1 1200k Criminalistics Q A

CRIMINALISTICS
1. __________ are tiny portions or is a hill-like structure found on the epidermis of friction skin
containing sweat, with pores appearing as black lines in a fingerprint impression.
a. Imaginary Lines c. Black Lines
b. Furrows d. Ridges
2. What is that downward slope of the ridges above the core formed from the direction of the
thumb towards the little finger?
a. Accidental Whorl c. Ulnar loop
b. Central Pocket loop whorl d. Loop
3. He published nine (9) fingerprint patterns but he made no mention of the value of
fingerprints for personal identification.
a. John Evangelist Purkinje c. Malpighi
b. Francis Galton d. J.C.A. Mayer
4. What is that two innermost ridges running parallel with each other and diverging at a
certain point surrounding the pattern area?
a. Pattern Area c. Convergence
b. Divergence d. Type lines
5. What are those that are sometimes referred to as papillary or epidermal ridges?
a. Latent ridges c. Dermal Ridges
b. Friction Ridges d. Fingerprints
6. When the innermost sufficient recurve contains no ending ridge or rod rising as high as the
shoulder of the loop, the Core is placed on the shoulder of the loop farther from the Delta.
a. True c. Partially True
b. False d. Partially false
7. The inner layer of the skin is known as
a. Dermis c. Scarf
b. Epidermis d. Pores
8. What is that portion of the fingerprint bounded by the type lines where the characteristics
needed for interpretation/classification is found?
a. Double Lines c. Ridges
b. Loops d. Pattern Area
9. He discovered the three families of fingerprint patterns.
a. Govard Bidloo c. J.C.A. Mayer
b. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi d. Francis Galton
10. A single ridge which divide into two or more ridges.
a. Type lines c. Core
b. Bifurcation d. Pattern Area
11. It appears after the sub-secondary classification at the extreme right portion of the
classification formula.
a. Secondary Classification c. Primary Classification
b. Key Classification d. Final Classification
12. Complete this adage, “The neighboring fingers of the same person have never been found to
be________________.”
a. Similar in all respects
b. Different in some respects
c. Different in every respects
d. Exactly identical in all respects
13. Which of the following is a type of secondary classification?
a. By slant line to the left c. By slant line to the right
b. All of these d. By small letter
14. What type of classification takes into consideration only the loop type starting from the right
thumb (the first loop appearing in the set of prints on a fingerprint card)?
a. Secondary Classification c. Final Classification
b. Primary Classification d. Key Classification
15. What is that epidermal hairless skin found on the lower surface of the hands and feet
covered with minute ridges?
a. Polydactyl skin c. Epidermis
b. Friction Skin d. Flexure line
16. What do you call the inner terminus or focal point located at the center or the approximate
center of the pattern area?
a. Center c. Core
b. Delta d. Open Delta
17. He used his own thumb print on a document to prevent forgery. This is the first known use
of fingerprints in the United States.
a. Bertillon c. Thompson
b. Francis Galton d. Bidloo
18. It is the ridge count of the loop and the whorl in the little finger of both hands.
19. What fingerprint pattern does not have ridge count?
a. Whorls c. Radial loop
b. Arches d. Ulnar Loop
20. Two ridges running parallel or nearly parallel to each other which separate in an opposite
direction.
a. Delta b. Core
CRIMINALISTICS
c. Divergence d. Convergence
21. Which of the following is also called “delta” in fingerprint identification?
a. Lower ridge c. Outer terminus
b. Inner terminus d. Enclosures
22. He published a 41-pages book entitled “The Origin of Fingerprint” which describes his
research starting in 1858 when he practiced actual recording of the finger and palm prints of
India.
b. Sir William Herschel d. Francis Galton
23. What patterns do not have numerical value for purposes of primary classification?
a. Plain whorl loops
b. Accidental Whorl and arches
c. Double loop whorl and arches
d. Loops and Arches
24. What classification takes into consideration the thumbs of both hands (ridge tracing for
whorl type and ridge counting for loop type)?
a. Key classification
b. Final classification
c. Major Classification
d. Sub-Secondary Classification
25. What is the spreading apart of two lines which have been running parallel or nearly parallel?
a. Bifurcation c. Appendage
b. Convergence d. Divergence
26. What type of pattern possesses am angle, an up thrust, or two of the three basic
characteristics of the loop?
a. Tented arch c. Plain Arch
b. Double Loop d. Central Pocket Loop
27. He discovered the outer and inner layer of the skin.
28. What corresponds to the study of the palms of the hands?
a. Plantar c. Furrows
b. Palmar d. Chiroscopic
29. What are the canals of depression found between ridges called?
a. Dents c. Furrows
b. Pores d. Indentions
30. What is the act of counting the ridges which intervene between the core and delta of a loop?
a. Divergence c. Ridge Counting
b. Ridge Tracking d. Ridge Tracing
31. He is an argentine Police Official who began the first fingerprint files based on Galton
pattern types.
a. Mark Twains c. Thomson
b. Juan Vucetich d. Galton
32. What pattern type has ridges that enter on one side of the pattern and flow towards the
other side with a rise in the center?
a. Vaulted arch loop c. Tented Arch
b. Loop d. Plain Arch
33. The Introduction of the coloring pigment in the human skin as a form of identification is
known as-
a. Scarcification
b. Anthropometry
c. Tattoo
d. Photography
34. The configuration and details of individual ridges remain constant and unchanging. This is
the principle of ___________.
a. Principle of Individuality c. Principle of Infallibility
b. Principle of Permanency d. Principle of Constancy
35. He published an article entitled” On the Skin Furrows of the Hand”. In this article he points
out his observation that chance prints left at the scene of the crime would provide for
positive identification of offenders when apprehended.
b. Henry Faulds d. Francis Galton
36. It represents all fingerprint patterns that appear in the Index finger of both hands. It must
be written in capital letter.
a. Second Secondary Classification
b. First Secondary Classification
c. Second Sub-Secondary Classification
d. Third Secondary Classification
37. How many ridge counts must a pattern have, to be a loop?
a. 2 c. 1
b. 5 d. 10
38. The outer Layer of the skin is known as
a. Dermis c. Scarf
b. Pores d. Epidermis
CRIMINALISTICS
39. He published a book which was an atlas of anatomical illustrations of fingerprint.
a. Malphighi c. J.C.A. Mayer
b. Francis Galton d. Henry Faulds
40. He is credited as the first scientist of Friction Skin Identification as well as his role in
promoting its use.
