FSA Test Bank CH 1, 2 & 3

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Chapter 01
Overview of Financial Statement Analysis
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following is likely to be the most informative source if you were interested in a
company's business plan or strategy?
A. Auditor's letter
B. Management discussion and analysis
C. Proxy statement
D. Footnotes
2. Which of the following would not be considered a source of financing?
A. Notes receivable
B. Common stockholders' equity
C. Retained earnings
D. Debentures
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3. Wilco Company reports the following:
Dividend payout ratio for 2005 was:
A. 27%
B. 12%
C. 22.2%
D. Not determinable
2
4. If a company receives an unqualified audit opinion it means the auditors:
A. did not complete a full audit and therefore do not feel qualified to give an opinion on financial
statements.
B. are providing assurance that the company will remain financially viable for at least the next
year.
C. are providing assurance that the company's financial statements fairly present company's
financial performance and position.
D. are providing assurance that the company's financial statements are free from misstatement,
fraudulent accounting and fairly indicate future performance.

5. The Management Discussion and Analysis Section of the annual report:
A. is required by the SEC.
B. is optional but normally included in the annual report.
C. is required by the SEC only if the company has suffered from unfavorable trends or there are
significant uncertainty concerning liquidity of the company.
D. is required by the SEC only if they have a qualified audit opinion.
You are analyzing a large stable company. For the year ending 12/31/05 the company reported
earnings of $58,900K and book value at the end of 2005 was $371,700K. You expect earnings to
grow at 5% a year in perpetuity, and the dividend payout ratio of 70% to continue. The company
borrows at 8%, and has a cost of equity of 12%. The company has 25,000K shares outstanding.
6. What is your estimate of price per share using the dividend discount model at 12/31/05?
A. $20.62
B. $21.65
C. $23.56
D. $24.74
4
7. What is your estimate of price using the residual income valuation model at 12/31/05?
A. $20.62
B. $21.65
C. $23.56
D. $24.72

8. Which of the following is not a common tool used in financial statement analysis?
A. Random walk analysis
B. Ratio analysis
C. Common size statement analysis
D. Trend series analysis
9. A common size income statement would typically be prepared by dividing:
A. all items on income statement in Year t by their corresponding value in Year t-1.
B. all items on income statement in Year t by their corresponding balance sheet accounts in Year
t.
C. all items on income statement in Year t by net income in Year t-1.
D. all items on income statement in Year t by sales in Year t.
10. When conducting comparative analysis by reviewing consecutive balance sheets,
A. all items on the balance sheet in Year t must be divided by their corresponding value in Year
t-1 and subtract 1.
B. all items on the balance sheet in Year t-1 must be subtracted from their corresponding value in
Year t.
C. all items on the balance sheet in Year t must be divided by net income in Year t-1.
D. Both A and B are correct.
6
You have prepared a trend series for Company XYZ for three years, 2004-2006 inclusive, using
2004 as the base year. Below are selected data.

11. From the above information, you can infer that:
A. rate of sales growth has decreased.
B. net income to sales (return on sales) is increasing over time.
C. asset turnover is decreasing over time.
D. None of the above
12. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Net Income in 2006 increased by 28% compared to 2004.
B. XYZ's net income to sales (return on sales) increased in 2006 compared to 2004.
C. XYZ's net income to sales (return on sales) decreased in 2006 compared to 2004.
D. Assets have increased over time.
13. While determining the most profitable company from the given number of companies, which
of the following would be the best indicator of relative profitability?
A. Highest net income
B. Highest retained earnings
C. Highest return on equity
D. Highest operating margin
8
14. Which of the following statements concerning financial ratios is incorrect?
A. Accounting principles and methods used by a company will not affect financial ratios.
B. The informational value of a ratio in isolation is limited.
C. A ratio is one number expressed as a percentage or fraction of another number.
D. Calculation of financial ratios is not sufficient for a complete financial analysis of a company.
15. Which of the following ratios is not generally considered to be helpful in assessing short-
term liquidity?
A. Acid test ratio
B. Current ratio
C. Days to collect receivables
D. Days goodwill held

16. Liquidity of a company is generally defined as a measure of:
A. the ability of a company to pay its employees in a timely manner.
B. the ability to pay interest and principal on all debt.
C. the ability to pay dividends.
D. the ability to pay current liabilities.
Following is some financial information for Dell Inc.
17. What is Dell's profit margin for 2005?
A. 6.27%
B. 6.18%
C. 6.38%
D. 6.86%
10
18. What is Dell's profit margin for 2006?
A. 6.27%
B. 6.18%
C. 6.38%
D. 6.86%

19. What is Dell's P/E ratio for 2006?
A. 27.63
B. 12.81
C. 23.65
D. 9.70
20. What is Dell's asset turnover for 2006?
A. 2.12
B. 3.58
C. 3.65
D. 2.31
12
21. Given the following information, calculate the inventory turnover for ABC Co. for 2006
(pick closest number).
A. 8.96
B. 7.22
C. 6.93
D. 6.18

22. You have been provided the following information about Wert Inc.
Return on Assets for 2006 is:
A. 13.71%
B. 12.68%
C. 10.77%
D. 13.21%
You have been provided the following information about High Inc.
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23. Working Capital for 2005 is:
A. $56,000
B. $20,000
C. $151,000
D. $207,000

24. Owner's Equity for 2006 is:
A. $20,000
B. $154,000
C. $174,000
D. $207,000
25. Current Ratio for 2005 is:
A. 1.55
B. 1.51
C. 1.50
D. 1.14
26. Return on Common Equity for 2006 is:
A. 15.46%
B. 24.14%
C. 16.79%
D. 22.04%
16
27. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The more efficiently a company utilizes its assets, the greater its return on investment, all
other things being equal.
B. If return on equity increases, the return on assets must have also increased.
C. If the number of days inventory is held increases, the return on assets will increase, all other
things being equal.
D. If the gross margin decreases, the inventory turnover must have increased, all other things
being equal.
28. Which of the following statistics would be the most useful in determining the efficiency of a
car rental company?
A. Inventory turnover
B. Number of employees per car rental
C. Average length of car rental
D. Number of days cars are rented as a percentage of number of days available for rent

29. Which of the following ratios does not relate to market price of a company under analysis?
A. Price-to-earnings
B. Earnings yield
C. Price-to-book
D. Return on common equity
30. The semistrong efficiency of market implies that:
A. stock prices fully reflect all inside information.
B. stock prices do not reflect information contained in past trading volume.
C. stock prices fully reflect all information found in 10-K filing.
D. stock prices fully reflect all information about future price changes.
A. It is possible for some markets to be more efficient than others.
B. It is possible for markets to be efficient with respect to some information and inefficient with
respect to other information.
C. The market is likely to be more efficient with respect to companies where there is greater
analyst following.
D. The market is totally efficient with respect to companies providing regular dividends to
investors.
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32. Which of the following ratios would be considered useful in assessing operating
profitability?
A. Debt/Equity ratio
B. Acid test ratio
C. Gross profit margin
D. Return on equity

33. How much would you be prepared to pay for a $500 bond which comes due in 5 years and
pays $80 interest annually assuming your required rate of return is 8% (pick closest answer)?
A. $740
B. $660
C. $608
D. $500
34. Fluno Corporation has 1 million shares outstanding at the end of fiscal 2005. Its stock is
trading at $15 per share. It issued $0.6 million in dividends, and had net income of $1million in
fiscal 2005. At the end of 2005, its total assets, liabilities and retained earnings were $25 million,
$15 million and $7.5 million, respectively. Fluno's price to book ratio and dividend yield ratios
for 2005 are:
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
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35. Which of the following statements regarding the intrinsic value of a company is correct?
A. It can be calculated as book value plus the present value of future expected dividends,
discounted at the cost of equity capital.
B. It can be calculated as present value of future expected dividends, discounted at the cost of
debt.
C. It can be calculated as present value of future expected residual income, discounted at the cost
of equity capital.
D. It can be calculated as book value plus the present value of future expected residual income,
discounted at the cost of equity capital

36. Two otherwise equal companies have significantly different dividend payout ratios. Which of
the following statements is most likely to be correct? The company with higher the dividend
payout ratio:
A. will have a higher inventory turnover ratio.
B. will have a lower inventory turnover ratio.
C. will have higher earnings growth.
D. will have lower earnings growth.
37. On January 1, 2005, Systil Corporation issues $50M 10 year bonds with a coupon rate of
10%. Interest is payable annually at the end of the year. If the required return on bonds of similar
risk at January 1, 2006 is 8%, what will be the price of the bonds be at this date?
A. $56.71M
B. $56.25M
C. $44.24M
D. $43.86M
22
38. Which of the following statements is most correct?
A. Technical analysis concerns itself with determining the intrinsic value of a stock.
B. Active investing is defined as buying and selling stock within six months.
C. Fundamental analysis attempts to value a company by examining the past prices patterns of a
company's stock.
D. Individuals who engage in technical analysis by definition do not subscribe to the weak form
of the efficient market hypothesis.

