Name: __________________________ Date: _____________

1. In the German language, the sound “ts” is a:

A) phoneme.
B) morpheme.
C) syntax.
D) word.

2. Which of these constitutes a single morpheme?

A) headless
B) he
C) h
D) headless horseman

3. A sentence has both _____, based on meaning, and _____, based on the wording of
the sentence.
A) surface structure; grammar
B) surface structure; deep structure
C) deep structure; surface structure
D) grammar; deep structure

4. Passive mastery is to _____ as active mastery is to _____.

A) syntax; semantics
B) simple structure; deep structure
C) phonemes; phrases
D) understanding; speech

5. Which of these is an example of telegraphic speech?

A) over the river and through the woods
B) go up and down
C) Daddy drives car
D) turn left and then right

6. Interactionists describe language development as:

A) a conditioned learning process determined by the environment.
B) an innate process determined by biology.
C) a combination of environmental experiences and biological influences.
D) the result of modeling the language of parents.

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 7. Patients with Wernicke's and Broca's aphasia provide evidence that language is:
A) specialized within specific brain regions over time.
B) highly widespread across the brain throughout the life span.
C) localized to specific brain structures in both hemispheres throughout the life
span.
D) processed in one specific brain structure, the amygdala.

8. Exemplar theory is more comprehensive than prototype theory because it:

A) compares objects on an individual basis only.
B) compares individual objects to a prototype only.
C) activates the visual cortex.
D) takes into account both prototypical and specific instances of categories.

9. A carpenter suffers a stroke and now cannot recognize the difference between a saw
and a plane. The carpenter MOST likely suffered damage to which area of his brain?
A) the lower left temporal lobe
B) the region where the temporal lobe meets the parietal and occipital lobes.
C) the front of the left temporal lobe.
D) the left prefrontal cortex.

10. Generally speaking, humans excel on cognitive tasks that involve _____ but perform
poorly on cognitive tasks that involve _____.
A) estimation; accuracy
B) frequency; probability
C) accuracy; estimation
D) probability; frequency

11. Pat is 40 years old and received a Ph.D. in sociology 10 years ago. Pat specializes in
issues associated with women and gender studies, publishing research in peer-
reviewed journals. Which statement MOST likely describes Pat?
A) Pat is a college professor.
B) Pat is a college professor and a woman.
C) Pat is a college professor and a man.
D) Pat is a female college professor with liberal political views.

12. The President is managing a war that is not going well. Nevertheless, he refuses to
withdraw troops, arguing that doing so would waste the billions of dollars spent and
thousands of lives lost fighting the war. The President's line of reasoning illustrates:
A) base-rate ignorance.
B) the sunk-cost fallacy.
C) the conjunction fallacy.
D) the principle of diminishing returns.

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13. The basis of means–ends analysis, as a problem-solving technique, is to:
A) reword a well-defined problem into a heuristic.
B) persist in problem solving until an end state is reached, by any means available.
C) search for a way to reduce differences between a current situation and the
desired goal.
D) reword an algorithm into a heuristic.

14. Hammers are used for pounding things, which is why many people don't realize that
hammers make perfectly good doorstops. This lack of creative insight is an example
of:
A) blindsight.
B) availability bias.
C) semantic interference.
D) functional fixedness.

15. Another term for discursive reasoning is _____ reasoning.

A) practical
B) syllogistic
C) theoretical
D) linguistic

16. The smallest unit of sound that is categorized as speech is known as a:

A) phoneme.
B) morpheme.
C) word.
D) sentence.

17. Semantics refer to the _____ of a sentence.

A) structure
B) meaning
C) syntax
D) morphology

18. Babies are born with the ability to recognize and distinguish:
A) only the phonemes of the language their parents speak.
B) among all phonemes.
C) no phonemes.
D) only the phonemes of languages similar to their native language.

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19. _____ is the process that allows children to learn words rapidly by joining a word
with a concept after experiencing it only once.
A) Singularism
B) Dualism
C) Fast mapping
D) Grammar

20. The behaviorist approach to language development suggests that _____ plays a key
role in learning words and grammar, whereas the nativists claim that language is
_____ predetermined.
A) reinforcement; biologically
B) punishment; culturally
C) reinforcement; culturally
D) genetics; biologically

21. People with damage to Wernicke's area can:

A) use correct syntax.
B) produce meaningful language.
C) understand sign language.
D) understand the spoken word.

22. The overall conclusion of research investigating the link between language and
thought is:
A) thought determines language because thinking precedes communication.
B) language determines thought because thought is essentially an aspect of
communication.
C) language and thought are separate processes; neither exerts much influence over
the other.
D) language shapes thought, but language and thought remain separate to some
extent.