41. What is the scientific name of fingerprint identification?
a. Dactyloscopy c. Poroscopy
b. Flouroscopy d. Palmistry
42. The core and delta are also termed as
a. Focal Points c. Pattern Area
b. Inner Terminus d. Outer Ridges
43. What is the Latin word for finger?
a. Dermis c. Digitus
b. Dermal d. Dactyl
44. A system of identification based on the measurements of the various bony structure of the
human body.
a. Tattoo c. Anthropometry
b. Portrait Parle d. Photography
45. How many standard fingerprint patterns are there?
a. 12 c. 8
b. 9 d. 10
46. He is the father of fingerprint science.
a. Vucetich
b. John Evangelist Purkenji
c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
d. Hans Gross
47. What are the little openings on the skin from where sweat is excreted?
a. Ridges c. Pores
b. Whorl d. Loop
48. What ridge divides itself into two or more branches that meet to form the original figure?
a. Island Ridge c. Eyelet
b. Lake Ridge d. All of the foregoing
49. What is an attempt at character reading through the patterns of fingerprints?
a. Dactylography c. Dactylomancy
b. Dcatyloscopy d. Dactylo-analysis
50. He undertook in 1856 an experiment by printing his right palm to prove himself if the ridges
change. By 1897, forty one years later, he again printed his right palm. Though taken two
scores apart, it proved that the ridge characteristics do not change.
a. John Evangelist Purkinje c. William Herscel
b. Herman Welcker d. Francis Galton
51. The inner terminus of the finger print pattern.
a. Delta c. Ridges
b. Core d. Pores
52. The Secondary Classification of the Thumb, Middle, Ring and Little fingers must be written
in small letters.
b. False d. Partially False
53. There are three (3) principles of Fingerprint science. Which among the following is not
included?
b. Principle of Permanency d. Principle of Uniqueness
54. He is a notorious gangster and a police character who attempted to erase his fingerprint by
burning it with acid.
a. Locard c. Will West
b. William West d. John Dillinger
55. What objects appear as tiny black lines with tiny white dots (called pores) in an inked finger
impression?
a. Pores c. Furrows
b. Sweat d. Ridges
56. What do you call the separating or spreading apart of two ridges that were previously
running side by side?
a. Disjunction c. Convergence
b. Divergence d. Looping
57. What kind of pattern has two deltas in which at least one ridge makes a turn through one
complete circuit?
a. Loop c. Arch
b. Accidental Whorl d. Plain whorl
58. What is the scientific examination of the prints of the soles of the feet?
a. Podoscopy c. Chiroscopy
b. Horoscopy d. Flouroscopy
CRIMINALISTICS
59. When the innermost sufficient recurve contains an uneven number of rods rising as high as
the shoulders of the loop, the core is placed upon the end of the center rod whether it
touches the looping ridge or not.
60. Fingerprint pattern are ______, as all fingerprint experts agree.
a. Always inherited
b. Sometimes inherited
c. Inherited as mendelian characteristics
d. Never Inherited
61. It is done by cutting on various parts of the body and leaving scars to form elaborate
designs.
a. Tattoo c. Personal Description
b. Scarcification d. Anthropometry
62. A system of identification based on the measurements of the varioys bony structure of the
human body.
a. Tattoo c. Personal Description
b. Scarcification d. Anthropometry
63. Fingerprints offer an _______ means of personal identification
a. Infallible c. Dependable
b. Reliable d. All of these
64. No two fingerprints have ever been found alike in many billion of human and automated
computer comparisons.
a. The statement is true c. Possibly True
b. The statement is false d. Possibly false
65. The first forensic professional organization is
a. DNA c. FBI
b. IAI d. NBI
66. When there are two or more possible Delta which conform to the definition, the one nearest
to the core is chosen.
a. True c. Partially true
67. The Delta is placed upon or within the innermost sufficient recurve.
68. Other visible human characteristics change-fingerprint do no.
a. True c. Probably true
b. False d. Probably false
69. He devised the anthropometric system of identification.
a. Alphonse Bertlillon c. Will West
b. Alphense Bertillion d. William West
70. In his “Philosophical Transaction”, he presented his observation on the appearance of the
ridges on the fingers and palms.
a. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi c. Sir Francis Galton
b. Govard Bidloo d. Dr. Nehemiah Grew
71. Govard Biloo presented the appearance and arrangement of the ridges on a thumb in his
thesis entitled-
a. De externo Tactus Organo c. Anatomia Humanis Corporis
b. Philosophical Transaction d. None of these
72. He described the ridges found on the palmar surface of the hand and the pores which served
as the mouth of the sweat glands.
a. J.C.A. Mayer c. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi
b. Herman Welcker d. Govard Bidloo
73. He is the father of Criminalistic.
a. Dr. Marcelo Malpighi c. Sir Francis Galton
b. Govard Bidloo d. Hans Gross
74. It is the approximate center of a fingerprint pattern usually found in loops and whorls.
a. Delta c. Type line
b. Core d. Bifurcation
75. When there is a choice between a bifurcation and another type of delta, the bifurcation is
selected.
a. True c. Maybe
b. False d. Partially True
76. It is the reproduction on some smooth surfaces of the pattern or design formed by ridges on
the inside of the end joint of the fingers and thumb.
a. Ridges c. Fingerprint
b. Pores d. DNA
77. This principle states that there are no two fingerprints which are exactly alike.
b. Principle of Permanency d. Principle of Constancy
78. Damage to the dermis will not result to permanent ridge destruction.
a. True c. Possibly True
b. False d. Possibly False
79. There are ________ families of finger print pattern.
CRIMINALISTICS
a. Two c. Eight
b. Three d. Four
80. This are raised strips of the skin on the inside of the end joint of our fingers and thumbs by
which fingerprints are made.
a. Papillary Ridges c. Epidermal Ridges
b. Friction Ridges d. All of these
81. The following are families of fingerprint pattern except-
a. Whorl c. Arch
b. Loop d. Accidental
82. Can fingerprint be erased?
a. Yes c. Maybe
b. No d. I don‟t Know
83. The outer terminus in the pattern area.
a. Delta c. Bifurcation
b. Core d. Ridges
84. In loop the ridges are usually circular.
85. The science of palm print identification.
a. Dactyloscopy c. Chiroscopy
b. Dactylography d. Podoscopy
86. The symbol for accidental whorl is
a. Z c. C
b. X d. D
87. It is that part of a loop or whorl in which the core and delta appear which we are concerned
in the classification process.
a. Type lines c. Bifurcation
b. Pattern Area d. Delta
88. There are five (5) types of pattern in the Whorl Family.
89. The upper ten impressions in the fingerprint card are taken individually. These are referred
to as the ___________.
a. Rolled impression c. Slapped Impression
b. Plain Impression d. Flat Impression
90. These are the innermost ridges running parallel or nearly parallel to each other which
diverge and surround or tend to surround the pattern area.
a. Bifurcation c. Pattern Area
b. Type Lines d. Core
91. This is the impressions at the bottom of the card that are taken simultaneously without
rolling, printing all of the fingers of each hand at a forty-five degree angle and then the
thumbs.
a. Rolled Impression c. Flat Impression
b. Slapped Impression d. B & C
92. In taking fingerprints, the technician must encourage the subject being fingerprinted to
relax.
93. The symbol for radial loop is-
a. RL c. U
b. R d. UL
94. The outer terminus of a fingerprint pattern usually found in loops and whorls.
a. Core c. Ridges
b. Delta d. Type lines
95. The delta must be located in from of the point of divergence of the two type lines which open
towards the Delta.
a. True c. Possibly True
b. False d. Possibly False
96. In this pattern, the ridges enter from either side, re-curve and pass out or tend to pass out
the same side they entered.
a. Loop c. Arch
b. Whorl d. Tented Arch
97. In order to take advantage of the natural movement of the forearm, the hand should be
rotated from the more difficult position to the easiest position.