39. Net income is expected to increase by 10% for the next year, and dividend payout ratio is
expected to remain constant. After 2006, retained earnings are expected to decrease to zero.
Using the residual income method what is the value per share of Rivaz stock as of 12/31/05?
A. $15.25
B. $15.16
C. $14.38
D. $13.77
40. Using the dividend discount model, assuming dividends grow at 10% per year for the next
two years and at 5% thereafter, what is the value per share of Rivaz Corporation at 12/31/05?
A. $16.61
B. $16.51
C. $16.42
D. $14.87
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41. Assuming total assets grew by $5,000 from 2004 to 2005, what is the return on assets of
Rivaz Corporation for 2005?
A. 9.23%
B. 8.57%
C. 10.00%
D. 6.15%
A. Current assets are expected to be converted into cash sooner than noncurrent assets.
B. Equity investors have unlimited downside exposure if the company declares bankruptcy.
C. Paid-in capital of company is not affected by the payment of dividends.
D. Retained earnings at the inception of a company equals zero.

43. A company issues 12%, 10-year $1,000 bonds paying interest semi-annually. Required return
for bonds of this risk is 15%. At what price will the bond be sold (pick closest answer)?
A. $663
B. $849
C. $ 847
D. $ 894
If the students calculate this assuming annual payments (N=10, PMT=120, I=15%), they will get
answer B, not C. The correct solution is calculated with N=20, PMT=60 and I=7.5%. You may
wish to award half marks for answer B.
44. You wish to compare the performance of two companies. Which of the following statements
is most likely to be incorrect?
A. If the companies operate in different industries, this will hinder comparability.
B. The use of different accounting methods will hinder comparability.
C. If the companies are of significantly different sizes, this will hinder comparability.
D. If companies have different auditors, this will hinder comparability.
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45. As of December 31, 2005, two otherwise identical companies in the same industry, East Co.
and West Co., have dividend payouts of 20% and 40%, respectively. Looking forward one year,
which outcomes are least likely?
I. East Co. requires debt financing.
II. West Co. increases its dividend payout.
III. West Co.'s share price is twice that of East Co.
IV. East Co. repurchases outstanding shares.
A. I and II
B. II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
46. Which of the following, if increased by 10%, results in a 10% higher stock price?
A. Dividend yield
B. Earnings yield
C. Net profit margin
D. None of the above

47. Which of the following is not an equity valuation model?
A. Residual income model
B. Dividend discount model
C. Free cash flow to equity model
D. Terminal value model
True / False Questions
48. Financial statement analysis is an exact science.
FALSE
49. Theoretically the value of a stock should equal the sum of the present value of future
expected dividends, discounted at the cost of equity.
TRUE
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50. The value of a bond is equal to the sum of the present value of future expected interest and
principal payments, discounted at the coupon rate.
FALSE
51. Details of compensation paid to officers and directors can be found in proxy statement.
TRUE
52. The statement of cash flows is separated into four parts: operating, investing, financing and
planning.
FALSE

53. The SEC requires that Management Discussion and Analysis found in the annual report
(10K) contains, among other things, a discussion about the company's liquidity, capital resources
and results of operations.
TRUE
54. The explanatory notes (footnotes) accompanying the financial statements are generally of
little value in aiding the financial analyst when interpreting the financial statements.
FALSE
55. Two popular techniques of comparative analysis are year-to-year change analysis and index-
number trend analysis.
TRUE
56. Common size statements are useful for inter-company comparisons.
TRUE
57. In a common size balance sheet total assets are expressed as 100 percent.
TRUE
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58. In a common size income statement net income is expressed as 100 percent.
FALSE
59. Inventory turnover is generally a more important ratio for a manufacturing firm than a
service firm.
TRUE
60. If a company has no liabilities its return on equity will equal its return on assets.
TRUE

61. The current ratio will always be greater than or equal to the acid test ratio.
TRUE
62. The current ratio is used to evaluate the company's operating performance.
FALSE
63. When calculating the return on assets you should use average total assets.
TRUE
64. Debt-to-equity ratio is a commonly used measure of liquidity.
FALSE
65. Earnings Yield is the reciprocal of the price/earnings ratio.
TRUE
66. Dividend yield is defined as dividends divided by shareholders' equity.
FALSE
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67. A bank with a loan to a company is generally exposed to greater risk than the shareholders of
the company.
FALSE
68. When comparing two companies the company with the highest net income should normally
have the highest stock price.
FALSE

69. All other things being equal, the lower a company's cost of equity the higher its stock price
should be.
TRUE
70. A creditor's risk is said to be asymmetric because the downside is limited to the required
interest payments.
TRUE
71. The income statement is the only one of the four basic financial statements that does not
contain balances at a specific point in time.
FALSE
72. A capital-intensive company requires high cash turnover.
FALSE
73. A security can be under or overvalued, depending on the extent of an incorrect interpretation
or faulty evaluation of available information by the aggregate market.
TRUE
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74. Prospective analysis is the forecasting of future payoffs—typically earnings and cash flows,
or both.
TRUE
Essay Questions

75. Problem One: Information contained in Financial Statements
List ten different items you would expect to find in an average annual report to shareholders.
Problem One: Information contained in Financial Statements
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76. Problem Two: Identify Industries
Below are selected ratios for three companies which operate in three different industries:
Discount Retail Store, Drug and Utility.
Identify which industry each of the companies A, B and C operate in. Give two reasons for each
of your selections.

Problem Two: Identify Industries
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77. Problem Three: Balance Sheet Reconstruction
You want to prepare the balance sheet for Usher Inc. as of December 31, 2005. Use the
following information. All information pertains to fiscal 2005 unless otherwise stated.

Problem Three: Balance Sheet Reconstruction
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78. Problem Four: Valuation of Equity
Assets and liabilities at the end of 2005 for Tripod Inc. are $4,970K and $2,220K respectively.
Net income and dividends for fiscal 2005 were $ 500K and $200K, respectively. Tripod has 100
shares outstanding as of 12/31/05.
Net income is expected to grow at 10% for the next three years (2006 - 2008). The dividend
payout ratio is expected to remain at 2005 level for next three years. After 2005 abnormal
earnings are expected to be zero. Cost of debt is 8% and cost of equity is 15%.
What would you be prepared to pay per share for Tripod stock at the end of fiscal 2005, using the
accounting based equity valuation formula?
Problem Four: Valuation of Equity
Tripod Inc.

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79. Problem Five: Equity Valuation
In the table below is selected information for Sprigue Company.
All figures are in thousands and represent expectations of the future.
a. Calculate the expected free cash flow to equity for the years 2005 to 2009.
b. Explain the expected changes in debt levels over the five years

Problem Five: Equity Valuation
a.
b. This company is clearly in a growth phase from 2005-2009 as evidenced by the growth in net
income and the net new investment in capital assets and working capital. During high growth
phases a company will often find that it needs additional financing to fund the growth. This
company is expecting to fund this growth with equity in 2005 and debt in 2006-2009. After 2006
when the growth slows down the company starts to generate positive cash flows from operations
and has no need of additional external financing.
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80. Problem Six: Equity Valuation
A friend tells you that you should buy Leclerc Company stock as it is a "great deal". It is January
1, 2006 and the stock is trading at $25 per share. You obtain the financial statements for Leclerc
and determine the following:
1. Book value is $12 per share as of December 31, 2005
2. Earnings for 2005 were $4.0 per share
3. Earnings are expected to grow at 20% for the next four years
4. Dividend payout is 40%
5. Residual income is expected to be zero from 2007 onwards
6. Cost of equity capital is 15%
Determine, using the residual income method, whether you should buy Leclerc stock as of
January 1, 2006.

