UNIVERSITY OF LAGOS

Akoka

Post UTME Past Questions and Answers

FOR ALL CANDIDTATES

Compiled

by

CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS

CONTACT US
08055429697 or 07025859373
[email protected]
@classiceducationalconsults
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

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 TIPS TO PASS POST UTME EXAMS
Do you want to pass post UTME of any tertiary institution in Nigeria? If yes, then you are in the right place. In
this write up I will teach you best tips on how to prepare for Post UTME of any university or polytechnic in
Nigeria. I enjoin you to read thoroughly, as I will highlight the ultimate preparation tips to pass post UTME
screening examinations.
 Have the mindset of a Success:
Why is this, the first step in today's guideline? Having the mindset of a Successful student is first and surest step
towards any form of progress in life. Be motivated to pass your Post UTME this year. If you don’t continually
prepare yourself and mind to pass this exam, there is nothing someone else can do to prepare you. Don’t take
what comes, go for what you want. Desire a Post UTME score and work towards making it a reality. Always tell
yourself, “I must pass this Post UTME examination once and for all”.
 Don't get discouraged by your JAMB Score:
Many a times, one of the main reasons why a lot of candidates fail to make it through the Post UTME exams is as
a result of low self esteem due to their JAMB scores. One thing is to Score high marks in your JAMB
Examination, another is to score high and beat the School's Departmental cut off marks. However, you need to
develop a positive attitude toward your Post UTME irrespective of your Jamb score. Always strive to pass Post
UTME examination irrespective of what you think you scored in Jamb. Post UTME is a very important factor
that determines who gains admission. Even if you scored low in Jamb, you still have a golden opportunity to
study your desired course at the University. A very high Post UTME score can help boost your Jamb result. One
of the greatest mistakes candidates make in post utme is thinking that their high Jamb score is enough. Don’t be
deceived, no matter how high your Jamb score may be, a low Post UTME score will disgrace it.
 Gather Relevant Information:
A lot of candidates have insufficient or poor information about how the exam will play out, they have no clue
whatsoever of how many questions they will be asked, what form the examination will be set in; and it is for
these reasons that having relevant information is paramount. You should know beforehand whether you are
writing a paper based test or a computer based examination, your information gathering will help you know how
much time is allotted to your paper, and will help you while studying to time yourself as you practice questions,
giving you an edge over thousands of candidates who only find out about the time allotted for the paper only
minutes before the exam commences. Also, you should check to know the terrain of the school. If possible, travel
to the school and ask around. Ensure you have somewhere to stay a day or two before your examination (if out of
state). This is important since you need to be well-rested before sitting for an examination if you hope to give it
your best and perform well.
Finally, try to gather as much information as you can about your university and department of choice, especially
such things as required subject combination and cut-off mark from the previous year; as this could prove the
difference between you and other inexperienced candidates, and whether you get an admission to your preferred
course of study or not.
 Avoid Procrastination:
Later things… This is the language of procrastinators. They always think there is time. My dear, do whatever you
need to do now. Time is an asset and not a handset.
The later you always say doesn't come as expected. Learn to live your life with a sense of urgency. Have the
mentality, “I am behind schedule…”. Your Post UTME examination is not far. Say no to procrastination.
 Study with Past-Questions:
Dear friend, do not fall into the misguided conception that you can go it alone! It is important to have a clear
understanding of the questions you are likely to be asked and the likely areas the questions might come from, and
what better way to do that than with questions of previous examinations?
How do I get Post UTME past questions for my University of choice? It is very easy. Yes, it is! We have
compiled FREE and RELIABLE post UTME past questions and answers for various Institutions. So, do try your
best to get relevant past-questions that apply to your school and department, and go through it each day.
 Set your Target:
Your background check should tell you what the cut-off mark of your department of choice, hence your target
point. You have to set a target for yourself and determine in your heart that you can achieve it, as you work
towards it. Make sure the only thing that robs you of sleep is how to successfully meet your target score. Ensure
that whatever target you set is above what you scored in UTME, since you will need to do better than your
UTME performance to make the merit list of your department.
 Reduce your time in Social Media:
Some people live their entire life on Facebook, Twitter, Instagram, Whatsapp etc. This is so bad and disastrous if
you are preparing for exams. Try and reduce you time spending on social media during this time. Maybe, after
the exams you can go back and make it your second home, (just saying).
 Learn To Remember:
To pass Post UTME once and for all, you must learn to remember. It is not just enough to read. It is more
important to remember what you have read. The difference between someone who reads for shorter hours but
pass very well and another who studies for long hours but don’t perform well is “remembrance”. Study to
remember and not to forget. If you can remember all you have read, then success will smile on you. Do whatever
it takes to pass Post UTME examination genuinely.
 Learn To Solve Without a Calculator:
I know you cannot give me the correct answer to 2/3 right now without a calculator. I can see that you are trying
to get the answer. No, don't give me that look, I know just what I'm saying.
Most schools do not allow the use of calculator in their Post UTME examination. Therefore, you must learn to
solve problems without pressing your calculator. It is time to temporarily break the covenant you have with
calculator.
 Give yourself enough time to rest:
Another factor that causes low exam performance is STRESS!
Stress as we all know it is very disastrous to the Human body. You need to give your body the maximum amount
of rest it needs. Reading, reading and reading all the time isn't advisable at all, according to science, the Human
brain is always at work. Give your brain time to relax from the previous tasks so as to recover and work
efficiently.
NOTE: We can't cover everything in this article; we'll be continuing this discussion some other day.
Don't forget to share your thoughts with us @ [email protected]
Classic Consults wishes you good Success in your examination
 GENERAL NOTE

