XII PHYSICS

M.C.Qs
 CHAPTER 11 - HEAT

1. The energy that flows from a high temperature object to a low temperature object is
called
(a) Heat
(b) Sound
(c) Electricity
(d) Solar Energy

2. Hotness or coldness of an object is expressed in terms of a quantity called

(a) Heat
(b) Temperature
(c) Kelvin
(d) Internal Energy

3. The SI unit of heat is

(a) Calorie (b)Joule
(c) Kelvin (d) Volt

4. The energy expended when a force of one Newton moves an object one meter in the
direction in which the force is applied is called
(a) Calorie (b) Joule
(c) kwh (d) Electron Volt

5. I joule is equal to
(a) 1 Nm (b) 1 kgms2
(c) 1 kgm-2 (d) 1 kgm2s-1

6.The quantity of heat required per degree rise the temperature of a substance is:
(a) Molar specific heat
(b) Heat capacity
(c) Latent heat
(d) Specific heat

7. The average kinetic energy of the molecules of the object is called its
(a) Heat
(b) Temperature
(c) Hotness
(d) Coldness

8. Which is a device used to measure the degree of hotness or coldness of the object?
(a) Thermometer
(b) Barometer
(c) Hypsometer
(d) Caloriemeter

9. Generally thermometers make use of the fact that most of the liquids on heating
(a) Compress (b) Expand
(c) Evaporate (d) Sublimize

10. On Celsius scale boiling point of water is taken as

(a) 0C (b) 100C
(c) 180C (d) 373C

11. On Celsius scale freezing point of water is taken as

(a) 0C (b) 100C
(c) 180C (d) 273C

12. C = __________.
(a) 5/9 (F – 32)
(b) 5/9 (F + 32)
(c) 5/9 (F – 273)
(d) 5/9 (F + 273)

13. F = __________.
(a) 5/9 (C – 32)
(b) 5/9 (F + 32)
(c) 9/5 (C + 32)
(d) None of these

14. K = __________.
(a) 273 + C
(b) 273 - C
(c) 273 + F
(d) 273 - F

15. 1 cal = __________.

(a) 11.184J (b) 2.184J
(c) 3.184J (d) 4.184J

16. He proposed that matter and energy are equivalent.

(a) Newton (b) Einstein
(c) Maxwell (d) James Joule

17. The equation representing the inter conversion of matter and energy is written as
(a) E = mc (b) E = mc2
(c) E = mc3 (d) All of these

18. Kinetic energy of gas molecule is:

(a) RT (b)3/2 RT
(c) KT (d) 3/2 KT

19. Kinetic energy per mole of idea gas molecules is:

(a) RT
(b)3/2 RT
(c) KT (d) 3/2 KT

20. Upon which Physical quantity Kinetic energy of gas molecules depends:
(a) Number of moles of gas
(b) Temperature of gas
(c) Pressure of gas
(d) Volume of gas

21. The temperature at which the gases if they remain in gaseous state exert zero
pressure and have zero volume is called
(a) 1C (b) 1F
(c) 1K (d) Absolute Zero

22. Molecules of which gas, Oxygen or Nitrogen in air will move fast at some particular
temperature:
(a) Molecules of both gases will move with same velocities
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) None of these

23. Once the heat is transferred to an object, it is converted into the __________.
(a) Entropy of the object
(b) Internal energy of the object
(c) Temperature of the object
(d) None of these

24. “Temperature remaining constant the volume of given mass of a gas is inversely
proportional to the pressure applied on it.” It is called
(a) General Gas Law
(b) Boyle’s Law
(c) Charles Law
(d) None of these

25. “At constant pressure the volume of a gas is proportional to the absolute
temperature.” It is called
(a) General Gas Law
(b) Boyle’s Law
(c) Charles Law
(d) None of these

26. The unit of Co-efficient of thermal expansion is:

(a) m-K (b) m/k
(c) K (d) K-1
27. Co-efficient of Volumetric expansion is the:
(a) Intrinsic Quantity
(b) Thrice of Co-efficient of Linear expansion
(c) One third of Co-efficient of Linear expansion
(d) Thermometric Property

28. Which physical quantity of substance does not change with thermal expansion?
(a) Volume
(b) Length
(c) Mass
(d) Density

29. Which type of strips of metals are used in Bimetallic strip:

(a) Different Co-efficient of thermal expansion
(b) Different lengths
(c) Different Size
(d) Different Shapes

30. A thermostat is a device which is used:

(a) To keep the heat flow constant
(b) To Isolate the system from surroundings
(c) In all heating appliance
(d) To keep the temperature constant

31. The quantity of heat required to change the state of a substance is:
(a) Molar specific heat
(b) Heat capacity
(c) Latent heat
(d) Specific heat

1.a 2.b 3.b 4.b 5.a 6.b

7.b 8.a 9.b 10.b 11.a 12.a
13.d 14.a 15.d 16.b 17.b 18.d
19.b 20.b 21.d 22.c 23.b 24.b
25.c 26.d 27.b 28.c 29.a 30.d
31.c
 CHAPTER 12 - ELECTROSTATICS

1.Matter is composed of three fundamental particles. They are

(a) Electrons, Protons, Neutrons
(b) Electrons, Cathode rays, Masons
(c) Electrons, Neutrons, Masons
(d) Proton, Hadrons, Electron

2. Force experienced by a unit positive charge in the electric field in known as:
(a) Charge density
(b) Electric potential
(c) Electric flux
(d) Electric flux density

3. Direction of electric force and electric field intensity is:

(a) Parallel to each other
(b) Perpendicular to each other
(c) Opposite to each other
(d) In any direction