98. It is a type of fingerprint pattern which possesses either an angle or up thrust, or two of the
three basic characteristics of the loop.
a. Plain Arch c. Ulnar Loop
b. Tented Arch d. Radial Loop
99. It is the Ridge counting of a Loop pattern that appears in the Index, Middle and Ring fingers
of both hands.
a. Key Classification c. Final Classification
b. Major Classification
CRIMINALISTICS
d. Sub-Secondary Classification
100. It refers to a bone condition wherein the finger joints cannot be bent.
a. Ankylosis c. Calcar
b. Chiroscopy d. Webb Finger
101. What is written between the Final Classification and the Secondary Classification?
a. Key Classification c. Sub-Secondary
b. Major Classification Classification
d. Primary Classification
102. If the ridge counting of a loop in the Index finger is eleven (11), what must be the symbol
for purposes of the Sub-Secondary classification?
a. I c. O
b. M d. L
103. It represents only about five (5) percent of the fingerprint patterns encountered.
a. Loop c. Whorl
b. Arches d. None of these
104. It is a biometric Identification Methodology that uses digital imaging technology to obtain,
store, and analyze fingerprint data.
a. AFIS c. Digital Imaging System
b. Automated Fingerprint d. Both A & B
Identification System
105. It refers to a single ending ridge in the center f a recurving ridge of a loop.
a. Appendage c. Rod
b. Bar d. Both B & C
106. It is a single ridge, which divides or forks into two ridges.
a. Converging Ridge c. Dissociated Ridge
b. Bifurcating Ridge d. None of these
107. It refers to the insertion on a fingerprint card the results of the interpretation of all ten
patterns. Represented by letters, symbols or numbers on the card required for each of the
rolled prints.
a. Blocking Out c. Ridge tracing
b. Ridge counting d. None of these
108. The heart or the innermost center of a pattern.
a. Delta c. Pattern area
b. Core d. Type line
109. It refers to the appearance of extra fingers as anatomically known.
a. Poroscopy c. Polydactylism
b. Anyklosis d. Extra finger
110. It is the process of counting ridges that cross or touch an imaginary line drawn between
the delta and core of a loop.
a. Ridge counting c. Ridge Ending
b. Ridge tracing d. None of these
111. It refers to the process of charting the ridge that originates from the lower side of the left
delta toward the right delta to see where it flows in relation to the right delta.
a. Ridge counting c. Ridge ending
b. Ridge Tracing d. Short Ridge
112. A type of fingerprint pattern in which the ridges run its direction to the radius or to the
thumb.
a. Radial Bone c. Ulnar Loop
b. Radial Loop d. Arch
113. For purposes of the Primary Classification, the Right Index and Left Middle are intended
as Numerator.
114. It constitutes approximately 65% of all fingerprint patterns.
a. Arch c. Whorl
b. Loop d. None of these
115. The arch and loop patterns are not included in the Primary Classification.
116. It consists of one or more ridges which makes a complete circuit with two deltas.
a. Central Pocket Loop c. Double Loop Whorl
b. Plain Whorl d. Accidental whorl
117. It consists of two separate loop formations with two separate and distinct sets of
shoulders, and two (2) deltas.
a. Central Pocket Loop Whorl c. Double Loop Whorl
b. Accidental Whorl d. Plain Whorl
118. It is a kind of fingerprint pattern consisting of two (2) different types of pattern with the
exception of the plain arch.
a. Central Pocket Loop Whorl c. Double Loop Whorl
b. Accidental Whorl d. Plain Whorl
119. There are _____ types of impressions involved in taking fingerprints.
a. 3 c. 2
b. 4 d. 1
120. Plain impressions are printed last at the bottom of the card.
CRIMINALISTICS
121. If the individual has a bandage or cast of a finger, thumb or hand, place the notation,
“Cannot be Printed” or CP in the appropriate finger block.
122. If an individual has more than ten fingers, the thumbs and the next four fingers and the
extra finger should be printed.
123. There are four (4) steps in the Finger print Classification. Which among the following is
not included?
a. Recording c. Blocking
b. Interpretation d. Pairing
124. The Classification formula is written horizontally on the fingerprint card. It is consists of
six (6) classification.
125. It is the sum total of all numerical values of Whorls in a set of finger plus (+) a fraction of
over 1.
126. It is the process of writing the symbols of the corresponding patterns on the space
provided in the fingerprint cards.
a. Pairing c. Tracing
b. Blocking d. Interpretation
127. It is the process of assigning Numerical Values for Whorl patterns.
a. Pairing and Assigning of Numbers
b. Blocking of numbers
c. Tracing of numbers
d. Interpretation
128. The numerical value of the right thumb and right index for purposes of primary
classification is-
a. 16 c. 4
b. 8 d. 2
129. The following patterns belong to the Non-Numerical Group except-
a. Tented Arch c. Plain Whorl
b. Plain Arch d. Radial Loop
130. If the Ridge count of the Ring finger is 16, what is the symbol for purposes of the Sub-
Secondary Classification?
a. I c. M
b. O d. L
131. Ridge tracing applies to__________ pattern.
a. Loop c. Whorl
b. Arch d. None of these
132. What is written between the Key Classification and the Primary Classification?
a. Secondary Classification c. Major Classification
133. This classification is concerns with the THUMB of both hands. It is the Ridge of both
thumbs.
134. It is the ridge count of the loop appearing on the set of prints on the fingerprint card.
135. It refers to a fingerprint pattern wherein the ridges flow from one side to the other without
recurving and make a rise at the center.
a. Plain Arch
b. Tented Arch
c. Plain whorl
d. Plain Loop
CRIMINALISTICS
136. It is the process of reduction in which exposed silver halides are reduced into metallic silver.
a. Development c. Reduction
b. Printing d. Crop
137. An intermediate bath between the developer and the fixer. It is usually a combination of water
plus acetic acid or just plain water. It function is to prevent the contamination of two chemicals.
a. Stop Bath c. Development
b. Fixation d. Reduction
138. It is the process of removing unexposed silver halide remaining in the emulsion after the first
stage of development of the latent image.
a. Stop Bath c. Development
b. Fixation d. Reduction
139. It is a Reducer or developing agent
a. Elon c. Sodium Sulfite
b. Hydroquinone d. A or B
140. It is use as preservative in the Development process.
a. Sodium Sulfite c. Potassium Bromide
b. Hydroquinone d. Sodium Carbonate
141. It is use as accelerator in the chemical processes.
a. Sodium Carbonate c. Potassium bromide
b. Hydroquinone d. Sodium Bromide
142. It is a Dissolving agent in the fixer solution.
a. Hypo/Sodium thiasulphate c. Potassium Bromide
b. Hydroquinone d. Sodium Bromide
143. Which among the following chemical is use as neutralizer?
a. Boric Acid c. Potassium Alum
b. Acetic Acid d. A or B
144. Which of the following is use as Hardener in the fixing solution?
a. Potassium Alum
b. Boric Acid
c. Acetic Acid
d. Potassium Alum
145. It is a picture of small object taken through a microscope and generally has a magnification of
more than 50 times.
a. Photomicrography c. Infra- Red Photography
b. Photomacrography d. Ultra-violet Photography
146. This is sensitive to ultraviolet and blue light only.

a. Panchromatic c. Infra-red
b. Orthochromatic d. X-ray
147. It is sensitive to all colors particularly red and red light.
a. Panchromatic c. Infra-red
b. Orthochromatic d. X-ray
148. It is placed between the emulsion and the plastic base of a film to prevent whatever light that
passed through the emulsion and reflected by the base back to the emulsion which forms a halo
effect.