Benefits of Studying Past Exam Papers

Studying past papers is a valuable part of exam preparation and help keep revision focused on
important themes whilst practicing exam style questions.
Past exam papers are one of the most helpful tools available to prepare for both internal and
external examinations as they provides students with practical insight into how the
forthcoming exam paper is likely to look and the key themes or subject areas most likely to
be covered. Before starting revision for a subject it is always worth taking time to seek out
past papers.

Please note that this is a post UTME past question and not post UTME Sure Questions
and therefore it is meant to be practice and also guide you in your revision. The number
of questions here may not be the exact number of questions you will be given in your
case. Also the time you will be given may vary from the one indicated in this text.
Therefore, Classic Educational Consults will not be responsible for any form of
Examination Malpractice or Examination Misconduct.
Note that the correct options are highlighted in red colour.

UNILAG Post-UTME Past Questions & Answers

English Language

1. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one that is most nearly opposite
in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the
gap in the sentence: The management has neither ….. nor denied the rumour that
is was going to lay of some workers.

(a) pronounced

(b) confirmed

(c) rejected

(d) advertised

2. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one that is most nearly opposite
in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the
gap in the sentence: Instead of ……. the issue, the speaker digressed to
unimportant matters.

(a) summarizing

(b) describing

(c) revealing

(d) addressing

3. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one that is most nearly opposite
in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the
gap in the sentence: The telephone booths were all…. and I had to wait for more
than ten minutes for one to become vacant.

(a) locked
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(b) busy

(c) occupied

(d) ringing

4. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one that is most nearly opposite
in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the
gap in the sentence: While the first battalion haltedits march at nightfall, the second
…. to the barracks

(a) returned

(b) set out

(c) proceeded

(d) turned up

5. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one that is most nearly opposite
in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the
gap in the sentence: His father is an ……. driver but he is only anovice

(a) enlightened

(b) excellent

(c) poor

(d) experienced

6. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one that is most nearly opposite
in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the
gap in the sentence: The arrival of the police at the scene……… rather than
mitigatedtension
(a) provoked
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(b) heightened

(c) created

(d) prolonged

7. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one that is most nearly opposite
in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the
gap in the sentence: Roses arecommonin May but…. in November.

(a) dead

(b) strange

(c) rare

(d) extinct

8. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one that is most nearly opposite
in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the
gap in the sentence: A bank clerk should be able to tell easily the difference
between …. notes andcounterfeitones.

(a) crisp

(b) good

(c) correct

(d) genuine

9. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one that is most nearly opposite
in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the
gap in the sentence: Last night, Uncle Joe was blind drunk but this morning he is
as ….. as a judge

(a) alert
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(b) saintly

(c) strong

(d) sober

10. From the list of words lettered A to D choose the one that is most nearly
opposite in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time,
correctly fill the gap in the sentence: What I have is only a…… of the famous
painting; theoriginalis in the National Museum

(a) duplicate

(b) model

(c) fake

(d) drawing

11. From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes the
following sentence: If the jury‟s verdict is “not guilty,” the defendant will be….