4. Electric potential, which is measured with repect to the zero potential, is called:
(a) Absolute electric potential
(b) Change in K.E.
(c) An electric potential
(d) None of these

5. Coulomb’s Law for the two equal charges “q” when they are at a distance “r” is
expressed by:
(a) Kq2 /r
(b) Kq2/r2
(c) Kq/r
(d) Kq/r2

6. Dielectric always __________ the electrostatic force between the two point charges:
(a) Increases
(b) Changes
(c) Decreases
(d) Does not change
7. What would be the distance between the equal charges of 3µC when the coulomb’s
force between them is 9x10-3N:
(a) 3cm
(b) 3m
(c) 9cm
(d) 9m

8. Force experienced by a unit positive charge in the electric field in known as:
(a) Charge density
(b) Electric potential
(c) Electric flux
(d) Electric flux density

9. Direction of electric force and electric field intensity is:

(a) Parallel to each other
(b) Perpendicular to each other
(c) Opposite to each other
(d) In any direction

10. Which of the following pair of unit is equivalent of Joule per coulomb per meter:
(a) N/C and V/m
(b) Farad and Amp
(c) Amp. And Volt
(d) Coulomb and Ohm

11.The Physical quantity which determines the effect of Force on charged particle in a
certain region is called:
(a) Electric Intensity
(b) Electric Flux
(c) Electric Potential
(d) Electric force

12. Maximum outgoing Flux would be obtained when:

(a) Electric lines fall parallel to the plane of surface
(b) Electric lines fall antiparallel to the place of surface
(c) Electric lines fall normally on of surface
(d) Electric lines fall at 45o on the plane of surface

13. Electric intensity between two similarly charged plane sheets is:
(a) σ / ε0 (b) 2σ/ ε0
(c) σ/2ε0 (d) Zero

14. The Electric Flux through a closed surface depends upon:

(a) Size of the surface
(b) Shape of the surface
(c) Position of charge enclosed in the surface
(d) Magnitude of charge enclosed in the surface

15. Electric Intensity at the centre of uniformly distributed charge is:

(a) Zero
(b) Kq / r2
(c) q / r2
(d) q /ε0

16. The Flux through a surface will be minimum, when angle between E and ∆ A is:
(a) 90o
(b) 60 o
(c) 30 o
(d) 0o

17.When two or more capacitors are connected in series then they will have:
(a) Same charge
(b) Same capacitance
(c) Same potential difference
(d) Same charge and same capacitance

18. When two or more capacitors are connected in parallel then they will have:
(a) Same charge
(b) Same capacitance
(c) Same potential difference
(d) Same charge and same capacitance

19. A capacitor of 1.0 F will:

(a) Store 1.0C charge at the potential difference of 1.0V
(b) Discharge in 1 second when connected across a resistor of 1.0 Ohm
(c) Be fully charged in 1 second by a current of 1 amp
(d) Block the alternating current

20. The separation between the parallel plates of a capacitor is doubled then its
capacitance C will be:
(a) 2C
(b) ½ C
(c) 4C
(d) ¼ C

21. Capacity of a capacitor means:

(a) Total potential of the capacitor
(b) Surface density of charge on the plates
(c) Total charge held by the capacitor
(d) None of these

22. After charging the parallel plates capacitor, the battery is removed. If the separation
between the plates increase then:
(a) Capacitance decreases
(b) The charge on the capacitor increases
(c) The voltage across the plates increases
(d) None of these

23. In order to get maximum equivalent capacitance, the capacitors must be connected in:
(a) Complex combination
(b) Series combination
(c) Parallel combination
(d) None of these

24. In equipotential surface work cone in moving the charged particle is:
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Infinity

25. The potential difference between the pair of similar conducting plates is known. What
additional information is needed in order to find the electric field intensity?
(a) Permittivity of the medium
(b) Dielectric constant
(c) Separation between the plates
(d) Separation and area of the plates

1.a 2.d 3.a 4.c 5.b 6.c

7.b 8.d 9.a 10.a 11.b 12.c
13.d 14.d 15.a 16.d 17.a 18.c
19.a 20.b 21.d 22.d 23.c 24.c
25.c
 CHAPTER 13 - CURRENT ELECTRICITY

1. Power dissipated in two parallel resistors is inversely proportional to their:

(a) Potential difference (b) Capacitance
(c) Current (d) Resistances

2. A wire of length L and resistance R is cut into four equal pieces. Resistance of each
piece
would be:
(a) R (b) R / 2
(c) 2R (d) R / 4

3. A wire is cut into two equal halves, which of the following physical quantity will not
change:
(a) Conductance (b) Resistivity
(c) Resistance (d) All of these

4. E.M.F. of a source in the absence of internal resistance is:

(a) IR (b) IR + Ir
(c) Ir (d) IR – Ir

5. How three parallel resistors each of resistance 3Ω could be connected with a 2Ω

resistor to have net resistance of 3Ω:
(a) In series
(b) In parallel
(c) In complex network
(d) Not in any way

6. Power dissipated in two series resistors is directly proportional to their:

(a) Resistances
(b) Current
(c) Potential difference
(d) All of these

7. Electrical conductor contains:

(a) Only free electrons
(b) Only bound electrons
(c) Both free and bound electrons
(d) Neither bound nor free electrons

8. Total potential difference across the combination of three cells becomes maximum
when:
(a) They are connected in parallel
(b) They are connected in series
(c) Two cells are connected in parallel and one in series
(d) Two cells are connected in series and one in parallel

9. Electrical energy which converts into heat energy in electrical circuits is given by:
(a) VIt (b) Qt
2
(c) I Rt (d) V2t / R

