick earth is

a) to impart plasticity
b) to make the brick durable
c) to prevent shrinkage
d) to make the brick impermeable
Ans: a

44. The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between

a) 5 to 10%
b) 20 to 30%
c) 50 to 60%
d) 70 to 80%
Ans: b

45. Excess of alumina in brick earth makes the brick

a) impermeable
b) brittle and weak
c) to lose cohesion
d) to crack and warp on drying
Ans: d

46. The nominal size of the modular brick is

a) 190 mm x 90mmx 80 mm
b) 190 mm x 190 mm x 90 mm
c) 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm
d) 200 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm
Ans: c

47. Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between

a) 5 to 10%
b) 20 to 30%
c) 50 to 60%
d) 70 to 80%
Ans: c

48. Excess of silica in brick earth results in

a) cracking and warping of bricks
b) loss of cohesion
c) enhancing the impermeability of bricks
d) none of the above
Ans: b

49. Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to
retain its shape ?
a) alumina
b) silica
c) iron
d) magnesia
Ans: b

50. Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful
and harmful constituents respectively of a good brick earth ?
a) lime stone and alumina
b) silica and alkalies
c) alumina and iron
d) alkalies and magnesium
Ans: b

51. The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is
known as
a) kneading
b) moulding
c) pugging
d) drying
Ans: a

52. Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that

a) it takes less time for burning
b) it gives more output of first class bricks
c) it has less initial cost
d) it is suitable when bricks are required in large numbers
Ans: c

53. The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is

a) equal to the size of a fully burnt brick
b) smaller than the size of a fully burnt brick
c) greater than the size of a fully burnt brick
d) none of the above
Ans: c

54. Pug mill is used for

a) preparation of clay
b) moulding of clay
c) drying of bricks
d) burning of bricks
Ans: a

55. Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces ?
a) overburnt bricks
b) underburnt bricks
c) refractory bricks
d) first class bricks
Ans: c

56. The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on

a) bottom face
b) top face
c) shorter side
d) longer side
Ans: b

57. Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is
a) 400
b) 450
c) 500
d) 550
Ans: c

58. Glazing is used to make earthenware

a) hard
b) soft
c) porous
d) impervious
Ans: d

59. Quick lime is

a) calcium carbonate
b) calcium oxide
c) calcium hydroxide
d) none of the above
Ans: b

60. Quick lime is

i) slow in setting
ii) rapid in slacking
iii) good in strength The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) only (ii)
c) both (i) and (ii)
d) both (ii) and (iii)
Ans: c

61. Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength.
Reason R : Pure lime has slow hardening characteristics.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a

62. Hydraulic lime is obtained by

a) burning of lime stone
b) burning of kankar
c) adding water to quick lime
d) calcination of pure clay
Ans: b
63. The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is
a) calcium oxide
b) silica
c) clay
d) water
Ans: c

64. Study the following statements.

i) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing,
ii) Fat lime is suitable for whitewashing,
iii) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar,
iv) Fat lime is suitable for making mortar.
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iv)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (ii)
d) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: b

65. The main ingredients of Portland cement are

a) lime and silica
b) lime and alumina
c) silica and alumina
d) lime and iron
Ans: a

66. The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable
properties of cement is
a) dicalcium silicate
b) tricalcium silicate
c) tricalcium aluminate
d) tetra calcium alumino ferrite
Ans: c

67. Le Chatelier’s device is used for determining the

a) setting time of cement
b) soundness of cement
c) tensile strength of cement
d) compressive strength of cement
Ans: b

68. The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of
cement is
a) dicalcium silicate
b) tricalcium silicate
c) tricalcium aluminate
d) all of the above
Ans: c

69. The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS
specifications should not be less than
a) 10 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 600 minutes
Ans: b

70. As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary
Portland cement should be
a) 30 minutes
b) 1 hour
c) 6 hours
d) 10 hours
Ans: d

71. For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is
a) 50 mm
b) 70.6 mm
c) 100 mm
d) 150 mm
Ans: a

72. The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
Ans: c

73. Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to

a) gypsum
b) finer grinding
c) tricalcium silicate
d) tricalcium aluminate
Ans: b

74. After storage, the strength of cement

a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same
d) may increase or decrease
Ans: a

75. According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary

portland cement after three days should not be less than
a) 7 MPa
b) 11.5 MPa
c) 16 MPa
d) 21 MPa
Ans: c

Building Materials and Construction Objective Type Questions ::

76. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary Portland cement increases

a) bleeding
b) shrinkage
c) permeability
d) heat of hydration
Ans: b

77. Gypsum consists of

a) H2S and C02
b) CaS04 and H20
c) Lime and H20
d) C02 and calcium
Ans: b

78. For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement
mortar is made by mixing cement and standard sand in the proportions of
a) 1:2
b) 1:3
c) 1:4
d) 1:6
Ans: b

79. The slump recommended for mass concrete is about

a) 25 mm to 50 mm
b) 50 mm to 100 mm
c) 100 mm to 125 mm
d) 125 mm to 150 mm
Ans: a

80. With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand

a) increases
b) decreases
c) first increases to a certain maximum value and then decreases
d) first decreases to a certain minimum value and then increases
Ans: c

81. Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete
structures such as large dams ?
a) ordinary Portland cement
b) low heat cement
c) rapid hardening cement
d) sulphate resisting cement
Ans: b

82. Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in

i) better workability
ii) better resistance to freezing and thawing
iii) lesser workability
iv) less resistance to freezing and thawing The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: a

83. The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of
concrete is
a) gypsum
b) calcium chloride
c) calcium carbonate
d) none of the above
Ans: b

84. The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in

cement in percentage by weight of cement is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: b

85. The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is

a) to increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
b) to decrease the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
c) to render the concrete more water tight
d) to improve the workability of concrete mix
Ans: a

86. Which of the following cements contains maximum percentage of

dicalcium silicate?
a) ordinary Portland cement
b) low heat cement
c) rapid hardening cement
d) sulphate resisting cement
Ans: b

87. The most commonly used retarder in cement is

a) gypsum
b) calcium chloride
c) calcium carbonate
d) none of the above
Ans: a

88. Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for
production of steel are
a) iron ore, coal and sulphur
b) iron ore, carbon and sulphur
c) iron ore, coal and lime stone
d) iron ore, carbon and lime stone
Ans: c

89. Compared to mild steel, cast iron has

i) high compressive strength
ii) high tensile strength
iii) low compressive strength
iv) low tensile strength
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (iii) and (iv)
d) (i)and(iv)
Ans: d

90. Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence on properties

of steel?
a) iron
b) carbon
c) manganese
d) sulphur
Ans: b

91. Which of the following is the purest form of iron ?

a) cast iron
b) wrought iron
c) mild steel
d) high carbon steel
Ans: b
92. The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is about
a) 160N/mm2
b) 260N/mm2
c) 420 N/mm2
d) 520 N/mm2
Ans: c

93. Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is

a) less than 0.25
b) between 0.25 and 0.7
c) between 0.7 and 1.5
d) greater than 1.5
Ans: a

94. Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of
structural steel ?
a) ultimate stress
b) yield stress
c) proof stress
d) none of the above
Ans: b

95. The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural
beams and channels is
a) less than 1
b) equal to 1
c) greater than 1
d) less than 1 in beams but greater than 1 in channels
Ans: a

96. Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of
a) wood work
b) iron work
c) both wood work and iron work
d) none of the above
Ans: a

97. Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for
painting of iron works.
Reason R : Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
a) Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: a

98. The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is

a) 0.2 liter
b) 0.4 liter
c) 0.6 liter
d) 0.8 liter
Ans: c

99. The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually

a) linseed oil
b) water
c) varnish
d) none of the above
Ans: c

100. Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for

indoor painting.
Reason R : Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below :
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: b

101. In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and
stretchers in each course is known as
a) English bond
b) double flemish bond
c) zigzag bond
d) single flemish bond
Ans: b
102. The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness
of wall is
a) 90 mm
b) 180 mm
c) 190 mm
d) 280 mm
Ans: a

103. The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should
be
a) along the direction of bedding planes
b) at 45° to the direction of bedding planes
c) at 60° to the direction of bedding planes
d) perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
Ans: d

104. Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker walls ?
a) headers
b) stretchers
c) brick bats
d) queen closer
Ans: a

105. A queen closer is a

a) brick laid with its length parallel to the face or direction of wall
b) brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face or direction of wall
c) brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the
breadth
d) brick with half the width at one end and full width at the other
Ans: c

106. Minimum thickness of wall where single flemish bond can be used is
a) half brick thick
b) one brick thick
c) one and a half bricks thick
d) two bricks thick
Ans: c
107. The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar
and for forming joints is
a) trowel
b) square
c) bolster
d) scutch
Ans: a

108. Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usater
than
a) 10 m
b) 20 m
c) 30 m
d) 40 m
Ans: d

109. The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is
a) single flemish bond
b) double flemish bond
c) English bond
d) zigzag bond
Ans: c

110. A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as
a) bed joint
b) wall joint
c) cross joint
d) bonded joint
Ans: c

111. The slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than
a) 10
by 20
c) 30
d) 40
Ans: b

112. The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick
construction are
a) 1:2
b) 1:4
c) 1:6
d) 1:8
Ans: a

113. Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of

joints in the header course, where x is equal to
a) 1/2
b) 1
c) 2
d) 1/4
Ans: a

114. As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course

should be
a) less
b) more
c) equal
d) equal or more
Ans: a

115. As compared to English bond, double flemish bond is

a) stronger
b) more compact
c) costly
d) none of the above
Ans: b

116. Single flemish bond consists of

a) double flemish bond facing and Eng-lish bond backing in each course
b) English bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
c) stretcher bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
d) double flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
Ans: a

117. The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandv soils should

not exceed
a) 25 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 65 mm
d) 100 mm
Ans: a

118. In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to
increase the bearing capacity of soils is to
a) increase the depth of foundation
b) drain the soil
c) compact the soil
d) replace the poor soil
Ans: d

119. The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel
columns is
a) raft foundation
b) grillage foundation
c) well foundation
d) isolated footing
Ans: b

120. The maximum total settlement for isolated foundations on clayey soils
should be limited to
a) 25 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 65 mm
d) 100 mm
Ans: c

121. The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces
is known as
a) friction pile
b) sheet pile
c) batter pile
d) anchor pile
Ans: c

122. The minimum depth of foundation in clayey soils is

a) 0.5 m
b) 0.7 m
c) 0.9 m
d) 1.2 m
Ans: c

123. The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should
be limited to
a) 25 mm
b) 25 to 40 mm
c) 40 to 65 mm
d) 65 to 100 mm
Ans: d

124. The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by

a) compacting the soil
b) draining the soil
c) increasing the depth of foundation
d) grouting
Ans: b

125. The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries
and other places where noiseless floor covering is desired is
a) cork flooring
b) glass flooring
c) wooden flooring
d) linoleum flooring
Ans: a

126. The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the
innercurve of an arch is known as
a) intrados
b) rise
c) spandril
d) extrados
Ans: b

127. Depth or height of the arch is the

a) perpendicular distance between intra-dos and extrados
b) vertical distance between springing line and intrados
c) perpendicular distance between springing line and extrados
d) none of the above
Ans: a

128. The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line
drawn through the crown of an arch is known as
a) haunch
b) spandril
c) voussoirs
d) skewbacks
Ans: b

129. The lintels are preferred to arches because

a) arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows
etc.
b) arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
c) arches are difficult in construction
d) all of the above
Ans: d

130. In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for

a) centring
b) actual laying of arch work
c) striking of centring
d) none of the above
Ans: c

131. The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat
arch for the purpose of carrying the load of the wall above is
a) segmental arch
b) pointed arch
c) relieving arch
d) flat arch
Ans: c

132. The type of joint commonly used at the junction of a principal rafter and
tie beam in timber trussess is
a) mortise and tennon joint
b) oblique mortise and tennon joint
c) butt joint
d) mitred joint
Ans: b

133. The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and
temperature is high is
a) pitched and sloping roof
b) flat roof
c) shell roof
d) none of the above
Ans: b

134. Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for

a) coastal regions
b) plain regions
c) covering large areas
d) all of the above
Ans: a

135. The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope
on each side is known as
a) gable roof
b) hip roof
c) gambrel roof
d) mansard roof
Ans: c

136. Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in

a) two directions without break in the slope on each side
b) two directions with break in the slope on each side
c) four directions without break in the slope on each side
d) four directions with break in the slope on each side
Ans: d

137. The horizontal timber piece provided at the apex of a roof truss which
supports the common rafter is called
a) ridge board
b) hip rafter
c) eaves board
d) valley rafter
Ans: a

138. The lower edge of the pitched roof, from where the rain water of the roof
surface drops down, is known as
a) hip
b) gable
c) ridge
d) eaves
Ans: d

139. Higher pitch of the roof

i) results in stronger roof
ii) results in weaker roof
iii) requires more covering material
iv) requires less covering material
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: a

140. Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of

a) 2.5 m
b) 3.5 m
c) 4.5 m
d) 5.5 m
Ans: c

141. In a colar beam roof

a) there is no horizontal tie beam
b) there is a horizontal tie at the feet of rafters only
c) there is a horizontal tie at almost the middle of rafters only
d) there are two horizontal ties, one at the feet and other at the middle of the
rafters
Ans: c
142. The function of king post in a king post roof truss is
a) to support the frame work of the roof
b) to receive the ends of principal rafter
c) to prevent the walls from spreading outward
d) to prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre
Ans: d

143. The function of cleats in a roof truss is

a) to support the common rafter
b) to support purlins
c) to prevent the purlins from tilting
d) all of the above
Ans: c

144. The term string is used for

a) the underside of a stair
b) outer projecting edge of a tread
c) a sloping member which supports the steps in a stair
d) a vertical member between two treads
Ans: c

145. The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom ends of a flight
supporting the hand rail are known as
a) balusters
b) newal posts
c) balustrades
d) railings
Ans: b

146. The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted

to
a) 10
b) 12
c) 15
d) no limit
Ans: b

147. The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) no limit
Ans: b

148. Sum of tread and rise must lie between

a) 300 to 350 mm
b) 400 to 450 mm
c) 500 to 550 mm
d) 600 to 650 mm
Ans: b

149. Minimum width of landing should be

a) equal to width of stairs
b) half the width of stairs
c) twice the width of stairs
d) one fourth the width of stairs
Ans: a

150. In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively
should be
a) 90° and 0°
b) 75° and 30°
c) 60° and 10°
d) 40° and 25°
Ans: d

300+ TOP Concrete Technology & Design of Concrete

Structures MCQs Pdf
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. To determine the modulus of rupture, the size of test specimen used is

a) 150 x150 x500 mm
b) 100 x100 x700 mm
c) 150 x150 x700 mm
d) 100 x100 x500 mm
Ans: c

2. The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends to rise
to the surface while placing and compacting, is called
a) segregation
b) bleeding
c) bulking
d) creep
Ans: b

3. Select the incorrect statement

a) Lean mixes bleed more as compared to rich ones.
b) Bleeding can be minimized by adding pozzuolana finer aggregate.
c) Bleeding can be increased by addition ‘of calcium chloride.
d) none of the above
Ans: d

4. The property of the ingredients to separate from each other while placing
the concrete is called
a) segregation
b) compaction
c) shrinkage
d) bulking
Ans: a

5. Workability of concrete is directly proportional to

a) aggregate cement ratio
b) time of transit
c) grading of the aggregate
d) all of above
Ans: c

6. Workability of concrete is inversely pro¬portional to

a) time of transit
b) ‘vater-cement ratio
c) the air in the mix
d) size of aggregate
Ans: a

7. Approximate value of shrinkage strain in concrete, is

a) 0.003
b) 0.0003
c) 0.00003
d) 0.03
Ans: b

8. Air entrainment in the concrete increases

a) workability
b) strength
c) the effects of temperature variations
d) the unit weight
Ans: a

9. The relation between modulus of rupture fcr, splitting strength fcs and
direct tensile strength fcl is given by
a) tcr – rcs = tct
b) fcr>fcs>fc.
C) fcr<fcs<fc>
d) fc5>fcr>fC.
Ans: b

10. The approximate value of the ratio between direct tensile strength and
flexural strength is
a) 0.33
b) 0.5
c) 0.75
d) 1.0
Ans: b

11. Strength of concrete increases with

a) increase in water-cement ratio
b) increase in fineness of cement
c) decrease in curing time
d) decrease in size of aggregate
Ans: b
12. The relation between modulus of rupturefcr and characteristic strength of
concrete fck is given by
a) fcr=0.35Vf7
b) fcr=0.57f7
c) fcr=0.7Vf7
d) fcr=1.2Vf7
where fcr and fck are in N/mm2′
Ans: c

13. The compressive strength of 100 mm cube as compared to 150 mm cube

is always
a) less
b) more
c) equal
d) none of the above
Ans: b

14. According to IS : 456 -1978, the modulus of elasticity of concrete Ec (in

N/mm2) can be taken as
a) Ec = = 5700
b) Ec = = 570
c) Ec = = 5700fck
d) Ec = where fck N/mm2 = 700 is the characteristic strength in
Ans: a

15. Increase in the moisture content in concrete

a) reduces the strength
b) increases the strength
c) does not change the strength
d) all of the above
Ans: a

16. As compared to ordinary portland cement, use of pozzuolanic cement

a) reduces workability
b) increases bleeding
c) increases shrinkage
d) increases strength
Ans: c
17. Admixtures which cause early setting, and hardening of concrete are
called
a) workability admixtures
b) accelerators
c) retarders
d) air entraining agents
Ans: b

18. The most commonly used admixture which prolongs the setting and
hardening time is
a) gypsum
b) calcium chloride
c) sodium silicate
d) all of the above
Ans: a

19. The percentage of voids in cement is approximately

a) 25%
b) 40%
c) 60%
d) 80%
Ans: b

20. The strength of concrete after one year as compared to 28 days strength
is about
a) 10 to 15% more
b) 15 to 20% more
c) 20 to 25% more
d) 25 to 50% more
Ans: c

21. As compared to ordinary portland cement, high alumina cement has

a) higher initial setting time but lower final setting time
b) lower initial setting time but higher final setting time
c) higher initial and final setting times
d) lower initial and final setting times
Ans: a
22. Modulus of rupture of concrete is a measure of
a) flexural tensile strength
b) direct tensile strength
c) compressive strength
d) split tensile strength
Ans: a

23. In order to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of
aggregate is
a) rounded
b) elongated
c) angular
d) all of the above
Ans: a

24. The effect of adding calcium chloride in concrete is

i) to increase shrinkage
ii) to decrease shrinkage
iii) to increase setting time
iv) to decrease setting time
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: b

25. Bulking of sand is maximum if moisture content is about

a) 2 %
b) 4%
c) 6%
d) 10%
Ans: b

26. Finer grinding of cement

a) affects only the early development of strength
b) affects only the ultimate strength
c) both (a) and (b)
d) does not affect the strength
Ans: a

27. Poisson’s ratio for concrete

a) remains constant
b) increases with richer mixes
c) decreases with richer mixes
d) none of the above
Ans: b

28. 1% of voids in a concrete mix would reduce its strength by about

a) 5%
b) 10 %
c) 15%
d) 20%
Ans: a

29. The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is in the range of

a) 2.0 to 3.5
b) 3.5 to 5.0
c) 5.0 to 7.0
d) 6.0 to 8.5
Ans: a

30. The factor of safety for

a) steel and concrete are same
b) steel is lower than that for concrete
c) steel is higher than that for concrete
d) none of the above
Ans: b

31. Examine the following statements :

i) Factor of safety for steel should be based on its yield stress,
ii) Factor of safety for steel should be based on its ultimate stress,
iii) Factor of safety for concrete should be based on its yield stress,
iv) Factor of safety for concrete should be based on its ultimate stress.
The correct statements are
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: b

32. For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shear stress diagram is
a) wholly parabolic
b) wholly rectangular
c) parabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis
d) rectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral axis
Ans: c

33. Diagonal tension in a beam

a) is maximum at neutral axis
b) decreases below the neutral axis and increases above the neutral axis
c) increases below the neutral axis and decreases above the neutral axis
d) remains same
Ans: c

34. If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be increased most
economi-cally by
a) increasing the depth of beam
b) using thinner bars but more in number
c) using thicker bars but less in number
d) providing vertical stirrups
Ans: b

35. If nominal shear stress tv exceeds the design shear strength of concrete
xc, the nominal shear reinforcement as per IS : 456-1978 shall be provided for
carrying a shear stress equal to
a) xv
b) xc
c) xv – TC
d) Tv + Tc
Ans: c

36. If the depth of actual neutral axis in a beam is more than the depth of
critical neutral axis, then the beam is called
a) balanced beam
b) under-reinforced beam
c) over-reinforced beam
d) none of the above
Ans: c

37. If the depth of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular section is
represented by kd in working stress design, then the value of k for balanced
section
a) depends on as, only
b) depends on aCbC only
c) depends on both crst and acbc
d) is independant of both ast and acbc where d is the effective depth, ast is
per-missible stress in steel in tension and ocbc is permissible stress in
concrete in bend¬ing compression.
Ans: a

38. If the permissible stress in steel in tension is 140 N/mm2, then the depth
of neutral axis for a singly reinforced rectangular balanced section will be
a) 0.35 d
b) 0.40 d
c) 0.45 d
d) dependent on grade of concrete also
Ans: b

39. Modulus of elasticity of steel as per IS : 456-1978 shall be taken as

a) 20 kN/cm2
b) 200 kN/cm2
c) 200kN/mm2
d) 2xl06N/cm2
Ans: c

40. Minimum grade of concrete to be used in reinforced concrete as per

IS:456-1978 is
a) M15
b) M20
c) M 10
d) M25
Ans: a
41. For concreting of heavily reinforced sections without vibration, the
workability of concrete expressed as compacting
factor should be
a) 0.75-0.80
b) 0.80-0.85
c) 0.85 – 0.92
d) above 0.92
Ans: d

42. Maximum quantity of water needed per 50 kg of cement for M 15 grade of

concrete is
a) 28 liters
b) 30 liters
c) 32 liters
d) 34 liters
Ans: c

43. In case of hand mixing of concrete, the extra cement to be added is

a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
Ans: b

44. For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form
work is generally removed after
a) 24 to 48 hours
b) 3 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days
Ans: a

45. The individual variation between test strength of sample should not be
more than
a) ±5% of average
b) ± 10% of average
c) ± 15% of average
d) ±20% of average
Ans: c
46. One of the criteria for the effecvve width of flange of T-beam is bf =—+ bw
+6Df 6
In above formula, l0 signifies
a) effective span of T-beam
b) distance between points of zero moments in the beam
c) distance between points of maximum moments in the beam
d) clear span of the T-beam
Ans: b

47. For a cantilever of effective depth of 0.5m, the maximum span to satisfy
vertical deflection limit is
a) 3.5 m
b) 4 m
c) 4.5 m
d) 5 m
Ans: a

48. For a simply supported beam of span 15m, the minimum effective depth
to satisfy the vertical deflection limits should be
a) 600 mm
b) 750 mm
c) 900 mm
d) more than 1 m
Ans: b

49. For a continuous slab of 3 m x 3.5 m size, the minimum overall depth of
slab to satisfy vertical deflection limits is
a) 50 mm
b) 75 mm
c) 100 mm
d) 120 mm
Ans: b

50. According to IS : 456-1978, the fiexural strength of concrete is

a) directly proportional to compressive strength
b) inversely proportional to compressive strength
c) directly proportional to square root of compressive strength
d) inversely proportional to square root of compressive strength
Ans: c
51. According to IS : 456-1978, the cblumn or the strut is the member whose
effective length is greater than
a) the least lateral dimension
b) 2 times the least lateral dimension
c) 3 times the least lateral dimension
d) 4 times the least lateral dimension
Ans: c

52. According to IS : 456- 1978, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column
is
a) less than 12
b) less than 18
c) between 18 and 24
d) more than 24
Ans: a

53. Lap length in compression shall not be less than

a) 15 4>
b) 20 <}>
c) 24 (j)
d) 30 (j)
where (j) is diameter of bar
Ans: c

54. The minimum cover in a slab should neither be less than the diameter of
bar nor less than
a) 10 mm
b) 15 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 13 mm
Ans: b

55. For a longitudinal reinforcing bar in a column, the minimum cover shall
neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less than
a) 15 mm
b) 25 mm
c) 30 mm
d) 40 mm
Ans: d
56. The ratio of the diameter of reinforcing bars and the slab thickness is
a) 1/4
b) 1/5
c) 1/6
d) 1/8
Ans: d

57. According to IS: 456-1978, the maximum reinforcement in a column is

a) 2 %
b) 4%
c) 6 %
d) 8 %
Ans: c

58. The percentage of reinforcement in case of slabs, when high strength

deformed bars are used is not less than
a) 0.15
b) 0.12
c) 0.30
d) 1.00
Ans: b

59. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

a) Minimum cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement in a column is
0.8%.
b) Spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of column
should not exceed 300 mm.
c) Reinforcing bars in a column should not be less than 12 mm in diameter.
d) The number of longitudinal bars provided in a circular column should not be
less than four.
Ans: d

60. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

a) Higher Vee-Bee time shows lower workability.
b) Higher slump shows higher workability.
c) Higher compacting factor shows higher workability.
d) none of the above
Ans: d
61. Minimum pitch of transverse reinforcement in a column is
a) the least lateral dimension of the member
b) sixteen times the smallest diameter of longitudinal reinforcement bar to be
tied
c) forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement
d) lesser of the above three values
Ans: d

62. Maximum distance between expansion joints in structures as per IS : 456

– 1978 is
a) 20 m
b) 30 m
c) 45 m
d) 60 m
Ans: c

63. A continuous beam is deemed to be a deep beam when the ratio of

effective span to
overall depth (1/D) is less than
a) 1.5
b) 2.0
c) 2.5
d) 3.0
Ans: c

64. Critical section for shear in case of flat slabs is at a distance of

a) effective depth of slab from periphery of column/drop panel
b) d/2 from periphery of column/capital/ drop panel
c) at the drop panel of slab
d) at the periphery of column
Ans:b

65. Minimum thickness of load bearing RCC wall should be

a) 50 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 150 mm
d) 200 mm
Ans:b
66. If the storey height is equal to length of RCC wall, the percentage increase
in strength is
a) 0
b) 10
c) 20
d) 30
Ans: b

67. In reinforced concrete footing on soil, the minimum thickness at edge

should not be less than
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm
Ans:b

68. The slab is designed as one way if the ratio of long span to short span is
a) less than 1
b) between 1 and 1.5
c) between 1.5 and 2
d) greater than 2
Ans: d

69. Ratio of permissible stress in direct compression and bending

compression is
a) less than 1
b) between 1 and 1.5
c) between 1.5 and 2.0
d) greater than 2
Ans: a

70. A higher modular ratio shows

a) higher compressive strength of con-crete
b) lower compressive strength of concrete
c) higher tensile strength of steel
d) lower tensile strength of steel
Ans:b
71. The average permissible stress in bond for plain bars in tension is
a) increased by 10% for bars in compression
b) increased by 25% for bars in compression
c) decreased by 10% for bars in compression
d) decreased by 25% for bars in compression
Ans:b

74. In working stress design, permissible bond stress in the case of deformed
bars is more than that in plain bars by
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
Ans: d

75. The main reason for providing number of reinforcing bars at a support in a
simply supported beam is to resist in that zone
a) compressive stress
b) shear stress
c) bond stress
d) tensile stress
Ans: c

76. Half of the main steel in a simply supported slab is bent up near the
support at a
distance of x from the center of slab bearing where x is equal to
a) 1/3
b) 1/5
c) 1/7
d) 1/10
where 1 is the span
Ans:c

77. When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is
reduced by
a) increasing the depth
b) providing shear reinforcement
c) using high strength steel
d) using thinner bars but more in number
Ans: a

78. If the size of panel in a flat slab is 6m x 6m, then as per Indian Standard
Code, the widths of column strip and middle strip are
a) 3.0 m and 1.5 m
b) 1.5 m and 3.0 m
c) 3.0 m and 3.0 m
d) 1.5 m and 1.5 m
Ans:c

79. For a slab supported on its four edges with corners held down and loaded
uniformly, the Marcus correction factor to the moments obtained by Grashoff
Rankine’s theory
a) is always less than 1
b) is always greater than 1
c) can be more than 1
d) can be less than 1
Ans: a

80. The permissible diagonal tensile stress in reinforced brick work is

a) about 0.1 N/mm2
b) zero
c) 0.3 N/mm2 to 0.7 N/mm2
d) about 1.0 N/mm2
Ans: a

81. The limits of percentage p of the longitudinal reinforce-ment in a column is

given by
a) 0.15% to 2%
b) 0.8% to 4%
c) 0.8% to 6%
d) 0.8% to 8%
Ans: c

82. The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars in a column is

a) 6 mm
b) 8 mm
c) 12 mm
d) 16 mm
Ans:c

83. The minimum cover to the ties or spirals should not be less than
a) 15 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 50mm
Ans: c

84. The load carrying capacity of a helically reinforced column as compared to

that of a tied column is about
a) 5% less
b) 10% less
c) 5% more
d) 10% more
Ans:c

86. The diameter of ties in a column should be

a) more than or equal to one fourth of diameter of main bar
b) more than or equal to 5 mm
c) more than 5 mm but less than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
d) more than 5 mm and also more than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
Ans: d

87. Due to circumferential action of the spiral in a spirally reinforced column

a) capacity of column is decreased
b) ductility of column reduces
c) capacity of column is decreased but ductility of column increases
d) both the capacity of column and ductility of column increase
Ans: d

88. Maximum percentage reinforcement in case of slabs is limited to

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
Ans: b
89. Which of the following R.C. retaining walls is suitable for heights beyond
6m?
a) L-shaped wall
b) T-shaped wall
c) counterfort type
d) all of the above
Ans: c

90. For the design of retaining walls, the minimum factor of safety against
overturning is taken as
a) 1.5
b) 2.0
c) 2.5
d) 3.0
Ans: b

Concrete Technology and Design of Concrete Structures Objective Questions

91. In counterfort type retaining walls

i) the vertical slab is designed as a continuous slab
ii) the heel slab is designed as a continuous slab
iii) the vertical slab is designed as a cantilever
iv) the heel slab is designed as a cantilever
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (iii) and (iv)
Ans:a

92. A T-shaped retaining wall mainly conssits of

a) one cantilever
b) two cantilevers
c) three cantilevers
d) four cantilevers
Ans: c

93. In T-shaped R C. retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem is

provided on
a) the front face in one direction
b) the front face in both directions
c) the inner face in one direction
d) the inner face in both directions
Ans:c

94. The main reinforcement in the toe of a T- shaped R C. retaining wall is

provided on
i) top face parallel to the wall
ii) top face perpendicular to the wall
iii) bottom face paralleUo the wall
iv) bottom face perpendicular to the wall
The correct answer is
a) only (ii) is correct
b) (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) only (iv) is correct
Ans: d

95. The temperature reinforcement in the vertical slab of a T-shaped R.C.

retaining wall is
a) not needed
b) provided equally on inner and front faces
c) provided more on inner face than on front face
d) provided more on front face than on inner face
Ans: d

96. The main reinforcement in the heel of a T-shaped R.C. retaining wall is
provided on
a) top face perpendicular to wall
b) bottom face perpendicular to wall
c) both top and bottom faces perpendicular to wall
d) none of the above
Ans: a

97. In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement is provided on the

i) bottom face in front counterfort
ii) inclined face in front counterfort
iii) bottom face in back counterfort
iv) inclined face in back counterEort
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii),
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (iii) and (iv)
Ans: c

98. In counterfort retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem at

support is
a) not provided
b) provided only on inner face
c) provided only on front face
d) provided both on inner and front faces
Ans: b

99. In the design of a front counterfort in a counterfort retaining wall, the main
reinforcement is provided on
i) bottom face near counterfort
ii) top face near counterfort
iii) bottom face near centre of span
iv) top face near centre of span The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) only (ii)
c) both (i) and (iv)
d) both (ii) and (iii)
Ans: c

100. In a counterfort retaining wall, the main reinforcement in the stem at mid
span is provided on
a) front face only
b) inner face only
c) both front face and inner face
d) none of the above
Ans: a

101. The depth of footing for an isolated column is governed by

i) maximum bending moment
ii) shear force
iii) punching shear The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d

102. If the foundations of all the columns of a structure are designed on the
total live and dead load basis, then
a) there will be no settlement of columns
b) there will be no differential settlement
c) the settlement of exterior columns will be more than interior columns
d) the settlement of interior columns will be more than exterior columns
Ans:c

103. To minimise the effect of differential settlement, the area of a footing

should be designed for
a) dead load only
b) dead load + live load
c) dead load + fraction of live load
d) live load + fraction of dead load
Ans: c

104. The critical section for finding maximum bending moment for footing
under masonry wall is located
a) at the middle of the wall
b) at the edge of the wall
c) halfway between the middle and edge of the wall
d) at a distance equal to effective depth of footing from the edge of the wall
Ans: c

105. In a pile of length /, the points of suspension from ends for lifting it are
located at
a) 0.207 1
b) 0.25 /
c) 0.293 /
d) 0.333 /
Ans: a
106. During erection, the pile of length / is supported by a crane at a distance
of
a) 0.207 /
b) 0.293 /
c) 0.7071
d) 0.793 /
from the driving end of pile which rests on the ground
Ans: c

107. While designing the pile as a column, the end conditions are nearly
a) both ends hinged
b) both ends fixed
c) one end fixed and other end hinged
d) one end fixed and other end free
Ans: c

108. The recommended value of modular ratio for reinforced brick work is
a) 18
b) 30
c) 40
d) 58
Ans: c

109. According to ISI recommendations, the maximum depth of stress block

for balanced section of a beam of effective depth d is
a) 0.43 d
b) 0.55 d
c) 0.68 d
d) 0.85 d
Ans: a

110. Assertion A : The load factor for live load is greater than that for dead
load.
Reason R : The live loads are more uncertain than dead loads.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below :
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a

111. The centroid of compressive force, from the extreme compression fiber,
in limit state design lies at a distance of
a) 0.367 xu
b) 0.416 xu
c) 0.446 xu
d) 0.573 xu
where xu is the depth of neutral axis at the limit state of collapse
Ans: b

112. The design yield stress of steel according to IS: 456-1978 is

a) 0.37 fy
b) 0.57 fy
c) 0.67 fy
d) 0.87 fy
where fy is the characteristic yield strength of steel
Ans: d

113. According to Whitney’s theory, ultimate strain of concrete is assumed to

be
a) 0.03%
b) 0.1%
c) 0.3%
d) 3%
Ans: c

114. According to Whitney’s theory, depth of stress block for a balanced

section of a concrete beam is limited to
a) 0.43 d
b) 0.537 d
c) 0.68 d
d) 0.85 d
where d is effective depth of beam[ES 2k]
Ans: b

115. The load factors for live load and dead load are taken respectively as
a) 1.5 and 2.2
b) 2.2 and 1.5
c) 1.5 and 1.5
d) 2.2 and 2.2
Ans:b

116. As per Whitney’s theory, the maximum moment of resistance of the

balanced section of a beam of width b and effective
depth d is given by
a) ^acybd2
b) ^acybd2
c) 0.185acybd2
d) 0.43acybd2
where acy is the cylinder compressive strength of concrete
Ans: b

127. The effect of creep on modular ratio is

a) to decrease it
b) to increase it
c) either to decrease or to increase it
d) to keep it unchanged
Ans: b

128. Shrinkage of concrete depends upon

i) humidity of atmosphere
ii) passage of time
iii) stress The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) only (iii)
d) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: a

129. Due to shrinkage stresses, a simply supported beam having

reinforcement only at bottom tends to
a) deflect downward
b) deflect upward
c) deflect downward or upward
d) none of the above
Ans: a
130. In symmetrically reinforced sections, shrinkage stresses in concrete and
steel are respectively
a) compressive and tensile
b) tensile and compressive
c) both compressive
d) both tensile
Ans: b

131. A beam curved in plan is designed for

a) bending moment and shear
b) bending moment and torsion
c) shear and torsion
d) bending moment, shear and torsion
Ans: d

132. In a spherical dome subjected to concentrated load at crown or uniformly

distributed load, the meridional force is always
a) zero
b) tensile
c) compressive
d) tensile or compressive
Ans: c

133. Sinking of an intermediate support of a continuous beam

i) reduces the negative moment at support
ii) increases the negative moment at support
iii) reduces the positive moment at center of span
iv) increases the positive moment at center of span The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: b

134. The maximum value of hoop compression in a dome is given by

a) wR / 4d
b) wR/2d
c) wR/d
d) 2wR/d
where, w = load per unit area of surface of dome R = radius of curvature d =
thickness of dome
Ans: b

135. In a spherical dome the hoop stress due to a concentrated load at crown
is
a) compressive everywhere
b) tensile everywhere
c) partly compressive and partly tensile
d) zero
Ans:b

136. In a ring beam subjected to uniformly distributed load

i) shear force at mid span is zero
ii) shear force at mid span is maximum
iii) torsion at mid span is zero
iv) torsion at mid span is maximum The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:a

137. In prestressed concrete

a) forces of tension and compression change but lever arm remains
unchanged
b) forces of tension and compressions remain unchanged but lever arm
changes with the moment
c) both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm change
d) both forces of tension and compres-sion as well as lever arm remain
unchanged
Ans: b

138. The purpose of reinforcement in prestressed concrete is

a) to provide adequate bond stress
b) to resist tensile stresses
c) to impart initial compressive stress in concrete
d) all of the above
Ans: c
139. Normally prestressing wires are arranged in the
a) upper part of the beam
b) lower part of the beam
c) center
d) anywhere
Ans: b

140. Most common method of prestressing used for factory production is

a) Long line method
b) Freyssinet system
c) Magnel-Blaton system
d) Lee-Macall system
Ans:a

141. Select the incorrect statement

a) The loss of prestress is more in pre-tensioning system than in post-
tensioning system.
b) Pretensioning system has greater certainty about its durability.
c) For heavy loads and large spans in buildings or bridges, post-tensioning
system is cheaper than pretensioning system
d) none of the above
Ans:d

142. Which of the following losses of prestress occurs only in pretensioning

and not in post-tensioning ?
a) elastic shortening of concrete
b) shrinkage of concrete
c) creep of concrete
d) loss due to friction
Ans: a

143. Prestress loss due to friction occurs

a) only in post-tensioned beams
b) only in pretensioned beams
c) in both post-tensioned and preten-sioned beams
d) none of the above
Ans:a
145. Which of the following has high tensile strength ?
a) plain hot rolled wires
b) cold drawn wires
c) heat treated rolled wires
d) all have same tensile strength
Ans: b

146. High carbon content in the steel causes

a) decrease in tensile strength but increase in ductility
b) increase in tensile strength but decrease in ductility
c) decrease in both tensile strength and ductility
d) increase in both tensile strength and ductility
Ans:b

147. Stress strain curve of high tensile steel

a) has a definite yield point
b) does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.1% proof
stress
c) does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.2% proof
stress
d) does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 2% proof
stress,
Ans: c

148. Select the correct statement

a) Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is nearly the same as that of mild
steel.
b) Elastic modulus of high tensile steel is more than that of mild steel.
c) Carbon percentage in high carbon steel is less than that in mild steel.
d) High tensile steel is cheaper than mild steel.
Ans:a

149. Cube strength of controlled concrete to be used for pretensioned and

post-tensioned work respectively should not be less than
a) 35 MPa and 42 MPa
b) 42 MPa and 35 MPa
c) 42 MPa and 53 MPa
d) 53 MPa and 42 MPa
Ans: b
150. Ultimate strength of cold drawn high steel wires
a) increases with increase in diameter of bar
b) decreases with increase in diameter of bar
c) does not depend on diameter of bar
d) none of the above
Ans: b

151. Prestressing losses in post-tensioned and pre-tensioned beams are

respectively
a) 15% and 20%
b) 20% and 15%
c) 15% and 15%
d) 20% and 20%

152. In concrete, use of angular crushed aggregate in place of natural rounded

gravel affects
a) direct tensile strength
b) split tensile strength
c) flexural tensile strength
d) compressive strength

153. Ratio of compressive strength to tensile strength of concrete

a) increases with age
b) decreases with age
c) remains constant
d) none of the above

154. According to Indian Standards, the grad¬ing of fine aggregates is divided

into
a) two zones
b) three zones
c) four zones
d) five zones

155. Assertion A : Lightweight concrete exhi¬bits higher shrinkage than

normal weight concrete.
Reason R : Modulus of elasticity of light-weight concrete is lower, than that of
normal weight concrete. Select your answer according to the coding system
given below :
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A.and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

156. Endurance limit of mild steel is approximately equal to,

a) 0.3
b) 0.5
c) 0.7
d) 0.8
Endurance limit is defined as the maxi-mum value of the ratio of maximum
stress to short time static strength, below which no failure occurs.

157. With the increase in rate of loading during testing, compressive strength
of concrete
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) none of the above

158. For a given aggregate content, increasing the water-cement ratio in

concrete
a) increases shrinkage
b) decreases shrinkage
c) does not change shrinkage
d) none of the above

159. Assertion A : The net loss of strength due to air entrainment of a richer
mix is higher than that of a leaner mix. Reason R : Effect of air entrainment on
improving workability is smaller in richer mix than in a leaner mix. Select your
answer based on the coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

160. The bond strength between steel rein-forcement and concrete is affected
by i) steel properties ii) concrete properties iii) shrinkage of concrete The
correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

161. The bond strength between steel and concrete is due to

a) friction
b) adhesion
c) both friction and adhesion
d) none of the above

162. Impact strength of concrete increases by using

i) smaller maximum size of aggregate
ii) aggregate with high modulus of elasticity
iii) aggregate with low poisson’s ratio The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

163. Impact strength of concrete is greater for

i) water stored concrete than for dry concrete
ii) angular crushed aggregates
iii) rounded aggregates The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i) and (iii)
c) only (i)
d) only (ii)

164. If the contributions of tricalcium silicate, dicalcium silicate, tricalcium

aluminate
and terra calcium alumino ferrite to the 28 days strength of hydrated ordinary
Portland cement are respectively W, X, Y
and Z, then
a) W>.X>Y>Z
b) X>W>Y>Z
c) W>X>Z>Y
d) W>Y>X>Z
165. The initial and final setting times for ordinary portland cement are
approxi¬
mately related as
a) T = 530 + t
b) T = 270 + t
c) T = 90+1.2t
d) T = 600-1.2t
where T and t are respectively final and initial setting times in minutes. * 166
Assertion A : The presence of tricalcium aluminate in cement is undesirable.
Reason R : Tricalcium aluminate in cement contributes very little to strength of
cement.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

167. Amount of gypsum required to be added to the clinker depends on the

following contents of cement i) tricalcium silicate ii) dicalcium silicate iii)
tricalcium aluminate iv) alkali The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (iii) and (iv)
d) (i)and(iv)

168. The diameter of needle used in Vicat’s apparatus for the determination of
initial
setting time is prescribed as
a) 0.5 mm
b) 1 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 10mm

169. The heat of hydration of cement can be reduced by

a) reducing the proportions of C3A and C3S
b) increasing the proportions of C3A and C3S
c) increasing the fineness of cement
d) both (a) and (c)
171. Assertion A : Rapid hardening cement is generally not used in mass
concrete construction.
Reason R : The rate of heat development is low in rapid hardening cement.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

172. If the angularity number of an aggregate is increased, then the workability

of the concrete using this aggregate will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) not change
d) none of the above

173. If W,, W2, W3 and W4 are the weights of sand in oven dry, air dry,
saturated but
surface dry and moist conditions respectively, then the moisture content of
sand is
a) W3 – W,
b) W4-W2
c) W4-W3
d) W3-W2

174. The ordinate of grading curve of an aggregate represents

a) cumulative percentage passing each sieve plotted on normal scale
b) cumulative percentage passing each sieve plotted on logarithmic scale
c) sieve size plotted on normal scale
d) sieve size plotted on logarithmic scale

175. Increase in fineness modulus of aggregate indicates

a) finer grading
b) coarser grading
c) gap grading
d) none of the above

176. Weight of an oven dry sand and air dry sand are 500 gm and 520 gm
respectively.
If the weight of the same sand under saturated but surface dry condition is
525 gms, then the water absorption of sand is
a) 1%
b) 4%
c) 4.76%
d) 5%

177. Soundness test of cement by Le-Chatelier’s apparatus gives

unsoundness due to
a) free lime only
b) magnesia only
c) both free lime and magnesia
d) none of the above

178. Maximum permissible limit of magnesia content in ordinary Portland

cement is
a) 4%
b) 6%
c) 8%
d) 10%

300 TOP Construction Planning and Management Objective

Questions and Answers
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. PERT technique of network analysis is mainly useful for

a) small projects
b) large and complex projects
c) research and development projects
d) deterministic activities
Ans: c

2. Select the correct statement.

a) Activity arrows in a CPM network are drawn to scale
b) The tail of an arrow represents the finish of an activity
c) Arrow bead represents the start of an activity
d) none of the above
Ans: d

3. Which of the following is a weakness of bar chart ?

a) interdependencies of activities
b) project progress
c) uncertainties
d) all of the above
Ans: d

4. In the network shown in Fig. 7.1, activity 4-5 can be started only when

a) activity 3-4 is completed

b) activity 2-4 is completed
c) activity 2-3 is completed
d) activity 2-4 and 2>-A both are com-pleted
Ans: d

5. Which of the following is not a PERT event ?

a) site investigation started
b) sessional work completed
c) bus starts from Jaipur
d) class is being attended
Ans: d

6. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities and probability of their

occurrence follow
a) normal distribution curve
b) Poisson’s distribution curve
c) Beta – distribution curve
d) none of the above
Ans: c

7. The area under the Beta – distribution curve is divided into two equal parts
by
a) most likely time
b) optimistic time
c) pessimistic time
d) expected time
Ans: d
8. According to Fulkerson’s rule, what are the correct event numbers
corresponding to events A, B, C, D,E, F and G of the network shown in Fig. ?
Fig.7.2
a) 1, 2,3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 respectively
b) 1, 3,2,4, 5,6 and 7 respectively
c) 1,2, 3, 5, 6,4 and 7 respectively
d) 1, 3,2, 5, 6,4 and 7 respectively
Ans: b

9. With reference to the network shown in Fig. , which statement is

incorrect ?

a) Events 3 and 4 occur after event 2.

b) Event 7 can occur after event 4.
c) Event 7 precedes event 6.
d) Event 5 follows event 3.
Ans: b

10. In the network shown in Fig.(above Figure), the concurrent and preceding
activities corresponding to activity 2-4 are respectively

a) 1-2 and 4-7

b) 2-3 and 1-2
c) 2-3 and 4-7
d) 1-2 and 3-6
Ans: b

11. Which of the following does not represent an activity?

a) site located
b) foundation is being dug
c) the office area is being cleaned
d) the invitations are being sent
Ans: a

12. Earliest finish of an activity is always

a) greater than earliest event time of the following node
b) less than earliest event time of the following node
c) less than or equal to earliest event time of the following node
d) greater than or equal to earliest event time of the following node
Ans: c
13. Select the incorrect statement.
a) Earliest start of an activity is the early event time of the node it leaves.
b) Latest finish of an activity is the late event time of the node it enters.
c) Latest start of an activity is its latest finish minus its duration.
d) none of the above
Ans: d

14. In the network shown in Fig. the earliest start time of activity 5-6 is (the
number on the arrow shows duration of the activity)
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 5
Ans: c

15. Latest start of an activity is always

a) greater than or equal to latest event time of preceding node

b) less than or equal to latest event time of preceding node
c) equal to latest event time of preceding node
d) less than latest event time of preceding node
Ans: a

16. In the network shown in Fig. (15 fig) the latest start time of an activity 4-5
is
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 7
Ans: b

17. In the network shown in Fig. 7.5, the activity 6-8 can be started only when
a) activity 4—6 is completed
b) activity 3 – 5 is completed
c) activity 2—3 is completed
d) both activities 2—3 and 4—6 are completed
Ans: d
18. If the optimistic time, most likely time and pessimistic time for activity A
are 4, 6 and 8 respectively and for activity B are 5, 5.5 and 9 respectively,
then

a) expected time of activity A is greater than the expected time of activity B

b) expected time of activity B is greater than the expected time of activity A
c) expected time of both activities A and B are same
d) none of the above
Ans: c

19. If an activity has its optimistic, most likely and pessimistic times as 2, 3
and 7 respectively, then its expected time and variance are respectively
a) 3.5 and 5/6
b) 5 and 25/36
c) 3.5 and 25/36
d) 4 and 5/6
Ans: c

20. Select the incorrect statement.

a) Start float and finish float are always equal.
b) Total float can be either start float or finish float.
c) Start float and finish float need not be equal.
d) Start float and finish float are the differences between activity times and
not event times.
Ans: c

21. Free float is mainly used to

a) identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float
of preceding activity
b) identify the activities, which can be delayed without affecting the total float
of succeeding activity
c) establish priorities
d) identify the activities which can be delayed without affecting the total float
of either the preceding or succeeding activities
Ans: b

22. Whenever an activity has zero total float, then

a) free float of the activity must be zero but independent float need not be
zero
b) independent float must be zero but free float need not be zero
c) free float and independent float both must be zero
d) free float and independent float both need not be zero
Ans: c

23. Total float for any activity is defined as the difference between
a) its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
b) its latest start time and earliest start time
c) its latest start time and earliest finish time
d) its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
Ans: b

24. In the network shown in Fig. independent float for the activity 3-5 will be
(the number on the arrow shows the duration of activity)
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) none of the above
Ans: b

25. In the network shown in Fig. (below fig), the critical path is

a) 1-2-3-4-5-6
b) 1-2-4-5-6
c) 1-2-3-5-6
d) 1-2-4-3-5-6
Ans: a

26. Select the incorrect statement.

a) A critical path always begins at the very first event.
b) A critical path always terminates at the last event.
c) Critical activities control the project duration.
d) Critical activity is the one for which free float is zero.
Ans: d

27. Free float for any activity is defined as the difference between
a) its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
b) its latest start time and earliest start time
c) its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
d) its earliest finish time and latest start time for its successor activity
Ans: a

28. Critical path

a) is always longest
b) is always shortest
c) may be longest
d) may be shortest
Ans: a

29. The independent float affects only

a) preceding activities
b) succeeding activities
c) the particular activity involved
d) none of the above
Ans: c

30. A father notes that when his teenage daughter uses the telephone, she
takes not less than 6 minutes for a call and som? times as much as an hour.
Fifteen minutes call are more frequent than calls of any other duration. If
these phone calls were an activity in PERT project, then phone calls expected
duration will be
a) 15 minutes
b) 20.143 minutes
c) 21 minutes
d) 27 minutes
Ans: c

31. What estimate would you give for the variance in above problem ?
a) 81
b) 54
c) 36
d) 9
Ans: a

32. The time by which a particular activity can be delayed without affecting
the preceding and succeeding activities is known as
a) total float
b) free float
c) interfering float
d) independent float
Ans: d

33. The time with which direct cost does not reduce with the increase in time
is known as
a) crash time
b) normal time
c) optimistic time
d) standard time
Ans: b

34. The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is

a) crash time
b) normal time
c) optimistic time
d) between normal time and crash time
Ans: d

35. The direct cost of a project with respect to normal time is

a) minimum
b) maximum
c) zero
d) infinite
Ans: a

36. The reduction in project time normally results in

a) decreasing the direct cost and increasing indirect cost
b) increasing the direct cost and decreasing the indirect cost
c) increasing the direct cost and indirect cost both
d) decreasing the direct cost and indirect cost both
Ans: b

37. Economic saving of time results by crashing

a) cheapest critical activity
b) cheapest non-critical activity
c) costliest critical activity
d) costliest non-critical activity
Ans: a
38. The process of incorporating changes and rescheduling or replanning is
called
a) resource levelling
b) resource smoothening
c) updating
d) critical path scheduling
Ans: c

39. Slack time refers to

a) an activity
b) an event
c) both event and activity
d) none of the above
Ans: b

40. The normal time required for the completion of project in the above
problem is
a) 9 days
b) 13 days
c) 14 days
d) 19 days
Ans: c

41. The constraints in case of resource smoothening operation would be

a) resources
b) project duration time
c) both resources and project duration time
d) none of the above
Ans: b

42. Updating may result in

a) change of critical path
b) decrease of project completion time
c) increase of project completion time
d) all of the above
Ans: d

43. Crash project duration is obtained by summing the

a) normal durations for all the activities
b) crash durations for all activities
c) crash durations for all the activities along the critical path obtained by
taking into account the normal duration for all the activities
d) crash durations for all the activities along the critical path obtained by
taking into account the crash duration for all the activities.
Ans: d

44. Interfering float is the difference between

a) total float and free float
b) total float and independent float
c) free float and independent float
d) none of the above
Ans: a

45. Assertion (A): Activity 5-7 is critical.

Reason (R) : Earliest finish time and latest finish time for events 5-7 are
same Select the correct answer.
a) A is correct but R is not correct
b) R is correct but A is not correct
c) both A and R are correct
d) both A and R are incorrect
Ans: a

46. A tractor whose weight is 20 tonnes has a drawbar pull of 2500 kg, when
operated on a level road having a rolling resistence of 30 kg per tonne. If this
tractor is operated on a level road having a rolling resistance of 40 kg per
tonne, then the drawbar pull of the tractor will
a) reduce by 200 kg
b) increase by 200 kg
c) increase by 250 kg
d) reduce by 250 kg
Ans: a

47. Which of the following earth moving machines has the shortest cycle
time?
a) Drag line
b) Hoe
c) Clam shell
d) Dipper shovel
Ans: d

48. Which of the following excavators is most suitable for digging under
water?
a) Drag line
b) Hoe
c) Clam shell
d) Dipper shovel
Ans: a

49. The part of a derrick crane include

(i) Mast
(ii) Boom
(iii) Bull wheel
(iv) Jack
Of these statements
a) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Ans: d

50. For which of the following materials, the output of power shovels for a
fixed shovel size will be maximum
a) Moist loam
b) Good common earth
c) We|l blasted rock
d) Wet sticky clay
Ans: a

Construction Planning and Management Interview Questions

51. For a given size of bucket, the ideal output of a dragline will be least in
a) Moist loam
b) Sand and gravel
c) Good common earth
d) Wet sticky clay
Ans: d
52. Consider the following statements for a power shovel:
(i) Output can be increased by reducing the angle of swing for a given depth of
cut.
(ii) For a given angle of swing, output will be maximum at optimum depth of
cut.
(iii) Output can be increased by keeping the depth of cut less than optimum
depth,
(iv) Output can be increased by increasing the size of shovel. Of these
statements
a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Ans: b

53. Assertion A: For a given depth of cut, the output of a power shovel can be
increased by decreasing the angle of swing.
Reason R: If the angle of swing is decreased, the cycle time will be
decreased.
Select the correct answer.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a

54. If the output of a dragline for 90° angle of swing at optimum depth of cut
is X, then the output for 120° angle of swing at 120 % of optimum depth of
cut will be
a) equal to X
b) more than X
c) less than X
d) any of the above
Ans: c

55. Output of a bulldozer is

(i) increased if drawbar HP of the tractor is increased for a given hauling
distance
(ii) decreased if drawbar HP of the tractor is increased for a given hauling
distance
(iii) increased if the hauling distance is increased for a given drawbar HP of
the tractor
(iv) decreased if the hauling distance is increased for a given drawbar HP of
the tractor Of these statement
a) (i) and (iii) are correct
b) (i) and (iv) are correct
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Ans: b

56. A machine is purchased for Rs. 10,000,00/- and has an estimated life of
10 years. The salvage value at the end of 10 years is Rs. 1,50,000/-. The
book value of the machine at the end of 5 years using general straight line
method of evaluation of depreciation is
a) Rs. 4,75,000/-
b) Rs. 5,75,000/-
c) Rs. 6,50,000/-
d) Rs. 8,50,000/-
Ans: b

57. An excavator costs Rs. 20,00,000/- and has an estimated life of 8 years.
It has no salvage value at the end of 8 years. The book value of the excavator
at the end of 3 years using general double declining balance method is
a) Rs. 8,43,750/-
b) Rs. 8,75,000/-
c) Rs. 10,50,000/-
d) Rs. 11,56,250/-
Ans: a

58. If the excavation of earth is done manually then it costs Rs. 10 per cum.
A machine can excavate at a fixed cost of Rs. 4000 plus a variable cost of Rs.
2 per cum. The quantity of earth for which the cost of excavation by machine
will be equal to the cost of manual excavation is
a) 500 cum
b) 1000 cum
c) 1500 cum
d) 2000 cum
Ans: a
59. Which one of the following surfaces will give highest coefficient of
traction while using crawler track tractors?
a) Ice
b) Concrete
c) Loose sand
d) Earth
Ans: d

60. Rolling resistance of a wheel depends upon

(i) Vehicle load
(ii) Grade
(iii) Ground conditions Of these statements
a) only (i) is correct
b) (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (i) and (iii) are correct
d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Ans: c

61. Which of the following surfaces will give highest rolling resistance for a
rubber tyred vehicle?
a) Concrete
b) Loose sand
c) Asphalt
d) Firm earth
Ans: b

62. If the gross vehicle weight of a truck is 30 t and rolling resistance is 30

kg/tonne, then the tractive effort required to keep the truck moving at a
uniform speed is
a) 30 kg
b) 300 kg
c) 900 kg
d) 1000 kg
Ans: c

63. The grade resistance factor for an earth moving machine can be obtained
by multiplying grade percentage by a factor approximately equal to
a) 2 kg/tonne
b) 6 kg/tonne
c) 9 kg/tonne
d) 20 kg/tonne
Ans: c

64. A wheeled tractor hauling unit is working on firm earth. The total loaded
weight distribution of this unit is:
Drive wheels : 25000 kg
Scraper wheels : 10000 kg
If the coefficient of traction for wheeled tractor on firm earth is 0.5, the
rimpull which this tractor can exert without slipping is
a) 10000 kg
b) 12500 kg
c) 22500 kg
d) 5000 kg
Ans: b

65. A four wheel trac*or whose operating weight is 12000 kg is pulled along
a road having a rising slope of 2% at a uniform speed. Assume grade
resistance factor = 10 kg/tonne. The tension in the tow cable is 720 kg. The
rolling resistance of the road will be
a) 20 kg/tonne
b) 30 kg/tonne
c) 40 kg/tonne
d) 50 kg/tonne
Ans: c

66. An earth moving equipment costs Rs. 5,00,000/- and has an estimated
life of 10 years and a salvage value of Rs. 50,000/-.What uniform annual
amount must be set aside at the end of each of the 10 years for replacement
if the interest rate is 8% per annum and if the sinking fund factor at 8% per
annum interest rate for 10 years is 0.069 ?
a) Rs. 31050
b) Rs. 34500
c) Rs. 37950
d) Rs. 50000
Ans: a

67. A machine costs Rs. 20000 and its useful life is 8 years. The money is
borrowed at 8% interest per annum. The capital recovery factor at 8% interest
per annum for 8 years is 0.174. The annual equipment cost of the machine
will be
a) Rs.1740
b) Rs.3480
c) Rs.5220
d) Rs.6960
Ans: b

68. The probability of completion of any activity within its expected time is
a) 50%
b) 84.1%
c) 99.9%
d) 100%
Ans: a

69. If the scheduled completion time of a project is more than the earliest
expected time for completion of the project, then the probability of
completion of the project within the scheduled completion time will be
a) 50%
b) less than 50%
c) more than 50%
d) 100%
Ans: c

70. If the expected time for completion of a project is 10 days with a

standard deviation of 2 days, the expected time of completion of the project
with 99.9% probability is
a) 4 days
b) 6 days
c) 10 days
d) 16 days
Ans: d

71. If the expected time of completion of a project is 60 weeks with a

standard deviation of 5 weeks, the probability of completing the project in 50
weeks and 65 weeks respectively will be
a) 2.3% and 84.1%
b) 97.7% and 84.1%
c) 97.7 % and 15.9%
d) 15.9% and 97.7%
Ans: a

72. A tractor shovel has a purchase price of Rs. 4.7 lacs and could save the
organization an amount of rupees one lac per year on operating costs. The
salvage value after the amortization period is 10% of the purchase price. The
capital recovery period will be
a) 3.7 years
b) 4.23 years
c) 5 years
d) 7.87 years
Ans: b

73. Consider the following statements:

In the bar chart planning
1. interdependence of the operations cannot be portrayed.
2. progress of work can be measured.
3. spare time of the activities can be determined.
4. schedule cannot be updated.
Of these statements
a) 1,2 and 3 are correct
b) 1 and 4 are correct
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d) 1,2 and 4 are correct
Ans: b

74. Consider the following statements :

In the critical path method of construction planning, Free Float can be.
1. greater than Total Float.
2. greater than Independent Float
3. equal to Total Float.
4. less than Independent Float. Of these statements
a) 1 and 4 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 4 are correct
d) 1 and 2 are correct
Ans: b
75. In time-cost optimization of a project, crashing is done.
a) on all the activities
b) on all the activities lying on the critical path
c) only on activities lying on the orginal critical path and having flatter cost
slopes
d) on original critical activities and those that become critical at any stage of
crashing in the order of ascending cost slope
Ans: d

76. During the construction period, price variation clause in contracts caters
to
a) increase in rates of only important materials
b) variation in cost in materials element, labour element and petrol-oil-
lubricant element
c) variation in total cost of the project on an ad hoc basis
d) rate of inflation
Ans: b