(a) acquitted

(b) indicted

(c) pardoned

(d) forgiven

12. From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes the
following sentence: When all the items on the agenda had been discussed, the
meeting was …….

(a) adjourned

(b) dismissed
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(c) postponed

(d) dissolved

13. From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes the
following sentence: Because the new venture was ………. Many businessmen and
women went into it.

(a) rich

(b) manageable

(c) lucrative

(d) satisfying

14. From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes the
following sentence: We save a………. of lions at the game reserve

(a) pride

(b) family

(c) band

(d) group

15. From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes the
following sentence: Many educationists feel that……. Punishment should still be
retained in schools

(a) capital

(b) corporal

(c) corporate
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(d) physical

16. From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes the following
sentence: Freedom of movement is a ….. right of every citizen

(a) fundamental

(b) negotiated

(c) privileged

(d) respected

17. From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes the following
sentence: The river……… towards the sea

(a) meandered

(b) rolled

(c) ran

(d) trickled

18. From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes the following
sentence: I…… that our team will win the match tomorrow

(a) certify

(b) conclude

(c) announce

(d) predict
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19. From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes the
following sentence: If found guilty, he will……. all the wealth he has amassed
illegally.

(a) forgo

(b) abandon

(c) repay

(d) forfeit

20. From the words lettered A to D, choose the word that best completes the
following sentence: At a……. of 200 kilometers an hour, the hurricane swept away
everything in its path

(a) movement

(b) flow

(c) velocity

(d) drive

21. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for this sentence: Ladies and gentlemen, the worst may be over, but
we are not out of the woods yet. This means that we are

(a) still in the forest

(b) not yet ready to celebrate our success

(c) likely to encounter more difficulties

(d) not sure of ourselves

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22. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for this sentence: When I leave this country it will be for good. This
means that I will

(a) never come back

(b) leave for better conditions elsewhere

(c) become an adventurer.

(d) improvement ways.

23. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for this sentence: When she confronted her husband, he hung his head
and didn‟t answer her questions. This means that he was

(a) defiant

(b) ashamed and embarrassed

(c) caught unawares

(d) angry with her

24. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for this sentence: All our plans fell through at the last moment. This
means that we

(a) were exposed

(b) delayed

(c) were abandoned

(d) failed
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25. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for this sentence: The police knew that the suspect was not being
straight with them. This means that the suspect was

(a) not telling the truth

(b) not friendly

(c) afraid

(d) timid

26. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for this sentence: After his prison experience. Etim decided to go
straight. This means that he decided to.

(a) hold his head up and walk with defiance

(b) change his religion

(c) live an honest life

(d) stop using drugs

27. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for this sentence: The teacher spoke with his tongue in his cheek when
he said that lazy Ade was the best pupil. This means that the teacher

(a) did not mean what he said

(b) was disappointed

(c) was angry

(d) tried to encourage

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28. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for this sentence: They did not know what to expect and so decided to
play it by it by ear. This means that they decided to

(a) listen attentively to everyone

(b) act according to circumstances

(c) pretend to be deaf

(d) prepare for the worst

29. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for this sentence: Ojo decided that the best course of action was to
play along with them for time being. This means that he decided to

(a) join their them temporarily

(b) entertain them for a while

(c) pretend to agree with them

(d) be playful with them.

30. From options A to D, choose the interpretation that you consider most
appropriate for this sentence: The conference was attended by people from all
walks of life. This means that conference was attended by people

(a) of all races

(b) who travelled widely

(c) from all professions

(d) from different parts of the world.

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

31. From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word as it is used in the sentence: Amina is the one who initiated the
quarrel, not Nikel!

(a) started

(b) stopped

(c) settled

(d) fuelled

32. From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word as it is used in the sentence: She was reprimanded by her boss
for negligence

(a) sacked

(b) rebuked

(c) punished

(d) surcharged

33. From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word as it is used in the sentence: Why should I retract my statement
when it is nothing but the truth?