10. Resistor connected in a number of paths are in:

(a) Parallel combination
(b) Series combination
(c) Simultaneously in series and in parallel combination
(d) Either in series or in parallel combination

11. Loss of Voltage in Electrical circuits is given by:

(a) IR (b) Ir
(c) IR + Ir (d) IR – Ir

12. If Net resistance of resistors increases, then resistors are in:

(a) Parallel combination
(b) Series combination
(c) Simultaneously in series and in parallel combination
(d) Either in series or in parallel combination

13. Kilowatt hour is the unit of:

(a) Electric power (b) E.M.F
(c) Electric energy (d)Electric potential

14. The source which maintains the steady current in electrical circuits is called:
(a) Electric motor (b) E. M. F.
(c) Generator (d) Thermocouple

15.Volt per Ampere is:

(a) Ohm (b) Joule
(c) Watt (d) KWh

16.Current which flows from high potential to low potential is called:

(a) Pulsating current (b) Direct current
(c) Alternating current (d) Conventional current

17.How three resistors each of resistance 3Ω could be connected with each other so
that their net resistance with a 2Ω series resistor is 3Ω:
(a) In series
(b) In parallel
(c) In complex network
(d) Conventional current

18. Charge carriers in Metallic conductors are the electrons of:

(a) Valence shells (b) All shells
(c) Excited states (d) Inner shells

19. Free electrons in an Electric field moves from:

(a) All potentials
(b) High potential to low potential
(c) Low potential to high potential
(d) None of these

20. If a wire of a uniform area of cross section is cut into two equal parts, the resistivity
of each part would be:
(a) Doubled (b) Halved
(c) Same (d) None of these

21. A resistor carries a current I. The power dissipated is P. the power dissipated if the
same resistor carries the current 3 I is:
(a) 9P (b) P/3 (c) 3P (d) P

22. Ohm’s Law is applicable only for:

(a) Electrolytes
(b) Metallic Conductors
(c) Semi Conductors
(d) All of these

23. An electric current through a conductor produces around it:

(a) A magnetic field
(b) An electric field
(c) Both electric and magnetic field
(d) None of these

24.1 KWh = ____________

(a) 3.6 x 103 J (b) 3.6 x 106 J (c) 3.6 x 109 J (d) 3.6 x 1012 J

25.The e.m.f. of a source in the presence of internal resistance is:

(a) IR (b) Ir (c) IR + Ir (d) IR – Ir

1.d 2.d 3.b 4.b 5.a 6.a

7.a 8.b 9.c 10.a 11.b 12.b
13.c 14.c 15.a 16.d 17.b 18.c
19.c 20.c 21.a 22.a 23.a 24.b
25.c
 CHAPTER 14- MAGNETISM AND ELECTROMAGNETISM

1.The core of transformer is used to link the primary coil to the secondary coil. What
type of link is this?
(a) Thermal
(b) Electrostatic
(c) Magnetic
(d) Mechanical

2.A magnet is introduced onto the coil and a voltage is induced across the coil. Which
of the following factor has no effect on the induced voltage?
(a) Thickness of the wire of the coil
(b) The strength of the magnetic field
(c) The time in which magnet is introduced
(d) Number of turns of the coil

3. A straight conducting wire is moved with constant speed at right angle to a magnetic
field. If the strength of the magnetic field is decreased, the induced current in the wire
will:
(a) Fluctuate
(b) Remain same
(c) Increase
(d) Decrease

4. A.C Generator is converted into D.C Generator by replacing:

(a) Rectangular coil from circular coil
(b) Commutator from slip rings
(c) Slip ring from split rings
(d) Armature from Solenoid

5.Which of the two charged particles of same masses will deflect more in the same
magnetic field?
(a) Slow moving
(b) Fast moving
(c) Both
(d) None of these

6.A transformer is used to change:

(a) Power
(b) Voltage
(c) Resistance
(d) Capacitance

7.The magnetic flux through a surface will be minimum when angle between B and ∆A
is:
(a) 0⁰
(b) 45⁰
(c) 60⁰
(d) 90⁰

8. If an electron and a proton enter into a magnetic field perpendicularly with the same
momentum:
(a) The proton will deflect more
(b) The electron will deflect more
(c) Both will deflect equally
(d) They will no deflect at all

9. In step up transformer:
(a) Vs =Vp
(b) Vs >Vp
(c) Vs <Vp
(d) Vs /Vp =1

10. A charged particle enters from the left on the plane of paper, perpendicularly on the
vertically downward magnetic field. The direction of force on it would be:
(a) Perpendicularly on the plane of paper
(b) Along the plane of paper
(c) Inward on the plane of paper
(d) Outward on the plane of paper

11. When a charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly, its path
is:
(a) Circular
(b) Parabolic
(c) Elliptical
(d) Spiral

12. Upon which of the following, magnetic field inside the solenoid does not depend:
(a) Diameter of solenoid
(b) Current
(c) Permeability
(d) Turns per length

13.If a wire of length “L” carrying current “I” placed in a field “B” placed
perpendicularly. The force on the wire would be:
(a) Zero
(b) BIL
(c) BIL sinθ
(d) BIL cosθ

14.The current produced by moving the loop of wire across the magnetic field is called:
(a) Direct current
(b) Steady current
(c) Pulsating current
(d) Induced current

15. The phenomenon of producing e.m.f in the coil itself due to varying current is
called:
(a) Motional e.m.f
(b) Electromagnetic Induction
(c) Mutual Induction
(d) Self Induction

16.The device which converts Mechanical energy into Electrical energy is called:
(a) Generator
(b) Electric Motor
(c) Transformer
(d) Thermocouple

