QUESTION PAPER

1. Relative sweetness of sucrose, to saccharin:

(a) 1: 200 (b) 1: 500 (c) 1: 100 (d) 1: 400
2. Following statement is more accurate with respect to limitations of Arrhenius relationship
for stability prediction:
(a) Order of degradation will alter at higher temperature
(b) Equal moisture concentrations will be mentioned at different temperatures
(c) Less relative humidity and oxygen solubility at higher temperature
(d) Same degradation mechanisms may predominate at different temperatures
3. Lakes of Dyes available commercially contain maximum upto…………of pure dye.
(a) 15% (b) 10% (c) 25% (d) 50%
4. Type II glass containers are
(a) Suitable for alkaline solutions
(b) Most inert glasses and shows high hydrolytic resistance
(c) Suitable for most acidic and neutral aqueous preparations
(d) Suitable for non-aqueous preparations
5. Dimethyl sulfoxide acts as penetration enhancer for topical formulations by
(a) Increasing solubility (b) Denaturing proteins
(c) Increasing transepidermal loss (d) Altering solvent nature of membrane
6. As per European Pharmacopoeia technical guide, substance stored at 25°C for 24 hours
at 80% RH, called very hygroscopic when increase in weight is
(a) 0.2% w/w and <15% w/w (b) > 0.2% w/w and < 20% w/w
(c) > 15% w/w (d) 0.2% w/w and < 2% w/w
7. SCHICK Test Toxin is a sterile Filtrate from a culture of
(a) Rickettsia prowazeki (b) Mycobacterium Diphtheriae
(c) Coryne bacterium Diphtheriae (d) Actinobacillus mallei

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8. Violin gut is obtained from intestine of
(a) Horse (b) Cat (c) Sheep (d) Camel
9. An excipient Ludipress used for liquid Dosage form is a coprocessed excipient of
(a) PticInsi. Dextrose monohydrate + Kollidon 30
(b) Lactose monohydrate + Kollidon 30
(c) Lactose monohydrate + Kollidon 30 + Kollidon CL
(d) Dextrose monohydrate + Kollidon 30 + Kollidon CL
10. Pyrogens present in containers can be destroyed by heating the containers at
(a) 121°C for 15 mins (b) 121°C for 30 mins
(c) 210°C for 4 h (d) 210°C for 1 h
11. In capsule making the Bloom strength of gelatin is proportional to molecular weight of
the gelatin and is a measure of the;
(a) Cohesive strength of the solvent molecules
(b) Cohesive strength of the crosslinking that occurs between gelatin molecules
(c) Adhesive strength of gelatin with dipping pins
(d) Adhesive strength of gelatin with other polymer
12. Choose the wrong statement from the following with regard to Amorphous solids
(a) Usually they are anisotropic
(b) They tend to flow when subjected to sufficient pressure
(c) Considered as super cooled fluids
(d) They do not have definite melting point
13. The 'Crenulation' effect on the cell wall is caused by_______________ solutions and this effect
is__________________.
(a) Hypertonic; reversible (b) Hypotonic; reversible
(c) Hypotonic; irreversible (d) Hypertonic; irreversible
14. The unequal attractive forces acting on the molecules at the surface of liquid gas interface
when compared with molecular forces in the bulk of the liquid is due to:
(a) Abscence of adhesive force of attraction (b) Less adhesive force of attraction
(c) Abscence of cohesive force of attraction (d) Less cohesive force of attraction
15. Following is the important sterol in faeces formed from cholesterol by bacteria in lower
intestine:
(a) 7-α-Hydroxy cholesterol (b) Coprostanol
(c) 7-Dehydrocholesterol (d) Lithocholic acid