(a) alter

(b) deny

(c) withdraw

(d) condemn
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34. From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word as it is used in the sentence: The doctor diagnosed the tumour as

malignant

(a) deadly

(b) painful

(c) trouble

(d) minor

35. From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word as it is used in the sentence: In tropical; Africa, mosquitoes are

ubiquitous

(a) dangerous

(b) harmful

(c) trouble

(d) everywhere

36. From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word as it is used in the sentence: It soon became obvious that a
confrontation was inevitable

(a) disastrous

(b) unavoidable

(c) desirable

(d) imminent
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37. From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word as it is used in the sentence: They insisted that the omission of my
named had been inadvertent

(a) unintentional

(b) unconditional

(c) improper

(d) unfortunate

38. From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word as it is used in the sentence: The police announced that they were
yet toapprehendthe criminals

(a) interrogated

(b) charge

(c) prosecute

(d) arrest

39. From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word as it is used in the sentence: He is easily recognizable because of
aconspicuousbirthmark on his face

(a) dark

(b) beautiful

(c) prominent

(d) natural
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

40. From the words letter A to D, choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined word as it is used in the sentence: The fishing boat was imperiled by
high winds, but it management to reach port safely

(a) pushed

(b) endangered

(c) disturbed

(d) blown

41. From options A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes
the following sentence: Surprisingly, Musa turned ….. the job offer

(a) away

(b) in

(c) out

(d) down

42. From options A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes
the following sentence: We have no choice………to do what they demand.

(a) except

(b) than

(c) unless

(d) but

43. From options A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes
the following sentence: The committee has submitted its report…… the students
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(a) in

(b) for

(c) about

(d) on

44. From options A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes
the following sentence: The chairman told members that he was open …..
suggestions

(a) to

(b) for

(c) about

(d) on

45. From options A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes
the following sentence: The policeman shot the escaping robber ………. the leg

(a) on

(b) in

(c) at

(d) into

46. From options A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes
the following sentence: For the management, your remarks amount to a slap……..
the face

(a) on
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(b) upon

(c) at

(d) in

47. From options A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes
the following sentence: She does not remember……. to anyone at the park

(a) to talk

(b) to be talking

(c) talking

(d) to have talked

48. From options A to D, choose the word or group of words that best completes
the following sentence: This portion is to be shared between………

(a) us and them

(b) we and them

(c) us and they

(d) we and they

49. Select the option that has a different consonant sound from the others.

(a) of

(b) enough

(c) fight

(d) life
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50. Fill the gap with the appropriate option from the list of options. Sir, I‟m not lying
about the matter, I know nothing of it. If I knew,

(a) I would tell you

(b) I must tell you

(c) I can tell you

(d) I shall tell you

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

General Paper

1. Which of the following groups fall into the Civil Service?

(a) The police, the army, and the air force

(b) Employees of NEPA, NNPC and NRC

(c) Employees of ministries of finance, education and transportation

(d) All of the above

2. The recruitment or appointment of the permanent secretary is one of the duties

of:

(a) The federal public service commission

(b) The state civil service commission

(c) The executive

(d) The National Assembly

3. In the organizational structure of the ministry or government department, offices

and positions are:

(a) Hierarchically arranged

(b) Diagonally arranged

(c) Secretly arranged

(d) Haphazardly arranged

4. The government maintains monopoly over certain services for:

(a) Selfish reasons

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(b) Security and strategic reasons

(c) Undisclosed reasons

(d) All of the above

5. Ministers of local government and chieftancy affairs were abolished in Nigeria by:

(a) General Yakubu Gowon

(b) General MurtalaMohammed

(c) President Ibrahim Babangida

(d) General Olusegun Obasanjo

6. Policy analysis, policy implementation and plan setting are some of the functions
of:

(a) The legislature

(b) The executive

(c) The local government

(d) The civil service

7. Public corporations can be controlled through:

(a) Riots

(b) Public opinion

(c) Civil disobedience

(d) None of the above

8. The general supervision of a public corporation is carried out by the:

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(a) Board of directors

(b) Board of trustees

(c) Managing director

(d) Secretary of the board

9. The local government in Nigeria is created to:

(a) Create more civil service jobs

(b) Encourage competition and rivalry among communities

(c) Bring the government nearer to the people

(d) Prevent the creation of more states

10. The Civil Service embraces all workers in:

(a) All private corporations

(b) Public and private companies

(c) Government ministries

(d) Public corporations

11. The effective operation of the Civil Service in Nigeria is mostly hampered by:

(a) Inadequate training of personnel

(b) Corruption and inefficiency

(c) Debt burden and redundancy

(d) Poor infrastructure

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12. The Bureau of Public Enterprises is charged with the responsibility for:

(a) Privatization and commercialization

(b) Generating revenue

(c) Eradicating poverty

(d) Providing employment opportunities

13. Financial allocation to a local government by the Federal or a State government

to supplement the cost of a project is called:

(a) Revenue allocation

(b) Reimbursement

(c) Statutory allocation

(d) Matching grant

14. A permanent Civil Service:

(a) Makes continuity in government possible

(b) Makes civil servants arrogant

(c) Promotes ethnic domination

(d) Is undemocratic

15. One form of control exercised over public corporations is the requirement that
their annual reports be laid before:

(a) Parliament for scrutiny

(b) All the political parties

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(c) All the local authorities in the country

(d) A joint committee of the executive and parliament

16. Anonymity of the Civil Service means that the Civil Servant must:

(a) Serve any government impartially

(b) Be politically neutral

(c) Have job security

(d) Not receive the credit or blame for any good or bad policy

17. The local government reforms of 1976 in Nigeria were designed to:

(a) Decentralize authority

(b) Enlist grass-root support

(c) Achieve even development

(d) All of the above

18. Bye-laws made by local authorities can be declared unconstitutional only by

the:

(a) Local government service commission

(b) Ministry of local government and chieftaincy affairs

(c) Courts

(d) Attorney-General

19. Mass retrenchment of workers in the public and private sectors is most likely to
result in:
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(a) Political stability

(b) Economic survival

(c) High rate of armed robbery, pilfering and political instability

(d) Electoral malpractices

20. Public Corporations are established to:

(a) Look after the affairs of local authorities

(b) Co-ordinate the activities of ministries

(c) Give advice to the government on commerce

(d) Provide essential services and amenities on commercial bases

21. Which of the following is not a source of local government revenue:

(a) State and federal government grants

(b) Licensing of cars and lorries

(c) Market stall fees

(d) Returns on investment

22. One of the major reasons for setting up public corporations is to:

(a) Maximize profit

(b) Compete with private companies

(c) Provide essential services

(d) Encourage patronage

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23. All of the following are functions of the civil service except:

(a) Making laws

(b) Implementing policies

(c) Preparing financial estimates

(d) Implementing edicts

24. One factor which militates against the effective functioning of the Civil Service is:

(a) Delegated legislation

(b) Political interference

(c) Judicial inference

(d) Political stability

25. Being the third tier of government, the local government is therefore:

(a) Subordinate to state and federal government

(b) Antagonistic to state and federal government

(c) Co-ordinate to state and federal government

(d) All of the above

26. One major problem facing public corporations in Nigeria is:

(a) Political parties

(b) Excessive patriotism

(c) Government interference

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(d) Judicial manipulation

27. Most of the reasons given for the establishment of public corporations in Nigeria
are being contradicted by the current wave of:

(a) Privatization and commercialization

(b) Legalization and nationalization

(c) Judicial and legislative competence

(d) Rigging and electoral brouhaha

28. The recruitment, promotion and discipline of civil servants in Nigeria is the
responsibility of:

(a) Board of Directors

(b) Civil Service Commission

(c) The president

(d) Ministry of Labour and Productivity

29. Engineers and architects in the Civil Service fall into the:

(a) Professional class

(b) Technical class

(c) Higher technical class

(d) The manipulative class

30. The main functions of the administrative class of the Civil Service include:

(a) Policy making

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(b) Implementation of government policies

(c) Enactment of laws for the ministries

(d) All of the above

31. The relationship between staffs of the civil service in the discharge of their duties is
expected to be:

(a) Personal and unofficial

(b) Official and non-personal

(c) Casual and inconsistent

(d) Illogical and sporadic

32. The first local government system adopted in Nigeria by the regional government
was:

(a) The French prefectorial system

(b) The Indian local government system

(c) The Russian Socialist system

(d) The British Council system

33. The idea of making the local government the third tier of government was initiated by:

(a) Abdusalam Abubakar regime

(b) Alhaji Shehu Shagari regime

(c) Murtala/ Obasanjo regime

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(d) Ibrahim Babangida regime

34. Before the 1976 local government reforms, one of the defective features of the
local governments in Nigeria was that:

(a) They had no functions to perform

(b) They had no legal personality

(c) They had no chairmen to pilot their affairs

(d) They had no political aspiration

35. One of the major problems which spelt doom for Nigeria Airways was:

(a) Embezzlement of fund

(b) Corruption

(c) Lack of patriotism

(d) All of the above

36. The main cause of infrastructure decay in Nigeria is:

(a) Illiteracy

(b) Disobedience

(c) Lack of maintenance culture

(d) Political instability

37. One of the measures that will enhance the status of the local government as a
third tier of government is:

(a) The creation of more local government areas

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(b) Up-grading the local government to statehood