17.Which one of the following in D.C Generator does not have :

a) Armature
b) Commutator
c) Slip rings
d) Magnets

18.The current which fluctuates from zero to maximum and maximum to zero is called:
a) Steady current
b) Alternate current
c) Direct current
d) Pulsating Direct current

19.In electric motor Commutator is used for:

(a) Inducing the current
(b) Increasing the current
(c) Decreasing the current
(d) Reversing the current

20.When the coil is moved towards he magnetic poles then:

(a) No effect
(b) Light will appear
(c) Heat will produce
(d) e.m.f will induce in the coil
21.Cause of self inductance is:
(a) Changes in flux in the same coil
(b) Change in current in the same coil
(c) Both a and b are wrong
(d) Both a and b are correct

22. Purpose of step down transformer is to make the:

(a) Input current same as output current
(b) Output current higher than input current
(c) Output voltage lower than input voltage
(d) Output current lower than input current

23.The core of a transformer is made of soft iron because:

(a) Iron is cheaper than copper
(b) Iron is a good magnetic substance
(c) Iron is a good conductor of current
(d) Iron has high melting point

24. Maximum force on a charged particle moving in magnetic field is given by:
(a) qvB
(b) qvB sinθ
(c) BL
(d) BL sinθ

25. Non-inductive wiring is used to minimize:

(a) Conductance
(b) Resistance
(c) Mutual Inductance
(d) Self Inductance

1.c 2.c 3.d 4.b 5.b 6.b

7.d 8.c 9.b 10.c 11.a 12.a
13.b 14.d 15.d 16.a 17.c 18.d
19.d 20.d 21.d 22.c 23.b 24.a
25.d
 CHAPTER 15- ELECTRICAL MEASURING INSTRUMENTS

1. The function of concave pole pieces in a moving coil galvanometer is to.

(a)Increase sensitivity
(b)Make filed stronger
(c)Produce damping
(d)Look better

2.For balance position of wheat stone bridge

(a) R1/R3 = R2/R4
(b) R2/R1 = R3/R4
(c) R1R4 = R2R3
(d) R1R2 = R3R4

3. Balanced position of wheat stone bridge is obtained when potential at the terminals
of galvanometer
(a) Is Same
(b) Altered
(c) Different
(d) Established

4. The couple per unit twist of the suspension is equal to

(a) Sum of deflection and restoring torque
(b) Product of deflection and restoring torque
(c) Deflection per restoring torque
(d) Restoring torque per deflection

5. Which of the following can be used to measure the resistance?

(a) Ohm Meter
(b) Meter Bridge
(c) P.O. Box
(d) All of These

6. Galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting

(a) A high resistance in series
(b) A low resistance in series
(c) A high resistance in parallel
(d) A low resistance in parallel

7. Sensitivity of Galvanometer is given by

(a) CBNA
(b) 1/CBNA
(c) C/BNA
(d) BAN/C

8. The device which makes use of wheat stone bridge is

(a) Meter bridge
(b) Voltmeter
(c) Ohm Meter
(d) Potentiometer

9. The device which can measure e.m.f of cells without drawing current from them is
called
(a) Potentiometer
(b) Meter bridge
(c) Voltmeter
(d) Ohm Meter

10. In a circuit voltmeter is always connected in

(a) Series
(b) Parallel
(c) Both Series and parallel
(d) None of These

11. PO Box is used to find

(a) Current
(b) Resistance
(c) E.m.f
(d) All of These

12. AVO meter is used to find

(a) Current
(b) Resistance
(c) E.m.f
(d) All of these

13. To increase the accuracy of potentiometer

(a) A uniform wire of small length should be used
(b) Thickness of wire will be increased
(c) Thickness of wire will be decreased
(d) A uniform wire of a large length should be used

14. The deflection of a coil of galvanometer is directly proportional to

(a) Resistance of coil
(b) Strength of magnetic field
(c) Current passing through coil
(d) Area of coil
15. The process of reducing amplitude of vibration of coil of galvanometer is called
(a) Drifting
(b) Doping
(c) Shunting
(d) Damping

16. When a current flows in a coil placed in magnetic filed,it experiences a

(a) torque
(b) sensitivity
(c) resistance
(d)current

17. The principle of Meter Bridge is

(a)telegraph line
(b)terminal PD
(c) Multimeter
(d)Wheatstone bridge

18.The simple instrument which can measure PD without drawing any current
(a)Vacuum tube voltmeter
(b)Voltmeter
(c)Oscillograph
(d)Potentiometer

19.In a radial filed, the plane of coil is always

(a)Parallel to field
(b)Perpendicular to field
(c)Parallel to current
(d)perpendicular to current

20.The principle of P.O.Box is

(a)telegraph line
(b)terminal PD
(c) Multimeter
(d)Wheatstone bridge

21.A single device containing ammeter ,volt meter and ohm meter is called
(a)VTVM
(b)CRO
(c)Multimeter
(d) Potentiometer

22. The basic equation for electric meter is

(a) F=BIL sin θ
(b)T= BINA cos θ
(c) I=C θ/ BNA
(d) F=q VB sin θ

23. Since I=C θ/ BNA. Hence increase sensitivity of galvanometer ,we must decrease
the value of
(a) couple per twist
(b) Magnetic Field
(c)Number of turns of coil
(d) deflection

1.b 2.b 3.b 4.d 5.d 6.d

7.d 8.a 9.a 10.b 11.b 12.d
13.d 14.c 15.d 16.a 17.d 18.d
19.a 20.d 21.c 22.b 23.a
 CHAPTER 16- ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND
ELECTRONICS