23. _____ are convenient representations of categories because they reflect the overall
most typical instance of the category.
A) Exemplars
B) Prototypes
C) Concepts
D) Algorithms

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24. If you have never seen a chihuahua, but you have seen somewhat similar types of
dog breeds, such as rat terriers and miniature pinschers, which theory would BEST
predict your ability to correctly identify a chihuahua as a “dog”?
A) morphological rules
B) family resemblance theory
C) exemplar theory
D) prototype theory

25. Suppose that sports fans in the United States were given a list of the names of all the
medal winners in the last Olympics. After a few minutes of study, the fans were
asked to estimate what percentage of medals the United States won. The fans
probably will _____ this number, due to the _____.
A) overestimate; hindsight bias
B) overestimate; availability bias
C) underestimate; hindsight bias
D) overestimate; conjunctive fallacy

26. Melissa is an attractive female who lives in San Diego and loves football. When
asked to predict if it was more probable that she was a school teacher or a
cheerleader for the San Diego Chargers, most people selected the latter even though
there are thousands more school teachers than Charger cheerleaders in San Diego.
This is an illustration of:
A) hindsight bias.
B) the representative heuristic.
C) base-rate decision making.
D) the conjunction fallacy.

27. Prospect theory assumes that people are:

A) more willing to take risks to achieve gains than to avoid losses.
B) more willing to take risks to avoid losses than to achieve gains.
C) equally willing to take risks to achieve gains and avoid losses.
D) unwilling to take risks either to achieve gains or to avoid losses.

28. Research on participants with prefrontal cortex damage suggests that these patients
make more risky decisions because the:
A) positive emotional reaction to wins is enhanced relative to healthy individuals.
B) negative emotional reaction to frequent losses is absent relative to healthy
individuals.
C) anticipatory emotional reactions that usually guide decision making are absent.
D) emotional reactions to both wins and losses are blunted relative to healthy
individuals.

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29. Relative to solving problems using analytic strategies, insight is associated with a
burst of electrical activity in the:
A) prefrontal cortex.
B) right temporal lobe.
C) right parietal lobe.
D) cerebellum.

30. Belief-neutral reasoning is associated with enhanced activity in the _____ lobe.
A) parietal
B) temporal
C) frontal
D) occipital

31. Binet and Simon designed their intelligence test to:

A) weed out the lower-scoring immigrants emigrating into the United States.
B) weed out the lower-scoring immigrants emigrating into France.
C) identify children who needed additional instruction in school.
D) identify the academically gifted.

32. The deviation IQ divides an individual's score by the _____, which allows for a more
efficient measure of IQ among different age groups.
A) average test score of people in the same age group
B) average test score of people in different age groups
C) person's physical age
D) person's mental age

33. Which statement about intelligence tests is true?

A) Intelligence can be directly measured by intelligence tests.
B) Intelligence tests cannot be administered to people who cannot read or write.
C) The WAIS is a common intelligence test given to children.
D) The questions on intelligence tests correlate highly with the behavioral
consequences thought to be associated with intelligence.

34. Intelligence tests are the best predictor of:

A) marital status.
B) school performance.
C) vocabulary.
D) reading skills.

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35. Jermaine received the highest score on a term paper in his English class. The two-
factor theory of intelligence would predict that:
A) Jermaine has little musical ability.
B) Jermaine does well in Science class.
C) Jermaine receives the highest grades in Math class.
D) Jermaine performs poorly in both his Math and Science classes.

36. John is a professional speech writer but struggles with simple algebra problems.
John's different abilities best illustrates the view of mental ability developed by:
A) Thurstone.
B) Spearman.
C) Terman.
D) Stern.

37. From top to bottom, the three-level hierarchy of mental abilities moves from:
A) general to specific.
B) data-based to theory-based.
C) fluid to crystallized.
D) creative to practical.

38. The data-based approach to intelligence suggests that:

A) there is one factor associated with intelligence.
B) there are eight mid-level abilities contributing to intelligence.
C) there are too many contributing factors to determine the underlying basis of
intelligence.
D) intelligence tests do not measure all the mid-level abilities contributing to
intelligence.

39. When you are attempting to solve an abstract word problem you have never seen
before and are given 3 minutes to come up with the solution, you probably rely more
on your _____ intelligence.
A) crystallized
B) fluid
C) emotional
D) nonverbal

40. Research shows that highly emotionally intelligent people experience all of these
EXCEPT:
A) better romantic relationships.
B) better workplace relationships.
C) fewer job changes.
D) less dissatisfaction with their lives overall.