Problem Six: Equity Valuation
You should not buy Leclerc stock as the intrinsic value is below the current market price.
46
81. Problem Seven: Valuation of Bonds
a. It is January 1, 2006 and you are considering buying $20,000 of Hilever Company's 10%
bonds, which come due on December 31, 2015. The bonds pay interest semi-annually on June 30
and December 31 of each year. The prevailing interest rate on bonds of similar risk is 12%. How
much would you be prepared to pay for the bond?
b. If coupon rate was 12% on these bonds, how much would you be prepared to pay?
c. If the coupon rate was 10% and the bonds were convertible into common equity (5 shares for
every $1,000 face value coupon bond), and common stock is currently trading at $11 per share
would this change your answer to part a? Why? Why not?
Problem Seven: Valuation of Bonds
a. Semi-annual interest equals $1,000 ($20,000 x .10 x 0.5)
Semi-annual interest will be received for 20 periods
Discount rate = 6% (semi-annual)
Principal of $20,000, discounted for 20 periods at 6%
Value of bond = $17,706
b. $20,000 (coupon rate equals required return so bond will sell at par)
c. Yes. Even though you would not want to convert currently at $11 per share, the conversion
feature is equivalent to owning an out-of-the-money stock option and has some positive value.
Therefore, you would be prepared to pay more than in part a.

Chapter 2
True-False
1. The balance sheet shows the financial position of a company n a particular date.
TRUE
2. Consolidated statements are the combined financial statements of separate legal

entities when the parent controls 100% of the subsidiary.
FALSE
3. A common size balance sheet expresses each item on the balance sheet as a
percentage of either total assets or total liabilities.
FALSE
4. Current assets include those assets expected to be converted into cash within
one year or operating cycle.
TRUE
5. Marketable securities should be valued at fair market value.
FALSE
6. Marketable securities are also referred to as short-term investments.
TRUE
7. Accounts receivable are balances owed to suppliers.
FALSE
8. When analyzing accounts receivable and the allowance for doubtful accounts it
is helpful to assess the relationship between the growth rates of sales, accounts
receivable, and the allowance for doubtful accounts.
TRUE
48
9. A decline in accounts receivable when sales are increasing is a red flag that the
firm is not collecting cash from its customers.
FALSE
10. Inventory valuation is based on an assumption regarding the flow of goods and
has nothing to do with the actual order in which products are sold.
TRUE
11. Using FIFO during a period of inflation would result in net income being
overstated relative to the LIFO method.
TRUE
12. The straight-line depreciation method allocates an equal amount of

depreciation expense to each year of the depreciation period.
TRUE
13. Most manufacturing firms use the accelerated depreciation method while
retailers use the straight-line depreciation method for financial reporting purposes.
FALSE
14. Goodwill arises when one company acquires another company for a price in
excess of the fair market value of the net identifiable assets acquired.
TRUE
15. Accounts payable are short-term obligations that arise from credit extended by
suppliers for the purchase of goods and services.
TRUE
16. Accrued liabilities are a result of paying for an expense prior to the recognition
of the expense.
FALSE
17. Companies that are paid in advance for services or products record a liability
on the receipt of cash referred to as unearned revenue or deferred credits.
TRUE
18. Temporary differences are a result of recording revenues or expenses on

financial statements in an accounting period different from when these items are
recorded on the firm's tax return.
TRUE
19. A deferred tax asset is recorded when expenses are recorded on the income
statement but not allowed to be deducted for tax purposes until a later accounting
period.
TRUE
20. A capital lease affects only the income statement.
FALSE
21. The commitments and contingencies account listed on a balance sheet is meant
to draw attention to the fact that required disclosures can be found in the notes to
the financial statements.
TRUE
22. Contingencies refer to the amounts owed by companies to settle lawsuits.
FALSE
23. The retained earnings account is increased (decreased) by net income (loss) and
increased by dividends each year.
FALSE
24. The retained earnings account is the sum of every dollar a company has earned
since its inception, less any payments made to shareholders in the form of cash or
stock dividends.
50
TRUE
25. Items related to the quality of financial reporting on the balance sheet, such as
off-balance-sheet financing, should be assessed when analyzing this financial
statement.
TRUE
Multiple Choice
1. Which item below does not describe a balance sheet?

a. Assets = Liabilities + Stockholders' Equity.
b. Financial position at a point in time.
c. Assets – Liabilities = Stockholders' Equity.
d. Assets + Liabilities = Stockholders' Equity.
2. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Annual reports must include three-year audited balance sheets and
two-year audited income statements.
b. The balance sheet is prepared on a particular date.
c. Interim statements are generally prepared quarterly.
d. When a parent company owns more than 50% of the voting stock of a
subsidiary, the financial statements are consolidated for both entities.
3. Which of the following statements about a common-size balance sheet is true?

a. Each item on a common-size balance sheet is expressed as a
percentage of sales.
b. The common-size balance sheet reveals the composition of expenses
relative to revenues.
c. The common-size balance sheet reveals the capital and debt structure of
the firm.
d. Each item on a common-size balance sheet is expressed as a percentage of
net income.
4. What are current assets?

a. Assets purchased within the last year.
b. Assets which will be used within the next month.
c. Assets are the net working capital of the firm.
d. Assets expected to be converted into cash within one year or
operating cycle.
5. How are marketable securities valued on the balance sheet?
a. Historical cost.
b. At cost or fair value depending on how the securities are classified.
c. Market value.
d. At fair value with the difference between cost and fair value reported as
revenue.
6. What does the term “net realizable value” mean with regard to the accounts
receivable account?
a. The gross amounts owed by customers for credit purchases.
b. Total accounts receivable plus an amount estimated for bad debts.
c. The allowance for doubtful accounts less bad debt expense.
d. Actual amounts of accounts receivable less an allowance for doubtful
accounts.
7. Which of the following items would not be considered when analyzing accounts
receivable and allowance for doubtful accounts?
a. The relationship among changes in sales, accounts receivable and the
allowance for doubtful accounts.
b. A comparison of actual write-offs relative to amounts recognized as bad
debts.
c. The relationship between accounts receivable, inventory , and
accounts payable.
d. An analysis of the “Valuation and Qualifying Accounts” schedule
required in the Form 10-K.
8. The inventory of a retail company is comparable to which type of inventory of a

manufacturing company?
a. Finished goods.
b. Work in process.
c. Supplies.
d. Raw materials.
9. Which type of firm would carry little or no inventory?

a. A manufacturing firm.
b. A retail firm.
c. A service firm.
d. A wholesale firm.
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10. If a company chooses the LIFO method of inventory valuation, which

inventory will appear as ending inventory on the balance sheet?
a. The last inventory purchased.
b. The first inventory purchased.
c. An average of all inventory purchased.
d. The actual inventory which has not been sold.
Assume the following purchases of inventory for ABC Company and use this
information to answer questions 11through 13:
Purchase # Purchase Price

1 $3
2 $4
3 $5
4 $6
5 $7
11. Assume ABC sells two items and uses the FIFO method of inventory valuation.
What amount would appear in ending inventory on the balance sheet?
a. $7
b. $15
c. $18
d. $25
12. Assume ABC sells three items and uses the LIFO method of inventory
valuation. What amount would appear for cost of goods sold on the income
statement?
a. $18
b. $12
c. $15
d. $25
13. Assume ABC uses the average cost method of inventory valuation. What unit
cost would be used to determine the amount in ending inventory or cost of goods
sold?
a. $3
b. $5
c. $7
d. $25
14. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Land should be depreciated over the period of time it benefits the firm.
b. Accelerated depreciation must be used for financial reporting purposes.
c. Fixed assets are reported at historical cost plus accumulated depreciation.
d. The total amount of depreciation over the asset’s life is the same
regardless of depreciation method, although the rate of depreciation
varies.

a. Goodwill arises when one company acquires another company for a price
in excess of the fair market value of the net identifiable assets acquired.
b. Goodwill should be depreciated.
c. Goodwill must be evaluated annually to determine if there has been a loss
of value.
d. If the carrying value of goodwill exceeds the fair value, the excess book
value must be written off as an impairment expense.
16. Which of the following would cause the recognition of a liability?

a. Credit extended by suppliers.
b. Receipt of cash in advance for services.
c. Recognition of expense prior to the actual payment of cash.
d. All of the above.
17. Which items would be classified as liabilities?

a. Accounts payable, unearned revenue, pension liabilities.
b. Common stock, retained earnings, bonds payable.
c. Commitments and contingencies, additional paid-in capital, notes payable.
d. Deferred taxes, accrued expenses, treasury stock.
18. What causes the creation of a deferred tax account on the balance sheet?
a. Permanent differences in income tax accounting.
b. The use of the straight-line method of depreciation for both reporting and
tax purposes.
c. Temporary differences in the recognition of revenue and expense for
taxable income relative to reported income.
d. Municipal bond revenue and life insurance premiums on officers.
19. Which statement best describes the retained earnings account?
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a. The retained earnings account is equal to the cash account less dividends
paid.
b. Retained earnings are funds a company has chosen to reinvest in the
operations of a business rather than pay out to stockholders in
dividends.
c. Retained earnings represent unused cash of the firm.
d. The retained earnings account is the measurement of all distributed
earnings.
20. Which item would be included in the account "Accumulated other

comprehensive income (expense)"?
a. Treasury stock.
b. Preferred stock.
c. Foreign currency translation adjustments.
d. Additional paid-in capital.
How would each of the following items be classified on the balance sheet?
a. Current assets.
b. Long-term assets.
c. Current liabilities.
d. Long-term liabilities.
e. Stockholders' equity.
21. Accounts payable. (c)
22. Inventory. (a)
23. Additional paid-in capital. (e)
24. Bonds payable. (d)
25. Equipment. (b)
26. Marketable securities. (a)
27. Current maturities of long-term debt. (c)
28. Retained earnings. (e)