1. Which quantity of audio signal is changed by transistor:

(a) Wave length
(b) Amplitude
(c) Frequency
(d) All of these

2. Which characteristic of audio signal is changed by transistor:

(a) Quality of sound
(b) Both pitch and loudness
(c) Pitch
(d) Loudness

3. Choose the right option for A.M:

(a) Amplitude monitor
(b) Amplitude modulation
(c) Amplitude magnification
(d) Amplitude measurement

4. The process in which the height of potential barrier of P-n diode is increased is
called:
(a) Both reverse and forward biasing
(b) Reverse biasing
(c) Forward biasing
(d) Biasing

5. The process in which original signal is recovered from modulated signal is called:
(a) Doping
(b) Biasing
(c) Rectification
(d) Demodulation

6. In frequency modulation, which one of the following of the original signal does not
changed:
(a) Pitch
(b) Wavelength
(c) Frequency
(d) Amplitude
7. The most commonly used configuration of transistor in electronic circuits is:
(a) Commom-emitter
(b) Common collector
(c) Common-base
(d) All of these

8. Whenever a potential is applied across the P-n junction diode so as to increase the
height of the Potential barrier, the diode is said to be:
(a) Choked
(b) Both reverse and forward biased
(c) Forward biased
(d) Reverse biased

9. The three terminal device, used as an amplifier and brought revolution in Electronics
is called:
(a) Diode
(b) Transistor
(c) Triode
(d) P-type substance

10. In N-type substance charge carriers are:

(a) Electrons
(b) Protons
(c) Holes
(d) A and C

11. The process of generating the effect of Audio Signal in Electromagnetic wave is
called:
(a) Modulation
(b) Amplification
(c) Biasing
(d) Rectification

12. Whenever a Potential is applied across the P-n junction diode so as to decrease the
height of the Potential barrier, the diode is said to be:
(a) Choked
(b) Both reverse and forward biased
(c) Forward biased
(d) Reverse biased

13. The device which rises the strength of a week signal at the output is:
(a) Amplifier
(b) Decoder
(c) Recorder
(d) Diode

14. The process of adding impurity of Trivalent or Pentavalent into Semi Conductor is
called:
(a) Modulation
(b) Rectification
(c) Doping
(d) Biasing

15. The Semi Conductor mixed with impurity of Trivalent or Pentavalent is called:
(a) Electronic device
(b) Extrinsic Semi Conductor
(c) Intrinsic Semi Conductor
(d) None of these

16. Base – Emitter junction and Base-Collector junction of transistor are:

(a) Forward biased and reverse biased
(b) Reverse biased and forward biased
(c) Both reverse biased
(d) Both forward biased

17. The semi-conductor device which increases the strength of weak input signal at the
output is
(a) N-type semi conductor
(b) P-n diode
(c) Transistor
(d) P-type semi conductor

18. Speed of electromagnetic wave in free space is given by:

(a) µ0 𝜀0
1
(b)
µ 0 𝜀0
(c) µ0 𝜀0
1
(d)
µ 0 𝜀0

19. The device which can receive or generate Electromagnetic wave is called:
(a) Decoder
(b) Diode
(c) Antenna
(d) Semi conductor

20. The single crystal of Germanium or Silicon, formed after adding a trivalent impurity
is known as:
(a) Semi conductor
(b) P-N substance
(c) N- type substance
(d) P-type substance

21. In Semi Conductor devices there is a:

(a) Valence band only
(b) Valence band and a medium forbidden gap
(c) Valence band and a narrow forbidden band
(d) Valence band and a wide forbidden gap

22. The single Germanium or Silicon Crystal formed after adding the pentavalent
impurity is known as:
(a) Semi conductor
(b) P-N substance
(c) N- type substance
(d) P-type substance

23. The two terminal Semi Conductor device used as a rectifier is called:
(a) Diode
(b) Transistor
(c) Triode
(d) P-type device

24. The process of converting A.C into D,C is called:

(a) Modulation
(b) Amplification
(c) Biasing
(d) Rectification

25. In P-type Substance charge carriers are:

(a) Electrons
(b) Protons
(c) Holes
(d) A and C

1.b 2.d 3.b 4.b 5.d 6.d

7.a 8.d 9.b 10.a 11.a 12.c
13.a 14.c 15.b 16.a 17.c 18.b
19.c 20.d 21.c 22.c 23.a 24.d
25.c
 CHAPTER 17- ADVENT OF MODERN PHYSICS

1. Minimum energy required for pair production is:

(a) 939 MeV
(b) 942 MeV
(c) 1.02 MeV
(d) 0.511 MeV

2. Black body radiations are:

(a) Infra red and visible light rays
(b) Ultra violet and X-rays
(c) Visible light and ultra violet rays
(d) All Radiations

3. Heisenberg’s Uncertainty principle is:

ℎ
(a) ∆𝑃∆𝑥 =
2𝜋
(b) ∆𝑃∆𝑥 = ℎ
2𝜋
(c) ∆𝑃∆𝑥 =
ℎ
1
(d) ∆𝑃∆𝑥 =
ℎ

4. Wave nature of light is proved by:

(a) Polarization
(b) Black body radiation
(c) Compton’s Effect
(d) Photo electric effect

5. Kinetic energy of Photo electrons could be increased by:

(a) Decreasing the plate potential
(b) By decreasing the of incident light wave length
(c) Increasing the of incident light wave length
(d) Increasing the plate potential

6. Maximum change in wave length of X-rays photon could be obtained when X- rays are
scattered at:
(a) Right angle
(b) 180⁰
(c) 45⁰
(d) 0⁰

7. Range of wavelength of visible light is:

(a) 700⁰A – 1000⁰A
(b) 1nm – 100nm
(c) 0.1 nm – 1 nm
(d) 4000⁰A – 7000⁰A

8. Dual nature of light is proved by:

(a) Davisson and Germer’s Experiment
(b) Black body radiation
(c) Compton’s Effect
(d) Photo electric effect