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16. According to distribution law, select the appropriate expression for the concentration of
a solute when it exist as monomer in solvent A and dimer in solvent B
(Assume CA = concentration of solute in solvent A
CB = concentration of solute in solvent B
α= degree of dissociation)
CA CA CA CA
(a) K= (b) K= (c) K= (d) K=
2 × CB CB × (1 -  ) CB × (2 -  ) CB
17. The drug concentration between Minimum effective concentration (MEC) and maximum
safe concentration (MSC) is called
(a) Toxic range (b) Therapeutic index
(c) Therapeutic ratio (d) Therapeutic range
18. Production of Acetyl methyl carbinol can be detected by which of the following test
(a) Voges-proskaver test (b) Indole test
(c) Citrate utilization test (d) Methyl red test
19. The temperature dependence and the theory of viscosity is expressed by the following
(a) Stern-Volmer equation (b) Arrhenius equation of chemical kinetics
(c) Higuchi equation (d) Gibb's equation
20. Which of the following is not a fundamental (primary) factor considered for selection of a
location for the construction of pharmaceutical or chemical plant
(a) Soil (b) Market for products
(c) Labor supply (d) Raw materials
21. The following gram positive bacteria species is positive for the coagulase test (a test for
the ability of bacteria to cause blood plasma to clot)
(a) S. epidermidis (b) S. aureus (c) S. Saprophyticus (d) S. lactis
22. The version of GMP in India that describe requirement of factory premises for
manufacture of cosmetics
(a) schedule-M (b) Schedule-M-III (c) Schedule-M-II (d) Schedule M-I
23. This fungus is also known as opportunistic pathogen, often isolated from warm-blooded
animals.
(a) Aspergillus niger (b) Penicillinum notatum
(c) Penicillinium chrysogenum (d) Candida albicans

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24. Which of the following will result in very closest value to the Glomerular Filteration Rate
(GFR) ?
(a) Insulin Clearance (b) Albumin Clearance
(c) Measure of Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) (d) Creatinine Clearance
25. While studying solid state physicochemical properties, the packing property of drug include
(a) Heat capacity (b) Solubility (c) Refractive index (d) Entropy
26. The Acidic polymers of Ribitol/Glycerol phosphate present in Gram positive
microorganism are known as
(a) Polysaccharides (b) Teichoic acids (c) Peptidoglycans (d) Lysozymes
27. Increasing the proportion of the disperse phase of an emulsion by more than 60% may
lead to
(a) Cracking (b) Frothing (c) Phase inversion (d) Creaming
28. The second law of thermodynamics states that 'whenever a spontaneous process takes
place, it is accompanied by an increase in the total energy of the universe! The equation
that satisfies the above law is :
(a) ∆S universe = S system + ∆S surrounding (b) S system = ∆S universe + ∆S surrounding
(c) ∆S universe = ∆S surrounding - S system (d) ∆S universe = S system - ∆S surrounding
29. The complexation of Quinine with hexyl salicylate is an example of absorption by
(a) Convective transport (b) Facilitated transport
(c) Penocytosis (d) Ion pair transport
30. The polymorphs exhibit the following different properties Except:
(a) X-ray crystal and diffraction patterns (b) Melting points
(c) Solubilities (d) Chemical structures
31. Method of Study Drug Distribution pattern is :
(a) Mass spectrophotometry (b) Nuclear magnetic resonance
(c) Flourimetry (d) UV-visible spectrophotometry
32. Product of the following reaction:
O
NH2NH2
Base
NH2 OH NH NH2

(a) (b) (c) (d)

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33. Which of the following powder shows the greatest degree of dustibility
(a) Talcum powder (b) Lycopodium powder
(c) Fine charcoal (d) Potato Starch
34. The dispersion of course material by shearing in a narrow gap between a static cone and
a rapidly rotating cone is caused by
(a) Colloid Milk (b) Electrical Dispersion
(c) Peptisation (d) Ultrasonic Irradiation
35. When the concentration of an aqueous sodium chloride solution has the same colligative
properties as the solution in question, the value so obtained is known as
(a) Normality (b) Isotonicity value
(c) Molarity (d) Molality
36. When adhesive attractions between molecules of different species exceeds cohesive
attraction between like molecules, the deviation according to Raoult's law is said to be
(a) Partial (b) Positive (c) Neutral (d) Negative
37. Centistoke is the CGS unit for the following property
(a) Surface tension (b) Coefficient of viscosity (c) Fluidity (d) Kinematic viscosity
38. Molar heat capacity of a system is defined as :
(a) The amount of heat required to raise temperature of one mole of the system by one
Kelvin
(b) The amount of heat required to decrease temperature of one mole of the system by one
Kelvin
(c) The amount of heat required to decrease temperature of one mole of the system by one
Fahrenheit
(d) The amount of heat required to raise temperature of one mole of the system by one
Fahrenheit
39. When a solid forms a gel more readily when gently shaken or otherwise sheared than
when allowed to form the gel while the material is kept at rest, the phenomenon is known
as
(a) Thixotropy (b) Rheopexy (c) Negative rheopexy (d) Anti thixotropy
40. In the process of Extraction, ethanol is used as a solvent for
(a) Sucrose (b) Waxes (c) Alkaloids (d) GUMS
41. Human Serum Albumin has a molecular weight of
(a) 34,000 (b) 65,000 (c) 44,000 (d) 59,000