a. Base c. Anti-halation Backing
b. Emulsion d. Spectral Sensitivity
149. What is the equivalent of ASA 25 in DIN Rating?
a. DIN 18 c. DIN 30
b. DIN 15 d. DIN 33
150. It is given to negative or non-reversal film.
a. Color d. Bromide
b. Chrome
c. Chloride
151. It has a slow speed and it is suited for contact printing.
a. Chloride Paper c. Chloro-Bromide paper
b. Bromide Paper d. Exposure Latitude
152. It consists of crystals of light-sensitive compounds (silver nitrate) evenly distributed throughout
plastic base material.
a. Base c. Emulsion
b. Anti-halation Backing d. Spectral Sensitivity
153. This refers to the size of the metallic silver grains that formed after development of an exposed
film.
a. Spectral Sensitivity c. Emulsion Speed
b. Granularity d. Reversal Film
154. It refers to American Standards Association, expressed in arithmetical value system. The speed
ratings numbers are directly proportional to the sensitivity of the material.
a. DIN c. ASO
b. ASA d. ISO
155. A lens defect which is the inability to focus both horizontal and vertical plane at the same time
lines running different directions.
a. Chromatic Aberration c. Coma
b. Astigmatism d. Curvature of Field
CRIMINALISTICS
156. It has a fast speed and is recommended for projection printing and enlarging.
a. Chloride Paper c. Chloro-bromide Paper
b. Bromide Paper d. Exposure Latitude
157. It refers to the absence of all colors in the spectrum.
a. White c. Black
b. Rainbow d. Yellow
158. It refers to the inability to focus all the different colors of light on film at the same time.
a. Chromatic Aberration c. Coma
b. Astigmatism d. Curvature of field.
159. Also referred to as lateral spherical aberration, it is a lens defects in which the rays enters the
lens obliquely.
a. Coma c. Astigmatism
b. Chromatic Aberration d. Curvature of Field
160. It is the remoteness or distance measured from the nearest to the farthest object in apparent
sharp focus when the lens set of focus is at a particular distance.
a. Focal Length c. Depth of Field
b. Angle of View d. Curvature of Field
161. A natural light in which the object casts a deep and uniform shadow.
a. Bright Sunlight c. Hazy Sunlight
b. Dull Sunlight d. Poor Sunlight
162. It refers to Deutche Industri Normen Rating, expressed in Logarithmic value system. In this
system, an increase of three degrees doubles the sensitivity of the film.
a. ASA Rating c. ISO Rating
b. DIN Rating d. ASO Rating
163. A form of natural light in which objects in open space casts no shadows.
a. Dull Sunlight c. Hazy Sunlight
b. Bright Sunlight d. Cloudy Sunlight
164. Consisting of light-sensitive silver salts in a gelatin medium and used to coat photographic films
and papers.
a. Base c. Emulsion
b. Anti-Halation Backing d. Exposure
165. A light sensitive material that is placed inside a camera to store any image the camera focuses.
a. Film c. Aperture
b. Shutter d. None of these
166. A colored gelatin or medium which absorbs or transmits differentially light rays passing through
it.
a. Lens c. Shutter
b. Filter d. Film
167. It refers to the process of removing unexposed silver halides remaining in the emulsion after the
first image of development of the latent image.
a. Fixation c. Stop Bath
b. Development d. Printing
168. It is known as “hypo” and its purpose are to harden the gelatin emulsion on the film, and to
dissolve out all the unexposed and the undeveloped silver halide in it.
a. Fixation c. Stop Bath
b. Fixing Bath d. Development
169. It is a distance measured from the optical center of the lens to the film plane when the lens set of
focus is set at infinity position.
a. Focal Plane c. Focusing
b. Focal Length d. Depth of Field
170. It serves to support the emulsion layer of the film.
a. Base c. Anti-halation Backing
b. Emulsion d. Granularity
171. It refers to the sensitivity of the film to wavelength or color.
a. Speed c. Granularity
b. Spectral Sensitivity d. Graininess
172. It refers to silver halides which are light sensitive and impregnated in the emulsion exists as
small crystals and upon development are converted to pure silver granules.
a. Grain Size c. Film
b. Emulsion d. None of these
173. It refers to the Potassium Alum that solidifies the gelatin of the sensitized materials which was
soften in the developing solution.
a. Developing agent c. Hardening Agent
b. Fixing Agent d. None of these
174. It refers to the sensitivity of the film to light.
a. Film Speed c. Film Graininess
b. Base d. Color Films
175. It contains minute grains of silver halide suspended in animal gelatin and coated on celluloid
material.
a. Lens c. Camera
b. Film d. Photographic Paper
176. Lenses with larger apertures are also described as –
a. Faster c. Moderate
b. Slower d. None of these
CRIMINALISTICS
177. Lenses with smaller aperture requires a slower shutter speed and the depth of field is-
a. Wider c. Slower
b. Narrower d. Fast
178. It refers to the study of physical evidence through a laboratory work.
a. Criminology c. Penology
b. Criminalistics d. Dactyloscopy
179. It is the study concerning the production of permanent records of images by the combined action
of light on sensitive surfaces, a mechanical device and the chemical process.
a. Dactyloscopy c. Ballistic
b. Photography d. QDE
180. The word Photography originated from the Greek word PHOS which means-
a. Drawing c. Photos
b. Picture d. Light
181. A visible form of energy that radiates in waves of different length.
a. Light c. Fire
b. Heat d. Rainbow
182. A black box sealed against light with a piece of film in one end and a hole in the other end to let
certain amount of light to get in and strike the chemically sensitized material.
a. Film c. Camera
b. Cartoon d. Lens
183. A light sensitized material that records and image.
a. Lens c. Camera
b. View Finder d. Film
184. The process of converting the latent image into a visible and permanent image.
a. Chemical Process c. Collodion Process
b. Film d. Calotype Process
185. The birth year of photography.
a. 1829 c. 1849
b. 1839 d. 1859
186. He coined the word “Photography”.
a. Joseph Nicephore Niepce c. Sir John Herschel
b. Thomas Wedgewood d. Angelo Sala
187. A founder of Royal society who reported that silver chloride turned dark under exposure, but he
appeared to believe that it was caused by exposure to the air, rather than to light.
a. Robert Boyle c. Angelo Sala
b. Isaac Newton d. Johann Heinrich Schulze
188. He discovered that white light is composed of different colors.
b. Isaac Newton d. Johann Heinrich Schulze
189. He achieved the first photographic image with camera obscura. However, the image required eight
hours of light exposure and later faded.
a. Joseph Nicephore Niepce c. Sir John Herschel
b. Thomas Wedgewood d. Angelo Sala
190. He discovered a way of developing photographic plates, a process which greatly reduced the
exposure time from eight hours down to half an hour.
a. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
b. Thomas Wedgewood
c. Sir John Herschel
d. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre
191. The first photographic process.
a. Calotype Process
b. Daguerreotype Process
c. Collodion Process
d. Gelatin dry plate silver bromide process
192. The first negative-positive process making possible the first multiple copies.
a. Calotype Process
193. This process reduced the exposure time from half and hour to two or three seconds of light
exposure.
a. Calotype Process
194. He invented the flexible, paper-based photographic film.
a. Hannibal Goodwin c. George Eastman
b. Kodak d. Daguerre
195. It is otherwise known as Instant Photos or One Step Photography.
a. Polaroid c. SLR
b. Camera Obscura d. Digital Camera
196. It is mounted over the opening at the front of the camera body. Its function is to produce an
image on the film at the back of the camera by gathering and focusing the rays of light from the
object.