9. The minimum light frequency required for photo electric effect is called:
(a) Normal frequency
(b) Cut-Off frequency
(c) Threshold frequency
(d) Natural frequency

10.The formula for the momentum of photon is:

ℎ ℎ𝑐
(a) (b)
𝜆 𝜆
ℎ 𝜆
(c) (d)
𝜆𝐶 ℎ𝑐

11. If the frequency of light causing photo electric emission is doubled, the kinetic
energy of photo electrons will be:
(a) The same
(b) Zero
(c) Doubled
(d) Halved

12. The reverse process of pair production is known as:

(a) Annihilation of energy
(b) Antipair production
(c) Materialization of matter
(d) Annihilation of particle into its antiparticle

13.Existence of photon was confirmed by:

(a) Compton (b) De’Brogile
(c) Einstein (d) Max plank

14. Plank’s Constant is analogous to:

(a) Inertia
(b) Wave nature
(c) Angular momentum
(d) Linear momentum

15. Wave nature and particle nature of photon is linked by:

(a) Rest mass of Photon
(b) Wavelength of Photon
(c) Light Speed
(d) Momentum of Photon

16. In Compton’s scattering process, wave length of scattered X-rays:

(a) Remains Same
(b) Increases
(c) Decreases
(d) None of these
17. Black body radiations are called
(a) Temperature radiations
(b) High energy radiations
(c) Communication radiations
(d) Coherent radiations

18. Which of the following is not true for antiparticle of electron?

(a) It follows mass-energy relation
(b) It posses the same charge as that of electron
(c) It posses the same momentum as that of electron
(d) Its charge to mass ratio is the same as that of electron

19. Which is not the result of special theory of relativity?

(a) Length contraction
(b) Space-time transformation
(c) Time dilation
(d) Mass variation

20. The black body which is close to perfect black body is:
(a) Translucent glass box
(b) Cavity radiator
(c) Black holes
(d) All Of These

21. In pair production we have a pair of:

(a) Position and electron
(b) Protons
(c) Electrons
(d) a and b are correct

22. In annihilation process of matter:

(a) Protons and electrons are converted for energy
(b) Energy is converted into mass
(c) Mass is converted into energy
(d) a and b are correct

23. Which physical quantity will change if intensity of light falling on metal’s surface is
increased?
(a) K.E of photo electrons
(b) Velocity of photo electrons
(c) Plate potential
(d) Current

24. The fast moving electrons stopped by a heavy metallic target is an evacuated glass
tube, give rise to the production of:
(a) X-rays
(b) LASER
(c) β particles
(d) α particles

25. As the temperature of a black body is raised, the wave length corresponding to the
maximum intensity:
(a) Remains the same
(b) Shifts towards longer wavelength
(c) Shifts towards shorter wavelength
(d) None of the above will happen

26.Number of photo electrons emitted from metal depends upon:

(a) Intensity of incident light
(b) Energy of incident light
(c) Wavelength of incident light
(d) Frequency of incident light

1.c 2.d 3.a 4.a 5.b 6.a

7.d 8.d 9.c 10.a 11.c 12.d
13.c 14.c 15.d 16.b 17.a 18.b
19.b 20.c 21.a 22.c 23.d 24.a
25.c 26.a
 CHAPTER 18- THE ATOMIC SPECTRA

1. Linear and angular momentum of electron of hydrogen atom is linked by:

(a) Plank’s Constant
(b) Quantum number of state
(c) Energy of state
(d) Orbital radius

2. Radius of 1st orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.53 oA. Radius of fifth state of Hydrogen
atoms is:
(a) 2.65 oA
(b) 13.25 oA
(c) 20 oA
(d) Infinite

3. The most stable state of Ruby is::

(a) Ground state
(b) Meta state
(c) Higher state
(d) Excited state

4. The process of collecting excited electrons from unstable state into stable state is
called:
(a) Induced absorption
(b) Population Inversion
(c) Emitted radiation
(d) spontaneous emission

5. Wave length of maximum radiant energy in Hydrogen atom spectrum belongs to:
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series (c) Paschen series (d) Pfund series

6. Ground state energy of Hydrogen atom is:

(a) Zero (b) 3.45 eV (c) 13.6 eV (d) -13.6 eV

7. In Hydrogen atom spectrum longest wave length of radiations belongs to:

(a) Lyman series
(b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series
(q) P’fund series

8. Wave nature of particle is linked by:

(a) Speed of light
(b) Plank’s constant
(c) Inertial mass
(d) Momentum of particle
9. Wave length of minimum radiant energy in hydrogen atom belongs to:
(a) Lyman series
(b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series
(d) P’fund series

10. In a hydrogen atom Balmer series electron falls into:

(a) n = 1
(b) n = 2
(c) n = 3
(d) n = 4

11. Laser is the:

(a) Beam of electrons
(b) Coherent bean of light
(c) Beam of ultra violet rays
(d) All of these

12. According to Bohr’s theory, electron revolving around the nucleus in a fixed orbit
radiates:
(a) Energy
(b) X- rays
(c) γ - ray
(d) None of these

13. The first Spectral line emitted in Lyman Series of Hydrogen atom when electrons fall
from:
(a) n = 1 (b) n = 2 (c) n = 3 (d) n = ∞

14. Spectral lines in the Balmer Series of Hydrogen atom lies in the region of:
(a) Ultraviolet rays
(b) X-rays
(c) Visible light
(d) Infra red rays

15. According to the Bohr’s theory, angular momentum of electron is integral multiple
of:
ℎ 2𝜋 1
(a) (b) ℎ (c) (d)
2𝜋 ℎ ℎ