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41. Evidence from identical twin studies suggests that:
A) intelligence is 100 percent genetic because the IQ scores are perfectly
correlated, no matter if the children were raised together or apart.
B) genes play a significant role in determining intelligence, with high correlations
when raised together or apart.
C) environmental influences significantly outweigh genetic influences.
D) intelligence is almost 100 percent environmental, due to the high correlations in
intelligence among people living in the same home.

42. Which statement illustrates the effect of environment on intelligence?

A) Identical twins reared apart are more similar than fraternal twins reared
together.
B) Biological siblings reared together are more similar than nonbiological siblings
reared together.
C) Unrelated siblings reared together are more similar than related siblings reared
apart.
D) Identical twins reared apart are more similar than biological siblings reared
apart.

43. According to the Flynn effect, your IQ score is likely _____ someone's IQ score from
100 years ago.
A) lower than
B) the same as
C) higher than
D) nearly the same as

44. Which statement about relative and absolute intelligence is true?

A) Relative and absolute intelligence both are likely to remain stable over time.
B) Relative and absolute intelligence both are likely to change over time.
C) Relative intelligence is likely to be stable over time, whereas absolute
intelligence is likely to change.
D) Relative intelligence is likely to change over time, whereas absolute intelligence
is likely to be stable.

45. An Asian American student is asked to report her ethnicity at the top of a
mathematics test. Doing this will very likely:
A) boost her performance on the test.
B) hinder her performance on the test.
C) have no effect on her test performance.
D) negatively impact abstract mathematical reasoning but not performance on
arithmetic problems.

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46. Simon and Binet developed the IQ test as a:
A) measure of the contents of intelligence.
B) measure of a child's aptitude for learning.
C) justification for racism and xenophobia.
D) measure of academic achievement.

47. In order to compare IQ scores of people of different ages, researchers compute the
_____ for children and the _____ for adults.
A) ratio IQ; Stanford-Binet
B) ratio IQ; deviation IQ
C) deviation IQ; ratio IQ
D) deviation IQ; WAIS-IV

48. A 4-year-old child with the mental age of 5 has a ratio IQ of:
A) 80.
B) 100.
C) 110.
D) 125.

49. An IQ score is highly correlated with all of these EXCEPT:

A) job performance.
B) education.
C) income.
D) physical attractiveness.

50. Which psychologist proposed the existence of a general intelligence, or g?

A) Alfred Binet
B) Charles Spearman
C) Louis Thurstone
D) William Stern

51. The hypothesis that intelligence is a unitary factor dependent on a single general
ability (g) is:
A) the modern dominant view of intelligence.
B) completely ignored by modern research.
C) somewhat true, in that intelligence is determined by an overall g factor and
various subfactors.
D) still believed by many psychologists, despite its falsification by Louis
Thurstone.

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52. Charlotte has a test in her geography class on world capitals. This test is an example
of assessing _____ intelligence.
A) crystallized
B) fluid
C) practical
D) spatial and mathematical

53. Nick works at a holiday shop and wraps gifts all day. He has developed complex
ways of combining previous cut scraps of wrapping paper for future use. This best
illustrates _____ intelligence.
A) analytical
B) inductive
C) practical
D) creative

54. Highly emotionally intelligent people experience:

A) better romantic relationships, better workplace relationships, and less
dissatisfaction with their lives overall.
B) better romantic relationships, less successful workplace relationships, and less
dissatisfaction with their lives overall.
C) less successful romantic relationships, better workplace relationships, and less
dissatisfaction with their lives overall.
D) better romantic relationships, better workplace relationships, and more
dissatisfaction with their lives overall.

55. Monozygotic twins share _____ percent of their genes, while dizygotic twins share
_____ percent.
A) about 50; 100
B) 100; about 50
C) 100; about 25
D) about 50; about 50

56. The _____ is a statistical measure that indicates how much people's IQ scores differ
because of differences in their genetics.
A) g factor
B) deviation IQ
C) heritability coefficient
D) ratio IQ

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57. It is important to distinguish between shared and unshared environments when
determining what type of experiences contribute to intelligence because:
A) environmental factors have more influence on intelligence than genes.
B) genes have more influence on intelligence than environment.
C) two people who live in the same household will have some but not all
experiences in common.
D) genes and environment contribute equally to intelligence.

58. During your lifetime, your _____ intelligence stays relatively stable, whereas your
_____ intelligence typically changes.
A) group; relative
B) absolute; relative
C) individual; absolute
D) relative; absolute

59. The best predictor of intelligence score is:

A) race.
B) socioeconomic status.
C) whether or not a person is a college graduate.
D) how quickly a person talks.

60. Which statement is FALSE?

A) Women routinely outscore men on tests of spatial memory.
B) Whites routinely outscore Latinos on intelligence tests.
C) Men routinely outscore women in abstract mathematical domains.
D) Latinos routinely outscore Blacks on intelligence tests.