CRIMINALISTICS
a. Camera c. Lens
b. Shutter d. Apperture
197. The light-gathering power of the lens is indicated by-
a. F-number c. Both A and C
b. Relative aperture d. None of these
198. It holds the film in place at the back of the. It is designed to hold the film flat so that the image
produced by the lens will be sharp over the whole picture area.
a. Focusing ring c. Film Holder
b. Film Case d. View Finder
199. It helps the photographer see the precise area that will be photographed when he trips the
shutter.
a. Focusing ring c. Film Holder
b. Film Case d. View Finder
200. These are essentially carved pieces of glass or other transparent materials used to refract rays of
light so as to form an image of an object on a photographic film.
a. Aperture
b. Diaphragm d. Photographic lens
c. Magnifying lens
201. The speed of the lens is expressed in terms of its-
a. Aperture c. View Finder
b. Diaphragm d. Shutter
202. The combination of blue and green light will produce what color?
a. Black c. Magenta
b. Cyan d. Yellow
203. In a stake out surveillance photography, where the photographer cannot get close to the subject,
what kind of lens must be used?
a. Normal c. Wide-angle lens
b. Telephoto d. Zoom
204. How many parts does a camera generally have, with all other parts treated as accessories?
a. Four c. Six
b. Five d. Seven
205. The lens opening also known as the relative aperture is the indicator for light transmitting
capability of the lens. Which lens opening will admit more light to pass through its medium?
a. F16 c. F4
b. F5.6 d. F2.8
206. ___________is that light-sensitive silver salts in a gelatin medium coated on all photographic films
and papers.
a. Aniline c. Emulsion
b. Sympathetic d. Copy Pencil
207. What contraption or device is used to block the path of light passing through the lens exposing
the sensitized materials?
a. Range Finder c. Exposure
b. Shutter d. View Finder
208. The light from the pinhole will form
a. A halo effect c. An inverted image
b. A photographic emulsion d. An emergent ray
209. What is the process of converting the exposed image on the film into the actual image?
a. Developing c. Fixing
b. Stop bath d. Washing
210. When light passes through an object, it is said to be
a. Transmitted c. Diffracted
b. Refracted d. Absorbed
211. He discovered that white light is composed of different colors.
b. Isaac Newton d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
212. He achieved the first photographic image with camera obscure-however, the image required eight
hours of light exposure.
a. Joseph Nicephore Niepce c. Angelo Sala
b. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre d. Isaac Newton
213. The smallest and the simplest type of camera. It is known as Instamatic camera or Point and
Shoot camera.
a. View finder camera c. TLR
b. SLR d. Press Type Camera
214. A type of camera with two objective lenses of the same focal length.
a. View Finder Camera c. TLR
b. SLR d. Press Type Camera
215. The chief attribute of this camera is its ability to deliver a complete processed print almost
immediately after exposure.
a. View Finder Camera c. Polaroid
b. SLR d. Press Type of Camera
216. It is a wavelength emitted by the sun which cannot be seen, tough we can feel it in our bodies as
warmth or heat.
CRIMINALISTICS
a. Infra-red c. Natural Light
b. Ultra-violet Light d. Man-made light
217. It is another form of light that we cannot see, but we know about it because it tans our skin in
summer.
a. Infra-red c. Natural Light
b. Ultra-violet Light d. Man-made light
e.
218. The speed of light measured in a vacuum is approximately________?
a. 186, 281 miles/sec. c. 299, 795.2 km/sec
b. 299, 792.5 km/sec d. Both A and B
219. The complete range of electromagnetic radiation is called_____.
a. Electromagnetic Spectrum c. Electromagnetic speed
b. Electromagnetic waves d. Heat
220. The following are primary colors except-
a. Red c. Black
b. Green d. Blue
221. Colors made by combining the primary colors are called-
a. Sub-Primary Colors c. Tertiary Colors
b. Secondary Colors d. Elementary Colors
222. When light passes from one medium to another such as from air to water it is bent and this
bending is called-
a. Refraction c. Absorption
b. Reflection d. Addition
223. It is the bouncing back of light upon hitting an object or material.
a. Reflection c. Transmission
b. Refraction d. Absorption
224. The change of direction of light that passes through an object or material.
a. Reflection c. Transmission
b. Refraction d. Absorption
225. The maximum usable aperture of a lens is usually specified as the focal ration or f-number.
a. The statement is correct
b. The statement is partially true
c. The statement is false
d. The statement is doubtful
226. The lower the f-number, the more light per unit area is delivered in the focal plane.
a. True c. False
b. Partially True d. Partially false
227. The focal length determines the-
a. Depth of field c. Color of the picture
b. Angle of view d. Maximum aperture
228. Lenses with larger apertures are also described as being “faster”.
229. Lenses with larger maximum apertures provide significantly brighter viewfinder images.
230. The distance between the nearest object and the object farthest from the camera that both appear
in focus.
a. Focal Length c. Lens Speed
b. Depth of Field d. Lens Hood
231. The first practical photographic process.

a. Calotype c. Collodion
b. Daguerreotype d. Dry Plate Process
232. Light sensitivity of the film is also known as-
a. Film Speed c. Film Emulsion
b. Film Grains d. Film Contrast
233. He discovered the use of Hydroquinone as a developing agent.
a. John Carbutt c. Vioglander
b. William Abney d. JM Petzval
234. In ________, the subjects will produced a strong shadow, because the source of light is not covered
and the objects or subjects appear glossy in open space due to direct sunlight and reflected lights
coming from the sky which act as a reflector.
a. Bright sunlight c. Cloudy Sunlight
b. Hazy Sunlight d. Dull Sunlight
235. In__________, the sun is covered by thin clouds and the shadow appears bluish because of the
decrease of light falling on the subjects in open space.
236. It is a sheet of plastic (cellulose acetate) coated with emulsion containing light-sensitive silver
halide salts with variable crystal size salt that determine the sensitivity, contrast and resolution of
the film.
a. Film b. Camera
CRIMINALISTICS
c. Lens d. Shutter
237. In__________, the sun is totally covered by thick clouds. No shadows are cast due to the uniform
illumination of lights around the subjects in open space.
238. These are known or genuine handwriting which indicates how a person writes. These are
authenticated handwriting.
a. Exemplars c. Post Litem
b. Standards d. Specimen
239. It refers to a signature or handwriting written by individual upon request for the purpose of
comparison with other handwriting or for specimen purposes.
a. Post Litem Standards c. Collected Standards
b. Requested Standards d. Exemplars
240. In a requested standard, dictate the material to be written at a speed which will produce the
subject natural handwriting.
241. If the questioned writings are hand printed, then get a cursive standard.
242. The following are indication of common disguises except-
a. Abnormally Large c. Alteration of slant
b. Abnormally small writing d. Rhythm
243. It is a name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign of acknowledgement.
a. Nickname c. Last Name
b. First Name d. Signature
244. In order to be sufficient, there must be at least ten (10) to twenty five (25) standard signatures for
examination.