16. Range of wave length of X-rays is:

(a) 400 nm -------- 700 nm
(b) 700 nm -------- 1000 nm
(c) 100 nm -------- 0.1000 nm
(d) 0.1 nm -------- 1nm

17. X-rays are produces when:

(a) Electron falls to ground state
(b) Electron loses its energy in the Vicinity of nucleus
(c) Electron jumps to higher state
(d) All of these

18.The frequency  of electromagnetic radiation is given by the equation

(a)  = c (b)  = 1/ (c)  = c/ (d) None of these

19. An interesting application of laser is the production of three-dimensional images

called
(a) Polygons (b) Holograms (c) Ovals (d) Computer

20. The radiation emitted from hydrogen filled discharge tube, when viewed by
dispersing devices such as prism, gratings etc, and shows
(a) A line spectrum
(b) Continuous spectrum
(c) Linear spectrum
(d) all of these

21. Which of the following is not a fundamental postulate of Bohr’s theory of hydrogen
atom.
(a) The classical theory does not apply in the case of tiny particles such as electrons
(b) The electron in a stable orbit does not radiate energy
(c)The electron can move in all possible orbits
(d) An atom radiates energy only when an electron jumps from an allowed orbit of higher
energy En to one of the lower energy Ep

22. When an electron jumps from the nth (higher orbit) orbit to the pth orbit (lower
orbit), the difference of energy is given by the equation
(a) h = En – Ep (b) h = En + Ep (c)h = E (d) h = Lp

23. X-rays are

(a) Positively charged particles
(b) Negatively charged particles
(c) Neutral particles
(d) None of these

24. The study of the spectrum of characteristic X-rays helps us to

(a) Measure the energy of the incident electrons
(b) Measure the wavelength of the incident electrons
(c) Measure the energy of the emitted x-rays
(d) Identify the element of which the target is made

25. The maximum frequency limit of the continuous x-rays spectrum depends upon
(a) The atomic number of the atoms of the target
(b) The kinetic energy of the incident electrons
(c) The maximum frequency limit of the characteristic x-rays spectrum
(d) The degree of vacuum in the x-ray tube

1.a 2.b 3.a 4.d 5.d 6.d

7.d 8.b 9.a 10.b 11.b 12.d
13.b 14.c 15.a 16.b 17.b 18.c
19.b 20.a 21.c 22.a 23.d 24.c
25.b
 CHAPTER 19 – THE ATOMIC NUCLEUS

1.The rate of decrease of decay in parent nuclei is directly proportional to the

(a) Activity
(b) Number of parent nuclei
(c) Relative activity
(d) Half life

2.The process of beta emission from a nucleus involves the change in:
(a) Both mass and charge number
(b) Mass number
(c) No change occurs
(d) Charge number

3. According to the law of radioactive decay, number of parent nuclei is equal to:
(a) e-λt
(b) N0
(c) N0 / e-λt
(d) N0 e-λt

4. The process in which heavier nucleus is formed from the combination of lighter
nuclei is called:
(a) Radioactivity
(b) Fission
(c) Mass defect
(d) Fusion

5.Mass defect is the difference of:

(a) Increased mass and decreased mass
(b) Mass of Nuclear Constituents in free state and in combined state
(c) Inertial mass and non-inertial mass
(d) Nuclear mass and atomic mass

6. Activity of Radioactive nuclei is given by:

(a) λN /2
(b) λ / N
(c) N / λ
(d) λN

7. A material consisting of the fissionable isotopes of Uranium is called the:

(a) Reactor fuel
(b) Nuclear fuel
(c) Atom bomb fuel
(d) Atomic fuel

8. The process of converting non-fissionable uranium into fissionable is called:

(a) Disintegration
(b) Breeding
(c) Nuclear Fission
(d) Decay Process

9. Half life of 94Pu239 is:

(a) 2.44 x 104 years (b) 3.80 days (c) 1622 years (d) One week

10. Decay process in radioactive nuclei takes place:

(a) Conditionally
(b) Linearly
(c) Exponentially
(d) Smoothly

11. Critical mass of fissionable isotope of Uranium is:

(a) 7.07%
(b) 0.7 %
(c) 77.07%
(d) 0.07%

12. 1 u = ____________ Me V:
(a) 9.315 (b) 0.9315 (c) 931.5 (d) 93.15

13. In periodic table most stable nuclei are those whose:

(a) Mass number is greater than two
(b) Charge number is greater than two
(c) Mass number lies between 30 and 60
(d) Charge number lies between 30 and 60

14. Which one of the following is not true for Nuclear reactors:
(a) They are the source of making atom bomb
(b) They provide neutrons which are the basic tool of nuclear studies
(c) They are the source of power generation
(d) They provide certain radioactive isotopes which are used in medicine

15. Number of Neutrons in 92U235 is:

(a) 152 (b) 148 (c) 143 (d) 92

16. In Nuclear Fission, 92U235 is bombarded by:

(a) Slow neutron
(b) High energy neutron
(c) Low energy neutron
(d) Fast Neutron

17.The time in which half of parent nuclear decay is called:

(a) Life time
(b) Time of decay
(c) Decay interval
(d) Half time

18.Breeder Reactor used to convert:

(a) 92U238 into 94Pu239
(b) 92U235 into 92Pu238
 235 144
(c) 92U into 56Ba
238 144
(d) 92U into 56Ba

19.The process in which a bigger nucleus splits up into its smaller fragments with an
evolution of a large amount of energy is called:
(a) Nuclear Fission
(b) Nuclear Disintegration
(c) Nuclear Fusion
(d) Nuclear Decay