29. Accounts receivable. (a)
30. Accumulated depreciation. (b)
Short Answer/Problem
1. What is the balancing equation? Explain each of the components of the

equation and give examples of each component.
2. Using the following information analyze the accounts receivable and the
allowance for doubtful accounts for this company:
2011 2010
Sales $6,700 $7,500
Accounts receivable, net 202 320
Allowance for doubtful accounts 3 12
3. The following calculations have been made for Coos Company:
Growth Rate
Net sales 10.5%
Total accounts receivable 21.3%
Allowance for doubtful accounts 2.6%
Current Year Prior Year

Allowance for doubtful accounts as a
percentage of total accounts receivable 3.8% 5.4%
a. Analyze the accounts receivable and allowance for doubtful accounts.

b. What other information would be useful for the analysis completed in part a?
4. Using the following excerpts from the most recent annual report of Health
Supplements, Inc., a leading manufacturer of nutritional supplements, analyze the
accounts receivable and allowance for doubtful accounts. Be sure to show all
calculations and write a thorough interpretation of those calculations.
(dollars in thousands) 2011 2010

Net sales $97,128 $99,612
56
Accounts receivable - less allowance for doubtful accounts of

$ 5,264 $12,839
$20 at June 30, 2011 and $217 June 30, 2010
Concentrations of Credit Risk

Credit risk with respect to receivables is concentrated with our three largest
customers, whose receivable balances collectively represented 75% of gross
accounts receivable at June 30, 2011 and 79% at June 30, 2010. Concentrations of
credit risk related to the remaining accounts receivable balances are limited due to
the number of customers comprising our remaining customer base.
Health Supplements, Inc.
Valuation And Qualifying Accounts
For the Years Ended June 30, 2011, 2010 and 2009
Balance at Charged to Deductions Balance at

beginning of expenses end of period
period
Allowance for
doubtful accounts
2011 $217 ($41) ($156) $20
2010 $221 $57 ($61) $217
2009 $132 $101 ($12) $221
5. a. Explain how inventory is valued if the FIFO method is used.

b. Explain how inventory is valued if the LIFO method is used.
c. Why would a manager choose the FIFO method during an inflationary
period?
d. Why would a manager choose the LIFO method during an inflationary period?
6. If a firm chooses to use the FIFO method of inventory valuation instead of the
LIFO method, explain the impact of deflation on the amounts shown on the
balance sheet for inventory and on the income statement for cost of goods sold.
7. Using the following information calculate the ending inventory balance and the
cost of goods sold expense that would be reported at the end of the year if the
following inventory valuation methods are used:
a. FIFO

b. LIFO
c. Average cost
Units Purchase Price

Beginning inventory 8 $5
Purchase #1 10 $6
Purchase #2 14 $7
Purchase #3 12 $6
Sales 40
8. Using the following information calculate the ending inventory balance and the
cost of goods sold expense that would be reported at the end of the year if the
following inventory valuation methods are used:
a. FIFO
b. LIFO
c. Average cost
Units Purchase Price

Beginning inventory 20 $12
Purchase #1 100 $11
Purchase #2 85 $10
Purchase #3 90 $ 9
Sales 235
9. The Presto Company purchases equipment for $20,000. Management estimates

that the equipment will have a useful life of five years and no salvage value.
a. Calculate depreciation expense and the book value of the equipment at the end
of the first year using the straight-line method of depreciation.
b. Calculate depreciation expense and the book value at the end of the first year
using the double-declining balance method of depreciation.
10. Brown Co. purchased a piece of equipment last year for $500,000.
Management estimates that the equipment will have a useful life of five years and
no salvage value. The depreciation expense recorded for tax purposes will be
$120,000 this year (Year 2). The company uses the straight-line method of
depreciation for reporting purposes.
58
a. Calculate the amount of depreciation expense for reporting purposes this year
(Year 2).
b. What will be the net book value of the equipment reported on the balance sheet
at the end of this year (Year 2)?
c. Will a deferred tax asset or liability be created as a result of the depreciation
recorded for tax and financial reporting purposes?
d. What amount will be added to the deferred tax account as a result of the
depreciation timing difference?
11. InDebt Corporation has a $200,000 note outstanding with a 10% annual rate of
interest due in semiannual installments on March 31 and September 30. What
amount will be shown as accrued interest on a December 31 balance sheet?
12. Hoffman's Hotel has total revenue of $900,000; expenses other than
depreciation of $400,000; depreciation expense for tax purposes of $250,000; and
depreciation expense of $180,000 for reporting purposes. The tax rate is 35%.
Calculate net income for reporting purposes and tax purposes and also calculate the
deferred tax liability.
13. Write a short essay explaining the difference between an operating and a
capital lease.
14. Explain why the account titles "Commitments and Contingencies" appears on a
balance sheet without a corresponding dollar amount.
15. Brian's Building Company reported the following amounts on their financial
statements this year:
Total assets $56,000

Total liabilities $32,000
Net income $ 7,500
Beginning retained earnings $ 9,800
Ending retained earnings $10,400
a. Calculate total stockholders' equity.

b. Calculate the amount of dividends that were most likely paid this year.
16. StoreMart had the following balancing equation at the end of last year:
Assets = Liabilities + Stockholders’ Equity

$100,000=$65,000+ $35,000
During the year StoreMart increased assets by $20,000 and added debt in the
amount of $7,000. The only stockholders’ equity account that changed was
retained earnings. If no dividends were paid, how much net income was generated
this year?
17. Using the information below for Jumbo Corporation, calculate the amount of
dividends Jumbo most likely paid to common stockholders in 2010, 2011, and
2012.
Retained earnings balances Net income
January 1, 2010 $500
December 31, 2010 $760 2010 $450
December 31, 2011 $875 2011 $325
December 31, 2012 $950 2012 $240
18. Why would a firm repurchase their own shares of common stock?
19. The following list of balance sheet accounts with corresponding amounts is
available for Green Co. at the end of the year. Classify the accounts using the
following headings: current assets, long-term assets, current liabilities, long-term
liabilities, and stockholders' equity. (Hint: You can check your answer using the
balance sheet equation.)
Accounts payable 29 Cash 25

Short-term investments 22 Common stock 1
Deferred taxes, current 6 Treasury stock (4)
Property & Equip., net 67 Prepaid expenses 3
Accounts receivable 11 Inventories 13
Long-term debt 20 Add'l. paid-in capital 51
Current portion of long-
term debt 5 Retained earnings 45
20. Using the following balance sheet, prepare a common size balance sheet:
60
Assets Liabilities and stockholders' equity

Current assets Current liabilities
Cash 5 Accounts payable 29
Short-term investments 15 Current portion of
Accounts receivable 21 long-term debt 9
Inventory 23 Total current liabilities 38
Prepaid expenses 3 Long-term liabilities
Deferred taxes, current 6 Long-term debt 45
Total current assets 73 Total liabilities 83
Long-term assets Stockholders' equity

Property & equipment 67 Common stock and PIC 52
Goodwill 13 Retained earnings 25
Long-term investments 5
Other assets 2 Total stockholders' equity 77
Total assets 160 Total liabilities and equity 160
21. Analyze the following common size balance sheet:
2011 2010
Current assets:
Cash 3% 5%
Accounts receivable 20 18
Inventory 35 30
Total current assets 58% 53%
Property, plant and equipment 30 40

Other assets 12 7
Total assets 100% 100%
Current liabilities:
Accounts payable 25% 20%
Short-term debt 38 33
Total current liabilities 63% 53%
Long-term debt 22 17
Total liabilities 85% 70%
Common stock and paid in capital 14 20
Retained earnings 1 10
Total stockholders' equity 15% 30%
Total liabilities and stockholders' equity 100% 100%
62
Solutions - Chapter 2
True-False
1. T 6. T 11. T 16. F 21. T

2. F 7. F 12. T 17. T 22. F
3. F 8. T 13. F 18. T 23. F
4. T 9. F 14. T 19. T 24. T
5. F 10. T 15. T 20. F 25. T
Multiple Choice
1. d 6. d 11. c 16. d 21. c 26. a

2. a 7. c 12. a 17. a 22. a 27. c
3. c 8. a 13. b 18. c 23. e 28. e
4. d 9. c 14. d 19. b 24. d 29. a
5. b 10. b 15. b 20. c 25. b 30. b
1. The balancing equation is: Assets = Liabilities + Stockholders' Equity

Assets are items owned and are organized on the balance sheet according to how
they are utilized. Current assets are those assets expected to be converted into cash
within one year or operating cycle, whichever is longer. Examples include cash,
accounts receivable, inventory, and prepaid expenses. Assets not used up in the
ebb and flow of annual business operations include property, plant, and equipment,
intangible assets, and long-term investments.
Liabilities are what a firm owes to outsiders. Current liabilities are those debts due
within one year or operating cycle, whichever is longer and include accounts
payable, short-term notes payable, current maturities of long-term debt, accrued
liabilities, and unearned revenue. Liabilities due in more than one year include
long-term debt, capital lease obligations and pension and postretirement benefits.
Stockholders' equity represents the ownership interests in the company or the

residual interest in assets that remains after deducting liabilities. Examples of
stockholders' equity accounts include common stock, additional paid-in capital,
retained earnings, preferred stock, treasury stock, and accumulated other
comprehensive income.