245. If the questioned writings are hand printed, then get the hand printed standard or exemplar.
a. True c. Partially False
b. Partially true d. False
246. It involves the writing of a name as a signature by someone other than the person himself,
without his permission, often with some degree of imitation.
a. Evidential Signature c. Fraudulent Signature
b. Guided Signature d. Model Signature
247. It refers to a complete correct signature for an important document such as will.
a. Formal c. Careless Scribble
b. Informal d. None of the foregoing
248. It is the combination of basic design of letters and writing movements as taught in school.
a. Natural Writing c. Disguised Writing
b. System of Writing d. Cursive Writing
249. It is a result of a very complicated series of facts, being used as a whole combination of certain
forms of visible mental and muscular habits acquired by long, continued painstaking effort.
a. Cursive c. Handwriting
b. Signature d. Forgery
250. It is a fraudulent signature which was executed purely by simulation rather than by tracing the
outline of a genuine signature.
a. Traced Forgery c. Spurious Signature
b. Simulated Forgery d. Forgery by Computer Scanning
251. Any fraudulent signature which was executed by actually following the outline of a genuine
signature with a writing instrument.
a. Traced Forgery c. Spurious Signature
b. Simulated Signature d. Carbon Process
252. It is a connected writing in which one letter is joined to the next.

a. Script c. Block
b. Cursive d. Hand lettering
253. It is any specimen of writing executed normally without any attempt to control or alters its
identifying habits and its usual quality of execution.
a. Natural Writing c. Cursive writing
b. Disguised Writing d. Signature
254. It is a document which is completely written and signed by one person.

a. Signature c. Hand Lettering
b. Holographic document d. Cursive Writing
255. It is a style of writing in which the letters are for the most part joined together.
a. Hand Lettering c. Script
b. Cursive d. Block
256. It is disconnected style of writing in which the letters are written separately.
a. Script b. Cursive
c. Block d. Hand lettering
257. Letters are written all in capital letters.
a. Script c. Cursive
b. Block d. Hand lettering
258. It refers to one‟s name written by him on a document as a sign of acknowledgement.
a. Writing Habit c. Signature
b. Name d. Handwriting
259. In QDE, it refers to identifying details.
a. Signature c. Characteristics
b. Handwriting d. None of the Foregoing
260. It refers to the shape or design of the individual letters.
a. Slope c. Form
b. Slant d. Size
261. It refers to the angle of inclination of the axis of letters relative to the baseline.
a. Size c. Proportion
b. Connecting Stroke d. Slope
262. It refers to the relative height of one letter to another letter.
a. Proportion c. Connecting Stroke
b. Ratio d. Pen Lift
263. It is the relation between the tall and small letters.
a. Ratio c. Stroke
b. Proportion d. Size
264. This refers to the strokes of links that connects a letter with the one following.
a. Terminal Strokes c. Ending Strokes
b. Initial Strokes d. Connecting Strokes
265. It is the interruption in a stroke caused by removing the pen from the paper.
a. Hiatus c. Rhythm
b. Pen Lift d. Pen Pressure
266. The gap between strokes due to speed in writing and defective writing instrument.
a. Rhythm c. Pen Pressure
b. Writing Skill d. Hiatus
267. It is the widening of the ink strokes with increase pressure on the paper surface.
a. Tremor c. Shading
b. Patching d. Pen pressure
268. It refers to the relation of the parts of the whole line of writing or line of individual letters in words
or signature to the baseline.
a. Line Quality c. Rhythm
b. Alignment d. Tremor
269. It is a balance quality of movements of the harmonious recurrence of stress or impulse. It is the
flowing succession of motion that is recorded in a written record.
a. Tremor c. Pen Pressure
b. Rhythm d. Shading
270. It is the relative degree of the writer‟s proficiency?
a. System of Writing c. Writing Skill
b. Manner of Writing d. Tremor
271. It is the average force in which the pen makes contact with the paper or the usual force involve in
writing.
a. Rubric c. Pen Pressure
b. Embellishment d. Tremor
272. It refers to the deviation from uniform strokes due to lack of smoothness perfectly apparent even
without magnification.
a. Natural Variation c. Tremor
b. Disguised Writing d. Rubric
273. This refers to additional unnecessary strokes to legibility of letterforms or writing.
a. Rubric c. Tremor
b. Embellishment d. A or B
274. It refers to the imaginary line where the letter rest.
a. Tremor c. Baseline
b. Foot of the letter d. Pen Emphasis
275. It is the periodic increase in pressure of intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surface.
a. Pen pressure d. None of the Foregoing
b. Pen Emphasis
c. Pen Force
276. It is a stroke that goes back over another writing stroke.
a. Retracing c. Retouching
b. Blunt d. Patching
277. A stroke that goes back to repair defective stroke.
a. Retrace c. Retouching
b. Patching d. B or C
278. An element added to complete a letter.
a. Rubric c. Hitch
b. Diacritic d. Arch
279. It refers to known writing which indicates how a person writes.
a. Exemplars b. Specimen
CRIMINALISTICS
c. Standard d. None of these

280. It refers to known handwriting that was written in the daily course of life.
a. Requested Standard c. Collected Standard
b. Procured Standard d. B or C
281. Signatures or other writing written by an individual upon request for the purpose of comparison
with other handwriting or for specimen purposes.
a. Post Litem Motam Exemplars c. Collected Standard
b. Requested standard d. None of these
282. Writings produced by the subject after evidential writings have come into dispute and solely for
the purpose of establishing his contention.
a. Post Litem Motam Exemplars c. Collected Standard
b. Requested standard d. None of these
283. It refers to any material containing marks, symbols, or signs either visible, partially visible that
may present or ultimately convey a meaning to someone.
a. Document c. Signature
b. Writing d. None of these
284. It refers to any material which some issue has been raised or which is under scrutiny.
a. Disputed Document c. Holographic Document
b. Questioned Document d. Reference Collection
285. The term suggesting that there is an argument or controversy over the document.
a. Disputed Document c. Holographic Document
b. Questioned Document d. Reference Collection
286. It refers to a condensed and compact set of authentic specimens which if adequate and proper,
should contain a cross section of the material from a known source.
a. Holographic Document c. Questioned Document
b. Disputed Document d. Standard Document
287. It refers to any document written and signed by one person is known as-
a. Holographic Document c. Questioned Document
b. Disputed Document d. Standard Document
288. It refers to any document notarized by a notary public or competent public official with
solemnities required by law.
a. Official Document c. Private Document
b. Public Document d. Commercial Document
289. Every deed or instrument executed by a private person without the intervention of a notary public
or of any person legally authorized, by which documents, some disposition or agreement is proved,
evidenced set forth.
290. Any instrument executed in accordance with the Code of Commerce or any Mercantile Law,
containing disposition of commercial rights.
a. Public Document c. Private Document
b. Official document d. Commercial Document
291. Any instrument issued by the government or its agents or its officers having the authority to do
so.