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42. Riboflavin, chemically is
(a) 6,7-dimethyl isoalloxazine (b) 6,7-diethyl isoalloxazine
(c) 8,9-dimethyl isoalloxazine (d) 8,9-diethyl isoalloxazine
43. Burow's solution is
(a) Aluminium acetate solution strong (b) Calcium phosphate solution strong
(c) Ammonium acetate solution strong (d) Calcium hydroxide solution strong
44. Drug products that contain the same therapeutic moiety but as different salts, esters or
complexes are called as
(a) Therapeutic equivalents (b) Pharmaceutical equivalents
(c) Pharmaceutical alternative (d) Therapeutic alternatives
45. When six suppositories containing 20 percent of morphine hydrochloride in Theobroma
oil are to be prepared, which of the following statement is correct ? (Given : Displacement
value of morphine hydrochloride is 1.5; weight of each suppository is 1 g )
(a) The displacement value of morphine hydrochloride is to be considered
(b) The displacement values of both morphine hydrochloride and Theobroma oil are to be
considered
(c) The displacement value of morphine hydrochloride is to be ignored
(d) The displacement value of Theobroma oil is to be considered
46. Following amino acid does not exhibit optical isomerism:
(a) Serine (b) Alanine (c) Glycine (d) Leucine
47. Fraction of administered dose (which may be -n form of an ester of salt) of active drug is
termed as
(a) Activity factor (b) Formulation factor (c) Intrinsic factor (d) Salt factor
48. If two monosaccharides differ in their structure around a single carbon atom, they are
called as
(a) Epimers (b) Dimers (c) Trioses (d) Trimers
49. Which of the following is the example of "Invert Sugar"
(a) Sucralose (b) Lactulose (c) Lactose (d) Sucrose
50. Which of the following groups stabilizes carbocation in electrophilic aromatic substitution
(a) -CN, -SO3H (b) -COOH, -CHO (c) - NH2, - OH (d) —N(CH3)3+ , —NO2
51. The mechanism of antiepileptic effect of Lamotrigine is by :
(a) Inhibition of glutamate release (b) Blockade of NMDA receptors
(c) Inhibition of Na+ channels (d) Inhibition of Ca++ channels

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52. Closeness of a measured value to the true or accepted value is known as
(a) Accuracy (b) Deviation (c) Precision (d) Bias
53. Which of the following is Anti aromatic

(a) (b) (c) (d)

54. Globar source in infra-red spectrophotometer is
(a) Silicon carbide rod (b) Rhodium wire heated in ceramic
(c) Tungsten filament (d) Nichrome wire
55. Cotrimoxazole is combination of trimethoprim with sulfamethoxazole. Which of the
following statement is correct about Cotrimoxazole ?
(a) Cotrimoxazole is contraindicated during pregnancy.
(b) Most effective ratio of trimethoprim: sulfamethoxazole in plasma is 20:1.
(c) Trimethoprim : sulfamethoxazole are administered in a dose ratio of 5 :1 to achieve optimal
synergistic effect.
(d) Cotrimoxazole is ineffective in treating respiratory tract infections.
56. Ion trapping is an important process in drug distribution with potential therapeutic benefit.
It is defined as
(a) An acidic drug will accumulate on the more basic side of the membrane and a basic drug on
more basic side.
(b) An acidic drug will accumulate on the more acidic side of the membrane and a basic drug on
more basic side.
(c) An acidic drug will accumulate on the more basic side of the membrane and a basic
drug on more acidic side.
(d) An acidic drug will accumulate on the more acidic side of the membrane and a basic drug on
more acidic side.
57. Identify the diuretic which causes hyperuricemia, tend to raise scrum calcium and also
causes magnesium depletion
(a) Acetazolamide (b) Furosemide (c) Mannitol (d) Chlorthiazide
58. The Nitration of quinoline gives a mixture of
(a) 3-nitro-and 6-nitroquinolines (b) 2-nitro-and 7-nitroquinolines
(c) 5-nitro-and 8-nitroquinolines (d) 2-nitro-and 4-nitroquinolines
59. The specific reagents used m skraup synthesis of quinoline are
(a) Benzaldehyde, aniline, sulfuric acid and Nitrobenzene
(b) Glycerol, aniline, sulfuric acid and Nitrobenzene