(c) Drafting of separate constitution for local government

(d) Deduction of local government share of federal allocation directly from source

38. To enhance the independence of the federal public service commission,

members should:

(a) Be elected from a national party

(b) Take oath of celibacy

(c) Neither belong to the legislative nor executive branch of government

(d) Be appointed by the non-aligned movement

39. To be promoted from one grade level to another, a staff must first:

(a) Apply to the Nigeria export promotion council

(b) Petition the civil service commission

(c) Be in the president or governor‟s list

(d) Be recommended to the public service commission by his or her departmental

head

40. To be entitled to pension in Nigeria, a staff must:

(a) Work for 55 years

(b) Work for at least 10 years consecutive years

(c) Work for 65 years

(d) Attain the age of seventy

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

41. The dismissal of a staff in the ministry for official misconduct is the prerogative
is:

(a) The permanent secretary

(b) The personnel manager

(c) The minister

(d) The Public Service Commission

42. The greatest head-ache affecting revenue generation by NEPA is:

(a) Debts owed it by government departments and officials

(b) Refusal of NEPA men to collect revenue

(c) Its instability to employ accountants

(d) None of the above

43. Public Corporations in Nigeria are subject to the control of:

(a) The judiciary

(b) The minister in charge

(c) The parliament

(d) Public Service Commission

44. The public corporation is similar to the joint stock company because:

(a) The chairmen is also the managing director

(b) Their administrative centres are far from their main factories

(c) The two are legal entities

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(d) They share the same market

45. Which of the following statements both describes a public corporation:

(a) It is an organ of government responsible for executing the policies of

government

(b) It is a local body that renders services on a local basis

(c) It is a legal body established by an act of state to provide essential services

(d) It is a body owned by members of the public

46. „Red tapism‟ can be explained as:

(a) The decentralized way of taking decision

(b) A flexible way by which government decisions are taken

(c) The rigid adherence to routines by civil servants

(d) Management by objectives

47. An institution which seeks to redress people‟s grievances against abuse of

administrative power is the:

(a) Ombudsman

(b) Judiciary

(c) Directorate of Public Prosecution

(d) Judicial Service Commission

48. A statutory corporation is under the supervision of:

(a) The Chief Justice

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(b) The commissioner of police

(c) A minister

(d) A local government chairman

49. To which class of the civil service does the causal or manual labour force belong:

(a) The technical class

(b) The casual class

(c) The manipulative class

(d) The higher technical class

50. The first person to develop the atomic bomb was:

(a) Albert Einstein

(b) Charles De Gaulle

(c) Thomas Jefferson

(d) T.S. Elliot

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

Mathematics

1. Which of the following points does not lie on the lie 2y + 5x -4=0?

(a) (0.8, 0)

(b) (1,-0.5)

(c) (0,2)

(d) (2,3)

2. A straight line has the equation 10y = 3x + 15. Which of the following is true?

(a) The gradient is 0.3 and the y-intercept is 1.5

(b) The gradient is 3 and the y-intercept is 1.5

(c) The gradient is 15 and the y-intercept is 3

(d) The gradient is 1.5 and the y-intercept is 0.3

3. P is the point (2, 7) and Q is the point (6, 3). What is the gradient of PQ?

(a) 1

(b) - 1

(c) 0.5

(d) -0.5

4. P is the point (3, 5). Q is the point (-1, 9). R is the midpoint of PQ. Which one of
the following lines does R lie on?

(a) y = x + 6
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(b) y = x + 8

(c) y = x - 6

(d) y = x - 8

5. A straight line has a gradient of -2 and passes through the point (4, 1). What is its
equation?

(a) y + 2x = 6

(b) y = 2x - 6

(c) y + 2x – 9 = 0

(d) 2y = x -2

6. The line y = 5x – 3 and y = 2x + 9 intersects at P. what are the coordinates of P?

(a) (2, 7)

(b) (2, 13)

(c) (4, 17)

(d) (-4,-23)