2. 2011 2010
Allowance for doubtful accts.
Accts. Receivable + Allow. 1.5% 3.6%
Growth rates: Sales (10.7%)

Accts. Receivable (net) (36.9%)(A/R, gross, 38.3%)
Allowance for doubt. accts. (75.0%)
Sales for this company have decreased so it is expected that the accounts
receivable and allowance for doubtful accounts would also decrease. Accounts
receivable has decreased at a faster rate than sales while the allowance for doubtful
accounts has decreased at a faster rate than accounts receivable. The percentage of
estimated bad accounts has dropped by more than a percentage point relative to the
prior year. Possible explanations for this inconsistency could be:
1. the company has tightened its credit policy,

2. prior bad debt estimates were too high and the company is correcting
for this, or
3. management has intentionally reduced bad debts to report a higher net
income.
3. Sales, accounts receivable and the allowance for doubtful accounts have all
grown, but not proportionately. The allowance account increased only slightly, and
as a percentage of total accounts receivable, the allowance account has declined
from 5.4% to 3.8%. This is not a normal pattern. Possible explanations are that
management overestimated the account in prior years and is now correcting for
that overestimation; customers are not defaulting as anticipated and management is
adjusting the allowance account accordingly, or management is reducing the
allowance account in order to decrease bad debt expense and increase net income
in the current year.
Other information that would be useful to the analyst would be the valuation
schedule required by the SEC and any notes or information in the management's
discussion and analysis related to accounts receivable and bad debts.
4. 2011 2010
Allowance for doubtful accts.
Accts. Receivable + Allow. 0.4% 1.7%
Growth rates: Sales (2.5%)

64
Accts. Receivable (net) (59.0%)(A/R, gross, 59.5%)

Allowance for doubt. accts. (90.8%)
Health Supplements, Inc. experienced a minimal decrease in sales in 2011;

however, both the accounts receivable and allowance for doubtful accounts
dropped significantly. The estimated percentage of bad debt relative to total
accounts receivable has declined from 1.7% in 2010 to 0.4% in 2011, indicating
management is expecting to collect nearly all of their accounts receivable in the
future.
According to notes, Health Supplements, Inc. has three large customers that make
up 75% of accounts receivable at the end of 2011. This is risky for the firm as a
default by any one of those customers would be detrimental to the financial health
of the firm. If Health Supplements, Inc. has performed high quality credit checks
of the three largest customers and believe that there is little risk of default, then this
could explain the decline in the allowance for doubtful accounts.
On the other hand, looking at the valuation schedule offers a different picture. In
2009 the allowance account was more than adequate for the minimal bad debts the
firm actually wrote-off. In 2010 and 2011 actual write-offs increased each year by
408% and 156%, respectively. The current balance in the allowance account at the
end of 2011 is $20, while write-offs for that year totaled $156. It is suspicious that
the firm credited the bad debt expense account, which resulted in an increase to net
income for 2011, when actual bad debts are rising significantly each year. It is
possible that the firm intentionally understated the allowance account to make a
poor earnings year look better.
5. a. The FIFO method assumes the first units purchased are the first units sold
during an accounting period; therefore, the ending inventory would consist of the
last units purchased during that accounting period.
b. The LIFO method assumes that the items purchased last are the first sold;
therefore the ending inventory would consist of the first units purchased.
c. A manager may choose the FIFO method during a period of inflation in order to
report higher earnings. Since the first units purchased would be included in cost of
goods sold and they would be at lower relative prices, a higher earnings amount
will result.

d. A manager may choose the LIFO method during a period of inflation in order to
reduce taxes. Since the last units would be reported as cost of goods sold, they
would reflect higher costs, thus reducing reported earnings. Lower earnings results
in lower taxes and frees more cash for the firm.
6. During deflation costs of products are declining, therefore, the first goods
purchased or produced would be valued at higher costs than those goods purchased
or produced last. Firms using FIFO would have inventory values on the balance
sheet at lower amounts compared to inventory valued using the LIFO method since
the last goods purchased or produced would still be in inventory when using FIFO.
On the income statement the cost of goods sold using FIFO would have the higher
costs, relative to LIFO since the first goods are assumed to be sold first when using
FIFO.
7. Total units available for sale 44

Units sold 40
Units in ending inventory 4
Cost of units purchased:

8 units x $5 = $40
10 units x $6 = $60
14 units x $7 = $98
12 units x $6 = $72
44 units $270 (average cost = $6.14 per unit)
a. FIFO Ending inventory = 4 units x $6 = $ 24

Cost of goods sold expense = $246
b. LIFO Ending inventory = 4 units x $5 = $ 20

Cost of goods sold expense = $250
c. Average cost Ending inventory = 4 units x $6.14 = $ 24.56

Cost of goods sold expense = $245.44
8. Total units available for sale 295

Units sold 235
Units in ending inventory 60
66
Cost of units purchased:

20 units x $12 = $ 240
100 units x $11 = $1,100
85 units x $10 = $ 850
90 units x $ 9 = $ 810
295 units $3,000 (average cost = $10.17 per unit)
a. FIFO Ending inventory = 60 units x $9 = $ 540

Cost of goods sold expense = $2,460
b. LIFO Ending inventory = 20 units x $12 = $ 240

40 units x $11 = $ 440
$ 680
Cost of goods sold expense = $2,320
c. Average cost Ending inventory = 60 units x $10.17 = $ 610.20

Cost of goods sold expense = $2,389.80
9. a. $20,000 = $4,000 per year

5 years
Book value = $20,000 - $4,000 = $16,000
b. $20,000 x (2 x .20) = $8,000
Book value = $20,000 - $8,000 = $12,000
10. a. $500,000 = $100,000 per year

5 years
b. $500,000 – 100,000 – 100,000 = $300,000
c. Deferred tax liability.
d. $120,000 – 100,000 = $20,000
11. $200,000 x .10 x 3/12 = $5,000

12.
Tax Reporting
Revenue $900,000 $900,000
Expenses (650,000) (580,000)
Earnings before tax $250,000 $320,000
Tax expense ( .35) (87,500) (112,000)
Net income $ 162,500 $208,000
Deferred tax liability = $112,000 - $87,500 = $24,500
13. A capital lease occurs when the lease is in substance a purchase rather than a
lease. If a lease contract meets any one of four criteria—transfers ownership to the
lessee, contains a bargain purchase option, has a lease term of 75% or more of the
leased property’s economic life, or has minimum lease payments with a present
value of 90% or more of the property’s fair value—the lease must be capitalized by
the lessee according to the requirements of FASB. Leases not meeting one of the
four criteria are treated as operating leases.
Operating leases require the lessee to record rent expense when payments are
made on the lease. Even though there is a contractual obligation to make lease
payments under an operating lease, since GAAP does not require the lessee to
record a debt obligation on the balance sheet, the operating lease is referred to as
off-balance-sheet financing.
Capital leases affect both the balance sheet and the income statement.An asset
and a liability are recorded on the lessee’s balance sheet equal to the present value
of the lease payments to be made under the contract. The asset account reflects
what is, in essence, the purchase of an asset; and the liability is the obligation
incurred in financing the purchase. Each lease payment is apportioned partly to
reduce the outstanding liability and partly to interest expense. The asset account is
amortized with amortization expense recognized on the income statement, just as a
purchased asset would be depreciated.
Disclosures about operating and capital leases can be found in the notes to the
financial statements, often under both the property, plant, and equipment note and
the commitments and contingencies note.
14. This account is meant to draw the attention to the user that required
disclosures can be found in the notes to the financial statements. Commitments
refer to contractual agreements which will have a significant impact on the firm in
the future. Since the balance sheet does not report future information on the face,
68
the amounts of the future commitments are reported in the notes. Contingencies
refer to potential liabilities of the firm. Generally the firm cannot reasonably
predict the outcome and/or the amount of the future liability which is why no
amount is reported on the balance sheet.
15. a. Total stockholders' equity = $56,000 - $32,000 = $24,000
b. Dividends paid = $9,800 + $7,500 - $10,400 = $6,900
16. $120,000 = $72,000 + $35,000 + Net income