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 (c) Benzaldehyde, Acetal of aminoethanal and Nitrobenzene
(d) Glycerol, Acetal of aminoethanal and Nitrobenzene
60. Mitomycin C is an antibiotic isolated from
(a) Streptomyces peucetius (b) Streptomyces verticillus
(c) Streptomyces antibioticus (d) Streptomyces caespitosus
61. This 4-amino quinoline antimalarial drug marketed as R, S isomer, has two trifluromethyl
moieties at position 2' and 8' and no electronegative substituent either at 6' or 7' positions is
(a) Mefloquine (b) Chloroquine (c) Primaquine (d) Amodiaquine
62. Which one is NOT an opioid receptor
(a) Gamma (b) Kappa (c) Mu (d) Delta
63. One of the following statement with respect to carbachol is NOT correct Identify:
(a) It can be administered orally
(b) It possess both muscarinic and nicotinic action
(c) It is more susceptible to hydrolysis as compared to acetylcholine
(d) The amino group decreases electrophilicity of the carbonyl group
64. What is the product of the following reaction ?
O
NaCN, HCN
80C-100C
N
O C
NC CN HO CN
(a) CN (b) (c) (d)

65. Which three of the following are physiological effects of ganglionic stimulating agents
(A) Stimulation of sympathetic ganglia and the adrenal medulla leading to cardiovascular
responses
(B) Initial transient stimulation and then a more persistent depression of all autonomic ganglia
(C) Marked depression of CNS leading to analgesia.
(D) Chronic exposure causes a marked increase in the density of nicotinic receptors
contributing tolerance and dependence.
(E) Combined activation of parasympathetic ganglia and cholinergic nerve ending by nicotine
results in increased tone and motor activity of the bowel.
(F) Inhibition of salivary and bronchial secretions that is followed by stimulation.
(a) (A), (C) and (D) (b) (B), (D) and (F) (c) (B), (C) and (E) (d) (A); (B) and (D)

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66. Two pore domain K+ ions channels are opened by which one of the following categories
of anaesthetic
(a) Barbiturates (b) Benzodiazepines
(c) Opioid analgesics (d) Halogenated inhalation anaesthetic
67. Which of the following rearrangement involves migration of a group from carbon to
electron deficient nitrogen
(a) Wilgerodt rearrangement (b) Baeyer villiger, rearrangement
(c) Pinacol-pinacolone rearrangement (d) Beckmann rearrangement
68. The mechanism by which fluorides inhibit dental caries is
(a) By increasing susceptibility to acid (b) By increasing the sensitivity of tooth enamel
(c) Decreased acid solubility of enamel (d) Increased acid solubility of enamel
69. The solvent used in NMR spectroscopy with the highest level of deuteriation among these
is :
(a) Deuterioacetone (b) Deuterum oxide (c) Deuteriomethanol (d) Deuteriochloroform
70. The weakly acidic nature of warfarin is attributed to the presence of
(a) Methylene protons on substitution at 3rd position
(b) Proton of hydroxyl group at 4th position
(c) Proton on chiral carbon
(d) Aromatic protons of coumarin ring
71. Which of the following drugs possesses Antiplatelet effects
(a) Erythropoietin (b) Urokinase (c) Desmopressin (d) Clopidogrel
72. Walden inversion or complete reversal of stereochemistry occurs in one of the following
substitution reaction
(a) SNAr reactions (b) SNi reaction (c) SN2 reactions (d) SN1 reactions
73. Antifungal agent 5-fluorocytosine is converted to its active metabolite 5-fluorouracil by
one of the following fungal enzyme
(a) Cytosine deacetylase (b) Cytosine reductase
(c) Cytosine demethylase (d) Cytosine deaminase
74. Propanone and 2-hydroxy propene are
(a) Position isomers (b) Rotamers (c) Chain Isomers (d) Tautomers
75. The principle of liquid-liquid extraction is
(a) Partition (b) Solubility (c) Adsorption (d) Separation
76. When an electron with charge 1.60 x10"19 coulombs is moved through a potential
difference of 1 volt, the energy expended or released is called as