77. At a work site, statistical quality control of concrete means

a) measurement of risks to eliminate failures
b) applying the theory’ of probability to sample testing or inspection
c) reduction in wastage of inspection costs
d) reduction in costs for the removal of defects
Ans: b

78. In India, are prefabricated components costlier than those of traditional

cast-in-situ items that the prefabricated components replace?
a) Yes, because of heavier overheads and handling cost
b) Yes, because of the very high order of quality control for the factory made
components
c) No, because of repetitive manufacture of a number of elements
d) No, because of savings in site labour
Ans: c

79. Mobilization advance up to 10% of the cost of work is given to a

contractor
a) on commencement of work at site for payment of loan taken by him
b) for the purchase of construction materials
c) for the payment of advances to labour and other staff
d) for all activities required to start the work at site on finalization of the
contract document
Ans: d

80. Sinking fund is

a) the fund for rebuilding a structure when its economic life is over
b) raised to meet maintenance costs
c) the total sum to be paid to the municipal authorities by the tenants
d) a part of the money kept in reserve for providing additional structures and
structural modifications
Ans: a

81. A contractor has two options;© : Invest his money in project A or (II) :
Invest his money in project B. If he decides to invest in A, for every rupee
invested, he is assured of doubling his money in ten years. If he decides to
invest in B, he is assured of making his money 1.5 times in 5 years. If the
contractor values his money at 10% interest rate, he
a) should invest in neither of the two projects
b) could invest in either of the two projects
c) should invest in project A
d) should invest in project B
Ans: a

82. In resources levelling

a) total duration of project is reduced
b) total duration of project is increased
c) uniform demand of resources is achieved
d) cost of project is controlled
Ans: c

83. The original cost of an equipment is Rs.10,000/-. Its salvage value at the
end of its total useful life of five years is Rs. 1,000/-. Its book value at the
end of two years of its useful life (as per straight line method of evaluation of
depreciation) will be
a) Rs. 8,800/-
b) Rs. 7,600/-
c) Rs. 6,400/-
d) Rs. 5,000/-
Ans: c
84. Consider the following features/factors :
1. Projects are of the non-repetitive type.
2. Time required need not be known.
3. Time required is known precisely.
4. Events have been established for planning.
5. Emphasis is given to activities of project.
PERT is preferred for planning because of
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 3,4 and 5
c) 1,3 and 4
d) 1,2 and 5
Ans: a

85. Consider the following activities in a building construction:

1. Concreting of roof slabs
2. Brick-jelly lime concrete terracing
3. Erection of form work for slab
4. Construction of parapet wall in terrace
The correct sequence of these activities is
a) 1,3,2,4
b) 3,1,4,2
c) 3,1,2,4
d) 1,3,4, 2
Ans: c

86. Consider the following operations :

1. Drilling
2. Blasting
3. Mucking
4. Placing steel
5. Placing concrete
The correct sequence of these operations in tunnel construction is
a) 1,2,4,3,5
b) 1,3,2,4,5
c) 1,2,3,4,5
d) 1,3,4,2,5
Ans: c
87. For a given activity, the optimistic time, pessimistic time and the most
probable estimates are 5, 17 and 8 days respectively, The expected time is
a) 8 days
b) 9 days
c) 10 days
d) 15 days
Ans: b

88. The maximum rimpull in the first gear of a tractor while towing a load is
6300 kg. The tractor weighs 12.5 tonnes and is operating along a 2 percent
upgrade and the rolling resistance is 45 kg/tonne. Pull available for towing
the load is
a) 3425 kg
b) 5515 kg
c) 4350 kg
d) 2975 kg
Ans: b

89. Grader is used mainly for

a) trimming and finishing
b) shaping and trimming
c) finishing and shaping
d) finishing, shaping and trimming
Ans: d

90. Which one of the following is not an excavating and moving type of
equipment ?
a) Bulldozer
b) Clam shell
c) Scraper
d) Dump truck
Ans: d

91. The most suitable type of equipment for compaction of cohesive soils is
a) Smooth-wheeled rollers
b) Vibratory rollers
c) Sheep foot rollers
d) Tampers
Ans: c
92. For excavating utility trenches with precise control of depth, the
excavation equipment used is
a) Hoe
b) Shovel
c) Dragline
d) None of the above
Ans: a

93. The basic action involved in sheep foot rolling is

a) Kneading
b) Pressing
c) Tamping
d) Vibration
Ans: a

94. Batching refers to

a) controlling the total quantity at each batch
b) weighing accurately, the quantity of each material for a job before mixing
c) controlling the quantity of each material into each batch
d) adjusting the water to be added in each batch according to the moisture
content of the materials being mixed in the batch
Ans: c

95. Consider the following statements:

Wheeled tractors are replacing crawler tractors because
1. wheeled tractors travel faster.
2. crawler tractors are more expensive.
3. track parts of a crawler wear out quickly.
4. crawler tractors have stick control.
Of these statements
a) 1,3 and 4 are correct
b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c) 1,2 and 3 are correct
d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Ans: c

96. The rated loads of lifting cranes, as percentage of tipping load at

specified radius, for crawler-mounted, and pneumatic tyremounted machines
would be respectively
a) 80 and 90
b) 90 and 80
c) 85 and 75
d) 75 and 83
Ans: d

97. Sensitivity analysis is a study of

a) comparison of profit and loss
b) comparison of assets and liabilities
c) change in output due to change in input
d) economics of cost and benefits of the project
Ans: c

98. In the time-cost optimisation, using CPM method for network analysis,
the crashing of the activities along the critical path is done starting with the
activity having
a) longest duration
b) highest cost slope
c) least cost slope
d) shortest duration
Ans: c

99. Preliminary project report for a road project must contain

a) the detailed estimated cost based on detailed design
b) the several alternatives of the project that have been considered
c) the soil survey, traffic survey, concept design and approximate cost
d) the contract documents for inviting tenders
Ans: c
300+ TOP DESIGN of MASONRY STRUCTURES
MCQs Pdf 2021
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. If the ratio of center to center spacing of intersecting walls to actual thickness of

intersecting wall is more than 20, then the stiffening coefficient for wall proper will be
a) 0
b) between 0 and 1
c) 1
d) greater than 1
Ans: d

2. Maximum slenderness ratio of load bearing walls for a dwelling having more than 2
storeys
(i) shall not exceed 12 if lime mortar is used
(ii) shall not exceed 18 if cement lime mortar 1:2:9 is used
(iii) shall not exceed 24 if cement mortar 1:6 is used Of these statements
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (i) and (iii) are correct
d) (i) and (ii) and (iii) are correct
Ans: a

3. Where a structural component or a system is providing lateral support to five or

more walls or columns, the lateral load to be resisted may be taken as
a) 4 percent
b) 5 percent
c) 6 percent
d) 7 percent
of the total vertical load on the most heavily loaded wall or column in the group.
Ans: d

4. The effective height of free standing nonload bearing wall and column respectively
will be
a) 1.OH and 1.OH
b) 1.5Handl.5H
c) 2.0Handl.5H
d) 2.0H and 2.0H
where H is the height of wall or column between centers of supports.
Ans: d

5. If H is the height of wall between centers of supports, then the effective height of
wall where concrete floors have a bearing on wall irrespective of the direction of span
will be
a) 0.75 H
b) 0.85 H
c) 1.0 H
d) 1.5 H
Ans: a

6. The thickness of each leaf of a cavity wall shall not be less than
a) 5 cm
b) 7.5 cm
c) 10 cm
d) 15 cm
Ans: b

7. If the horizontal cross-sectional area of a wall is 1200 cm2, then the basic stress
shall be multiplied by a reduction factor equal to
a) 0 6
b) 0.75
c) 0.85
d) 0.95
Ans: c

8. A free standing brick wall 20 cm thick is subjected to a wind pressure of 75kg/m2.

The maximum height of wall from stability consideration is
a) 0.64 m
b) 0.96 m
c) 1.28 m
d) 1.5 m
Ans:a

9. The bending stress in a wall or column subjected to effective vertical load need
not be considered, if the eccentricity ratio is
a) less than or equal to 1/24
b) less than or equal to 1/6
c) more than 1/24
d) less than or equal to 1/12
Ans:a

10. Assertion
A : For eccentricity ratio exceeding 1/6, effective thickness of masonry will get
reduced.
Reason R : For eccentricity ratio exceeding 1/6, there will be tension on one side of the
member. Select your answer according to the codes give below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans:a

11. If the eccentricity ratio is more than 1/24, then increase in the permissible stress
in the design of wall subjected to eccentric loading as per code is
a) 10%
b) 25%
c) 33 1/3%
d) 50%
Ans:b

12. For designing masonry components of a structure, seismic forces provision in

the design calculation is not necessary for buildings constructed in
a) Zone I only
b) Zone I and II
c) Zone I, II and III
d) Zone I, II, III and IV
Ans:b

13. The mode of failure of a very short masonry member having h/t ratio of less than 4
is by
a) shear
b) vertical tensile splitting
c) buckling
d) any of the above
Ans:a

14. Assertion A : From consideration of structural soundness and economy of design,

most codes control the maximum slenderness ratio of masonry walls and columns.
Reason R : By controlling the maximum slenderness ratio, failure is by excessive stress
and not by buckling. Select your answer according to codes given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not .the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans:a

15. The timber floor not spanning on the masonry wall but properly anchored to the
wall gives
a) lateral restraint but not rotational restraint
b) rotational restraint but not lateral restraint
c) both lateral and rotational restraints
d) neither lateral nor rotational restraint
Ans:a

16. Full restraint is provided by

(i) foundation footing of a wall
(ii) timber floor spanning on the wall and anchored to the wall
(iii) RCC slab with a minimum bearing of 10 cm on the wall Of these statements
a) (i) and (iii) are correct
b) (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Ans:d
17. Minimum thickness of stiffening wall for 1 to 3 storeys shall not be less than
a) 10 cm
b) 15 cm
c) 20 cm
d) 30 cm
Ans:a

18. Which of the following will give higher ratio of brickwork strength to mortar
strength ?
a) 1 : % : 3
b) 1 : Vz: 4>/2
c) 1:1:6
d) 1:2:9
Ans:d

19. Assertion A : Lime based mortars give higher ratio of brickwork strength to mortar
strength as compared to non-lime mortar.
Reason R : Lime based mortars have lower bond strength as compared to non-lime
mortars.
Select your answer according to the codes given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans:c

20. For masonry work with solid bricks, consistency of mortar should be
a) 5 to 8 cm
b) 9 to 13 cm
c) 14 to 18 cm
d) 19 to 23 cm
Ans:b

21. Water retentivity for brick masonry should not be less than
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
Ans:c
22. Minimum compressive strength in N/mm2 for H1 type mortar used for masonry is
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7.5
d) 10
Ans:d

23. Rich cement mortars are more liable to cracking as compared to lean mortars
because rich mortars have
a) high shrinkage
b) less strength
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of above
Ans:a

24. Cement mortars richer than 1 : 3 are not used in masonry because
(i) there is no gain in strength of
masonry (ii) there is high shrinkage (iii) they are prone to segregation Of these
statements
a) Only (ii) is correct
b) (i) and (ii) are correct
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Ans:b

25. For earthquake resistant masonry buildings, the vertical distance

between openings one above the other in a load bearing wall shall not be less than
a) 50 cm
b) 60 cm
c) 75 cm
d) 100 cm
Ans:b

Design of Masonry Structures Interview Questions

26. For earthquake resistant masonry buildings, where seismic coefficient is less than
0.08, the horizontal distance between two openings shall not be less than
a) Vt x height of shorter opening
b) Vt x height of longer opening
c) Ax height of shorter opening
d) Vi x height of longer opening
Ans:a

27. Consider the following statements regarding bands to be provided for

strengthening masonry work in masonry buildings constructed in zone III, IV and V. (i)
Lintel band is provided at lintel level on partition walls, (ii) Gable band is provided at top
of gable masonry below the purlins, (iii) The bands shall be to full width of the wall and
not less than 7.5 cm in depth, (iv) The bands shall be made of reinforced concrete only.
Of these statements, the correct statements are
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i) and (iii)
c) (ii) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iii)
Ans:d

28. In a cavity wall, both leaves of which are load bearing, the effective thickness is
taken as
a) sum of thickness of both leaves
b) two-third of the sum of thickness of both the leaves
c) actual thickness of the stronger leaf
d) larger of (b) and (c)
Ans:d

29. Assertion A : Limiting value of slenderness ratio for a column is less than that of a
wall.
Reason R : A column can buckle around either of the two horizontal axes while a wall
can buckle around only one axis. Select your answer according to the codes given
below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans:a

30. Consider the following statements regarding provision of chases in masonry,

(i) No chase should be permitted in a half brick load-bearing wall,
(ii) Vertical chases should not be closer than 2 m in any stretch of a wall,
(iii) Chases should be provided near to bearings of beams and lintels. Of these
statements
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (i) and (iii) are correct
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Ans:a

31. Consider the following statements :

The use of relatively weak mortar
1. will accommodate movements due to loads and, cracking if any, and will be
distributed as thin hair cracks which are less noticeable or harmful.
2. will result in reduction of stresses due to differential expansion of masonry units.
Of these statements
a) 1 alone is correct
b) 2 alone is correct
c) both 1 and 2 are correct
d) neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Ans:c

32. In the case of panel wall subjected to horizontal loads at right angles to the plane of
the wall, with the mortar not leaner than Ml type, tensile stress in bending in the
vertical direction may be allowed to the extent of
a) 0.4 kg/cm2
b) 0.7 kg/cm2
c) 1.0 kg/cm2
d) 1.2 kg/cm2
Ans:c

33. For strengthening a 50 m long and 5 m high straight compound wall built in brick
work, which one of the following would be most suitable?
a) providing buttresses at certain intervals
b) providing a deeper foundation
c) using a richer mortar
d) using stronger bricks
Ans:a

34. Consider the following statements : Sand in mortar is needed for

1. decreasing the quantity of cement.
2. reducing shrinkage.
3. decreasing the surface area of the binding material.
4. increasing the strength.
Of these statements:
a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct
c) 1,3 and 4 are correct
d) 1,2 and 4 are correct
Ans:

35. Consider the following statements:

A high lime content in a composite cement-lime mortar results in
1. slow hardening.
2. quick setting.
3. weaker mortar. Of these statements
a) 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans:c

36. The mortars used for masonry construction are classified based on strength in IS
2250 and IS 1905 according
to their designations L1,L2, H1, H2, M, M2.
The correct sequence of increasing order of their strengths is
a) LLLZ.HLHI.MLMJ
b) L2,L,,M2>Mi,H2)H,
c) M,,M2, H,,H2,Li,L2
d) L2,L,,M,,M2,H,,H2
Ans: b

37. Direct load carrying capacity of a brick masonry wall standing freely as against
when it supports RC slab will be
a) more
b) less
c) the same in both the cases
d) 100%
Ans:b
38. A 200 mm thick wall made of modular bricks is 5 m long between cross walls and
3.8 m clear height between RCC slabs at top and bottom. The slenderness ratio of the
wall is
a) 15
b) 19
c) 20
d) 25
Ans:a

39. A 200 mm thick brick masonry wall made of modular bricks carries an axial load of
30 kN/m from wall above and an eccentric load of 20 kN/m from RCC floor acting at a
distance of 47.5 mm from the centre line of the wall. The resultant eccentricity ratio is
a) b) c) d)
0.090
0.095
0.100
0.105
Ans:c

40.The basic stress in masonry units having height to width ratio of 1.5 may be
increased by a factor of
a) 1.2
b) 1.4
c) 1.6
d) 2.0
Ans:c

41. Assertion A : For identical strength, a composite cement-lime mortar is preferred

over cement mortar.
Reason R : Composite cement-lime mortar has higher drying shrinkage than cement
mortar.
Select your answer based on the codes given below. Codes:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans:c
42. Consider the following statements:
1. Masonry in rich cement mortar though having good strength with high shrinkage is
much liable for surface cracks.
2. Lime mortar possesses poor workability and poor water retentivity and also suffers
high shrinkage.
3. Masonry in lime mortar has better resistance against rain penetration and is less
liable to crack when compared to masonry in cement mortar.
Which of these statements are correct?
a) 1,2 and 3
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
Ans:d

43. For masonry built in 1:1:6 cement-lime-sand mix mortar or equivalent, the
horizontal shear stress permissible on the area of a mortar bed joint is
a) 0.15 MPa
b) 0.125 MPa
c) 0.1 MPa
d) 0.075 MPa
Ans:a

DESIG
300+ TOP Design of Steel Structures Objective
Questions and Answers
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. The heaviest I-section for same depth is

a) ISMB
b) ISLB
c) ISHB
d) ISWB
Ans: c

2. Bending compressive and tensile stresses respectively are calculated based on

a) net area and gross area
b) gross area and net area
c) net area in both cases
d) gross area in both cases
Ans: b

3. If the thickness of thinnest outside plate is 10 mm, then the maximum pitch of rivets
in tension will be taken as
a) 120 mm
b) 160 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 300 mm
Ans: b

4. In a gusseted base, when the end of the column is machined for complete bearing on
the base plate, then the axial load is assumed to be transferred to base plate
a) fully by direct bearing
b) fully through fastenings
c) 50% by direct bearing and 50% through fastenings
d) 75% by direct bearing and 25% through fastenings
Ans: c
5. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the rivets are subjected to
a) only shear stresses
b) only tensile stresses
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans: a

6. When the axis of load lies in the plane of rivet group, then the most heavily loaded
rivet will be the one which
a) is at the maximum distance from CG of the rivet group
b) is at the minimum distance from CG of the rivet group
c) gives the maximum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm
d) gives the minimum angle between the two forces Fa and Fm
where, Fa is the load shared by each rivet due to axial load and Fm is the shearing load
due to moment in any rivet.
Ans: d

7. Which of the following types of riveted joint is free from bending stresses ?
a) lap joint
b) butt joint with single cover plate
c) butt joint with double cover plates
d) none of the above
Ans: c

8. The difference between gross diameter and nominal diameter for the rivets up to 25
mm diameter is
a) 1.0 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 2.0 mm
d) 2.5 mm
Ans: b

9. As compared to field rivets, the shop rivets are

a) stronger
b) weaker
c) equally strong
d) any of the above
Ans: a
10. If the thickness of plate to be connected by a rivet is 16 mm, then suitable size of
rivet as per Unwin’s formula will be
a) 16 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 24 mm
d) 27 mm
Ans: c

11. By providing sufficient edge distance, which of the following failures of riveted joint
can be avoided ?
a) tension failure of the plate
b) shear failure of the rivet
c) shear failure of the plate
d) crushing failure of the rivet
Ans: c

12. Minimum pitch of the rivets shall not be less than

a) 1.5 d
b) 2.0 d
c) 2.5 d
d) 3.0 d
where d is gross diameter of rivet
Ans: c

13. Efficiency of a riveted joint, having the minimum pitch as per IS : 800, is
a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 70%
Ans: c

14. Select the correct statement

a) Material cost of a rivet is higher than that of a bolt.
b) Tensile strength of a bolt is lesser than that of a rivet.
c) Bolts are used as a temporary fastenings whereas rivets are used as permanent
fastenings.
d) Riveting is less noisy than bolting.
Ans: c
15. Bolts are most suitable to carry
a) shear
b) bending
c) axial tension
d) shear and bending
Ans: c

16. Diameter of a bolt hole is usually taken as

a) gross diameter of bolt
b) nominal diameter + 1.5 mm
c) nominal diameter + 2.0 mm
d) nominal diameter of bolt
Ans: b

17. When the bolts are subjected to reversal of stresses, the most suitable type of bolt
is
a) black bolt
b) ordinary unfinished bolt
c) turned and fitted bolt
d) high strength bolt
Ans: d

18. In the cross-section of a weld, throat is the

a) minimum dimension
b) average dimension
c) maximum dimension
d) none of the above
Ans: a

19. The effective length of a fillet weld should not be less than
a) two times the weld size
b) four times the weld size
c) six times the weld size
d) weld size
Ans: b

20. For a standard 45° fillet, the ratio of size of fillet to throat thickness is
a) 1:1
b) 1 : V2
c) V2 : 1
d) 2: 1
Ans: c

21. A butt weld is specified by

a) effective throat thickness
b) plate thickness
c) size of weld
d) penetration thickness
Ans: a

22. The actual thickness of butt weld as compared to the thickness of plate is usually
a) more
b) less
c) equal
d) none of the above
Ans: a

23. According to IS Specifications, the maximum pitch of rivets in compression is

a) lesser of 200 mm and 12 t
b) lesser of 200 mm and 161
c) lesser of 300 mm and 32 t
d) lesser of 3 00 mm and 24 t
where t is thickness of thinnest outside plate or angle
Ans: a

24. A circular column section is generally not used in actual practice because
a) it is uneconomical
b) it cannot carry the load safely
c) it is difficult to connect beams to the round sections
d) all of the above
Ans: c

25. The slenderness ratio of a column supported throughout its length by a masonry
wall is
a) zero
b) 10
c) 100
d) infinity
Ans: a

26. According to IS Specifications, the effective length of a column effectively held in

position at both ends and restrained in direction at one end is taken as
a) 0.67 L
b) 0.8 L
c) L
d) 1.5 L
Ans: b

27. The effective length of a battened strut effectively held in position at both ends but
not restrained in direction is taken as
a) 1.8 L
b) L
c) 1.1 L
d) 1.5 L
Ans: c

28. The maximum slenderness ratio of a compression member carrying both dead and
superimposed load is
a) 180
b) 200
c) 250
d) 350
Ans: a

29. The maximum slenderness ratio of a steel column, the design of which is governed
by wind or seismic forces is
a) 150
b) 180
c) 250
d) 350
Ans: c

30. According to IS:800, in the Merchant Rankine formula the value of imperfection
index (n) is
a) 1.0
b) 1.4
c) 1.8
d) 2.0
Ans: b

31. The best arrangement to provide unified behaviour in built up steel columns is by
a) lacing
b) battening
c) tie plates
d) perforated cover plates
Ans: a

32. If the 20 mm rivets are used in lacing bars, then the minimum width of lacing bar
should be
a) 40mm
b) 60mm
c) 80mm
d) 100mm
Ans: b

33. The use of tie plates in laced columns is

a) prohibited
b) not prohibited
c) permitted at start and end of lacing system only
d) permitted between two parts of the lacing
Ans: c

34. Lacing bars in a steel column should be designed to resist

a) bending moment due to 2.5% of the column load
b) shear force due to 2.5% of the column load
c) 2.5% of the column load
d) both (a) and (b)
Ans: b

35. Angle of inclination of the lacing bar with the longitudinal axis of the column should
preferably be between
a) 10° to 30°
b) 30° to 40°
c) 40° to 70°
d) 90°
Ans: c

36. Battening is preferable when the

i) column carries axial load only
ii) space between the two main components is not very large
iii) column is eccentrically loaded The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) only (iii)
c) (i) and (ii)
d) (ii) and (iii)
Ans: c

37. The effective length of a battened column is increased by

a) 5%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 20%
Ans: b

38. The overlap of batten plates with the main members in welded connections should
be more than
a) 3t
b) 4t
c) 6t
d) 8t
where t = thickness of the batten plate
Ans: b

39. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should not exceed

a) 100
b) 120
c) 145
d) 180
Ans: c

40. Economical depth of a plate girder corresponds to

a) minimum weight
b) minimum depth
c) maximum weight
d) minimum thickness of web
Ans: a

41. Shear buckling of web in a plate girder is prevented by using

a) vertical intermediate stiffener
b) horizontal stiffener at neutral axis
c) bearing stiffener
d) none of the above
Ans: a

42. Horizontal stiffener in a plate girder is provided to safeguard against

a) shear buckling of web plate
b) compression buckling of web plate
c) yielding
d) all of the above
Ans: b

43. Minimum thickness of web in a plate girder, when the plate is accessible and also
exposed to weather, is
a) 5 mm
b) 6 mm
c) 8 mm
d) 10 mm
Ans: b

44. The web crippling due to excessive bearing stress can be avoided by
a) increasing the web thickness
b) providing suitable stiffeners
c) increasing the length of the bearing plates
d) none of the above
Ans: c

45. As per IS : 800, for compression flange, the outstand of flange plates should not
exceed
a) 121
b) 161
c) 201
d) 251
where t = thickness of thinnest flange plate
Ans: b

46. Intermediate vertical stiffeners in a plate girder need be provided if the depth of
web exceeds
a) 501
b) 851
c) 200 t
d) 2501
where t is thickness of web
Ans: b

47. Bearing stiffener in a plate girder is used to

a) transfer the load from the top flange to the bottom one
b) prevent buckling of web
c) decrease the effective depth of web
d) prevent excessive deflection
Ans: b

48. The forces acting on the web splice of a plate girder are
a) axial forces
b) shear and axial forces
c) shear and bending forces
d) axial and bending forces
Ans: c

49. Gantry girders are designed to resist

a) lateral loads
b) longitudinal loads and vertical loads
c) lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads
d) lateral and longitudinal loads
Ans: c

50. Minimum spacing of vertical stiffeners is limited to

a) d/4
b) d/3
c) d/2
d) 2d/3
where d is the distance between flange angles
Ans: b

51. Bearing stiffeners are provided at

i) the supports
ii) the mid span
iii) the point of application of concentrated loads The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: c

52. Rivets connecting flange angles to cover plates in a plate girder are subjected to
a) horizontal shear only
b) vertical load only
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans: a

53. The maximum spacing of vertical stiffeners is

a) 1.33 d
b) 1.25 d
c) 1.5 d
d) 1.75 d
where d is the distance between flange angles
Ans: c

54. The range of economical spacing of trusses varies from

a) L/3 to L/5
b) L/4to2L/5
c) L/3 to L/2
d) 2L/5 to 3L/5 where L is span
Ans: a

55. The maximum permissible span of asbestos cement sheets is

a) 650 mm
b) 810 mm
c) 1250 mm
d) 1680 mm
Ans: d

56. Normally, the angle of roof truss with asbestos sheets should not be less than
a) 26’/2°
b) 30°
c) 35°
d) 40°
Ans: b

57. To minimize the total cost of a roof truss, the ratio of the cost of truss to the cost of
purlins shall be
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: b

58. Generally the purlins are placed at the panel points so as to avoid
a) axial force in rafter
b) shear force in rafter
c) deflection of rafter
d) bending moment in rafter
Ans: d

59. For the buildings having a low permeability, the internal wind pressure acting
normal to the wall and roof surfaces is taken as
a) zero
b) ±0.2p
c) ± 0.5 p
d) ±0.7p
where p is basic wind pressure
Ans: b

60. The relation between intensity of wind pressure p and velocity of wind V is taken as
a) pa V
b) paV2
c) p a (1/V)
d) paV”2
Ans: b

Design of Steel Structures Interview Questions

61. The live load for a sloping roof with slope 15°, where access is not provided to roof,
is taken as
a) 0.65 kN/m2
b) 0.75 kN/m2
c) 1.35 kN/m2
d) 1.50 kN/m2
Ans: a

62. The internal pressure coefficient on walls for buildings with large permeability is
taken as
a) ± 0.2
b) ±0.5
c) ± 0.7
d) 0
Ans: c

63. The basic wind speed is specified at a height ‘h’ above mean ground level in an
open terrain. The value of’h’ is
a) 10 m
b) 20 m
c) 25 m
d) 50 m
Ans: a

64. The risk coefficient k, depends on

a) mean probable design life of structures
b) basic wind speed
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans: c

65. The external wind pressure acting on a roof depends on

a) degree of permeability of roof
b) slope of roof
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans: b

66. Area of openings for buildings of large permeability is more than

a) 10% of wall area
b) 20% of wall area
c) 30% of wall area
d) 50% of wall area
Ans: b

67. As per IS : 875, for the purposes of specifying basic wind velocity, the country has
been divided into
a) 4 zones
b) 5 zones
c) 6 zones
d) 7 zones
Ans: c

68. The number of seismic zones in which the country has been divided are
a) 3
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Ans: b

69. Minimum pitch provided in riveted steel tanks is

a) 1.5 d
b) 2.0 d
c) 2.5 d
d) 3.0 d
where d is diameter of rivets
Ans: d

70. The allowable tensile stress in structural mild steel plates for steel tank is assumed
as
a) 95.0 MPa on net area
b) 105.5 MPa on net area
c) 105.5 MPa on gross area
d) 150.0 MPa on gross area
Ans: b

71. Steel tanks are mainly designed for

a) weight of tank
b) wind pressure
c) water pressure
d) earthquake forces
Ans: c

72. Which of the following sections should preferably be used at places where torsion
occurs ?
a) angle section
b) channel section
c) box type section
d) any of the above
Ans: c

73. The capacity of the smallest pressed steel tank is

a) 1000 litre
b) 1650 litre
c) 1950 litre
d) 2450 litre
Ans: c

74. The bracing between two columns of a steel tank will be designed to resist
a) horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake only
b) horizontal, shear due to wind or earthquake + 2.5% of column loads
c) column loads + 2.5% of horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake
d) column loads + full horizontal shear due to wind or earthquake
Ans: b

75. The minimum thickness of plates in a steel stack should be

a) 4 mm
b) 5 mm
c) 6 mm
d) 8 mm
Ans: c
76. Maximum pitch of rivets, used in steel stacks, is limited to
a) 6t
b) 101
c) 121
d) 161
where t is thickness of thinner plate being connected
Ans: b

77. The diameter of base of conical flare of a steel stack is

a) less than d
b) equal to d
c) more than d
d) any of the above
where d is the diameter of the cylindrical part
Ans: c

78. Hudson’s formula gives the dead weight of a truss bridge as a function of
a) bottom chord area
b) top chord area
c) effective span of bridge
d) heaviest axle load of engine
Ans: a

79. If the loaded length of span in meters of a railway steel bridge carrying a single
track is 6 m, then impact factor is taken as
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) between 0.5 and 1.0
d) 1.0
Ans: c

80. If the floor is supported at or near the bottom but top chords of a bridge are not
braced, then the bridge is called
a) deck type
b) through type
c) half through type
d) double deck type
Ans: c
81. The centrifugal force due to curvature of track is assumed to act on the bridge at a
height of
a) 1.23 m above the rail level
b) 1.50 m above the rail level
c) 1.83 m above the rail level
d) 2.13 m above the rail level
Ans: c

82. The effect of racking forces is considered in the design of

i) lateral braces
ii) chord members
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) only (ii)
c) both (i) and (ii)
d) none of the above
Ans: a

83. The portal bracing in a truss bridge is used to

a) transfer load from top of end posts to bearings
b) keep the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section
c) stiffen the structure laterally
d) prevent the sidesway buckling of top chord
Ans: a

84. The sway bracing is designed to transfer

a) 2Vi % of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
b) 10% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
c) 25% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
d) 50% of the top panel wind load to bottom bracing
Ans: d

85. Study the following statements.

i) Top lateral bracing prevents the sidesway buckling of the chord.
ii) Sway bracing keeps the rectangular shape of the bridge cross-section.
iii) Sway bracing transfers the load from top of end posts to bearings.
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: b

86. The bracing provided in the plane of end posts is called

a) sway bracing
b) portal bracing
c) top lateral bracing
d) bottom lateral bracing
Ans: b

87. compression force in two end posts The pin of a rocker bearing in a bridge is
designed for
a) bearing and shear
b) bending and shear
c) bearing and bending
d) bearing, shear and bending
Ans: d

88. The least dimension in case of a circular column of diameter D is taken as

a) 0.5 D
b) 0.68 D
c) 0.88 D
d) D
Ans: c

89. In case of timber structures, the form factor for solid circular cross-section is taken
as
a) 1.18
b) 1.414
c) 1.67
d) 1.81
Ans: a

90. In case of timber structures, the simple bending formula M = fz may be applied for
a) rectangular beams up to 300 mm depth
b) all rectangular beams
c) solid circular beams only
d) all square cross-section beams
Ans: a

91. The elastic strain for steel is about

a) 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/120 of maxi-mum strain
b) 1/2 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/12 of maxi-mum strain
c) 1/12 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and 1/200 of maximum strain
d) 1/24 of strain at the initiation of strain hardening and about 1/200 of maximum strain
Ans: c

92. The mechanism method and the statical method give

a) lower and upper bounds respectively on the strength of structure
b) upper and lower bounds respectively on the strength of structure
c) lower bound on the strength of structure
d) upper bound on the strength of structure
Ans: b

93. The moment-curvature relation at a plastic hinge is

a) linear
b) parabolic
c) constant moment for all curvatures
d) constant curvature for all moments
Ans: c

94. Shape factor is a property which depends

a) only on the ultimate stress of the material
b) only on the yield stress of the material
c) only on the geometry of the section
d) both on the yield stress and ultimate stress of material
Ans: c

95. The statical method of plastic analysis satisfies

a) equilibrium and mechanism conditions
b) equilibrium and plastic moment conditions
c) mechanism and plastic moment conditions
d) equilibrium condition only
Ans: b

96. The mechanism method of plastic analysis satisfies

a) equilibrium and mechanism conditions
b) equilibrium and plastic moment conditions
c) mechanism and plastic moment conditions
d) equilibrium condition only
Ans: a

97. Load factor is

a) always equal to factor of safety
b) always less than factor of safety
c) always greater than factor of safety
d) sometimes greater than factor of safety
Ans: c

98. The ratio of plastic section modulus to elastic section modulus

a) is equal to 1
b) is always less than 1
c) is always greater than 1
d) can be less than 1
Ans: c

99. Other conditions being same, the load factor in indeterminate structures is
a) equal to load factor in determinate structures
b) more than the load factor in determinate structures
c) less than the load factor in determinate structures
d) unpredictable
Ans: b

100. Which of the following conditions is to be satisfied both in elastic and plastic
analysis ?
a) equilibrium condition
b) yield condition
c) plastic moment condition
d) mechanism condition
Ans: a

101. In the virtual work method, the virtual quantity is

a) displacement
b) load
c) slope
d) moment
Ans: a

102. As per IS:800, in the plastic design, which of the following pairs are correctly
matched?
Working Loads Load factor
(i) Dead load 1.7
(ii) Dead Load + imposed load 1.7
(iii) Dead load + load due to wind or 1.3 seismic forces
(iv) Dead load + imposed load + load 1.7
due to wind or seismic forces Of these statements
a) (i) and (ii) are correct
b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
d) only (i) is correct
Ans: a

103. The shape factor of an isosceles triangle for bending about the axis parallel to the
base is:
a) 1.5
b) 1.7
c) 2.0
d) 2.34
Ans: d

104. In case of plastic design, the calculated maximum shear capacity of a beam as per
IS:800 shall be
a) 0.55 Awfy
b) 0.65 Awfy
c) 0.75 Awfy
d) 0.85 Awfy
where, Aw = effective cross-sectional area resisting shear fy = yield stress of the steel
Ans: a

105. The minimum thickness of a steel plate, which is directly exposed to weather and
is not accessible for cleaning and repainting, should be:
a) 4.5 mm
b) 6 mm
c) 8 mm
d) 10 mm
Ans: c

106. The moment of inertia of the pair of vertical stiffeners about the center line of the
web should not be less than.
a) 1.5dV/C
b) 1.5d¥/C
c) 1.5d¥/C2
d) 1.5dY/C3
where, ‘t’ is the minimum required thick-ness of the web and ‘C is the maximum
permitted clear distance between vertical stiffener for thickness ‘t’.
Ans: c

107. The connection of intermediate vertical stiffeners to the web, not subjected to
external loads, shall be designed for a minimum shear force (kN/m) of
a) 75 t2/h
b) 125 t3/h2
c) 125 t2/h
d) 175 t2/h
where, t = the web thickness in mm
h = the outstand of stiffener in mm
Ans: c

108. For a compression member with double angle section, which of the following
section will give larger value of minimum radius of gyration?
a) equal angles back to back
b) unqual legged angles with long legs back to back
c) unequal legged angles with short legs back to back
d) both (b) or (c)
Ans: b

109. Lug angles

a) are used to reduce the length of connection.
b) are unequal angles.
c) increases shear lag.
d) all the above
Ans: a
110. For rivets in tension with counter-sunk heads, the tensile value shall be
a) reduced by 25 %
b) reduced by 33.3%
c) increased by 25 %
d) increased by 33.3 %
Ans: b

111. A steel beam supporting loads from the floor slab as well as from wall is termed
as
a) stringer beam
b) lintel beam
c) spandrel beam
d) header beam
Ans: c

112. Pitch of tacking rivets, when double angles connected back to back and acting as
tension members should not be more than
a) 500 mm
b) 600 mm
c) 1000 mm
d) 300 mm
Ans: c

113. In moment resistant connections, the moment resistance of riveted connection

depends upon
a) shear in rivets
b) compression in rivets
c) tension in rivets
d) strength of rivets in bearing
Ans: c

120. The allowable shear stress in the web of mild steel beams decreases with
a) decrease in h/t ratio
b) increase in h/t ratio
c) decrease in thickness
d) increase in height
where ‘h’ is height and t is thickness
Ans: b
DESIGN

300+ TOP Engineering Economics Multiple Choice

Questions & Answers
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. First Benchmark Publishing’s gross margin is 50% of sales. The operating costs of
the publishing are estimated at 15% of sales. If the company is within the 40% tax
bracket, determine the percent of sales is their profit after taxes?

A. 21 %
B. 20 %
C. 19 %
D. 18 %

2. A farmer selling eggs at 50 pesos a dozen gains 20%. If he sells the eggs at the
same price after the costs of the eggs rises by 12.5%, how much will be his new gain in
percent?

A. 6.89 %
B. 6.65 %
C. 6.58 %
D. 6.12 %

3. A feasibility study shows that a fixed capital investment of P10,000,000 is required

for a proposed construction firm and an estimated working capital of P2,000,000.
Annual depreciation is estimated to be10% of the fixed capital investment. Determine
the rate of return on the total investment if the annual profit is P3,500,000.

A. 28.33 %
B. 29.17 %
C. 30.12 %
D. 30.78 %

4. The monthly demand for ice cans being manufactured by Mr. Camus is 3200 pieces.
With a manual operated guillotine, the unit cutting cost is P25.00. An electrically
operated hydraulic guillotine was offered to Mr. Camus at a price of P275,000.00 and
which cuts by 30% the unit cutting cost. Disregarding the cost of money, how many
months will Mr. Camus be able to recover the cost of the machine if he decides to buy
now?

A. 10 months
B. 11 months
C. 12 months
D. 13 months

5. Engr. Trinidad loans from a loan firm an amount of P100,000 with a rate of simple
interest of 20% but the interest was deducted from the loan at the time the money was
borrowed. If at the end of one year, she has to pay the full amount of P100,000, what is
the actual rate of interest?

A. 23.5 %
B. 24.7 %
C. 25.0 %
D. 25.8 %

6. A loan of P5,000 is made for a period of 15 months, at a simple interest rate of 15%,
what future amount is due at the end of the loan period?

A. 5,937.50
B. 5,873.20
C. 5,712.40
D. 5,690.12

7. Mr. Bacani borrowed money from the bank. He received from the bank P1,842 and
promised to repay P2,000 at the end of 10 months. Determine the rate of simple
interest.

A. 12.19 %
B. 12.03 %
C. 11.54 %
D. 10.29 %

8. A college freshman borrowed P2,000 from a bank for his tuition fee and promised to
pay the amount for one year. He received only the amount of P1,920 after the bank
collected the advance interest of P80.00. What was the rate of discount?

A. 3.67 %
B. 4.00 %
C. 4.15 %
D. 4.25 %
9. It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a loan,
the interest for one year is automatically deducted from the principal amount upon
release of money to a borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan
with a bank and the P80,000 was approved at an interest rate of 14% of which P11,200
was deducted and you were given a check of P68,800. Since you have to pay the
amount of P80,000 one year after, what then will be the effective interest rate?

A. 16.02 %
B. 16.28 %
C. 16.32 %
D. 16.47 %

10. A man invested P110,000 for 31 days. The net interest after deducting 20%
withholding tax is P890.36. Find the rate of return annually.

A. 11.50 %
B. 11.75 %
C. 11.95 %
D. 12.32 %

11. A investor wishes to earn 7% on his capital after payment of taxes. If the income
from an available investment will be taxed at an average rate of 42%, what minimum
rate of return, before payment of taxes, must the investment offer to be justified?

A. 12.07 %
B. 12.34 %
C. 12.67 %
D. 12.87 %

12. Mr. Jun Ramos was granted a loan of P20,000 by his employer Excel First Review
and Training Center, Inc. with an interest of 6% for 180 days on the principal collected
in advance. The corporation would accept a promissory note for P20,000 non-interest
for 180 days. If discounted at once, find the proceeds of the note.

A. P18,000
B. P18,900
C. P19,000
D. P19,100
13. Miss Evilla borrowed money from a bank. She receives from the bank P1,340.00
and promised to pay P1,500.00 at the end of 9 months. Determine the corresponding
discount rate or often referred to as the “banker’s discount”.

A. 13.15 %
B. 13.32 %
C. 13.46 %
D. 13.73 %

14. The exact simple interest of P5,000 invested from June 21, 1995 to December 25,
1995 is P100. What is the rate of interest?

A. 3.90 %
B. 3.92 %
C. 3.95 %
D. 3.98 %

15. What is the ordinary interest on P1,500.50 for 182 days at 5.2%?

A. P39.01
B. P39.82
C. P39.45
D. P39.99

16. A loan for P50,000 is to be paid in 3 years at the amount of P65,000. What is the
effective rate of money?

A. 9.01 %
B. 9.14 %
C. 9.31 %
D. 9.41 %

17. What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is
equal to 360 days.

A. 19.61 %
B. 19.44 %
C. 19.31 %
D. 19.72 %
18. What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8%
compounded quarterly?

A. 8.07 %
B. 8.12 %
C. 8.16 %
D. 8.24 %

19. Which of these gives the lowest effective rate of interest?

A. 12.35 % compounded annually

B. 11.90 % compounded annually
C. 12.20 % compounded annually
D. 11.60 % compounded annually

20. An amount of P1,000 becomes P1,608.44 after 4 years compounded bimonthly.

Find the nominal interest.

A. 11.89 %
B. 12.00 %
C. 12.08 %
D. 12.32 %

21. How long will it take money to double itself if invested at 5% compounded
annually?

A. 13.7 years
B. 14.7 years
C. 14.2 years
D. 15.3 years

22. By the condition of a will, the sum of P20,000 is left to a girl to be held in trust fund
by her guardian until it amounts to P50,000. When will the girl receive the money if
fund invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

A. 11.23 years
B. 11.46 years
C. 11.57 years
D. 11.87 years
23. A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time the principal
is withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another eight years. If the effective
annual interest rate is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of the 16th
year?

A. P693.12
B. P700.12
C. P702.15
D. P705.42

24. Mandarin Bank advertises 9.5% account that yields 9.84% annually. Find how often
the interest is compounded.

A. Monthly
B. Bimonthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually

25. A student plans to deposit P1,500 in the bank now and another P3,000 for the next
2 years. If he plans to withdraw P5,000 three years from after his last deposit for the
purpose of buying shoes, what will be the amount of money left in the bank after one
year of his withdrawal? Effective annual interest rate is 10%.

A. P1,549.64
B. P1,459.64
C. P1,345.98
D. P1,945.64

26. You borrow P3,500.00 for one year from a friend at an interest rate of 1.5% per
month instead of taking a loan from a bank at a rate of 18% per year. How much lesser
you will pay by borrowing the money from the bank?

A. P 62.44
B. P44.55
C. P54.66
D. P37.56

27. What is the present worth of two P 100 payments at the end of the third year and
fourth year? The annual interest rate is 8%.
A. P 150.56
B. P 152.88
C. P 153.89
D. P 151.09

28. A firm borrows P2,000 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan
for the amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due?

A. P 3,260.34
B. P 3,280.34
C. P 3,270.34
D. P 3,250.34

29. In year zero, you invest P 10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time,
the average annual inflation is 6%. How much in terms of year zero pesos will be in the
account at maturity?

A. P 15,030.03
B. P 20,113.57
C. P 18,289.05
D. P 16,892.34

30. The institute of Electronics and Communications Engineers of the Philippines

(IECEP) is planning to put up its own building. Two proposals being considered are:

A. The construction of the building now to cost P 400,000

B. The construction of a smaller building now to cost P300,000 and at the end of 5 years,
an extension to be added to cost P 200,000.

By how much is proposal B more economical than proposal A if interest rate is 20% and
depreciation to be neglected?

A. P 19,122.15
B. P 19,423.69
C. P 19,518.03
D. P 19,624.49

31. What is the present worth of a P500 annuity starting at the end of the third year and
continuing to the end of the fourth year, if the annual interest rate is 10 %?
A. P 727.17
B. P 717.17
C. P 714.71
D. P 731.17

32. What annuity is required over 12 years to equate with a future amount of P 20,000?
Assume i= 6% annually.

A. P 1,290.34
B. P 1,185.54
C. P 1,107.34
D. P 1,205.74

33. A factory operator bought a diesel generator set for P 10,000.00 and agreed to pay
the dealer uniform sum at the end of each year for 5 years at 8% interest compounded
annually, that the final payment will cancel the debt for principal and interest. What is
the annual payment?

A. P 2,500.57
B. P 2,544.45
C. P 2,540.56
D. P 2,504.57

34. What is the present worth of a year annuity paying P 3,000.00 at the end of each
year, with interest at 8% compounded annually?

A. P 7,654.04
B. P 7,731.29
C. P 7,420.89
D. P 7,590.12

35. A man loans P 187,400 from a bank with interest at 5% compounded annually. He
agrees to pay his obligations by paying 8 equal annual payments, the first being due at
the end of 10 years. Find the annual payments.

A. P 43,600.10
B. P 43,489.47
C. P 43,263.91
D. P 43,763.20
36. A person buys a piece of lot for P 100,000 down payment and 10 deferred semi-
annual payments of P 8,000 each, starting three years from now. What is the present
value of the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?

A. P 142,999.08
B. P 143,104.89
C. P 142,189.67
D. P 143,999.08

37. A young engineer borrowed P 10,000 at 12% interest and paid P 2,000 per annum
for the last 4 years. What does he have to pay at the end of the fifth year in order to pay
off his loan?

A. P 6,999.39
B. P 6,292.93
C. P 6,222.39
D. P 6,922.93

38. Miss Calledo deposited P 1,000, P 1,500 and P 2,000 at the end of the 2nd year, 3rd
year and 4th year, respectively in a savings account which earned 10% per annum. How
much is in the account at the end of the 4th year?

A. P 4,880.00
B. P 4,820.00
C. P 4,860.00
D. P 4,840.00

39. A P 1,000,000 issue of 3%, 15-year bond was sold at 95%. What is the rate of
interest of this investment?

A. 3.0%
B. 3.4%
C. 3.7%
D. 4.0%

40. A P 1, 000, 6% bond pays dividend semiannually and will be redeemed at 110% on
June 21, 204. It is bought on June 21, 2001 to yield 4% interest. Find the price of the
bond.
A. P 1,122.70
B. P 1,144.81
C. P 1,133.78
D. P 1,155.06

41. A VOM has a selling price of P 400. If its selling price is expected to decline at a
rate of 10% per annum due to obsolescence, what will be its selling price after 5 years?

A. P 222.67
B. P 212.90
C. P 236.20
D. P 231.56

42. A machine costs of P 8,000 and an estimated life of 10 years with a salvage value
of P 500. What is its book value after 8 years using straight line method?

A. P 2,000.00
B. P 2,100.00
C. P 2,200.00
D. P 2,300.00

43. ABC Corporation makes it a policy that for any new equipment purchased, the
annual depreciation cost should not exceed 20% of the first cost at any time with no
salvage value. Determine the length of service life necessary if the depreciation used is
the SYD method.

A. 7 eyars
B. 8 years
C. 9 years
D. 10 years

44. An asset is purchased for P 9,000.00. Its estimated economic life is 10 years after
which it will be sold for P 1,000.00. Find the depreciation in the first three years using
sum-of-years digit method

A. P 3,279.27
B. P 3,927.27
C. P 3,729.27
D. P 3,792.72
45. Shell Philippines, a multinational company, has a total gross income for a particular
year of P 50,000,000. The taxable income after taking all deductions except for
depletion is P 18,500,000. What is the allowable depletion allowance for that particular
year? Take percentage of gross income for oil as 22%.

A. P 9,358.41
B. P 9,228.45
C. P 9,250.00
D. P 9,308.45

46. The Saudi Arabian Oil Refinery developed an oil well which is estimated to contain
5,000,000 barrels of oil at an initial cost of $ 50,000,000. What is the depletion charge
during the year where it produces half million barrels of oil? Use Unit or Factor method
in computing depletion.

A. $ 5,000,000.00
B. $ 5,010,000.00
C. $ 5,025,000.00
D. $ 5,050,000.00

47. A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost of P 115 each, material cost
of P 76 each and variable cost of P 2.32 each. If the item has a unit price of P 600, how
many units must be manufactured each month for the manufacturer to break even if
the monthly overhead is P428,000

A. 1,033
B. 1,037
C. 1,043
D. 1,053

48. A manufacturing firm maintains one product assembly line to produce signal
generators. Weekly demand for the generators is 35 units. The line operates for 7
hours per day, 5 days per week. What is the maximum production time per unit in hours
required of the line to meet the demand?

A. 1.0 hour per unit

B. 1.2 hours per unit
C. 1.4 hours per unit
D. 1.6 hours per unit
49. A telephone switchboard 100 pair cable can be made up with either enameled wire
or tinned wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a
connection on the enameled wire will be P 1.65 on the tinned wire, it will be P 1.15. A
100- pair cable made up with enameled wire cost P 0.55 per linear foot and those made
up of tinned wire cost P 0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of cable run in feet
so that the cost of each installation would be the same.

A. 1,000 feet
B. 1,040 feet
C. 1,100 feet
D. 1,120 feet

50. A leading shoe manufacturer produces a pair of Lebron James signature shoes at a
labor cost of P 900.00 a pair and a material cost of P 800.00 a pair. The fixed charges
on the business are P 5,000,000 a month and the variable costs are P 400.00 a pair.
Royalty to Lebron James is P 1,000 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P 5,000 a
pair, how many pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer to break-
even?

A. 2.590
B. 2,632
C. 2,712
D. 2,890

51. What is defines as the analysis and evaluation of the monetary consequences by
using the theories and principles of economics to engineering applications, designs
and projects?

A. Economic Analysis
B. Engineering cost analysis
C. Engineering economy
D. Design cost analysis

52. What is considered as the standard unit which forms the basis of a country’s
domestic money supply?

A. Monetary unit
B. Currency
C. Foreign exchange
D. Cash or check
53. What is defined as any tangible economic product that contributes directly or
indirectly to the satisfaction of human want?

A. Services
B. Goods
C. Commodities
D. Goods or commodities

54. What is defined as any tangible economic activity that contributes directly or
indirectly to the satisfaction of human want?

A. Services
B. Goods
C. Commodities
D. Goods or commodities

55. What are the two classifications of goods and services?

A. Local and imported

B. Raw and finished
C. Consumer and producer
D. Ready-made and made-to-order

56. What refers to the goods and services that are required to support human life,
needs and activities?

A. Producer products
B. Consumer products
C. Luxury
D. Necessity

57. What refers to the goods and services that are desired by human and will be
acquired only after all the needs have been satisfied?

A. Producer products
B. Consumer products
C. Luxury
D. Necessity
58. What refers to the exchange mechanism that brings together the sellers and the
buyers of a product, factor of production or financial security?

A. Mall
B. Market
C. Store
D. Office

59. What is considered as the basic consuming or demanding unit of a commodity?

A. Seller
B. Manufacturer
C. Producer
D. Buyer or consumer

60. What is defined as an entity which makes product, good or services available to
buyer or consumer in exchange of monetary consideration?

A. Seller
B. Manufacturer
C. Producer
D. Buyer or consumer

61. What is a market situation whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which
there is no goods substitute?

A. Monopsony
B. Monopoly
C. Oligopoly
D. Oligopsony

62. What market situation exists where there are few sellers and few buyers?

A. Oligopoly
B. Oligopsony
C. Bilateral oligopoly
D. Bilateral Oligopsony

63. What market situation exists where there is only one buyer and only one seller?
A. Monopsony
B. Monopoly
C. Bilateral monopsony
D. Bilateral monopoly

64. What is the market situation exist when there are many buyers and many sellers?

A. Perfect competition
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly

65. If there is only one seller and many buyers, the market situation is ________ .

A. Duopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly

66. If there are many sellers and few buyers, the market situation is _________ .

A. Duopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly

67. Oligopoly exists when there is/are:

A. Few sellers and few buyers

B. Few sellers and many buyers
C. Many sellers and few buyers
D. One seller and few buyers

68. Duopsony is a market situation where there is/are:

A. Few sellers and few buyers

B. Few sellers and many buyers
C. Many sellers and few buyers
D. One seller and few buyers

69. Duopoly is a market situation where there is/are:

A. Few sellers and few buyers
B. Few sellers and many buyers
C. Many sellers and few buyers
D. One seller and few buyers

70. What is another term for “perfect competition”?

A. Atomistic competition
B. No-limit competition
C. Free-for-all competition
D. Heterogeneous market

71. What refers to the market situation in which any given product is supplied by a very
large number of vendors and there is no restriction against additional vendors from
entering the market?

A. Perfect competition
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly

72. Aside from many sellers and many buyers, which one is a characteristic of perfect
competition?

A. Homogeneous product
B. Free market entry and exit
C. Perfect information and absence of all economic friction
D. All of the above

73. What is the opposite of perfect competition?

A. Monopsony
B. Oligopoly
C. Oligopsony
D. Monopoly

74. Perfect monopoly exists only if:

A. the single vendor can prevent the entry of all other vendors in the market
B. the single vendor gets the absolute franchise of the product
C. the single vendor is the only one who has the permit to sell
D. the single vendor is the only one who has the knowledge of the product

75. A ______ is a market situation where economies of scale are so significant that cost
are only minimized when the entire output of an industry is supplied by a single
producer so that the supply costs are lower under monopoly that under perfect
competition.

A. Perfect monopoly
B. Bilateral monopoly
C. Natural monopoly
D. Ordinary monopoly

76. “When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase,
increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate
increase in output”. This statement is known as the:

A. Law of diminishing return

B. Law of supply
C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply and demand

77. What refers to the need, want or desire for a product backed by the money to
purchase it?

A. Supply
B. Demand
C. Product
D. Good

78. What refers to the amount of a product made available for sale?

A. Supply
B. Demand
C. Product
D. Good

79. “Under conditions of perfect competition, the price at which any given product will
be supplied and purchased is the price that will result in the supply and the demand
being equal.” This statement is known as the:
A. Law of diminishing return
B. Law of supply
C. Law of demand
D. Law of supply and demand

80. What do you call any particular raw material or primary product such as cloth, wool,
flour, coffee, etc.?

A. Utility
B. Necessity
C. Commodity
D. Stock

81. What is defined as the interest on a load or principal that is based only on the
original amount of the loan or principal?

A. Effective rate of interest

B. Nominal rate of interest
C. Compound interest
D. Simple interest

82. Under ordinary simple interest, how many days in one year?

A. 300
B. 360
C. 365
D. 366

83. One banker’s year is equivalent to ______ days.

A. 300
B. 360
C. 365
D. 366

84. What refers to the cumulative effect of elapsed time on the money value of an
event, based on the earning power of equivalent invested funds capital should or will
earn?
A. Present worth factor
B. Interest rate
C. Time value of money
D. Yield

85. The difference between the present and future worth of money at some time in the
future is called ______.

A. Discount
B. Deduction
C. Inflation
D. Depletion

86. What refers to the present worth of the probable future net earnings?

A. Total fair value

B. Total market value
C. Going concern value
D. Earning value

87. What refers to the amount of money paid for the use of borrowed capital?

A. Interest
B. Rate of interest
C. Simple interest
D. Principal

88. What refers to the ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of
time and usually expressed as a percentage of the principal?

A. Return of investment
B. Interest rate
C. Yield
D. Rate of return

89. What is defined as the investment of loan or principal which is based not only on
the original amount of the loan or principal but the amount of loaned or principal plus
the previous accumulated interest?
A. Effective rate of interest
B. Nominal rate of interest
C. Compound interest
D. Simple interest

90. What refers to the cost of borrowing money or the amount earned by a unit
principal per unit time?

A. Yield rate
B. Rate of return
C. Rate of interest
D. Economic return

91. A uniform series of payment occurring at equal interval of time is called ______.

A. Annuity
B. Amortization
C. Depreciation
D. Bond

92. What is the term for an annuity with a fixed time span?

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity certain
D. Annuity due

93. What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the end of each period
starting from the first period?

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

94. What is the type of annuity where the payments are made at the beginning of the
each period starting from the first period?

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

95. What is the type of annuity that does not have a fixed time span but continues
indefinitely or forever?

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

96. What is the type of annuity where the first payment does not begin until some later
date in the cash flow?

A. Ordinary annuity
B. Perpetuity
C. Annuity due
D. Deferred annuity

97. Which is NOT an essential element of an ordinary annuity?

A. The amounts of all payments are equal.

B. The payments are made at equal interval of time.
C. The first payment is made at the beginning of the first period.
D. Compound interest is paid on all amounts in the annuity.

98. What is defined as a financial security note issued by business or corporation and
by the government as a means of borrowing long-term fund?

A. T-bills
B. Securities
C. Bond
D. Bank notes

99. What refers to the present worth of all the amount the bondholder will receive
through his possession of the bond?

A. Par value of bond

B. Face value of bond
C. Redeemed value of bond
D. Value of bond

100. What is defined as the certificate of indebtedness of corporation usually for a

period not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a
corporation?

A. Bond
B. T-bills
C. Stock
D. Promissory note

ENGINEERING ECONOMICS Objective Questions ::

101. What refers to a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial
security?

A. Bond
B. Bank note
C. Coupon
D. Check

102. What type of bond is issued jointly by two or more corporations?

A. Mortgage bond
B. Joint bond
C. Tie-up bond
D. Trust bond

103. What type of bond whose guaranty is in lien on railroad equipment, such as freight
and passenger cars, locomotives, etc.?

A. Railroad bond
B. Equipment obligation bond
C. Equipment bond
D. Equipment trust bond

104. A type of bond to which are attached coupons indicating the interest due and the
date when such interest is to be paid is called ______.
A. Registered bond
B. Coupon bond
C. Mortgage bond
D. Collateral trust bond

105. What bond whose security is a mortgage on certain specified assets of the
corporation?

A. Registered bond
B. Collateral trust bond
C. Mortgage bond
D. Debenture bond

106. A bond without any security behind them except a promise to pay by the issuing
corporation is called ______.

A. Joint bond
B. Debenture bond
C. Trust bond
D. Common bond

107. A type of bond where the corporation pledges securities which it owns such as the
stock or bonds of one of its subsidiaries.

A. Mortgage bond
B. Joint bond
C. Security bond
D. Collateral trust bond

108. What type of bond where the corporation’s owner name are recorded and the
interest is paid periodically to the owners with their asking for it?

A. Preferred bond
B. Registered bond
C. Incorporators bond
D. Callable bond

109. What type of bond which can be redeemed before maturity date?
A. Preferred bond
B. Registered bond
C. Incorporators bond
D. Callable bond

110. What is the feature of some bonds whereby the issuer can redeem it before it
matures?

A. Return clause
B. Callability
C. Recall clause
D. Call class

111. The price at which the callable bond will be redeemed from the bondholder is
called ______.

A. Par value
B. Call value
C. Face value
D. Redemption value

112. What is defined as the reduction or fall of the value of an asset due to constant
use and passage of time?

A. Depletion
B. Inflation
C. Depreciation
D. Deflation

113. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the loss in value
is directly proportional to the age of the equipment or asset?

A. Straight line method

B. Sinking fund method
C. Sum-of-year digit method
D. Declining balance method

114. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that a sinking fund is
established in which funds will accumulate for replacement purposes?
A. Straight line method
B. Sinking fund method
C. Sum-of-year digit method
D. Declining balance method

115. In what method of computing depreciation where it assumes that the annual cost
of depreciation is a fixed percentage of the book value at the beginning of the year?

A. Straight line method

B. Sinking fund method
C. Sum-of-year digit method
D. Declining balance method

116. In SYD method of computing depreciation, which of the following is the formula in
finding the sum of years’ digits?

A. image
B. image
C. image
D. image

117. The declining balance method is also known as ______.

A. Double percentage method

B. Constant percentage method
C. Modified sinking fund method
D. Modified SYD method

118. What type of depreciation is due to the reduction in the demand for the function
that the equipment or asset was designed to render?

A. Functional depreciation
B. Design depreciation
C. Physical depreciation
D. Demand depreciation

119. What type of depreciation is due to the reduction of the physical ability of an
equipment or asset to produce results?
A. Functional depreciation
B. Design depreciation
C. Physical depreciation
D. Demand depreciation

120. The functional depreciation is sometimes called ______.

A. Demand depreciation
B. Adolescence
C. Life depreciation
D. Failure depreciation

121. What is defined as the reduction of the value of certain natural resources such as
mines, oil, timber, quarries, etc. due to the gradual extraction of its contents?

A. Depletion
B. Inflation
C. Depreciation
D. Deflation

122. What are the common methods of computing depletion charge?

A. Rational method and irrational method

B. Conservative method and conventional method
C. Unit method and percentage method
D. Discrete method and depletion allowance method

123. Under the depletion allowance method in computing depreciation, the depletion
charge is equal to either ______ whichever is smaller.

A. Fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income

B. Fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income
C. 50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or 50% of the net taxable income
D. 50% of the fixed percentage of gross income or the net taxable income

124. The depletion allowance method of computing depletion is commonly known as

______.

A. Unit method
B. Percentage method
C. Factor method
D. Sinking fund method

125. What is another term for “unit method” for computing depletion?

A. Initial cost method

B. Percentage method
C. Factor method
D. Sinking fund method

126. Using factor method, the depletion at any given year is equal to:

A. Initial cost of property times number of unit sold during the year divided by the total
units in property
B. Initial cost of property divided by the number of units sold during the year
C. Initial cost of property times number of units sold during the year
D. Initial cost of property divided by the total units in property

127. What do you call the after-tax present worth of all depreciation effects over the
depreciation period of the asset?

A. Asset recovery
B. Depreciation recovery
C. Period recovery
D. After-tax recovery

128. A mathematical expression also known as the present value of annuity of one is
called ______.

A. Load factor
B. Demand factor
C. Sinking fund factor
D. Present worth factor

129. The amount of property in which a willing buyer to a willing seller for the property
when neither one is under the compulsion to buy nor to sell is called ______.

A. Fair value
B. Market value
C. Good will value
D. Book value

130. Salvage value is sometimes known as ______.

A. Scrap value
B. Going value
C. Junk value
D. Second-hand value

131. What refers to the value of an asset which a disinterested third party, different
from the buyer and seller, will determine in order to establish a price acceptable to both
parties?

A. Book value
B. Market value
C. Fair value
D. Franchise value

132. What refers to the value of an intangible item which arises from the exclusive
right of a company to provide a specified product and service in a certain region of the
country?

A. Company value
B. Going value
C. Goodwill value
D. Franchise value

133. The first cost to be incurred if the piece of equipment now in place had been
bought for a second hand dealer or some other business is called ______.

A. Material cost
B. Fixed cost
C. First cost
D. In-place value

134. In computing depreciation of an equipment, which of the following represents the

first cost?
A. The original purchase price and freight charges
B. Installation expenses
C. Initial taxes and permit fees
D. All of the above

135. The process of determining the value or worth of a physical property for specific
reason is called ______.

A. Investment
B. Valuation
C. Economy
D. Depletion

136. The unrecovered depreciation which results due to poor estimates as to the life of
the equipment is called ______.

A. Sunk cost
B. Economic life
C. In-place value
D. Annuity

137. What refers to the present worth of cost associated with an asset for an infinite
period of time?

A. Annual cost
B. Increment cost
C. Capitalized cost
D. Operating cost

138. Capitalized cost of a project is also known as ______.

A. Infinite cost
B. Life cycle cost
C. Life cost
D. Project cost

139. What is normally used to compare alternatives that accomplish the same purpose
but have unequal lives?
A. Capitalized cost method
B. Present worth method
C. Annual cost method
D. MARR

140. What method is often used in municipal project evaluations where benefits and
costs accrue to different segments of the community?

A. Annual cost method

B. Benefit-cost ratio
C. Rate of return method
D. EUAC

141. What refers to an imaginary cost representing what will not be received if a
particular strategy is rejected?

A. Opportunity cost
B. Ghost cost
C. Horizon cost
D. Null cost

142. What is the main reason why the sinking fund method of computing depreciation
is seldom used in the industry?

A. Unstable economy
B. Rate of interest cannot be exactly determined
C. The initial deprecation is high
D. The initial depreciation is low

143. What is the factor name of the formula (1+i)^-n?

A. Uniform gradient future worth

B. Capital recovery
C. Single payment present worth
D. Single payment compound amount

144. What is the factor name of the formula [i(1+i)^n]/[((1+i)^n)-1]?

A. Uniform series sinking fund

B. Capital recovery
C. Single payment present worth
D. Uniform gradient future worth

145. A form of business organization in which a person conducts his business alone
and entirely for his own profit, being solely responsible for all its activities and
liabilities.

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Entrepreneurship
C. Partnership
D. Corporation

146. Is an artificial being created by operation of law, having the right of succession
and the process, attributes and properties expressly authorized by the law or incident
to its existence.

A. Corporation
B. Property
C. Partnership
D. Organization

147. What is the simplest form of business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Enterprise
D. Corporation

148. Double taxation is a disadvantage of which business organization?

A. Sole proprietorship
B. Partnership
C. Corporation
D. Enterprise

149. In case of bankruptcy of a partnership,

A. The partners are not liable for the liabilities of the partnership
B. The partnership assets (excluding the partners personal assets) only will be used to
pay the liabilities
C. The partners personal assets are attached to the debt of the partnership
D. The partners nay sell stock to generate additional capital

150. Which is true about partnership?

A. It has a perpetual life.

B. It will be dissolved if one of the partners ceases to be connected with the partnership.
C. It can be handed down from one generation of partners to another.
D. Its capitalization must be equal for each partner.

151. Which is true about corporation?

A. It is worse type of business organization.

B. The minimum number of incorporators to start a corporation is three.
C. Its life is dependent on the lives of the incorporators.
D. The stock holders of the corporation are only liable to the extent of their investments.

152. Aggregation of individuals formed for the purpose of conducting a business and
recognized by law as a fictitious person is called ______.

A. Partnership
B. Investors
C. Corporation
D. Stockholders

153. An association of two or more persons for the purpose of engaging into a
business for profit is called ______.

A. Entrepreneurship
B. Partnership
C. Proprietorship
D. Corporation

154. What represents the ownership of stockholders who have a residual claim on the
assets of the corporation after all other claims have been settled?

A. Authorized capital stock

B. Preferred stock
C. Incorporator stock
D. Common stock
155. What stock represents ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary
stock?

A. Authorized stock
B. Preferred stock
C. Incorporator’s stock
D. Presidential stock

156. The amount of company’s profit that the board of directors of the corporation
decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders is called ______.

A. Dividend
B. Return
C. Share of stock
D. Equity

157. What refers to the residual value of a company’s assets after all outside liabilities
(shareholders excluded) have been allowed for?

A. Dividend
B. Equity
C. Return
D. Par value

158. What refers to the claim of anyone to ownership?

A. Proprietorship
B. Assets
C. Equity
D. Liability

159. Cash money and credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise are
generally called ______.

A. Capital
B. Funds
C. Assets
D. Liabilities

160. What represents the share of participation in business organizations?

A. Franchise
B. Partnership
C. Stock
D. Corporation

161. The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration of
obligations to financial contributors and claims of others based on profit is known as
______.

A. Yield
B. Economic return
C. Earning value
D. Gain

162. ______ is the element of value which a business has earned through the favorable
consideration and patronage of its costumers arising from its well known and well
conducted policies and operations.

A. Status company
B. Big income
C. Known owners
D. Goodwill

163. Which of the following is an example of intangible asset?

A. Cash
B. Investment in subsidiary companies
C. Furnitures
D. Patents

164. Lands, buildings, plants and machineries are example of what type of asset?

A. Current asset
B. Trade investment asset
C. Fixed asset
D. Intangible asset

165. What refers to the interest rate at which the present work of the cash flow on a
project is zero of the interest earned by an investment?
A. Economic return
B. Yield
C. Rate of return
D. Return of investment

166. What is another term for “current assets”?

A. Fixed assets
B. Non-liquid assets
C. Liquid assets
D. Ccash

167. What is an accounting term that represents an inventory account adjustment?

A. Cost of goods sold

B. Cost accounting
C. Standard cost
D. Overhead cost

168. What is the change in cost per unit variable change called?

A. Variable cost
B. Incremental cost
C. Fixed cost
D. Supplemental cost

169. What is used to record historical financial transactions?

A. Bookkeeping system
B. Ledger system
C. Balance check
D. General journal system

170. What is a secondary book of accounts, the information of which is obtained from
the journal is called?

A. Balanced sheet
B. Ledger
C. Worksheet
D. Trial balance
171. The original record of a business transaction is recorded in this book.

A. Work book
B. Journal
C. Ledger
D. Account book

172. All the proceeds which are received by the business as a result of the sale of
goods is called ______.

A. Net income
B. Gross income
C. Net revenue
D. Total sales

173. All are classified under direct labor expenses EXCEPT one. Which one?

A. Inspection cost
B. Testing cost
C. Assembly cost
D. Supervision cost

174. What is a measure of the average speed with which accounts receivable are
collected?

A. Current ratio
B. Quick ratio
C. Acid test ratio
D. Receivable turnover

175. The ratio of the net income before taxes to net sales is called ______.

A. Current ratio
B. Inventory turnover
C. Profit margin ratio
D. Price-earnings ratio

176. What do you call a one-time credit against taxes?

A. Due credit
B. Tax credit
C. Credible credit
D. Revenue credit

177. What is used when a quick estimate of the doubling time for the invested money is
needed?

A. Rule of 48
B. Rule of 36
C. Rule of 24
D. Rule of 72

178. What is the increase in the money value of a capital asset is called?

A. Profit
B. Capital gain
C. Capital expenditure
D. Capital stock

179. What is the reduction in the money value of capital asset is called?

A. Capital expenditure
B. Capital loss
C. Loss
D. Deficit

180. What refers to the negotiable claim issued by a bank in lien of a term deposit?

A. Time deposit
B. Bond
C. Capital gain certificate
D. Certificate of deposit

181. What denotes in the fall in the exchange rate of one currency in terms of the
others? This term is usually applies to the floating exchange rate.

A. Currency appreciation
B. Currency depreciation
C. Currency devaluation
D. Currency float
182. The deliberate lowering of the price of a nation’s currency in terms of the
accepted standard (Gold, American dollar or the British pound) is known as ______.

A. Currency appreciation
B. Currency depreciation
C. Currency devaluation
D. Currency float

183. What refers to the saving which takes place because goods are not available for
consumption rather than consumer really want to save?

A. Compulsory saving
B. Consumer saving
C. Forced saving
D. All of the above

184. The flow back of profit plus depreciation form a given project is called ______.

A. Capital recovery
B. Cash flow
C. Economic return
D. Earning value

185. As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by a periodic
changes to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of a debt by either periodic or
irregular prearranged programs is called ______.

A. Annuity
B. Amortization
C. Capital recovery
D. Annuity factor

186. Capitalized cost of any structure or property is computed by which formula?

A. First cost + interest of first cost

B. Annual cost – interest of first cost
C. First cost + cost of perpetual maintenance
D. First cost + salvage value
187. The true value of interest rate computed by equations for compound interest for a
1 year period is known as ______.

A. Expected return
B. Nominal interest
C. Effective interest
D. Economic return

188. Return on investment ratio is the ratio of the:

A. Net income to owner’s equity

B. Market price per share to earnings per share
C. Cost of goods sold to average cost of inventory at hand
D. Net credit sales to average net receivable

189. Gross margin is the ratio of the gross profit to ______.

A. Net sale
B. Owner’s equity
C. Inventory turnover
D. Quick assets

190. What is another term for “acid-test ratio”?

A. Current ratio
B. Quick ratio
C. Profit margin ratio
D. Price-earnings ratio

191. What is a government bond which has an indefinite life rather than a specific
maturity?

A. Coupon
B. T-bill
C. Debenture
D. Consol

192. A form of business firm which is owned and run by a group of individuals for their
mutual benefit is called ______.
A. Cooperative
B. Corporation
C. Enterprise
D. Partnership

193. What is a stock of a product which is held by a trade body or government as a

means of regulating the price of that product?

A. Stock pile
B. Hoard stock
C. Buffer stock
D. Withheld stock

194. The ability to meet debts as they become due is known as ______.

A. Solvency
B. Leverage
C. Insolvency
D. Liquidity

195. The ability to convert assets to cash quickly is known as ______.

A. Solvency
B. Liquidity
C. Leverage
D. Insolvency

196. What is the basic accounting equation?

A. Assets = liability + owner’s equity

B. Liability = assets + owners’ equity
C. Owner’s equity = assets + liability
D. Owner’s equity = liability – assets

197. The financial health of the company is measured in terms of:

A. Liquidity
B. Solvency
C. Relative risk
D. All of the above
198. What is an index of short-term paying ability?

A. Price-earnings ratio
B. Current ratio
C. Profit margin ratio
D. Gross margin

199. The common ratio is the ratio of:

A. Net credit sales to average net receivable

B. Current assets to current liabilities
C. Gross profit to net sales
D. Net income to owner’s equity

200. What is defined as the current assets minus inventories and prepaid expenses?

A. Profit margin ratio

B. Price-earnings ratio
C. Return of investment ratio
D. Quick ratio

ENGINEERIN
300+ TOP ESTIMATING & COSTING Multiple
Choice Questions Answers
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

Q No: 01

The rate of payment is made for 100 cu m (per % cu m) in case of

A. Earth work in excavation

B. Rock cutting

C. Excavation in trenches for foundation

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 02

The rate of an item of work depends on

A. Specifications of works

B. Specifications of materials

C. Proportion of mortar
D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 03

The main factor to be considered while preparing a detailed estimate, is

A. Quantity of the materials

B. Availability of materials

C. Transportation of materials

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 04

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The estimated value of the work excluding the amount for contingencies, work
charged establishment, tool and plants, is called work value

B. The actual expenditure involved to complete a work including incidental,

establishment and travelling charges, is called actual cost

C. The formal acceptance by the administrative department for incurring an expenditure

on the work, is called administrative approval

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 05

Brick walls are measured in sq. m if the thickness of the wall is

A. 10 cm

B. 15 cm
C. 20 cm

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 06

The plinth area of a building not includes

A. Area of the walls at the floor level

B. Internal shaft for sanitary installations up to 2 sq m. in area

C. Lift and wall including landing

D. Area of cantilevered porch

ANS: D

Q No: 07

If the formation level of a highway has a uniform gradient for a particular length, and
the ground is also having a longitudinal slope, the earthwork may be calculated by

A. Mid-section formula

B. Trapezoidal formula

C. Prismoidal formula

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 08

While estimating a reinforced cement structure, the omitted cover of concrete is

assumed

A. At the end of reinforcing bar, not less than 25 mm or twice the diameter of the bar

B. In thin slabs, 12 mm minimum or diameter of the bar whichever is more

C. For reinforcing longitudinal bar in a beam 25 mm minimum or diameter of the largest
bar which is more

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 09

A cement concrete road is 1000 m long, 8 m wide and 15 cm thick over the sub-base of
10 cm thick gravel. The box cutting in road crust is

A. 500 m3

B. 1000 m 3

C. 1500 m3

D. 2000 m3

ANS: C

Q No: 10

While estimating the qualities for the construction of a building, the correct metric unit
is

A. Metre for length

B. Cubic metre for area

C. Square metres for volume

D. Litre for capacity

ANS: D

Q No: 11

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. In order to check up the average depth of excavation, ‘Dead man s’ are left at the mid-
widths of borrow pits

B. The earthwork calculation in excavation is made from the difference in levels

obtained with a level

C. The earth work in excavation to form the road embankment includes the formation of
correct profile and depositing the soil in layers

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 12

The brick work is not measured in cu m in case of

A. One or more than one brick wall

B. Brick work in arches

C. Reinforced brick work

D. Half brick wall

ANS: D

Q No: 13

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. Lead is the average horizontal straight distance between the borrow pit and the place
of spreading soil

B. The lead is calculated for each block of the excavated area C. The unit of lead is 50 m
for a distance upto 500 m

D. The unit of lead is 1 km where the lead exceeds 2 km ANS: D

Q No: 14

The assumption on which the trapezoidal formula for volumes is based, is

A. The end sections are parallel planes

B. The mid-area of a pyramid is half the average area of the ends

C. The volume of the Prismoidal is over-estimated and hence a Prismoidal correction is

applied

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 15

In the mid-section formula

A. The mean depth is the average of depths of two consecutive sections

B. The area of mid-sections is calculated by using mean depth

C. The volume of the earth work is calculated by multiplying the mid-section area by the
distance between the two original sections

D. All of the above

ANS: D

Q No: 16

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The earth work of cutting in trenches or borrow pits in fairly uniform ground is
measured with the help of average depths of the dead men

B. The earth work in trenches or borrow pits in irregular ground is measured by taking
the difference in levels before and after completion of work

C. The earth work in trenches or borrow pits, where neither a nor b is feasible, are
measured from the fillings after deduction of voids

D. All the above

ANS: D
Q No: 17

The cross -sections for a highway is taken at

A. Right angle to the centre line

B. 30 metres apart

C. Intermediate points having abrupt change in gradient

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 18

Referring of given figure, pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The total length of centre line of four walls is 20 m

B. Length of long wall out-to -out is 6.80 m

C. Length of short walls in-to-in is 3.20 m

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 19

Pick up the correct statement regarding the centre line method of estimating a building

A. Product of the centre line of the walls and area of cross-section of any item, gives
total quantity of the item

B. The centre line is worked out separately for different sections of walls of a building

C. The centre line length is reduced by half the layer of main wall joining the partition
wall

D. All the above

ANS: D
Q No: 20

According to Indian Standards Institute, the actual size of modular bricks is

A. 23 cm × 11.5 cm × 7.5 cm

B. 25 cm × 13 cm × 7.5 cm

C. 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm

D. 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm

ANS: C

Q No: 21

The following item of earth work is not measured separately.

A. Setting out of works

B. Site clearance

C. Steps in deep excavation

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 22

The measurement is made in square metre in case of

A. Cement concrete in foundation

B. R.C.C. structure

C. Hollow concrete block wall

D. None of these

ANS: D

Q No: 23
The area of the cross-section of a road fully in banking shown in the given figure, is

A. [sb² + r² (2bd + sd)²]/(r² – s²)

B. [sb² + r² (2bd + sd)²]/(r² – s5)

C. [sb² + r² (2bd + sd)²]/(r – s)

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 24

Cost of fittings and their fixing is specified for the following sanitary fittings

A. Water closets

B. Flushing pipes

C. Lavatory basins

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 25

The excavation exceeding 1.5 m in width and 10 sq.m in plan area with a depth not
exceeding 30 cm, is termed as

A. Excavation

B. Surface dressing

C. Cutting

D. Surface excavation

ANS: D

Q No: 26
For the construction of buildings, the subheads of the estimate are

A. Earthwork, Concrete work, Brick work

B. Brickwork, Stone work, Roofing

C. Brickwork Flooring, Wood work, Steel work

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 27

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Pointing is measured in sq.m

B. Plastering is measured in sq.m

C. Glazing is measured in sq.m

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 28

The cross -section of a road partly in banking and partly in cutting is shown in the given
figure. The area of the shaded portion is

A. b – rd)²/(r – s)

B. b – rd)²/(r + s)

C. ½ × (b + rd)²/(r – s)

D. b – rd)²/(s – r)

ANS: A

Q No: 29
Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. If the bed level is above N.S.L. the canal is called fully in baking and the berms are
designed as 3 d where d is full supply depth of water (F.S.D.)

B. Area of canal in cutting = BD + Sd2 where B = bed width, d = depth of cutting and S is
the side slope

C. If F.S.L. is above N.S.L the canal is called partly in cutting and partly in filling and
berms are designed as 2d where d is full supply depth

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 30

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. No deduction is made for the volume occupied by reinforcement B. No deduction is

made for the openings upto 0.1 sq.m

C. No deduction is made for volumes occupied by pipes, not exceeding 100 sq.cm in
cross-section

D. None of these

ANS: D

Q No: 31

The value of ‘B’ of Indian type W.C. shown in the given figure is:

A. 45 cm

B. 50 cm

C. 30 cm

D. 25 cm ANS: A
Q No: 32
Pick up the excavation where measurements are made in square metres for payment.

A. Ordinary cuttings up to 1 m

B. Surface dressing up to 15 cm depths

C. Surface excavation up to 30 cm depths

D. Both B. and C.

ANS: D

Q No: 33

As per Indian Standard Specifications, the peak discharge for domestic purposes per
capita per minute, is taken

A. 1.80 litres for 5 to 10 users

B. 1.20 litres for 15 users

C. 1.35 for 20 users

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 34

In long and short wall method of estimation, the length of long wall is the centre to
centre distance between the walls and

A. Breadth of the wall

B. Half breadth of wall on each side

C. One fourth breadth of wall on each side

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 35
The expected out turn of cement concrete 1 : 2 : 4 per mason per day is

A. 1.5 m 3

B. 2.5 m3

C. 3.5 m3

D. 5.0 m3

ANS: D

Q No: 36

The value of ‘C’ of Indian type W.C. shown in the given figure is:

A. 400 mm

B. 450 mm

C. 500 mm

D. 550 mm ANS: C
Q No: 37

The area is measured correct to the nearest

A. 0.01 sqm

B. 0.02 sqm

C. 0.03 sqm

D. 0.04 sqm ANS: A
Q No: 38

The measurement is not made in square metres in case of

A. D.P.C. (Damp proof course)

B. Form works

C. Concrete Jeffries
D. R.C. Chhajja

ANS: D

Q No: 39

The value of ‘A’ of Indian type W.C. shown in the given figure is:

A. 25 cm

B. 30 cm

C. 40 cm

D. 45 cm ANS: B
Q No: 40

The trap which is provided to disconnect the house drain from the street sewer is called

A. Master trap

B. Intercepting trap

C. Interception manhole

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 41

Due to change in price level, a revised estimate is prepared if the sanctioned estimate
exceeds

A. 2.0 %

B. 2.5 %

C. 4.0 %

D. 5.0 % ANS: D
Q No: 42
The cost of the earthwork in excavation for the surface drain of cross-section shown in
the given figure for a total length of 5 metres @ Rs. 450% cum, is

A. Rs. 400

B. Rs. 425

C. Rs. 450

D. Rs. 500 ANS: C
Q No: 43

The expected out turn of 2.5 cm cement concrete floor per mansion per day

A. 2.5 sqm

B. 5.0 sqm

C. 7.5 sqm

D. 10 sqm

ANS: C

Q No: 44

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The bent up bars at a support resist the negative bending moment B. The bent up bars
at a support resist the sharing force C. The bending of bars near supports is generally at
45°

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 45

While preparing a detailed estimate

A. Dimension should be measured correct to 0.01 m

B. Area should be measured correct to 0.01 sqm

C. Volume should be measured correct to 0.01 cum

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 46

The item of the brick structure measured in sq.m, is

A. Reinforced brick work

B. Broken glass coping

C. Brick edging

D. Brick work in arches

ANS: B

Q No: 47

The most reliable estimate is

A. Detailed estimate

B. Preliminary estimate

C. Plinth area estimate

D. Cube rate estimate

ANS: A

Q No: 48

The reduced levels of points, 30 metres apart along the longitudinal section of a road
portion between chainages 5 and 9 are shown in the given figure. If there is a uniform
up-gradient of the road 120 in 1, the chainage of the point with no filling or cutting is

A. (6 + 15) chains
B. (6 + 12) chains

C. (6 + 18) chains

D. None of these ANS: B

Q No: 49

According to ISI method of measurement, the order of the sequence is

A. Length, breadth, height

B. Breadth, length, height

C. Height, length, breadth

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 50

Anti-siphonage pipe is connected to

A. Main soil pipe

B. Bottom of P trap W.C.

C. Top of P trap W.C.

D. Side of water closet

ANS: C

ESTIMATING and COSTING Objective Questions Pdf ::

Q No: 51

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. In a gully trap, a water seal of 6 to 7.5 cm is provided

B. The gully trap collects waste water from the kitchen, sink, wash basins, etc.

C. The gully trap disconnects the sullage drain from the main drainage system

D. The grating provided over gully traps is 23 cm square ANS: B

Q No: 52

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Bricks are paid per thousand

B. Cement is paid per 50 kg bag

C. Lime is paid per quintal

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 53

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. All pipes and fittings are classified according to their diameters B. The diameter of the
pipes is the nominal diameter of internal bore C. All pipes are measured along the centre
line of the pipes in metres
D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 54

A portion of an embankment having a uniform up-gradient 1 in 500 is circular with radius

1000 m of the centre line. It subtends 180° at the centre. If the height of the bank is 1 m
at the lower end, and side slopes 2:1, the earth work involved.

A. 26,000 m3

B. 26,500 m3

C. 27,000 m3
D. 27,500 m3

ANS: D

Q No: 55

Pick up the correct statement in case of water supply.

A. Pipes laid in trenches and pipes fixed to walls are measured separately

B. Cutting through walls and floors are included with the item C. Pipes are classified
according to their sizes and quality
D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 56

The concrete work for the following part of the building of specified thickness is
measured in square metres

A. Root slabs

B. Floors

C. Wall panels

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 57

The expected out turn of 12 mm plastering with cement mortar is

A. 2.5 sq m

B. 4.0 sq m

C. 6.0 sq m

D. 8.0 sq m
ANS: D

Q No: 58

The total length of a cranked bar through a distance D. at 45° in case of a beam of
effective length L, is

A. L + 0.42 d

B. L + (2 × 0.42 d)

C. L – (0.42 d)

D. L – (2 × 0.4 d)

ANS: B

Q No: 59

The measurement is made for stone work in square metre in case of

A. Wall facing

B. Columns, lintels, copings

C. Building work

D. A. and D. of the above

ANS: D

Q No: 60

Carpet area does not include the area of

A. The walls along with doors and other openings

B. Bath room and lavatory

C. Kitchen and pantry

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 61

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The incidental expenses of a miscellaneous character which could not be predicted

during preparation of the estimate, is called contingencies

B. Additional supervising staff engaged at work site, is called work charged

establishment

C. Detailed specifications specify qualities, quantities and the proportions of materials to

be used for a particular item

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 62

The cross -sectional area of the embankment of a canal fully in embankment in the
given figure is

A. ½ ( + + ) h
B. ( ) h + sb²
C. ( + ) + 2sh²
D. 2 [( + ) (b + sh²)]

ANS: C

Q No: 63

The correct Prismoidal formula for volume is

A. D [first area + last area + Even area + 2 odd areas]
B. D/3 [first area + last area + 4 Even area + 2 odd areas]
C. D/3 [first area + last area + 2 Even area + 4 odd areas]
D. D/6 [first area + odd areas]
ANS: B

Q No: 64
In case of laying gullies, siphons, intercepting traps, the cost includes

A. Setting and laying

B. Bed concreting

C. Connection to drains

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 65

The inspection pit or chamber is a manhole provided in a base drainage system

A. At every change of direction

B. At every change of gradient

C. At every 30 m intervals

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 66

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. Dimensions are measured to the nearest 0.01 m

B. Areas are measured to the nearest 0.01 sq.m

C. Cubic contents are measured to the nearest 0.1 cum

D. Weights are measured to the nearest 0.001 tonnes ANS: C

Q No: 67

The ‘centre line method’ is specially adopted for estimating

A. Circular buildings
B. Hexagonal buildings

C. Octagonal buildings

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 68

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. The built up covered area at the floor level of any storey of a building is called plinth
area B. The usable covered area of the rooms of any storey of a building is called carpet
area

C. The carpet area of a building along with area of its kitchen, pantry, store, lavatory, bath
room and glazed veranda, is called floor area

D. None of these

ANS: D

Q No: 69

The unit of measurement is per quintal for the following:

A. Collapsible gates with rails

B. Rolling shutters

C. Expanded metal wire netting

D. M.S. reinforcement of R.C.C. works

ANS: D

Q No: 70

The diameter of a domestic sewer pipe laid at gradient 1 in 100 is recommended

A. 100 mm
B. 150 mm

C. 200 mm

D. 175 mm

ANS: B

Q No: 71

The order of booking dimensions is

A. Length, breadth, height

B. Breadth, length, height

C. Height, breadth, length

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 72

Pick up the incorrect statement regarding a master trap from the following:

A. It is provided in between the lower end of the house drain and the street sewer

B. It is provided a cleaning eye at the top of the trap

C. The mica flap valve which opens inwards only, is fitted at the top of the inlet pipe

D. The water seal is less than that of ordinary traps

ANS: D

Q No: 73 S: 1 and
length is

A. d × d × s
B. d2 × ( ds)2]
C. L.D 1 + s2)
D. 2 L.D 1 + s 2)
ANS: C
Q No: 74
period in a septic tank is assumed
The detention
A. 20 minutes
B. 25 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 40 minutes
ANS: C

Q No: 75

If B is the width of formation, d is the height of the embankment, side slope S : 1, for a
highway with no transverse slope, the area of cross-section is

A. B + d + Sd

B. Bd + Sd2

C. B × d – Sd1/2

D. ½ (Bd + Sd2)

ANS: B

Q No: 76

The ground surface slopes 1 in 50 along a proposed railway embankment 150 m in

length. The height of the embankment at zero chainage is 0.5 m, the width is 11 m and
side slopes 2:1. If the

falling gradient of the embankment is 1 in 150, the quantity of the earthwork calculated
by Prismoidal formula, is

A. 3250 m3

B. 3225 m3

C. 3275 m3
D. 3300 m3

ANS: B

Q No: 77

Pick up the item of work not included in the plinth area estimate

A. Wall thickness

B. Room area

C. W.C. area

D. Courtyard area

ANS: D

Q No: 78

The minimum width of a septic tank is taken

A. 70 cm

B. 75 cm

C. 80 cm

D. 90 cm

ANS: B

Q No: 79

Pick up the item whose weight is added to the weight of respective item, is

A. Cleats

B. Brackets

C. Bolts

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 80

The expected out turn for earth work in excavation in ordinary soil per workman per day
is

A. 1.00 cum

B. 2.00 cum

C. 3.00 cum

D. 4.00 cum

ANS: C

Q No: 81
The expected out turn of brick work in cement mortar in foundation and plinth per
mason per day,
is A. 1.00 m3

B. 1.25 m3

C. 1.50 m3

D. 1.75 m3 ANS: B
Q No: 82

The brick work is measured in sq metre, in case of

A. Honey comb brick work

B. Brick flat soling

C. Half brick walls or the partition

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 83
The height of the sink of wash basin above floor level is kept

A. 60 cm

B. 70 cm

C. 75 cm to 80 cm

D. 80 cm

ANS: C

Q No: 84

For 12 mm thick cement plastering 1 : 6 on 100 sq.m new brick work, the quantity of
cement required, is

A. 0.200 m3

B. 0.247 m3

C. 0.274 m3

D. 0.295 m3

ANS: C

Q No: 85

The item of steel work which is measured in sq.m, is

A. Collapsible gates

B. Rolling shutters

C. Ventilators and glazing

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 86
The damp proof course (D.P.C.) is measured in

A. Cub. m

B. Sq. m

C. Metres

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 87

The volume is measured correct to the nearest

A. 0.01 cum

B. 0.02 cum

C. 0.03 cum

D. 0.04 cum

ANS: A

Q No: 88 is 1400 kg/cm2 and bond stress is 6 kg/cm2, the

If tensile stress of a steel rod of diameter

required bond length of the rod is
A. 30 D
B. 39 D
C. 50 D
D. 59 D
ANS: D

Q No: 89

For 100 sq. m cement concrete (1 : 2: 4) 4 cm thick floor, the quantity of cement
required, is

A. 0.90 m3
B. 0.94 m3

C. 0.98 m3

D. 1.00 m3

ANS: B

Q No: 90

Size, capacity and materials need be specified for

A. Bib-cocks

B. Stop-cocks

C. Ball valves

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 91

The expected out turn of half brick partition wall per mason per day is

A. 1.5 m 3

B. 2.0 m3

C. 4.0 m2

D. 5.0 m2

ANS: B

Q No: 92

The floor area includes the area of the balcony up to

A. 100 %

B. 75 %
C. 50 %

D. 25 % ANS: C
Q No: 93

The slope of the outlet of ‘P trap’ below the horizontal is kept

A. 8°

B. 10°

C. 12°

D. 14°

ANS: D

Q No: 94

The weight of an item is measured correct to nearest

A. 0.25 kg

B. 0.50 kg

C. 0.75 kg

D. 1.00 kg

ANS: D

Q No: 95

Berms are provided in canals if these are

A. Fully in excavation

B. Partly in excavation and partly in embankment

C. Fully in embankment

D. All the above

ANS: B

300+ TOP RCC Structures Design Multiple Choice

Questions & Answers
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. An R.C.C. beam of 6 m span is 30 cm wide and has a lever arm of 55 cm. If it carries
a U.D.L. of 12 t per m and allowable shear stress is 5 kg/cm2, the beam

A. Is safe in shear
B. Is safe with stirrups
C. Is safe with stirrups and inclined bars
D. Needs revision of section

ANS: D

2. According to I.S. : 456, slabs which span in two directions with corners held down,
are assumed to be divided in each direction into middle strips and edge strips such that
the width of the middle strip, is

A. Half of the width of the slab

B. Two -third of the width of the slab
C. Three-fourth of the width of the slab
D. Four-fifth of the width of the slab

ANS: C

3. The load stress of a section can be reduced by

A. Decreasing the lever arm

B. Increasing the total perimeter of bars
C. Replacing larger bars by greater number of small bars
D. Replacing smaller bars by greater number of greater bars

ANS: C

4. the column head support a flat slab, is generally kept The diameter of
A. 0.25 times the span length
B. 0.25 times the diameter of the column
C. 4.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column
D. 5.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column

ANS: A

5. fixed at its ends, the If is the uniformly distributed load on a circular slab of
radius maximum positive radial moment at its centre, is
A. 3WR²/16
B. 2WR²/16
C. WR²/16
D. None of these

ANS: C

6. The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in one
direction, is

A. 35
B. 25
C. 30
D. 20

ANS: C

7. If the width of the foundation for two equal columns is restricted, the shape of the
footing generally adopted, is

A. Square
B. Rectangular
C. Trapezoidal
D. Triangular

ANS: B

8. The floor slab of a building is supported on reinforced cement floor beams. The ratio
of the end and intermediate spans is kept

A. 0.7
B. 0.8
C. 0.9
D. 0.6
ANS: C

9. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Lateral reinforcement in R.C.C. columns is provided to prevent the longitudinal

reinforcement from buckling
B. Lateral reinforcement prevents the shearing of concrete on diagonal plane
C. Lateral reinforcement stops breaking away of concrete cover, due to buckling
D. All the above

ANS: D

10. In case the factor of safety against sliding is less than 1.5, a portion of slab is
constructed downwards at the end of the heel slab, which is known as

A. A key
B. A cut-off wall
C. A rib
D. All the above

ANS: D

RCC Structures Design Multiple Choice Questions

11. Lapped splices in tensile reinforcement are generally not used for bars of size
larger than

A. 18 mm diameter
B. 24 mm diameter
C. 30 mm diameter
D. 36 mm diameter

ANS: D
12. Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of the same size
should not be less than

A. One diameter
B. 2.5 diameters
C. 3 diameters
D. 3.5 diameters

ANS: A

13. For a ribbed slab

A. Clear spacing between ribs shall not be greater than 4.5 cm

B. Width of the rib shall not be less than 7.5 cm
C. Overall depth of the slab shall not exceed four times the breadth of the rib
D. All the above

ANS: D

14. A very comfortable type of stairs is

A. Straight
B. Dog legged
C. Geometrical
D. Open newel

ANS: D

15. Columns may be made of plain concrete if their unsupported lengths do not exceed
their least lateral dimension

A. Two times
B. Three times
C. Four times
D. Five times

ANS: C

Q-NO: 16

The width of the flange of a L-beam, should be less than

A. One- sixth of the effective span

B. Breadth of the rib + four times thickness of the slab

C. Breadth of the rib + half clear distance between ribs

D. Least of the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 17

A pre-stressed concrete member is preferred because

A. Its dimensions are not decided from the diagonal tensile stress

B. Large size of long beams carrying large shear force need not be adopted

C. Removal of cracks in the members due to shrinkage

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 18
If the ratio of the span to the overall depth does not exceed 10, the stiffness of the beam
will
ordinarily be satisfactory in case of a
A. Simply supported beam
B. Continuous beam
C. Cantilever beam
D. None of these
ANS: C
Q-NO: 19
carrying a uniformly distributed load per metre length is suspended at two
A pile of length
points, the maximum, B.M. at the centre of the pile or at the points of suspension, is
A. WL/8
B. WL²/24
C. WL²/47
D. WL²/16
ANS: C

Q-NO: 20

If is the net upward pressure on a square footing of side for a square column of side ,
the maximum bending moment is given by

A. B.M = pb (c – a)/4

B. B.M = pb (b – a)²/4

C. B.M = pb (b – a)²/8

D. B.M = pb (b + a)/8

ANS: C

Q-NO: 21

To ensure uniform pressure distribution, the thickness of the foundation, is

A. Kept uniform throughout

B. Increased gradually towards the edge

C. Decreased gradually towards the edge

D. Kept zero at the edge

ANS: C

Q-NO: 22

longitudinal bars and lateral stirrups, is

A. Stress in concrete × area of concrete

B. Stress in steel × area of steel

C. Stress in concrete × area of concrete + Stress in steel × area of steel

D. None of these
ANS: C

Q-NO: 23
mutually perpendicular principal stresses acting on a soil mass, the normal stress
If p1 and p2 are
A. [(p – p p p to the principal plane carrying the principal stress p1, is:
sin 2
B. [(p – p p p cos 2
C. [(p p p – p cos 2
D. [(p p p – p /2] sin 2
ANS: C

Q-NO: 24

The maximum permissible size of aggregates to be used in casting the ribs of a slab, is

A. 5 mm

B. 7.5 mm

C. 10 mm

D. 15 mm

ANS: C

Q-NO: 25

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: Tensile reinforcement bars of a
rectangular beam

A. Are curtailed if not required to resist the bending moment B. Are bent up at suitable
places to serve as shear reinforcement C. Are bent down at suitable places to serve as
shear reinforcement

D. Are maintained at bottom to provide at least local bond stress ANS: C

Q-NO: 26

Steel bars are generally connected together to get greater length than the standard
length by providing
A. Straight bar splice

B. Hooked splice

C. Dowel splice

D. All the above ANS: D

Q-NO: 27

The minimum thickness of the cover at the end of a reinforcing bar should not be less
than twice the diameter of the bar subject to a minimum of

A. 10 mm

B. 15 mm

C. 20 mm

D. 25 mm

ANS: D

Q-NO: 28

Top bars are extended to the projecting parts of the combined footing of two columns
Ldistance apart for a distance of

A. 0.1 L from the outer edge of column

B. 0.1 L from the centre edge of column

C. Half the distance of projection

D. One -fourth the distance of projection

ANS: B

Q-NO: 29

For M 150 grade concrete (1:2:4) the moment of resistance factor is

A. 0.87
B. 8.50

C. 7.50

D. 5.80

ANS: B

Q-NO: 30

is the pre- stressed force applied to tendon of a rectangular pre-stressed beam whose
area of
cross section is and sectional modulus is . The minimum stress on the beam subjected
to a
maximum bending moment is
A. f = (P/A) – (Z/M)
B. f = (A/P) – (M/Z)
C. f = (P/A) – (M/Z)
D. f = (P/A) – (M/6Z)
ANS: C

Q-NO: 31

If C is creep coefficient, f is original pre-stress in concrete, m is modular ratio, E is

Young’s modulus of steel and e is shrinkage strain, the combined effect of creep and
shrinkage is:

A. (1 – C) mf – eE

B. (C – 1)mf + eE

C. (C – 1)mf – eE

D. (1 – C)mf + eE ANS: B

Q-NO: 32

In a pre-stressed member it is advisable to use

A. Low strength concrete only

B. High strength concrete only

C. Low strength concrete but high tensile steel

D. High strength concrete and high tensile steel

ANS: D

Q-NO: 33

An R.C.C. lintel is spanning an opening of 2 m span in a brick wall. The height of the roof
is 2.9 m above the floor level and that of the opening is 2.1 m above the floor level. The
lintel is to be designed for self weight plus

A. Triangular load of the wall

B. UDL of wall

C. UDL of wall + load from the roof

D. Triangular load + load from the roof

ANS: C

Q-NO: 34

The minimum clear cover for R.C.C. columns shall be

A. Greater of 40 mm or diameter

B. Smaller of 40 mm or diameter

C. Greater of 25 mm or diameter

D. Smaller of 25 mm or diameter

ANS: C

Q-NO: 35

The minimum thickness of a flat slab is taken

A. L/32 for end panels without drops

B. L/36 for end panels without drops

C. L/36 for interior panels without drop

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 36

The design of heel slab of a retaining wall is based on the maximum bending moment
due to:

A. Its own weight

B. Weight of the soil above it

C. Load of the surcharge, if any

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 37

An R.C.C beam of 25 cm width has a clear span of 5 metres and carries a U.D.L. of 2000
kg/m inclusive of its self weight. If the lever arm of the section is 45 cm., the beam is

A. Safe in shear

B. Is safe with stirrups

C. Is safe with stirrups and inclined members

D. Needs revision of the section

ANS: A

Q-NO: 38

The neutral axis of a T-beam exists

A. Within the flange

B. At the bottom edge of the slab

C. Below the slab

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 39

A pre-cast pile generally used, is

A. Circular

B. Square

C. Octagonal

D. Square with corners chamfered

ANS: D

Q-NO: 40

The spacing of transverse reinforcement of column is decided by the following

consideration.

A. The least lateral dimension of the column

B. Sixteen times the diameter of the smallest longitudinal reinforcing rods in the column

C. Forty-eight times the diameter of transverse reinforcement

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 41

The self-weight of the footing, is

A. Not considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing

B. Also considered for calculating the upward pressure on footing

C. Not considered for calculating the area of the footing

D. Both B. and C.

ANS: A

Q-NO: 42

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. In the stem of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided near the earth side

B. In the toe slab of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided at the bottom of the slab

C. In the heel slab of a retaining wall, reinforcement is provided at the top of the slab

D. None of these

ANS: D

Q-NO: 43

If the bearing capacity of soil is 10 tonnes/cm2 and the projection of plain concrete
footing from walls, is a cm, the depth D of footing is

A. D = 0.0775 a

B. D = 0.775 a

C. D = 0.775 a

D. D = 0.775 a2

ANS: B

Q-NO: 44

After pre-stressing process is completed, a loss of stress is due to

A. Shrinkage of concrete

B. Elastic shortening of concrete

C. Creep of concrete

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 45

In a simply supported slab, alternate bars are curtailed at

A. 1/4th of the span

B. 1/5th of the span

C. 1/6th of the span

D. 1/7th of the span

ANS: D

Q-NO: 46

If R and T are rise and tread of a stair spanning horizontally, the steps are supported by a
wall on

one side and by a stringer beam on the other side, the steps are designed as beams of
width

A. R + T

B. T – R

C. 2 + T2)

D. R – T

ANS: C

Q-NO: 47
If p1 and P2 are effective lateral loadings at the bottom and top exerted by a level earth
subjected to a super-load on the vertical face of height h of a retaining wall, the
horizontal pressure p per unit length of the wall, is

A. [( – )/2] h

B. [( + )/4] h

C. [( + )/2] h

D. ( – h ANS: C

Q-NO: 48

In the zone of R.C.C. beam where shear stress is less than 5 kg/cm2, nominal
reinforcement is provided at a pitch of

A. One -half lever arm of the section

B. One-third lever arm of the section

C. Lever arm of the section

D. One and half lever arm of the section

ANS: C

Q-NO: 49

The transverse reinforcements provided at right angles to the main reinforcement

A. Distribute the load

B. Resist the temperature stresses

C. Resist the shrinkage stress

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 50
Long and short spans of a two way slab are l and l and load on the slab acting on strips
parallel

to lx and ly be wx and wy respectively. Accordingy to xRankine Grashoff theory

A. (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)

B. (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)²

C. (wx/wy) = (ly/lx)4
D. None of these

ANS: C

Q-NO: 51

The pitch of the main bars in a simply supported slab, should not exceed its effective
depth by

A. Three times

B. Four times

C. Five times

D. Six times

ANS: D

Q-NO: 52

High strength concrete is used in pre-stressed member

A. To overcome high bearing stresses developed at the ends

B. To overcome bursting stresses at the ends

C. To provide high bond stresses

D. All the above

ANS: D
Q-NO: 53
on a circular slab of radius , the maximum radial moment at the centre of the
If is the load
slab, is WR²/16
A.
B. 2WR²/16
C. 3WR²/16
D. 5WR²/16
ANS: C

Q-NO: 54

If A is the area of the foundation of a retaining wall carrying a load W and retaining earth
of
weight w per unit volume, the minimum depth (h) of the foundation from the free surface
of the
earth, is )/(1 + sin )]
A. h = (W/Aw) [(1 –
B. h = (W/Aw) [(1 + )/(1 + sin )]
C. h = (W/Aw) [(1 – )/(1 + sin )]²
D. h W/Aw) [(1 – )/(1 + sin )]²
ANS: C

Q-NO: 55

If the permissible compressive and tensile stresses in a singly reinforced beam are 50
kg/cm2 and 1400 kg/cm2 respectively and the modular ratio is 18, the percentage area
At of the steel required for an economic section, is

A. 0.496 %

B. 0.596 %

C. 0.696 %

D. 0.796 %

ANS: C

Q-NO: 56
The modular ratio m of a concrete whose permissible compressive stress is C, may be
obtained from the equation.

A. m = 700/3C

B. m = 1400/3C

C. m = 2800/3C

D. m = 3500/3C

ANS: C

Q-NO: 57

Enlarged head of a supporting column of a flat slab is technically known as

A. Supporting end of the column

B. Top of the column

C. Capital

D. Drop panel ANS: C

Thickened part of a flat slab over its supporting column, is technically known as

A. Drop panel

C. Column head

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q-NO: 59

If is the sectional area of a pre-stressed rectangular beam provided with a tendon pre
-stressed
by a force through its centroidal longitudinal axis, the compressive stress in concrete, is
A. P/A
B. A/P
C. P/2A
D. 2A/P
ANS: A

Q-NO: 60

Side face reinforcement shall be provided in the beam when depth of the web in a beam
exceeds

A. 50 cm

B. 75 cm

C. 100 cm

D. 120 cm

ANS: B

Q-NO: 61

A pre-stressed rectangular beam which carries two concentrated loads W at L/3 from
either end, is provided with a bent tendon with tension P such that central one-third
portion of the tendon remains parallel to the longitudinal axis, the maximum dip h is

A. WL/P

B. WL/2P

C. WL/3P

D. WL/4P

ANS: C

Q-NO: 62

The minimum head room over a stair must be

A. 200 cm

B. 205 cm
C. 210 cm

D. 230 cm

ANS: C

Q-NO: 63

If q is the punching shear resistance per unit area a, is the side of a square footing for a
column of side b, carrying a weight W including the weight of the footing, the depth D. of
the footing from punching shear consideration, is

A. D = W (a – b)/4a²bq

B. D = W (a² – b²)/4a²bq

C. D = W (a² – b²)/8a²bq

D. D = W (a² – b²)/4abq

ANS: B

Q-NO: 64

For initial estimate for a beam design, the width is assumed

A. 1/15th of span

B. 1/20th of span

C. 1/25th of span

D. 1/30th of span

ANS: D

Q-NO: 65

In a slab, the pitch of the main reinforcement should not exceed its effective depth

A. Three times

B. Four times
C. Five times

D. Two times

ANS:

Q-NO: 66
If the length of a combined footing for two columns l metres apart is L and the
projection on the
left side of the exterior column is x, then the projection y on the right side of the exterior
column,
in order to have a uniformly distributed load, is (where is the distance of centre of gravity
of
column loads) .
A. y = L – (l – ) )
B. y = L/2 + (l –
C. y = L/2 – (l + )
D. y = L/2 – (l – )

ANS: D

Q-NO: 67

Total pressure on the vertical face of a retaining wall of height h acts parallel to free
surface and from the base at a distance of

A. h /4

B. h/3

C. h/2

D. 2h/3

ANS: B

Q-NO: 68

If the tendon is placed at an rectangular beam (sectional top edge

A. Is increased by PZ/e
B. Is increased by Pe/Z

C. Is decreased by Pe/Z

D. Remains unchanged ANS: C

eccentricity e below the centroidal axis of the longitudinal axis of a modulus Z and
stressed load P in tendon) the stress at the extreme

Q-NO: 69

The Young’s modulus of elasticity of steel, is

A. 150 KN/mm2

B. 200 KN/mm2

C. 250 KN/mm2

D. 275 KN/mm2

ANS: D

Q-NO: 70

Design of a two way slab simply supported on edges and having no provision to prevent
the corners from lifting, is made by

A. Rankine formula

B. Marcus formula

C. Rankine Grashoff formula

D. Grashoff formula

ANS: C

Q-NO: 71

Spacing of stirrups in a rectangular beam, is

A. Kept constant throughout the length

B. Decreased towards the centre of the beam

C. Increased at the ends

D. Increased at the centre of the beam

ANS: D

Q-NO: 72

As per IS : 456, the reinforcement in a column should not be less than

A. 0.5% and not more than 5% of cross-sectional area

B. 0.6% and not more than 6% of cross-sectional area

C. 0.7% and not more than 7% of cross-sectional area

D. 0.8% and not more than 8% of cross-sectional area ANS: D

Q-NO: 73

The allowable tensile stress in mild steel stirrups, reinforced cement concrete, is

A. 1400 kg/cm2

B. 190 kg/cm2

C. 260 kg/cm2

D. 230 kg/cm2 ANS: A

Q-NO: 74

Bottom bars under the columns are extended into the interior of the footing slab to a
distance greater than

A. 42 diameters from the centre of the column

B. 42 diameters from the inner edge of the column

C. 42 diameters from the outer edge of the column

D. 24 diameters from the centre of the column

ANS: C

Q-NO: 75

Pick up the assumption for the design of a pre-stressed concrete member from the
following:

A. A transverse plane section remains a plane after bending

B. During deformation limits, Hook’s law is equally applicable to concrete as well as to

steel

C. Variation of stress in reinforcement due to changes in external loading is negligible

D. All the above

ANS: D

RCC STRUCTURE DESIGN MCQs Pdf ::

Q-NO: 76

The advantage of reinforced concrete, is due to

A. Monolithic character

B. Fire-resisting and durability

C. Economy because of less maintenance cost

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 77

An R.C.C. column is treated as short column if its slenderness ratio is less than

A. 30

B. 35

C. 40
D. 50

ANS: D

Q-NO: 78

The zone in which transverse bending is likely to occur may be obtained by drawing a
line from the

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. None of these ANS: B

Q-NO: 79

The thickness of the topping of a ribbed slab, varies between

A. 3 cm to 5 cm

B. 5 cm to 8 cm

C. 8 cm to 10 cm

D. 12 cm to 15 cm

ANS: B

Q-NO: 80

If the length of an intermediate span of a continuous slab is 5m, the length of the end
span is kept

A. 4.5 m

B. 4.0 m

C. 3.5 m

D. 3.0 m
ANS: A

Q-NO: 81

If L is the effective span of a R.C.C. beam which is subjected to maximum shear qmax at
the ends, the distance from either end over which stirrups for the shear, are provided, is

A. (L/2) (1 – 3/qmax)

B. (L/3) (1 – 5/qmax)

C. (L/2) (1 – 5/qmax)

D. (L/2) (1 – 2/q )

ANS: Cmax

Q-NO: 82

The angle of internal friction of soil mass is the angle whose

A. Tangent is equal to the rate of the maximum resistance to sliding on any internal
inclined plane to the normal pressure acting on the plane

B. Sine is equal to the ratio of the maximum resistance to sliding on any internal inclined
plane to the normal pressure acting on the plane

C. Cosine is equal to the ratio of the maximum resistance sliding on any internal inclined
plane to the normal pressure acting on the plane

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q-NO: 83

The maximum ratio of span to depth of a slab simply supported and spanning in two
directions, is

A. 25

B. 30
C. 35

D. 40

ANS: C

Q-NO: 84

If T and R are the tread and rise of a stair which carries a load w per square metre on
slope, the corresponding load per square metre of the horizontal area, is

A. w (R + T)/T

B. w (R² + T²)/T

C. w (R + T)/T

D. w (R/T)

ANS: B

Q-NO: 85

If the loading on a pre-stressed rectangular beam, is uniformly distributed, the tendon to

be provided should be.

A. Straight below centroidal axis

B. Parabolic with convexity downward

C. Parabolic with convexity upward

D. Straight above centroidal axis

ANS: B

Q-NO: 86

For normal cases, stiffness of a simply supported beam is satisfied if the ratio of its
span to its overall depth does not exceed

A. 10
B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

ANS: C

Q-NO: 87

If the maximum dip of a parabolic tendon carrying tension P is h and the effective length
of the pre-stressed beam is L, the upward uniform pressure will be

A. 8hp/ l

B. 8hp/l²

C. 8hl/p

D. 8hl/p²

ANS: B

Q-NO: 88

If depth of slab is 10 cm, width of web 30 cm, depth of web 50 cm, centre to centre
distance of beams 3 m, effective span of beams 6 m, the effective flange width of the
beam, is

A. 200 cm

B. 300 cm

C. 150 cm

D. 100 cm

ANS: C

Q-NO: 89

The steel generally used in R.C.C. work, is

A. Stainless

B. Mild steel

C. High carbon steel

D. High tension steel

ANS: B

Q-NO: 90

If the ratio of long and short spans of a two way slab with corners held down is r, the
actual reduction of B.M. is given by

A. (5/6) (r/1 + r²) M

B. (5/6) (r²/1 + r²) M

C. (5/6) (r²/1 + r3) M

D. (5/6) (r²/1 + r4) M

ANS: D

Q-NO: 91

A part of the slab may be considered as the flange of the T-beam if

A. Flange has adequate reinforcement transverse to beam

B. It is built integrally with the beam

C. It is effectively bonded together with the beam

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 92

By over-reinforcing a beam, the moment of resistance can be increased not more than
A. 10 %

B. 15 %

C. 20 %

D. 25 %

ANS: D

Q-NO: 93 per unit run exerted by the

Total pressure on the vertical face of a retaining wall of height
retained earth weighing per unit volume, is
A. wh [(1 – )/(1 + sin )]
B. wh² [(1 – )/(1 + sin )]
C. wh² [(1 – )/2(1 + sin )]
D. wh² [(1 – )/3(1 + sin )]
ANS: C

Q-NO: 94

A singly reinforced beam has breadth b, effective depth d, depth of neutral axis n and
critical neutral axis n1. If fc and ft are permissible compressive and tensile stresses, the
moment to resistance of the beam, is

A. bn (fc/2) (d – n/3)

B. Atft (d – n/3)

C. ½ n1 (1 – n1/3) cbd²

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 95

According to I.S.: 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its
edges, is kept less than

A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm

C. 15 cm

D. 20 cm

ANS: C

Q-NO: 96

If l1 and l2 are the lengths of long and short spans of a two way slab simply supported
on four edges and carrying a load w per unit area, the ratio of the loads split into w1 and
w2acting on strips parallel to l2 and l1 is

A. w1/w2 = l2/ l1

B. w1/w2 = (l2/l1)²

C. w1/w2 = (l2/l1)3
D. w /w = (l /l )4
ANS:1 Option22 1D

Q-NO: 97

The live load to be considered for an accessible roof, is

A. Nil

B. 75 kg/m3

C. 150 kg/m 2

D. 200 kg/cm 2

ANS: C

Q-NO: 98

If Ac, Asc and A are areas of concrete, longitudinal steel and section of a R.C.C. column
and m and
c are the modular ratio and maximum stress in the configuration of concrete, the
strength of
column is
A. cAc + m cAsc
B. c(A – Asc) + m cAsc
C. c[A + (m – 1)ASC]

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 99

On an absolutely rigid foundation base, the pressure will

A. Be more at the edges of the foundation

B. Be uniform

C. Not be uniform

D. Be zero at the centre of the foundation

ANS: C

Q-NO: 100

The diameter of transverse reinforcement of columns should be equal to one-fourth of

the diameter of the main steel rods but not less than

A. 4 mm

B. 5 mm

C. 6 mm

D. 7 mm

ANS: D

Q-NO: 101

If longitudinally spanning stairs are casted along with their landings, the maximum
bending moment per metre width, is taken as
A. wl²/4

B. wl²/8

C. wl²/10

D. wl²/12

ANS: B

Q-NO: 102

If P kg/m2 is the upward pressure on the slab of a plain concrete footing whose
projection on either side of the wall is a cm, the depth of foundation D is given by

A. D = 0.00775 aP

B. D = 0.0775 aP

C. D = 0.07775 aP

D. D = 0.775 Pa

ANS: A

Q-NO: 103

If the shear stress in a R.C.C. beam is

A. Equal or less than 5 kg/cm2, no shear reinforcement is provided

B. Greater than 4 kg/cm2, but less than 20 kg/cm2, shear reinforcement is provided

C. Greater than 20 kg/cm2, the size of the section is changed

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 104

For a continuous floor slab supported on beams, the ratio of end span length and
intermediate span length, is
A. 0.6

B. 0.7

C. 0.8

D. 0.9

ANS: D

Q-NO: 105

In a singly reinforced beam

A. Compression is borne entirely by concrete

B. Steel possesses initial stresses when embedded in concrete

C. Plane sections transverse to the centre line of the beam before bending remain plane
after bending

D. Elastic moduli for concrete and steel have different values within the limits of
deformation of the beam

ANS: C

Q-NO: 106

The ratio of the breadth to effective depth of a beam is kept

A. 0.25

B. 0.50

C. 0.70

D. 0.75

ANS: B

Q-NO: 107

In a cantilever retaining wall without a heel slab

A. Thickness of the stem is kept same throughout

B. Base slab is made 10 cm thicker than the stem

C. Width of the base slab is kept 0.7 time the total height of the wall

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 108
is the pre-stressed force applied to the tendon of a rectangular pre-stressed beam
whose area
of cross section is and sectional modulus is . The maximum stress in the beam,
subjected
to a maximum bending moment , is
A. f = (P/A) + (Z/M)
B. f = (A/P) + (M/Z)
C. f = (P/A) + (M/Z)

D. f = (P/A) + (M/6Z)

ANS: C

Q-NO: 109

A T-beam behaves as a rectangular beam of a width equal to its flange if its neutral axis

A. Remains within the flange

B. Remains below the slab

C. Coincides the geometrical centre of the beam

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q-NO: 110

For the design of a simply supported T-beam the ratio of the effective span to the overall
depth of the beam is limited to
A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

ANS: C

Q-NO: 111

A reinforced concrete cantilever beam is 3.6 m long, 25 cm wide and has its lever arm 40
cm. It carries a load of 1200 kg at its free end and vertical stirrups can carry 1800 kg.
Assuming concrete to carry one-third of the diagonal tension and ignoring the weight of
the beam, the number of shear stirrups required, is
A. 30

B. 35

C. 40

D. 45

ANS: C

Q-NO: 112

The width of the rib of a T-beam, is generally kept between

A. 1/7 to 1/3 of rib depth

B. 1/3 to 1/2 of rib depth

C. 1/2 to 3/4 of rib depth

D. 1/3 to 2/3 of rib depth

ANS: D

Q-NO: 113
A ribbed slab is provided for

A. A plain ceiling

B. Thermal insulation

C. Acoustic insulation

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 114

To ensure that the hogging bending moment at two points of suspension of a pile of

length L equals the sagging moment at its centre, the distances of the points of
suspension from either end, is

A. 0.107 L

B. 0.207 L

C. 0.307 L

D. 0.407 L

ANS: B

Q-NO: 115

The stresses developed in concrete and steel in reinforced concrete beam 25 cm width
and 70 cm effective depth, are 62.5 kg/cm2 and 250 kg/cm 2 respectively. If m = 15, the
depth of its neutral axis is

A. 20 cm

B. 25 cm

C. 30 cm

D. 35 cm
ANS: C

Q-NO: 116

If the depth of actual neutral axis of a doubly reinforced beam

A. Is greater than the depth of critical neutral axis, the concrete attains its maximum
stress earlier

B. Is less than the depth of critical neutral axis, the steel in the tensile zone attains its
maximum stress earlier

C. Is equal to the depth of critical neutral axis; the concrete and steel attain their
maximum stresses simultaneously

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 117

If the modular ratio is , steel ratio is and overall depth of a beam is , the depth of the
critical neutral axis of the beam, is

A. [m/(m – r)] d

B. [m/(m + r)] d

C. [(m + r)/ m] d

D. [(r – m)/m] d

ANS: B

Q-NO: 118

The maximum diameter of a bar used in a ribbed slab, is

A. 12 mm

B. 6 mm
C. 20 mm

D. 22 mm ANS: D

Q-NO: 119

A column is regarded as long column if the ratio of its effective length and lateral
dimension, exceeds

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

ANS: B

Q-NO: 120

According to the steel beam theory of doubly reinforced beams

A. Tension is resisted by tension steel

B. Compression is resisted by compression steel

C. Stress in tension steel equals the stress in compression steel

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 121

The breadth of a ribbed slab containing two bars must be between

A. 6 cm to 7.5 cm

B. 8 cm to 10 cm

C. 10 cm to 12 cm
D. 12 cm to 15 cm

ANS: B

Q-NO: 122

The stem of a cantilever retaining wall which retains earth level with top is 6 m. If the
angle of repose and weight of the soil per cubic metre are 30° and 2000 kg respectively,
the effective width of the stem at the bottom, is

A. 51.5

B. 52.5

C. 53.5

D. 54.5

ANS: C

Q-NO: 123

If the diameter of the main reinforcement in a slab is 16 mm, the concrete cover to main
bars is

A. 10 mm

B. 12 mm

C. 14 mm

D. 16 mm

ANS: D

Q-NO: 124

Minimum spacing between horizontal parallel reinforcement of different sizes, should

not be less than

A. One diameter of thinner bar

B. One diameter of thicker bar

C. Twice the diameter of thinner bar

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q-NO: 125

For a number of columns constructed in a rcjw, the type of foundation provided, is