Net income = $13,000
17.
Beginning Ending retained
+ net income - dividends =
retained earnings earnings
2010 500 + 450 - 190 = 760

2011 760 + 325 - 210 = 875
2012 875 + 240 - 165 = 950
18. Firms often repurchase shares of their own stock for a variety of reasons that
include meeting requirements for employee stock option and retirement plans,
building shareholdings for potential merger needs, increasing earnings per share by
reducing the number of shares outstanding in order to build investor confidence,
preventing takeover attempts by reducing the number of shareholders, and as an
investment use of excess cash holdings.
19. Current assets Current liabilities

Cash 25 Accounts payable 29
Inventory 13 Total current liabilities 34
Total current assets 80 Total liabilities 54
Long-term assets
Property & equipment 67 Stockholders' equity
Common stock 1
Add'l. paid-in capital 51
Treasury stock (4)
Retained earnings 45
Total stockholders' equity 93
Total assets 147 Total liabilities and equity 147
20.
Assets Liabilities and stockholders' equity
Current assets Current liabilities
Cash 3% Accounts payable 18
Inventory 14 Total current liabilities 24%
Total current assets 46% Total liabilities 52%
Long-term assets Stockholders' equity

Property & equipment 42 Common stock and PIC 32
Goodwill 8 Retained earnings 16
Long-term investments 3
Other assets 1 Total stockholders' equity 48%
Total assets 100% Total liabilities and equity 100%
21. By looking at the common size balance sheet, one can see that there have been
structural changes in the components of the balance sheet equation. Cash and
fixed assets have decreased, while accounts receivable, inventory and other assets
have increased. The increase in the current assets could be a result of expansion;
however, this is not supported when looking at the decline in property, plant and
equipment. The company is using more debt, both current and long-term, which
has caused a significant decline in the equity accounts. It is possible that the firm
is operating at a loss given the large decline in retained earnings, although this may
be just a result of the mathematical change in the debt accounts relative to equity
accounts. The changes in the common size balance sheet warrant further
investigation of the actual dollars on the financial statements and a thorough
reading of the notes to the financial statement and the management discussion and
analysis.
70
Chapter 3
True-False
1. The terms income, earnings, and profit are used interchangeably.
TRUE
2. Earnings reported on the income statement is the same as cash generated during
the accounting period.
FALSE
3. A multiple-step income statement presents several intermediate profit measures.
TRUE
4. The common size income statement expresses each income statement item as a
percentage of net sales.
TRUE
5. In general, higher quality earnings result when sales volume increases and sales
prices increase with inflation.
TRUE
6. The FIFO method of inventory valuation generally results in the matching of

current costs and current revenues, especially during inflation.
FALSE
7. Gross profit is equal to net sales plus cost of goods sold.
FALSE
8. The gross profit margin and cost of goods sold percentage are complements of
each other and always add to 100%.
TRUE
9. If the cost of goods sold percentage increases, this means that the cost to
acquire products has increased.
FALSE
10. Sales volume changes in firms with high fixed costs will result in stable gross
profit margins.
FALSE
11. Selling and administrative expenses include such items as advertising, salaries,
and interest expense.
FALSE
12. The amount and trend of each operating expense should be evaluated as well
as its relationship to the volume of activity that is relevant to the expense.
TRUE
13. Impairment charges are the expenses recognized to record a decline in value of
a long-term asset.
TRUE
14. Gross profit margin does not impact operating profit margin.
FALSE
15. Operating profit measures the overall performance of the company's operations
separate from items that are not directly related to operations.
TRUE
16. Since other income or expense items are not part of daily operations there is no
need to analyze these accounts.
FALSE
72
17. The equity method of accounting should be used when the parent company
owns 100% of the voting stock in its subsidiaries.
FALSE
18. Use of the equity method somewhat distorts earnings in the sense that income
is recognized even though no cash may ever be received.
TRUE
19. The effective tax rate is calculated by dividing operating profit by income tax
expense.
FALSE
20. Users of financial statements need to distinguish between earnings increasing

due to core operations versus items such as tax rate deductions.
TRUE
21. Discontinued operations, extraordinary items, and gains or losses on sales of

plant assets are special items that must be disclosed separately on the income
statement.
FALSE
22. Earnings per common share is the net cash available to common stockholders
for each share of stock owned.
FALSE
23. Changes in the number of common stock shares outstanding will impact the
computation of earnings per share.
TRUE
24. Total comprehensive income must now be disclosed on the face of the income
statement.

FALSE
25. The statement of stockholders' equity details the transactions that affect all
balance sheet accounts during an accounting period.
FALSE
Multiple Choice
1. What can be found on an income statement?

a. Assets, revenues and expenses.
b. Revenues, expenses and net profit (loss).
c. Revenues, expenses, and stockholders' equity.
d. Assets, liabilities and stockholders' equity.
2. What are the two basic formats of the income statement?

a. Multiple-step and single-step.
b. Cash basis and single-step.
c. Accrual basis and single-step.
d. Accrual basis and multiple-step.
3. Which of the following is not an acceptable method to report total

comprehensive income?
a. On the face of the income statement.
b. In a separate statement of comprehensive income.
c. In the equity section of the balance sheet.
d. In the statement of stockholders' equity.
4. Why is the common-size income statement valuable to the analyst?

a. The common-size income statement shows the relative magnitude of
revenues and expenses to total assets.
b. The common-size income statement allows the analyst to compare the
firm to itself from year-to-year, but not to its competitors.
c. The common-size income statement shows the relative magnitude of
revenues and expenses relative to profits.
d. The common-size income statement shows the relative magnitude of
expenses relative to net sales.
5. What could be the cause of an increase in a firm's sales number?

74
a. The firm has decreased prices.

b. Fewer units of product have been sold.
c. The firm has increased prices and volume of sales.
d. The firm has decreased prices and volume of sales.

a. Only service companies report both cost of goods sold and gross profit.
b. Cost of goods sold is the largest expense item for many firms.
c. Cost of goods sold is not affected by the choice of inventory valuation
method.
d. Cost of goods sold equals gross profit.
7. Of what value is the calculation of gross profit margin?

a. The gross profit margin helps the analyst assess the capital structure of the
firm.
b. The gross profit margin allows the analyst to determine if the firm has
been affected by inflation.
c. The gross profit margin indicates the profitability of a firm after
considering all operating expenses.
d. The gross profit margin is the first step of profit measurement
indicating how much profit the firm generates after deducting cost of
goods sold.
8. When will volume changes cause volatility in the gross profit margin?
a. If cost of goods sold includes fixed costs which do not vary
proportionately with volume changes.
b. In industries with little capital.
c. In industries having no fixed costs.
d. If cost of goods sold includes costs that vary proportionately with volume
changes.
9. How should gross profit margin be analyzed for firms having more than one
revenue source?
a. The overall gross profit margin should be calculated for all revenue
sources.
b. Gross profit margin cannot be analyzed if a firm has multiple revenue
sources.

c. A separate gross profit margin for each revenue source should be
calculated.
d. The gross profit margins from each revenue source should be calculated
and then averaged.
10. Which items below would be classified as operating expenses?

a. Depreciation, capital leases, operating profit.
b. Interest expense, interest income, rent expense.
c. Accounts payable, lease payments, depreciation.
d. Advertising, selling and administrative, repairs and maintenance.

a. It is important to analyze operating expenses over which management
exercises discretion and that have considerable impact on the firm’s
profitability.
b. Impairment charges do not need to be analyzed since they are
generally a non-recurring expense.
c. Operating expenses should be tracked in terms of trends, absolute
amounts, relationship to sales, and relationship to industry competitors.
d. Operating expenses can be easily analyzed by preparing a common-size
income statement.
12. What is another term frequently used when referring to operating profit?
a. Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT).
b. Earnings before interest, taxes, depreciation and amortization (EBITDA).
c. Net profit.
d. Earnings before interest (EBI).
13. Which of the items below would be analyzed separate from operating profit?
a. Salaries, interest expense, equity losses.
b. Equity earnings, discontinued operations, interest income.
c. Research and development, dividend income, interest expense.
d. Advertising, cost of goods sold, selling and administrative expenses.