61. Developmental psychology focuses on the:

A) continuity of humans over the life span.
B) change of humans over the life span.
C) continuity and change of humans over the life span.
D) infantile period of humans.

62. The heart begins to beat in the _____ stage of prenatal development.
A) germinal
B) embryonic
C) uterine
D) fetal

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63. Babies whose mothers smoke tobacco during pregnancy are more likely to have:
A) facial abnormalities.
B) attentional problems in childhood.
C) Down syndrome.
D) physical deformities such as missing limbs.

64. Motor development during infancy tends to follow two main guidelines: the _____
rule, whereby motor skills develop from the head to the feet, and the _____ rule,
whereby babies learn to control body parts closest to their trunk before moving to the
periphery (e.g., hands and feet).
A) cephalocaudal; bipedal
B) cephalocaudal; proximodistal
C) proximodistal; cephalocaudal
D) bipedal; proximodistal

65. Jonas knew that animals with fur, pointy ears, a tail, four legs, and that say “woof”
are called “dogs” by his parents. He saw a new animal and thought it was a dog until
it “meowed.” Jonas's parents said this was a “cat.” Jonas could now distinguish
between dog and cat depending on the sound the animal made. This revision of
Jonas's schema of a “dog” best illustrates:
A) assimilation.
B) accommodation.
C) formal operations.
D) object permanence.

66. The concept of object permanence is first understood in the _____ stage of cognitive
development.
A) sensorimotor
B) preoperational
C) concrete operational
D) formal operational

67. A child in the preoperational stage of development often has trouble with the concept
of:
A) conservation.
B) assimilation.
C) accommodation.
D) object permanence.

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68. Knowing that people experience different emotions in response to the same stimulus
and react differently to things based on their personal likes or dislikes is a
characteristic of:
A) the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development.
B) the postconventional stage of moral development.
C) assimilation and accommodation.
D) a theory of mind.

69. Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development differed from Piaget's largely due to its
focus on:
A) cultural influences.
B) self-observations.
C) reinforcement.
D) morality.

70. The _____ is the standard behavioral test to determine a child's attachment style.
A) Joint Referencing Task
B) Child Attachment Battery
C) Strange Situation
D) Habituation Task

71. James dispenses medical marijuana to patients undergoing chemotherapy in order to

help reduce their feelings of nausea. He does this, even though there are no medical
marijuana laws in his state and he risks imprisonment if caught. John, however,
believes he is doing the right thing by alleviating suffering. John probably is in
Kohlberg's _____ stage of moral development.
A) postconventional
B) conventional
C) formal conventional
D) preconventional

72. A teenage boy starts shaving because he develops facial hair, which is a _____ sex
characteristic.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) minor
D) major

73. What is the order of social independence that most adolescents follow as they break
away from their parents and spend more time with peers?
A) mixed-sex groups of friends, then single-sex groups, then pair off as couples
B) couples, then mixed-sex groups of friends, then single-sex groups
C) couples, then single-sex groups of friends, then mixed-sex groups
D) single-sex groups of friends, then mixed-sex groups, then pair off as couples

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74. Which cognitive ability would be least impaired as a person ages?
A) remembering details from a childhood birthday party
B) keeping a phone number in working memory
C) retrieving names of high school classmates from memory
D) understanding the meaning of vocabulary words used in the person's language

75. Marital satisfaction follows peaks and valleys; it starts out _____, _____ when
children are very young, and _____ when children leave the house.
A) low; decreases; increases
B) low; increases; decreases
C) high; decreases; increases
D) high; increases; decreases

76. Once a zygote has implanted itself on the uterine wall, this signifies the end of the
_____ stage of development and the beginning of the _____ stage.
A) germinal; embryonic
B) germinal; fetal
C) embryonic; fetal
D) embryonic; germinal

77. All of these are associated with fetal alcohol syndrome EXCEPT:
A) a thin upper lip.
B) large eye openings.
C) a flat midface.
D) an underdeveloped jaw.

78. Infants will _____ to a physically _____ event.

A) assimilate rapidly; impossible
B) accommodate slowly; possible
C) demonstrate object permanence more quickly; possible
D) habituate slowly; impossible

79. Presented with two identical balls of clay, children in the _____ stage say that the
two balls still contain the same amount of clay, even when one is rolled out into a
snake or flattened into a pancake.
A) sensorimotor
B) formal motor
C) preoperational
D) concrete operational

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80. The ability to reason about abstract concepts, such as freedom and love, occurs
during the _____ stage.
A) preconventional
B) preoperational
C) concrete operational
D) formal operational

81. Piaget suggested that young children have trouble understanding other people's
points of view because of:
A) rigid rules for assimilation and accommodation.
B) different cultural beliefs.
C) egocentrism.
D) conservation.