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 (a) 1 joule (b) 1 coulomb (c) 1 erg (d) 1 e volt
77. An aldopentose can be converted into aldohexose by :
(a) Ruffs degradation method (b) Wohls method
(c) Killani-Fischer synthesis (d) Hoffmann degradation method
78. Hydrated proton is called
(a) Water proton (b) Hydronium ion (c) Roxonium ion (d) Proton pump
79. What is the approximate chemical shift ranges for protons attached to aldehydic groups?
(a) 4-8 δ (b) 9.5 - 10.0 δ (c) 6 - 7.9 δ (d) 1.5 - 3.5 δ
80. The condensation of an active methylene compound with formaldehyde and an amine to
form β-amino carbonyl compound is known as
(a) Mannich reaction (b) Knoevenagel condensation
(c) Stobbe condensation (d) Beckmann rearrangement
81. Meloxicam belongs to which class of Non-steroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)
(a) Preferential cox-2 inhibitor (b) Selective Cox-1 inhibitor
(c) Preferential Cox-1 inhibitor (d) Selective Cox-2 inhibitor
82. Which one of the following is not the property of osmotic diuretics
(a) Undergo limited reabsorption by the renal tubule (b) Are relatively inert pharmacologically
(c) They inhibit carbonic anhydrase (d) Freely filtered at the glomerulus
83. Electron releasing groups stabilizes free radicals by
(a) Positive inductive ( + I) effect (b) Negative mesomeric ( — m) effect
(c) Positive mesomeric ( +m) effect (d) Negative inductive ( -I) effect
84. The principle of gas-liquid chromatography is
(a) Partition chromatography (b) Affinity chromatography
(c) Adsorption chromatography (d) Ion exchange chromatography
85. The heterocyclic nucleus present in nitrofurantoin are
(a) 3-nitro furan and imidazole 2, 4-dione (b) 2-nitro furan and imidazoline-2-one
(c) Furan and pyrrole (d) 2-nitro furan and imidazole 2, 4-dione
86. d-tubocurarine produces skeletal muscle relaxation by inhibiting
(a) Ganglionic nicotinic receptors (b) Muscurinic receptors
(c) Nicotinic receptors in neuromuscular junction (d) alpha-adrenergic receptors
87. Which of the following is not one of the triade effects of adrenaline leading to rise in
blood pressure
(a) A direct myocardial stimulation that increases the strength of ventricular contraction
(b) An increased heart rate (positive chronotropic action)

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 (c) Vasoconstriction in many vascular bed specially in precapillary resistance vessels of skin
(d) Stimulation of presynaptic alpha-2 adrenoreceptor leading to increase sympathetic
tone
Section : Pharmacognosy
88. " Which one of the following is not the biochemical marker of all death?
(a) Phospholipase (b) Creatine kinase (c) Lipase (d) Amylase
89. In the transplant rejection the clinical features of graft-versus-host reaction includes
following-Except
(a) Dermatitis, diarrhoea (b) Fever, weight loss
(c) Intestinal malabsorption (d) Rheumatoid arthritis
90. Which one of the following statement is true for cancer cells
(a) Oncoproteins produced by cancer cells act a neighboring cells
(b) Cancer cells require stimulation by growth factors
(c) Cancer cells are highly sensitive to growth inhibitory signals
(d) Cancer cells produce Oncoproteins in the absence of growth factors or external
stimuli
91. Rosacea is a skin condition that affect :
(a) Teenage people (b) Old age people (c) Only woman (d) Adults between the age of 30 - 60
92. A typical long bone consists of following parts except
(a) The diaphysis (b) The trabeculae (c) The epiphyses (d) The periosteum
93. Which of the following Neurotransmitter is formed on demand and act immediately
(a) Acetylcholine (b) Histamine (c) Nitric oxide (NO) (d) Adrenaline
94. In one of the following situations metabolic acidosis does not occur
(a) Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
(b) Therapeutic administration of acetazolamide
(c) Chronic renal failure
(d) Production of less amount of lactic acid
95. Which one of the following is a organ specific (localized) autoimmune disease
(a) Grave's disease (b) Scleroderma
(c) Polyarteritis nodosa (d) Rheumatoid arthritis
96. One of the following is not a chemical or histochemical change that occurs in infarction of
heart
(a) Decrease in sodium (b) Glycogen depletion
(c) Influx of calcium (d) Increase in lactic acid