292. It refers to any matter made a part of the document after its original preparation.
a. Erasure c. Obliteration
b. Addition d. Insertion
293. A scientific conclusion results from relating observed facts by logical, common sense reasoning in
accordance with established rules of law.
a. Opinion c. Off-hand Opinion
b. Conclusion d. Addition
294. The removal of writing or printing from a document is known as __________.
a. Addition c. Erasure
b. Conclusion d. Obliteration
295. A legal term to describe a witness who by reason of his special training or experience is permitted
to express an opinion regarding the issue, or a certain aspects of the issue, which is involve in court
action.
a. Ordinary Witness c. Expert witness
b. Special Witness d. None of these
296. The state of being identical or absolutely the same. There is similarity of source or authorship of
the questioned document and the standard document.
a. Identification c. Obliteration
b. Non-identification d. Opinion
297. This includes the addition of writing and other material between lines or paragraphs or the
addition of whole page to a document.
a. Insertion c. Obliteration
b. Erasure d. None of these
298. It means that the source or authorship of the compared questioned and standard specimens is
different.
a. Identification c. Obliteration
b. Non-Identification d. Opinion
299. The blotting out or shearing over the writing to make the original invisible.
CRIMINALISTICS
a. Obliteration c. Addition
b. Erasure d. Multiplication
300. It refers to the Document Examiner Conclusion.
a. Conclusion c. Opinion
b. Prelude d. Hearsay
301. The following are the scientific method in QDE except-
a. Analysis c. Evaluation
b. Comparison d. Conclusion
302. It is usually a conclusion that is not based on thorough scientific examination.
a. Expert Opinion c. Off-hand Opinion
b. Ordinary Opinion d. None of these
303. It is used for currency examination.
a. Shadowgraph c. Ultra-Violet Lamp
b. Magnifying Lens d. Infra-Red Lamp
304. A device where light comes from beneath or behind a glass where document is place.
b. Magnifying Lens d. Transmitted Light Gadget
305. This is usually used for the detection of counterfeited bills but can actually be used to detect
security features of qualified document.
a. Infra-red viewer c. Shadowgraph
b. Ultra-violet lamp d. Transmitted Light Gadget
306. It is primarily used to decipher writings in a charred paper.
b. Infra-Red Viewer d. Infra-Red Lamp
307. In this examination, the document is viewed with the source of illumination behind it and the
light passing through the paper. It is used to determine the presence of erasures, matching of
serrations and some other types of alterations.
a. Microscopic Examination c. Oblique Light examination
b. Transmitted Light Examination d. Ultra-violet Examination
308. An examination with the illumination so controlled that it grazes or strikes the surface of the
document from one side at a very low angle.
a. Microscopic Examination c. Oblique Light examination
b. Transmitted Light Examination d. Ultra-violet Examination
309. In this process, the forger places the document to be forged on the bottom, inter-leaves a piece of
carbon paper and places on top of a document containing the genuine signature.
a. Indentation Process c. Transmitted Light Process
b. Carbon Process d. None of these
310. It is the crime of making, circulating or uttering false coins and banknotes.
a. Falsification c. Counterfeiting
b. Forgery d. Engraving
311. It is the process by which the line to be printed are cut into pieces of metal by hand or with a
machine. This process is used for the production of all genuine bank notes.
a. Letterpress Printing c. Counterfeiting
b. Engraving d. Forgery
312. It is the most common modern used by counterfeiter to make false paper money.
a. Letterpress printing c. Offset Printing
b. Engraving d. Counterfeiting
313. The portrait appears life-like in a counterfeit bill/note.
a. True c. Sometimes
b. Maybe d. False
314. This is a special thread placed vertically on the paper during manufacture.
a. Metallic Thread
b. Colored Fibers
c. Security Fibers
d. Lacework design
315. These fibers are scattered on the surface of the paper (front/back) at random & can readily pick
off by means on any pointed instrument. The colors of these fibers are red and blue.
a. Metallic Thread c. Lacework Design
b. Colored fibers/Security d. None of these
316. The color of 200 peso denomination is_________.
a. Blue c. Green
b. Yellow d. Red
317. It refers to the prefix letter and numbers in a paper money.
a. Value Panel
b. Serial Number
c. Denominations
d. Lacework
318. It refers to the silhouette of the portrait appearing on the face of the note.
a. Watermark
b. Vignette
c. Lacework
d. Serial Numbers
319. It is a special thread vertically implanted off center of the note during paper manufacture. This
can easily be seen when the note is viewed against the light.
CRIMINALISTICS
a. Embedded Security Thread

b. Windowed Security Thread
c. Iridescent Band
d. Vignette
320. It is a narrow security thread vertically located like “stitches” at the face of the note with a clear
text of the numerical value in repeated sequence.
a. Embedded Security Thread c. Iridescent Band
b. Windowed Security Thread d. Vignette
321. It is a wide glistening gold vertical stripe with the numerical value printed in series.
a. Portrait c. Serial Number
b. Iridescent band d. Vignette
322. It refers to the numeral found at the four corners of the front and back of the note.
a. Value Panel
b. Micro printing
c. Serial Numbers
d. Vignette
323. _________ are refers to minute and finely printed words “Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas” or Central
Bank of the Philippines” located at the face or back of the note.
a. Value Panel c. Serial Numbers
b. Micro printing d. Vignette
324. These are pieces of metal stamped by government authority for use as money or collectively
referring to metal currency.
a. Note c. Coin
b. Bill d. Peso
325. It is the most common method of making gold coins.
a. Engraving c. Uttering
b. Offset Printing d. Casting
326. To pass a counterfeited coin means__
a. To import
b. Utter
c. Mutilate
d. Counterfeit
327. This means that the forger has trouble matching the paper, ink, or writing materials to the exact
date it was supposed to have been written.
a. Counterfeit
b. Utter
c. Anachronism
d. Watermark
328. The first writing material known to man.
a. Papyrus
b. Vellum
c. Parchment
d. None of these
329. This writing material made from the skin of animals primarily of sheep, calves or goats.
a. Vellum
b. Parchment
c. Papyrus
d. Reed
330. It is widely claimed that invention of paper is generally attributed to a_____.
a. Chinese c. Filipino
b. Americans d. African
331. It was the first writing tool that has the writing end slightly frayed like a brush. It is first used in
papyrus writing material.
a. Quill Pen
b. Reed
c. Steel Point Pen
d. Fountain Pen
332. It is shallow and horny part of large feather usually from goose and was used for writing on
parchment.
a. Quill Pen
b. Reed
c. Steel Point Pen
d. Fountain Pen
333. He patented the first ball point writing tool.
a. John Loud
b. Lewis Waterman
c. Bryan Donkin
d. None of these
334. It is the oldest form of ink.
a. Indian Ink
b. Log Wood Ink
c. Iron Galotannate Ink
d. Dyestuff Ink
335. This is regarded as the principal method of ink examination.
CRIMINALISTICS
a. Ink analysis
b. Chromatographic Analytical Method
c. Benzidine Method
d. None of these
336. It is a defect of the typewriter in which the character prints below or above its proper position.
a. Vertical Misalignment
b. Horizontal Misalignment
c. Twisted Letter
d. Permanent Defect
337. The study of handwriting to determine the personality of the writer.
a. Holography
b. Graphology
c. Bibliotics
d. None of these
CRIMINALISTICS
338. An examination wherein an informal interview of the subject is undertaken between 20 to

30 minutes.
a. Post-test Interrogation c. Actual Interrogation
b. Pre-test Interview d. Lie Detection Test
339. Which among the following is not a required qualification for a polygraph examiner?
a. Criminology Graduate c. Technical Know How
b. Honesty d. Integrity and Morals
340. Which among the forgoing is not a part in the conduct of a polygraph examination?
a. Pre-test Interview c. Post-Test Interview
b. Instrumental Test d. Psychological Test
341. Which among the following is not included in recording the psycho-physiological
response of the subject?
a. Use of Water therapy c. Word Association Test
b. Psychological Stress d. Polygraph Machine
Evaluator
342. A person who is capable of detecting deception with the use of instrumentation or
mechanical device.
a. Interrogator c. Medico-legal Officer
b. Detective d. Polygraph Examiner
343. Which among the following statement is not among the limitations of the polygraph?
a. It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent.
b. It is admissible as evidence.
c. It is an aid and not a substitute for investigation.
d. It is a scientific diagnostic instrument which records responses.