82. The theories of Lev Vygotsky emphasized the role that _____ plays in cognitive
development.
A) individual experience
B) mental representation
C) social life
D) theory of mind

83. During the Strange Situation test, Gravis notices when his mother leaves the room
but does not appear upset. When she returns, Gravis smiles at her and continues to
play happily with a truck. What attachment style does Gravis MOST likely have?
A) secure
B) avoidant
C) ambivalent
D) disorganized

84. In the final stage of moral development, Piaget suggests that children shift their
thinking from _____ to _____.
A) intentions; drives
B) outcomes; intentions
C) outcomes; drives
D) intentions; outcomes

85. Ricky will not pull Amber's hair, even though he wants to do so, because he is afraid
Amber would tell the teacher and get him in trouble. According to Kohlberg, Ricky
probably is in the _____ stage of moral development.
A) relativistic
B) preconventional
C) conventional
D) prescriptive

Page 15
86. Recent studies suggest that genetics _____ in determining sexual orientation.
A) plays a minor role
B) does not play any role
C) is the sole factor
D) plays a significant role

87. Sex education during adolescence:

A) increases sexual activity among teenagers.
B) decreases the number of teenage pregnancies.
C) increases the number of sexually transmitted diseases among teenagers.
D) substantially decreases sexual activity among teenagers.

88. Throughout adolescence, people spend _____ time with opposite-sex peers and
_____ time is spent with same-sex peers.
A) more; more
B) less; maintain the amount of
C) more; less
D) more; maintain the amount of

89. Compared to younger adults, older adults are _____ to attend to and be influenced
emotionally by negative information.
A) equally likely
B) less likely
C) slightly more likely
D) uniquely driven

90. Parents generally report that having children _____ their happiness; these survey
results also suggest that marital happiness _____ after children are born.
A) decreases; increases
B) increases; decreases
C) increases; increases
D) decreases; decreases

91. The idea that people behave aggressively when their goals are thwarted is:
A) the frustration–aggression principle.
B) the means–end aggression principle.
C) the directed-aggression principle.
D) the failure–aggression principle.

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92. Men who are prone to violence tend to have:
A) unrealistically high self-esteem.
B) low self-esteem.
C) moderate levels of self-esteem.
D) unusually low testosterone levels.

93. Selena believes that people who do not share her religious faith are morally inferior
to those of her faith. This is an example of:
A) group polarization.
B) discrimination.
C) prejudice.
D) social conformity.

94. After a big football win, Jordan and a few dozen other students tore down the
goalposts on their school's football field. It cost the college $20,000 to replace them.
Despite hearing about this cost, Jordan does not feel guilty for his actions because of:
A) deindividuation.
B) diffusion of responsibility.
C) polarized group accountability.
D) out-group responsibility.

95. Altruistic behavior benefits:

A) all people involved in the social situation.
B) oneself.
C) oneself and at least one other person.
D) others but not oneself.

96. The mere exposure effect suggests that you are likely to find someone _____ the
_____ time you spend with them.
A) slightly less attractive; more
B) more attractive; more
C) more attractive; less
D) considerably less attractive; more

97. Over time, typically passionate love _____ and companionate love _____.
A) increases; remains the same
B) increases; increases
C) decreases; increases
D) decreases; remains the same

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 98. When you are visiting another country with completely different cultural beliefs and
societal guidelines than your own, it is often helpful to imitate the behavior of the
people you see around you. This best illustrates the idea of:
A) obedience to authority.
B) normative influence.
C) confirmation bias.
D) the norm of reciprocity.

99. In Asch's classic study on conformity, most people reported that two lines of
obviously different lengths were _____ on at least one trial when all of the people in
the experiment with them said they were the same.
A) obviously different
B) slightly different
C) too close in length to judge
D) the same

100. Which statement about Milgram's studies on obedience is true?

A) Teachers delivered painful electric shocks to learners.
B) Teachers continued to obey Milgram because he threatened to shock them if
they refused.
C) Over 60 percent of the teachers delivered what they thought to be a potentially
deadly shock to a learner.
D) Obedience to the experimenter was due largely to the norm of reciprocity.

101. When a vacuum cleaner salesman persuades people to let him vacuum their living
room for free, he is likely to increase his chances that he will make a sale. The
salesman is using the:
A) door-in-the-face technique.
B) norm of reciprocity.
C) self-fulfilling prophecy.
D) foot-in-the-door technique.