A. Footing

B. Raft

C. Strap

D. Strip

ANS: D

Q-NO: 126

A singly reinforced concrete beam of 25 cm width and 70 cm effective depth is provided

with 18.75 cm2 steel. If the modular ratio (m) is 15, the depth of the neutral axis, is

A. 20 cm

B. 25 cm

C. 30 cm

D. 35 cm

ANS: C

Q-NO: 127

In testing a pile by load test, pile platform is loaded with one and half times the design
load and a maximum settlement is noted. The load is gradually removed and the
consequent rebound is measured. For a safe pile, the net settlement (i.e. total
settlement minus rebound) per tonne of test load should not exceed

A. 10 mm

B. 15 mm

C. 20 mm

D. 25 mm

ANS: D

Q-NO: 128

The diameter of main bars in R.C.C. columns, shall not be less than

A. 6 mm

B. 8 mm

C. 10 mm

D. 12 mm

ANS: D

Q-NO: 129

If d is the diameter of a bar, ft is allowable tensile stress and fb, is allowable bond stress,
the bond length is given by

A. ft .d/4fb

B. ( /4). (ft .d/fb)

C. ft .d²/fb

D. ( /4). (f .d3/f )

ANS:t Ab

Q-NO: 130
An intermediate T-beam reinforced with two layers of tensile steel with clear cover 13
cm encasted with the floor of a hall 12 metres by 7 metres, is spaced at 3 metres from
adjoining beams and if the width of the beam is 20 cm, the breadth of the flange is

A. 300 cm

B. 233 cm

C. 176 cm

D. 236 cm

ANS: C

Q-NO: 131

The length of lap in tension reinforcement should not be less than the bar diameter ×
(actual tension / four times the permissible average bond stress) if it is more than

A. 18 bar diameters

B. 24 bar diameters

C. 30 bar diameters

D. 36 bar diameters

ANS: C

Q-NO: 132

As the percentage of steel increases

A. Depth of neutral axis decreases

B. Depth of neutral axis increases

C. Lever arm increases

D. Lever arm decreases

ANS: B
Q-NO: 133

The effective width of a column strip of a flat slab, is

A. One-fourth the width of the panel

B. Half the width of the panel

C. Radius of the column

D. Diameter of the column

ANS: B

Q-NO: 134

As per IS : 1343, total shrinkage for a pre-tensioned beam, is

A. 3.0 × 10-2

B. 3.0 × 10-3

C. 3.0 × 10-5

D. 3.5 × 10-5

ANS: D

Q-NO: 135

Dimensions of a beam need be changed if the shear stress is more than

A. 10 kg/cm2

B. 15 kg/cm2

C. 20 kg/cm2

D. 25 kg/cm2

ANS: C

Q-NO: 136
Based on punching shear consideration, the overall depth of a combined footing under a
column A, is

A. (Area of the column A × Safe punching stress)/Load on column A

B. (Perimeter of column A × Safe punching stress)/(Load on column A + Upward

pressure × Area of the column)

C. (Perimeter of column A × Safe punching stress)/(Load on column A × Upward

pressure × Area of the column)

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q-NO: 137

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. A pile is a slender member which transfers the load through its lower end on a strong
strata B. A pile is a slender member which transfers its load to the surrounding soil C. A
pile is a slender member which transfers its load by friction

D. A pile is a cylindrical body of concrete which transfers the load at a depth greater than
its width

ANS: B

Q-NO: 138

In a combined footing if shear stress exceeds 5 kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups provided
are:

A. 6 legged

B. 8 legged

C. 10 legged

D. 12 legged

ANS: D
Q-NO: 139

The weight of reinforced concrete, is generally taken as

A. 2200 kg/m3

B. 2300 kg/m3

C. 2400 kg/m3

D. 2500 kg/m3

ANS: C

Q-NO: 140
If W is the load on a circular slab of radius R, the maximum circumferential moment at
the centre
of the slab, is
A. WR²/16
B. 2WR²/16
C. 3WR²/16
D. Zero
ANS: C
Q-NO: 141
a retaining wall and is the horizontal earth pressure, the factor of safety
If is weight of
against sliding, is
A. 1.0
B. 1.25
C. 1.5
D. 2.0
ANS: C

Q-NO: 142

The effective span of a simply supported slab, is

A. Distance between the centres of the bearings

B. Clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of the
wall
C. Clear span plus effective depth of the slab

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q-NO: 143

In a beam the local bond stress Sb, is equal to

A. Shear force/(Leaver arm × Total perimeter of reinforcement)

B. Total perimeter of reinforcement/(Leaver arm × Shear force)

C. Leaver arm/(Shear force × Total perimeter of reinforcement)

D. Leaver arm/(Bending moment × Total perimeter of reinforcement)

ANS: A

Q-NO: 144

A continuous beam shall be deemed to be a deep beam if the ratio of effective span to
overall depth, is

A. 2.5

B. 2.0

C. Less than 2

D. Less than 2.5 ANS: A

Q-NO: 145

With usual notations the depth of the neutral axis of a balanced section, is given by

A. mc/t = (d – n)/n

B. t/mc = (d – n)/n

C. t/mc = (d + n)/n
D. mc/t = n/ (d – n)

ANS: D

Q-NO: 146

Pick up the true statement from the following:

A. Plain ceiling provides the best property diffusing light B. In the absence of beams, it is
easier to install piping C. In the absence of beams, it is easier to paint

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 147

If the maximum shear stress at the end of a simply supported R.C.C. beam of 16 m
effective span is 10 kg/cm2, the length of the beam having nominal reinforcement, is

A. 8 cm

B. 6 m

C. 8 m

D. 10 m

ANS: C

Q-NO: 148

If the length of a wall on either side of a lintel opening is at least half of its effective span
L, the load W carried by the lintel is equivalent to the weight of brickwork contained in an
equilateral triangle, producing a maximum bending moment

A. WL/2

B. WL/4

C. WL/6
D. WL/8

ANS: C

Q-NO: 149

The section of a reinforced beam where most distant concrete fibre in compression and
tension in steel attains permissible stresses simultaneously, is called

A. Balanced section

B. Economic section

C. Critical section

D. All the above ANS: D

The length of the lap in a compression member is kept greater than bar diameter x
(Permissible stress in bar / Five times the bond stress) or

A. 12 bar diameters

B. 18 bar diameters

C. 24 bar diameters

D. 30 bar diameters

ANS: C

RCC STRUCTURES DESIGN Objective Questions Pdf ::

Q-NO: 151
The system in which high tensile alloy steel bars (silica manganese steel) are used as
prestressing
tendons, is known as
A. Freyssinet system
B. Magnel-Blaton system
C. C.C.L. standard system
D. Lee-McCall system
ANS: D
Q-NO: 152
An under-reinforced section means
A. Steel is provided at the underside only
B. Steel provided is insufficient
C. Steel provided on one face only
D. Steel will yield first
ANS: D
Q-NO: 153
The angle of repose of a soil is the maximum angle which the outer face of the soil
mass makes
A. With the horizontal
B. With the vertical
C. With the perpendicular to the inclined plane of the soil
D. None of these
ANS: A
Q-NO: 154 is
In a doubly-reinforced beam if and
the effective depth and is depth of critical neutral axis, the following relationship holds
good
A. mc/t = n/(d – n)
B. (m + c)/t = n/(d + n)
C. (t + c)/n = (d + n)/n

D. mc/t = (d – n)/t ANS: A

A raft foundation is provided if its area exceeds the plan area of the building by

A. 10 %

B. 20 %

C. 40 %

D. 50 %

ANS: D

In favourable circumstances a 15 cm concrete cube after 28 days, attains a maximum

crushing strength
A. 100 kg/cm2

B. 200 kg/cm2

C. 300 kg/cm2

D. 400 kg/cm2

ANS: D

Q-NO: 157
intensity of pressure at a depth h on a block of earth weighing w per unit
If p1 is the vertical
A. wh (1 – cos )/(1 + ) p2 is

B. wh (1 – sin )/(1 + ) )
C. wh (1 – tan )/(1 +
D. w (1 – cos )/h (1 + sin )
ANS: B

Q-NO: 158

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The intensity of horizontal shear
stress at the elemental part of a beam section, is directly proportional to

A. Shear force

B. Area of the section

C. Distance of the C.G. of the area from its neutral axis

D. Moment of the beam section about its neutral axis ANS: D

Q-NO: 159

According to I.S.: 456, 1978 the thickness of reinforced concrete footing on piles at its
edges, is kept less than

A. 20 cm

B. 30 cm
C. 40 cm

D. 75 cm

ANS: B

Q-NO: 160

An R.C.C. beam of 25 cm width and 50 cm effective depth has a clear span of 6 metres
and carries a U.D.L. of 3000 kg/m inclusive of its self weight. If the lever arm constant
for the section is 0.865, the maximum intensity of shear stress, is

A. 8.3 kg/cm2

B. 7.6 kg/cm2

C. 21.5 kg/cm 2

D. 11.4 kg/cm2

ANS: A

Q-NO: 161

The percentage of minimum reinforcement of the gross sectional area in slabs, is

A. 0.10 %

B. 0.12 %

C. 0.15 %

D. 0.18 %

ANS: C

Q-NO: 162

If the permissible compressive stress for a concrete in bending is C kg/m2, the modular
ratio is

A. 2800/C
B. 2300/2C

C. 2800/3C

D. 2800/C2

ANS: C

Q-NO: 163

An R.C.C. beam not provided with shear reinforcement may develop cracks in its bottom
inclined roughly to the horizontal at

A. 25°

B. 35°

C. 45°

D. 55°

ANS: C

Q-NO: 164

Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than

A. 3 m

B. 4 m

C. 5 m

D. 6 m

ANS: D

Q-NO: 165

The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceed

A. 0.15 %
B. 1.5 %

C. 4 %

D. 1 %

ANS: C

Q-NO: 166

The width of the flange of a T-beam should be less than

A. One- third of the effective span of the T -beam

B. Distance between the centres of T-beam

C. Breadth of the rib plus twelve times the thickness of the slab

D. Least of the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 167

For a circular slab carrying a uniformly distributed load, the ratio of the maximum
negative to maximum positive radial moment, is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 5

ANS: B

Q-NO: 168

According to I.S. : 456 specifications, the safe diagonal tensile stress for M 150 grade
concrete, is

A. 5 kg/cm2
B. 10 kg/cm 2

C. 15 kg/cm2

D. 20 kg/cm2

ANS: A

Q-NO: 169

The width of the flange of a T-beam, which may be considered to act effectively with the
rib depends upon

A. Breadth of the rib

B. Overall thickness of the rib

C. Centre to centre distance between T-beams

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 170

The maximum shear stress (qmax) in a rectangular beam is

A. 1.25 times the average

B. 1.50 times the average

C. 1.75 times the average

D. 2.0 times the average ANS: B

Q-NO: 171

If the sides of a slab simply supported on edges and spanning in two directions are
equal, the maximum bending moment is multiplied by

A. 0.2

B. 0.3
C. 0.4

D. 0.5

ANS: D

Q-NO: 172

If K is a constant depending upon the ratio of the width of the slab to its effective span l,
x is the distance of the concentrated load from the nearer support, bw is the width of the
area of contact of the concentrated load measured parallel to the supported edge, the
effective width of the slab be is
A. K/x (1 + x/d) + bw

B. Kx (1 – x/l) + bw

C. Kx (1 + x/l) + bw

D. All the above

ANS: B

Q-NO: 173

The length of the straight portion of a bar beyond the end of the hook, should be at least

A. Twice the diameter

B. Thrice the diameter

C. Four times the diameter

D. Seven times the diameter

ANS: D

Q-NO: 174
bending moment of a simply supported slab is M Kg.cm, the effective depth of the
If the maximum
slab is (where Q is M.R. factor)
A. M/100Q
B. M/ Q
C. M/Q)
D. (M/100Q)
ANS: D
Q-NO: 175
If is the overall height of a retaining wall retaining a surcharge, the width of the base slab

usually provided, is

A. 0.3 H

B. 0.4 H

C. 0.5 H

D. 0.7 H ANS: D

Q-NO: 176
If Sb, is the average bond stress on a bar of diameter subjected to maximum stress , the
length of the embedment is given by
A. l = dt/Sb
B. l = dt/2Sb
C. l = dt/3Sb

D. l = dt/4Sb

ANS: D

Q-NO: 177

If diameter of a reinforcement bar is d, the anchorage value of the hook is

A. 4d

B. 8d

C. 12d

D. 16d

ANS: D

Q-NO: 178
As per I.S. 456 – 1978, the pH value of water shall be

A. Less than 6

B. Equal to 6

C. Not less than 6

D. Equal to 7

ANS: C

Q-NO: 179

For M 150 mix concrete, according to I.S. specifications, local bond stress, is

A. 5 kg/cm2

B. 10 kg/cm 2

C. 15 kg/cm2

D. 20 kg/cm2

ANS: B

Q-NO: 180

The minimum cube strength of concrete used for a pre-stressed member, is

A. 50 kg/cm2

B. 150 kg/cm 2

C. 250 kg/cm2

D. 350 kg/cm2

ANS: D

Q-NO: 181
effective depth and depth of the neutral axis respectively of a singly reinforced
If d and n are the
beam, the lever arm of the beam, is
A. d
B. n
C. d + n/3
D. d – n/3
ANS: D
Q-NO: 182
foundation is assumed as
The weight of a
A. 5% of wall weight
B. 7% of wall weight
C. 10% of wall weight
D. 12% of wall weight
ANS: C
Q-NO: 183
of 30 cm diameter is reinforced with 6 bars 12 mm placed symmetrically along
An R.C.C. column
the circumference. If it carries a load of 40, 000 kg axially, the stress is
A. 49.9 kg/cm2
B. 100 kg/cm2
C. 250 kg/cm2
D. 175 kg/cm2
ANS: A
Q-NO: 184

If the diameter of longitudinal bars of a square column is 16 mm, the diameter of lateral
ties should not be less than

A. 4 mm

B. 5 mm

C. 6 mm

D. 8 mm

ANS: B

Q-NO: 185
Design of R.C.C. cantilever beams, is based on the resultant force at

A. Fixed end

B. Free end

C. Mid span

D. Mid span and fixed support

ANS: A

Q-NO: 186

In a combined footing if shear stress does not exceed 5 kg/cm2, the nominal stirrups
provided are

A. 6 legged

B. 8 legged

C. 10 legged

D. 12 legged

ANS: B

Q-NO: 187

The maximum shear stress (q) in concrete of a reinforced cement concrete beam is

A. Shear force/(Lever arm × Width)

B. Lever arm/(Shear force × Width)

C. Width/(Lever arm × Shear force)

D. (Shear force × Width)/Lever arm

ANS: A

Q-NO: 188
An R.C.C. column is treated as long if its slenderness ratio is greater than

A. 30

B. 35

C. 40

D. 50

ANS: D

Q-NO: 189

The thickness of base slab of a retaining wall generally provided, is

A. One half of the width of the stem at the bottom

B. One -third of the width of the stem at the bottom

C. One fourth of the width of the steam at the bottom

D. Width of the stem at the bottom

ANS: D

Q-NO: 190

Design of R.C.C. simply supported beams carrying U.D.L. is based on the resultant B.M.
at

A. Supports

B. Mid span

C. Every section

D. Quarter span

ANS: B

Q-NO: 191
If the maximum shear stress at the end of a simply supported R.C.C. beam of 6 m
effective span is 10 kg/cm2, the share stirrups are provided for a distance from either
end where, is

A. 50 cm

B. 100 cm

C. 150 cm

D. 200 cm ANS: C

Q-NO: 192

Distribution reinforcement in a simply supported slab, is provided to distribute

A. Load

B. Temperature stress

C. Shrinkage stress

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 193

Distribution of shear intensity over a rectangular section of a beam, follows:

A. A circular curve

B. A straight line

C. A parabolic curve

D. An elliptical curve

ANS: C

Q-NO: 194
In a singly reinforced beam, if the permissible stress in concrete reaches earlier than
that in steel, the beam section is called

A. Under-reinforced section

B. Over reinforced section

C. Economic section

D. Critical section

ANS: B

Q-NO: 195

If the size of a column is reduced above the floor, the main bars of the columns, are

A. Continued up

B. Bent inward at the floor level

C. Stopped just below the floor level and separate lap bars provided

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 196

The minimum number of main steel bars provided in R.C.C.

A. Rectangular columns is 4

B. Circular columns is 6

C. Octagonal columns is 8

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 197
A short column 20 cm × 20 cm in section is reinforced with 4 bars whose area of cross
section is 20 sq. cm. If permissible compressive stresses in concrete and steel are 40
kg/cm2 and 300 kg/cm2, the Safe load on the column, should not exceed

A. 4120 kg

B. 41,200 kg

C. 412,000 kg

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q-NO: 198

If T and R are tread and rise respectively of a stair, then

A. 2R + T = 60

B. R + 2 T = 60

C. 2R + T = 30

D. R + 2 T = 30

ANS: A

Q-NO: 199

For stairs spanning l metres longitudinally between supports at the bottom and top of a
flight carrying a load w per unit horizontal area, the maximum bending moment per
metre width, is

A. wl²/4

B. wl²/8

C. wl²/12

D. wl²/16
ANS: D

Q-NO: 200

In a singly reinforced beam, the effective depth is measured from its compression edge
to

A. Tensile edge

B. Tensile reinforcement

C. Neutral axis of the beam

D. Longitudinal central axis

ANS: B

Q-NO: 201

Though the effective depth of a T-beam is the distance between the top compression
edge to the centre of the tensile reinforcement, for heavy loads, it is taken as

A. 1/8th of the span

B. 1/10th of the span

C. 1/12th of the span

D. 1/16th of the span

ANS: C

Q-NO: 202

If jd

stress at the section having Q shear force, is

A. Q/2

B. Q/3

C. Q/
D. 2 × Q/

ANS: C

Q-NO: 203

On piles, the drop must be at least

A. 80 cm

B. 100 cm

C. 120 cm

D. 140 cm

ANS: C

Q-NO: 204

Steel beam theory is used for

A. Design of simple steel beams

B. Steel beams encased in concrete

C. Doubly reinforced beams ignoring compressive stress in concrete

D. Beams if shear exceeds 4 times allowable shear stress ANS: C

Q-NO: 205

In a pre-stressed beam carrying an external load W with a bent tendon is having angle of
-stressed load P. The net downward load at the centre is

A. W – 2P

B. W – P

C. W – P

D. W – 2P
ANS: D

Q-NO: 206

To have pressure wholly compressive under the base of a retaining wall of width b, the
resultant of the weight of the wall and the pressure exerted by the retained, earth should
have eccentricity not more than

A. b/3

B. b/4

C. b/5

D. b/6

ANS: D

Q-NO: 207

The diameter of longitudinal bars of a column should never be less than

A. 6 mm

B. 8 mm

C. 10 mm

D. 12 mm

ANS: D

Q-NO: 208

Post tensioning system

A. Was widely used in earlier days

B. Is not economical and hence not generally used

C. Is economical for large spans and is adopted now a days

D. None of these
ANS: D

Q-NO: 209

The number of treads in a flight is equal to

A. Risers in the flight

B. Risers plus one

C. Risers minus one

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q-NO: 210

The amount of reinforcement for main bars in a slab, is based upon

A. Minimum bending moment

B. Maximum bending moment

C. Maximum shear force

D. Minimum shear force

ANS: B

Q-NO: 211

The shear reinforcement in R.C.C. is provided to resist

A. Vertical shear

B. Horizontal shear

C. Diagonal compression

D. Diagonal tension

ANS: D
Q-NO: 212

A simply supported beam 6 m long and of effective depth 50 cm, carries a uniformly
distributed load 2400 kg/m including its self weight. If the lever arm factor is 0.85 and
permissible tensile stress of steel is 1400 kg/cm2, the area of steel required, is

A. 14 cm 2

B. 15 cm2

C. 16 cm2

D. 17 cm2 ANS: C

Q-NO: 213

The anchorage value of a hook is assumed sixteen times the diameter of the bar if the
angle of the bend, is

A. 30°

B. 40°

C. 45°

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 214

A circular slab subjected to external loading, deflects to form a

A. Semi-hemisphere

B. Ellipsoid

C. Paraboloid

D. None of these

ANS: C
Q-NO: 215

If a rectangular pre-stressed beam of an effective span of 5 meters and carrying a total

load 3840 kg/m, is designed by the load balancing method, the central dip of the
parabolic tendon should be

A. 5 cm

B. 10 cm

C. 15 cm

D. 20 cm

ANS: B

Q-NO: 216

The radius of a bar bend to form a hook, should not be less than

A. Twice the diameter

B. Thrice the diameter

C. Four times the diameter

D. Five times the diameter

ANS: A

Q-NO: 217

The reinforced concrete beam which has width 25 cm, lever arm 40 cm, shear force
6t/cm2, safe shear stress 5 kg/cm2 and B.M. 24 mt,

A. Is safe in shear

B. Is unsafe in shear

C. Is over safe in shear

D. Needs redesigning ANS: B

Q-NO: 218

If a bent tendon is required to balance a concentrated load W at the centre of the span L,
the central dip h must be at least

A. WL /P

B. WL/2P

C. WL/3P

D. WL/4P

ANS: D

Q-NO: 219

If the effective length of a 32 cm diameter R.C.C. column is 4.40 m, its slenderness ratio,
is

A. 40

B. 45

C. 50

D. 55

ANS: D

Q-NO: 220

If W is total load per unit area on a panel, D is the diameter of the column head, L is the
span in two directions, then the sum of the maximum positive bending moment and
average of the negative bending moment for the design of the span of a square flat slab,
should not be less than

A. WL/12 (L – 2D/3)²

B. WL/10 (L + 2D/3)²

C. WL/10 (L – 2D/3)²
D. WL/12 (L – D/3)²

ANS: C

Q-NO: 221

Piles are usually driven by

A. Diesel operated hammer

B. Drop hammer

C. Single acting steam hammer

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 222

In a combined footing for two columns carrying unequal loads, the maximum hogging
bending moment occurs at

A. Less loaded column

B. More loaded column

C. A point of the maximum shear force

D. A point of zero shear force

ANS: D

Q-NO: 223
If the average bending stress is 6 kg/cm2 for M 150 grade concrete, the length of
embedment of a
bar of diameter d according to I.S. 456 specifications, is
A. 28 d
B. 38 d
C. 48 d
D. 58 d
ANS: D
Q-NO: 224
The live load to be considered for an inaccessible roof, is
A. Nil
B. 75 kg/m2
C. 150 kg/cm 2
D. 200 kg/m2
ANS: B
Q-NO: 225
carrying a uniformly distributed load per metre length is suspended at the
A pile of length
centre and from other two points 0.15 L from either end ; the maximum hogging moment
will be
A. WL²/15
B. WL²/30
C. WL²/60
D. WL²/90
ANS: D
Q-NO: 226
An R.C.C. roof slab is designed as a two way slab if
A. It supports live loads in both directions
B. The ratio of spans in two directions is less than 2
C. The slab is continuous over two supports
D. The slab is discontinuous at edges
ANS: B

Q-NO: 227

The design of a retaining wall assumes that the retained earth

A. Is dry

B. Is free from moisture

C. Is not cohesive

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 228
A foundation rests on

A. Base of the foundation

B. Sub-grade

C. Foundation soil

D. Both B. and C.

ANS: D

Q-NO: 229

The advantage of a concrete pile over a timber pile, is

A. No decay due to termites

B. No restriction on length

C. Higher bearing capacity

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q-NO: 230

For stairs spanning horizontally, the minimum waist provided is

A. 4 cm

B. 6 cm

C. 8 cm

D. 12 cm

ANS: D

Q-NO: 231

The toe projection of foundation slabs is taken

A. As one third of the base

B. As one sixth of overall height of the wall

C. Equal to heel slab

D. Below ground surface

ANS: A

Q-NO: 232

The horizontal portion of a step in a stairs case, is known as

A. Rise

B. Flight

C. Winder

D. Tread

ANS: D

Q-NO: 233

The maximum ratio of span to depth of a cantilever slab, is

A. 8

B. 10

C. 12

D. 16

ANS: C

Q-NO: 234

[A + (m – 1)ASC] known as equivalent concrete area of R.C.C. is given by

A. Modular ratio method

B. Load factor method

C. Ultimate load method

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q-NO: 235

If permissible working stresses in steel and concrete are respectively 1400 kg/cm2 and
80 kg/cm2 and modular ratio is 18, in a beam reinforced in tension side and of width 30
cm and having effective depth 46 cm, the lever arms of the section, is

A. 37 cm

B. 38 cm

C. 39 cm

D. 40 cm

ANS: D

Q-NO: 236

A pre-stressed concrete member

A. Is made of concrete

B. Is made of reinforced concrete

C. Is stressed after casting

D. Possesses internal stresses

ANS: D

Q-NO: 237

A flat slab is supported

A. On beams
B. On columns

C. On beams and columns

D. On columns monolithically built with slab

ANS: D

Q-NO: 238

A foundation is called shallow if its depth, is

A. One-fourth of its width

B. Half of its width

C. Three-fourth of its width

D. Equal to its width

ANS: D

RC

300+ TOP Theory of Structures Multiple Choice

Questions-Answers
engineeringinterviewquestions.com
Q No: 01
P=4²EI/L² is the equation of Euler’s crippling load if
A. Both the ends are fixed
B. Both the ends are hinged
C. One end is fixed and other end is free
D. One end is fixed and other end is hinged
ANS: A

Q No: 02

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The structural member subjected to compression and whose dimensions are small as
B. compared to its length, is called a stmt
The vertical compression members are generally known as columns or stanchions
C. Deflection in lateral direction of a long column, is generally known as buckling
D. All the above
ANS: D

Q No: 03

0y/n [1 – a (1/r)²]is the empirical formula,

For calculating the allowable stress of long columns
known as
A. Straight line formula
B. Parabolic formula
C. Perry’s formula
D. Rankine’s formula
ANS: B

Q No: 04

Maximum principal stress theory for the failure of a material at elastic point, is known

A. Guest’s or Trecas’ theory

B. St. Venant’s theory

C. Rankine’s theory

D. Von Mises’ theory

ANS: C

Q No: 05

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The moment of inertia is calculated about the axis about which bending takes place

B. If tensile stress is less than axial stress, the section experiences compressive stress

C. If tensile stress is equal to axial stress, the section experiences compressive stress

D. All the above

ANS: D

THEORY of
STRUCTURES Objective Questions

Q No: 06

A composite beam is composed of two equal strips one of brass and other of steel. If
the temperature is raised

A. Steel experiences tensile force

B. Brass experiences compressive force

C. Composite beam gets subjected to a couple

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 07

A shaft subjected to a bending moment M and a torque T, experiences

A. Maximum bending stress = 32M d3

B. Maximum shear stress = 16 T d3

C. Both A. and B.

D. Neither A. nor B.

ANS: C

Q No: 08

A two hinged parabolic arch of span l and rise h carries a load varying from zero at the
left end to
A. /4h thrust is

B. /8h
C. /12h
D. /16h

ANS: D

Q No: 09
The horizontal thrust on the ends of a two hinged semicircular arch of radius carrying
A. A uniforml 4/3
B.
C. end, is
D. All the above
ANS: D

Q No: 10

Maximum strain theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit, is known as
A. Guest’s or Trecas’ theory

B. St. Venant’s theory

C. Rankine’s theory

D. Haig’s theory

ANS: B

Q No: 11

Slenderness ratio of a long column, is

A. Area of cross-section divided by radius of gyration

B. Area of cross-section divided by least radius of gyration

C. Radius of gyration divided by area of cross-section

D. Length of column divided by least radius of gyration

ANS: D

Q No: 12

A close coil helical spring when subjected to a moment M having its axis along the axis
of the helix

A. It is subjected to pure bending

B. Its mean diameter will decrease

C. Its number of coils will increase

D. All the above

ANS: A

Q No: 13

The ratio of the stresses produced by a suddenly applied load and by a gradually applied
load on a bar, is
A. 1/4

B. 1/2

C. 1

D. 2

ANS: D

Q No: 14

Maximum shear stress theory for the failure of a material at the elastic limit, is known

A. Guest’s or Trecas’ theory

B. St. Venant’s theory

C. Rankine’s theory

D. Haig’s theory

ANS: A

Q No: 15

A cantilever of length is subjected to a bending moment at its free end. If EI is the

flexural rigidity of the section, the deflection of the free end, is

A. ML/EI

B. ML/2EI

C. ML²/2EI

D. ML²/3EI

ANS: D

Q No: 16

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. For channels, the shear centre does not coincide its centroid

B. The point of intersection of the bending axis with the cross section of the beam, is
called shear centre

C. For I sections, the shear centre coincides with the centroid of the cross section of the
beam

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 17 constant, depth of a cantilever of length of uniform strength loaded with

Keeping breadth
uniformly distributed load varies from zero at the free end and
A. 2w w l at the fixed end
B. l) at the fixed end
C. w l) at the fixed end
D. 3w l at the fixed end
ANS: B

Q No: 18

If a three hinged parabolic arch, (span l, rise h) is carrying a uniformly distributed load
w/unit length over the entire span,

A. Horizontal thrust is wl2/8h

B. S.F. will be zero throughout

C. B.M. will be zero throughout

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 19

The force in BC of the truss shown in the given figure, is

A. 3.0 t compression
B. 3.0 t tension

C. t tension

D. t compression

ANS: C

Q No: 20

P = / L² is the equation for Euler’s crippling load if

A. Both the ends are fixed

B. Both the ends are hinged

C. One end is fixed and other end is free

D. One end is fixed and other end is hinged

ANS: B

Q No: 21

The degree of indeterminacy of the frame in the given figure, is

A. Zero

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

ANS: B

Q No: 22

The forces in the members of simple trusses, may be analysed by

A. Graphical method

B. Method of joints
C. Method of sections

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 23

A simply supported beam A carries a point load at its mid span. Another identical beam
B carries the same load but uniformly distributed over the entire span. The ratio of the
maximum deflections of the beams A and B, will be

A. 2/3

B. 3/2

C. 5/8

D. 8/5

ANS: D

Q No: 24

A road of uniform cross-section A and length L

force P. The Young’s Modulus E of the material, is

A. E = /A. L

B. E =/P. L

C. E = P. L/

D. E = P. A/ ANS: C

Q No: 25

In case of a simply supported I-section beam of span L and loaded with a central load W,
the length of elasto-plastic zone of the plastic hinge, is

A. L/2
B. L/3

C. L/4

D. L/5

ANS: D

Q No: 26

The yield moment of a cross section is defined as the moment that will just produce the
yield stress in

A. The outer most fibre of the section

B. The inner most fibre of the section

C. The neutral fibre of the section

D. The fibre everywhere

ANS: A

Q No: 27

If Ix and Iy are the moments of inertia of a section about X and Y axes, the polar moment
of inertia of the section, is

A. (IX + IY)/2

B. (IX – IY)/2

C. IX + IY

D. (I /I )

ANS:XY Option C

Q No: 28

A simply supported beam carries varying load from zero at one end and w at the other
end. If the length of the beam is a, the maximum bending moment will be
A. wa/27

B. wa²/27

C. w²a

D. wa²

ANS: D

Q No: 29

If E, N, K and 1/m are modulus of elasticity, modulus of rigidity. Bulk modulus and
Poisson ratio of the material, the following relationship holds good

A. E = 3K (1 – 2/m)

B. E = 2N (1 + 1/m)

C. (3/2)K (1 – 2/m) = N (1 + 1/m)

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 30

The forces acting on the bar as shown in the given figure introduce

A. Compressive stress

B. Tensile stress

C. Shear stress

D. None of these ANS: C

Q No: 31

Gradually applied static loads do not change with time their

A. Magnitude
B. Direction

C. Point of application

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 32

The tangential component of stre

obtained by multiplying the normal stress by

A.

B.

C.

D. sin2

ANS: D

Q No: 33

A body is said to be in equilibrium if

A. It moves horizontally

B. It moves vertically

C. It rotates about its C.G.

D. None of these

ANS: D

Q No: 34

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following: The torsional resistance of a shaft is
directly proportional to
A. Modulus of rigidity

B. Angle of twist

C. Reciprocal of the length of the shaft

D. Moment of inertia of the shaft section ANS: D

Q No: 35

The forces acting normally on the cross section of a bar shown in the given figure
introduce

A. Compressive stress

B. Tensile stress

C. Shear stress

D. None of these ANS: B

Q No: 36

The ratio of circumferential stress to the longitudinal stress in the walls of a cylindrical
shell, due to flowing liquid, is

A. ½

B. 1

C. 1½

D. 2

ANS: D

Q No: 37

The load on a spring per unit deflection, is called

A. Stiffness

B. Proof resilience
C. Proof stress

D. Proof load

ANS: A

Q No: 38

A compound bar consists of two bars of equal length. Steel bar cross -section is 3500
mm2and that of brass bar is 3000 mm2. These are subjected to a compressive load
100,000 N. If Eb = 0.2 MN/mm2 and Eb = 0.1 MN/mm2, the stresses developed are:

A. b = 10 N/mm2 s = 20 N/mm 2
B. b = 8 N/mm2 s = 16 N/mm2
C. b = 6 N/mm2 s = 12 N/mm2
D. b = 5 N/mm2 s = 10 N/mm2
ANS: A

Q No: 39

A close coil helical spring of mean diameter D consists of n coils of diameter d. If it

carries an axial load W, the energy stored in the spring, is

A. 4WD²n/d4N

B. 4W²Dn/d4N

C. 4W²D3n/d4N

D. 4W²D3n²/d4N

ANS: C

Q No: 40

The degree of indeterminacy of the frame in the given figure, is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3
D. Zero ANS: C

Q No: 41 1 2respectively, the

A. 1 2 2
B. 1 – 2 cos2
C. 1 2
D. 1 2) si

ANS: B

Q No: 42

The moment of inertia of a triangular section (height h, base b) about its base, is

A. bh²/12

B. b²h/12

C. bh3/12

D. b3h/12 ANS: C

Q No: 43

Shear centre of a half circular section of radius and of constant thickness, lies at a
distance of from the centre where is

A.

B.

C.

D.

ANS: D

Q No: 44

The assumption in the theory of bending of beams is:

A. Material is homogeneous

B. Material is isotropic

C. Young’s modulus is same in tension as well as in compression

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 45

For determining the force in the member AB of the truss shown in the given figure by
method of sections, the section is made to pass through AB, AD and ED and the
moments are taken about

A. Joint C

B. Joint B

C. Joint D

D. Joint A

ANS: C

Q No: 46

A concentrated load P is supported by the free end of a quadrantal ring AB whose end B
is fixed. The ratio of the vertical to horizontal deflections of the end A, is

A.

B. /2

C. /3

D. /4

ANS: B

Q No: 47
The ratio of crippling loads of a column having both the ends fixed to the column having
both the ends hinged, is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

ANS: D

Q No: 48

A load of 1960 N is raised at the end of a steel wire. The minimum diameter of the wire
so that stress in the wire does not exceed 100 N/mm2 is:

A. 4.0 mm

B. 4.5 mm

C. 5.0 mm

D. 5.5 mm

ANS: C

Q No: 49

of th

A. 45°

B. 30°

C. 60°

D. 90°

ANS: A

Q No: 50
The maximum deflection due to a uniformly distributed load w/unit length over entire
span of a cantilever of length l and of flexural rigidly EI, is

A. wl3/3EI

B. wl4/3EI

C. wl4/8EI

D. wl4/12EI

ANS: C

Q No: 51

A compound truss may be formed by connecting two simple rigid frames, by

A. Two bars

B. Three bars

C. Three parallel bars

D. Three bars intersecting at a point

ANS: B

Q No: 52

The forces acting normally on the cross section of a bar shown in the given figure
introduce

A. Compressive stress

B. Tensile stress

C. Shear stress

D. None of these ANS: A

Q No: 53
A spring of mean radius 40 mm contains 8 action coils of steel (N = 80000 N/mm2), 4
mm in diameter. The clearance between the coils being 1 mm when unloaded, the
minimum compressive load to remove the clearance, is

A. 25 N

B. 30 N

C. 35 N

D. 40 N

ANS: C

Q No: 54

If a solid shaft (diameter 20 cm, length 400 cm, N = 0.8 × 105 N/mm2) when subjected
to a twisting moment, produces maximum shear stress of 50 N/mm 2, the angle of twist
in radians, is

A. 0.001

B. 0.002

C. 0.0025

D. 0.003

ANS: C

Q No: 55

The strain energy stored in a spring when subjected to greatest load without being
permanently distorted, is called

A. Stiffness

B. Proof resilience

C. Proof stress

D. Proof load
ANS: B

Q No: 56

To determine the force in BD of the truss shown in the given figure a section is passed
through BD, CD and CE, and the moments are taken about

A. A joint

B. B joint

C. C joint

D. D joint ANS: C

Q No: 57

The strain energy due to volumetric strain

A. Is directly proportional to the volume

B. Is directly proportional to the square of exerted pressure

C. Is inversely proportional to Bulk modulus

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 58

A simply supported uniform rectangular bar breadth b, depth d and length L carries an
isolated load W at its mid-span. The same bar experiences an extension e under same
tensile load. The ratio of the maximum deflection to the elongation, is

A. L/d

B. L/2d

C. (L/2d)²

D. (L/3d)²
ANS: C

Q No: 59

A simply supported beam which carries a uniformly distributed load has two equal
overhangs. To have maximum B.M. produced in the beam least possible, the ratio of the
length of the overhang to the total length of the beam, is

A. 0.207

B. 0.307

C. 0.407

D. 0.508

ANS: A

Q No: 60

In the truss shown in given figure the force in member DC is

A. 100 t compressive

B. 100 t tensile

C. Zero

D. Indeterminate ANS: C

Q No: 61

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. A wire wound in spiral form, is called a helical spring

B. The pitch of a close coil spring, is very small

C. The angle made by the coil with horizontal, is called the angle of helix

D. All the above

ANS: D
Q No: 62

The ratio of lateral strain to axial strain of a homogeneous material, is known

A. Yield ratio

B. Hooke’s ratio

C. Poisson’s ratio

D. Plastic ratio

ANS: C

Q No: 63

A short column (30 cm × 20 cm) carries a load P 1 at 4 cm on one side and another load
P2at 8 cm on the other side along a principal section parallel to longer dimension. If the
extreme intensity on either side is same, the ratio of P1 to P2 will be

A. 2/3

B. 3/2

C. 8/5

D. 5/8

ANS: C

Q No: 64

The force in BF of the truss shown in given figure, is

A. 4t tension

B. 4t compression

C. 4.5t tension

D. 4.5t compression ANS: D
Q No: 65
For beams breadth is constant,
A. Depth d M
B. Depth d 3
C. Depth d
D. Depth d 1/M

ANS: B

Q No: 66

The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a circular beam, is

A. 2/3

B. 3/2

C. 3/4

D. 4/3

ANS: D

Q No: 67

For calculating the permissible stress 0 y /[(1 + a(l/r)²] is the empirical formula, known
as

A. Straight line formula

B. Parabolic formula

C. Perry’s formula

D. Rankine’s formula

ANS: D

Q No: 68

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. In a loaded beam, the moment at which the first yield occurs is called yield moment

B. In a loaded beam, the moment at which the entire section of the beam becomes fully
plastic, is called plastic moment

C. In a fully plastic stage of the beam, the neutral axis divides the section in two sections
of equal area

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 69

For a strongest rectangular beam cut from a circular log, the ratio of the width and
depth, is

A. 0.303

B. 0.404

C. 0.505

D. 0.707

ANS: D

Q No: 70

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Mcg = M M2 + r2) where letters carry their usual meanings B. Tcp = m2 + T2)where
letters carry their usual meanings

C. The torque which when acting alone would produce maximum shear stress equal to
the maximum shear stress caused by the combined bending and torsion, is called
equivalent torque

D. All the above

ANS: D
Q No: 71

m1 and m2 are the members of two individual simple trusses of a compound truss. The
compound truss will be rigid and determinate if

A. m = m1 + m2

B. m = m1 + m2 + 1

C. m = m1 + m2 + 2

D. m = m + m + 3

ANS:12 D

Q No: 72

The maximum B.M. due to an isolated load in a three hinged parabolic arch, (span l and
rise h) having one of its hinges at the crown, occurs on either side of the crown at a
distance

A. l/4

B. h/4

C. l

D. l

ANS: C

Q No: 73

The greatest load which a spring can carry without getting permanently distorted, is
called

A. Stiffness

B. Proof resilience

C. Proof stress
D. Proof load

ANS: D

Q No: 74

The force in AC of the truss shown in the given figure, is

A. 5t tension

B. 4t tension

C. 4t compression

D. 5t compression ANS: B

Q No: 75

A bar L metre long and having its area of cross-section A, is subjected to a gradually
applied tensile load W. The strain energy stored in the bar is

A. WL/2AE

B. WL/AE

C. W²L/AE

D. W²L/2AE

ANS: D

Q No: 76

The maximum bending moment for a simply supported beam with a uniformly
distributed load w/unit length, is

A. WI/2

B. WI²/4

C. WI²/8

D. WI²/12
ANS: C

Q No: 77

An isolated load W is acting at a distance a from the left hand support, of a three hinged
arch of span 2l and rise h hinged at the crown, the horizontal reaction at the support, is

A. Wa/h

B. Wa/2h

C. 2W/ha

D. 2h/Wa ANS: B

Q No: 78

The force in CD of the truss shown in given figure, is

A. 3t compression

B. 3t tension

C. Zero

D. 1.5t compression ANS: C

Q No: 79

At any point of a beam, the section modulus may be obtained by dividing the moment of
inertia of the section by

A. Depth of the section

B. Depth of the neutral axis

C. Maximum tensile stress at the section

D. Maximum compressive stress at the section

ANS: B

Q No: 80
The ratio of the area of cross-section of a circular section to the area of its core, is

A. 4

B. 8

C. 12

D. 16

ANS: D

Q No: 81

The ratio of maximum and average shear stresses on a rectangular section, is

A. 1

B. 1.25

C. 1.5

D. 2.5

ANS: C

Q No: 82

In the truss shown in the given figure, the force in member BC is

A. 100 t compressive

B. 100 t tensile

C. Zero

D. Indeterminate ANS: C

Q No: 83

If a concrete column 200 × 200 mm in cross-section is reinforced with four steel bars of
1200 mm2 total cross-sectional area. Calculate the safe load for the column if
permissible stress in concrete is 5 N/mm2 and Es is 15 Ec
A. 264 MN

B. 274 MN

C. 284 MN

D. 294 MN

ANS: C

Q No: 84

In plastic analysis, the shape factor for rectangular section, is

A. 1.4

B. 1.5

C. 1.6

D. 1.7

ANS: B

Q No: 85

A masonry dam (density = 20,000 N/m3) 6 m high, one metre wide at the top and 4 m
wide at the base, has vertical water face. The minimum stress at the base of the dam
when the reservoir is full, will be

A. 75 N/m2

B. 750 N/m 2

C. 7500 N/m 2

D. 75000 N/m2

ANS: C

Q No: 86

A material is said to be perfectly elastic if

A. It regains its original shape on removal of the load

B. It regains its original shape partially on removal of the load

C. It does not regain its original shape at all

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 87

A shaft rotating N.R.M. under a torque T, transmits a power

A. /30 Newton metres/sec

B. /30 Newton metres/min

C. /60 Newton metres/min

D. /60 Newton metres/sec

ANS: A

Q No: 88

If Q is load factor, S is shape factor and F is factor of safety in elastic design, the
following:

A. Q = S + F

B. Q = S – F

C. Q = F – S

D. Q = S × F

ANS: D

Q No: 89

The maximum deflection due to a load W at the free end of a cantilever of length L and
having flexural rigidity EI, is
A. WL²/2EI

B. WL²/3EI

C. WL3/2EI

D. WL3/3EI

ANS: D

Q No: 90

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. For a uniformly distributed load, the shear force varies linearly

B. For a uniformly distributed load, B.M. curve is a parabola

C. For a load varying linearly, the shear force curve is a parabola

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 91

The ratio of the length and depth of a simply supported rectangular beam which
experiences maximum bending stress equal to tensile stress, due to same load at its
mid span, is

A. 1/2

B. 2/3

C. 1/4

D. 1/3

ANS: B

Q No: 92
A simply supported rolled steel joist 8 m long carries a uniformly distributed load over it
span so that the maximum bending stress is 75 N/mm². If the slope at the ends is 0.005
radian and the value of E = 0.2 × 106 N/mm2, the depth of the joist, is

A. 200 mm

B. 250 mm

C. 300 mm

D. 400 mm

ANS: D

Q No: 93

The force in EC of the truss shown in the given figure, is

A. Zero

B. 5t tension

C. 5t compression

D. 4t tension ANS: C

Q No: 94

The area of the core of a column of cross sectional area A, is

A. (1/3) A

B. (1/6) A

C. (1/12) A

D. (1/18) A

ANS: D

Q No: 95
If and are external and internal diameters of a circular shaft respectively, its polar
moment of inertia, is

A. D4 – d4)

B. D4 – d4)

C. D4 – d4)

D. D4 – d4) ANS: D

Q No: 96

The force in AD of the truss shown in given figure, is

A. 4.0t compression

B. 3.0t compression

C. 0.5t compression

D. 0.5t tension ANS: C
Q No: 97
length of a column of length L, having one end fixed and other end hinged, is
The equivalent
A. 2 L
B. L
C. L/2
D. L
ANS: D
Q No: 98
static equations i.e. H V M = 0, to a determinate structure, we may
By applying the
determine
A. Supporting reactions only
B. Shear forces only
C. Bending moments only
D. All the above
ANS: D

Q No: 99
A lift of weight W is lifted by a rope with an acceleration f. If the area of cross-section of
the rope is A, the stress in the rope is

A. [W (1 + f/ G)]/ A

B. (1 – g/f)/A

C. [W (2 + f/G)]/A

D. [W (2 + g/f)]/A

ANS: A

Q No: 100

THEORY of STRUCTURES Objective Questions Pdf Download ::

Co-efficient of wind resistance of a circular surface, is

A. 1/2

B. 1/3

C. 2/3

D. 3/2

ANS: C

THEORY OF STRUCTURE MCQs Pdf ::

Q No: 101
parabolic arch of span and rise , is given by
The equation of a
A. y = h/l² × (1 – x )
B. y = 2h/l² × (1 – x)
C. y = 3h/l² × (1 – x)

D. y = 4h/l² × (1 – x)

ANS: D

Q No: 102
A rectangular column shown in the given figure carries a load P having eccentricities ex
and ey along X and Y axes. The stress at any point (x, y) is

A. (p/bd) [1 + (12ey. y/d²) + (12ex. x/d²)]

B. p [1 + (6ey. y/b) + (6ex. x/ b)]

C. (p/bd) [1 + (6ey. y/d) + (6ex. x/b)]

D. (p/bd) [1 + (ey. y/d) + ( ex. x/d)] ANS: A

Q No: 103

In case of principal axes of a section

A. Sum of moment of inertia is zero

B. Difference of moment inertia is zero

C. Product of moment of inertia is zero

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 104

A simply supported beam carries a varying load from zero at one end and w at the other
end. If the length of the beam is a, the shear force will be zero at a distance x from least
loaded point where x is

A. a/2

B. a/3

C. a

D. a

ANS: C

Q No: 105
The locus of the end point of the resultant of the normal and tangential components of
the stress on an inclined plane, is

A. Circle

B. Parabola

C. Ellipse

D. Straight line

ANS: C

Q No: 106

The shape factor of standard rolled beam section varies from

A. 1.10 to 1.20

B. 1.20 to 1.30

C. 1.30 to 1.40

D. 1.40 to 1.50

ANS: A

Q No: 107

In the cable shown in the given figure, the minimum tension occurs at

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. Between A and C ANS: C

Q No: 108

Principal planes are subjected to

A. Normal stresses only

B. Tangential stresses only

C. Normal stresses as well as tangential stresses

D. None of these
ANS: A
Q No: 109
cross sections of bronze and copper bars of equal lengt b c are their
Ab and Ac are the
respective stresses due to load P. If Pb and Pc are the loads shared by them, (where Eb
and Ec are
their modulii).
A. b c = Eb /Ec
B. P = Pb + Pc
C. P = Ab b + Ac b
D. All the above
ANS: D

A rolled steel joist is simply supported at its ends and carries a uniformly distributed
load which causes a maximum deflection of 10 mm and slope at the ends of 0.002
radian. The length of the joist will be,

A. 10 m

B. 12 m

C. 14 m

D. 16 m

ANS: D

If the strain energy stored per unit volume in a hollow shaft subjected to a pure torque

when t attains maximum shear stress fs the ratio of inner diameter to outer diameter, is
17/64 (f /N)

s A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/5
ANS: C
Q No: 112
H V are the algebraic sums of the forces resolved horizontally and vertically respectively,
M is the algebraic sum of the moments of forces about any point, for the equilibrium of
the
body acted upon
A. H = 0
B. V = 0
C. M = 0

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 113

The eccentricity (e) of a hollow circular column, external diameter 25 cm, internal
diameter 15 cm for an eccentric load 100 t for non-development of tension, is

A. 2.75 cm

B. 3.00 cm

C. 3.50 cm

D. 4.25 cm

ANS: D

Q No: 114

A steel rod of sectional area 250 sq. mm connects two parallel walls 5 m apart. The nuts
at the ends were tightened when the rod was heated to 100°C. If steel = 0.000012/C°,
Esteel = 0.2 MN/mm2, the tensile force developed at a temperature of 50°C, is

A. 80 N/mm2

B. 100 N/mm 2

C. 120 N/mm2
D. 150 N/mm2

ANS: C

Q No: 115

In the truss shown in given figure, the force in member BD is

A. 100 t compressive

B. 100 t tensile

C. Zero

D. Indeterminate ANS: A

Q No: 116

P = /4L² is the equation of Euler’s crippling load, if

A. Both the ends are fixed

B. Both the ends are hinged

C. One end is fixed and other end is free

D. One end is fixed and other end is hinged

ANS: C

Q No: 117

The moment of inertia of a circular section about any diameter D, is

A. /64

B. 4/32

C. 3/64

D. 4/64

ANS: D
Q No: 118

The S.F. diagram of a loaded beam shown in the given figure is that of

A. A simply supported beam with isolated central load

B. A simply supported beam with uniformly distributed load

C. A cantilever with an isolated load at the free end

D. A cantilever with a uniformly distributed load

ANS: D

Q No: 119
Y are the bending moment, moment of inertia, radius of curvature, modulus of
If M, I, R, E, F, and
elasticity stress and the depth of the neutral axis at section, then
A. M/I = R/E = F/Y
B. I/M = R/E = F/Y
C. M/I = E/R = E/Y
D. M/I = E/R = Y/F
ANS: C
Q No: 120
Shear strain energy theory for the failure of a material at elastic limit, is due to
A. Rankine
B. Guest or Trecas
C. St. Venant
D. Von Mises
ANS: D
Q No: 121 2respectively,
the tangent 1

A. 1 2
B. 1 2 cos2
C. 1 – 2

D.

ANS:1 Option2 C
Q No: 122

The radius of gyration of a section of area A and least moment of inertia I about the
centroidal axis, is

A. A/I

B. I/A

C. / A)

D. /I)

ANS: C

Q No: 123

The locus of the moment of inertia about inclined axes to the principal axis, is

A. Straight line

B. Parabola

C. Circle

D. Ellipse

ANS: D

Q No: 124

Beams composed of more than one material, rigidly connected together so as to behave
as one piece, are known as

A. Compound beams

B. Indeterminate beams

C. Determinate beams

D. Composite beams

ANS: D
Q No: 125

A steel plate d × b is sandwiched rigidly between two timber joists each D × B/2 in
section. The

steel will be (where Young’s modulus of steel is m times that of the timber).

A. BD² + mbd²)/6D]

B. BD3 + mbd3)/6D]

C. BD² + mbd3)/4D]

D. BD² + mbd²)/4D]

ANS: B

Q No: 126

The general expression for the B.M. of a beam of length l is the beam carries M = (wl/2)
x – (wx²/2)

A. A uniformly distributed load w/unit length

B. A load varying linearly from zero at one end to w at the other end

C. An isolated load at mid span

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 127

In a shaft, the shear stress is not directly proportional to

A. Radius of the shaft

B. Angle of twist

C. Length of the shaft

D. Modulus of rigidity
ANS: C

Q No: 128

In the truss, the force in the member AC is

A. 6.25 t compressive

B. 8.75 t tensile

C. t tensile

D. t compressive

ANS: D

Q No: 129

The maximum deflection of a simply supported beam of span L, carrying an isolated

load at the centre of the span; flexural rigidity being EI, is

A. WL3/3EL

B. WL3/8EL

C. WL3/24EL

D. WL3/48EL

ANS: D

Q No: 130

The point of contraflexure is the point where

A. B.M. changes sign

B. B.M. is maximum

C. B.M. is minimum

D. S.F. is zero
ANS: A

Q No: 131

A steel bar 20 mm in diameter simply-supported at its ends over a total span of 40 cm

carries a load at its centre. If the maximum stress induced in the bar is limited to
N/mm2, the bending strain energy stored in the bar, is

A. 411 N mm

B. 511 N mm

C. 611 N mm

D. 711 N mm

ANS: C

Q No: 132
d constant, the width of a cantilever of length l of uniform strength loaded with
Keeping the depth
a uniformly distributed load w varies from zero at the free end and
A. (2w/ × l² at the fixed end
B. (3w/ × l² at the fixed end
C. (3w/ × l² at the fixed end
D. (5w/ × l² at the fixed end
ANS: C
Q No: 133
The equivalent length is of a column of length having both the ends fixed, is
A. 2 L
B. L
C. L/2
D. L
ANS: C
Q No: 134 y/n) (1 – a l/r), is
For calculating the allowable stress of long columns. The empirical formula 0
known as
A. Straight line formula
B. Parabolic formula
C. Perry’s formula
D. Rankine’s formula
ANS: A

Q No: 135

The equivalent length of a column of length L having one end fixed and the other end
free, is

A. 2L

B. L

C. L/2

D. L

ANS: A

Q No: 136

For determining the support reactions at A and B of a three hinged arch, points B and
Care joined and produced to intersect the load line at D and a line parallel to the load line
through A at D’. Distances AD, DD’ and AD’ when measured were 4 cm, 3 cm and 5 cm
respectively. The angle between the reactions at A and B is
A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 90°

ANS: D

Q No: 137
a uniform circular bar of diameter d and length , which extends by an
The deflection of
amount under a tensile pull , when it carries the same load at its mid-span, is
A. el/2d
B. e²l/3d²
C. el²/3d²
D. e²l²/3d²
ANS: C

Q No: 138

The ratio of the maximum deflections of a simply supported beam with a central load W
and of a cantilever of same length and with a load W at its free end, is

A. 1/8

B. 1/10

C. 1/12

D. 1/16

ANS: D

Q No: 139

The radius of gyration of a rectangular section (depth D, width B) from a centroidal axis
parallel to the width is

A. D/2

B. D

C. D

D. D

ANS: C

Q No: 140

A square column carries a load P at the centroid of one of the quarters of the square. If a
is the side of the main square, the combined bending stress will be

A. p/a²

B. 2p/a²
C. 3p/a²

D. 4p/a²

ANS: C
Q No: 141
inertia of a rectangular section of width and depth about an axis passing
The moment of
through C.G. and parallel to its width is
A. BD²/6
B. BD3/6
C. BD3/12
D. B²D/6
ANS: C

A.

B.

C.

D.

Q No: 143
section modulus of a square section of side B and that of a circular section of
The ratio of the
diameter D, is
A. 2 /15
B. 3 /16
C. 3 /8
D. /16
ANS: B
Q No: 144
A material may fail if
A. 0
B. Maximum strain exceeds /E
0 0/2
C. Maximum shear stress exceeds
D. All the above
ANS: D
Q No: 145

The ratio of tangential and normal compone

direction of the force is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

ANS: C

Q No: 146

A shaft is subjected to bending moment M and a torque T simultaneously. The ratio of

the maximum bending stress to maximum shear stress developed in the shaft, is

A. M/T

B. T/M

C. 2M/ T

D. 2T/M

ANS: C

Q No: 147

The maximum height of a masonry dam of a triangular section whose base width is b
and specific gravity s, is

A.

B. b.s

C.

D. s b
ANS: A

Q No: 148

A bar of square section of area a2 is held such that its one of its diameters is vertical.
The maximum shear stress will develop at a depth h where h is

A.

B.

C.

D.

ANS: B

Q No: 149

A cantilever of length 2 cm and depth 10 cm tapers in plan from a width 24 cm to zero at

its free end. If the modulus of elasticity of the material is 0.2 × 106 N/mm2, the
deflection of the free end, is

A. 2 mm

B. 3 mm

C. 4 mm

D. 5 mm ANS: D

Q No: 150

The locus of reaction of a two hinged semi-circular arch, is

A. Straight line

B. Parabola

C. Circle

D. Hyperbola
ANS: A

Q No: 151 0. At its elastic limit, the following

statement is true,
0/E
A. Strain is equal to
B. Maximum shear stress = /2
C. Strain energy = 0
0²/2E × volume
D. All the above
ANS: D

Q No: 152

A truss containing j joints and m members, will be a simple truss if

A. m = 2j – 3

B. j = 2m – 3

C. m = 3j – 2

D. j = 3m – 2

ANS: A

Q No: 153

In plastic analysis, the shape factor for a triangular section, is

A. 1.5

B. 1.34

C. 2.34

D. 2.5

ANS: C

Q No: 154
A three hinged arch is generally hinged at its supports and

A. At one quarter span

B. At the crown

C. Anywhere in the rib

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 155

A steel bar 5 m × 50 mm is loaded with 250,000 N. If the modulus of elasticity of the

material is 0.2

MN/mm2 and Poisson’s ratio is 0.25, the change in the volume of the bar is:

A. 1.125 cm3

B. 2.125 cm3

C. 3.125 cm3

D. 4.125 cm2

ANS: C

Q No: 156

Stress may be defined as

A. Force per unit length

B. Force per unit volume

C. Force per unit area

D. None of these ANS: C

Q No: 157
A steel rod 1 metre long having square cross section is pulled under a tensile load of 8
tonnes. The extension in the rod was 1 mm only. If Esteel = 2 × 106 kg/cm2, the side of
the rod, is

A. 1 cm

B. 1.5 cm

C. 2 cm

D. 2.5 cm

ANS: C

Q No: 158

The equivalent length of a column of length L, having both the ends hinged, is

A. 2L

B. L

C. L/2

D. L

ANS: B

Q No: 159

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The bending stress in a section is zero at its neutral axis and maximum at the outer
fibres B. The shear stress is zero at the outer fibres and maximum at the neutral axis C.
The bending stress at the outer fibres, is known as principal stress

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 160
Total strain energy theory for the failure of a material at elastic limit, is known

A. Guest’s or Trecas’ theory

B. St. Venant’s theory

C. Rankine’s theory

D. Haig’s theory

ANS: D

Q No: 161

There are two hinged semicircular arches A, B and C of radii 5 m, 7.5 m and 10 m
respectively and each carries a concentrated load W at their crowns. The horizontal
thrust at their supports will be in the ratio of

A. 1 : 1½ : 2

B. 2 : 1½ : 1

C. 1 : 1 : 2

D. None of these ANS: C

Q No: 162

The horizontal deflection of a parabolic curved beam of span 10 m and rise 3 m when
loaded with a uniformly distributed load l t per horizontal length is (where Ic is the M.I. at
the crown, which varies as the slope of the arch).