a. Equity earnings is an internal source of cash.
76
b. Equity earnings are recorded when investment ownership is over 50%.

c. Equity earnings may never result in the actual receipt of cash.
d. Equity earnings are recorded when investment ownership is 100%.
15. How is it possible for a U.S. firm to have an effective tax rate that is less than
the U.S. federal statutory tax rate?
a. The firm has expenses that are not deductible for tax purposes.
b. Tax rates in foreign countries where the firm operates are higher.
c. Tax rates in foreign countries where the firm operates are lower.
d. It is not possible for a firm to have an effective tax rate different from the
U.S. federal statutory tax rate.
16. How is a firm's average income tax rate calculated?

a. Income taxes divided by earnings before income taxes.
b. Income taxes divided by net income.
c. Income taxes divided by sales.
d. Income taxes divided by gross profit.
17. What is the required reporting for discontinued operations?

a. The results of discontinued operations should be reported as an
extraordinary item.
b. The gain or loss on the disposal should be reported in comprehensive
income.
c. The operating results of discontinued operations should be reported as
part of continuing operations and any gain or loss on disposal should be
disclosed separately from continuing operations.
d. The operating results of discontinued operations should be reported
separately from continuing operations and any gain or loss on disposal
should be also be disclosed separately from continuing operations.
18. What information can be found on a statement of shareholders' equity?

a. Details of assets and liabilities.
b. A reconciliation of beginning to ending cash..
c. Detail of changes in equity accounts.
d. Assets = Liabilities + Stockholders’ Equity.

Use the following information for Gray Co. to answer questions 19 and 20.
2011 2010
Sales 400 400
COGS 250 200
Operating expenses 80 70
Income taxes 22 40
19. Gray Co.'s gross profit, operating profit and net profit margins for 2011 are:
a. 50.0%, 32.5%, 22.5% respectively.
b. 37.5%, 17.5%, 12.0%, respectively.
c. 62.5%, 50.0%, 22.5%, respectively.
d. 62.5%, 17.5%, 12.0%, respectively.
20. Gray Co.'s average tax rates for 2011 and 2010 are:
a. 5.5% and 10.0%
b. 27.5% and 57.1%
c. 45.8% and 44.4%.
d. 31.4% and 30.8%.
In which section of the income statement should the following items be classified?
a. Net sales.
b. Operating expenses.
c. Other revenue/expense.
d. Special items.
21. Salaries expense. (b, Operating Expenses))
22. Revenues. (a, Net Sales)
23. Marketing expenses. (b, Operating Expense)
24. Discontinued operations. (d, Special Item)
25. Interest expense. (c, Other Revenue)
26. Interest income. (c, Other Revenue)
27. Sales returns. (a, Net Sales)
78
28. Extraordinary gain. (d, Special Items)
29. Depreciation expense. (b, Operating Expense)
30. Research and development. (b, Operating Expense)
1. Explain the differences between the multiple-step and single-step format of the
income statement. Which format is best for analysis? Why?
2. What items should the analyst assess when analyzing the trend of a firm's sales
number?
3. Explain what would cause the gross profit margin to increase or decrease in a
firm.
4. Discuss the importance of analyzing operating expense categories such as

repairs and maintenance, advertising, and research and development.
5. Explain the possible reasons for net profit margin to decrease if operating profit
margin is stable.
6. Explain how a firm should account for an investment in another firm's common
stock if the amount owned is:
a. 1 percent.
b. 35 percent.
c. 60 percent.
7. What would cause the basic earnings per common share amount to increase or
decrease?
8. What is comprehensive income?
9. Prepare a multiple-step income statement for ABC Company from the

following data:

Cost of goods sold $450
Interest expense 30
Depreciation expense 120
Net sales 990
Interest income 80
Income tax expense 70
Advertising expense 100
General and administrative expenses 150
10. Prepare an income statement using the following information:
Gross profit margin 42%

Cost of goods sold $5,800
Tax rate 30%
Operating profit $600
11. Using the following information prepare a common size income statement:
Net sales $1,000

Cost of goods sold 600
Gross profit $ 400
Selling expenses 120
Operating profit $ 30
Net profit $ 20
12. The following information is available for Brown Theater Company. Analyze
the gross profit margin making any calculations deemed necessary.
2012 2011 2010

Movie ticket sales $ 500 $ 450 $420
Concession sales 800 600 500
Total sales $1,300 $1,050 $920
Movie rental expense 480 400 380
Cost of concession products 350 300 280
Gross profit $ 470 $ 350 $260
13. Explain the possible causes of the trends in the following data:
Year 1 Year 2 Year 3

80
Gross profit margin 45% 41% 38%

Operating profit margin 12% 14% 15%
Net profit margin 5% 20% 8%
14. Use the following information to analyze the PQ Company. Calculate any
profit measures deemed necessary in order to discuss the profitability of the
company.
PQ Company Income Statements
For the Years Ended Dec. 31, 2012 and 2011
2012 2011
Net sales $174,000 $167,000
COGS 114,000 115,000
Gross profit $ 60,000 $ 52,000
General and administrative expenses 54,000 46,000
Operating profit $ 6,000 $ 6,000
Interest expense (1,000) (1,000)
Earnings before taxes $ 5,000 $ 5,000
Income taxes 2,000 2,000
Net income $ 3,000 $ 3,000
15. Bright Company purchased 20% of the voting common stock of Bulb
Company on January 1 and paid $400,000 for the investment. Bulb Company
reported earnings of $300,000 for the fiscal year ended December 31. Cash
dividends were paid during the year in the amount of $20,000.
a. Calculate the investment income and the ending balance in the investment
account on the balance sheet for Bright Company on December 31 using the cost
method.
b. Calculate the investment income and the ending balance in the investment
account on the balance sheet for Bright Company on December 31 using the equity
method.
16. Analyze the common size income statements below for Key Company:
(in percent) 2012 2011

Net sales 100 100
COGS 57 52
Gross margin 43 48
Research and development 5 8
Selling, general and administrative 21 27
Restructuring, asset impairments and other charges 1 1
Income/(loss) from operations 16 12
Interest expense (2) (1)
Income/(loss) before taxes 14 11
Provision for/(benefit from) income taxes 4 5
Net income/(loss) 10 6
17. Analyze the common size income statements below for Toby Company:
2012 2011
Net sales 100% 100%
COGS 54 63
Gross margin 46% 37%
Research and development 14 20
Selling, general and administrative 5 9
Restructuring, asset impairments and other charges 1 8
Income/(loss) from operations 26% 0%
Interest expense (1) (2)
Income/(loss) before taxes 25% (2%)
Provision for/(benefit from) income taxes 8 0
Net income/(loss) 17% (2)%
Sales growth 80%

Operating cost growth 31%
82
Solutions - Chapter 3
True-False
1. T 6. F 11. F 16. F 21. F

2. F 7. F 12. T 17. F 22. F
3. T 8. T 13. T 18. T 23. T
4. T 9. F 14. F 19. F 24. F
5. T 10. F 15. T 20. T 25. F
Multiple Choice
1. b 6. b 11. b 16. a 21. b 26. c

2. a 7. d 12. a 17. d 22. a 27. a
3. c 8. a 13. b 18. c 23. b 28. d
4. d 9. c 14. c 19. b 24. d 29. b
5. c 10. d 15. c 20. d 25. c 30. b
1. The single-step version of the income statement groups all revenues together
and then deducts all expenses to arrive at a net income figure. The multiple-step
income statement classifies revenues and expenses in such a way as to easily assess
the profitability of a firm. Four intermediate profit measures are included on the
income statement: gross profit, operating profit, earnings before income taxes and
net profit. The multiple-step format is best for analysis as each of the intermediate
profit measures helps explain specific items on the income statement.
Gross profit indicates how much profit the firm is generating after deducting the
cost of products sold. Operating profit measures the overall performance of the
company's operations apart from its financing and investing activities and separate
from tax considerations. Earnings before income taxes is the profit prior to the
deduction of income tax expense. Net profit is the firm's profit after consideration
of all revenue and expense reported during the accounting period.
2. The analyst should determine whether the increase or decrease in sales is a

result of price, volume, or a combination of both. Whether sales are growing in
real, as well as nominal terms should also be assessed. The analyst should adjust
the sales figure for inflation to compare the real or inflation-adjusted amount, to
the nominal, reported amount. Higher quality earnings are a result of volume
increases combined with price increases for inflation.
3. Gross profit margin will increase or decrease due to the following:
 Sales prices increase or decrease;