102. Times are economically tough and Bob is forced to take a job as a used-car
salesperson to make ends meet. Bob likes to think that he is an honest guy, but he
finds himself selling defective automobiles to unsuspecting customers. Bob is likely
to experience _____, which probably will be alleviated by _____.
A) cognitive dissonance; believing in the quality of the cars he sells
B) cognitive dissonance; accepting the fact that he has always been a dishonest
person
C) a stereotype threat; being extremely honest to all of his customers
D) the actor–observer effect; believing that his customers also are dishonest

Page 18
103. Stereotype threat can actually cause individuals to conform to the given stereotype
because:
A) stereotypes are the best predictor of individual behavior.
B) individuals are usually reinforced for conforming to stereotypes.
C) the negative views directed toward them lead individuals to act in ways that the
stereotype predicts.
D) not conforming to the stereotype frequently results in punishment.

104. Rosie is making a _____ when she gets a bad grade on a test and says it is because
the teacher didn't prepare her well enough and she was having a bad day, instead of
admitting that she didn't study as much as she should have.
A) correspondence bias
B) self-fulfilling prophecy
C) situational attribution
D) dispositional attribution

105. How do humans differ from other ultrasocial species, such as termites and naked
mole rats?
A) Humans divide labor among members.
B) Humans engage in mutual cooperation.
C) Humans form societies that are genetically unrelated.
D) Humans share resources with other members of society.

106. The best predictor of aggression is:

A) race.
B) socioeconomic status.
C) age.
D) gender.

107. The prisoner's dilemma game illustrates:

A) the hypothesis-confirming bias.
B) the benefits and costs of cooperation.
C) the diffusion of responsibility.
D) group polarization.

108. The chairperson of the Department of Mathematics at a large university refuses to

consider applications from females for faculty positions in the department. The
professor is demonstrating:
A) normative influence.
B) group polarization.
C) prejudice.
D) discrimination.

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109. _____ suggests that people are more likely to cheat when they are not focused on
themselves but instead immersed in a group of people.
A) Confirmation-bias
B) Signal detection theory
C) Deindividuation
D) Diffusion of responsibility

110. Rachel is waiting at a red light as a car pulls up from a small side street a few cars in
front of her. As the light turns green, no one is letting the car merge onto the main
road. As Rachel approaches, she waves to the car's driver to signal that he can merge.
Although her behavior seems genuinely unselfish, Rachel likely expects other drivers
to return the favor for her someday, which is an example of:
A) genuine altruism.
B) in-group altruism.
C) reciprocal altruism.
D) reverse altruism.

111. Women are _____ than men in choosing sexual partners because the costs of
reproduction are _____ for women.
A) less selective; lower
B) less selective; higher
C) more selective; higher
D) more selective; lower

112. Which of these is considered attractive across all cultures?

A) immature facial features in females
B) height in males
C) bilateral asymmetry of the face
D) slimness in women

113. _____ love occurs rapidly and ends within a few months, whereas _____ love
develops more slowly and can continue throughout the rest of the life span.
A) Sexual; compassionate
B) Passionate; companionate
C) Immature; equitable
D) Passionate; equitable

Page 20
114. If Shondra really wants to borrow Alicia's shoes but she thinks she may refuse, the
idea of the door-in-the-face technique states that Shondra is more likely to get the
shoes if she:
A) asks for something else that she knows Alicia will give her first.
B) first asks to borrow something Alicia will refuse to give her and then ask to
borrow the shoes.
C) ask for the shoes when Alicia is in a bad mood.
D) ask for the shoes when Alicia is in a good mood.

115. _____ is to obedience as _____ is to conformity.

A) Milgram; Asch
B) Asch; Milgram
C) Zimbardo; Asch
D) Milgram; Zimbardo

116. When people in a crowded room start screaming and running for the exits with a
look of terror on their faces, informational influence would state that you should:
A) also run for an exit because they probably know something true about the need
to exit that you don't know.
B) run for the exits too but only because conformity should always guide behavior.
C) stay put, because the “mob mentality” of groups is often wrong.
D) run the opposite way because panicking groups are often wrong.

117. The president of a college justifies a proposed tuition increase to the students by
describing how the projected revenue will not meet the costs associated with
operating the college. The president is attempting to use _____ to convince the
students that the tuition increase is necessary.
A) heuristic persuasion
B) systematic persuasion
C) informational persuasion
D) judgment persuasion

118. According to the covariation model of attribution, people are most likely to attribute
the actions of another person to a situational cause when that action is:
A) consistently performed, typical of their similar actions, and routinely performed
by other people in similar circumstances.
B) consistently performed, typical of their similar actions, and not routinely
performed by other people in similar circumstances.
C) rarely performed, not typical of their similar actions, and routinely performed by
other people in similar circumstances.
D) rarely performed, not typical of their similar actions, and not routinely
performed by other people in similar circumstances.