A. 50/EIc

B. 100/EIc

C. 150/EIc

D. 200/EIc

ANS: D
Q No: 163
For beams of uniform strength, if depth is constant,
A. Width b M
B. Width b M
C. Width b 3 M
D. Width b 1/M

ANS: A

Q No: 164

Stress may be expressed in Newtons

A. Per millimetre square (N/mm2)

B. Per centimetre square (N/cm2)

C. Per metre square (N/m2)

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 165

The maximum magnitude of shear stress due to shear force F on a rectangular section
of area A at the neutral axis, is

A. F/A

B. F/2A

C. 3F/2A

D. 2F/3A

ANS: C

Q No: 166

The vertical reaction for the arch is

A. wa/2l

B. wl/a

C. wa/l

D. wa²/2l

ANS: A

Q No: 167

Flat spiral springs

A. Consist of uniform thin strips

B. Are supported at outer end

C. Are wound by applying a torque

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 168

In plastic analysis, the shape factor for a circular section, is

A. 1.5

B. 1.6

C. 1.7

D. 1.75

ANS: C

Q No: 169

In case of a simply supported rectangular beam of span L and loaded with a central load
W, the length of elasto-plastic zone of the plastic hinge, is
A. L/2

B. L/3

C. L/4

D. L/5

ANS: B

Q No: 170

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Hoop strain of the walls of a cylinder due to liquid is (pd/2tE) (1 – 1/2m)

B. Longitudinal strain in the walls of a cylinder due to liquid is (pd/2 tE) (1/2 – 1/m)

C. Volumetric change in the cylinder due to liquid is (pd/2tE) (5/2 – 2/m)

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 171

The stiffness of the close coil helical spring is

A. d4N/8D3n

B. d4N/4D3n

C. 4D3N/d4n

D. 8D3N/d4n

ANS: A

Q No: 172

The ratio of the deflections of the free end of a cantilever due to an isolated load at
1/3rd and 2/3rd of the span, is
A. 1/7

B. 2/7

C. 3/7

D. 2/5

ANS: B

Q No: 173

The ratio of the length and diameter of a simply supported uniform circular beam which
experiences maximum bending stress equal to tensile stress due to same load at its mid
span, is

A. 1/8

B. 1/4

C. 1/2

D. 1/3

ANS: C

Q No: 174

The ratio of moments of inertia of a triangular section about its base and about a
centroidal axis parallel to its base, is

A. 1.0

B. 1.5

C. 2.0

D. 3.0

ANS: D

Q No: 175
The ratio of shear stress and shear strain of an elastic material, is

A. Modulus of Rigidity

B. Shear Modulus

C. Modulus of Elasticity

D. Both A. and B.

ANS: D

Q No: 176
For permissible shear stress fs, the torque transmitted by a thin tube of mean diameter
D and wall
thickness t, is
A. ( /2) t fs
B. ( /2) t fs
C. D2t fs
D. ( /4) fs

ANS: A

Q No: 177

At yield point of a test piece, the material

A. Obeys Hooke’s law

B. Behaves in an elastic manner

C. Regains its original shape on removal of the load

D. Undergoes plastic deformation

ANS: D

Q No: 178

For the close coil helical spring of the maximum deflection is

A. WD3n/d4N
B. 2WD3n/d4N

C. 4W²D3n/d4N

D. 8WD3n/d4N

ANS: D

THEORY

300+ TOP Structural Analysis Multiple Choice Questions

Answers
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. The number of independent equations to be satisfied for static equilibrium

of a plane structure is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
Ans: c

2. If there are m unknown member forces, r unknown reaction components

and j number of joints, then the degree of static indeterminacy of a pin-
jointed plane frame is given by
a) m + r + 2j
b) m – r + 2j
c) m + r – 2j
d) m + r – 3j
Ans: c
3. Number of unknown internal forces in each member of a rigid jointed
plane frame is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
Ans: c

4. Degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid-jointed plane frame having 15

members, 3 reaction components and 14 joints is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 8
Ans: c

5. Degree of kinematic indeterminacy of a pin-jointed plane frame is given by

a) 2j – r
b) j – 2r
c) 3j – r
d) 2j + r
Ans: a

6. Independent displacement components at each joint of a rigid-jointed

plane frame are
a) three linear movements
b) two linear movements and one rotation
c) one linear movement and two rotations
d) three rotations
Ans: b

7. If in a pin-jointed plane frame (m + r) > 2j, then the frame is

a) stable and statically determinate
b) stable and statically indeterminate
c) unstable
d) none of the above
where m is number of members, r is reaction components and j is number of
joints
Ans: b
8. A pin-jointed plane frame is unstable if
a) (m + r)<2j
b) m + r = 2j
c) (m + r)>2j
d) none of the above
where m is number of members, r is reaction components and j is number of
joints
Ans: a

9. A rigid-jointed plane frame is stable and statically determinate if

a) (m + r) = 2j
b) (m + r) = 3j
c) (3m + r) = 3j
d) (m + 3r) = 3j
where m is number of members, r is reaction components and j is number of
joints
Ans: c

10. The number of independent equations to be satisfied for static

equilibrium in a space structure is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
Ans: d

11. The degree of static indeterminacy of a pin-jointed space frame is given

by
a) m + r – 2j
b) m + r – 3j
c) 3m + r – 3j
d) m + r + 3j
where m is number of unknown member forces, r is unknown reaction
components and j is number of joints
Ans: b

12. The degree of static indeterminacy of a rigid-jointed space frame is

a) m + r – 2j
b) m + r – 3j
c) 3m + r – 3j
d) 6m + r – 6j
where m, r and j have their usual meanings
Ans: d

13. The degree of kinematic indeterminacy of a pin-jointed space frame is

a) 2j-r
b) 3j-r
c) j-2r
d) j-3r
where j is number of joints and r is reaction components
Ans: b

14. The number of independent displacement components at each joint of a

rigid-jointed space frame is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
Ans: d

15. If in a rigid-jointed space frame, (6m + r) < 6j, then the frame is
a) unstable
b) stable and statically determinate
c) stable and statically indeterminate
d) none of the above
Ans: a

16. The principle of virtual work can be applied to elastic system by

considering the virtual work of
a) internal forces only
b) external forces only
c) internal as well as external forces
d) none of the above
Ans: c

17. Castigliano’s first theorem is applicable

a) for statically determinate structures only
b) when the system behaves elastically
c) only when principle of superposition is valid
d) none of the above
Ans: c

18. Principle of superposition is applicable when

a) deflections are linear functions of applied forces
b) material obeys Hooke’s law
c) the action of applied forces will be affected by small deformations of the
structure
d) none of the above
Ans: a

19. In moment distribution method, the sum of distribution factors of all the
members meeting at any joint is always
a) zero
b) less than 1
c) 1
d) greater than 1
Ans: c

20. The carryover factor in a prismatic member whose far end is fixed is
a) 0
b) 1/2
c) 3/4
d) 1
Ans: b

21. In column analogy method, the area of an analogous column for a fixed
beam of span L and flexural rigidity El is taken as
a) L/EI
b) L/2EI
c) L/3EI
d) L/4EI
Ans: a

22. The degree of static indeterminacy up to which column analogy method

can be used is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) unrestricted
Ans: b

23. The deflection at any point of a perfect frame can be obtained by

applying a unit load at the joint in
a) vertical direction
b) horizontal direction
c) inclined direction
d) the direction in which the deflection is required
Ans: d

24. In the slope deflection equations, the deformations are considered to be

caused by
i) bending moment
ii) shear force
iii) axial force
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: a

25. The three moments equation is applicable only when

a) the beam is prismatic
b) there is no settlement of supports
c) there is no discontinuity such as hinges within the span
d) the spans are equal
Ans: c

26. While using three moments equation, a fixed end of a continuous beam is
replaced by an additional span of
a) zero length
b) infinite length
c) zero moment of inertia
d) none of the above
Ans: a
27. The Castigliano’s second theorem can be used to compute deflections
a) in statically determinate structures only
b) for any type of structure
c) at the point under the load only
d) for beams and frames only
Ans: b

28. Bending moment at any section in a conjugate beam gives in the actual
beam
a) slope
b) curvature
c) deflection
d) bending moment
Ans: c

29. For a two-hinged arch, if one of the supports settles down vertically, then
the horizontal thrust
a) is increased
b) is decreased
c) remains unchanged
d) becomes zero
Ans: c

30. For a symmetrical two hinged parabolic arch, if one of the supports
settles horizontally, then the horizontal thrust
a) is increased
b) is decreased
c) remains unchanged
d) becomes zero
Ans: b

Structural Analysis Interview Questions

31. A single rolling load of 8 kN rolls along a girder of 15 m span. The

absolute maximum bending moment will be
a) 8 kN.m
b) 15 kN.m
c) 30 kN.m
d) 60 kN.m
Ans: c

32. The maximum bending moment due to a train of wheel loads on a simply
supported girder
a) always occurs at centre of span
b) always occurs under a wheel load
c) never occurs under a wheel load
d) none of the above
Ans: b

33. When a uniformly distributed load, longer than the span of the girder,
moves from left to right, then the maximum bending moment at mid section
of span occurs when the uniformly distributed load occupies
a) less than the left half span
b) whole of left half span
c) more than the left half span
d) whole span
Ans: d

34. When a uniformly distributed load, shorter than the span of the girder,
moves from left to right, then the conditions for maximum bending moment
at a section is that
a) the head of the load reaches the section
b) the tail of the load reaches the section
c) the load position should be such that the section divides it equally on both
sides
d) the load position should be such that the section divides the load in the
same ratio as it divides the span
Ans: d

35. When a series of wheel loads crosses a simply supported girder, the
maximum bending moment under any given wheel load occurs when
a) the centre of gravity of the load system is midway between the centre of
span and wheel load under consi-deration
b) the centre of span is midway between the centre of gravity of the load
system and the wheel load under consideration
c) the wheel load under consideration is midway between the centre of span
and the centre of gravity of the load system
d) none of the above
Ans: b

36. Which of the following is not the displacement method ?

a) Equilibrium method
b) Column analogy method
c) Moment distribution method
d) Kani’s method
Ans: b

37. Study the following statements.

i) The displacement method is more useful when degree of kinematic
indeterminacy is greater than the degree of static indeterminacy.
ii) The displacement method is more useful when degree of kinematic
indeterminacy is less than the degree of static indeterminacy.
iii) The force method is more useful when degree of static indeterminacy is
greater than the degree of kinematic indeterminacy.
iv) The force method is more useful when degree of static indeterminacy is
less than the degree of kinematic indeterminacy.
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: d

38. Select the correct statement

a) Flexibility matrix is a square symmetrical matrix
b) Stiffness matrix is a square symmetrical matrix
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans: c

39. To generate the j th column of the flexibility matrix

a) a unit force is applied at coordinate j and the displacements are calculated
at all coordinates
b) a unit displacement is applied at co-ordinate j and the forces are calculated
at all coordinates
c) a unit force is applied at coordinate j and the forces are calculated at all
coordinates
d) a unit displacement is applied at co-ordinate j and the displacements are
calculated at all co-ordinates
Ans: a

40. For stable structures, one of the important properties of flexibility and
stiffness matrices is that the elements on the main diagonal
i) of a stiffness matrix must be positive
ii) of a stiffness matrix must be negative
iii) of a flexibility matrix must be positive
iv) of a flexibility matrix must be nega¬tive
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans: a

41. Effects of shear force and axial force on plastic moment capacity of a
structure are respectively to
a) increase and decrease
b) increase and increase
c) decrease and increase
d) decrease and decrease
Ans: d

42. Which of the following methods of structural analysis is a force method ?

a) slope deflection method
b) column analogy method
c) moment distribution method
d) none of the above
Ans: b

43. Which of the following methods of structural analysis is a displacement

method ?
a) moment distribution method
b) column analogy method
c) three moment equation
d) none of the above
Ans: a

44. In the displacement method of structural analysis, the basic unknowns

are
a) displacements
b) force
c) displacements and forces
d) none of the above
Ans: a

45. The fixed support in a real beam becomes in the conjugate beam a
a) roller support
b) hinged support
c) fixed support
d) free end
Ans: d

46. The width of the analogous column in the method of column analogy is
a) 2/EI
b) 1/EI
c) 1/2 EI
d) 1/4 EI
Ans: b

47. A simply supported beam deflects by 5 mm when it is subjected to a

concentrated load of 10 kN at its centre. What will be deflection in a 1/10
model of the beam if the model is subjected to a 1 kN load at its centre ?
a) 5 mm
b) 0.5 mm
c) 0.05 mm
d) 0.005mm
Ans: a

48. The deformation of a spring produced by a unit load is called

a) stiffness
b) flexibility
c) influence coefficient
d) unit strain
Ans: b

49. For a single point load W moving on a symmetrical three hinged parabolic
arch of span L, the maximum sagging moment occurs at a distance x from
ends. The value of x is
a) 0.211 L
b) 0.25 L
c) 0.234 L
d) 0.5 L
Ans: a

50. Muller Breslau’s principle for obtaining influence lines is applicable to

i) trusses
ii) statically determinate beams and frames
iii) statically indeterminate structures, the material of which is elastic and
follows Hooke’s law
iv) any statically indeterminate structure
The correct answer is
a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
c) (i) and (ii)
d) only (i)
Ans: a

51. Consider the following statements:

Sinking of an intermediate support of a continuous beam
1. reduces the negative moment at support.
2. increases the negative moment at support.
3. reduces the positive moment at support.
4. increases the positive moment at the centre of span.
Of these statements
a) i and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 2 and 4 are correct
Ans: a
52. A load ‘W is moving from left to right support on a simply supported
beam of span T. The maximum bending moment at 0.4 1 from the left
support is
a) 0.16 Wl
b) 0.20 Wl
c) 0.24 Wl
d) 0.25 Wl
Ans: c

53. When a load crosses a through type Pratt truss in the direction left to
right, the nature of force in any diagonal member in the left half of the span
would
a) change from compression to tension
b) change from tension to compression
c) always be compression
d) always be tension
Ans: a
300+ TOP STRENGTH of MATERIALS Objective
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Objective Questions & Answers Pdf

300+ TOP STRENGTH of MATERIALS Objective Questions & Answers Pdf

Strength of Materials Objective Questions :-

1. The unit of force in S.I. units is

(a) kilogram
(b) newton
(c) watt
(d) dyne
(e) joule.
Ans: b

2. The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is

(a) newton
(b) pascal
(c) kilogram meter
(d) watt
(e) joule.
Ans: e

3. The unit of power in S.I. units is

(a) newton meter
(b) watt
(c) joule
(d) kilogram meter/sec.
(e) pascal per sec.
Ans: b

4. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in

(a) one point
(b) two points
(c) plane
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different planes.
Ans: a

5. Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in
(a) one point
(b) one plane
(c) different planes
(d) perpendicular planes
(e) different points.
Ans: b

6. A force acting on a body may

(a) introduce internal stresses
(b) balance the other forces acting on it
(c) retard its motion
(d) change its motion
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

7. Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces ?

(a) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sides
of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
(b) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and
magnitude by the sides of a polygon, then the forces are in equilibrium
(c) if a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then forces are in
equilibrium
(d) if any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in direction and
magnitude by the sides of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
8. Effect of a force on a body depends upon
(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) position or line of action
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

9. If a number of forces act simultaneously on

a particle, it is possible
(a) not a replace them by a single force
(b) to replace them by a single force
(c) to replace them by a single force through C.G.
(d) to replace them by a couple
(e) to replace them by a couple and a force.
Ans: b

10. A force is completely defined when we specify

(a) magnitude
(b) direction
(c) point of application
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

11. If two equal forces of magnitude P act at an angle 9°, their resultant will be
(a) P/2 cos 9/2
(b) IP sin 9/2
(c) 2P tan 9/2
(d) IP cos 9/2
(e) Psin 9/2.
Ans: d

13. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given
direction is equal to the resolved part of their resultant in the same direction.
This is as per the principle of
(a) forces
(b) independence of forces
(c) dependence of forces
(d) balance of force
(e) resolution of forces.
Ans: e

14. The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an angle 9 in a
given direction is equal to
(a) the algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(b) the sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(c) the difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of 9
(d) the sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of 9
(e) the sum of the forces multiplied by the tangent of 9.
Ans: a

15. Which of the following do not have identical dimensions ?

(a) Momentum and impulse
(b) Torque and energy
(c) Torque and work
(d) Kinetic energy and potential energy
(e) Moment of a force and angular momentum.
Ans: e

16. Which of the following is not the unit of distance ?

(a) angstrom
(b) light year
(c) micron
(d) millimeter
(e) milestone.
Ans: e

17. Which of the following is not the unit of power ?

(a) kW (kilowatt)
(b) hp (horse power)
(c) kcal/sec
(d) kg m/sec
(e) kcal/kg sec.
Ans: e

18. Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat ?
(a) kcal
(b) kg m
(c) kWhr
(d) hp
(e) hp hr.
Ans: d

19. Which of the following is not the unit of pressure ?

(a) kg/cm
(b) ata
(c) atmosphere
(d) mm of wcl
(e) newton.
Ans: e

20. The weight of a body is due to

(a) centripetal force of earth
(b) gravitational pull exerted by the earth
(c) forces experienced by body in atmos-phere
(d) force of attraction experienced by par-ticles
(e) gravitational force of attraction towards the centre of the earth.
Ans: e

21. The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie in a
plane, are called
(a) coplanar non-concurrent forces
(b) non-coplanar concurrent forces
(c) non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
(d) intersecting forces
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

22. When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied

(a) coplanar force
(b) non-coplanar forces
(c) lever
(d) moment
(e) couple.
Ans: e

23. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity

(a) time
(b) mass
(c) volume
(d) density
(e) acceleration.
Ans: e

24. According to principle of transmissibility of forces, the effect of a force

upon a body is
(a) maximum when it acts at the center of gravity of a body
(b) different at different points in its line of action
(c) the same at every point in its line of action
(d) minimum when it acts at the C.G. of the body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

25. Which of the following is a vector quantity

(a) energy
(b) mass
(c) momentum
(d) angle
(e) speed.
Ans: c

26. The magnitude of two forces, which when acting at right angle produce
resultant force of VlOkg and when acting at 60° produce resultant of Vl3 kg.
These forces are
(a) 2 and V6
(b) 3 and 1 kg
(c) V5andV5
(d) 2 and 5
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

27. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium if

(a) their total sum is zero
(b) two resolved parts in two directions at right angles are equal
(c) sum of resolved parts in any two per-pendicular directions are both zero
(d) all of them are inclined equally
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

28. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction

(a) balance each other
(b) constitute a moment
(c) constitute a couple
(d) constitute a moment of couple
(e) constitute a resultant couple.
Ans: c

29. According to principle of moments

(a) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their algebraic sum is
zero
(b) if a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the algebraic sum of
their moments about any point in their plane is zero
(c) the algebraic sum of the moments of any two forces about any point is
equal to moment of theiwesultant about the same point
(d) positive and negative couples can be balanced
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

30. Which of the following is not a vector quantity

(a) weight
(b) velocity
(c) acceleration
(d) force
(e) moment.
Ans: a

31. According to law of triangle of forces

(a) three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
(b) three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side
being proportional to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a patticle are represented in magnitude and
direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
(d) if three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is
proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

33. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces, then
(a) these forces are equal
(b) the lines of action of these forces meet in a point
(c) the lines of action of these forces are parallel
(d) (b) and (c) above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

36. D’ Alembert’s principle is used for

(a) reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics problem
(b) determining stresses in the truss
(c) stability of floating bodies
(d) designing safe structures
(e) solving kinematic problems.
Ans: a

37. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in
equilibrium, if
(a) the floor is smooth, the wall is rough
(b) the floor is rough, the wall is smooth
(c) the floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
(d) the floor and wall both are rough sur-faces
(e) will be in equilibrium under all condi-tions.
Ans: c

38. According to Lami’s theorem

(a) three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
(b) three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side
being proportional to force
(c) if three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and
direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
(d) if three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is
proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

39. Two coplanar couples having equal and op-posite moments

(a) balance each other
(b) produce a couple and an unbalanced force
(c) are equivalent
(d) produce a moment of couple
(e) can not balance each other.
Ans: e

40. A framed structure is perfect if it contains members equal to

(a) 2n-3
(b) n-l
(c) ‘2n-l
(d) n – 2
(e) 3n-2.
where n = number of joints in a frame
Ans: a

42. The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called
(a) resultant couple
(b) moment of the forces
(c) resulting couple
(d) moment of the couple
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

43. In detennining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is

divided into two parts by an imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to
cut more than
(a) two members with unknown forces of the frame
(b) three members with unknown forces of the frame
(c) four members with unknown forces of the frame
(d) three members with known forces of the frame
(e) four members with two known forces.
Ans: b

44. The center of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at

(a) the center of heavy portion
(b) the bottom surface
(c) the mid point of its axis
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

45. Center of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a
46. Center of percussion is
(a) the point of C.G.
(b) the point of metacentre
(c) the point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a
body to rotate about a certain axis
(d) point of suspension
(e) the point in a body about which it can rotate horizontally and oscillate
under the influence of gravity.
Ans: c

47. Center of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height of
(a) one-fourth of the total height above base
(b) one-third of the total height above base
(c) one-half of the total height above base
(d) three-eighth of the total height above the base
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

48. The units of moment of inertia of an area are

(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) m3
(e) kg/m4.
Ans: b

49. The center of percussion of the homogeneous rod of length L suspended

at the top will be
(a) L/2
(b) L/3
(c) 3L/4
(d) 2L/3
(e) 3L/8.
Ans: d

50. The center of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of

(a) concurrence of the medians
(b) intersection of its altitudes
(c) intersection of bisector of angles
(d) intersection of diagonals
(e) all of the above.
Ans: a

51. The units of moment of inertia of mass are

(a) kg m2
(b) m4
(c) kg/m2
(d) kg/m
(e) m2/kg.
Ans: a

52. The possible loading in various members of framed structures are

(a) compression or tension
(b) buckling or shear
(c) shear or tension
(d) all of the above
(e) bending.
Ans: a

53. A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when
central dip is very small approaches the following curve
(a) catenary
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) circular arc.
Ans: b

54. A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter length. The ends of the wire are
attached to two poles 20 meters apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find
the dip in the middle of the span
(a) 2.5 cm
(b) 3.0 cm
(c) 4.0 cm
(d) 5.0 cm
(e) 2.0 cm.
Ans: c

55. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter
is a radius of the plate. Find the e.g. of the remainder from the center of
circular plate
(a) 0.5 cm
(b) 1.0 cm
(c) 1.5 cm
(d) 2.5 cm
(e) 0.25 cm.
Ans: a

58. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :

(a) The C.G. of a circle is at its center
(b) The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
(c) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the inter-section of its diagonals
(d) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2 from the center
(e) The C-G. of an ellipse is at its center.
Ans: d

59. The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius r resting on a

horizontal plane will be
(a) r/2
(b) 2r/3
(c) r/A
(d) 3r/2
(e) 3r/A.
Ans: d

62. In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected

(a) reaction of any smooth surface with which the body is in contact
(b) reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls on it without slipping
(c) reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space, around which a body is con-
strained to turn
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

63. If a suspended body is struck at the centre of percussion, then the

pressure on die axis passing through the point of suspension will be
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) infinity
(e) same as the force applied.
Ans: c
65. The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, $ ve
sense 30 kg force, 1 m arm, – ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, + ve sense
having arm of 0.5 m will be
(a) 20 kg, – ve sense
(b) 20 kg, + ve sense
(c) 10 kg, + ve sense
(d) 10 kg, – ve sense
(e) 45 kg, + ve sense.
Ans: a

68. Angle oT friction is the

(a) angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and
the limiting friction
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(c) the ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting when the
body is just about to move
(d) the ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when the body is
in motion
(e) ratio of static and dynamic friction.
Ans: a

69. The coefficient of friction depends on

(a) area of contact
(b) shape of surfaces
(c) strength of surfaces
(d) nature of surface
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

70. Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane
inclination + friction angle) applied in the direction
(a) along the plane
(b) horizontally
(c) vertically
(d) at an angle equal to the angle of friction to the inclined plane
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d

71. The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as

(a) coefficient of friction
(b) angle of friction
(c) angle of repose
(d) sliding friction
(e) friction resistance.
Ans: a

72. Which one of the following statements is not correct

(a) the tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of friction
(b) the angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
(c) the tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction
(d) the sine of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient to friction
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

73. On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall,
the force of friction will be
(a) towards the wall at its upper end
(b) away from the wall at its upper end
(c) upwards at its upper end
(d) downwards at its upper end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

74. On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical
wall, the force of friction will be
(a) downwards at its upper end
(b) upwards at its upper end
(c) perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
(d) zero at its upper end
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

76. Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called

(a) post friction
(b) limiting friction
(c) kinematic friction
(d) frictional resistance
(e) dynamic friction.
Ans: e

77. Coefficient of friction is the

(a) angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and
the limiting friction
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(c) the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
(d) the friction force acting when the body is in motion
(e) tangent of angle of repose.
Ans: b

78. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction
force is
(a) proportional to normal load between the surfaces
(b) dependent on the materials of contact surface
(c) proportional to velocity of sliding
(d) independent of the area of contact surfaces
(e) none of the above is wrong statement.
Ans: c

79. A body of weight W on inclined plane of a being pulled up by a horizontal

force P will be on the point of motion up the plane when P is equal to
(a) W
(b) W sin (a + $)
(c) Wtan(a + <|))
(d) Wan(a-<t>)
(e) Wtana.
Ans: c

80. A particle moves along a straight line such that distance (x) traversed in t
seconds is given by x = t2 (t – 4), the acceleration of the particle will be given
by the equation
(a) 3t2-lt
(b) 3t2+2t
(c) 6f-8
(d) 6f-4
(e) 6t2-8t.
Ans: c

81. If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrain,

he has to hold his umbrella
(a) more inclined when moving
(b) less inclined when moving
(c) more inclined when standing
(d) less inclined when standing
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

86. A projectile is fired at an angle 9 to the vertical. Its horizontal range will be
maximum when 9 is
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 60°
(e) 90°.
Ans: c

88. Limiting force of friction is the

(a) tangent of angle between normal-reaction and the resultant of normal
reaction and limiting friction
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(c) the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
(d) the friction force acting when the body is in motion
(e) minimum force of friction.
Ans: c

89. Coulomb friction is the friction between

(a) bodies having relative motion
(b) two dry surfaces
(c) two lubricated surfaces
(d) solids and liquids
(e) electrically charged particles.
Ans: a

90. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is

(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less of more depending on nature of surfaces and velocity
(e) has no correlation.
Ans: c

92. Tangent of angle of friction is equal to

(a) kinetic friction
(b) limiting friction
(c) angle of repose
(d) coefficient of friction
(e) friction force.
Ans: d

93. Kinetic friction is the

(a) tangent of angle between normal reac-tion and the resultant of normal
reac-tion and the limiting friction
(b) ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(c) the friction force acting when the body is just about to move
(d) the friction force acting when the body is in motion
(e) dynamic friction.
Ans: d

95. The effort required to lift a load W on a screw jack with helix angle a and
angle of friction <j) is equal to
(a) Wtan(a + <)>)
(b) Wtan(a-<)>)
(c) Wcos(a + <t>)
(d) Wsin(a + <(>)
(e) W (sin a + cos <j>).
Ans: a

96. A semi-circular disc rests on a horizontal surface with its top flat surface
horizontal and circular portion touching down. The coefficient of friction
between semi-cricular disc and horizontal surface is i. This disc is to be pulled
by a horizontal force applied at one edge and it always remains horizontal.
When the disc is about to start moving, its top horizontal force will
(a) remain horizontal
(b) slant up towards direction of pull
(c) slant down towards direction of pull
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

97. A particle inside a hollow sphere of radius r, having coefficient of friction

-rr can rest upto height of
(a) r/2
(b) r/A
(c) r/%
(d) 0.134 r
(e) 3r/8.
Ans: d

98. The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any
point in their plane is
(a) equal to the moment of the couple
(b) constant
(c) both of above are correct
(d) both of above are wrong
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

99. A single force and a couple acting in the

same plane upon a rigid body
(a) balance each other
(b) cannot balance each other
(c) produce moment of a couple
(d) are equivalent
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

100. If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in
equilibrium, then they must either
(a) meet in a point
(b) be all parallel
(c) at least two of them must meet
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

101. The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just
begins to slide over another surface is called
(a) limiting friction
(b) sliding friction
(c) rolling friction
(d) kinematic friction
(e) dynamic friction.
Ans: a

102. The co-efficient of friction depends upon

(a) nature of surfaces
(b), area of contact
(c) shape of the surfaces
(d) ail of the above.
(e) (a) and (b) above.
Ans: a

104. The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these

should be
(a) coplanar
(b) meet at one point ;
(c) both (a) and (b) above
(d) all be equal
(e) something else.
Ans: c

105. If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a triangle,

these will be in
(a) non-equilibrium
(b) partial equilibrium
(c) full equilibrium
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

106. If n = number of members andy = number of joints, then for a perfect

frame, n =
(a) j-2
(b)2j-l
(c) 2/-3
(d)3/-2
(e) 2/ -4.
Ans: c

107. A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The
distance covered in 5 sec is most nearly
(a) 38 m
(b) 62.5 m
(C) 96 m
(d) 124 m
(e) 240 m.
Ans: b
108. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number
of revolutions made is nearly equal to
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 250
(e) 500.
Ans: b

109 Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner
that its distance from a fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line
multiplied by a constant greater than one
(a) ellipse
(b) hyperbola
(c) parabola
(d) circle
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

111. Which of the following is not the unit of energy

(a) kg m
(b) kcal
(c) wattr
(d) watt hours
(e) kg m x (m/sec)2.
Ans: c

112. A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in
an unknown fluid. Then which is correct statement about density of metal
(a) density of metal can’t be determined
(b) metal is twice as dense as water
(c) metal will float in water
(d) metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

113. The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius 3r

(a) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(b) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(c) at distance — from the plane base 3r
(d) at distance — from the plane base or
(e) at distance — from the plane base.
Ans: d

117. The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in the case
of a
(a) right angled triangle
(b) equilateral triangle
(c) square
(d) circle
(e) rectangle.
Ans: a

119. The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the following
distance from the base
(a) h/2
(b) J/3
(c) h/6
(d) h/4
(e) 3/i/5.
Ans: d

122. The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to
section as compared to its M.I. about horizontal axis is
(a) same
(b) double
(c) half
(d) four times
(e) one fourth.
Ans: b

126. Which of the following is the example of lever of first order

(a) arm of man
(b) pair of scissors
(c) pair of clinical tongs
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

127. A pair of smith’s tongs is an example of the lever of

(a) zeioth order
(b) first order
(c) second order
(d) third order
(e) fourth order.
Ans: c

128. In the lever of third order, load W, effort P and fulcrum F are oriented as
follows
(a) W between P and F
(b) F between W and P
(c) P between W and F
(d) W, P and F all on one side
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

129. The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body
placed on it is about to move down is known as angle of
(a) friction
(b) limiting friction
(c) repose
(d) kinematic friction
(e) static friction.
Ans: c

130. In actual machines

(a) mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
(b) mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
(c) mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(d) mechanical advantage is unity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

131. In ideal machines

(a) mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
(b) mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
(c) mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(d) mechanical advantage is unity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

132. A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal metre run will
take the following shape
(a) straight line
(b) parabola
(c) hyperbola
(d) elliptical
(e) part of a circle.
Ans: b

1. The stress necessary to initiate yielding, is considerably

 more than that necessary to stop it

 more than that necessary to continue it

 less than that necessary to continue it

 less than that necessary to stop it

2. The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying linearly varying load from zero at its
free end and to maximum at the fixed end will be a

3. The moment diagram for a cantilever which is subjected to a uniformly distributed

load will be a

4. The areas of cross-section of a square beam and a circular beam subjected to equal
bending moments, are same

 both the beams are equally strong

 both the beams are equally economical

 square beam is more economical

 circular beam is more economical

5. A cast iron T section beam is subjected to pure bending. For maximum compressive
stress to be three times the maximum tensile stress, centre of gravity of the section
from flange side is

6. Hooke’s law states that stress and strain are

7. For a beam having fixed ends, the unknown element of the reactions, is
 horizontal and vertical components at both the ends

 vertical components at either end

 horizontal components at either end

 horizontal component at one end and vertical component at the other

8. A column is said to be of medium size if its slenderness ratio is between

9. The value of Poisson’s ratio always remains

10. For a beam, if fundamental equations of statics are not sufficient to determine all
the reactive forces at the supports, the structure is said to be

 statically indeterminate

11. If the length of a cantilever carrying an isolated load at its free end is doubled, the
deflection of the free end will increase by

12. Strain energy of any member may be defined as work done on it

13. The bending moment is maximum on a section where shearing force

14. The rise of a parabolic arch at quarter points, is equal to

 3/4 times the rise of the crown

 2/3 times the rise of the crown

 1/3 times the rise of the crown

 1/2 times the rise of the crown

15. The phenomenon of slow growth of strain under a steady tensile stress, is called

16. Ties are load carrying members of a frame, which are subjected to

17. The effect of arching a beam, is

 to increase the bending moment throughout

 nothing on the bending throughout

 to reduce the bending moment throughout

18. For the same height, the bottom width for no tension

 for triangular section is more than rectangular section

 for rectangular section is more than triangular section

 for triangular section is same as that of a rectangular section

19. When two plates butt together and are riveted with two cover plates with two rows
of rivets, the joint is known as

 double riveted double cover butt joint

 single riveted single cover butt joint

20. If the depth of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre, is
doubled, the deflection of the beam at the centre will be changed by a factor of

Question 1 of 20

300+ TOP Soil Mechanics & Foundation

Engineering MCQs Pdf
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. Residual soils are formed by

a) glaciers
b) wind
c) water
d) none of the above
Ans:d
2. Water content of soil can
a) never be greater than 100 %
b) take values only from 0 % to 100 %
c) be less than 0 %
d) be greater than 100 %
Ans:d

3. Which of the following types of soil is transported by gravitational forces ?

a) loess
b) talus
c) drift
d) dune sand
Ans:b

4. A fully saturated soil is said to be

a) one phase system
b) two phase system with soil and air
c) two phase system with soil and water
d) three phase system
Ans:c

5. Valid range for S, the degree of saturation of soil in percentage is

a) S>0
b) S<0
c) 0<S<100
d) 0 < S < 100
Ans:d

SOIL MECHANICS and

FOUNDATION Engineering MCQs
6. Constant head permeameter is used to test permeability of
a) silt
b) clay
c) coarse sand
d) fine sand
Ans:c

7. A soil has a bulk density of 22 kN/m3 and water content 10 %. The dry density of soil
is
a) 18.6 kN/m3
b) 20.0 kN/m3
c) 22.0 kN/m3
d) 23.2 kN/m3
Ans:b

8. If the voids of a soil mass are full of air only, the soil is termed as
a) air entrained soil
b) partially saturated soil
c) dry soil
d) dehydrated soil
Ans:c

9. Valid range for n, the percentage voids, is

a) 0<n<100
b) 0<n<100
c) n>0
d) n<0
Ans:a

10. Select the correct statement.

a) Unit weight of dry soil is greater than unit weight of wet soil.
b) For dry soils, dry unit weight is less than total unit weight.
c) Unit weight of soil increases due to submergence in water.
d) Unit weight of soil decreases due to submergence in water.
Ans:d

11. Voids ratio of a soil mass can

a) never be greater than unity
b) be zero
c) take any value greater than zero
d) take values between 0 and 1 only
Ans:c

12. If the volume of voids is equal to the volume of solids in a soil mass, then the
values of porosity and voids ratio respectively are
a) 1.0 and 0.0
b) 0.0 and 1.0
c) 0.5 and 1.0
d) 1.0 and 0.5
Ans:c

13. When the degree of saturation is zero, the soil mass under consideration
represents
a) one phase system
b) two phase system with soil and air
c) two phase system with soil and water
d) three phase system
Ans:b

14. Select the correct range of density index,ID

a) lD>0
b) ID>0
c) 0 < lD < 1
d) 0 < ID < 1
Ans:d

15. If the degree of saturation of a partially saturated soil is 60%, then air content of the
soil is
a) 40%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 100%
Ans:a

16. If the water content of a fully saturated soil mass is 100%, then the voids ratio of
the sample is
a) less than specific gravity of soil
b) equal to specific gravity of soil
c) greater than specific gravity of soil
d) independent of specific gravity of soil
Ans:b

17. The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of soil mass is called
a) air content
b) porosity
c) percentage air voids
d) voids ratio
Ans:b

18. Relative density of a compacted dense sand is approximately equal to

a) 0.4
b) 0.6
c) 0.95
d) 1.20
Ans:c

19. If the sand in-situ is in its densest state, then the relative density of sand is
a) zero
b) 1
c) between 0 and 1
d) greater than 1
Ans:b

20. Which of the following methods is most accurate for the determination of the water
content of soil ?
a) oven drying method
b) sand bath method
c) calcium carbide method
d) pycnometer method
Ans:a

21. For proper field control, which of the following methods is best suited for quick
determination of water content of a soil mass ?
a) oven drying method
b) sand bath method
c) alcohol method
d) calcium carbide method
Ans:d

22. A pycnometer is used to determine

a) water content and voids ratio
b) specific gravity and dry density
c) water content and specific gravity
d) voids ratio and dry density
Ans:c

23. Stoke’s law is valid only if the size of particle is

a) less than 0.0002 mm
b) greater than 0.2 mm
c) between 0.2 mm and 0.0002 mm
d) all of the above
Ans:c

24. In hydrometer analysis for a soil mass

a) both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are additive
b) both meniscus correction and dispersing agent correction are subtractive
c) meniscus correction is additive and dispersing agent correction is subtractive
d) meniscus correction is subtractive and dispersing agent correction is additive
Ans:c

25. The hydrometer method of sedimentation analysis differs from the pipette analysis
mainly in
a) the principle of test
b) the method of taking observations
c) the method of preparation of soil suspension
d) all of the above
Ans:b

26. Which of the following is a measure of particle size range ?

a) effective size
b) uniformity coefficient
c) coefficient of curvature
d) none of the above
Ans:b
27. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Uniformity coefficient represents the shape of the particle size distribution curve.
b) For a well graded soil, both uniformity coefficient and coefficient of curvature are
nearly unity.
c) A soil is said to be well graded if it has most of the particles of about the same size
d) none of the above
Ans:d

28. Uniformity coefficient of a soil is

a) always less than 1
b) always equal to 1
c) equal to or less than 1
d) equal to or gi eater than 1
Ans:d

29. According to Atterberg, the soil is said to be of medium plasticity if the plasticity
index PI is
a) 0 < PI < 7
b) 7<PI< 17
c) 17<PI<27
d) PI>27
Ans:b

30. If the natural water content of soil mass lies between its liquid limit and plastic
limit, the soil mass is said to be in
a) liquid state
b) plastic state
c) semi-solid state
d) solid state
Ans:b

32. When the plastic limit of a soil is greater than the liquid limit, then the plasticity
index is reported as
a) negative
b) zero
c) non-plastic (NP)
d) 1
Ans:b
33. Toughness index is defined as the ratio of
a) plasticity index to consistency index
b) plasticity index to flow index
c) liquidity index to flow index
d) consistency index to liquidity index
Ans:b

34. If the plasticity index of a soil mass is zero, the soil is

a) sand
b) silt
c) clay
d) clayey silt
Ans:a

35. The admixture of coarser particles like sand or silt to clay causes
a) decrease in liquid limit and increase in plasticity index
b) decrease in liquid limit and no change in plasticity index
c) decrease in both liquid limit and plasticity index
d) increase in both liquid limit and plasticity index
Ans:c

36. Select the correct statement.

a) A uniform soil has more strength and stability than a non-uniform soil.
b) A uniform soil has less strength and stability than a non-uniform soil.
c) Uniformity coefficient does not affect strength and stability.
d) Uniformity coefficient of a poorly graded soil is more than that of a well graded soil.
Ans:b

38. The water content of soil, which represents the boundary between plastic state and
liquid state, is known as
a) liquid limit
b) plastic limit
c) shrinkage limit
d) plasticity index
Ans:a

39. Which of the following soils has more plasticity index ?

a) sand
b) silt
c) clay
d) gravel
Ans:c

40. At liquid limit, all soils possess

a) same shear strength of small magnitude
b) same shear strength of large magnitude
c) different shear strengths of small magnitude
d) different shear strengths of large magnitude
Ans:a

41. If the material of the base of the Casagrande liquid limit device on which the cup
containing soil paste drops is
softer than the standard hard rubber, then
a) the liquid limit of soil always increases
b) the liquid limit of soil always decreases
c) the liquid limit of soil may increase
d) the liquid limit of soil may decrease
Ans:a

42. According to IS classification, the range of silt size particles is

a) 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm
b) 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm
c) 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm
d) 0.075 mm to 0.002 mm
Ans:d

43. Highway Research Board (HRB) classification of soils is based on

a) particle size composition
b) plasticity characteristics
c) both particle size composition and plasticity characteristics
d) none of the above
Ans:c

44. Inorganic soils with low compressibility are represented by

a) MH
b) SL
c) ML
d) CH
Ans:c

45. Sand particles are made of

a) rock minerals
b) kaolinite
c) illite
d) montmorillonite
Ans:a

46. The clay mineral with the largest swelling and shrinkage characteristics is
a) kaolinite
b) illite
c) montmorillonite
d) none of the above
Ans:c

47. Dispersed type of soil structure is an arrangement comprising particles having

a) face to face or parallel orientation
b) edge to edge orientation
c) edge to face orientation
d) all of the above
Ans:a

48. Effective stress is

a) the stress at particles contact
b) a physical parameter that can be measured
c) important because it is a function of engineering properties of soil
d) all of the above
Ans:c

49. Rise of water table above the ground surface causes

a) equal increase in pore water pressure and total stress
b) equal decrease in pore water pressure and total stress
c) increase in pore water pressure but decrease in total stress
d) decrease in pore water pressure but increase in total stress
Ans:a

50. The total and effective stresses at a depth of 5 m below the top level of water in a
swimming pool are respectively
a) zero and zero
b) 0.5 kg/cm2 and zero
c) 0.5 kg/cm2 and 0.5 kg/cm2
d) 1.0 kg/cm2 and 0.5 kg/cm2
Ans:b

51. If the water table rises upto ground surface, then the
a) effective stress is reduced due to decrease in total stress only but pore water
pressure does not change
b) effective stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but total stress
does not change
c) total stress is reduced due to increase in pore water pressure only but effec-tive
stress does not change
d) total stress is increased due to de-crease in pore water pressure but effective stress
does not change
Ans:b

53. Quick sand is a

a) type of sand
b) flow condition occurring in cohesive soils
c) flow condition occurring in cohesionless soils
d) flow condition occurring in both cohesive and cohesionless soils
Ans:a

54. The hydraulic head that would produce a quick condition in a sand stratum of
thickness 1.5 m, specific gravity 2.67 and voids ratio 0.67 is equal to
a) 1.0m
b) 1.5 m
c) 2.0 m
d) 3m
Ans:b

55. Physical properties of a permeant which influence permeability are

a) viscosity only
b) unit weight only
c) both viscosity and unit weight
d) none of the above
Ans:c
56. Select the correct statement.
a) The greater the viscosity, the greater is permeability.
b) The greater the unit weight, the greater is permeability.
c) The greater the unit weight, the smaller is permeability.
d) Unit weight does not affect per-meability.
Ans:b

57. Effective stress on soil

a) increases voids ratio and decreases permeability
b) increases both voids ratio and permeability
c) decreases both voids ratio and permeability
d) decreases voids ratio and increases permeability
Ans:c

58. If the permeability of a soil is 0.8 mm/sec, the type of soil is

a) gravel
b) sand
c) silt
d) clay
Ans:b

59. Which of the following methods is more suitable for the determination of
permeability of clayey soil ?
a) constant head method
b) falling head method
c) horizontal permeability test
d) none of the above
Ans:b

60. Which of the following methods is best suited for determination of permeability of
coarse-grained soils ?
a) constant head method
b) falling head method
c) both the above
d) none of the above
Ans:a

61. Due to a rise in temperature, the viscosity and the unit weight of the percolating
fluid are reduced to 60% and 90% respectively.
If other things remain constant, the coefficient of permeability
a) increases by 25%
b) increases by 50%
c) increases by 33.3%
d) decreases by 33.3%
Ans:b

62. Coefficient of permeability of soil

a) does not depend upon temperature
b) increases with the increase in temperature
c) increases with the decrease in temperature
d) none of the above
Ans:b

63. The average coefficient of permeability of natural deposits

a) parallel to stratification is always greater than that perpendicular to stratification
b) parallel to stratification is always less than that perpendicular to stratification
c) is always same in both directions
d) parallel to stratification may or may not be greater than that perpendicular to
stratification
Ans:a

64. The total discharge from two wells situated near to each other is
a) sum of the discharges from individual wells
b) less than the sum of the discharges from individual wells
c) greater than the sum of the discharges from individual wells
d) equal to larger of the two discharges from individual wells
Ans:b

65. The flownet for an earthen dam with 30 m water depth consists of 25 potential
drops and 5 flow channels. The coefficient of permeability of dam material is 0.03
mm/sec. The discharge per meter length of dam is
a) 0.00018 nrVsec
b) 0.0045 m3/sec
c) 0.18m3/sec
d) 0.1125m3/sec
Ans:a
66. The most suitable method for drainage of fine grained cohesive soils is
a) well ppint system
b) vacuum method
c) deep well system
d) electroosmosis method
Ans:d

67. Total number of stress components at a point within a soil mass loaded at its
boundary is
a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 16
Ans:c

Soil Mechanics and Foundation Engineering Interview Questions

76. The slope of isochrone at any point at a given time indicates the rate of change of
a) effective stress with time
b) effective stress with depth
c) pore water pressure with depth
d) pore water pressure with time
Ans:c

77. Within the consolidation process of a saturated clay

a) a gradual increase in neutral pressure and a gradual decrease in effective pressure
takes place and sum of the two is constant
b) a gradual decrease in neutral pressure and a gradual increase in effective pressure
takes place and sum of the two is constant
c) both neutral pressure and effective pressure decrease
d) both neutral pressure and effective pressure increase
Ans:b

78. The value of compression index for a remoulded sample whose liquid limit is 50%
is
a) 0.028
b) 0.28
c) 036
d) 0.036
Ans:b

79. Which one of the following clays behaves like a dense sand ?
a) over-consolidated ciay with a high over-consolidation ratio
b) over-consolidated clay with a low over-consolidation ratio
c) normally consolidated clay
d) under-consolidated clay
Ans:a

80. Coefficient of consolidation of a soil is affected by

a) compressibility
b) permeability
c) both compressibility and permeability
d) none of the above
Ans:c

81. Degree of consolidation is

a) directly proportional to time and inversely proportional to drainage path
b) directly proportional to time and inversely proportional to square of drainage path
c) directly proportional to drainage path and inversely proportional to time
d) directly proportional to square of drainage path and inversely proportional to time
Ans:b

82. Time factor for a clay layer is

a) a dimensional parameter
b) directly proportional to permeability of soil
c) inversely proportional to drainage path
d) independent of thickness of clay layer
Ans:b

84. Clay layer A with single drainage and coefficient of consolidation Cv takes 6
months to achieve 50% consolidation. The time taken by clay layer B of the same
thickness with double drainage and coefficient of consolidation Cv/2 to achieve the
same degree of consolidation is
a) 3 months
b) 6 months
c) 12 months
d) 24 months
Ans:a

85. Coefficient of consolidation for clays normally

a) decreases with increase in liquid limit
b) increases with increase in liquid limit
c) first increases and then decreases with increase in liquid limit
d) remains constant at all liquid limits
Ans:a

86. Direct measurement of permeability of the specimen at any stage of loading can be
made
a) only in fixed ring type consolido-meter
b) only in floating ring type consolido-meter
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans:a

87. Compressibility of sandy soils is

a) almost equal to that of clayey soils
b) much greater than that of clayey soils
c) much less than that of clayey soils
d) none of the above
Ans:c

88. Select the correct statement.

a) coefficient of compressibility of an over-consolidated clay is less than that of a
normally consolidated clay
b) coefficient of compressibility of an over-consolidated clay is greater than that of a
normally consolidated clay
c) coefficient of compressibility is cons-tant for any clay
d) none of the above
Ans:a

89. Coefficient of compressibility is

a) constant for any type of soil
b) different for different types of soils and also different for a soil under different states
of consolidation
c) different for different types of soils but same for a soil under different states of
consolidation
d) independent of type of soil but depends on the stress history of soil
Ans:b

90. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a structure resting on a soil

a) decreases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
b) decreases with the decrease in the plastic limit
c) increases with the increase in the initial voids ratio
d) increases with the decrease in the porosity of the soil
Ans:a

91. The ultimate consolidation settlement of a soil is

a) directly proportional to the voids ratio
b) directly proportional to the compression index
c) inversely proportional to the compression index
d) none of the above
Ans:b

92. A normally consolidated clay settled 10 mm when effective stress was increased
from 100 kN/m2 to 200 kN/ m2. If the effective stress is further increased from 200
kN/ m2 to 400 kN/ m2, then the settlement of the same clay is
a) 10 mm
b) 20 mm
c) 40 mm
d) none of the above
Ans:a

93. Coarse grained soils are best compacted by a

a) drum roller
b) rubber tyred roller
c) sheep’s foot roller
d) vibratory roller
Ans:d

94. With the increase in the amount of compaction energy

a) optimum water content increases but maximum dry density decreases
b) optimum water content decreases but maximum dry density increases
c) both optimum water content and maximum dry density increase
d) both optimum water content and maximum dry density decrease[ES 93]
Ans:b

95. The maximum dry density upto which any soil can be compacted depends upon
a) moisture content only
b) amount of compaction energy only
c) both moisture content and amount of compaction energy
d) none of the above
Ans:c

97. For better strength and stability, the fine grained soils and coarse grained soils are
compacted respectively as
a) dry of OMC and wet of OMC
b) wet of OMC and dry of OMC
c) wet of OMC and wet of OMC
d) dry of OMC and dry of OMC where OMC is optimum moisture content
Ans:b

98. Select the incorrect statement.

a) Effective cohesion of a soil can never have a negative value.
b) Effective angle of internal friction for coarse grained soils is rarely below 30°.
c) Effective angle of internal friction for a soil increases as state of compact-ness
increases.
d) Effective angle of internal friction is a complicated function of mineralogy and clay
size content.
Ans:a

99. For a loose sand sample and a dense sand sample consolidated to the same
effective stress
a) ultimate strength is same and also peak strength is same
b) ultimate strength is different but peak strength is same
c) ultimate strength is same but peak strength of dense sand is greater than that of
loose sand
d) ultimate strength is same but peak
Ans:c

100. The shear strength of a soil

a) is directly proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
b) is inversely proportional to the angle of internal friction of the soil
c) decreases with increase in normal stress
d) decreases with decrease in normal stress
Ans:d

101. In a consolidated drained test on a normally consolidated clay, the volume of the
soil sample during shear
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains unchanged
d) first increases and then decreases
Ans:a

102. Skempton’s pore pressure coefficient B for saturated soil is

a) 1
b) zero
c) between 0 and 1
d) greater than 1 [CS 95]
Ans:a

103. Shear strength of a soil is a unique function of

a) effective stress only
b) total stress only
c) both effective stress and total stress
d) none of the above
Ans:a

104. In a deposit of normally consolidated clay

a) effective stress increases with depth but water content of soil and un-drained
strength decrease with depth
b) effective stress and water content increase with depth but undrained strength
decreases with depth
c) effective stress and undrained strength increase with depth but water content
decreases with depth
d) effective stress, water content and undrained strength decrease with depth
Ans:c

105. Select the incorrect statement.

Effective angle of shearing resistance
a) increases as the size of particles increases
b) increases as the soil gradation im-proves
c) is limited to a maximum value of 45°
d) is rarely more than 30° for fine grained soil
Ans:c

106. Unconfmed compressive strength test is

a) undrained test
b) drained test
c) consolidated undrained test
d) consolidated drained test
Ans:a

107. A cylindrical specimen of saturated soil failed under an axial vertical stress of
100kN/m2 when it was laterally unconfmed. The failure plane was inclined to the
horizontal plane at an angle of 45°.
The values of cohesion and angle of internal friction for the soil are respectively
a) 0.5 N/mm2 and 30°
b) 0.05 N/mm2 and 0°
c) 0.2 N/mm2 and 0°
d) 0.05 N/mm2 and 45°
Ans:b

109. The angle that Coulomb’s failure envelope makes with the horizontal is called
a) cohesion
b) angle of internal friction
c) angle of repose
d) none of the above
Ans:a

111. If a cohesive soil specimen is subjected to a vertical compressive load, the

inclination of the cracks to the horizontal is
a) 90°
b) 45°
c) 22.5°
d) 0°
Ans:b

112. Select the incorrect statement.

a) In a direct shear box test, the plane of shear failure is predetermined.
b) Better control is achieved on the drainage of the soil in a triaxial compression test.
c) Stress distribution on the failure plane in the case of triaxial compression test is
uniform.
d) Unconfined compression test can be carried out on all types of soils.
Ans:d

113. If the shearing stress is zero on two planes, then the angle between the two
planes is
a) 45°
b) 90°
c) 135°
d) 225°
Ans:b

114. In the triaxial compression test, the application of additional axial stress (i.e.
deviator stress) on the soil specimen produces shear stress on
a) horizontal plane only
b) vertical plane only
c) both horizontal and vertical planes
d) all planes except horizontal and vertical planes
Ans:d

116. In a triaxial compression test when drainage is allowed during the first stage (i. e.
application of cell pressure) only and not during the second stage (i.e. application of
deviator stress at constant cell pressure), the test is known as
a) consolidated drained test
b) consolidated undrained test
c) unconsolidated drained test
d) unconsolidated undrained test
Ans:b

120. During the first stage of triaxial test when the cell pressure is increased from 0.10
N/mm2 to 0.26 N/mm2, the pore water pressure increases from 0.07 N/mm2 to 0.15
“N/mm2. Skempton’s pore pressure parameter B is
a) 0.5
b) -0.5
c) 2.0
d) – 2.0
Ans:a
121. Sensitivity of a soil can be defined as
a) percentage of volume change of soil under saturated condition
b) ratio of compressive strength of unconfined undisturbed soil to that of soil in a
remoulded state
c) ratio of volume of voids to volume of solids
d) none of the above
Ans:b

122. Rankine’s theory of earth pressure assumes that the back of the wall is
a) plane and smooth
b) plane and rough
c) vertical and smooth
d) vertical and rough
Ans:c

123. The coefficient of active earth pressure for a loose sand having an angle of
internal friction of 30° is
a) 1/3
b) 3
c) 1
d) 1/2
Ans:a

124. The major principal stress in an element of cohesionless soil within the backfill of
a retaining wall is
a) vertical if the soil is in an active state of plastic equilibrium
b) vertical if the soil is in a passive state of plastic equilibrium
c) inclined at 45° to the vertical plane
d) none of the above
Ans:a

126. The effect of cohesion on a soil is to

a) reduce both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
b) increase both the active earth pressure intensity and passive earth pressure intensity
c) reduce the active earth pressure in-tensity but to increase the passive earth pressure
intensity
d) increase the active earth pressure in-tensity but to reduce the passive earth pressure
intensity [GATE 99]
Ans:c
127. A retaining wall 6m high supports a backfill with a surcharge angle of 10°. The
back of the wall is inclined to the vertical at a positive batter angle of 5°. If the angle of
wall friction is 7°, then the resultant active earth pressure will act at a distance of 2 m
above the base and inclined to the horizontal at an angle of
a) 7°
b) 10°
c) 12°
d) 17°
Ans:c

128. Coefficient of earth pressure at rest is

a) less than active earth pressure but greater than passive earth pressure
b) greater than active earth pressure but less than passive earth pressure
c) greater than both the active earth pressure and passive earth pressure
d) less than both the active and passive earth pressures
Ans:b

137. Bishop’s method of stability analysis

a) is more conservative
b) neglects the effect of forces acting on the sides of the slices
c) assumes the slip surface as an arc of a circle
d) all of the above
Ans:c

138. Allowable bearing pressure for a foundation depends upon

a) allowable settlement only
b) ultimate bearing capacity of soil only
c) both allowable settlement and ultimate bearing capacity
d) none of above
Ans:c

142. The rise of water table below the foundation influences the bearing capacity of
soil mainly by reducing
a) cohesion and effective angle of shearing resistance
b) cohesion and effective unit weight of soil
c) effective unit weight of soil and effective angle of shearing resistance
d) effective angle of shearing resistance
Ans:b
143. Terzaghi’s general bearing capacity formula for a strip footing
(C Nc + y D Nq + 0.5 Y NTB) gives
a) safe bearing capacity
b) net safe bearing capacity
c) ultimate bearing capacity
d) net ultimate bearing capacity where C = unit cohesion
Y =unit weight of soil D = depth of foundation B = width of foundation N„ Nq, NY =
bearing capacity factors
Ans:c

144. Terzaghi’s bearing capacity factors Nc, Nq and Nr are functions of

a) cohesion only
b) angle of internal friction only
c) both cohesion and angle of internal friction
d) none of the above
Ans:b

145. In the plate loading test for determining the bearing capacity of soil, the size of
square bearing plate should be
a) less than 300 mm
b) between 300 mm and 750 mm
c) between 750 mm and 1 m
d) greater than 1 m
Ans:b

146. Select the incorrect statement.

a) Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon the amount and direction of load.
b) Bearing capacity of a soil depends on the type of soil.
c) Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon shape and size of footing.
d) Bearing capacity of a soil is indepen-dent of rate of loading.
Ans:a

147. A 600 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in plate load test on a

cohesionless soil under an intensity of loading of 0.2 N/ram2. The settlement of a
prototype shallow footing 1 m square under the same intensity of loading is
a) 15 mm
b) between 15 mm and 25 mm
c) 25 mm
d) greater than 25 mm
Ans:b

148. A 300 mm square bearing plate settles by 15 mm in a plate load test on a

cohesive soil when the intensity of loading is 0.2 N/mm2. The settlement of a
prototype shallow footing 1 m square under the same intensity of loading is
a) 15 mm
b) 30 mm
c) 50 mm
d) 167 mm
Ans:c

149. Rise of water table in cohesionless soils upto ground surface reduces the net
ultimate bearing capacity approximately by
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 90%
Ans:b

150. Contact pressure beneath a rigid footing resting on cohesive soil is

a) less at edges compared to middle
b) more at edges compared to middle
c) uniform throughout
d) none of the above
Ans:b

SOIL 

400 TOP Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics Objective Questions

and Answers
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. Fluid is a substance that

(a) cannot be subjected to shear forces
(b) always expands until it fills any container
(c) has the same shear stress.at a point regardless of its motion
(d) cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
(e) flows.
Ans: d

2. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of

(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) shape
(d) volume
(e) temperature.
Ans: c

3. Practical fluids
(a) are viscous
(b) possess surface tension
(c) are compressible
(d) possess all the above properties
(e) possess none of the above properties.
Ans: d

4. In a static fluid
(a) resistance to shear stress is small
(b) fluid pressure is zero
(c) linear deformation is small
(d) only normal stresses can exist
(e) viscosity is nil.
Ans: d

5. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is

(a) incompressible
(b) inviscous
(c) viscous and incompressible
(d) inviscous and compressible
(e) inviscous and incompressible.
Ans: e
6. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfill the following
(a) Newton’s law of motion
(b) Newton’s law of viscosity
(c) Pascal’ law
(d) Continuity equation
(e) Boundary layer theory.
Ans: d

7. If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance is

known as
(a) fluid
(b) water
(c) gas
(d) perfect solid
(e) ideal fluid.
Ans: e

8. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is known as

(a) volumetric strain
(b) volumetric index
(c) compressibility
(d) adhesion
(e) cohesion.
Ans: c

9. Liquids
(a) cannot be compressed
(b) occupy definite volume
(c) are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
(GO are not viscous
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

10. Density of water is maximum at

(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C
(d) 100°C
(e) 20°C.
Ans: c

HYDRAULICS & FLUID MECHANICS MCQs

11. For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to

prototype, the following in both cases should also be equal
(a) ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
(b) ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
(c) ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
(d) all the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation,
surface tension, and elasticity
Ans: d

12. The value of mass density in kgsecVm4 for water at 0°C is

(a) 1
(b) 1000
(c) 100
(d) 101.9
(e) 91
Ans: d

14. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
Ans: b

15. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.
Ans: c

16. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known
as
(a) compressibility
(b) surface tension
(c) cohesion
(d) adhesion
(e) viscosity.
Ans: c

17. Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids are

attracted to each other is called
(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) viscosity
(d) compressibility
(e) surface tension.
Ans: a

18. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m”

(a) at norma] pressure of 760 mm
(b) at 4°C temperature
(c) at mean sea level
(d) all the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

19. Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal to

(a) 1000 N/m3
(b) 10000 N/m3
(c) 9.81 xlO3 N/m3
(d) 9.81 xlO6N/m3
(e) 9.81 N/m3.
Ans: c

20. When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at every
point, then flow is said to be
(a) quasi static
(b) steady state
(c) laminar
(d) uniform
(e) static.
Ans: d

21. Which of the following is demensionless

(a) specific weight
(b) specific volume
(c) specific speed
(d) specific gravity
(e) specific viscosity.
Ans: d

22. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a point
only if
(a) it is incompressible
(b) it has uniform viscosity
(c) it has zero viscosity
(d) it is frictionless
(e) it is at rest.
Ans: e

23. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the directions
when the fluid is
(a) moving
(b) viscous
(c) viscous and static
(d) inviscous and moving
(e) viscous and moving.
Ans: e

24. An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81kg on a spring balance. The

value of ‘g’ at this place is
(a) 10m/sec2
(b) 9.81 m/sec2
(c) 10.2/m sec
(d) 9.75 m/sec2
(e) 9 m/sec .
Ans: a

25. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following

property
(a) cohesion
(b) adhesion
(c) viscosity
(d) surface tension
(e) elasticity.
Ans: d

26. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that

of water is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) more or less depending on size of glass tube
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

27. A perfect gas

(a) has constant viscosity
(b) has zero viscosity
(c) is incompressible
(d) is of theoretical interest
(e) none of the above.
Ans: e

32. For very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and liquids
(a) remains same
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) shows erratic behaviour
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

33. A fluid in equilibrium can’t sustain

(a) tensile stress
(b) compressive stress
(c) shear stress
(d) bending stress
(e) all of the above.
Ans: c

34. Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is

(a) higher
(b) lower
(c) same
(d) higher/lower depending on temperature
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

35. The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) increases first upto certain limit and then decreases
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: a

36. The bulk modulus of elasticity

(a) has the dimensions of 1/pressure
(b) increases with pressure
(c) is large when fluid is more compressible
(d) is independent of pressure and viscosity
(e) is directly proportional to flow.
Ans: b

37. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle

(a) law of gravitation
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) principle of buoyancy
(d) all of the above
(e) continuity equation.
Ans: d
38. The value of the coefficient of compressibility for water at ordinary
pressure and temperature in kg/cm is equal to
(a) 1000
(b) 2100
(c) 2700
(d) 10,000
(e) 21,000.
Ans: e

39. The increase of temperature results in

(a) increase in viscosity of gas
(b) increase in viscosity of liquid
(c) decrease in viscosity of gas
(d) decrease in viscosity of liquid
(e) (a) and (d) above.
Ans: d

40. Surface tension has the units of

(a) newtons/m
(b) newtons/m
(c) new tons/m
(d) newtons
(e) newton m.
Ans: c

41. Surface tension

(a) acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface
(b) is also known as capillarity
(c) is a function of the curvature of the interface
(d) decreases with fall in temperature
(e) has no units.
Ans: a

42. The stress-strain relation of the newtoneon fluid is

(a) linear
(b) parabolic
(c) hyperbolic
(d) inverse type
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

43. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm2

and a volume of 0.039 m3 at 150 kg/cm2. The bulk modulus of elasticity of
liquid is
(a) 400 kg/cm2
(b) 4000 kg/cm2
(c) 40 x 105 kg/cm2
(d) 40 x 106 kg/cm2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

44. The units of viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/metre
(c) newton-sec per metre2
(d) newton-sec per metre
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

45. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon

(a) pressure
(b) distance
(c) level
(d) flow
(e) density.
Ans: e

46. Units of surface tension are

(a) energy/unit area
(b) distance
(c) both of the above
(d) it has no units
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

47. Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity

(a) Red wood
(b) Say bolt
(c) Engler
(d) Orsat
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

48. Choose the correct relationship

(a) specific gravity = gravity x density
(b) dynamicviscosity = kinematicviscosity x density
(c) gravity = specific gravity x density
(d) kinematicviscosity = dynamicviscosity x density
(e) hydrostaticforce = surface tension x gravity.
Ans: b

49. Dimensions of surface tension are

(a) MlL°T2
(b) MlL°Tx
(c) MlL r2
(d) MlL2T2
(e) MlL°t.
Ans: a

50. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having

(a) higher surface tension
(b) lower surface tension
(c) surface tension is no criterion
(d) high density and viscosity
(e) low density and viscosity.
Ans: a

51. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75 cm of

mercury will be following cm of water
(a) 51 cm
(b) 50 cm
(c) 52 cm
(d) 52.2 cm
(e) 51.7 cm.
Ans: a
52. Choose the wrong statement.
Alcohol is used in manometer, because
(a) its vapour pressure is low
(b) it provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
(c) its density is less
(d) it provides longer length for a given pressure difference
(e) it provides accurate readings.
Ans: a

53. Increase in pressure at the outer edge of a drum of radius R due to

rotation at corad/sec, full of liquid of density p will be
(a) pco2/?2
(b) pco2/?2/2
(c) 2pa2R2
(d) pa2R/2
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

54. The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is

called
(a) surface tension
(b) adhesion
(c) cohesion
(d) viscosity
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

55. Choose the wrong statement

(a) fluids are capable of flowing
(b) fluids conform to the shape of the con-taining vessels
(c) when in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain tangential forces
(d) when in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
(e) fluids have some degree of compressibility and offer little resistance to
form.
Ans: d

56. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at

(a) 0°C
(b) 0°K
(c) 4°C (d) 20°C
(e) all temperature.
Ans: c

57. If w is the specific weight of liquid and k the depth of any point from the
surface, then pressure intensity at that point will be
(a) h
(b) wh
(c) w/h
(d) h/w
(e) h/wh.
Ans: b

5 Choose the wrong statement

(a) Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount of its
resistance to a shearing force
(b) Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules
(c) Viscosity of liquids decreases with in-crease in temperature
(d) Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by change in pressure
(e) Viscosity is expressed as poise, stoke, or saybolt seconds.
Ans: d

59. The units of kinematic viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/meter
(c) newton-sec per meter
(d) newton-sec per meter
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

60. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as

(a) specific viscosity
(b) viscosity index
(c) kinematic viscosity
(d) coefficient of viscosity
(e) coefficient of compressibility.
Ans: c
61. Kinematic viscosity is equal to
(a) dynamic viscosity/density
(b) dynamicviscosity x density
(c) density/dynamic viscosity
(d) 1/dynamicviscosity x density
(e) same as dynamic viscosity.
Ans: a

62. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity

(a) pascal
(b) poise
(c) stoke
(d) faraday
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

63. A one dimensional flow is one which

(a) is uniform flow
(b) is steady uniform flow
(c) takes place in straight lines
(d) involves zero transverse component of flow
(e) takes place in one dimension.
Ans: d

64. Alcohol is used in manometers because

(a) it has low vapour pressure
(b) it is clearly visible
(c) it has low surface tension
(d) it can provide longer column due to low density
(e) is provides suitable meniscus.
Ans: d

65. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to

(a) 25 kN/m2
(b) 245 kN/m2
(c) 2500 kN/m2
(d) 2.5kN/m2
(e) 12.5 kN/m2.
Ans: b
66. Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it
contains
(a) dissolved air
(b) dissolved salt
(c) suspended matter
(d) all of the above
(e) heavy water.
Ans: d

67. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85
represents its
(a) specific weight
(b) specific mass
(c) specific gravity
(d) specific density
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

69. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible area
due to force of
(a) surface tension
(b) viscosity
(c) friction
(d) cohesion
(e) adhesion.
Ans: a

70. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece is

suspended into water without touching sides of bucket from another support.
The spring balance reading will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain same
(d) increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

71. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of

(a) adhesion
(b) cohesion
(c) surface tension
(d) viscosity
(e) compressibility.
Ans: c

72. A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as compared to cohesion
forces are
(a) less
(b) more
(c) equal
(d) less at low temperature and more at high temperature
(e) there is no such criterion.
Ans: b

73. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion

between fluid and glass, then the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will
be
(a) higher than the surface of liquid
(b) the same as the surface of liquid
(c) lower than the surface of liquid
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

74. The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of
the liquid may be taken to act is known as
(a) meta center
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) center of gravity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

75. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1 m with
its top 2 m surface being 0.5 m below the water level will be
(a) 500 kg
(b) 1000 kg
(c) 1500 kg
(d) 2000 kg
(e) 4000 kg.
Ans: d

76. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is equal to the
weight of the fluid displaced by the body. This definition is according to
(a) Buoyancy
(b) Equilibrium of a floating body
(c) Archimedes’ principle
(d) Bernoulli’s theorem
(e) Metacentric principle.
Ans: c

77. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
(a) upthrust
(b) buoyancy
(c) center of pressure
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of above is correct.
Ans: b

78. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a floating body are
(a) the meta-center should lie above the center of gravity
(b) the center of buoyancy and the center of gravity must lie on the same
vertical line
(c) a righting couple should be formed
(d) all the above are correct
(e) none of the above is correct.
Ans: d

79. Poise is the unit of

(a) surface tension
(b) capillarity
(c) viscosity
(d) shear stress in fluids
(e) buoyancy.
Ans: c
80. Metacentric height is given as the distance between
(a) the center of gravity of the body andthe meta center
(b) the center of gravity of the body and the center of buoyancy
(c) the center of gravity of the body and the center of pressure
(d) center of buoyancy and metacentre
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

81. The buoyancy depends on

(a) mass of liquid displaced
(b) viscosity of the liquid
(c) pressure of the liquid displaced
(d) depth of immersion
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

82. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an

immersed body is called
(a) meta-center
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) center of gravity
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

83. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of specific

gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is under mercury?
(a) the metal piece will simply float over the mercury
(b) the metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
(c) whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just at
mercury level
(d) metal piece will sink to the bottom
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

84. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon

(a) the nature of the liquid and the solid
(b) the material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
(c) both of die above
(d) any one of the above
(e) none of die above.
Ans: c

85. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract to
smallest possible area due to the
(a) force of adhesion
(b) force of cohesion
(c) force of friction
(d) force of diffusion
(e) none of die above.
Ans: b

86. Rain drops are spherical because of

(a) viscosity
(b) air resistance
(c) surface tension forces
(d) atmospheric pressure
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

87. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to ..