7. A is the point (1, 5), B is the point (4, 7) and C is the point (5, 2). Triangle ABC is

(a) Right-angle

(b) Scalene with no right angle

(c) Equilateral

(d) Isosceles

8. If un = 2, 6, 10, …, the 12th term of the sequenceis

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(a) 46

(b) 50

(c) 48

(d) 44

9. If un = 2, 6, 10, …, the last tem of the sequence is 90. The number of terms in
the sequence is

(a) 20

(b) 22

(c) 24

(d) 23

10. If un = 2, 6, 10, …, the sum of the terms of the sequence above is

(a) 1104

(b) 1058

(c) 968

(d) 1012

11. In an arithmetic sequence with 25 terms, if the first term is 60 and last term is
-12 the common difference is

(a) 3

(b) 2

(c) -3
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(d) -2

12. In an arithmetic sequence with 25 terms, if the first term is 60 and last term is
-12, the sum of the terms of the sequence is

(a) 600

(b) 2400

(c) 900

(d) 1800

13. In an arithmetic sequence whose 4th term is 14 and whose 11th term is 70, the
first term and common difference are

(a) a = -10, d = 8

(b) a = -7, d = 7

(c) a = 10, d = 8

(d) a =-14, d =7

14. In an arithmetic sequence whose 4th term is 14 and whose 11th term is 70, the
sum of the first 12 terms of the sequence is

(a) 468

(b) 330

(c) 456

(d) 408

15. Ann goes swimming regularly. She wants to improve her fitness, so she
decides to swim 10 lengths in the first session and increase the number of lengths
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

she swims by 2 every session. When she reaches 50 lengths in a session she will
not increase the number any further. After how many sessions does Ann swim 50
lengths for the first time?

(a) 21

(b) 22

(c) 20

(d) 19

16. Ann goes swimming regularly. She wants to improve her fitness, so she
decides to swim 10 lengths in the first session and increase the number of lengths
she swims by 2 every session. When she reaches 50 lengths in a session she will
not increase the number any further. Ann decides she will give herself a reward
when she has swum a total of 400 lengths. After how many sessions does she get
her reward?

(a) 15

(b) 25

(c) 16

(d) 24

17. Ann goes swimming regularly. She wants to improve her fitness, so she
decides to swim 10 lengths in the first session and increase the number of lengths
she swims by 2 every session. When she reaches 50 lengths in a session she will
not increase the number any further. If Ann asks her friend Joy to come swimming
with her, Joy starts coming at Sue‟s 8th session. Joy starts to swim 15 lengths and
increases the number of the lengths by 5 each time. After how many of Joy‟s
sessions does she swim the same number of lengths as Ann?

(a) 10
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(b) 5

(c) 11

(d) 4

18. A dealer increased the price of an item by 20%, and then increased the price of
the same item by 30%. If x is the original price, what is the price after the two
increases?

(a) 1.5 x

(b) 1.56 x

(c) x + 0.5

(d) x + 0.56

(e) x + 6

19. Two dice are thrown. What is the probability that the sum of the two numbers
obtained is greater than 10?

(a) 1/12

(b) 1/36

(c) 1/6

(d) 1/4

(e) 1/2

20. If x and y are two real numbers such that 3x + 2y = 5 and 5x + 4y = 9, then 4x
+ 3y =

(a) 0
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(b) 2

(c) 5

(d) 6

(e) 7

21. If 35 is the median of the data set including 21, 7, 45, 33, 62 and x, then x =

(a) 3

(b) 14

(c) 37

(d) 33

(e) 48

22. The is the value you calculate when you want the arithmetic average

(a) Mean

(b) Median

(c) Mode

(d) All of the above

23. The is often the preferred measure of central tendency if the data are severely
skewed

(a) Mean

(b) Median

(c) Mode
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(d) Range

24. Which of the following is the formula for range?

(a) H + L

(b) L x H

(c) L – H

(d) H – L

25 are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between
two quantitative variables.

(a) Bar graphs

(b) a Pie graphs

(c) a Line graphs

(d) a Scatterplots

26. As a general rule, the is the best measure of central tendencybecause

it is more precise

(a) Mean

(b) Median

(c) Mode

(d) Range

27. The most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called the .

(a) Mean
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(b) Median

(c) Mode

(d) Range

28. A rectangular box with a square base and no top has a volume of 500 cm, the
dimensions of the box that require the least amount of material are

(a) 10x10x5cm

(b) 4x5x25cm

(c) 50x5x2cm

(d) 25x10x2

(e) 10x50x1

29. The roof of a shelter is made from a piece of corrugated iron 2.3m long inclined
at 18º to the horizontal. How far from the wall does the roof stick out?