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119. The actor–observer effect states that people tend to make _____ attributions for their
own behaviors and _____ attributions for identical behaviors of others.
A) situational; situational
B) situational; dispositional
C) dispositional; situational
D) dispositional; dispositional

120. The first step in the treatment of mental disorders is _____, which focuses on
assessing symptoms.
A) stabilization
B) analysis
C) evaluation
D) diagnosis

121. One criticism of the medical model of psychological disorders is:

A) the symptoms change too often for accurate diagnosis.
B) psychologists rely too much on the DSM-5 for diagnosis.
C) it puts too much emphasis on physical symptoms.
D) it uses people's subjective self-reports for diagnosis.

122. Comorbidity refers to:

A) when a person has a severe mood disorder.
B) when a person has more than one disorder.
C) when the death of one spouse is likely to trigger the death of another spouse.
D) the inclusion of both environmental and biological factors in diagnosing mental
disorders.

123. Which of these is NOT a recognized type of anxiety disorder by the DSM-5?
A) generalized anxiety disorder
B) panic disorder
C) bipolar disorder
D) phobic disorders

124. Victor has become increasingly withdrawn during social gatherings. He is so afraid
he will do or say something embarrassing that he has started to avoid social events
altogether. Victor may be developing:
A) claustrophobia.
B) antisocial personality disorder.
C) social phobia.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.

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125. Each day, Cara worries excessively about whether or not she will lose her job, her
credit card debt, the ticking noise in her car, whether or not her kids are doing well in
school, her weight, and a host of other things. This worrying is negatively affecting
her quality of life. Cara probably would be diagnosed with:
A) panic disorder.
B) social phobia.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.

126. Each day, Wayne felt he had to lock and unlock his door 11 times both before he left
and then again from the outside. Wayne could not leave without doing this ritual
because otherwise he would repeatedly think about his door being unlocked. Wayne
most likely has:
A) claustrophobia.
B) agoraphobia.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.

127. Janet has felt depressed for a long time, over 3 years now. Some of the time, her
mood is not as severely affected, but she almost always has trouble sleeping and is
not interested in food, socializing, sex, or work. Other times, she is overcome by her
feelings of worthlessness and thoughts about suicide. Janet most likely has:
A) major depressive disorder.
B) dysthymia.
C) bipolar depression.
D) double depression.

128. Which statement about depression is FALSE?

A) The rate of depression in women is much higher than in men.
B) Drugs that increase serotonin and norepinephrine levels often reduce depressive
symptoms.
C) Depressed individuals are likely to attribute negative experiences to causes that
are external.
D) Depression is associated with decreased activity in the dorsolateral prefrontal
cortex.

129. Rebecca typically feels worthless and spends most of her day in bed. About once a
month, however, she becomes extremely energized, sociable, and full of positive
thoughts. This lasts for about a week, and then she crashes back into a negative
affective state. Rebecca probably would be diagnosed with:
A) bipolar disorder.
B) multiple personality disorder.
C) borderline personality disorder.
D) dysthymia.

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130. Michael constantly hears the devil telling him to do evil things. He screams in order
to block out the sound, but the devil's voice cannot be silenced. Michael is
experiencing:
A) a dissociative fugue.
B) multiple personality disorder.
C) a hallucination.
D) a delusion.

131. Jeremiah believes that the lead psychologist at the institution is actually an alien
from Neptune. He further believes that this alien has implanted a chip into his brain
to record his thoughts. Each day, Jeremiah wonders how many of the other patients
are actually aliens in disguise and whether any of them are trying to poison his food.
Jeremiah is experiencing:
A) delusions.
B) hallucinations.
C) disorganized behavior.
D) disorganized speech.

132. Although schizophrenia is likely to involve a complex interaction of neurotransmitter

malfunctions, evidence from drug studies suggests that _____ is related to the
positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
A) dopamine
B) epinephrine
C) endorphins
D) GABA

133. Lisa has a very stormy relationship with her boyfriend. Although she often
experiences intense love for him, today she perceives that he wants to leave her, and
so she cuts herself. Still tormented, she goes to his house and threatens to kill him or
herself. When he attempts to call 911, she breaks down and tells him how painful it
is to love him so much. Lisa probably would be diagnosed with having a(n) _____
personality disorder.
A) histrionic
B) borderline
C) schizoid
D) avoidant

134. Someone with a history of aggressive, violent behavior and a criminal record is
MOST likely to have what type of personality disorder?
A) antisocial
B) histrionic
C) avoidant
D) schizoid

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135. The _____ is the classification system of psychological disorders used for diagnosis.
A) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Psychological Disorders
B) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
C) Diagnostic and Treatment Manual of Psychiatric Disorders
D) Diagnostic and Treatment Manual of Mental Disorders

136. In order to understand what factors cause mental disorders, most psychologists use a:
A) stress test.
B) vision screening.
C) debriefing session.
D) biopsychosocial assessment.