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97. Following pairs represent antibiotic and its source. Identify the correct pair
(a) Griseofulvin: Bacteria (b) Polyenes: Fungi
(c) Colistin: Fungi (d) Macrolides: Actinomycetes
Section : Pharmacology
98. Who was the Chairman of the Drugs Enquiry Committee which was established in the year
1927?
(a) B. Mukherjee (b) Joseph Bhore (c) S.S. Bhatia (d) R.N. Chopra
99. Which one of the following is not a renal osteodystrophy (type of bone disease associated
with chronic kidney disease) ?
(a) Adynamic bone disease (b) Osteomalacia
(c) Secondary hypoparathyroidism (d) Mixed renal osteodystrophy
100. Plants which are not differentiated into root, stem and leaves are :
(a) Plant aginales (b) Principes (c) Thallophyte (d) Bromeliales
101. Identify antiarrhythmic drug that increases duration of QT wave and decreases the
sinus rate, whereas it has no effect on QRS complex
(a) Lidocaine (b) Amiodarone (c) Verapamil (d) Quinidine
102. As per the Drugs and Cosmetics Act-1940, if a drug is not labelled in prescribed manner
it is a
(a) Spurious drug (b) Substandard drug (c) Adulterated drug (d) Misbranded drug
103. " The major property of Ayurvedic herbs, "Rasa" indicates
(a) Taste (b) Post digestive effect
(c) Potency (d) Physicochemical properties
104. Except one of the following pairs represent drugs used in the treatment of glaucoma
and their primary mechanism. Select the wrong pair from the following
(a) Topical prostaglandin analogues: Increase aqueous outflow
(b) Topical beta-adrenergic blockers: Decrease aqueous outflow
(c) Topical miotics: Increase aqueous outflow
(d) Topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitors: Decrease aqueous formation
105. Auto rhythmicity is present in which of the following group of tissues ?
(a) Skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle
(b) Skeletal muscle and visceral smooth muscle
(c) Cardiac muscle and neuronal tissue
(d) Cardiac muscle and visceral smooth muscle

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106. During the denaturation cycle in polymerase chain reaction the temperature is raised
to:
(a) 90 -98°C (b) 60 - 68°C (c) 70 - 78°C (d) 80 - 88°C
107. The general purpose sodalime glass is not a suitable material for fabricating the container
for
(a) Parenteral (b) Oral solutions (c) Liquids for external use (d) Dry powders
108. In which year India signed General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT) including
Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
(a) 1996 (b) 1994 (c) 1992 (d) 1990
109. A fixed oil when added to an equal volume of ethanol; clear liquid is obtained; on cooling
at O°C and on storage for three hours, the liquid remains clear such fixed oil is identified as :
(a) Castor Oil (b) Soyabean oil (c) Neem oil (d) Evening Primrose oil
110. In shikimic acid pathway, chorismate mutase converts chorismic acid to
(a) Carotenoids (b) Phytol
(c) Prephenate (Prephenic acid) (d) Gutta
111. Standards to be complied under D & C act -1940 for drugs imported, manufactured,
stocked and exhibited for sale or distribution are covered under
(a) Schedule M (b) Second Schedule (c) First Schedule (d) Schedule L
112. In colour test for alkaloids colchicine with mineral acids gives
(a) Blue colour (b) Red colour (c) Yellow colour (d) Violet colour
113. Nicotine from tobacco is an alkaloid which is
(a) Oxygen free liquid (b) Semisolid (c) Crystalline (d) Oxygen free solid
114. In solid-solid mixing, large scale continuous type of mixer is
(a) Sigma blender (b) Ribbon blender
(c) Zigzag blender (d) Twin shell blender
115. Which one of the following is not affected in respiratory tuberculosis
(a) Pleural cavity (b) Mediastinal lymph nodes
(c) Pericardium (d) Larynx
116. Identify phase of clinical trial having following features
(A) Trial is conducted on about 3000 patients
(B) Purpose of trial is therapeutic confirmation
(C) Safety and tolerability is evaluated on wider scale
(D) Completion of trial is followed by New Drug Application (NDA) Options –
(a) Phase - Ill (b) Phase - I (c) Phase - IV (d) Phase - 11