(a) 0.7m

(b) 2.2m

(c) 1.1m

(d) 1.2m

(e) 2.1m

30. A ladder 20m long rests against a vertical wall so that the foot of the ladder 9m
from the wall. The height (correct to 1 decimal place above the ground at which the
upper end of the ladder touches the wall is

(a) 19.7m
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(b) 18.1m

(c) 18.7m

(d) 17.1m

(e) 17.9m

31. A chord 6.6m long is 5.6m from the centre of a circle. The radius of the circle is

(a) 3.2m

(b) 6.3m

(c) 6.5m

(d) 1.6m

(e) 2.56m

32. The heights in cm, of 10 children are 145, 163, 159, 162, 167, 149, 150, 160,
170, and 155. The mean height of the children is

(a) 156cm

(b) 158cm

(c) 160cm

(d) 162cm

(e) 159cm

33. The heights in cm, of 10 children are 145, 163, 159, 162, 167, 149, 150, 160,
170, and 155. The standard deviation of the heights of the children is

(a) 5.5cm
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(b) 5.7cm

(c) 6.5cm

(d) 6.7cm

(e) 7.7cm

34. A class of all possible subsets of space S is called

(a) Universal set

(b) alpha - field

(c) sample space

(d) probability space

(e) random space

35. One of these is a demerit of a sample

(a) It is cheaper to enumerate a sample

(b) It is faster to survey a sample

(c) Results obtained from sample are oftentimes as informative as those from a censor

(d) All of the above

(e) None of the above

36. One of these is not a desirable feature of a good statistical table

(a) A table must reveal salient features of data

(b) A table must clearly communicate information in a neat and concise form
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(c) A table must be self sufficient

(d) A table must be self explanatory

(e) None of the above

37. Which of these is a measure of location

(a) Mean

(b) Standard deviation

(c) Variance

(d) All of the above

(e) None of the above

38. Statistics is a set of tools whose proper use will …….. the decision maker

(a) Completely fill the needs of

(b) Encumber

(c) Aid

(d) Confuse

(e) None of the above

39. The graph of cumulative frequency distribution is called

(a) Frequency polygon

(b) Frequency distribution curve

(c) Frequency curve

 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(d) Step function

(e) Ogive

40. A ……… variation is one whose values convey the concept of attribute rather
than number

(a) Quantitative

(b) Qualitative

(c) Discrete

(d) Continuous

(e) None of the above

41. A company employs 100 people, 65 of whom are men. 60 people including all
the women are paid weekly. The number of the men that are paid weekly is

(a) 35

(b) 40

(c) 25

(d) 30

(e) None of the above

42. In a survey of villagers, it is found that 20% of the people have visited Kano and
25% have visited Port Harcourt. If 5% have been to both cities, then the percentage
that have visited neither Kano nor Port Harcourt is

(a) 75%

(b) 65%
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(c) 50%

(d) 60%

(e) 70%

43. The length of a rectangle is three times its width. If the perimeter is 72 cm,the
width of the rectangle is

(a) 6cm

(b) 8cm

(c) 9cm

(d) 10cm

(e) 11cm

44. A frustum of a pyramid is 3cm square at the top and 6cm square at the bottom
and is 5cm high. The volume in cm3 of the frustum is

(a) 15

(b) 150

(c) 105

(d) 115

(e) 36

45. If x = 2, then (x - 1)(2x - 3) =

(a) 1

(b) 3
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(c) -1

(d) 0

(e) -3

46. What is sin30 ?

(a) ½

(b) 3/2

(c) 0.866

(d) 1

(e) 2

47. Given the list of numbers {1, 6, 3, 9, 16, 11, 2, 9, 5, 7, 12, 13, 8}, what is the
median?

(a) 7

(b) 8

(c) 9

(d) 11

(e) 6

48. What is the slope of the line that is perpendicular to y - 2x = 1?

(a) 2

(b) -2

(c) ½
 CLASSIC EDUCATIONAL CONSULTS 07025859373

(d) -½

(e) 1

49. What is the sum of the first 40 even positive integers?

(a) 1,600

(b) 1,560

(c) 820

(d) 1,640

(e) 400

50. What is the length of an arc of a circle with a radius of 5 if it subtends an angle
of 60° at the center?

(a) 3.14

(b) 5.24

(c) 10.48

(d) 2.62

(e) 4.85