137. In the diathesis–stress model of psychological disorders, the diathesis usually refers
to a(n): .
A) underlying biological predisposition.
B) external cause of the disorder.
C) external trigger that impacts gene expression.
D) gene that completely determines whether someone will have a disorder.

138. All of these represent specific phobias EXCEPT:

A) fear of needles.
B) fear of cats.
C) fear of embarrassment.
D) fear of darkness.

139. People with panic disorder often also have:

A) claustrophobia.
B) agoraphobia.
C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
D) generalized anxiety disorder.

140. Benzodiazepines prescribed to treat generalized anxiety disorder enhance the actions
of the neurotransmitter:
A) glutamate.
B) norepinephrine.
C) GABA.
D) acetylcholine.

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141. Petra has constant thoughts about her house being flooded, and so she checks to
make sure her sink faucets are turned off at least 20 times per hour. Constantly
thinking about her house flooding represents a(n):
A) phobia.
B) obsession.
C) delusion.
D) compulsion.

142. Brandon has been experiencing the “blues” for over 2 years. He still goes to work,
engages in social relationships, and is physically healthy, but he frequently is
troubled with issues pertaining to his competency and self-worth. Each day is a
struggle to overcome his tendency to feel “stuck in a rut.” Brandon could probably be
diagnosed with:
A) a dissociative fugue.
B) dysthymia.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) unipolar depressive disorder.

143. Women are more likely than men to develop all of these psychological disorders
EXCEPT:
A) panic disorder.
B) depression.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) bipolar disorder.

144. Which symptom of schizophrenia is described as a false belief system that is upheld
even though it is not rational?
A) hallucination
B) delusion
C) disorganized behavior
D) fantasy

145. In addition to evidence that _____ factors may influence schizophrenia, researchers
have found evidence that exposure to toxins _____ may also increase the risk of
schizophrenia.
A) genetic; prenatally
B) parenting style; in early adolescence
C) genetic; during late adolescence
D) early environmental; during late adolescence

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146. The DSM–5 categorizes personality disorders into three main groups, which are:
A) anxious/inhibited, cognitive/smart, and dramatic/erratic.
B) odd/eccentric, anxious/inhibited, and dramatic/erratic.
C) dramatic/erratic, irrational/illogical, and odd/eccentric.
D) odd/eccentric, anxious/inhibited, and irrational/illogical.

147. Jennifer lives her life as if she is “onstage.” She dresses flamboyantly, flirts
excessively, and is overly dramatic in her displays of emotion. Today, she sobbed at
her desk for hours because she had a headache. Jennifer probably could be diagnosed
with which personality disorder?
A) borderline
B) narcissistic
C) histrionic
D) schizotypal

148. Behaviors exhibited by a child such as purposely setting fires and repeatedly
torturing animals predict:
A) antisocial tendencies.
B) dissociative identity disorder.
C) borderline personality disorder.
D) schizophrenia.

149. The group most likely to commit suicide is:

A) Black females.
B) Black males.
C) White females.
D) White males.

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Answer Key

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. C
6. C
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. B
11. A
12. B
13. C
14. D
15. C
16. A
17. B
18. B
19. C
20. A
21. A
22. D
23. B
24. C
25. B
26. B
27. B
28. C
29. B
30. A
31. C
32. A
33. D
34. B
35. B
36. A
37. A
38. B
39. B
40. C
41. B
42. C
43. C
44. C
45. A
46. B
47. B

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48. D
49. D
50. B
51. C
52. A
53. C
54. A
55. B
56. C
57. C
58. D
59. B
60. A
61. C
62. B
63. B
64. B
65. B
66. A
67. A
68. D
69. A
70. C
71. A
72. B
73. D
74. D
75. C
76. A
77. B
78. D
79. D
80. D
81. C
82. C
83. A
84. B
85. B
86. D
87. B
88. D
89. B
90. B
91. A
92. A
93. C
94. B
95. D
96. B

Page 29
 97. C
98. B
99. D
100. C
101. D
102. A
103. C
104. C
105. C
106. D
107. B
108. D
109. C
110. C
111. C
112. A
113. B
114. B
115. A
116. A
117. B
118. C
119. B
120. D
121. D
122. B
123. C
124. C
125. D
126. C
127. D
128. C
129. A
130. C
131. A
132. A
133. B
134. A
135. B
136. D
137. A
138. C
139. B
140. C
141. B
142. B
143. D
144. B
145. A

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146. B
147. C
148. A
149. D

Page 31