(a) atmospheric pressure
(b) surface tension
(c) force of adhesion
(d) force of cohesion
(e) viscosity.
Ans: b

88. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore containing
water is ap-proximately
(a) 1 mm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 20 mm
(e) 30 mm.
Ans: e
89. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a liquid
drop is
(a)p = Txr
(b)p = T/r
(c) p = T/2r
(d)p = 2T/r
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

90. If the surface of liquid is convex, men

(a) cohesion pressure is negligible
(b) cohesion pressure is decreased
(c) cohesion pressure is increased
(d) there is no cohesion pressure
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

91. To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge is laid
such that it is not more than
(a) 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(b) 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(c) 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
(d) 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

92. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a syphon, an air vessel is provided

(a) at the inlet
(b) at the outlet
(c) at the summit
(d) ay nay point between inlet and outlet
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

93. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is

(a) less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(b) equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(c) greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(d) zero
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

94. The peoperty by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between
its different layers is called
(a) surface tension
(b) co-efficient of viscosity
(c) viscosity
(d) osmosis
(e) cohesion.
Ans: c

95. The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a semi-
permeable membrane is called
(a) viscosity
(b) osmosis
(c) surface tension
(d) cohesion
(e) diffusivity.
Ans: b

96. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are

(a) metres2 per sec
(b) kg sec/meter
(c) newton-sec per meter
(d) newton-sec2 per meter
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

97. The continuity equation is connected with

(a) viscous/unviscous fluids
(b) compressibility of fluids
(c) conservation of mass
(d) steady/unsteady flow
(e) open channel/pipe flow.
Ans: c

99. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tension wim
increase in size of tube will
(a) increase
(b) remain unaffected
(c) may increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
(d) decrease
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d

100. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is according
to
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Archimedes principle
(c) Pascal’s law
(d) Newton’s formula
(e) Chezy’s equation.
Ans: c

Hydraulics and Fluid Mechanics Interview Questions

101. Capillary action is due to the

(a) surface tension
(b) cohesion of the liquid
(c) adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface of a
solid
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

102. Newton’s law of viscosity is a relationship between

(a) shear stress anctthejiate of angular distortion
(b) shear stress and viscosity
(c) shear stress, velocity and viscosity
(d) pressure, velocity and viscosity
(e) shear stress, pressure and rate of angular distortion.
Ans: a

103. The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases

(a) linearly
(b) first slowly and then steeply
(c) first steeply and then gradually
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

105. Pressure of the order of 10″‘ torr can be measured by

(a) Bourdon tube
(b) Pirani Gauge
(c) micro-manometer
(d) ionisastion gauge
(e) McLeod gauge.
Ans: d

106. Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement is

based on the principle of
(a) gas law
(b) Boyle’s law
(c) Charle’s law
(d) Pascal’s law
(e) McLeod’s law.
Ans: b

107. An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 m3 volume
will be completely submerged in a fluid having specific gravity of
(a) 1
(b) 1.2
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.75
(e) 1.25.
Ans: d

108. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure

(a) decreases linearly with elevation
(b) remains constant
(c) varies in the same way as the density
(d) increases exponentially with elevation
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
109. Mercury is often used in barometer because
(a) it is the best liquid
(b) the height of barometer will be less
(c) its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
(d) both (b) and (c)
(e) it moves easily.
Ans: d

110. Barometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) rain level.
Ans: b

111. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of a
submarine moving in deep sea
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) hot wire anemometer
(d) rotameter
(e) pitot tube.
Ans: e

112. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring speed of
an aeroplane
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) hot wire anemometer
(d) rotameter
(e) pitot tube.
Ans: e

113. Piezometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipe, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressures
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) flow.
Ans: c

114. Which of the following instruments is used to measure flow on the

application of Bernoulli’s theorem
(a) Venturimeter
(b) Orifice plate
(c) nozzle
(d) pitot tube
(e) all of the above.
Ans: e

116. The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies directly as its

(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) modulus of elasticity
(e) absolute temperature,
Ans: e

119. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(a) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

120. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in temperature

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains unaffected
(d) unpredictable
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

121. A metal with specific gravity of o floating in a fluid of same specific

gravity a will
(a) sink to bottom
(b) float over fluid
(c) partly immersed
(d) be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

123. Euler’s dimensionless number relates the following

(a) inertial force and gravity
(b) viscous force and inertial force
(c) viscous force and buoyancy force
(d) pressure force and inertial force
(e) pressure force and viscous force.
Ans: d

124 Manometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) velocity.
Ans: a

129. Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity

(a) U-tube with water
(b) inclined U-tube
(c) U-tube with mercury
(d) micro-manometer with water
(e) displacement type.
Ans: d

130. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is usually

inclined by angle 9. Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of U-tube is
equal to
(a) sin 9
(b) sin 9
(c) casS
(d) cos 9
(e) tan 9.
Ans: b
131. Working principle of dead weight pressure gauge tester is based on
(a) Pascal’s law
(b) Dalton’s law of partial pressure
(c) Newton’s law of viscosity .
(d) Avogadro’s hypothesis
(e) Second law of thermodynamic.
Ans: a

132. The resultant of all normal pressures acts

(a) at e.g. of body
(b) at center of pressure
(c) vertically upwards
(d) at metacentre
(e) vertically downwards.
Ans: c

133. Centre of pressure compared to e.g. is

(a) above it
(b) below it.
(c) at same point
(d) above or below depending on area of body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

134. Metacentric height is the distance between the metacentre and

(a) water surface
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of gravity
(d) center of buoyancy
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

135.. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body due to
its tendency to uplift the sub-merged body is called
(a) upthrust
(b) reaction
(c) buoyancy
(d) metacentre
(e) center of pressure.
Ans: c

136. The center of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid pressure is the

point
(a) on the surface at which resultant pres-sure acts
(b) on the surface at which gravitational force acis
(c) at which all hydraulic forces meet
(d) similar to metacentre
(e) where pressure equivalent to hydraulic thrust will act.
Ans: a

137. Buoyant force is

(a) the resultant force acting on a floating body
(b) the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
(c) equal to the volume of liquid dis-placed
(d) the force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a submerged body
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

138. The horizontal component of buoyant force is

(a) negligible
(b) same as buoyant force
(c) zero
Ans: c

140. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
(a) centroid of the volume of fluid vertically above the body
(b) center of the volume of floating body
(c) center of gravity of any submerged body
(d) centriod of the displaced volume of fluid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

141. Center of buoyancy is the

(a) centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
(b) center of pressure of displaced volume
(c) e.g. of floating ‘body
(d) does not exist
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

142. A body floats in stable equilibrium

(a) when its meatcentric height is zero
(b) when the metancentre is above e.g.
(c) when its e.g. is below it’s center of buoyancy
(d) metacentre has nothing to do with position of e.g. for determining stability
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

l43. A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when submerged
in water. Its specific gravity is
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 6
Ans: d

151. The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied
by the intensity of pressure at the centriod, if
(a) the area is horizontal
(b) the area is vertical
(c) the area is inclined
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

152. A square surface 3 m x 3 m lies in a vertical line in water pipe its upper
edge at vater surface. The hydrostatic force on square surface is
(a) 9,000 kg
(b) 13,500 kg
(c) 18,000 kg
(d) 27,000 kg
(e) 30,000 kg.
Ans: b

153. The depth of the center of pressure on a vertical rectangular gate 8 m

wide and 6 m high, when the water surface coincides with the top of the gate,
is
(a) 2.4 m
(b) 3.0 m
(c) 4.0 m
(d)”2.5 m
(e) 5.0 m.
Ans: b

154. If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is
0.2 kg/cm”, the pressure at a depth of 50 m below the oil surface will be
(a) 2 meters of water column
(b) 3 meters of water column
(c) 5 meters of water column
(d) 6 meters of water Column
(e) 7 meters of water column.
Ans: d

155. Metacentre is the point of intersection of

(a) vertical upward force through e.g. of body and center line of body
(b) buoyant force and the center line of body
(c) mid point between e.g. and center of buoyancy
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

156. Choose the wrong statement

(a) The horizontal component of the hydro-static force on any surface is equal
to the normal force on the vertical projection of the surface
(b) The horizontal component acts through the center of pressure for the
vertical projection
(c) The vertical component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is equal to
the weight of the volume of the liquid above the area
(d) he vertical component passes through the center of pressure of the
volume
(e) Center of pressure acts at a greater depth than center of gravity.
Ans: d

157. For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid
acts at
(a) bottom surface of the body
(b) e.g. of the body
(c) metacentre
(d) all points on the surface of the body
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

158. Choose the wrong statement

(a) any weight, floating or immersed in a liquid, is acted upon by a buoyant
force
(p) Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
(c) The point through which buoyant force acts, is called the center of
buoyancy
(d) Center of buoyancy is located above the center of gravity of the displaced
liquid v
(e) Relative density of liquids can be determined by means of the depth of
flotation of hydrometer.
Ans: d

159. According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially

immersed in a fluid will be lifted up by a force equal to
(a) the weight of the body
(b) more than the weight of the body
(c) less than the weight of the body
(d) weight of the fluid displaced by the body
(e) weight of body plus the weight of the fluid displaced hy the body.
Ans: d

160. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates about

(a) e.g. of body
(b) center of pressure
(c) center of buoyancy
(d) metacentre
(e) liquid surface.
Ans: d

161. Buoyant force is

(a) resultant force acting on a floating body
(b) equal to the volume of liquid displaced
(c) force necessary to keep a body in equilibrium
(d) the resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

l62. Ratio of inertia force to surface Jension is known as

(a) Mach number
(b) Froude number
(c) Reynold’s number
(d) Weber’s number
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

163. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For dynamic
similarity, at what velocity should a 1:25 model be towed through water ?
(a) 10 m/sec
(b) 25 m/sec
(c) 2 m/sec
(d) 50 m/sec
(e) 250 m/sec.
Ans: c

164. A model of a reservior is drained in 4 mts by opening the sluice gate.

The model scale is 1: 225. How long should it take to empty the prototype ?
(a) 900 minutes
(b) 4 minutes
(c) 4 x (225)3/2 minutes
(d) 4 (225)1/3 minutes
(e) 4 x V225 minutes.
Ans: e

165. A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity of 25 m/sec.

The prototype is expected to attain a velocity of 5 m/sec. What model scale
has been used ?
(a) 1 : 5
(b) 1 : 2.5
(c) 1 :25
(d) 1:V5″
(e) 1 : 53/2
Ans: a

166. Ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known as

(a) Mach number
(b) Froude number
(c) Reynold’s number
(d) Weber’s number
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

167. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its metacentre should be

(a) below the center of gravity
(b) below the center of buoyancy
(c) above the center of buoyancy
(d) between e.g. and center of pressure
(e) above the center of gravity.
Ans: e

168. For a floating body to be in equilibrium

(a) meta center should be above e.g.
(b) center of buoyancy and e.g. must lie on same vertical plane
(c) a righting couple should be formed
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

169. The two important forces for a floating body are

(a) buoyancy, gravity
(b) buoyancy, pressure
(c) buoyancy, inertial
(d) inertial, gravity
(e) gravity, pressure.
Ans: a

170. Choose the wrong statement

(a) The center of buoyancy is located at the center of gravity of the displaced
liquid
(b) For stability of a submerged body, the center of gravity of body must lie
directly below the center of buoyancy
(c) If e.g. and center of buoyancy coincide, the submerged body must lie at
neutral equilibrium for all positions
(d) For stability of floating cylinders or spheres, the e.g. of body must lie below
the center of buoyancy
(e) All floating bodies are stable.
Ans: e

171. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is

(a) at the centroid
(b) above the centroid
(c) below the centroid
(d) at metacentre
(e) at center of pressure.
Ans: c

172. An open vessel of water is accelerated up an inclined plane. The free

water surface will
(a) be horizontal
(b) make an angle in direction of inclination of inclined plane
(c) make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined plane
(d) any one of above is possible
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

173. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the centroid of the
(a) submerged body
(b) volume of the floating body
(c) volume of the fluid vertically above the body
(d) displaced volume of the fluid
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

174. Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of an immersed body acts
through
(a) center of gravity
(b) center of pressure
(c) metacentre
(d) center of buoyancy
(e) in between e.g. and center of pressure.
Ans: b

175. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an

immersed body is called
(a) center of gravity
(b) center of pressure
(c) metacentre
(d) center of buoyancy
(e) centroid.
Ans: d

176. Differential monometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(b) atmospheric pressure
(c) very low pressure
(d) difference of pressure between two points
(e) velocity in pipes
Ans: d

177. The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp. gr. 0.8) surface in a tank
is 0.1 kg/cm”.
The pressure at 2.5 m below the oil surface will be
(a) 2 meters of water column
(b) 3 meters of water column
(c) 3.5 meters of water column
(d) 4 m of water column
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

178. The time oscillation of a floating body with increase in metacentric

height will be
(a) same
(b) higher
(c) lower
(d) lower/higher depending on weight of body
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c
179. In an immersed body, center of pressure is
(a) at the center of gravity
(b) above the center of gravity
(c) below be center of gravity
(d) could be above or below e.g. depending on density of body and liquid
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

180. The normal stress is same in all directions at a point in a fluid

(a) only when the fluid is frictionless
(b) only when the fluid is incompressible and has zero viscosity
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(d) irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(e) in case of an ideal fluid.
Ans: c

181. Select the correct statement

(a) Local atmospheric pressure depends upon elevation of locality only
(b) Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local atmospheric pressure a*
sea level
(c) Local atmospheric pressure is always below standard atmospheric
pressure
(d) A barometer reads the difference be-tween local and standard
atmospheric pressure
(e) Gauge piessure is equal to atmospheric pressure plus instrument reading.
Ans: b

184. For measuring flow by a venturimeter, if should be installed in

(a) vertical line
(b) horizontal line
(c) inclined line with flow downward
(d) inclined line with upward flow
(e) in any direction and in any location.
Ans: e

185. Total pressure on a lmxlm gate immersed vertically at a depth of 2 m

below the free water surface will be
(a) 1000 kg
(b) 4000 kg
(c) 2000 kg
(d) 8000 kg
(e) 16000 kg.
Ans: a

186. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure

(a) pressure in gases
(b) liquid discharge
(c) pressure in liquids
(d) gas velocities
(e) temperature.
Ans: d

187. Rotameter is a device used to measure

(a) absolute pressure
(b) velocity of fluid
(c) flow
(d) rotation
(e) velocity of air.
Ans: c

18 Flow of water in a pipe about 3 meters in diameter can be measured by

(a) orifice plate
(b) venturi
(c) rotameter
(d) pitot tube
(e) nozzle
Ans: d

189. True one-dimensional flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the veiocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-
cessive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to
point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-
terns are identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: a
190. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
(a) Pascal law
(b) Newton’s law of viscosity
(c) boundary layer theory
(d) continuity equation
(e) Bernoulli’s theorem.
Ans: d

191. In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of any fluid particle
is
(a) constant
(b) variable
(c) zero
(d) zero under limiting conditions
(e) never zero.
Ans: c

193. Non uniform flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-
cessive periods of time
(c) the magnitude aricf direction of the velocity do not change from point to
point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-
terns are identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: e

194. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is

(a) steady
(b) unsteady
(c) uniform
(d) laminar
(e) free vortex type.
Ans: b

195. Uniform flow occurs when

(a) the flow is steady
(b) the flow is streamline
(c) size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain constant
(d) size and cross section change uniform¬ly along length
(e) flow occurs at constant fate.
Ans: c

196. Gradually varied flow is

(a) steady uniform
(b) non-steady non-uniform
(c) non-steady uniform
(d) steady non-uniform
(e) true one-dimensional.
Ans: d

197. Steady flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-
cessive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to
point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-
terns are identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: b

198. The flow which neglects changes in a transverse direction is known as

(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: a

199. The flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and their paths
do not cross each other is called
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: e

200. The flow in which conditions do not change with time at any point, is
known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: c

201. The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and
direction at every point, for any given instant, is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform f^w
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: b

202. The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain such velocities that vary
from point to point in magnitude and direction as well as from instant to
instant, is known as
(a) one dimensional flow
(b) uniform flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) streamline flow.
Ans: d

203. Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following
quantites are same
(a) friction loss and flow
(b) length and diameter
(c) flow and length
(d) friction factor and diameter
(e) velocity and diameter.
Ans: a
204. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds number is
(a) less than 2000
(b) between 2000 and 4000
(c). more than 4000
(d) less than 4000
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

205. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of

(a) mass
(b) momentum
(c) energy
(d) work
(e) force.
Ans: c

206. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5 cm. It
is required to lift a weight of 1 tonne. The force required on plunger is equal
tc
(a) 10 kg
(b) 100 kg
(c) 1000 kg
(d) 1 kg
(e) 10,000 kg.
Ans: a

207. Cavitation is caused by

(a) high velocity
(b) high pressure
(c) weak material
(d) low pressure
(e) low viscosity.
Ans: d

208. Cavitation will begin when

(a) the pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to the
saturated vapour pressure of the liquid
(b) pressure becomes more than critical pressure
(c) flow is increased
(d) pressure is increased
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

209. Principle of similitude forms the basis of

(a) comparing two identical equipments
(b) designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes
(c) comparing similarity between design and actual equipment
(d) hydraulic designs
(e) performing acceptance tests.
Ans: b

210. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is

(a) steady
(b) unsteady
(c) laminar
(d) vortex
(e) rotational.
Ans: b

211. General energy equation holds for

(a) steady flow
(b) turbulent flow
(c) laminar flow
(d) non-uniform flow
(e) all of the above.
Ans: d

212. A streamline is defined as the line

(a) parallel to central axis flow
(b) parallel to outer surface of pipe
(c) of equal yelocity in a flow
(d) along which the pressure drop is uniform
(e) which occurs in all flows.
Ans: c

213. Two dimensional flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid par-ticles, at any point, is the same at suc-
cessive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to
point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-
terns are identical in each plane
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: d

214. The pressure in Pascals at a depth of 1 m below the free surface of a

body of water will be equal to
(a) 1 Pa
(b) 91Pa
(c) 981 Pa
(d) 9810 Pa
(e) 98,100 Pa.
Ans: d

215. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific

gravity 13.6. What fraction of its volume is under mercury ?
(a) 0.5
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.515
(d) 0.5
(e) none of the above.
Ans: c

216. A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its
volume under the liquid. The specific gravity of wood is
(a) 0.83
(b) 0.6
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.3
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b

217. The velocity of jet of water travelling out of opening in a tank filled with
water is proportional to
(a) head of water (h)
(b) h2
(c) V/T
(d) h2
(e) h3/1.
Ans: c

219. In a free vortex motion, the radial component of velocity everywhere is

(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) non-zero and finite
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

220. In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) non-zero finite
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: d

221. The region between the separation streamline and the boundary surface
of the solid body is known as
(a) wake
(b) drag
(c) lift
(d) boundary layer
(e) aerofoil section.
Ans: a

222. For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is

(a) unity
(b) greater than unity
(c) greater than 2
(d) greater than 4
(e) greater than 10.
Ans: d
223. The upper surface of a weir over which water flows is known is
(a) crest
(b) nappe
(c) sill
(d) weir top
(e) contracta.
Ans: c

224. Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow corresponding to
(a) steady flow
(b) unsteady flow
(c) laminar flow
(d) uniform flow
(e) critical flow.
Ans: d

225. At the centre line of a pipe flowing under pressure where the velocity
gradient is zero, the shear stress will be
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) negative value
(e) could be any value.
Ans: e

226. Uniform flow occurs when

(a) the direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
(b) the velocity of successive fluid pai-ticles, at any point, is the same at
suc¬cessive periods of time
(c) the magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to
point in the fluid
(d) the fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline pat-
terns are identical in each plsr.e
(e) velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow.
Ans: c

227. Pitot tube is used for measurement of

(a) pressure
(b) flow
(c) velocity
(d) dsscharge
(e) viscosity.
Ans: c

228. Hydrometer is used to determine

(a) specific gravity of liquids
(b) specific gravity of solids
(c) specific gravity of gases
(d) relative humidity
(e) density.
Ans: a

229. The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of perfect
incompres sible fluid flowing in continuous sream
(d) keeps on increasing
(b) keeps on decreasing
(c) remains constant
(d) may increase/decrease
(e) unpredictable.
Ans: c

230. According to Bernoulli’s equation for steady ideal fluid flow

(a) principle of conservation of mass holds
(b) velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
(c) total energy is constant throughout
(d) the energy is constant along a stream-line but may vary across streamlines
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d

231. The equation of continuity holds good when the flow

(a) is steady
(b) is one dimensional
(c) velocity is uniform at all the cross sec-tions
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
232. Mach number is significant in
(a) supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings,
nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-
continuity, gravity force, and wave making effects, as with ship’s hulls
(d) all of fhe above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

233. Froude number is significant in

(a) supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings,
nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-
continuity, gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship’s hulls
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above
Ans: c

234. All the terms of energy in Bernoulli’s equation have dimension of

(a) energy
(b) work
(c) mass
(d) length
(e) time.
Ans: d

235. Reynolds number is significant in

(a) supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
(b) full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings,
nozzles etc.
(c) simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of dis-
continuity, gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship’s hulls
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: b
236. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are
(a) gravity, pressure and viscous
(b) gravity, pressure and turbulent
(c) pressure, viscous and turbulent
(d) gravity, viscous and turbulent
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

237. A large Roynold number is indication of

(a) smooth and streamline flow
(b) laminar flow
(c) steady flow
(d) turbulent flow
(e) highly turbulent flow.
Ans: e

239. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Roynolds number is

(a) less than 2000
(b) between 2000 and 4000
(c) more than 4000
(d) less than 4000
(e) none of the above.
Ans: a

240. In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the
differential pressure between thes^ points must be more than
(a) frictional force
(b) viscosity
(c) surface friction
(d) all of the above
(e) none of the above.
Ans: d
300+ TOP HIGHWAY Engineering MCQs and
Answers 2021
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. Nagpur road plan formula were prepared by assuming

A. rectangular or block road pattern
B. radial or star and block road pattern
C. radial or star and circular road pattern
D. radial or star and grid road pattern
Answer: D

2. Select the correct statement.

A. Nagpur road plan formula take into account the towns with very large population.
B. Nagpur road plan has a target road length of 32 km per 100 square km.
C. Second 20-year plan has provided 1600 km of expressways out of the proposed
National highway.
D. Second 20-year plan allowed deduction of length of railway track in the area while
calculating the length of roads.
Answer: C

3. The sequence of four stages of survey in a highway alignment is

A. reconnaissance, map study, preliminary survey and detailed survey
B. map study, preliminary survey, reconnaissance and detailed survey
C. map study, reconnaissance, preliminary survey and detailed survey
D. preliminary survey, map study, reconnaissance and detailed survey
Answer: C

4. The shape of the camber, best suited for cement concrete pavements, is
A. straight line
B. parabolic
C. elliptical
D. combination of straight and parabolic
Answer: A

5. For water bound macadam roads in localities of heavy rainfall, the recommended
value of camber is
A. 1 in 30
B. 1 in 36
C. 1 in 48
D. 1 in 60
Answer: B

6. The stopping sight distance depends upon

A. total reaction time of driver
B. speed of vehicle
C. efficiency of brakes
D. all of the above
Answer: D

7. When the path travelled along the road surface is more than the circumferential
movement of the wheels due to rotation, then it results in
A. slipping
B. skidding
C. turning
D. revolving
Answer: B

8. Coefficient of friction is less when the pavement surface is

A. rough
B. dry
C. smooth and dry
D. smooth and wet
Answer: D

9. The shoulder provided along the road edge should be

A. rougher than the traffic lanes
B. smoother than the traffic lanes
C. of same colour as that of the pavement
D. of very low load bearing capacity
Answer: A

10. Camber in the road is provided for

A. effective drainage
B. counteracting the centrifugal force
C. having proper sight distance
D. none of the above
Answer: A

11. Compared to a level surface, on a descending gradient the stopping sight distance
is
A. less
B. more
C. same
D. dependent on the speed
Answer: B
12. On a single lane road with two way traffic, the minimum stopping sight distance is
equal to
A. stopping distance
B. two times the stopping distance
C. half the stopping distance
D. three times the stopping distance
Answer: B

13. The desirable length of overtaking zone as per IRC recommendation is equal to
A. overtaking sight distance
B. two times the overtaking sight distance
C. three times the overtaking sight distance
D. five times the overtaking sight distance
Answer: D

14. Stopping sight distance is always

A. less than overtaking sight distance
B. equal to overtaking sight distance
C. more than overtaking sight distance
D. none of the above
Answer: A

15. Reaction time of a driver

A. increases with increase in speed
B. decreases with increase in speed
C. is same for all speeds
D. none of the above
Answer: B

16. If the stopping distance is 60 meters, then the minimum stopping sight distance for
two lane, two way traffic is
A. 30m
B. 60m
C. 120m
D. 180m
Answer: B

17. The effect of grade on safe overtaking sight distance is

A. to increase it on descending grades and to decrease it on ascending grades
B. to decrease it on descending grades and to increase it on ascending grades
C. to increase it on both descending and ascending grades
D. to decrease it on both descending and ascending grades
Answer: C

18. The ruling design speed on a National Highway in plain terrain as per IRC
recommendations is
A. 60 kmph
B. 80 kmph
C. 100 kmph
D. 120 kmph
Answer: C

19. The terrain may be classified as rolling terrain if the cross slope of land is
A. upto 10%
B. between 10% and 25%
C. between 25% and 60%
D. more than 60%
Answer: B

20. If b is the wheel track of a vehicle and h is the height of centre of gravity above
road surface, then to avoid overturning and lateral skidding on a horizontal curve, the
centrifugal ratio should always be
A. less than b/2h and greater than co-efficient of lateral friction
B. less than b/2h and also less than co-efficient of lateral friction
C. greater than b/2h and less than co-efficient of lateral friction
D. greater than b/2h and also greater than coefficient of lateral friction
Answer: B

21. As per IRC recommendations, the maximum limit of super elevation for mixed
traffic in plain terrain is
A. 1 in 15
B. 1 in 12.5
C. 1 in 10
D. equal to camber
Answer: A

22. For the design of super elevation for mixed traffic conditions, the speed is reduced
by
A. 15%
B. 20%
C. 25%
D. 75%
Answer: C

23. On a horizontal curve if the pavement is kept horizontal across the alignment, then
the pressure on the outer wheels will be
A. more than the pressure on inner wheels
B. less than the pressure on inner wheels
C. equal to the pressure on inner wheels
D. zero
Answer: A

25. For a constant value of coefficient of lateral friction, the value of required super-
elevation increases with
A. increase in both speed and radius of curve
B. decrease in both speed and radius of curve
C. increase in speed and with decrease in radius of curve
D. decrease in speed and with increase in radius of curve
Answer: D

26. To calculate the minimum value of ruling radius of horizontal curves in plains, the
design speed is given by
A. 8 kmph
B. 12kmph
C. 16kmph
D. 20 kmph
Answer: C

27. The absolute minimum radius of curve for safe operation for a speed of 110 kmph
is
A. 110 m
B. 220 m
C. 440 m
D. 577 m
Answer: C
28. The attainment of super elevation by rotation of pavement about the inner edge of
the pavement
A. is preferable in steep terrain
B. results in balancing the earthwork
C. avoids the drainage problem in flat terrain
D. does not change the vertical alignment of road
Answer: C

29. Select the correct statement.

A. Psychological extra widening depends on the number of traffic lanes.
B. Mechanical extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle.
C. Psychological extra widening depends on the length of wheel base.
D. Psychological extra widening depends on the speed of vehicle.
Answer: D

30. In case of hill roads, the extra widening is generally provided

A. equally on inner and outer sides of the curve
B. fully on the inner side of the curve
C. fully on the outer side of the curve
D. one-fourth on inner side and three-fourth on outer side of the curve
Answer: B

31. The transition curve used in the horizontal alignment of highways as per IRC
recommendations is
A. spiral
B. lemniscate
C. cubic parabola
D. any of the above
Answer: A

32. For design, that length of transition curve should be taken which is
A. based on allowable rate of change of centrifugal acceleration
B. based on rate of change of super elevation
C. higher of (A. and (B.
D. smaller of (A. and (B.
Answer: C

33. The maximum design gradient for vertical profile of a road is

A. ruling gradient
B. limiting gradient
C. exceptional gradient
D. minimum gradient
Answer: A

34. The percentage compensation in gradient for ruling gradient of 4% and horizontal
curve of radius 760 m is
A. 0.1 %
B. 1 %
C. 10%
D. no compensation
Answer: D

35. If ruling gradient is I in 20 and there is also a horizontal curve of radius 76 m, then
the compensated grade should be
A. 3 %
B. 4%
C. 5 %
D. 6%
Answer: B

36. The camber of road should be approximately equal to

A. longitudinal gradient
B. two times the longitudinal gradient
C. three times the longitudinal gradient
D. half the longitudinal gradient
Answer: D

37. Which of the following shapes is preferred in a valley curve ?

A. simple parabola
B. cubic parabola
C. spiral
D. lemniscate
Answer: B

38. The value of ruling gradient in plains as per IRC recommendation is

A. 1 in 12
B. 1 m 15
C. 1 in 20
D. 1 in 30
Answer: D

39. In case of summit curves, the deviation angle will be maximum when
A. an ascending gradient meets with another ascending gradient
B. an ascending gradient meets with a descending gradient
C. a descending gradient meets with another descending gradient
D. an ascending gradient meets with a level surface
Answer: B

40. If the design speed is V kmph and deviation angle is N radians, then the total length
of a valley curve in meters is given by the expression
A. 0.38 N V3/2
B. 0.38 (NV3)”2
C. 3.8 NV”2
D. 3.8 (NV3)”2
Answer: B

41. If an ascending gradient of 1 in 50 meets a descending gradient of 1 in 50, the

length of summit curve for a stopping sight distance of 80 m will be
A. zero
B. 64m
C. 80m
D. 60m
Answer: D

42. Highway facilities are designed for

A. annual average hourly volume
B. annual average daily traffic
C. thirtieth highest hourly volume
D. peak hourly volume of the year
Answer: C

43. Enoscope is used to find

A. average speed
B. spot speed
C. space-mean speed
D. time-mean speed
Answer: B
44. For highway geometric design purposes the speed used is
A. 15th percentile
B. 50 “”percentile
C. 85th percentile
D. 98 “”percentile
Answer: D

45. Select the correct statement.

A. Traffic volume should always be more than traffic capacity.
B. Traffic capacity should always be more than traffic volume.
C. Spot speed is the average speed of a vehicle at a specified section.
D. 85th percentile speed is more than 98th percentile speed.
Answer: B

46. Length of a vehicle affects

A. width of traffic lanes
B. extra width of pavement and minimum turning radius
C. width of shoulders and parking facilities
D. clearance to be provided under structures such as overbridges, under-bridges etc.
Answer: B

47. The maximum width of a vehicle as recommended by IRC is

A. 1.85m
B. 2.44 m
C. 3.81 m
D. 4.72 m
Answer: B

48. Desire lines are plotted in

A. traffic volume studies
B. speed studies
C. accident studies
D. origin and destination studies
Answer: D

49. Which of the following methods is preferred for collecting origin and destination
data for a small area like a mass business center or a large intersection ?
A. road side interview method
B. license plate method
C. return postcard method
D. home interview method
Answer: B

50. The diagram which shows the approximate path of vehicles and pedestrians
involved in accidents is known as
A. spot maps
B. pie charts
C. condition diagram
D. collision diagram
Answer: D

51. With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the minimum spacing of vehicles
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first decreases and then increases after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed
D. first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed
Answer: A

52. Which of the following is known as design capacity ?

A. basic capacity
B. theoretical capacity
C. possible capacity
D. practical capacity
Answer: A

53. If the average center to center spacing of vehicles is 20 meters, then the basic
capacity of a traffic lane at a speed of 50 kmph is
A. 2500 vehicles per day
B. 2000 vehicles per hour
C. 2500 vehicles per hour
D. 1000 vehicles per hour
Answer: C

54. With increase in speed of the traffic stream, the maximum capacity of the lane
A. increases
B. decreases
C. first increases and then decreases after reaching a maximum value at optimum speed
D. first decreases and then increases after reaching a minimum value at optimum speed
Answer: C

55. Equivalent factor of passenger car unit (PCU) for a passenger car as per IRC is
A. 1.0
B. 2.0
C. 0.5
D. 10
Answer: A

56. If the stopping distance and average length of a vehicle are 18 m and 6 m
respectively, then the theoretical maxi¬mum capacity of a traffic lane at a speed of 10
m/sec is
A. 1500 vehicles per hour
B. 2000 vehicles per hour
C. 2500 vehicles per hour
D. 3000 vehicles per hour
Answer: A

57. Scientific planning of transportation system and mass transit facilities in cities
should be based on
A. spot speed data
B. origin and destination data
C. traffic volume data
D. accident data
Answer: B

58. The diagram which shows all important physical conditions of an accident location
like roadway limits, bridges, trees and all details of roadway conditions is known as
A. pie chart
B. spot maps
C. condition diagram
D. collision diagram
Answer: C

59. When the speed of traffic flow becomes zero,then

A. traffic density attains maximum value whereas traffic volume becomes zero
B. traffic density and traffic volume both attain maximum value
C. traffic density and traffic volume both become zero
D. traffic density becomes zero whereas traffic volume attains maximum value
Answer: A

60. On a right angled road intersection with two way traffic, the total number of conflict
points is
A. 6
B. 11
C. 18
D. 24
Answer: D

61. The background colour of the informatory sign board is

A. red
B. yellow
C. green
D. white
Answer: B

62. Which of the following is indicated by a warning sign ?

A. level crossing
B. no parking
C. end of speed limit
D. overtaking prohibited
Answer: A

63. “Dead Slow” is a

A. regulatory sign
B. warning sign
C. informatory sign
D. none of the above
Answer: A

64. The most efficient traffic signal system is

A. simultaneous system
B. alternate system
C. flexible progressive system
D. simple progressive system
Answer: C
65. The provision of traffic signals at intersections
A. reduces right angled and rear end collisions
B. increases right angled and rear end collisions
C. reduces right angled collisions but may increase rear end collisions
D. reduces rear end collisions but may increase right angled collisions
Answer: C

66. Select the incorrect statement.

A. Stop or red time of a signal is the sum of go and clearance intervals for the cross
flow.
B. Go or green time of a signal is the sum of stop and clearance intervals for the cross
flow.
C. Clearance time is generally 3 to 5 seconds.
D. The cycle length is normally 40 to 60 seconds for two phase signals.
Answer: B

67. Center line markings are used

A. to designate traffic lanes
B. in roadways meant for two way traffic
C. to indicate that overtaking is not permitted
D. to designate proper lateral placement of vehicles before turning to different directions
Answer: B

68. The particular places where pedestrians are to cross the pavement are properly
marked by the pavement marking known as
A. stop lines
B. turn markings
C. crosswalk lines
D. lane lines
Answer: C

69. The entrance and exit curves of a rotary have

A. equal radii and equal widths of pavement
B. equal radii but pavement width is more at entrance than at exit curve
C. equal pavement widths but radius is more at entrance curve than at exit curve
D. different radii and different widths of pavement
Answer: D
70. When two equally important roads cross roughly at right angles, the suitable shape
of central island is
A. circular
B. elliptical
C. tangent
D. turbine
Answer: A

71. The maximum number of vehicles beyond which the rotary may not function
efficiently is
A. 500 vehicles per hour
B. 500 vehicles per day
C. 5000 vehicles per hour
D. 5000 vehicles per day
Answer: C

72. A traffic rotary is justified where

A. number of intersecting roads is between 4 and 7
B. space is limited and costly
C. when traffic volume is less than 500 vehicles per hour
D. when traffic volume is more than 5000 vehicles per hour
Answer: A

73. When a number of roads are meeting at a point and only one of the roads is
important, then the suitable shape of rotary is
A. circular
B. tangent
C. elliptical
D. turbine
Answer: B

74. Maximum number of vehicles can be parked with

A. parallel parking
B. 30° angle parking
C. 45° angle parking
D. 90° angle parking
Answer: D
75. When the width of kerb parking space and width of street are limited, generally
preferred parking system is
A. parallel parking
B. 45° angle parking
C. 65° angle parking
D. 90° angle parking
Answer: A

76. As per IRC recommendations, the average level of illumination on important roads
carrying fast traffic is
A. 10 lux
B. 15 lux
C. 20 lux
D. 30 lux
Answer: D

77. The most economical lighting layout which is suitable for narrow roads is
A. single side lighting
B. staggered system
C. central lighting system
D. none of the above
Answer: A

78. The direct interchange ramp involves

A. diverging to the right side and merging from left
B. diverging to the left side and merging from right
C. diverging to the right side and merging from right
D. diverging to the left side and merging from left
Answer: C

79. In soils having same values of plasticity index, if liquid limit is increased, then
A. compressibility and permeability decrease and dry strength increases
B. compressibility, permeability and dry strength decrease
C. compressibility, permeability and dry strength increase
D. compressibility and permeability increase and dry strength decreases
Answer: D

80. Which of the following tests measures the toughness of road aggregates ?
A. crushing strength test
B. abrasion test
C. impact test
D. shape test
Answer: C

81. Los Angeles testing machine is used to conduct

A. abrasion test
B. impact test
C. attrition test
D. crushing strength test
Answer: A

82. In CBR test the value of CBR is calculated at

A. 2.5 mm penetration only
B. 5.0 mm penetration only
C. 7.5 mm penetration only
D. both 2.5mm and 5.0 mm penetrations
Answer: D

83. If aggregate impact value is 20 to 30 percent, then it is classified as

A. exceptionally strong
B. strong
C. satisfactory for road surfacing
D. unsuitable for road surfacing
Answer: C

84. The maximum allowable Los Angeles abrasion value for high quality surface course
is
A. 10%
B. 20 %
C. 30%
D. 45 %
Answer: C

85. Percentage of free carbon in bitumen is

A. more than that in tar
B. less than that in tar
C. equal to that in tar
D. none of the above
Answer: B

86. The ductility value of bitumen for suitability in road construction should not be less
than
A. 30 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 50 cm
D. 60 cm
Answer: C

87. The maximum limit of water absorption for aggregate suitable for road
construction is
A. 0.4 %
B. 0.6%
C. 0.8 %
D. 1.0 %
Answer: B

88. Which of the following represents hardest grade of bitumen ?

A. 30/40
B. 60/70
C. 80/100
D. 100/120
Answer: A

89. Penetration test on bitumen is used for determining its

A. grade
B. viscosity
C. ductility
D. temperature susceptibility
Answer: A

90. Bitumen of grade 80/100 means

A. its penetration value is 8 mm
B. its penetration value is 10 mm
C. its penetration value is 8 to 10 mm
D. its penetration value is 8 to 10 cm
Answer: C
91. RC-2, MC-2 and SC-2 correspond to
A. same viscosity
B. viscosity in increasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
C. viscosity in decreasing order from RC-2 to SC-2
D. none of the above
Answer: A

92. The recommended grade of tar for grouting purpose is

A. RT-1
B. RT-2
C. RT.3
D. RT-5
Answer: D

93. Softening point of bitumen to be used for read construction at a place where
maximum temperature is 40° C should be
A. less-than 40°C
B. greater than 40°C
C. equal to 40°C
D. none of the above
Answer: B

94. For rapid curing cutbacks, the oil used is

A. gasoline
B. kerosene oil
C. light diesel
D. heavy diesel
Answer: A

95. The method of design of flexible pavement as recommended by IRC is

A. group index method
B. CBR method
C. Westergaard method
D. Benkelman beam method
Answer: B

96. The group index for a soil, whose liquid limit is 40 percent, plasticity index is 10
percent and percentage passing 75 micron IS sieve is 35, is
A. 0
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: A

97. Bottom most layer of pavement is known as

A. wearing course
B. base course
C. sub-base course
D. subgrade
Answer: D

98. Flexible pavement distribute the wheel load

A. directly to subgrade
B. through structural action
C. through a set of layers to the subgrade
D. none of the above
Answer: C

99. The number of repetitions, which the pavement thickness designed for a given
wheel load should be able to support during the life of pavement is
A. 1000
B. 10000
C. 100000
D. 1000000
Answer: D

100. Group index method of design of flexible pavement is

A. a theoretical method
B. an empirical method based on physical properties of subgrade soil
C. an empirical method based on strength characteristics of subgrade soil
D. a semi empirical method
Answer: B

101. Select the correct statement.

A. More the value of group index, less thickness of pavement will be required.
B. More the value of CBR, greater thickness of pavement will be required.
C. Minimum and maximum values of group index can be 0 and 20 respectively.
D. all of the above
Answer: C

102. If the group index value of subgrade is between 5 and 9, then the subgrade is
treated as
A. good
B. fair
C. poor
D. very poor
Answer: C

103. Tyre pressure influences the

A. total depth of pavement
B. quality of surface course
C. both the above
D. none of the above
Answer: B

104. Rigidity factor for a tyre pressure greater than 7 kg/cm2 is

A. equal to 1
B. less than 1
C. greater than 1
D. zero
Answer: B

105. The critical combination of stresses for corner region in cement concrete roads is
A. load stress + warping stress frictional stress
B. load stress + warping stress + frictional stress
C. load stress + warping stress
D. load stress + frictional stress
Answer: C

106. Tie bars in cement concrete pavements are at

A. expansion joints
B. contraction joints
C. warping joints
D. longitudinal joints
Answer: D
107. The maximum spacing of contraction joints in rigid pavements is
A. 2.5 m
B. 3.5 m
C. 4.5 m
D. 5.5m
Answer: C

108. The maximum thickness of expansion joint in rigid pavements is

A. 0
B. 25 mm
C. 50 mm
D. 100 mm
Answer: B

109. The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to

A. relieve warping stresses
B. relieve shrinkage stresses
C. resist stresses due to expansion
D. allow free expansion
Answer: D

110. The fundamental factor in the selection of pavement type is

A. climatic condition
B. type and intensity of traffic
C. subgrade soil and drainage conditions
D. availability of funds for the construction project
Answer: B

111. Most suitable material for highway embankments is

A. granular soil
B. organic soil
C. silts
D. clays
Answer: A

112. Maximum daily traffic capacity of bituminous pavements is

A. 500 tonnes per day
B. 1000 tonnes per day
C. 1500 tonnes per day
D. 2000 tonnes per day
Answer: C

113. The most suitable equipment for compacting clayey soils is a

A. smooth wheeled roller
B. pneumatic tyred roller
C. sheep foot roller
D. vibrator
Answer: C

114. The aggregates required for one kilometer length of water bound macadam road
per meter width and for 10 mm thickness is
A. 8 cubic meter
B. 10 cubic meter
C. 12 cubic meter
D. 15 cubic meter
Answer: C

115. The camber of shoulders in water bound macadam roads is

A. equal to the cross slope of pavement
B. less than the cross slope of pavement
C. greater than the cross slope of pavement
D. zero
Answer: A

116. The binder normally used in flexible pavement construction is

A. cement
B. lime
C. bitumen
D. none of the above
Answer: C

117. In highway construction, rolling starts from

A. sides and proceed to centre
B. centre and proceed to sides
C. one side and proceed to other side
D. any of the above
Answer: A
118. For the construction of water bound macadam roads, the correct sequence of
operations after spreading coarse aggregates is
A. dry rolling, wet rolling, application of screening and application of filler
B. dry rolling, application of filler, wet rolling and application of screening
C. dry rolling, application of screening, wet rolling and application of filler
D. dry rolling, application of screening, application of filler and wet rolling
Answer: C

119. In the penetration macadam construction, the bitumen is

A. sprayed after the aggregates are spread and compacted
B. premixed with aggregates and then spread
C. sprayed before the aggregates are spread and compacted
D. none of the above
Answer: A

120. When the bituminous surfacing is done on already existing black top road or over
existing cement concrete road, the type of treatment to be given is
A. seal coat
B. tack coat
C. prime coat
D. spray of emulsion
Answer: B

121. Which of the following premix methods is used for base course ?
A. bituminous carpet
B. mastic asphalt
C. sheet asphalt
D. bituminous bound macadam
Answer: D

122. Select the correct statement.

A. Quantity of binder required for tack coat is less than that required for prime coat.
B. Prime coat treatment is given for plugging the voids in water bound macadam during
bituminous road construction.
C. Seal coat is the final coat over certain previous bituminous pavements.
D. A bitumen primer is a high viscosity cutback.
Answer: D
123. The suitable surfacing material for a bridge deck slab is
A. sheet asphalt
B. bituminous carpet
C. mastic asphalt
D. rolled asphalt
Answer: C

124. Which of the following is considered to be the highest quality construction in the
group of black top pavements ?
A. mastic asphalt
B. sheet asphalt
C. bituminous carpet
D. bituminous concrete
Answer: D

125. The thickness of bituminous carpet varies from

A. 20 to 25 mm
B. 50 to 75 mm
C. 75 to 100 mm
D. 100 to 120 mm
Answer: A

126. Which of the following represents a carpet of sand-bitumen mix without coarse
aggregates ?
A. mastic asphalt
B. sheet asphalt
C. bituminous carpet
D. bituminous concrete
Answer: B

127. In highway construction on super elevated curves, the rolling shall proceed from
A. sides towards the centre
B. centre towards the sides
C. lower edge towards the upper edge
D. upper edge towards the lower edge
Answer: C

128. The camber for hill roads in case of bituminous surfacing is adopted as
A. 2%
B. 2.5%
C. 3%
D. 4%
Answer: B

129. The minimum design speed for hairpin bends in hill roads is taken as
A. 20 kmph
B. 30 kmph
C. 40 kmph
D. 50 kmph
Answer: A

130. The drain which is provided parallel to roadway to intercept and divert the water
from hill slopes is known as
A. sloping drain
B. catchwater drain
C. side drain
D. cross drain
Answer: B

131. The walls which are necessary on the hill side of roadway where earth has to be
retained from slipping is known as
A. retaining wall
B. breast wall
C. parapet wall
D. none of the above
Answer: B

132. In hill roads the side drains arc provided

A. only on the hill side of road
B. only on the opposite side of hill
C. on both sides of road
D. none of the above
Answer: A
300+ TOP SURVEYING Multiple Choice Questions
with Answers Pdf
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. During chaining along a straight line, the . leader of the party has 4 arrows in his
hand while the follower has 6. Distance of the follower from the starting point is
a) 4 chains
b) 6 chains
c) 120 m
d) 180m
Answer: b

2. A metallic tape is made of

a) steel
b) invar
c) linen
d) cloth and wires
Answer: d

3. For a well-conditioned triangle, no angle should be less than

a) 20°
b) 30°
c) 45°
d) 60°
Answer: b
4. The angle of intersection of the two plane mirrors of an optical square is
a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 90°
Answer: b

5. The allowable length of an offset depends upon the

a) degree of accuracy required
b) method of setting out the perpendiculars and nature of ground
c) scale of plotting
d) all of the above
Answer: d

SURVEYING Multiple Choice

Questions

6. Which of the following angles can be set out with the help of French cross staff?
a) 45° only
b) 90° only
c) either 45° or 90°
d) any angle
Answer: c

7. Which of the following methods of offsets involves less measurement on the

ground?
a) method of perpendicular offsets
b) method of oblique offsets
c) method of ties
d) all involve equal measurement on the ground
Answer: a

8. The permissible error in chaining for measurement with chain on rough or hilly
ground is
a) 1 in 100
b) 1 in 250
c) 1 in 500
d) 1 in 1000
Answer: b

9. The correction for sag is

a) always additive
b) always subtractive
c) always zero
d) sometimes additive and sometimes subtractive
Answer: b

10. Cross staff is an instrument used for

a) measuring approximate horizontal angles
b) setting out right angles
c) measuring bearings of the lines
d) none of the above
Answer: b

11. Normal tension is that pull which

a) is used at the time of standardising the tape
b) neutralizes the effect due to pull and sag
c) makes the correction due to sag equal to zero
d) makes the correction due to pull equal to zero
Answer: b

12. Which of the following is not used in measuring perpendicular offsets ?

a) line ranger
b) steel tape
c) optical square
d) cross staff
Answer: a
13. If the length of a chain is found to be short on testing, it can be adjusted by
a) straightening the links
b) removing one or more small circular rings
c) closing the joints of the rings if opened out
d) all of the above
Answer: a

14. The maximum tolerance in a 20 m chain is

a) ±2 mm
b) ±3 mm
c) ±5 mm
d) ±8 mm
Answer: c

15. For accurate work, the steel band should always be used in preference to chain
because the steel band
a) is lighter than chain
b) is easier to handle
c) is practically inextensible and is not liable to kinks when in use
d) can be easily repaired in the field
Answer: c

16. The length of a chain is measured from

a) centre of one handle to centre of other handle
b) outside of one handle to outside of other handle
c) outside of one handle to inside of other handle
d) inside of one handle to inside of other handle
Answer: b

17. Select the incorrect statement.

a) The true meridians at different places are parallel to each other.
b) The true meridian at any place is not variable.
c) The true meridians converge to a point in northern and southern hemispheres.
d) The maps prepared by national survey departments of any country are based on true
meridians.
Answer: a

18. If the true bearing of a line AB is 269° 30′, then the azimuth of the line AB is
a) 0° 30′
b) 89° 30′
c) 90° 30′
d) 269° 30′
Answer: c

19. In the prismatic compass

a) the magnetic needle moves with the box
b) the line of the sight does not move with the box
c) the magnetic needle and graduated circle do not move with the box
d) the graduated circle is fixed to the box and the magnetic needle always remains in the
N-S direction
Answer: c

20. For a line AB

a) the forebearing of AB and back bearing of AB differ by 180°
b) the forebearing of AB and back bearing of BA differ by 180°
c) both (a) and (b) are correct.
d) none is correct
Answer: a

21. Local attraction in compass surveying may exist due to

a) incorrect levelling of the magnetic needle
b) loss of magnetism of the needle
c) friction of the needle at the pivot
d) presence of magnetic substances near the instrument
Answer: d

22. In the quadrantal bearing system, a whole circle bearing of 293° 30′ can be
expressed as
a) W23°30’N
b) N66°30’W
c) S113°30’N
d) N23°30’W
Answer: b

23. The prismatic compass and surveyor’s compass

a) give whole circle bearing (WCB) of a line and quadrantal bearing (QB) of a line
respectively
b) both give QB of a line and WCB of a line
c) both give QB of a line
d) both give WCB of a line
Answer: a

24. The horizontal angle between the true meridian and magnetic meridian at a place is
called
a) azimuth
b) declination
c) local attraction
d) magnetic bearing
Answer: b

25. A negative declination shows that the magnetic meridian is to the

a) eastern side of the true meridian
b) western side of the true meridian
c) southern side of the true meridian
d) none of the above
Answer: b

26. If the magnetic bearing of the sun at a place at noon in southern hemisphere is
167°, the magnetic declination at that place is
a) 77° N
b) 23° S
c) 13° E
d) 13° W
Answer: c

27. The graduations in prismatic compass

i) are inverted
ii) are upright
iii) run clockwise having 0° at south
iv) run clockwise having 0° at north
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (iii)
b) (i) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: a
28. Agate cap is fitted with a
a) cross staff
b) level
c) chain
d) prismatic compass
Answer: d

29. The temporary adjustments of a prismatic compass are

i) Centering
ii) Levelling
iii) Focusing the prism
The correct order is
a) (0, (iii), 00
b) (0, (ii), (iii)
c) (ii), (iii), 0)
d) (in), (i), (ii)
Answer: b

30. Theodolite is an instrument used for

a) tightening the capstan-headed nuts of level tube
b) measurement of horizontal angles only
c) measurement of vertical angles only
d) measurement of both horizontal and vertical angles
Answer: d

31. The process of turning the telescope about the vertical axis in horizontal plane is
known as
a) transiting
b) reversing
c) plunging
d) swinging
Answer: d

32. Size of a theodolite is specified by

a) the length of telescope
b) the diameter of vertical circle
c) the diameter of lower plate
d) the diameter of upper plate
Answer: c
33. Which of the following is not the function of levelling head ?
a) to support the main part of the instrument
b) to attach the theodolite to the tripod
c) to provide a means for leveling the theodolite
d) none of the above
Answer: d

34. If the lower clamp screw is tightened and upper clamp screw is loosened, the
theodolite may be rotated
a) on its outer spindle with a relative motion between the vernier and graduated scale of
lower plate
b) on its outer spindle without a relative motion between the vernier and gra-duated
scale of lower plate
c) on its inner spindle with a relative motion between the vernier and the graduated scale
of lower plate
d) on its inner spindle without a relative motion between the vernier and the graduated
scale of lower plate
Answer: c

35. A telescope is said to be inverted if its

a) vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is down
b) vertical circle is to its right and the bubble of the telescope is up
c) vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of the telescope is down
d) vertical circle is to its left and the bubble of the telescope is up
Answer: a

36. The cross hairs in the surveying telescope are placed

a) midway between eye piece and objec¬tive lens
b) much closer to the eye-piece than to the objective lens
c) much closer to the objective lens than to the eye piece
d) anywhere between eye-piece and objective lens
Answer: b

37. For which of the following permanent adjustments of theodolite, the spire test is
used ?
a) adjustment of plate levels
b) adjustment of line of sight
c) adjustment of horizontal axis
d) adjustment of altitude bubble and vertical index frame
Answer: c

38. The adjustment of horizontal cross hair is required particularly when the
instrument is used for
a) leveling
b) prolonging a straight line
c) measurement of horizontal angles
d) all of the above
Answer: a

39. Which of the following errors is not eliminated by the method of repetition of
horizontal angle measurement ?
a) error due to eccentricity of verniers
b) error due to displacement of station signals
c) error due to wrong adjustment of line of collimation and trunnion axis
d) error due to inaccurate graduation
Answer: b

40. The error due to eccentricity of inner and outer axes can be eliminated by
a) reading both verniers and taking the mean of the two
b) taking both face observations and taking the mean of the two
c) double sighting
d) taking mean of several readings distributed over different portions of the graduated
circle
Answer: a