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117. Which of the following Microorganism is used for the effective synthesis of interferon
(a) Micrococcus Luteus (b) Bacillus Subtilus
(c) Saccharomyces Cerevisiae (d) Pseudomonas Aureginosa
118. In yam, the presence of, irregular arrangement of the fibres, the ends of which often
project from the surface is because of
(a) Absence of linters (b) Absence of combing
(c) Presence of impurities (d) Improper drying
119. In International organization for standardization (ISO), standard pertaining to quality
system model for quality assurance in production, installation and servicing is given under
(a) ISO 9002 (b) ISO 9000 (c) ISO 9001 (d) ISO 9004
120. In Aloe the mucilage containing parenchymatous cells are present in
(a) Central parenchymatous region (b) Pericyclic cells
(c) Epidermis (d) Vascular bundles
121. Mechanical digestion in mouth in which food is mixed with saliva is and the movement
of food from mouth into the stomach is
(a) Mastication; deglutition (b) Deglutition; propulsion
(c) Segmentation; mastication (d) Segmentation; propulsion
122. The Crystal form of Sulphacetamide is :
(a) Rhombohedral (b) Orthorhombic (c) Monoclinic (d) Triclinic
123. As per the definition of D and C Act, Gudakhu (rubbed against human teeth) is considered
as :
(a) Food (b) Drug (c) Sweeting gum (d) Cosmetic
124. The fundamental principle "Law of similia" falls under which therapy
(a) Ayurveda (b) Siddha (c) Homoeopathy (d) Aroma therapy
125. Dragendorff's reagent is
(a) Potassium iodate (b) Potassium bismuth iodide
(c) Potassium mercuric iodide (d) Potassium picrate

End of the question paper

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 ANSWER KEY
1–b 2–c 3–d 4–c 5–b 6–c 7–c 8–c 9–c 10 – c
11 – b 12 – a 13 – a 14 – b 15 – b 16 – d 17 – d 18 – a 19 – b 20 – a
21 – b 22 – c 23 – d 24 – d 25 – c 26 – b 27 – c 28 – a 29 –d 30 – d
31 – a 32 – a 33 – b 34 – a 35 – b 36 – d 37 – d 38 – a 39 – b 40 – c
41 – b 42 – a 43 – a 44 – c 45 – c 46 – c 47 – d 48 – a 49 – d 50 – c
51 – c 52 – a 53 – d 54 – a 55 – a 56 – c 57 – d 58 – c 59 – b 60 – d
61 – a 62 – a 63 – c 64 – a 65 – d 66 – d 67 – d 68 – c 69 – a 70 – b
71 – d 72 – c 73 – d 74 – d 75 – a 76 – d 77 – c 78 – b 79 – b 80 – a
81 – a 82 – c 83 – a 84 – a 85 – d 86 – c 87 – d 88 – a 89 – d 90 – d
91 – d 92 – b 93 – c 94 – d 95 – a 96 – a 97 – d 98 – d 99 – c 100 – c
101 – b 102 – d 103 – a 104 – b 105 – d 106 – a 107 – a 108 – b 109 – a 110 – c
111 – b 112 – c 113 – a 114 – c 115 – c 116 – a 117 – c 118 – b 119 – a 120 – a
121 – a 122 – b 123 – d 124 – c 125 – b

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