20. In the process of gamma emission from a nucleus, which of the following will
change?
(a) Both mass and Charge number
(b) Mass number
(c) No change occurs
(d) Charge number

21. LMFBR is the abbreviation of:

(a) Liquid metal fast breeder reactor
(b) Lithium metal of Fission and Bomb Radiation
(c) Lithium metal Fission breeder reactor
(d) None of these

22. In β+ decay, a Parent nucleus convert into a daughter nucleus accompanied with:
(a) Alpha Particle
(b) Electron
(c) Beta Particle
(d) Positron

23. Packing Fraction is the:

(a) Binding energy Per mass defect
(b) Mass defect Per binding energy
(c) Mass defect Per nucleon
(d) Binding energy Per nucleon

24.Nuclear forces are

(a) short range forces
(b) long range forces
(c) independent of distances
(d) very small in magnitude

25. How many isotopes does Hydrogen has?

(a) One isotope (b) two isotopes (c) three isotopes (d) four isotopes

1.b 2.d 3.d 4.d 5.b 6.d

7.b 8.b 9.b 10.c 11.b 12.c
13.c 14.a 15.c 16.a 17.d 18.a
19.a 20.c 21.a 22.c 23.d 24.a
25.c
 CHAPTER 20 – NUCLEAR RADIATIONS

1.The dead time of Geiger Muller counter is of the order of

(a) Micro second
(b) Milli second
(c) More than millisecond
(d) 1 second

2. As the solid state detector absorbs so less energy of the incident particle and
junction become from surface. So it is called the detector as
(a) Surface contact
(b) Surface barrier
(c) Surface dependent
(d) None of these

3. The  - particle ionizes the particles in its way and adopt the path which is
(a) Curved (b) Straight
(c) Zig – Zag (d) Saw tooth path

4.  - particles can be deflected by collisions than the  -particles is

(a) Difficult
(b) Very easily
(c) Easily
(d) Equally

5.Neutron interact with materials containing hydrogen atoms and knock out
(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) Photon
(d) x rays

6. Neutron produces ionization by knocking out proton which is

(a) Direct ionization
(b) Indirect ionization
(c) Both
(d) None of these

7.  - rays are absorbed by a sheet of

(a) 1 ~ 5 mm of lead
(b) 1 ~ 10 mm of lead
(c) 5 ~ 10 mm of lead
(d) 10 ~ 12 mm of lead

8.Tracks obtained by  - particles in Wilson Cloud Chamber is

(a) Strong Continuous
(b) Discontinuous, not straight thin
(c) Weak and no definite tracks
(d) Both A and C

9. The mixture of gas filled in a Geiger-Muller tube at atmospheric pressure at about

(a) 0.01 mm of Hg
(b) 0.1 mm of Hg
(c) 1.00 mm of Hg
(d) 10.00 mm of Hg

10. In treating a localized cancerous tumor a narrow beam of

(a) Alpha Rays from Cobalt 60 is used
(b) Laser beam from cobalt 60 is used
(c) Gamma Rays from cobalt 60 is used
(d) Beta Rays from cobalt 60 is used

11. A Modern technique of tracing complexity of molecules is called

(a) Tracer technique
(b) Radiology
(c) Molecular technique
(d) Polymerization

12. Ulceration, cataract of eye and Cancer are the examples of

(a) Viral disease
(b) Bacterial disease
(c) Somatic disease
(d) Genetic Disease

13. During an encounter with an atom α - particle knocks out

(a) Protons
(b) Electrons
(c) Neutrons
(d) Nothing

14.The path of B-particle is_________

(a) Rectilinear
(b) Carved
(c) Zigzag or erratic
(d) Elliptical

15.Which one of the following radiations is suitable for the treatment of an infection in
the interior body?
(a) α - rays
(b) β - rays
(c) γ - rays
(d) X - rays

16.Various types of cancer are treated by

(a) Cobalt 60
(b) Strontium – 90
(c) Carbon 14
(d) Nickel – 63
17. Sterilizations of surgical instrument, medical supplies and bandages can be done
by exposing them to a beam of
(a) α - rays
(b) β - rays
(c) γ- rays
(d) ‘b’ & ‘c’ have equal antiseptic properties

18.Strontium -90 is used as

(a) β - particle source (b) α - particle source
(c) γ - particle source (d) Neutrons source

19. The penetration power of β - particle as compared to a-particle is

(a) 10 times more (b) 100 times more
(c) 100 times less (d) 10 times less

20. Geiger counter is suitable for

(a) Fast counting
(b) Extremely fast counting
(c) Slow counting
(d) All situations

21.Cancer of the thyroid glands is treated by

(a) 1H3 (b) 6C14 (c) 53I131 (d) 6C19

22. The age of the specimen such as dead body, wood, bone or fossil, could be
measured by C14 Called
(a) Carbon detector
(b) Radio Analyzer
(c) Radio Carbon dating
(d) Radio Carbon tracer

23. Study and discovery of radio isotopes is made easier by a device called
(a) G.M Counter (b) Cloud Chamber (c) Spectrometer (d) Tachometer

24. Electric field generator in G.M tube is due to

(a) Ionization of alcohol
(b) Low vapor pressure of alcohol
(c) Low boiling point of alcohol
(d) All of these

25. If a small quantity of radioactive iodine is taken in food, most of it deposited in

(a) Thyroid gland
(b) Blood
(c) Kidneys
(d) Brain

1.a 2.c 3.a 4.b 5.a 6.a

7.d 8.b 9.b 10.d 11.b 12.d
13.b 14.b 15.c 16.a 17.c 18.a
19.b 20.c 21.c 22.c 23.a 24.a
25.a