41. In the double application of principle of reversion, the apparent error is

a) equal to true error
b) half the true error
c) two times the true error
d) four times the true error
Answer: d

42. Which of the following errors can be eliminated by taking mean of bot face
observations ?
a) error due to imperfect graduations
b) error due to eccentricity of verniers
c) error due to imperfect adjustment of plate levels
d) error due to line of collimation not being perpendicular to horizontal axis
Answer: d

43. Which of the following errors cannot be eliminated by taking both face
observations ?
a) error due to horizontal axis not being perpendicular to the vertical axis
b) index error i.e. error due to imperfect adjustment of the vertical circle vernier
c) error due to non-parallelism of the axis of telescope level and line of collimation
d) none of the above
Answer: d

44. If a tripod settles in the interval that elapses between taking a back sight reading
and the following foresight reading, then the elevation of turning point will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) not change
d) either ‘a’ or ‘b’
Answer: a

45. If altitude bubble is provided both on index frame as well as on telescope of a

theodolite, then the instrument is levelled with reference to
i) altitude bubble on index frame
ii) altitude bubble on index frame if it is to be used as a level
iii) altitude bubble on telescope
iv) altitude bubble on telescope if it is to be used as a level The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (iv)
c) only (iii)
d) both (ii) and (iii)
Answer: b

46. A’level line’is a

a) horizontal line
b) line parallel to the mean spheriodal surface of earth
c) line passing through the center of cross hairs and the center of eye piece
d) line passing through the objective lens and the eye-piece of a dumpy or tilting level
Answer: b
47. The following sights are taken on a “turning point”
a) foresight only
b) backsight only
c) foresight and backsight
d) foresight and intermediate sight
Answer: c

48. The rise and fall method of levelling provides a complete check on
a) backsight
b) intermediate sight
c) foresight
d) all of the above
Answer: d

49. If the R.L. of a B.M. is 100.00 m, the back- sight is 1.215 m and the foresight is
1.870 m, the R.L. of the forward station is
a) 99.345 m
b) 100.345 m
c) 100.655m
d) 101.870m
Answer: a

50. In an internal focussing type of telescope, the lens provided is

a) concave
b) convex
c) plano-convex
d) plano-concave
Answer: a

51. Which of the following errors can be neutralised by setting the level midway
between the two stations ?
a) error due to curvature only
b) error due to refraction only
c) error due to both curvature and re-fraction
d) none of the above
Answer: c

52. Height of instrument method of levelling is

a) more accurate than rise and fall method
b) less accurate than rise and fall method
c) quicker and less tedious for large number of intermediate sights
d) none of the above
Answer: c

53. The rise and fall method

a) is less.accurate than height of instrument method
b) is not suitable for levelling with tilting levels
c) provides a check on the reduction of intermediate point levels
d) quicker and less tedious for large number of intermediate sights
Answer: c

54. If the staff is not held vertical at a level¬ling station, the reduced level calculated
from the observation would be
a) true R.L.
b) more than true R.L.
c) less than true R.L.
d) none of the above
Answer: c

55. The difference between a level line and a horizontal line is that
a) level line is a curved line while horizontal line is a straight line
b) level line is normal to plumb line while horizontal line may not be normal to plumb line
at the tangent point to level line
c) horizontal line is normal to plumb line while level line may not be normal to the plumb
line
d) both are same
Answer: a

56. The sensitivity of a bubble tube can be increased by

a) increasing the diameter of the tube
b) decreasing the length of bubble
c) increasing the viscosity of liquid
d) decreasing the radius of curvature of tube
Answer: a

57. With the rise of temperature, the sensitivity of a bubble tube

a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains unaffected
d) none of the above
Answer: a

58. Refraction correction

a) completely eliminates curvature correction
b) partially eliminates curvature correction
c) adds to the curvature correction
d) has no effect on curvature correction
Answer: b

59. The R.L, of the point A which is on the floor is 100 m and back sight reading on A is
2.455 m. If the foresight reading on the point B which is on the ceiling is 2.745 m, the
R.L. of point B will be
a) 94.80 m
b) 99.71 m
c) 100.29 m
d) 105.20 m
Answer: d

60. As applied to staff readings, the corrections for curvature and refraction are
respectively
The above table shows a part of a level field book. The value of X should be
a) 98.70
b) 100.00
c) 102.30
d) 103.30
Answer: b

63. If the horizontal distance between the staff point and the point of observation is d,
then the error due to curvature of earth is proportional to
a) d
b) 1/d
c) d2
d) 1/d2
Answer: c

64. Sensitiveness of a level tube is designated by

a) radius of level tube
b) length of level tube
c) length of bubble of level tube
d) none of the above
Answer: a

65. Which of the following statements is in-correct ?

a) Error due to refraction may not be completely eliminated by reciprocal levelling.
b) Tilting levels are commonly used for precision work.
c) The last reading of levelling is always a foresight.
d) All of the above statements are incorrect.
Answer: d

66. Dumpy level is most suitable when

a) the instrument is to be shifted frequently
b) fly levelling is being done over long distance
c) many readings are to be taken from a single setting of the instrument
d) all of the above
Answer: c

67. The difference of levels between two stations A and B is to be determined. For best
results, the instrument station should be
a) equidistant from A and B
b) closer to the higher station
c) closer to the lower station
d) as far as possible from the line AB
Answer: a

68. Contour interval is

a) inversely proportional to the scale of the map
b) directly proportional to the flatness of ground
c) larger for accurate works
d) larger if the time available is more
Answer: a

69. An imaginary line lying throughout the surface of ground and preserving a constant
inclination to the horizontal is known as
a) contour line
b) horizontal equivalent
c) contour interval
d) contour gradient
Answer: d

70. The suitable contour interval for a map with scale 1 : 10000 is
a) 2 m
b) 5m
c) 10 m
d) 20 m
Answer: a

71. Select the correct statement.

a) A contour is not necessarily a closed curve.
b) A contour represents a ridge line if the concave side of lower value con¬tour lies
towards the higher value contour.
c) Two contours of different elevations do not cross each other except in case of an
overhanging cliff.
d) All of the above statements are correct.
Answer: c

72. A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a

a) steep slope
b) gentle slope
c) uniform slope
d) plane surface
Answer: a

73. Direct method of contouring is

a) a quick method
b) adopted for large surveys only
c) most accurate method
d) suitable for hilly terrains
Answer: c

74. In direct method of contouring, the process of locating or identifying points lying on
a contour is called
a) ranging
b) centring
c) horizontal control
d) vertical control
Answer: d

75. In the cross-section method of indirect contouring, the spacing of cross-sections

depends upon
i) contour interval
ii) scale of plan
iii) characteristics of ground
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: d

76. Which of the following methods of con-touring is most suitable for a hilly terrain ?
a) direct method
b) square method
c) cross-sections method
d) tacheometric method
Answer: d

77. Select the correct statement.

a) Contour interval on any map is kept constant.
b) Direct method of contouring is cheap¬er than indirect method.
c) Inter-visibility of points on a contour map cannot be ascertained.
d) Slope of a hill cannot be determined with the help of contours.
Answer: a

78. Closed contours, with higher value inwards, represent a

a) depression
b) hillock
c) plain surface
d) none of the above
Answer: b

79. Contour interval is

a) the vertical distance between two con-secutive contours
b) the horizontal distance between two consecutive contours
c) the vertical distance between two points on same contour
d) the horizontal distance between two points on same contour
Answer: a

80. Benchmark is established by

a) hypsometry
b) barometric levelling
c) spirit levelling
d) trigonometrical levelling
Answer: c

81. The type of surveying which requires least office work is

a) tacheomefry
b) trigonometrical levelling
c) plane table surveying
d) theodolite surveying
Answer: c

82. Intersection method of detailed plotting is most suitable for

a) forests
b) urban areas
c) hilly areas
d) plains
Answer: c

83. Detailed plotting is generally done by

a) radiation
b) traversing
c) resection
d) all of the above
Answer: a

84. Three point problem can be solved by

a) Tracing paper method
b) Bessels method
c) Lehman’s method
d) all of the above
Answer: d
85. The size of a plane table is
a) 750 mm x 900 mm
b) 600 mm x 750 mm
c) 450 mm x 600 mm
d) 300 mm x 450 mm
Answer: b

86. The process of determining the locations of the instrument station by drawing re
sectors from the locations of the known stations is called
a) radiation
b) intersection
c) resection
d) traversing
Answer: c

87. The instrument used for accurate centering in plane table survey is
a) spirit level
b) alidade
c) plumbing fork
d) trough compass
Answer: c

88. Which of the following methods of plane table surveying is used to locate the
position of an inaccessible point ?
a) radiation
b) intersection
c) traversing
d) resection
Answer: b

89. The two point problem and three point problem are methods of
a) resection
b) orientation
c) traversing
d) resection and orientation
Answer: d

90. The resection by two point problem as compared to three point problem
a) gives more accurate problem
b) takes less time
c) requires more labour
d) none of the above
Answer: c

91. The methods used for locating the plane table stations are
i) radiation
ii) traversing
iii) intersection
iv) resection
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (iii) and (iv)
c) (ii) and (iv)
d) (i) and (iii)
Answer: c

92. After fixing the plane table to the tripod, the main operations which are needed at
each plane table station are
i) levelling
ii) orientation
iii) centering
The correct sequence of these operations is
a) (i), (ii),.(iii)
b) (i), (iii), (ii)
c) (iii), (i), (ii)
d) (ii), (Hi), (i)
Answer: b

93. Bowditch rule is applied to

a) an open traverse for graphical adjustment
b) a closed traverse for adjustment of closing error
c) determine the effect of local attraction
d) none of the above
Answer: b

94. If in a closed traverse, the sum of the north latitudes is more than the sum of the
south latitudes and also the sum of west departures is more than the sum of the east
departures, the bearing of the closing line is in the
a) NE quadrant
b) SE quadrant
c) NW quadrant
d) SW quadrant
Answer: b

95. If the reduced bearing of a line AB is N60°W and length is 100 m, then the latitude
and departure respectively of the line AB will be
a) +50 m, +86.6 m
b) +86.6 m, -50 m
c) +50m, -86.6 m
d) +70.7 m,-50 m
Answer: b

96. The angle between the prolongation of the preceding line and the forward line of a
traverse is called
a) deflection angle
b) included angle
c) direct angle
d) none of the above
Answer: a

97. Transit rule of adjusting the consecutive coordinates of a traverse is used where
a) linear and angular measurements of the traverse are of equal accuracy
b) angular measurements are more accurate than linear measurements
c) linear measurements are more accurate than angular measurements
d) all of the above
Answer: b

98. Which of the following methods of theodolite traversing is suitable for locating the
details which are far away from transit stations ?
a) measuring angle and distance from one transit station
b) measuring angles to the point from at least two stations
c) measuring angle at one station and distance from other
d) measuring distance from two points on traverse line
Answer: b

99. Subtense bar is an instrument used for

a) levelling
b) measurement of horizontal distances in plane areas
c) measurement of horizontal distances in undulated areas
d) measurement of angles
Answer: c

100. Horizontal distances obtained by thermometric observations

a) require slope correction
b) require tension correction
c) require slope and tension corrections
d) do not require slope and tension corrections
Answer: d

101. The number of horizontal cross wires in a stadia diaphragm is

a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
Answer: c

102. If the intercept on a vertical staff is ob-served as 0.75 m from a tacheometer, the
horizontal distance between tacheometer and staff station is
a) 7.5 m
b) 25 m
c) 50
d) 75 m
Answer: d

103. For a tacheometer the additive and multi-plying constants are respectively
a) 0 and 100
b) 100 and 0
c) 0 and 0
d) 100 and 100
Answer: a

104. If the focal length of the object glass is 25 cm and the distance from object glass
to the trunnion axis is 15 cm, the additive constant is
a) 0.1
b) 0.4
c) 0.6
d) 1.33
Answer: b

105. Overturning of vehicles on a curve can be avoided by using

a) compound curve
b) vertical curve
c) reverse curve
d) transition curve
Answer: d

106. Different grades are joined together by a

a) compound curve
b) transition curve
c) reverse curve
d) vertical curve
Answer: d
400+ TOP Waste Water Engineering Multiple
Choice Questions & Answers
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. For a continuous flow type of sedimentation tanks

A. Width of the tank is normally kept about 6 m

B. Length of the tank is normally kept 4 to 5 times the width
C. Maximum horizontal flow velocity is limited to 0.3 m/minute
D. All the above

ANS: D

2. The asbestos cement sewers are

A. Light in weight
B. Not structurally strong to bear large compressive stress
C. Susceptible to corrosion by sulphuric acid
D. All the above

ANS: D

3. For efficient working of a sewer, it must be ensured that

A. Minimum velocity of 0.45 m/sec, is maintained at its minimum flow

B. A maximum velocity of 0.90 m/sec, is maintained at its maximum flow
C. Both A. and B.
D. Neither A. nor B.

ANS: C

4. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The sewer pipes of sizes less than 0.4 m diameter are designed as running full at
maximum discharge
B. The sewer pipes of sizes greater than 0.4 m diameter are designed as running 2/3rd
or 3/4th full at maximum discharge
C. The minimum design velocity of sewer pipes is taken as 0.8 m/sec
D. All the above
ANS: D

5. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Maximum daily flow = 2 times the average daily flow

B. Maximum daily flow = average daily flow
C. Sewers are designed for minimum permissible velocity at minimum flow
D. All the above

ANS: D

6. Bottom openings 15 cm × 15 cm in the standing baffle wall are provided

A. 15 cm c/c
B. 22.5 cm c/c
C. 30 cm c/c
D. 50 cm c/c

ANS: B

7. The pressure exerted by

A. The sewage when running full from inside, is called internal pressure
B. The internal pressure if any, causes tensile stress in the pipe material
C. Pressure sewers are designed to be safe in tension
D. All the above

ANS: D

8. For drainage pipes in buildings the test applied before putting them to use, is

A. Water test
B. Smoke test
C. Straightness test
D. All the above

ANS: B

9. No treatment of the sewage is given if dilution factor is

A. Less than 150
B. Between 150 to 200
C. Between 200 to 300
D. More than 500

ANS: D

10. Which of the following pumps in used to pump sewage solids with liquid sewage
without clogging the pump is?

A. Centrifugal pump
B. Pneumatic ejector
C. Reciprocating pump
D. None of these

ANS: A

WASTE WATER Engineering MCQs

11. Acid regression stage of sludge digestion at a temperature 21°C extends over a
period of

A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days

ANS: D

12. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Small sewers are cleaned by flushing

B. Medium sewers are cleaned by cane rodding
C. Medium sewers may be cleaned by pills
D. All the above
ANS: D

13. The coagulant which is generally not used for treating the sewage, is

A. Alum
B. Ferric chloride
C. Ferric sulphate
D. Chlorinated copperas

ANS: A

14. The layers of vegetable wastes and night soil alternatively piled above the ground
to form a mound, is called

A. A heap
B. Plateau
C. Windrow
D. None of these

ANS: D

15. If the flame of a miner’s safety lamp in the upper layers of the sewer forms an
explosive, the sewer certainly contains

A. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Methane
D. Oxygen

ANS: C

16. The gas which may cause explosion in sewers, is

A. Carbondioxide
B. Methane
C. Ammonia
D. Carbon monoxide

ANS: B

17. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The water supply pipes carry pure water free from solid particles
B. The water supply pipes get clogged if flow velocity is less than self cleansing velocity
C. The sewers may be carried up and down the hills and valleys
D. The sewer pipes are generally laid along level hills

ANS: A

18. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. The process of decomposing the organic matter under controlled anaerobic

conditions, is called sludge digestion
B. Sludge digestion is carried out in sludge tank
C. The gases produced in sludge digestion process, contain 75% carbon dioxide
D. The gases produced in sludge digestion process, contain 75% methane

ANS: C

19. The sewer pipes

A. Carry sewage as gravity conduits

B. Are designed for generating self-cleansing velocities at different discharge
C. Should resist the wear and tear caused due to abrasion
D. All the above

ANS: D

20. The settling velocity of the particles larger than 0.06 mm in a settling tank of depth
2.4 is 0.33 m per sec. The detention period recommended for the tank, is

A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 1 hour and 30 minutes
D. 2 hours

ANS: D

21. depends upon The Chezy’s constant C in the formula V = C

A. Size of the sewer

B. Shape of the sewer
C. Roughness of sewer surface
D. All the above

ANS: D

22. The discharge per unit plan area of a sedimentation tank, is generally called

A. Over flow rate

B. Surface loading
C. Over flow velocity
D. All the above

ANS: D

23. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following for allowing workers to enter
sewers

A. The particular manhole and one manhole on upstream and one manhole on
downstream should remain open for 30 minutes
B. Proper tests for the presence of poisonous gases must be carried out
C. The men entering the manhole should be advised to smoke in the sewer
D. Warning signals should be erected

ANS: C

24. For the open drain (N = 0.025) shown in the below figure, the discharge is

A. 26.88 cumecs
B. 27.88 cumecs
C. 28.88 cumecs
D. 29.88 cumecs

ANS: C

25. To prevent settling down of sewage both at the bottom and on the sides of a large
sewer, self-cleaning velocity recommended for Indian conditions, is

A. 0.50 m/sec
B. 0.60 m/sec
C. 0.70 m/sec
D. 0.75 m/sec
ANS: D

26. Assertion A.: The determination of pH value of sewerage is important.

Reason (R): The efficiency of certain treatment methods depends upon the availability
of pH value.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

ANS: A

27. The normal values of over flow rates for sedimentation tanks using coagulant,
ranges between

A. 25,000 to 35,000 litres/sqm/day

B. 40,000 to 50,000 litres/sqm/day
C. 50,000 to 60,000 litres/sqm/day
D. 80,000 to 100,000 litres/sqm/day

ANS: C

28. The drainage area of a town is 12 hectares. Its 40% area is hard pavement ( K =
0.85), the 40% area is unpaved streets (K = 0.20) and the remaining is wooded areas (K
= 0.15). Assuming the time of concentration for the areas as 30 minutes and using the
formula Ps = 900/(t + 60) the maximum run off is

A. 0.10 cumec
B. 0.12 cumec
C. 0.15 cumec
D. 0.20 cumec

ANS: C

29. Sewer pipes are designed for maximum discharge with 25% to 33% vacant cross-
sectional area for

A. Unexpected large scale infiltration of stream water

B. Unexpected increase in the population
C. Under estimates of maximum and average flows
D. All of the above

ANS: D

30. The rational formula for peak drainage discharge, was evolved by

A. Fruhling
B. Lloyd David
C. Kuichling
D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 31

The sewer that unloads the sewage at the point of treatment is called

A. Main sewer

B. Outfall sewer

C. Branch sewer

D. House sewer

ANS: B

Q No: 32

During preliminary treatment of a sewage

A. Oil and grease are removed from skimming tanks

B. Floating materials are removed by screening

C. Girt and sand are removed by girt chambers

D. All the above

ANS: D
Q No: 33

For a grit chamber, if the recommended velocity of flow is 0.2 m/sec and detention
period is 2 minutes, the length of the tank, is

A. 16 m

B. 20 m

C. 24 m

D. 30 m

ANS: C

Q No: 34

Dry weather flow is:

A. Average daily rate of flow

B. Average monthly rate of flow

C. Average annual rate of flow

D. Water supply allowance per capita

ANS: D

Q No: 35

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. The mixture of water and waste products, is called sewage

B. The treated sewage effluents, are generally used for irrigating the crops

C. The process of collecting, treating and disposing off the sewage, is called sewerage

D. The old convergence system was definitely better than water carried sewerage
system ANS: D

Q No: 36
Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The maximum rate of storm runoff is called peak drainage discharge

B. Rational method of estimating peak run off, may be used precisely for areas less than
50 hectares

C. The period after which the entire area starts contributing to the runoff, is called the
time of concentration

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 37

If q is the average sewage flow from a city of population P, the maximum sewage flow

A. Q = [(4 + )/(18 + )] q
B. Q = [(18 + P)/(4 + )] q
C. Q = [(18 + )/(4 + )] q
D. Q = [(5 + )/((15 + )] q
ANS: C

Q No: 38

¾th or ¼th extra space is left in sewer pipes at maximum discharge for

A. Low estimates of the average and maximum flows

B. Large scale infiltration of storm water

C. Unexpected increase in population

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 39

If the flame of a miner’s safety lamp in a manhole extinguishes within 5 minutes, the
sewer certainly contains
A. Hydrogen sulphide

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Methane

D. Oxygen

ANS: B

Q No: 40

Hydraulic mean radius is

A. Mean radius of sewer

B. Difference in heads between two points in circular pipes

C. Mean of radii in a pipe line of varying cross -sections

D. Cross-sectional area/wetted perimeter

ANS: D

Q No: 41

If the depth of flow in a circular sewer is 1/4th of its diameter D, the wetted perimeter is

A. /2

B. /4

C. /3

D. D

ANS: C

Q No: 42

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Anaerobic bacteria flourish in the absence of oxygen B. Aerobic bacteria flourish in
the presence of oxygen C. Facultative bacteria flourish with or without oxygen D. All the
above

ANS: D

The Brake Horse power of the motor (efficiency 60%) required for a pump of capacity
0.075 cumec

for a total lift of 12 m, is

A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

Q No: 44

Aerobic bacterias

A. Flourish in the presence of free oxygen

B. Consume organic matter as their food

C. Oxidise organic matter in sewage

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 45

At the junction of sewers

A. Top of smaller sewer is kept lower

B. Top of larger sewer is kept lower

C. Tops of both the sewers are at the same level

D. None of these

ANS: D
Q No: 46

Traps

A. Are water seals which prevent the entry of foul gases

B. Are used to trap the rats entering sewers

C. Dissolve the foul gases

D. Create symphonic action to increase the quick disposal of sewerage ANS: A

Q No: 47

The sewage treatment units in which anaerobic decomposition of organic matter is

used, are called

A. Imhoff tanks

B. Trickling filters

C. Sludge sedimentation tanks

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 48

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. In treated sewage, 4 ppm of D.O. is essential

B. Only very fresh sewage contains some dissolved oxygen

C. The solubility of oxygen in sewage is 95% that is in distilled water

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 49
If the diameter of a sewer is 150 mm, the gradient required for generating self cleansing
velocity, is

A. 1 in 60

B. 1 in 100

C. 1 in 120

D. None of these ANS: B

Q No: 50

The sewer which received discharge from two or more main sewers, is known as

A. A trunk sewer

B. An outfall sewer

C. A main sewer

D. An intercepting sewer

ANS: A

Q No: 51

The grit and silt of the grit chambers, may not be used for

A. Raising low lying areas by dumping

B. Concreting

C. Both A. and B.

D. Neither A. nor B.

ANS: B

Q No: 52

For treating the sewage of a large city, you will recommend

A. A sedimentation tank and an activated sludge treatment plant

B. A plant consisting of Imhoff tanks with low rate trickling filters

C. Sedimentation tanks with high rate trickling filters

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 53

Imhoff cone is used to measure

A. Total organic solids

B. Total solids

C. Total in organic solids

D. Settleable solids ANS: D

Q No: 54

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The ratio of the quantity of the diluting water to that of the sewage, is known as
dilution factor

B. The automatic purification of polluted water, is known self purification phenomenon

C. The photosynthesis is carried out in the presence of sun light
D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 55

1000 kg of sewage contains

A. 0.112 kg in suspension

B. 0.112 kg in solution
C. 0.225 kg in solution

D. Both A. and C. of above

ANS: D

Q No: 56

Dilution method of disposing of sewage, is not preferred to

A. When sewage is fresh

B. When diluting water has high dissolved oxygen content

C. When diluting water is used for water supply near the point of sewage disposed

D. When the diluting water is having flow currents ANS: C

Q No: 57

If the peak discharge of a storm water drain (S.W. Drain) is expected to exceed 150
cumecs, the free board to be provided, is

A. 100 cm

B. 90 cm

C. 80 cm

D. 50 cm

ANS: A

Q No: 58

The reduced levels of the string at the consecutive sight rails A and B are 203.575 m,
203.475 m respectively. If the difference of their R.D.s is 10 m, the gradient of the sewer
line is

A. 1 in 100 upward

B. 1 in 500 upward
C. 1 in 100 downward

D. 1 in 503 upward

ANS: C

Q No: 59

R.M.O. expenses include

A. Running expenses

B. Maintenance expenses

C. Operation expenses

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 60

For the COD test of sewage, organic matter is oxidised by K2Cr2O7 in the presence of

A. H2SO4

B. HNO3

C. HCl

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 61

The sludge does not contain waste water from

A. Bath rooms

B. Wash basins

C. Kitchen sinks
D. Toilets

ANS: D

Q No: 62

In sewers the velocity of flow should not be

A. More than the self-cleansing velocity

B. Less than the self-cleansing velocity

C. Less than 10 m/sec

D. More than 20 m/sec

ANS: B

Q No: 63

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Hydrogen sulphide gas in excess, may cause corrosion of concrete sewers

B. 4 ppm of Dissolved Oxygen (D.O.) is ensured before discharging the treated sewage in
river

C. Solubility of oxygen in sewage is 95% of that of distilled water

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 64

In sewers the effect of scouring is more on

A. Top side

B. Bottom side

C. Horizontal side
D. All sides ANS: B

Q No: 65

The rainfall at any place may be determined by

A. Its intensity

B. Its direction

C. Its frequency

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 66

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The circular section of sewers provides maximum hydraulic mean depth

B. The circular sewers are provided for separate sewerage system

C. The circular sewers work efficiently if the sections run at least half full

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 67

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Rate of digestion of sludge is more at higher temperature

B. Thermophilic organisms digest the sludge if the temperature ranges from 40° to 60°C

C. Mesophilic organisms digest the sludge if the temperature is between 25° and 40°C

D. All the above

ANS: D
Q No: 68

Sewer ventilating columns are generally placed at

A. Distances 150 m to 300 m

B. Upper ends of branch sewers

C. Every change in the size of sewers

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 69

The sewer which resists sulphide corrosion, is

A. Brick sewer

B. Cast iron sewer

C. R.C.C. sewer

D. Lead sewer

ANS: D

Q No: 70

In a sedimentation tank (length L, width B, depth D) the settling velocity of a particle for a
discharge Q, is

A. Q/(B × D)

B. Q/(L × D)

C. Q/L

D. Q/(B × L)

ANS: D
Q No: 71

The formula which accepts the value of rugosity coefficient n = 0.012 to be used in
Manning’s formula, is given by

A. Bazin

B. Crimp and Bruges

C. William-Hazen

D. Kutter

ANS: B

Q No: 72

The amount of oxygen consumed by the aerobic bacterias which cause the aerobic
biological decomposition of sewage, is known

A. Bio-Chemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.)

B. Dissolved Oxygen (D.O.)

C. Chemical Oxygen Demand (C.O.D.)

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 73

Water content of sewage is about

A. 90 %

B. 95 %

C. 99 %

D. 9.9 %

ANS: D
Q No: 74

Skimming tanks are

A. Used to remove the grease and oil

B. Those from which sludge is skimmed out

C. Tanks provided with self- cleansing screens

D. Improved version of grit chambers

ANS: A

Q No: 75

The most efficient cross-section of sewers in a combined sewerage system is

A. Parabolic

B. Circular

C. Rectangular

D. New egged ANS: B

Q No: 76

The detention period for plain sedimentation water tanks, is usually

A. 4 to 8 hours

B. 8 to 16 hours

C. 16 to 24 hours

D. 24 to 36 hours

ANS: A

Q No: 77

The factor responsible for purification of sewage in river is

A. Hydrology

B. Dissolved oxygen in water

C. Temperature

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 78

Hume steel pipes are

A. Steel pipes

B. Steel shell coated from inside with cement mortar

C. Steel shell coated from outside with cement mortar

D. Both B. and C.

ANS: D

Q No: 79

To maintain aerobic biological activity, the moisture content of the compost mass
should be about

A. 45 %

B. 50 %

C. 55 %

D. 60 %

ANS: C

Q No: 80

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The larger the sewer in size, more will be velocity

B. The smaller the sewer in size, less will be velocity

C. The larger the sewer in size, no deposition will take place

D. The larger the sewer in size, deposition will take place ANS: D

Q No: 81

The pH value of sewage is determined with the help of

A. Imhoff Cone

B. Turbid meter

C. Potentiometer

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 82

If the length of overland flow from the critical point to the mouth of drain is 13.58 km
and difference in level between the critical point and drain mouth is 10 m, the inlet time
is

A. 2 hours

B. 4 hours

C. 6 hours

D. 8 hours

ANS: D

Q No: 83

The normal value of over flow rates for plain primary sedimentation tanks, ranges
between
A. 25,000 to 35,000 litres/sqm/day

B. 40,000 to 50,000 litres/sqm/day

C. 50,000 to 60,000 litres/sqm/day

D. 80,000 to 100,000 litres/sqm/day

ANS: B

Q No: 84

Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. Septic tanks are horizontal continuous flow type of sedimentation tanks

B. Septic tanks are generally provided a detention period of 12 to 36 hours

C. Septic tanks are completely covered and high vent shafts are provided for the escape
of foul gases

D. None of these

ANS: D

Q No: 85

Which one of the following statements regarding septic tanks is wrong?

A. A gap of 7.5 cm between the bottom of the covering slab and the top level of scum is
provided

B. The outlet invert level is kept 5 to 7.5 cm below the inlet invert level C. The minimum
width of septic level is 90 cm

D. The depth of tank is kept equal to its width

ANS: D

Q No: 86

In a trickling filter
A. Filtration process is used

B. Biological action is used

C. Neither A. nor B.

D. Both A. and B. ANS: B

Q No: 87

In areas where rainy season is limited to a few months, the type of sewerage system
recommended is

A. Combined system

B. Partially separate system

C. Separate system

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 88
The rate of accumulation of sludge in septic tanks is recommended as
A. 30 litres/person/year
B. 25 litres/person/year
C. 30 litres/person/month
D. 25 litres/person/month
ANS: A
Q No: 89
Dried sewage after treatment is used as
A. Fertilizer
B. Building material
C. Chemical for lowering B.O.D.
D. Base material for paints
ANS: A
Q No: 90
15 cumecs, the depth d and width are related by
For drains up to
A. d = 0.2 B
B. d = 0.5 B
C. B = 0.2 d
D. B = 0.5 d
ANS: B

Q No: 91

In areas where light rains are uniformly distributed throughout the year, the type of
sewerage system to be adopted is

A. Separate system

B. Combined system

C. Partially combined system

D. None of these ANS: B

Q No: 92

Self-cleansing velocity is

A. Velocity at dry weather flow

B. Velocity of water at flushing

C. Velocity at which no accumulation remains in the drains

D. Velocity of water in a pressure filter

ANS: C

Q No: 93

5 days-biochemical oxygen demand (BOD5) is taken at a temperature of

A. 0°C

B. 15°C

C. 20°C
D. 25°C

ANS: C

Q No: 94

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Inlets are provided on the road surface at the lowest point for draining rain water B.
Inlets are generally provided at an interval of 30 m to 60 m along straight roads C. Inlets
having horizontal openings, are called horizontal inlets

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 95

If a 2% solution of sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20°C and the dissolved
oxygen depletion was found to be 8 mg/l. The BOD of the sewage is

A. 100 mg/l

B. 200 mg/l

C. 300 mg/l

D. 400 mg/l

ANS: D

Q No: 96

Pick up the in-correct statement from the following:

A. Manholes are provided in sewer pipes at suitable intervals

B. Catch basins are generally provided in sewers for carrying drainage discharge

C. Inlets are generally provided in all sewers

D. None of these
ANS: C

Q No: 97

A well oxidized sewage contains nitrogen mainly as

A. Nitrates

B. Nitrites

C. Free ammonia

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 98

The moisture content of sludge is reduced from 90% to 80% in a sludge digestion tank.
The percentage decrease in the volume of sludge, is

A. 25 %

B. 50 %

C. 10 %

D. 5 %

ANS: B

Q No: 99

In a sludge tank, the gas mainly produced, is

A. Oxygen

B. Nitrogen

C. Hydrogen

D. Carbon dioxide
ANS: D

Q No: 100

Bio-chemical oxygen demand (BOD) for the first 20 days in generally referred to

A. Initial demand

B. First stage demand

C. Carbonaceous demand

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 101
are available in size
Stoneware sewers
A. 10 cm
B. 15 cm
C. 20 cm
D. All the above
ANS: D
Q No: 102
If is the diameter of upper circular portion, the overall depth of New Egg shaped sewer
section,
is A. 1.250 D

B. 1.350 D

C. 1.425 D

D. 1.625 D ANS: D

Q No: 103

In normal conditions, the period for sludge digestion, is

A. 10 days

B. 20 days
C. 30 days

D. 60 days

ANS: C

Q No: 104

For evaporation and measurement of settable solids, the apparatus used, is

A. A jar

B. A breaker

C. A test tube

D. An Imhoff cone

ANS: D

Q No: 105

In trickling filter, B.O.D. is reduced to

A. 30 to 40%

B. 40 to 60%

C. 60 to 80%

D. 80 to 90%

ANS: C

Q No: 106

For design of sewers, percentage of sewage discharge is assumed

A. 65 to 70%

B. 70 to 75%

C. 75 to 80%
D. 85%

ANS: C

Q No: 107

The grit chambers of sewage treatment plants, are generally cleaned after

A. 2 days

B. 7 days

C. 12 days

D. 14 days

ANS: D

Q No: 108

Maximum permissible velocity 1.5 m/sec, is adopted in drains

A. With beds of rocks and gravels

B. Lined with stones

C. Both A. and B.

D. Neither A. nor B.

ANS: C

Q No: 109

The average temperature of sewage in India, is

A. 10°C

B. 15°C

C. 20°C

D. 25°C
ANS: C

Q No: 110

‘Cowl’ is provided at

A. Lower end of ventilating column

B. Upper end of ventilating column

C. Upper end of the manhole

D. First step in manhole

ANS: B

Q No: 111
If the discharge of a sewer running half is 628 1.p.s., i = 0.001, and n = 0.010, the
diameter of the
sewer, is
A. 1.39 m
B. 1.49 m
C. 1.59 m
D. 1.69 m
ANS: D
Q No: 112
A drop manhole is provided if
A. A sewer drops from a height
B. A branch sewer joins the main sewer at higher level
C. A lamp is inserted to check obstruction
D. None of these
ANS: B
Q No: 113 running partially full with central angle ,
For a circular sewer of diameter
A. d/D = ½ (1 – –
B. a/A

C. r/R = [1 –

D. All the above ANS: D

Q No: 114

The use of coarse screens for the disposal of sewage, may be dispensed with by

A. Comminutor

B. Shredder

C. Both A. and B.

D. Neither A. nor B.

ANS: C

Q No: 115

In the activated sludge process

A. Aeration is continued till stability

B. Aeration is done with an admixture of previously aerated sludge

C. Sludge is activated by constant stirring

D. Water is removed by centrifugal action

ANS: B

Q No: 116

For detecting the nitrates in sewage, the colour may be developed by adding

A. Potassium permanganate

B. Sulphuric acid and napthamine

C. Phenol-di -sulphuric acid and potassium hydroxide

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 117
The settling velocity of a spherical particle of diameter less than 0.1 mm as per Stock’s
law, is

A. Vs = 418 (Gs – Gw) d [(3T + 70)/100]

B. Vs = 418 (Gs – Gw)d² [(3T + 70)/100]

C. Vs = 218 (Gs – Gw)d² [(3T + 70)/100]

D. Vs = 218 (Gs – Gw)d [(3T + 70)/100]

ANS: B

Q No: 118

In septic tanks,

A. Free board of 0.3 m may be provided

B. The baffles or tees are extended up to top level of scum

C. The clear space between the baffle top and covering slab is about 7.5 cm

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 119

Inter-distance between ventilation columns in a sewer line is kept

A. 25 to 50 m

B. 50 m to 100 m

C. 100 m to 150 m

D. 150 m to 300 m

ANS: D

Q No: 120
Stone ware pipes are

A. Highly resistant to sulphide corrosion

B. Highly impervious

C. Hydraulically efficient because of their smooth interior surface

D. Especially suited to pressure pipes

ANS: D

Q No: 121

The intensity of rain is expressed in

A. cm/minute

B. cm/hour

C. cm/day

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 122

The ratio of the diameter of a circular section and the side of a square section
hydraulically equivalent, is

A. 1.095

B. 1.085

C. 1.075

D. 1.065

ANS: A

Q No: 123
Which one of the following part of human body withstands minimum radiation?

A. Thyroid

B. Kidneys

C. Eyes

D. Ovaries/testis

ANS: D

Q No: 124

Drop manholes are the manholes

A. Without entry ladders

B. Without manhole covers

C. With depths more than 3.5 m

D. Having drains at different levels ANS: D

Q No: 125

The bottom of the sewage inlet chamber of septic tanks, is provided an outward slope

A. 1 in 5

B. 1 in 10

C. 1 in 15

D. 1 in 20

ANS: B

Q No: 126

If 2% solution of a sewage sample is incubated for 5 days at 20°C and depletion of

oxygen was found to be 5 ppm, B.O.D. of the sewage is
A. 200 ppm

B. 225 ppm

C. 250 ppm

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 127

Primary treatment of sewage consists of removal of

A. Large suspended organic solids

B. Oil and grease

C. Sand and girt

D. Floating materials

ANS: A

Q No: 128

The sewers

A. Must be of adequate size to avoid over flow

B. Must flow under gravity ½ to ¾ full

C. Must be laid at least 2 to 3 m deep to collect /water from the basements

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 129

Cement concrete sewers are only suitable if non-scouring velocity is between

A. 2.5 to 3.0 m/sec

B. 3.0 to 4.0 m/sec

C. 3.5 to 4.5 m/sec

D. 4.5 to 5.5 m/sec

ANS: A

Q No: 130

In a fully mechanised composting plant, involves

A. Mechanized receipt

B. Mechanized segregation

C. Mechanized pulverising of refuse

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 131

The most widely used pump for lifting sewage is

A. Centrifugal pump

B. Reciprocating pump

C. Pneumatic ejector

D. Air pressure pump

ANS: A

Q No: 132
weight of water, the hydraulic mean depth of the sewer and the bed slope
w is the unit
of the sewer, then the tractive force exerted by flowing water, is
A. w r S S
B. w r1/2
C. w r S
D. w r2/3

ANS: A

Q No: 133

Setting out the alignments of sewers may start from

A. City

B. Out-fall

C. Tail end

D. Any point

ANS: C

Q No: 134

The detention time of a circular tank of diameter d and water depth H, for receiving the
sewage Q per hour, is

A. d² (0.011d + 0.785H)/Q

B. d (0.022d + 0.085H)/Q

C. d (0.785d + 0.011H)/Q

D. d (0.285d + 0.011H)/Q

ANS: A

Q No: 135

Lead acetate test in sewer manhole is done to test the presence of

A. Methane gas

B. Hydrogen sulphide

C. Carbondioxide gas
D. Diesel vapours ANS: B

Q No: 136

Antisyphonage pipe is fitted

A. At the end of septic tanks

B. On manholes

C. With a W.C. trap

D. At the beginning of sewer line

ANS: C

Q No: 137

In a grit chamber of a sewage treatment plant,

A. Flow velocity 0.15 m to 0.3 m/sec is kept

B. Depth of 0.9 m to 1.20 m is kept

C. One minute of detention period is kept

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 138

The ratio of maximum sewage flow to average sewage flow for mains up to 1 m in
diameter, is

A. 1.5

B. 2.0

C. 3.0

D. 4.0
ANS: B

Q No: 139

pH value of sludge during alkaline regression stage, is

A. More than 7

B. Less than 7

C. Less than 6

D. More than 6

ANS: A

Q No: 140

The arrangement made for passing the sewer line below an obstruction below the
hydraulic gradient lines called

A. Inverted syphon

B. Depressed sewer

C. Sag pipe

D. all of these

ANS: D

Q No: 141

Pick up the incorrect size of stone ware sewers

A. 52.5 cm

B. 67.5 cm

C. 82.5 cm

D. None of these
ANS: D

Q No: 142

Chlorination of water is done for the removal of

A. Bacterias

B. Suspended solids

C. Sediments

D. Hardness

ANS: A

Q No: 143

Sludge banks are formed if sewage is disposed of in

A. Rivers

B. Seas

C. Lakes

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 144

Assertion A.: A free board of 0.3 m is provided above the top sewage line in septic tanks.

Reason (R): It helps to accommodate the scum in the septic tank.

A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

ANS: A

Q No: 145

The temperature affects the

A. Biological activity of bacteria in sewage

B. Solubility of gases in sewage

C. Viscosity of sewage

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 146

The clarigesters are

A. Circular septic tanks

B. Rectangular septic tanks

C. Circular Imhoff double tanks with bottom hoppers

D. Circular Imhoff double storey tanks without bottom hoppers ANS: D

Q No: 147

The density of population over 40 hectares is 250/hectare. If water supply demand per
day is 200 litres and sewage discharge is 80% of water supply, the sewage flow in
sewers of separate system, is

A. 0.05552 cumec

B. 0.05554 cumec

C. 0.05556 cumec

D. 0.0556 cumec ANS: C

Q No: 148
In a residential colony, sewers of diameters 100 mm, 150 mm and 225 mm were laid
with a gradient 1 in 120. Which portion of the sewage system does not choke in due
course of time?

A. 100 mm dia.

B. 150 mm dia.

C. 225 mm dia.

D. All of these

ANS: C

Q No: 149

The spacing of bars for perforations in coarse screens used for the treatment of
sewage, is

A. 20 mm

B. 30 mm

C. 40 mm

D. 50 mm

ANS: D

Q No: 150

In case of Imhoff tanks,

A. The shape is rectangular

B. Detention period is 2 hours

C. The velocity of flow is restricted to 0.30 m/minute

D. All the above

ANS: D
WASTE WATER Engineering Objective Questions Pdf ::

Q No: 151

The pH value of fresh sewage is usually

A. Equal to 7

B. More than 7

C. Less than 7

D. Equal to zero

ANS: B

Q No: 152

The maximum depth of sedimentation tanks, is kept

A. 3 m

B. 3.5 m

C. 4 m

D. 4.5 m

ANS: A

Q No: 153

If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 5 ppm after incubating a 2.5% solution of

sewage sample for 5 days at 21°C, B.O.D. of the sewage is

A. 50 ppm

B. 100 ppm

C. 150 ppm

D. 200 ppm
ANS: D

Q No: 154

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Indore method of composting involves decomposition under aerobic conditions

B. Bangalore method of composting involves decomposing under anaerobic conditions

C. Fully stabilised refuse by the Bangalore method of compositing is a powdery mass

called humus

D. all of these

ANS: D

Q No: 155

Lead caulked joints are used for laying

A. Stone ware pipes

B. Earthenware pipes

C. C.I. pipes

D. G.I. pipes

ANS: B

Q No: 156

If D is the diameter of a circular sewer and D’ is the top horizontal diameter of an

equivalent egg shaped section, the relationship which holds good, is

A. D’ = 0.64 D

B. D’ = 0.74 D

C. D’ = 0.84 D

D. D’ = 0.94 D
ANS: C

Q No: 157

The spacing of man holes along a straight portion of a sewer is 300 m, the diameter of
the sewer may be

A. 0.9 cm

B. 1.2 m

C. 1.5 m

D. > 1.5 m

ANS: D

Q No: 158

A sewer running partially full and hurried with back filled, fails in compression due to

A. Weight of the pipe

B. Weight of the back fill

C. Superimposed traffic loads

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 159

A five day B.O.D. at 15°C of the sewage of a town is 100 kg/day. If the 5 day B.O.D. per
head at 15°C for standard sewage is 0.1 kg/day, the population equivalent is

A. 100

B. 1000

C. 5000

D. 10000
ANS: D

Q No: 160

Kjeldahl nitrogen is a mixture of

A. Ammonia and nitrogen

B. Nitrogen and organic nitrogen

C. Organic nitrogen and ammonia

D. All the above

ANS: D

WASTE WATER ENGINEERING Objective Questions with Answers

Q No: 161

The quantity of liquid waste which flows in sewers during the period of rainfall, is known

A. Sanitary sewage

B. Industrial waste

C. Storm sewage

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 162

Nitrogen cycle of sewage, is

A. Liberation of ammonia-formation of nitrites-formation of nitrates-liberation of

nitrogen

B. Liberation of nitrogen-liberation of ammonia-formation of nitrites- formation of

nitrates
C. Liberation of nitrogen-formation of nitrates-formation of nitrites-liberation of
ammonia

D. Formation of nitrates-formation of nitrites-liberation of nitrates-liberation of nitrates

ANS: A

Q No: 163

Depletion of ozone layer in the outer atmosphere may cause

A. Lung cancer

B. Skin cancer

C. Bronchitis

D. Heart disorder

ANS: B

Q No: 164

The minimum diameter of a sewer is kept

A. 10 cm

B. 15 cm

C. 20 cm

D. 25 cm

ANS: B

Q No: 165

A cylindrical ejector having its height 2 m fills after every 10 minutes with a peak sewage
discharge of 0.0157 cumec. The diameter of the ejector chamber, is

A. 2.30 m

B. 2.40 m
C. 2.45 m

D. 2.50 m

ANS: C

Q No: 166

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The materials separated by screens, is called screenings

B. The screenings are disposed off either by burning or by burial or by dumping

C. The process of burning the screenings, is known as compositing

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 167

Which one of the following gases is most significant as air pollutant?

A. Carbondioxide

B. Oxygen

C. Nitrogen

D. Sulphur-dioxide

ANS: D

Q No: 168

Hazen’s formula VS = 418 (GS – Gw)d [(3T + 70)/100] is used for the settlement velocity
of the particles of diameter

A. Less than 0.01 mm

B. Less than 0.05 mm

C. Less than 0.1 mm

D. Greater than 0.1 mm

ANS: D

Q No: 169

For sewers, inverted siphon is provided for

A. One pipe

B. Two pipes

C. Three pipes

D. Four pipes

ANS: C

Q No: 170

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. pH value indicates acidity and alkalinity of sewage B. In acidic sewage, the pH value is
less than 7 C. In alkaline sewage, the pH value is more than 7

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 171

For large sewers, maximum distance between manholes may be

A. 50 m

B. 100 m

C. 200 m

D. 300 m
ANS: D

Q No: 172

In sewers designed with self cleansing velocity,

A. The bottom is silted

B. The bottom is scoured

C. Both silting and scouring occur at the bottom

D. Neither silting nor scouring occurs at the bottom ANS: D

Q No: 173

The value of Chezy’s constant C = 157.6/(1.81 + K/ ) is used in

A. Chezy’s formula

B. Bazin’s formula

C. Kutter’s formula

D. Manning’s formula ANS: B

Q No: 174

An inverted siphon is designed generally for

A. One pipe

B. Two pipes

C. Three pipes

D. Four pipes

ANS: C

Q No: 175

The spacing of bars of perforations of fine screens used for the treatment of sewage, is
A. 2 to 3 mm

B. 3 to 5 mm

C. 5 to 8 mm

D. 8 to 10 mm

ANS: A

Q No: 176

Pathogens (or pathogenic bacterias) in water may cause

A. Typhoid

B. Cholera

C. Dysentery

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 177

The rate of accumulation of sludge per person per year, is

A. 10 litres

B. 15 litres

C. 20 litres

D. 25 litres

ANS: C

Q No: 178

The screens are fixed

A. Perpendicular to the direction of flow

B. Parallel to the direction of flow

C. At an angle 30° to 60° to the direction of flow

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 179

In circular sewers if depth of flow is 0.2 times the full depth, the nominal gradient,

A. Is only provided

B. Is doubled

C. Is trebled

D. Is not enough

ANS: B

Q No: 180

In detritus tanks,

A. Flow velocity is kept 0.09 m/sec

B. Detention period is kept 3 to 4 minutes

C. Organic and inorganic materials are separated

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 181

The flow velocity in detritus tanks is

A. 0.05 m/sec

B. 0.09 m/sec
C. 1.25 m/sec

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 182

If the side of a square sewer is 1000 mm, the diameter of a hydraulically equivalent
circular section, is

A. 1045 mm

B. 1065 mm

C. 1075 mm

D. 1095 mm

ANS: D

Q No: 183

The water carried sewerage system removes

A. Domestic sewage

B. Industrial sewage

C. Storm sewage

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 184

A nuisance is experienced in diluting water if dilution factor is less than

A. 100

B. 60
C. 40

D. 20

ANS: D

Q No: 185

A manhole is generally provided at each

A. Bend

B. Junction

C. Change of gradient

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 186

The asbestos cement pipes are generally laid

A. Horizontally

B. Vertically

C. At an angle of 30°

D. At an angle of 60°

ANS: B

Q No: 187

The design period in years for pumping plants, is

A. 1

B. 2 to 3

C. 3 to 5
D. 5 to 10

ANS: D

Q No: 188

A safety lamp when inserted in the upper portion of a manhole causes flames. It
indicates the presence of

A. Carbondioxide gas

B. Hydrogen sulphide gas

C. Methane gas

D. Petrol vapours

ANS: C

Q No: 189

The disintegrating pump in which solid matter is broken up before passing out, is

A. Centrifugal pump

B. Reciprocating pump

C. Pneumatic ejector

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 190

If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 2.5 mg/litre after incubating 2.5 ml of sewage
diluted to 250 ml for 5 days at 20°C, B.O.D. of the sewage is

A. 50 mg/l

B. 100 mg/l

C. 150 mg/l
D. 250 mg/l

ANS: D

Q No: 191

Design period of 40 to 50 years is adopted for

A. Branch sewers

B. Main sewers

C. Trunk sewers

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 192

A circular sewer section is preferred to because

A. It is cheaper in construction

B. It provides maximum area for a given perimeter

C. It provides maximum hydraulic mean depth

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 193

In very first stage of decomposition of the organic matter in sewage

A. Nitrites are formed

B. Nitrates are formed

C. Carbondioxide is formed

D. Ammonia is formed
ANS: D

Q No: 194

In a city the ratio of the drainage to sewage is 20, the percentage discharge passing
through non-monsoon periods, is

A. 5

B. 10

C. 15

D. 20

ANS: D

Q No: 195

The self-cleansing velocity of water flowing through pipe lines, is

A. 2 metres/sec

B. 1 metre/sec

C. 0.5 metre/sec

D. 0.25 metre/sec ANS: A

Q No: 196

In case of sewer lines

A. Water test is carried out to check water tightness of the joints

B. Test for straightness is carried out with the help of a lamp and mirror

C. Obstruction test is carried out with the help of smooth ball of diameter 13 mm

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 197
The normal values of over flow rates for secondary sedimentation tanks, ranges
between

A. 25,000 to 35,000 litres/sqm/day

B. 40,000 to 50,000 litres/sqm/day

C. 50,000 to 60,000 litres/sqm/day

D. 80,000 to 10,000 litres/sqm/day

ANS: A

Q No: 198

A manhole is classified as shallow if its depth is between

A. 0.4 to 0.5 m

B. 0.5 to 0.7 m

C. 0.7 to 0.9 m

D. 0.9 to 1.20 m

ANS: C

Q No: 199

The first stage of neutral process of sludge digestion, is

A. Acid fermentation

B. Acid regression

C. Alkaline fermentation

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 200
The stone ware sewers

A. Are used for carrying sewage and drainage from houses

B. Are manufactured from clays and shale

C. After casting are dried and burnt at temperature 150°C, 700°C and 1200°C

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 201

The formula V = (1/n) r2/3

A. Chezy’s formula

B. Bazin’s formula

C. Kutter’s formula

D. Manning’s formula

ANS: D

Q No: 202

In sewers the highest non-scouring velocity is achieved in

A. Glazed bricks sewers

B. Cast iron sewers

C. Cement concrete sewers

D. Stone ware sewers

ANS: A

Q No: 203

The maximum diameter of sewers adopted in the designs is

A. 1.0 m

B. 2.0 m

C. 3.0 m

D. 4.0 m

ANS: C

Q No: 204

If D.O. concentration falls down to zero in any natural drainage, it indicates the zone of

A. Degradation

B. Active decomposition

C. Recovery

D. Cleaner water

ANS: B

Q No: 205

Facultative bacteria survive in

A. The presence of oxygen

B. The absence of oxygen

C. Both cases A. and B.

D. Neither A. nor B.

ANS: C

Q No: 206

For trunk and out-fall, the type of sewers generally used, is

A. Standard egg shaped

B. Circular shaped

C. Horse shoe shaped

D. Parabolic shaped ANS: C

Q No: 207

The maximum spacing of manholes specified by Indian standard in sewers upto 0.3 m
diameter is

A. 20 m

B. 30 m

C. 45 m

D. 75 m

ANS: C

Q No: 208

The suitable cross-section of sewers to carry combined flow, is

A. Circular

B. Egg shaped

C. Rectangular

D. Horse shoe shaped

ANS: B

Q No: 209

The underground sewers are more subjected to

A. Tensile force

B. Compressive force
C. Bending force

D. Shearing force

ANS: B

Q No: 210

The minimum recommended diameter of sewers, is

A. 5 cm

B. 10 cm

C. 15 cm

D. 20 cm

ANS: C

Q No: 211

Ventilating shafts are provided to a sewer line at every

A. 100 m

B. 150 m

C. 200 m

D. 300 m

ANS: D

Q No: 212

The most efficient cross section of sewers in a separate sewerage system is

A. Parabolic

B. Circular

C. Rectangular
D. New egged ANS: B

Q No: 213

Boussinesq’s equation for ascertaining unit pressure at a depth on sewers due to traffic
loads, is

A. pt = 3H3p/2 Z5

B. pt = 2H3p/3 Z5

C. pt = 3H3p/2Z5

D. pt = 2 3p/3Z5 ANS: A

Q No: 214

If the over land flow from the critical point to the drain is 8 km and the difference in level
is 12.4 m, the inlet time is

A. 2 hours

B. 3 hours

C. 4 hours

D. 5 hours

ANS: C

Q No: 215

For trunk sewers more than 1.25 m in diameter, the ratio of the maximum daily sewage
flow to the average daily sewage flow is assumed

A. 1.5

B. 2.0

C. 2.5

D. 3.0
ANS: A

Q No: 216

The settlement of a particle in sedimentation tank, is affected by

A. Velocity of flow

B. Viscosity of water

C. Size and shape of solid

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 217

If the pH value of sewage is 7

A. It is acidic

B. It is alkaline

C. It is neutral

D. None of these ANS: C

Q No: 218

A sewer pipe contains 1 mm sand particles of specific gravity 2.65 and 5 mm organic
particles of specific gravity 1.2, the minimum velocity required for removing the
sewerage, is

A. 0.30 m/sec

B. 0.35 m/sec

C. 0.40 m/sec

D. 0.45 m/sec

ANS: D
Q No: 219

The width of a settling tank with 2 hour detention period for treating sewage 378 cu m
per hour, is

A. 5 m

B. 5.5 m

C. 6.5 m

D. 7 m

ANS: D

Q No: 220

The sewer which collects the discharge from a collecting system and delivers it to a
treatment plant, is known

A. House sewer

B. Lateral sewer

C. Branch sewer

D. Sewer outfall

ANS: D

Q No: 221

For non-scouring velocity 5 m/sec, the type of sewers generally preferred to, is

A. Cast iron sewers

B. Cement concrete sewers

C. Glazed bricks sewers

D. Stone ware sewers

ANS: C
Q No: 222

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The boning rod is used for checking the levels of the sewer inverts

B. Manhole covers are made circular for the convenience of the cleaning staff

C. A manhole is classified as shallow manhole if its depth is less than 0.9 m

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 223

The ratio of maximum sewage flow to average sewage flow for trunk mains having
diameters more than 1.25 m, is

A. 1.5

B. 2.0

C. 3.0

D. 4.0

ANS: A

Q No: 224

The most dangerous pollutant in vehicular emissions is

A. CO

B. SO2

C. CO2

D. O3

ANS: A
Q No: 225

Large diameter sewers subjected to external pressure alone, are reinforced

A. Near the inner surface of the pipe

B. Near the outer surface of the pipe

C. Both A. and B.

D. With elliptical cage

ANS: D

Q No: 226

For laying a sewer line in a trench of 2 m width, an offset line is marked on the ground
parallel to the given centre line at a distance of

A. 100 cm

B. 120 cm

C. 140 cm

D. 160 cm

ANS: D

Q No: 227

The liquid wastes from kitchens, bath rooms and wash basins, is not called

A. Liquid waste

B. Sullage

C. Sewage

D. None of these

ANS: C
Q No: 228

The detention time (t) of a settling tank, may be defined as the time required for

A. A particle to travel along its length

B. A particle to travel from top surface to bottom sludge zone C. The flow of sewage to
fill the tank

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 229

The following is the physical characteristic of sewage

A. Turbidity

B. Colour

C. Odour

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 230

The effluent of a septic tank is

A. Fit for discharge into any open drain

B. Foul and contains dissolved and suspended solids

C. As good as that from a complete treatment

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 231
The design period of sewage treatment works in normally

A. 5 – 10 years

B. 15 – 20 years

C. 30 – 40 years

D. 40 – 50 years

ANS: B

Q No: 232

In Chezy’s formula V = C rs for calculating the velocity of flow in circular sewer of

diameter running full, the value of hydraulic mean radius is

A. D

B. D /2

C. D/3

D. D/4

ANS: D

Q No: 233

It is customary to design a sewer for D.W.F. on the basis of

A. Average demand

B. Twice the average demand

C. Thrice the average demand

D. Four times the average demand

ANS: C

Q No: 234
For sewer mains of 0.5 to 1 m diameter, the ratio of maximum daily sewage flow to the
average daily sewage flow is assumed

A. 1.5

B. 2.0

C. 2.5

D. 3.0

ANS: B

Q No: 235

Fresh sewage is generally

A. Alkaline

B. Acidic

C. Highly decomposed

D. A source of objectionable odour

ANS: A

Q No: 236

The recommended detention period for grit chambers is

A. 1 minute

B. 2 minutes

C. 3 minutes

D. 5 minutes

ANS: A

Q No: 237
For detecting the nitrites in the sewage, the matching colour may be developed by
adding

A. Potassium permanganate

B. Sulphuric acid and napthamine

C. Phenol-di -sulphuric acid potassium hydroxide

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 238
If is the diameter of upper circular portion, the overall depth of a standard egg shaped
section,
is

A. D

B. 1.25 D

C. 1.5 D

D. 1.75 D ANS: C

Q No: 239

The laying of sewers is done with

A. Magnetic compass

B. Theodolite

C. Level

D. Clinometer ANS: C

Q No: 240

A rainfall may be classified as acidic if its pH value is less or equal to

A. 6

B. 7

C. 5

D. 6.5

ANS: C

Q No: 241

The settlement velocity of a solid (diameter 0.5 mm, specific gravity 1.75) in water
having temperature 10°C, is

A. 213.5 cm/sec

B. 313.5 cm/sec

C. 413.5 cm/sec

D. 500 cm/sec

ANS: B

Q No: 242

For house drainage minimum gradient is

A. 1 in 60

B. 1 in 80

C. 1 in 10

D. 1 in 400

ANS: A

Q No: 243

For estimating the peak run off the rational formula Q = 0.0278 KpA was evolved by
A. Kinchling

B. Lloyd Davis

C. Frubling

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 244

A rain sanitary sewer is constructed to carry

A. Sanitary sewage

B. Storm sewage

C. Surface water

D. Ground water

ANS: A

Q No: 245

The most effective arrangement for diverting excess storm water into a natural drainage,
is

A. Leaping weir

B. Overflow weir

C. Siphon spill way

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 246

The drop man holes are generally provided in sewers for

A. Industrial areas

B. Large town ships

C. Hilly town ships

D. Cities in plains

ANS: C

Q No: 247

For a peak discharge of 0.0157 cumec, with a velocity of 0.9 m/sec, the diameter of the
sewer main, is

A. 10 cm

B. 12 cm

C. 15 cm

D. 18 cm

ANS: C

Q No: 248

For design purposes, the normal rate of infiltration of ground water into the sewer, is

A. 500 litres/km/cm

B. 1000 litres/km/cm

C. 1500 litres/km/cm

D. 2000 litres/km/cm

ANS: D

Q No: 249

You are asked to design sewer pipes of diameters 0.4 m to 0.9 m at maximum flow, you
will assume the sewer flow running at
A. Full depth

B. Half full

C. Two third full

D. Three fourth full

ANS: B

Q No: 250

The algae dies out in the zone of

A. Degradation

B. Active decomposition

C. Recovery

D. Cleaner water ANS: A

Q No: 251

In a sludge digestion tank if the moisture content of sludge V1 litres is reduced from p1
% to p2 % the volume V2 is

A. [(100 + P1)/(100 – P2)] V1

B. [(100 – P1)/(100 + P2)] V1

C. [(100 – P1)/(100 – P2)] V1

D. [(100 + P2)/(100 – P1)] V1

ANS: C

Q No: 252

Assertion A. : Discharging the effluents from the oxidation ponds just up stream of lakes
or reservoirs is undesirable.
Reason (R) : The discharged algae get settled in the reservoirs and cause anaerobic
decomposition and other water qualities.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A B. Both A and R are true
but R is not a correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

ANS: A

Q No: 253

The sewage treatment in septic tanks is due to

A. Anaerobic decomposition

B. Aerobic decomposition

C. Parasitic decomposition

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 254

The dimensions of a rectangular settling tank are: length 24 m, width 6 m and depth 3 m.
If 2 hour detention period for tanks is recommended, the rate of flow of sewage per hour,
is
A. 204 cu.m

B. 208 cu.m

C. 212 cu.m

D. 216 cu.m

ANS: D

Q No: 255
If is the rugosity coefficient, is the bed slope of sewer, the velocity of flow in m/sec may
be obtained by the formula V = (1/n) r2/3 s1/2 evolved by

A. Chezy

B. Manning

C. Bazin

D. Kutter ANS: B

Q No: 256

Disposal to sewage in large cities, is done in

A. Irrigation

B. Dilution

C. Oxidation

D. Purification

ANS: B

Q No: 257

3.0 ml of raw sewage is diluted to 300 ml. The D.O. concentration of the diluted sample
at the beginning of the test was 8 mg/l. After 5 day-incubation at 20°C, the D.O.
concentration was 5 mg/l. The BOD of raw sewerage is

A. 100 mg/l

B. 200 mg/l

C. 300 mg/l

D. 400 mg/l

ANS: C

Q No: 258
The digested sludge from septic tanks, is removed after a maximum period of

A. 3 years

B. 3.5 years

C. 4 years

D. 5 years

ANS: A

Q No: 259

Assertion A.: The minimum self cleansing velocity in the sewer, at least once a day, must
be generated.