 Cost of goods sold decreases or increases; and/or
 Volume increases or decreases and cost of goods sold includes fixed costs.
4. Management exercises discretion over these operating expenses. Spending too

little or too much in these areas can impact the firm negatively. In capital intensive
industries it is important for management to properly maintain plant and
equipment. Expenditures in this area should correspond to the level of investment
in capital equipment and to the age and condition of the assets. Poorly maintained
equipment will result in waste and lost time. Advertising is critical for certain types
of industries. For example, firms operating in the beverage industry generally gain
market share through extensive advertising. High-technology and pharmaceutical
firms would cease to exist if they did not spend a certain amount on research and
development. These industries depend on developing new products each year.
5. Interest and income tax expenses could be higher. Interest income could be
lower. The firm may have experienced losses from the sale of assets, discontinued
operations, or extraordinary losses.
6. a. A one percent investment would be accounted for under short-term

marketable securities using the cost method and recognizing investment income
only to the extent of any cash dividends received.
b. A 35 percent investment would most likely be accounted for by using the equity
method of accounting and recognizing a proportionate share of the investee's net
income.
c. A 60 percent investment would be accounted for by preparing consolidated

financial statements with related disclosures in the notes to the financial
statements.
7. Basic earnings per common share will increase (decrease) if net earnings
increases (decreases) or if the number of common shares outstanding decreases
(increases). Changes in the number of common shares outstanding result from such
transactions as treasury stock purchases, the purchase and retirement of a firm’s
own common stock, stock splits, and reverse stock splits.
84
8. Comprehensive income includes all revenues, expenses, gains, and losses

recognized during an accounting period, regardless of whether they are the results
of operations. Comprehensive income is comprised of four items not included
directlyon the income statement: foreign currency translation effects, unrealized
gains and losses, additional pension liabilities, and cash flow hedges.
9. ABC Company
Income Statement
Net sales $990

Gross profit $540
Depreciation expense 120
Advertising expense 100
Operating profit $170
Interest income 80
Interest expense (30)
Earnings before taxes $220
Net profit $150
10. Net sales $10,000

Cost of goods sold 5,800
Gross profit 4,200
Operating expenses 3,600
Operating profit 600
Net profit $420
11. Net sales 100%

Gross profit 40%
Selling expenses 12
Operating profit 3%
Net profit 2%

12. 2012 2011 2010
Overall gross profit margin 36.2% 33.3% 28.3%
Gross profit margin of:
Movie tickets 4.0% 11.1% 9.5%
Concessions 56.2% 50.0% 44.0%
The gross profit margin of Brown Theater Company has been increasing
significantly. This is a result of mainly concession sales rather than movie ticket
sales. In 2012 movie ticket gross profit fell significantly while concession gross
profit increased. Movie ticket prices have decreased (an unlikely scenario) or the
cost of movies has increased without a corresponding increase to the ticket price.
Either prices have been increased on concession products or the costs of
purchasing concessions have declined without a corresponding decrease in price.
13. Gross profit margin is declining significantly. This could be a result of a

decrease in prices caused by competition, deflation, or slow-moving goods that
have been discounted. Another possibility is that the prices have remained the
same, but the cost of goods has increased and the firm has been unable to pass
along the increases to customers.
Operating profit margin has increased each year despite the decreasing gross profit
margin. The firm has been able to cut operating costs. Hopefully this has been
achieved by cutting waste and not by cutting discretionary expenses such as
advertising, repairs and maintenance and research and development. Cutting
necessary discretionary expenses may negatively impact the firm's sales in future
years.
Net profit margin has been volatile. The large increase in Year 2 appears to be the
result of a one-time, nonrecurring item. Excluding this item, net profits have
increased more than operating profits. This could be a result of decreasing interest
expense, decreasing taxes, an increase in interest income or other miscellaneous
revenue, or a decrease in miscellaneous expenses.
14. 2012 2011

Cost of goods sold percentage 65.5% 68.9%
Gross profit margin 34.5% 31.1%
G&A/Net sales 31.0% 27.5%
Operating profit margin 3.4% 3.6%
Effective tax rate 40.0% 40.0%
Net profit margin 1.7% 1.8%
86
Management has improved control of COGS. Either prices of the products have
been increased or the management has been able to reduce cost of goods sold.
This has resulted in a more favorable gross profit. Unfortunately general and
administrative expenses have not been controlled well. While gross profit
improved by 3.4%, the increases in other operating expenses totaled 3.5%,
resulting in a drop in operating profit margin. Taxes and interest remained
unchanged. Management should focus on reducing the other operating expenses in
the future.
15.
Investment Income Investment Account
(a) Cost method $4,000* $400,000
(b) Equity method $60,000 ** $456,000***
* $20,000 cash dividends x 20%

** $300,000 earnings x 20%
*** $400,000 + $60,000 - $4,000
16. Gross profit margin has declined five percent from 2011 to 2012. Either
selling prices have declined and/or cost of goods sold have increased. If there are
fixed costs within the cost of goods sold category then a decline in volume of sales
may be responsible for the large drop in gross profit margin.
Operating profit margin has increased, despite the decrease in gross profit margin.
It appears Key Company has compensated for the drop in gross profit by cutting
costs in research and development and selling, general and administrative
expenses. Reducing waste in these areas would constitute a beneficial cut;
however, if these areas have been cut only for the purpose of increasing earnings,
this could be highly detrimental to the long-term success of the firm. Investment in
research and development is critical to creating innovative products in order to
remain competitive and increase sales. Cuts in advertising may result in lower
sales. If layoffs have been used to reduce operating expenses, lower morale in the
work force may result in lower quality of products and lower sales.
Net profit has increased as a result of the increased operating profit. Interest
expense has risen slightly which implies higher debt or higher interest rates.
Income tax expense is lower and has offset the increase in interest expense.
17. From 2012 to 2011 sales growth increased significantly while operating costs
increased at less than half the sales growth rate for Toby Company. The increase in
gross profit margin could be a result of higher selling prices, lower cost of goods
sold, or economies of scale as a result of large fixed costs such as equipment and
buildings used to make the products.
Operating profit follows the same pattern as gross profit, increasing significantly in
2012. The percentage figures are skewed in 2012 due to the large increases in the
sales numbers. In raw dollars, research and development, selling, general and
administrative costs have probably not decreased or have not decreased as much as
the common size percentages indicate. In 2011, it appears Toby Company
undertook a major restructuring, causing operating profit to be zero, but improving
the profitability of the company immensely in 2012. These charges should be a
one-time, nonrecurring event.
Net profit margin has followed the same trend as operating profit margin for the
same reasons. The loss in 2011 was a result of interest expense which declined in
2012 probably as a result of the firm being able to reduce debt levels.
88

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Overview of Financial Statement Analysis

Multiple Choice Questions

company's business plan or strategy?

B. Management discussion and analysis

2. Which of the following would not be considered a source of financing?

B. Common stockholders' equity

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Dividend payout ratio for 2005 was:

4. If a company receives an unqualified audit opinion it means the auditors:

financial performance and position.

fraudulent accounting and fairly indicate future performance.

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A. is required by the SEC.

B. is optional but normally included in the annual report.

significant uncertainty concerning liquidity of the company.

D. is required by the SEC only if they have a qualified audit opinion.

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A. Random walk analysis

C. Common size statement analysis

D. Trend series analysis

9. A common size income statement would typically be prepared by dividing:

C. all items on income statement in Year t by net income in Year t-1.

D. all items on income statement in Year t by sales in Year t.

10. When conducting comparative analysis by reviewing consecutive balance sheets,

t-1 and subtract 1.

D. Both A and B are correct.

2004 as the base year. Below are selected data.

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A. rate of sales growth has decreased.

B. net income to sales (return on sales) is increasing over time.

C. asset turnover is decreasing over time.

D. None of the above

12. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A. Net Income in 2006 increased by 28% compared to 2004.

D. Assets have increased over time.

of the following would be the best indicator of relative profitability?

A. Highest net income

B. Highest retained earnings

C. Highest return on equity

D. Highest operating margin

14. Which of the following statements concerning financial ratios is incorrect?

B. The informational value of a ratio in isolation is limited.

C. A ratio is one number expressed as a percentage or fraction of another number.

A. Acid test ratio

C. Days to collect receivables

D. Days goodwill held

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A. the ability of a company to pay its employees in a timely manner.

B. the ability to pay interest and principal on all debt.

C. the ability to pay dividends.

D. the ability to pay current liabilities.

Following is some financial information for Dell Inc.

17. What is Dell's profit margin for 2005?

18. What is Dell's profit margin for 2006?

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20. What is Dell's asset turnover for 2006?

(pick closest number).