Reason (R): If certain deposition takes place and is not removed, it obstructs free flow
and causes further deposition leading to complete blocking of the sewer.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A B. Both A and R are true
but R is not a correct explanation of A C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

ANS: A

Q No: 260

The presence of free ammonia in sewage, is detected by

A. Boiling

B. Adding potassium permanganate

C. Adding sulphuric acid

D. Phenol-di-sulphuric acid ANS: A

Q No: 261

Dry water flow in a combined sewer, is

A. Industrial sewage

B. Domestic sewage

C. Storm water

D. Inclusive of domestic and industrial sewage but excludes storm water ANS: C

Q No: 262

The porosity of sediments in sewer pipes, is usually taken as

A. 0.010

B. 0.011

C. 0.012

D. 0.013

ANS: D

Q No: 263

In sewage having fully oxidised organic matter, the nitrogen exists in the form of

A. Nitrites

B. Nitrates

C. Free ammonia

D. Aluminoid nitrogen

ANS: B

Q No: 264

The minimum diameter of sewer to be adopted is

A. 10 cm

B. 12.5 cm
C. 15 cm

D. 25 cm

ANS: C

Q No: 265

If the diameter of sewer is 225 mm, the gradient required for generating self cleansing
velocity, is

A. 1 in 60

B. 1 in 100

C. 1 in 120

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 266

The sewerage system consists of

A. House sewer

B. Lateral sewer

C. Branch sewer

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 267

Clogging of sewers, is caused due to

A. Silting

B. Low discharge
C. Greasy and oily matters

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 268

Oxidation process results in the formation of

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Nitrates

C. Sulphates

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 269

The sewage is pumped up

A. From low lying areas

B. From flat areas

C. From basements

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 270

The angle subtended by the surface of sewer water with partial flow, at sewer centre is
120°, the depth of sewerage is

A. 20 cm

B. 25 cm
C. 40 cm

D. 50 cm

ANS: D

Q No: 271

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Turbidity is more in strong sewage

B. The black colour indicates septic sewage

C. The sewage omits offensive odours after four hours

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 272

If the grit in grit chambers is 4.5 million litres per day, its cleaning is done

A. Manually

B. Mechanically

C. Hydraulically

D. Electrically

ANS: A

Q No: 273

Which one of the following tests is used for testing sewer pipes?

A. Water test

B. Ball test

C. Mirror test
D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 274

The ratio of depths at partial flo

A. 1 –

B. 1 –

C. ½ (1 –

D. ½ (1 –

ANS: C

Q No: 275

The non-clog pump which permits solid matter to pass out with the liquid sewage, is

A. Centrifugal pump

B. Reciprocating pump

C. Pneumatic ejector

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 276

With self cleansing velocity in sewers

A. Silting occurs at bottom

B. Scouring occurs at bottom

C. Both silting and scouring occur at bottom

D. Neither silting nor scouring occurs at bottom

ANS: D

Q No: 277

When drainage to sewage ratio is 20, the peak dry weather flow is

A. 20% of the design discharge

B. Slightly less than 5% of the design discharge

C. Slightly more than 5% of the design discharge

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 278

As compared to fresh river water, sea water contains oxygen

A. 10% less

B. 20% less

C. 10% more

D. 20% more

ANS: B

Q No: 279

Flocculated particles do not change their

A. Size

B. Shape

C. Weight

D. None of these

ANS: D
Q No: 280

Imhoff cone is used to determine

A. Settleable solids

B. Suspended solids

C. Dissolved solids

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 281

For providing an Indian type W.C., the R.C.C. slabs in the toilet portion

A. Should be sunk by 20 cm

B. Should be kept 20 cm above the adjacent portion

C. Should be sunk by 50 cm

D. Need not be sunk

ANS: C

Q No: 282

Discrete or granular particles change their

A. Size

B. Shape

C. Weight

D. None of these ANS: D

Q No: 283

The sewer pipe which carries sewage from a building for immediate disposal is
A. House sewer

B. Lateral sewer

C. Intercepting sewer

D. Main sewer

ANS: A

Q No: 284

The ratio of design discharge to the surface area of a sedimentation tank is called

A. Surface loading

B. Overflow rate

C. Overflow velocity

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 285

In SI units the power of sound is represented in

A. Kgs

B. Joules

C. Newtons

D. Watts

ANS: D

Q No: 286

Which one of the following resists hydrogen sulphide corrosion?

A. R.C.C.
B. Glazed stone wares

C. Asbestos cement

D. Glazed ware

ANS: D

Q No: 287

The width of a rectangular sewer is twice its depth while discharging 1.5 m/sec. The
width of the sewer is

A. 0.68 m

B. 0.88 m

C. 1.36 m

D. 1.76 m

ANS: C

Q No: 288

In olden days the type of section adopted in trunk and out fall sewers was

A. Parabolic shaped

B. Horse shoe shaped

C. Egg shaped

D. Circular shaped

ANS: B

Q No: 289

For the survival of fish in a river stream, the minimum dissolved oxygen is prescribed

A. 3 ppm
B. 4 ppm

C. 5 ppm

D. 10 ppm

ANS: B

Q No: 290

In primary sedimentation, the 0.2 mm inorganic solids get separated if specific gravity is

A. 2.25

B. 2.50

C. 2.55

D. 2.65

ANS: D

Q No: 291

The coagulant widely used for sewage treatment, is

A. Alum

B. Ferric chloride

C. Ferric sulphate

D. Chlorinated copperas

ANS: B

Q No: 292

House connections to the laterals is generally made by

A. R.C.C.

B. P.C.C.
C. Cast iron

D. Glazed stonewares

ANS: D

Q No: 293

The ratio of minimum hourly flow to the average flow of sewage is

A. 1/4

B. 1/3

C. 1/2

D. 3/4

ANS: B

Q No: 294

In R.C. sewer pipes, the percentage longitudinal reinforcement to the cross-sectional

area of concrete is kept

A. 10.0

B. 5.0

C. 2.0

D. 0.25

ANS: D

Q No: 295

Removal of oil and grease from sewage, is known

A. Screening

B. Skimming
C. Filtration

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 296

Rate of flow of sewage is generally assumed

A. More than the rate of water supply

B. Equal to the rate of water supply

C. Less than the rate of water supply

D. At 150 litres per capita

ANS: D

Q No: 297

The gradient of sewers depends upon

A. Velocity of flow

B. Diameter of the sewer

C. Discharge

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 298

If the depth of partial flow in a sewer of diameter 2 m, is 50 cm, its wetted perimeter is

A.

B. /2

C. /3
D. 2 /3

ANS: D

Q No: 299

The standard B.O.D. of water is taken for

A. 1 day

B. 2 days

C. 3 days

D. 5 days

ANS: D

Q No: 300

In sewers the gas generally found, is

A. Hydrogen sulphide (H2S)

B. Carbon dioxide (CO2)

C. Methane (CH4)

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 301

Fresh sewage may become stale in

A. One hour

B. Two to three hours

C. Three to four hours

D. Six hours
ANS: C

Q No: 302

The small sewers are cleaned by

A. Flushing

B. Cane rodding

C. Wooden pills

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 303

The sewage discharge in a detritus tank of a treatment plant is 576 litres/sec with flow
velocity of 0.2 m/sec. If the ratio of width to depth is 2, the depth is

A. 100 cm

B. 110 cm

C. 120 cm

D. 150 cm

ANS: C

Q No: 304

If is the diameter of upper circular portion, the area of cross-section of a standard egg
shaped sewer, is

A. D²

B. D²

C. D²

D. D²
ANS: A

Q No: 305

Drop manholes at the junctions of sewer lines, are provided if

A. Invert level of a branch sewer is more than 60 cm that of the main sewer

B. Sewer line runs along a main road

C. Ordinary manhole cannot be built

D. Two sewer lines intersect

ANS: A

Q No: 306

In sewage, the solids in mg per litre is

A. 100 to 500

B. 500 to 1000

C. 1000 to 1500

D. 1500 to 2000

ANS: B

Q No: 307

During purification process of sewage the gas given off, is

A. Carbon dioxide

B. Hydrogen

C. Ammonia

D. All the above

ANS: D
Q No: 308

The gas evolved in sewers is

A. Carbondioxide

B. Hydrogen sulphide

C. Methane

D. All of these

ANS: D

309. The sewerage system originates from

A. House sewers

B. Lateral sewers

C. Branch sewers

D. Main sewers

ANS: A

310. If a paper moistened with lead acetate for five minutes when placed in manhole
turns black. The sewer certainly contains

A. Hydrogen sulphide

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Methane

D. Oxygen

ANS: A

311. In septic tanks, decomposition of organic bacteria, is done by

A. Anaerobic bacteria
B. Aerobic bacteria

C. Both types of bacterias

D. None of these

ANS: A

312. The sewer which transports the sewage to the point of treatment, is called

A. House sewer

B. Out-fall sewer

C. Branch sewer

D. Main sewer

ANS: B

313. Sewer pipes need be checked for

A. Minimum flow

B. Maximum flow

C. Both A. and B.

D. None of these

ANS: C

314. To test chemical oxygen demand (C.O.D.) of sewage, organic matter is oxidised
by potassium dichromate in the presence of

A. Hydrochloric acid

B. Sulphuric acid

C. Nitric acid

D. Citric acid
ANS: B

315. hydraulically equivalent, the relationship which holds good, is

A. D8/3 = 4 b8/3

B. D3/8 = 4 b3/8

C. D2/3 = 4 b2/3

D. D3/2 = 4 b3/2

ANS: A

316. If the diameter of a sewer is 100 mm, the gradient required for generating self
cleansing velocity is

A. 1 in 60

B. 1 in 100

C. 1 in 120

D. None of these

ANS: A

317. Aerobic activity is maximum

A. In freshly produced sewage

B. At sewer pipes

C. In sewer treatment plants

D. None of these

ANS: A

318. In 1000 kg of sewage, the total solids approximate

A. 0.5 to 1.0 kg
B. 1 kg to 2.0 kg

C. 5 kg to 7.5 kg

D. 7.5 kg to 10 kg

ANS: A

319. Sewer manholes are generally provided at

A. The change of gradient

B. The change of direction

C. The junctions of sewers

D. All of these

ANS: D

320. Before discharging the foul sewage into rivers, it is generally treated by

A. Screening

B. Sedimentation

C. Oxidation

D. All the above

ANS: D

300+ TOP WATER SUPPLY Engineering Objective

Questions and Answers
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Home » WATER SUPPLY Engineering Mcqs Pdf » 300+ TOP WATER SUPPLY
Engineering Objective Questions and Answers

300+ TOP WATER SUPPLY Engineering Objective Questions and Answers

1. If four fires break out in a city of population 40 lakhs and if each hydrant has three
streams and duration of each fire is four hours, the total quantity of water required, is
A. 1880 kilo litres
B. 2880 kilo litres
C. 3880 kilo litres
D. 4880 kilo litres.
Ans: B

2. The fire demand of a city may be worked out by

A. Kuichling’s formula
B. Freeman formula
C. Under Writers formula
D. Bustan’s formula
E. All the above.
Ans: E

3. Aeration of water is done to remove

A. odour
B. colour
C. bacterias
D. hardness
E. turbidity.
Ans: A

4. The yield of a rapid gravity filter as compared to that of slow sand filter, is
A. 10 times
B. 15 times
C. 20 times
D. 30 times
E. 35 times.
Ans: D

5. Disinfection of drinking water, is done to remove

A. odour
B. bacterias
C. turbidity
D. colour.
Ans: B

6. Sunlight
A. helps growth of bacterias
B. impedes growth of algae
C. increases dissolved oxygen content
D. reduces turbidity.
Ans: B

7. The expected discharge to be obtained from an open well sunk in coarse sand is
0.0059 cumec. If the working depression head of the well is 3 m, the minimum
diameter of the well, is
A. 2 m
B. 2.25 m
C. 2.50 m
D. 2.75 m
E. 3.00 m.
Ans: E

8. Average annual rainfall at any station is the average of annual rainfall over a period
of
A. 7 years
B. 14 years
C. 21 years
D. 28 years
E. 35 years.
Ans: E

9. Time of concentration
A. is the time taken, for precipitation
B. duration of rainfall.
C. time taken for all the ran off to reach the drain
D. time taken for the storm water to travel from the most remote point to the drain.
Ans: D

10. Surge tanks are used

A. for storage water
B. to increase the velocity in a pipeline
C. as overflow valves
D. to guard against water hammer.
Ans: D

11. As per IS : 1172-1963, water required per head per day for average domestic
purposes, is
A. 50 litres
B. 65 litres
C. 85 litres
D. 105 litres
E. 135 litres.
Ans: E

12. In slow sland filters, the turbidity of raw water can be removed only up to
A. 60 mg/litre
B. 75 mg/litre
C. 100 gm/litre
D. 150 mg/litre.
Ans: A

13. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.) of safe drinking water must be

A. nil
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15
E. 20
Ans: A

14. Acidity in water is caused due to

A. Mineral acids
B. Free CO2
C. Iron sulphate
D. Aluminium sulphate
E. All the above.
Ans: E

15. In distribution pipes, drain valves are provided at

A. lower point
B. higher point
C. junction points
D. any where.
Ans: A

WATER SUPPLY Engineering Mcqs Pdf ::

16. Corrosion of well pipes may not be reduced by

A. reducing the draw down and the pumping rate
B. reducing the flow velocity
C. using thicker pipes
D. using screens having larger area of openings
E. none of these.
Ans: D

17. Asbestos pipes are

A. light in weight and easy to transport
B. highly resistant to corrosion
C. high flexible to accommodate deflection upto 12°
D. very much smooth and hydraulically efficient
E. all the above.
Ans: E

18. The maximum depth of sedimentation tanks is limited to

A. 2 m
B. 3 m
C. 4 m
D. 5 m
E. 6 m.
Ans: E

19. By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it is due to

A. calcium sulphate
B. magnesium sulphate
C. calcium nitrate
D. calcium bicarbonate
E. none of these.
Ans: D
20. For determining the velocity of flow of underground water, the most commonly
used non-empirical formula is
A. Darcy’s formula
B. Slichter’s formula
C. Hazen’s formula
D. Lacy’s formula.
Ans: A

21. The least thickness of class B cast iron (spun) pipe, is

A. 7.2 mm
B. 7.9 mm
C. 8.6 mm
D. 10 mm.
Ans: C

22. According to IS : 1172-1963, a minimum of 135 litres of water capita per day, is
required for
A. Boarding schools
B. Nurses home and medical quarters
C. hostels
D. all the above.
Ans: D

23. The R.L. of ground water table on the sides of a valley is 1505 m whereas R.L. of
the stream water is 1475 m. If 60° slope consists of pervious soil between R.L. 1485 m
to 1500 m, the gravity spring may be expected at the point of reduced level
A. 1500 m
B. 1505 m
C. 1475 m
D. 1485 m.
Ans: D

24. The factor affecting per capita demand, is

A. size of the city
B. climatic conditions
C. pressure in water mains
D. cost of water
E. all the above.
Ans: E
25. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. The underground sources of
water, is from
A. wells
B. springs
C. infiltration wells
D. storage reservoirs
E. none of these.
Ans: D

26. The specific retention is least in case of

A. Clay
B. Sand
C. Silt
D. Coarse gravel.
Ans: D

300+ TOP Environmental Engineering Objective

Questions & Answers
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

1. Assertion A : The consumption of water increases with increase in the distribution

pressure.
Reason R : Higher distribution pressure causes more loss and waste of water.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a

2. The per capital consumption of a locality is affected by

i) climatic conditions
ii) quality of water
iii) distribution pressure
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d

3. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?

a) use of metering system
b) good quality of water
c) better standard of living of the people
d) hotter climate
Ans:a

4. The hourly variation factor is usually taken as

a) 1.5
b) 1.8
c) 2.0
d) 2.7
Ans:a

5. If the average daily consumption of a city is 100,000 m3, the maximum daily
con¬sumption on peak hourly demand will be
a) 100000m3
b) 150000m3
c) 180000m3
d) 270000 m3
Ans:d
 ENVIRONMENTAL Engineering
Mcqs

6. The distribution mains are designed for

a) maximum daily demand
b) maximum hourly demand
c) average daily demand
d) maximum hourly demand on maxi¬mum day
Ans:d

7. As compared to geometrical increase method of forecasting population, arithmetical

increase method gives
a) lesser value
b) higher value
c) same value
d) accurate value
Ans:a

8. The population of a town in three consecutive years are 5000, 7000 and 8400
respectively. The population of the town in the fourth consecutive year according to
geometrical increase method is
a) 9500
b) 9800
c) 10100
d) 10920
Ans:d

9. The suitable method of forecasting popu¬lation for a young and rapidly increasing
city is
a) arithmetical increase method
b) geometrical increase method
c) incremental increase method
d) graphical method
Ans:b

10. The depression of water table in a well due to pumping will be maximum
a) at a distance R from the well
b) close to the well
c) at a distance R/2 from the well
d) none of the above
where R is the radius of influence
Ans:b

11. The devices which are installed for drawing water from the sources are called
a) aquifers
b) aquiclude
c) filters
d) intakes
Ans:d

12. Select the correct relationship between porosity (N), specific yield (y) and specific
retention (R)
a) N = y + R
b) y = N + R
c) R = N + y
d) R > (N + y)
Ans:a

13. The type of valve, which is provided on the suction pipe in a tube-well, is
a) air relief valve
b) reflux valve
c) pressure relief valve
d) sluice valve
Ans:b

14. The maximum discharge of a tube-well is about

a) 5 litres/sec
b) 50 litres/sec
c) 500 litres/sec
d) 1000 litres/see
Ans:b

15. As compared to shallow-wells, deep wells have

a) more depth
b) less depth
c) more discharge
d) less discharge
Ans:c

16. Ground water is usually free from

a) suspended impurities
b) dissolved impurities
c) both suspended and dissolved impuri¬ties
d) none of the above
Ans:a

17. The polluted water is one which

a) contains pathogenic bacteria
b) consists of undesirable substances rendering it unfit for drinking and domestic use
c) is safe and suitable for drinking and domestic use
d) is contaminated
Ans:b

18. Which of the following is not a water borne disease ?

a) dysentery
b) cholera
c) typhoid
d) maleria
Ans:d

19. The most common cause of acidity in water is

a) carbon dioxide
b) oxygen
c) hydrogen
d) nitrogen
Ans:a
20. The phenolic compounds in public water supply should not be more than
a) 0.1 ppm
b) 0.01 ppm
c) 0.001 ppm
d) 0.0001 ppm
Ans:c

21. The maximum permissible limit for flouride in drinking water is

a) 0.1 mg/litre
b) 1.5 mg/litre
c) 5 mg/litre
d) 10 mg/litre
Ans:b

22. Standard EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid) solution is used to determine
the
a) hardness in water
b) turbidity in water
c) dissolved oxygen in water
d) residual chlorine in water
Ans:a

23. If the coliform bacteria is present in a sample of water, then the coliform test to be
conducted is
i) presumptive coliform test
ii) confirmed coliform test
iii) completed coliform test The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans:d

24. Alkalinity in water is expressed as milli-grams per litre in terms of equivalent

a) calcium carbonate
b) magnesium carbonate
c) sodium carbonate
d) calcium hydroxide
Ans:a
25. Which of the following values of pH represents a stronger acid?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 7
d) 10
Ans:a

26. Turbidity is measured on

a) standard silica scale
b) standard cobalt scale
c) standard platinum scale
d) platinum cobalt scale
Ans:a

28. On standard silica scale, the turbidity in drinking water should be limited to
a) 10 ppm
b) 20 ppm
c) 30 ppm
d) 50 ppm
Ans:a

29. Residual chlorine in water is determined by

a) starch iodide method
b) orthotolidine method
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans:c

30. Orthotolidine test is used for determination of

a) dissolved oxygen
b) residual chlorine
c) biochemical oxygen demand
d) dose of coagulant
Ans:b

31. If the total hardness of water is greater than its total alkalinity, the carbonate
hardness will be equal to
a) total alkalinity
b) total hardness
c) total hardness – total alkalinity
d) non carbonate hardness
Ans:a

32. The amount of residual chlorine left in public water supply for safety against
pathogenic bacteria is about
a) 0.01 to 0.05 ppm
b) 0.05 to 0.5 ppm
c) 0.5 to 1.0 ppm
d) 1.0 to 5.0 ppm
Ans:b

33. The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted waters at normal temperature is
found to be of the order of
a) 1 mg/litre
b) 10 mg/litre
c) 100 mg/litre
d) 1000 mg/litre
Ans:b

34. The velocity of flow of water in a sedimentation tank is about

a) 5 to 10 cm/sec.
b) 15 to 30 cm/sec.
c) 15 to 30 cm/minute
d) 15 to 30 cm/hour
Ans:c

35. The length of rectangular sedimentation tank should not be more than
a) B
b) 2B
c) 4B
d) 8B
where B is the width of the tank
Ans:c

36. The overflow rate for plain sedimentation tanks is about

a) 500 to 750 litres/hour/ m2
b) 1000 to 1250 litres/hour/ m2
c) 1250 to 1500 litres/hour/m2
d) 1500 to 2000 litres/hour/m2
Ans:a

37. Percentage of bacterial load that can be removed from water by the process of plain
sedimentation is about
a) 10 to 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) 100
Ans:c

38. The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank depends on

a) depth of tank
b) surface area of tank
c) both depth and surface area of tank
d) none of the above
Ans:b

39. The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank increases if

a) particle size is decreased
b) the surface area of tank is increased
c) the depth of tank is decreased
d) none of the above
Ans:d

40. For a given discharge, the efficiency of sedimentation tank can be increased by
a) increasing the depth of tank
b) decreasing the depth of tank
c) increasing the surface area of tank
d) decreasing the surface area of tank
Ans:c

41. The detention period and overflow rate respectively for plain sedimentation as
compared to sedimentation with coagulation are generally
a) less and more
b) less and less
c) more and less
d) more and more
Ans:c
42. The amount of coagulant needed for coagulation of water increases with
i) increase in turbidity of water
ii) decrease in turbidity of water
iii) increase in temperature of water
iv) decrease in temperature of water
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:b

43. Alum as a coagulant is found to be most effective when pH range of water is

a) 2 to 4
b) 4 to 6
c) 6 to 8
d) 8 to 10
Ans:c

44. The detention period in coagulation tanks is usually kept as

a) 1 to 2 minutes
b) 30 to 45 minutes
c) 2 to 6 hours
d) 2 to 6 days
Ans:c

45. The alum, when added as a coagulant in water

a) does not require alkalinity in water for flocculation
b) does not affect pH value of water
c) increases pH value of water
d) decreases pH value of water
Ans:d

46. The chemical most commonly used to increase speed of sedimentation of sewage is
a) sulphuric acid
b) copper sulphate
c) lime
d) sodium permanganate
Ans:c
47. In water treatment, rapid gravity filters are adopted to remove
a) dissolved organic substances
b) dissolved solids and dissolved gases
c) floating solids and dissolved inorganic solids
d) bacteria and colloidal solids
Ans:d

48. The rate of filtration in slow sand filters in million litres per day per hectare is about
a) 50 to 60
b) 100 to 150
c) 500 to 600
d) 1400 to 1500
Ans:a

49. The effective size of sand particles used in slow sand filters is
a) 0.25 to 0.35 mm
b) 0.35 to 0.60 mm
c) 0.60 to 1.00 mm
d) 1.00 to 1.80 mm
Ans:a

50. As compared to rapid sand filters, slow sand filters give

i) slower filtration rate
ii) higher filtration rate
iii) lesser efficiency in removal of bacteria
iv) higher efficiency in removal of bacteria The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:c

51. Assertion A: Slow sand filters are more efficient in removal of bacteria than rapid
sand filters.
Reason R : The sand used in slow sand filters is finer than that in rapid sand filters.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans:a

52. Air binding phenomena in rapid sand filters occur due to

a) excessive negative head
b) mud ball formation
c) higher turbidity in the effluent
d) low temperature
Ans:a

53. The percentage of filtered water, which is used for backwashing in rapid sand filters,
is about
a) 0.2 to 0.4
b) 0.4 to 1.0
c) 2 to 4
d) 5 to 7
Ans:c

54. Period of cleaning of slow sand filters is about

a) 24 – 48 hours
b) 10-12 days
c) 2-3 months
d) 1-2 year
Ans:c

55. The rate of Alteration of pressure filters is

a) less than that of slow sand filters
b) in between the filtration rate of slow sand filters and rapid sand filters
c) greater than that of rapid sand filters
d) equal to that of slow sand filters
Ans:c

56. Double filtration is used

a) to increase the filtration slow sand filters capacity of
b) to increase the filtration rapid sand filters capacity of
c) for isolated buildings like pools, hotels etc swimming
d) all of the above
Ans:a
57. Cleaning is done by
i) scraping and removal in filters slow sand
ii) back washing in slow sand filters
iii) scraping and removal in filters rapid sand
iv) back washing in rapid sand filters
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:c

58. Disinfection of water results in

a) removal of turbidity
b) removal of hardness
c) killing of disease bacteria
d) complete sterilisation
Ans:c

59. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by

i) decreasing the time of contact
ii) decreasing the temperature of water
iii) increasing the temperature of water The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) only (iii)
Ans:d

60. Chlorine demand of water is equal to

a) applied chlorine
b) residual chlorine
c) sum of applied and residual chlorine
d) difference of applied and residual chlorine
Ans:d

61. The process in which the chlorination is done beyond the break point is known as
a) prechlorination
b) post chlorination
c) super chlorination
d) break point chlorination
Ans:c

62. The percentage of chlorine in fresh bleaching powder is about

a) 10 to 15
b) 20 to 25
c) 30 to 35
d) 40 to 50
Ans:c

63. The treatment of water with bleaching powder is known as

a) prechlorination
b) super chlorination
c) dechlorination
d) hypochlorination
Ans:d

64. The suitable method for disinfection of swimming pool water is

a) ultra violet rays treatment
b) lime treatment
c) by using potassium permanganate
d) chlorination
Ans:a

65. Which of the following chemical compounds can be used for dechlorination of
water ?
a) carbon dioxide
b) bleaching powder
c) sulphur dioxide
d) chloramines
Ans:c

66. In chlorination, with the rise in temperature of water, death rate of bacteria
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unaffected
d) none of the above
Ans:a
67. As compared to higher pH values, the contact period required for efficient
chlorination at lower pH values is
a) smaller
b) larger
c) same
d) none of the above
Ans:a

68. Disinfection efficiency is

a) reduced at higher pH value of water
b) unaffected by pH value of water
c) increased at higher pH value of water
d) highest at pH value equal to 7
Ans:a

69. In lime-soda process

a) only carbonate hardness is removed
b) only non-carbonate hardness is re-moved
c) lime reduces the carbonate hardness and soda-ash removes the non-carbo¬nate
hardness
d) lime reduces the non-carbonate hard-ness and soda-ash removes the carbo¬nate
hardness
Ans:c

70. The major disadvantage of lime soda process of water softening is that
a) it is unsuitable for turbid and acidic water
b) huge amount of precipitate is formed which creates a disposal problem
c) the effluent cannot be reduced to zero hardness
d) it is unsuitable for softening the water of excessive hardness
Ans:b

71. Which of the following compounds is widely used for algae control ?
a) sodium sulphate
b) copper sulphate
c) sodium chloride
d) calcium chloride
Ans:b
72. Activated carbon is used for
a) disinfection
b) removing hardness
c) removing odours
d) removing corrosiveness
Ans:c

73. As compared to cast iron pipes, steel pipes are

a) heavier
b) stronger
c) costlier
d) less susceptible to corrosion
Ans:b

74. The suitable layout of a distribution system for irregularly growing town is
a) dead end system
b) grid iron system
c) radial system
d) ring system
Ans:a

75. The layout of distribution system in which water flows towards the outer periphery is
a) ring system
b) dead end system
c) radial system
d) grid iron system
Ans:c

Environmental Engineering Multiple Choice Questions ::

76. The suitable layout of distribution system for a city with roads of rectangular pattern
is
a) grid iron system
b) dead end system
c) ring system
d) radial system
Ans:a
77. The commonly used material for water supply pipes, which has the properties of
being strong, not easily corroded and long life but is heavy and brittle is
a) steel
b) cast iron
c) copper
d) reinforced cement concrete
Ans:b

78. Hardy cross method of analysis of distribution system

i) involves successive trials
ii) takes economic aspects into account
iii) is time consuming
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i)and(ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) all are correct
Ans:c

79. The method of analysis of distribution system in which the domestic supply is
neglected and fire demand is considered is
a) circle method
b) equivalent pipe method
c) electrical analysis method
d) Hardy cross method
Ans:a

80. Which of the following methods of analysis of water distribution system is most
suitable for long and narrow pipe
system ?
a) circle method
b) equivalent pipe method
c) Hardy cross method
d) electrical analysis method
Ans:b

81. The type of valve which is provided to control the flow of water in the distribution
system at street corners and where the pipe lines intersect is
a) check valve
b) sluice valve
c) safety valve
d) scour valve
Ans:b

82. The type of valve which allows water to flow in one direction but prevents its flow in
the reverse direction is
a) reflux valve
b) sluice valve
c) air relief valve
d) pressure relief valve
Ans:a

83. Scour valves are provided

a) at street corners to control the flow of water
b) at every depression and dead ends to drain out the waste water that may collect there
c) at the foot of rising main along the slope to prevent back running of water
d) at every summit of rising mains
Ans:b

84. A sewer that receives the discharge of a number of house sewers is called
a) house sewer
b) lateral sewer
c) intercepting sewer
d) submain sewer
Ans:b

85. A pipe conveying sewage from plumbing system of a single building to common
sewer or point of immediate disposal is called
a) house sewer
b) lateral sewer
c) main sewer
d) submain sewer
Ans:a

86. For a country like India, where rainfall is mainly confined to one season, the suitable
sewerage system will be
a) separate system
b) combined system
c) partially combined system
d) partially separate system
Ans:a

87. Average rate of water consumption perhead per day as per Indian Standard is
a) 100 litres
b) 135 litres
c) 165 litres
d) 200 litres
Ans:b

88. Sewerage system is usually designed for

a) 10 years
b) 25 years
c) 50 years
d) 75 years
Ans:b

89. Which of the following sewers is preferred for combined system of sewage ?
a) circular sewer
b) egg shaped sewer
c) rectangular sewer
d) none of the above
Ans:b

90. The suitable system of sanitation for area of distributed rainfall throughout the year
with less intensity is
a) separate system
b) combined system
c) partially separate system
d) partially combined system
Ans:b

91. The water carriage system of collection of waste product

a) is cheaper in initial cost than dry conservancy system
b) requires treatment before disposal
c) creates hygenic problem
d) all of the above
Ans:b
92. If the time of concentration is 9 minutes, then the intensity of rainfall according to
British Ministry of Health formula will be
a) 4 mm/hr
b) lOmm/hr
c) 20 mm/hr
d) 40 mm/hr
Ans:d

93. The time of concentration is defined as

a) the time taken by rainfall water to run from most distant point of water shed to the
inlet of sewer
b) the time required for flow of water in sewer to the point under consideration
c) sum of (a) and (b)
d) difference of (a) and (b)
Ans:c

94. The specific gravity of sewage is

a) much greater than 1
b) slightly less than 1
c) equal to 1
d) slightly greater than 1
Ans:d

95. The self cleansing velocity for all sewers in India is usually
a) less than 1.0 m/sec
b) 1.0 m/sec to 1.2 m/sec
c) 1.5 m/sec to 2.0 m/sec
d) 3.0 m/sec to 3.5 m/sec
Ans:b

96. The slope of sewer shall be

a) given in the direction of natural slope of ground
b) given in the direction opposite to natural slope of ground
c) zero
d) steeper than 1 in 20
Ans:a
97. The design discharge for the separate sewer system shall be taken as
a) equal to dry weather flow (DWF)
b) 2xDWF
c) 3 x DWF
d) 6xDWF
Ans:d

98. The design discharge for the combined sewer system shall be taken as
a) equal to rainfall
b) rainfall + DWF
c) rainfall + 2 DWF
d) rainfall + 6 DWF
Ans:c

99. The minimum and maximum diameters of sewers shall preferably be

a) 15 cm and 100 cm
b) 15 cm and 300 cm
c) 30 cm and 450 cm
d) 60 cm and 300cm
Ans:b

100. The main disadvantage of cement concrete sewers is

a) less strength
b) difficulty in construction
c) difficulty in transportation due to heavy weight
d) less life
Ans:c

101. Most suitable section of sewer in separate sewage system is

a) rectangular section
b) circular section
c) standard form of egg shaped sewer
d) modified egg shaped section
Ans:b

102. An egg shaped section of sewer

a) is economical than circular section
b) provides self cleansing velocity at low discharges
c) is more stable than circular section
d) is easy to construct
Ans:b
103. The velocity of flow does not depend on
a) grade of sewer
b) length of sewer
c) hydraulic mean depth of sewer
d) roughness of sewer
Ans:b

104. The hydraulic mean depth (HMD) for an egg-shaped sewer flowing two-third full is
a) equal to HMD when flowing full
b) less than HMD when flowing full
c) greater than HMD when flowing full
d) none of the above
Ans:c

105. The effect of increasing diameter of sewer on the self cleansing velocity is
a) to decrease it
b) to increase it
c) fluctuating
d) nil
Ans:b

106. The most commonly used sewer under culverts is

a) circular brick sewer
b) circular cast iron sewer
c) semi-elliptical sewer
d) horse-shoe type sewer
Ans:a

107. The type of sewer which is suitable for both combined and separate system is
a) circular sewer
b) egg shaped sewer
c) horse-shoe type sewer
d) semi-elliptical sewer
Ans:b

108. The characteristics of fresh and septic sewage respectively are

a) acidic and alkaline
b) alkaline and acidic
c) both acidic
d) both alkaline
Ans:b

109. The pathogens can be killed by

a) nitrification
b) chlorination
c) oxidation
d) none of the above
Ans:b

110. Which of the following retards the self purification of stream ?

a) higher temperature
b) sunlight
c) satisfying oxygen demand
d) none of the above
Ans:d

111. Sewage treatment units are normally designed for

a) 5-10 years
b) 15-20 years
c) 30-40 years
d) 40-50 years
Ans:b

112. Settling velocity increases with

a) specific gravity of solid particles
b) size of particles
c) depth of tank
d) temperature of liquid
Ans:c

113. Standard BOD is measured at

a) 20°C – 1day
b) 25°C- 3day
c) 20°C – 5day
d) 30°C- 5day
Ans:c

114. The correct relation between theoretical oxygen demand (TOD), Biochemical
oxygen demand (BOD) and Chemical
oxygen demand (COD) is given by
a) TOD>BOD>COD
b) TOD>COD>BOD
c) BOD>COD>TOD
d) COD>BOD>TOD
Ans:b

115. Select the correct statement.

a) 5 day BOD is the ultimate BOD.
b) 5 day BOD is greater than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.
c) 5 day BOD is less than 4 day BOD keeping other conditions same.
d) BOD does nof depend on time.
Ans:c

116. If Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of a town is 20000 kg/day and BOD per
capita per day is 0.05 kg, then population equivalent of town is
a) 1000
b) 4000
c) 100000
d) 400000
Ans:d

117. The rate of BOD exerted at any time is

a) directly proportional to BOD satisfied
b) directly proportional to BOD remain-ing ,
c) inversely proportional to BOD satisfied
d) inversely proportional to BOD re-maining
Ans:b

118. The ratio of 5 day BOD to ultimate BOD is about

a) 1/3
b) 2/3
c) 3/4
d) 1.0
Ans:b

119. In a BOD test, 1.0 ml of raw sewage was diluted to 100 ml and the dissolved oxygen
concentration of diluted sample at the beginning was 6 ppm and it was 4 ppm at the end
of 5 day incubation at 20°C.
The BOD of raw sewage will be
a) 100 ppm
b) 200 ppm
c) 300 ppm
d) 400 ppm
Ans:b

120. The minimum dissolved oxygen which should always be present in water in order to
save the aquatic life is
a) 1 ppm
b) 4 ppm
c) 10 ppm
d) 40 ppm
Ans:b

121. The relative stability of a sewage sample, whose dissolved oxygen is same as the
total oxygen required to satisfy BOD, is
a) 1
b) 100
c) infinite
d) zero
Ans:b

122. Dissolved oxygen in streams is

a) maximum at noon
b) minimum at noon
c) maximum at midnight
d) same throughout the day
Ans:a

123. Facultative bacteria are able to work in

a) presence of oxygen only
b) absence of oxygen only
c) presence as well as in absence of oxygen
d) presence of water
Ans:c

124. The means of access for inspection and cleaning of sewer line is known as
a) inlet
b) manhole
c) drop manhole
d) catch basin
Ans:b

125. Sewerage system is designed for

a) maximum flow only
b) minimum flow only
c) average flow only
d) maximum and minimum flow
Ans:d

126. Sewage treatment units are designed for

a) maximum flow only
b) minimum flow only
c) average flow only
d) maximum and minimum flow
Ans:c

127. Laying of sewers is usually done with the help of

a) a theodolite
b) a compass
c) sight rails and boning rods
d) a plane table
Ans:c

128. Corrosion in concrete sewers is caused by

a) septic conditions
b) dissolved oxygen
c) chlorine
d) nitrogen
Ans:a

129. If the sewage contains grease and fatty oils, these are removed in
a) grit chambers
b) detritus tanks
c) skimming tanks
d) sedimentation tanks
Ans:c
130. Generally the detention period for grit chambers is kept as
a) 1 minute
b) 5 minutes
c) 2-4 hours
d) 12 hours
Ans:a

131. Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions?

a) sludge digestion tank
b) sedimentation tank
c) activated sludge treatment
d) trickling filters
Ans:a

132. Septic tank is a

i) settling tank
ii) digestion tank
iii) aeration tank
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) (i) and (ii)
c) (i) and (iii)
d) only (iii)
Ans:b

133. The maximum efficiency of BOD removal is achieved in

a) oxidation pond
b) oxidation ditch
c) aerated lagoons
d) trickling filters
Ans:b

134. The working conditions in imhoff tanks are

a) aerobic only
b) anaerobic only
c) aerobic in lower compartment and anaerobic in upper compartment
d) anaerobic in lower compartment and aerobic in upper compartment
Ans:d
135. In facultative stabilization pond, the sewage is treated by
a) aerobic bacteria only
b) algae only
c) dual action of aerobic bacteria and anaerobic bacteria
d) sedimentation
Ans:c

136. The detention period for oxidation ponds is usually kept as

a) 4-8 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 10 to 15 days
d) 3 months
Ans:c

137. Composting and lagooning are the methods of

a) sludge digestion
b) sludge disposal
c) sedimentation
d) filtration
Ans:b

138. The main disadvantage of oxidation pond is that

a) large area is required for construction
b) maintenance and operation cost are high
c) BOD removal is very low
d) none of the above
Ans:a

139. For satisfactory working of a sludge digestion unit, the pH range of digested sludge
should be maintained as
a) 4.5 to 6.0
b) 6.5 to 8.0
c) 8.5 to 10.0
d) 10.5 to 12.0
Ans:b

140. Sludge volume index is defined as the ratio of

a) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of suspended solids by weight
b) percentage of sludge by volume to percentage of total solids by weight
c) percentage of suspended solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
d) percentage of total solids by weight to percentage of sludge by volume
Ans:a

141. For normal sludge, the value of sludge index for Indian conditions is
a) 0 to 50
b) 50 to 150
c) 150 to 350
d) 350 to 500
Ans:c

142. When there is no recirculation of sewage, then recirculation factor is

a) 0
b) 1
c) infinity
d) none of the above
Ans:b

143. For the same solid content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is
X, then the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 96% will be
a) X/4
b) X/2
c) X
d) 2X
Ans:b

144. A pipe which is installed in the house drainage to preserve the water seal of traps is
called
a) vent pipe
b) antisiphonage pipe
c) waste pipe
d) soil pipe
Ans:b

145. In the two-pipe system of house plumbing, the pipes required are
a) one soil pipe, one waste pipe and one vent pipe
b) one soil pipe, two waste pipes and one vent pipe
Ans:c
146. The pipe which is used to carry the discharge from sanitary fittings like bath rooms,
kitchens etc. is called
a) waste pipe
b) soil pipe
c) vent pipe
d) antisiphonage pipe
Ans:a

147. The gas from sludge digestion tank is mainly composed of

a) nitrogen
b) carbon dioxide
c) hydrogen sulphide
d) methane
Ans:d

148. Most of the bacteria in sewage are

a) parasitic
b) saprophytic
c) pathogenic
d) anaerobic
Ans:b

149. The process of lagooning is primarily a means of

a) reducing the excessive flow in sewers
b) disposing of sludge
c) increasing the capacity of storage re-servoirs
d) increasing flow of sewage through imhoff tanks
Ans:b

150. The biochemical treatment of sewage effluents is essentially a process of

a) oxidation
b) dehydration
c) reduction
d) alkalinization
Ans:a
300+ Elements of Remote Sensing Multiple Choice
Questions Answers
engineeringinterviewquestions.com

Q No: 1

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Topology describes the geometric characteristic of objects which do not change

under transformations and are independent of any coordinate system

B. Topological characteristics of an object are independent of scale measurement

C. The three elements of topology are adjacency, containment, and connectivity

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 2

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. In remote sensing technique, the observation place, is called a platform

B. Platforms may be either stationary or mobile

C. Spatial resolution of the imaging system becomes poorer with increase of platform
height

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 3

Formation of snow occurs if the cloud temperature is

A. Just above the freezing point

B. At the freezing point

C. Below the freezing point

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 4

In the given figure the phase of

A. crest A

B. B

C. Trough C is 3

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 5

Coherence of two electromagnetic waves takes place if their phase difference is:

A. Constant in time

B. Constant in space

C. Constant in time and space

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 6

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Indian space effort started in 1962 with the establishment of a rocket

B. Development of space (DOS) was established by the Government of India in 1972

C. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is responsible for the space technology
and its application to various activities

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 7

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. For the same feature, the photograph taken from the satellite vertically above the
aircraft, the height displacement is lesser than the aerial photograph

B. The scale of the aerial photograph depends upon the scale of the topography

C. The feature at the principal point has no height displacement

D. All of the above

ANS: D

Q No: 8

The coherence length over which there is a strong relationship between amplitudes is;

A. Directly proportional to the bandwidth

B. Inversely proportional to the bandwidth

C. The square of the bandwidth

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 9

The reflectance from a surface is called specular reflection if it follows:

A.

B. Lambert’s cosine law

C. Planktan’s law

D. All of these

ANS: A

Q No: 10

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. A graphical representation of spectral reflectance verses the various growth stages of

a crop, depicts a phonologic pattern

B. The changes in the polarisation of the radiation reflected or emitted by an object, is

known as polarisation variation

C. The degree of polarisation is a characteristic of the object which helps in the

identification of the object

D. All of these

ANS: D

Elements of Remote Sensing Multiple Choice Questions

Q No: 11

Repetitive observations of the same area at equal interval of time are useful to monitor
the dynamic phenomena:

A. Cloud evolution

B. Vegetative cover

C. Snow cover

D. All of these

ANS: D
Q No: 12

Which one of the following parameters is considered to determine the reflectance of a

vegetation canopy?

A. Solar zenith angle

B. Azimuth angle

C. Look angle

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 13

body:
A perfectly black

A. Is a diffuse emitter

B. Absorbs all the radiations of every wave lengths

C. Emits power of every wave length

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 14

sensor IFOV is
proportional to:

A. sin2

B. cos2

C. sec2

D. tan2
ANS: C

Q No: 15

Which one the following is a correct statement?

A. The vertical section of the soil extending into the parent material, is called profile

B. The layers of the soil parallel to the earth surface are called horizons

C. The transitional layer between two adjoining horizons is called boundary

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 16

In case of reflection and refraction of electromagnetic radiation,

A. Angle of incidence = angle of refraction

B. Angle of incidence = angle of reflection

C. Angle of refraction = sum of the angles of incidence and refraction

D. All the above

ANS: B

Q No: 17

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The minimum frequency of light for which no electrons are emitted, is called
threshold frequency

B. Polarising angle of glass is 57.5°

C. At the polarising angle, the reflected and refracted rays are orthogonal

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 18

Which one of the following factors does not affect the scale of the air photographs?

A. Focal length

B. Flying height

C. Ground elevation

D. None of these

ANS: D

Q No: 19

Which one of the following statements regarding remote sensing is correct?

A. The interaction of the electromagnetic radiation with the target

B. The emission of electromagnetic radiation from the target

C. Both A. and B.

D. Neither A. nor B.

ANS: C

Q No: 20

The optical property of a water body depends on:

A. Absorption by the dissolved material

B. Absorption by the suspended particulate matter

C. Scattering by the suspended particulate matter

D. All of these

ANS: D
Q No: 21

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Frequency is the number of wave crests passing a fixed point in one second

B. Frequency of a wave is measured in Hertz (Hz)

C. Amplitude of a wave is the height of its crust from the mid-point

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 22

The object of photo-interpretation is:

A. Identification

B. Recognition of objects

C. Judging the significance of objects

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 23

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Phytoplankton contains photosynthetically active pigment

B. An increase of phytoplankton increases the back scattering in the green region

C. An increase of phytoplankton absorbs the bule region rapidly

D. An increase of phytoplankton decreases the back scattering in the green region

ANS: D

Q No: 24
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the GPS satellites?

A. The nominal altitude is about 20,200 km

B. The inclination of axis satellite is 55°

C. The satellite transmits two L band signals (L1 with 1575.42 MHz and L2 with 1276.6
MHz)

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 25

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. During the day, earth reflects solar radiation

B. During the day, earth reflects both solar radiations the emission from its surface

C. During the night, earth emits radiation from its surface

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 26

A reduction of nitrogen nutrient in plants:

A. Affects leaf colour

B. Reduces pigment concentration

C. Increase the visible reflectivity

D. All of these ANS: D

Q No: 27

Remote sensing techniques make use of the properties of ___________ emitted,

reflected or diffracted by the sensed objects:
A. Electric waves

B. Sound waves

C. Electromagnetic waves

D. Wind waves

ANS: C

Q No: 28

Which one of the following statement is incorrect regarding the electromagnetic

radiation?

A. These are produced by the motion of electric charge

B. The oscillation of charged particles sets up changing electric fields

C. The changing electric fields induce the changing magnetic fields in the surrounding
medium

D. None of these

ANS: D

Q No: 29

The altitudinal distance of a geostationary satellite from the earth is about:

A. 26,000 km

B. 30,000 km

C. 36,000 km

D. 44,000 km

ANS: C

Q No: 30
The ratio of the total solar radiant energy returned by a planetary body to the total
radiant energy incident on the body, the called:

A. Reflectance

B. Reflectance factor

C. Albedo

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 31

Due to scan geometry of a satellite sensor:

A. The off-nadir resolution is degraded

B. The ground distance swept by the senor, IFOV is proportional to sec2 of scan
measured from the nadir

C. The details towards the edge of the scan get compressed

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 32

Which one of the following statement is correct?

A. Radiant energy expressed in Joules, is the energy associated with electromagnetic

radiation

B. The rate of transfer of radiant energy is called flux and is expressed in watts

C. The radiant energy which falls upon a surface is termed as irradiance

D. All of these

ANS: D
Q No: 33

Which one of the following parameters is accurate for DGPS?

A. Positional accuracies ~ 1 – 2 m if rover is less than 1-2 km from the reference station

B. Positional accuracies ~ 2 – 5m if rover is less than 2-5 fm from the reference station

C. Positional accuracies ~ 5 – 10 m if rover is less than 5-10 km from reference station

D. Positional accuracies ~ 5 – 10 m if rover is less than 25 km ANS: A

Q No: 34

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The surface defined by the locus of points having same phase, is called a wave front

B. The wave whose surface of constant phase are parallel planes, is known as a plane
wave

C. The relative phase difference between the waves is important and not the absolute
phase of a point on the wave

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 35

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A.

B. The cone subtended by an area on the sphere at the centre, is called the solid angle

C. The solid angle is equal to the ratio of the area on the sphere and the square of the
radius of the sphere

D. All of these

ANS: D
Q No: 36

Crop Acreage and Production Estimation (CAPE) was funded and taken up in 1983 by:

A. USA

B. European Union

C. Russia

D. India

ANS: D

Q No: 37

‘A time varying electric field produces a magnetic field.’ This phenomenon is called:

A. Hertz’s law

B. Ampere Maxwell’s law

C. Faraday’s law

D.

ANS: B

Q No: 38

The changes in the reflectivity/emissivity with time, is called:

A. Spectral variation

B. Spatial variation

C. Temporal variation

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 39
Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Snow albedo falls at all wave length with the increase of grain size

B. The effect of grain size on reflection is maximum in the near-IR region

C. The effect of grain size on reflection is low in the visible region of the spectrum

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 40

Due to perturbation of the orbit, satellite orbit parameters are frequently updated on
measurements carried out by its

A. Six ground stations

B. Five ground stations

C. Four ground stations

D. Three ground stations

ANS: B

Q No: 41

Which one of the following helps to identify the objects on the earth surface?

A. Atmospheric window

B. Signature

C. Radiometric error

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 42
Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Phase of a wave is expressed as a fraction of a period with respect to a reference B.

Phase is usually specified by angular measure with one period being 360°
C. The reference for finding the phase of a wave is taken from the previous passage
through zero from the negative to the positive direction

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 43

The reflection of solar energy is characterised by the water content in the leaf, in the
reflective optical infrared:

A. Visible (0.4 –

B. Near-IR (0.7 –

C. Short wave-IR (1.3 –

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 44

The interaction of the electromagnetic radiation produced with a specific wave length to
illuminate a target on the terrain for studying its scattered radiance, is called:
A. Passive remote sensing

B. Active remote sensing

C. Neutral remote sensing

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 45
For interpolation of satellite data used for monitoring dynamic changes that occurs on
the earth surface, the most suitable orbit for the satellite is:

A. Circular orbit

B. Sun-synchronous orbit

C. Near polar orbit

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 46

Electromagnetic spectrum contains:

A. Gamma rays (wave length < 10-10 m)

B. Ultraviolet rays (wave length < 10-6 m)

C. Infrared rays (wave length < 10 -4 m)

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 47

Which one of the following quantities forms the basis of radiometry?

A. Radiant energy (Q)

B. Radiant flux ( )

C. Radiant intensity (I)

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 48
According to the Snell’s law if an electromagnetic wave is incident in a medium
(refractive index n1) on another medium (refractive index m2);

A. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of refraction

B. The angle of refraction r) is given by sin i

C. Both A. and B.
D. Neither A. nor B.
ANS: B

Q No: 49

The refractive index of the ocean water:

A. Increases with salinity
B. Increases with temperature
C. Decreases with salinity
D. Decreases with temperature
ANS: A

Q No: 50

The phase difference of the waves 1 and 2 at A in the given figure is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

ANS: B

ELEMENTS of REMOTE SENSING Objective Questions ::

Q No: 51

Pick up the correct definition from the following with response to GIS.

A. Common boundary between two areas of a locality is known as adjacency

B. The area features which are wholly contained within another area feature, is known so
containment

C. The geometric property which describes the linkage between line features is defined
as connectivity

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 52

The various stages occuring in GPS system are described below:

1. Generation of an output to the user

2. Detection of the GPS signals

3. Processing the data in the built-in-computer

4. Decoding the GPS signal.

The correct sequence of the stages is:

A. 1, 2, 3, 4

B. 2, 3, 4, 1

C. 2, 4, 3, 1

D. 3, 1, 2 , 4

ANS: C

Q No: 53

The normal altitude of GPS satellite is about

A. 16,200 km

B. 20,200 km

C. 24,400 km
D. 36,100 km

ANS: B

Q No: 54

Geodimeter is based on:

A. Propagation of modulated light waves

B. Propagation of infrared radiation

C. The visible light as carrier with frequency of the order of 5 × 1014 Hz

D. High frequency radio waves

ANS: A

Q No: 55

The code based GPS receivers are generally used for:

A. Vehicle tracking

B. Land navigation

C. Trans movement

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 56

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The refractive index of a medium varies according to the wavelength of the radiation,

B. The variation of the refractive index with wave length, is called dispersion,

C. The splitting of colours of white light by passing through a prism is caused due to
dispersion
D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 57

While propagating through homogeneous, isotropic media,

A. Directions of both the fields are orthogonal

B. Both the fields are at right angles to the direction of propagation C. Both A. and B.

D. Neither A. nor B.

ANS: C

Q No: 58

The arrangement of terrain features which provides attributes: the shape, size and
texture of objects, is called:

A. Spectral variation

B. Spatial variation

C. Temporal variation

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 59

Which one of the following errors is produced by platform characteristics of the sensor?

A. Altitude variation

B. Altitude

C. Orbit drift

D. All of these
ANS: D

Q No: 60

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. When the electric field oscillates in the direction of the electric vector, a plane
polarised wave is formed

B. When the electric vector is in the plane of incidence, vertical polarisation is formed

C. When the electric vector is at right angles to the plane of incidence, horizontal
polarization wave is formed

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 61

Leaf reflectance depends primarily on:

A. The pigments

B. Internal cell structure

C. Equivalent water content

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 62

If flying height of a spacecraft is H, the length of air base is B and the parallax difference
between two points is dp, then the difference in height

A. h = dp/(B/H)

B. h = (B/H) dp

C. h = dp/(H/B)
D. h = (H/B) dp ANS: A
Q No: 63

Critical angle of electromagnetic radiation takes place if

A. Angle of incidence is equal to angle of refraction

B. Angle of incidence is greater than the angle of refraction

C. Angle of incidence is equal to 90°

D. Angle of refraction is equal to 90°

ANS: D

Q No: 64

Earth observations from a satellite platform provide:

A. Synoptic view of a large area

B. Constant solar zenith angles and similar illumination conditions

C. Repetitive observations of the same area with intervals of a few minutes to a few
weeks

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 65

DGPS is based on the concept that bias errors in the position of locations in a given local
area, are same if their distances are within

A. 25 km

B. 50 km

C. 75 km

D. 100 km
ANS: D

Q No: 66

Electromagnetic radiation:

A. Produces a time varying magnetic field and vice versa B. Once generated, remains
self-propagating C. Is capable to travel across space

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 67

Which one of the following residual biases involves the GPS accuracy?

A. Satellite dependent biases due to uncertainty in the orbital parameters of the satellite

B. Receiver -dependent biases due to clock stability with line

C. Signal propagation biases due to the sphere and troposphere propagation

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 68

A and B are two towers of equal height diametrically opposite on either side of the nadir
point, at 3 km and 5 km distances. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Height displacement of A will be less than that of B

B. Height displacement of B will be less than that of A

C. Height displacement of A and B is equal

D. Height displacement of A and B will be towards each other ANS: A

Q No: 69
The entire range of the electromagnetic spectrum spans a large spectrum of wave
lengths varying from:

A. 10-10 to 106 m

B. 10-8 to 106 m

C. 10-10 to 1010 m

D. 10-8 to 108 m

ANS: A

Q No: 70

Consider the following statements regarding the satellite imaging:

1. The satellite orbit is fixed in the inertial space

2. During successive across-track imaging, the earth rotates beneath the sensor

3. The satellite images a skewed area

Which one of the following statements is/are correct?

A. 1, 2, 3

B. 1, 3

C. 2, 3

D. 1, 2

ANS: A

Q No: 71

The GPS space segment consists of Navigation Satellite Timing and Ranging whose
number is:

A. 8

B. 12
C. 16

D. 24

ANS: D

Q No: 72

Pick up the important characteristic of a target which facilitates its identification from
the following:

A. Spectral variation

B. Spatial variation

C. Temporal variation

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 73

Rayleigh’s criterion for a rough surface is: (where letters carry their usual meanings).

A.

B.

C.

D.

ANS: C

Q No: 74

The value of energy quantum for radiation of any frequency is proportional to:

A. The frequency

B. The reciprocal of the energy

C. The square of the frequency

D. The square root of the frequency

ANS: A

Q No: 75

Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. The function of an information system is to improve one s ability to make decisions

B. The information system is the chain of operations

C. A map is a collection of stored, analysed data, its stored information is suitability

used in making decisions

D. All the above

ANS: D

Q No: 76

The infrared portion of EMR lies between

A. 0.4 –

B. 0.5 mm to 1

C. 0.7 –

D.

ANS: D

Q No: 77

Which one of the following geometric errors of satellite sensors is random?

A. Scan skew

B. Panoramic distortion
C. Earth rotation

D. Altitude variation

ANS: D

Q No: 78

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. The first man-made satellite, Sputnik-l’ was launched on 4th October, 1957

B. The United State’s Explorer 6 transmitted the first picture of the earth in August 1959

C. Television Infrared Observation Satellite (TIROS) designed for meteorological

observations, started systematic earth observations from space from 1, April, 1960
D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 79

Which one of the following frequency regions is a part of sun’s radiation?

A. Ultraviolet frequency region

B. Infrared frequency region

C. Radio frequency region

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 80

The spectral region of the electromagnetic radiation which passes through the
atmosphere without much attenuation is known as:

A. Ozone hole

B. Atmospheric window
C. Ozone window

D. Black hole

ANS: B

Q No: 81

Which on

speed C. of the electromagnetic wave is correct?

A. C = v

B. C = /v

C. C = v

D. C = 1/

ANS: C

Q No: 82

In GPS, receivers used are;

A. Electronic clocks

B. Atomic clocks

C. Quartz clocks

D. Mechanical clocks

ANS: C

Q No: 83

For C band Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) with Doppler band width of 1300 Hz, the
coherence length loch is:

A. 130 km
B. 230 km

C. 250 km

D. 500 km ANS: B
Q No: 84

Which one of the following attributes is not associated with digital maps

A. Colour

B. Symbology

C. Legends

D. South arrow

ANS: D

Q No: 85

The instruments which provide electromagnetic radiation of specified wave length or a

band of wave lengths to illuminate the earth surface are called:

A. Sensors

B. Passive sensors

C. Active sensors

D. None of these

ANS: C

Q No: 86

The most widely used antenna in GPS is

A. Parabolic antenna

B. Microstrip antenna

C. Horn antenna
D. Slotted antenna

ANS: B

Q No: 87

Orbital radius of GPS satellites is approximately:

A. 15,200 km

B. 26,600 km

C. 18,400 km

D. 36,000 km

ANS: B

Q No: 88
If electric permittivity and magnetic permeability of the medium are respectively and ,
then
the velocity (Cm) of the electromagnetic wave in the medium is given by:
A. Cm = 1/
B. Cm
C. Cm

D. None of these

ANS: B

Q No: 89

The part radiation due to scattered/diffused radiation entering the field of view of a
remote sensor other than that from the required target,

A. Reduces the contrast of the image and also its sharpness

B. Increases the contrast of the image but reduces the sharpness

C. Increases both the contrast and sharpness

D. Reduces the contrast but increases the sharpness ANS: A

Q No: 90

Pick up the correct statement from the following

A. The ratio of the up flux and down flux just above the snow surface, is called albedo

B. Spectral albedo of snow is calculated for the semi-infinite snow thickness

C. Water equivalent height of snow is the height of water column obtained by melting
snow

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 91

Spatial variation in horizontal and vertical directions is caused due to:

A. Physical weathering of rocks

B. Chemical weathering of rocks

C. Biological weathering of rocks

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 92

The basic requirement of any sensor system is:

A. Radiometric resolution

B. Spatial resolution

C. Spectral resolution

D. All of these

ANS: D
Q No: 93

The remote sensing techniques applied for the earth’s surface features, is generally
confined to the following wave lengths:

A.

B.

C.

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 94

Pick up the correct statement from the following:

A. Permeability is a measure of conducting the magnetic lines of force in the material

B. Permeability is a measure of the extent to which magnetic lines of force can

penetrate a medium

C. Permeability is expressed as the ratio of the magnetic flux density B. to the field
strength of the magnetizing field

D. All of these

ANS: D

Q No: 95

“An Electromagnetic wave falls on to a boundary between two losses less homogeneous
media with different refractive indices, a part of the wave is reflected back to the
incident medium and the rest is transmitted on to the second media”. This phenomenon
is known as:

A. Fresnel reflection

B. Fresnel refraction
C. Snell’s law

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 96

A passive sensor uses:

A. Sun as the source of energy

B. Flash light as a source of energy

C. Its own source of energy

D. None of these

ANS: A

Q No: 97

Who coined the term, ‘Remote sensing’.

A. Evelyn L. Pruitt, a geographer

B. Gaspard Felix Tournachon, a French scientist

C. Wilbur Wright, an Italian scientist

D. None of these

ANS: A