344. An invaluable aid in investigation and an instrument in the detection of deception.
a. Photography c. Lie Detection
b. Chemistry d. Medicine
345. Questions in connection to the matter under investigation.
a. Relevant c. Control
b. Supplementary d. Relevant
346. It refers to query having no bearing or weight to the case under investigation.
a. Relevant Question c. Control Question
b. Supplementary Questions d. Irrelevant Question
347. A test usually administered as part of the standard test to draw a better conclusion.
a. Relevant Question c. Control
b. Supplementary d. Irrelevant
348. This measures, detects and graphically displays voice modulation.
a. Word Association Test c. Truth Serum
b. Psychological Stress d. Water therapy
Evaluator
349. In this examination, stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the subject who in
turn is instructed to answer as quickly as possible.
a. Word Association Test c. Truth Serum
b. Psychological Stress d. Water Therapy
Evaluator
350. A test conducted wherein the subject is instructed not to produce verbal response.
a. Peak of Tension Test c. Narrative
b. Silent Test d. Guilt Complex Test
351. Using the Psychological Stress Evaluator, a lying subject or when a person is under
stress, the frequencies___________?
a. Tends to disappear c. Increases
b. Rise d. Stop
352. This test not concerned with the answer whether it is yes or no, what is important is the
time of response in relation to delay the answer.
a. Word Association Test
b. Psychological Stress Evaluator
c. Truth Serum
d. Water Therapy
353. It refers to the composite records of pneumograph, galvanograph, and
cardiosphygmograph tracings recorded from series of question.
a. Polygrams c. Subject
b. Chart d. A & B
354. A test undertaken when the subject is not aware of the details of the offense for which he
is under scrutiny.
a. Guilt Complex Test
b. Silent Answer Test
c. Peak of Tension Test
d. Narrative
355. When response to control questions is consistently similar this is administered.
a. Guilt complex test
b. Silent answer Test
c. Peak of Tension Test
d. Narrative
356. It is a tracing on the chart wherein the subject answered in the irrelevant question.
19
CRIMINALISTICS
a. Normal Tracing c. Specific Response

b. Normal Response d. Response
357. This test uses Hyoscine Hydrobromide Drug that is administered hypodermically which
produces a state of delirium.
a. Hypnotism
b. Narco-analysis
c. Narco-synthesis
d. Administration of truth serum
358. It is base on the maxim “in vino veritas”.
a. Hypnotism
b. Narco-analysis
c. Narco-Synthesis
d. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverages
359. It is any deviation from the normal tracing of the subject.
a. Normal Response c. Polygrams
b. Specific Response d. Response
360. In this examination, psychiatric sodium pentothal is administered.
a. Hypnotism
b. Narco-analysis
c. Intoxication with the use of alcoholic beverages
d. Administration of truth serum
361. The most common scientific method of detecting deception.
a. Polygraphy c. Truth Serum
b. Polygraph d. Interrogation
362. He devised an instrument capable of continuously recording pulse rate, respiration and
blood pressure.
a. William Marston c. John Larson
b. Angelo Mosso d. Sticker
e.
363. Psychological Response to any demand.
a. Reaction c. Pressure
b. Stress d. All of the above
364. He is the father of Criminalistic.
a. Cesare Lombroso c. Hans Gross
b. Godard d. Becarria
365. A subject must have at least how many hours of sleep to be considered fit for polygraph
examination.
a. 5
c. 7
d. 8
b. 6
366. It is a type of question related to the facts of the case.
a. Relevant question c. General Question
b. Irrelevant question d. Immaterial Question
367. He states that FEAR influenced the heart and could be use as a basis for detecting
deception.
a. Marston c. Mosso
b. Larson d. Verguth
368. An act of discovery that is indicative of the fact that something is hidden or obscure.
a. Fear c. Detection
b. Deception d. Reaction
369. An inhibition of a previous activity of an organism as a result of stimulation.
a. Response c. Stimuli
b. Reaction d. Fear
370. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger which appears to go beyond a
person‟s defensive power.
a. Response c. Stimuli
b. Deception d. Fear
371. This component drives the chart paper under the recording pen simultaneously at the
rate of 6 to 12 inches per minute.
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Stimuli
b. Kymograph d. Fear
372. A part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of the subject.
a. Finger electrode plate c. Rubber convoluted tube
b. Diacritic notch d. Kymograph
373. This component record changes of the subject‟s blood pressure and pulse rate.
a. Cardiosphygmograph
b. Sphygmomanometer d. Pneumograph
c. Galvanograph
374. It records the subject‟s skin resistance to a small amount of electricity.
a. Cardiosphygmograph c. Galvanograph
375. This component records the changes in the breathing of the subject.
a. Cardiosphygmograph
20
CRIMINALISTICS
b. Sphygmomanometer
c. Galvanograph
d. Pneumograph
376. A kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to deceive others.
a. Black Lie c. Red Lie
b. White Lie d. Yellow Lie
377. It is a deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question.
a. Reaction c. Specific Response
b. Normal Response d. Positive Response
378. Chart tracing of the subject when irrelevant questions were answered.
a. Reaction c. Specific Response
b. Normal Response d. Positive Response
379. Normal time interval for pre-test interview.
a. 20 to 30minutes c. 60 to 90 minutes
b. 30 to 60 minutes d. 90 to 120 minutes
380. What is the primary objective of the post test interview?
a. To thank the subject
b. To obtain confession
c. To make the subject calm
d. To explain polygraph test procedures
381. What is the purpose of the pre-test interview?
a. To prepare the subject for polygraph test
b. To obtain confession
c. To make the subject calm
d. To explain polygraph test procedures
382. Test undertaken when both relevant and control questions are similar in degree and
consistency.
a. Guilt complex test c. Peak of Tension Test
b. Silent answer Test d. None of the Above
383. It refers to questions to ascertain the subject‟s normal pattern of response.
a. Relevant Questions c. Supplementary Questions
b. Irrelevant Questions d. Control Questions
384. The number of basic tracings in a modern polygraph.
a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 6
385. Did you hide Senator Lacson in your in your beach resort? It is an example of –
a. Control Question c. Relevant Question
b. Irrelevant Question d. Leading Question
386. He developed the systolic blood pressure method for detecting deception.
b. Harold Burtt d. Leonard Keeler
387. He noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure changes were signs of deception.
a. William Marston c. Leonard Keeler
b. Harold Burtt d. John Larson
388. An Italian Scientist who used hydrosphygmograph procedure for persons charged with
the commission of a crime.
a. Angelo Mosso
b. Veraguth
c. Lombroso
d. Vittorio Benussi
389. Pioneer who first used the term psycho galvanic skin reflex.
a. Angelo Mosso c. Lombroso
b. Veraguth d. Vittorio Benussi
390. Who first incorporated the galvanograph with measurement, respiration component and
blood pressure?
a. Harold Burtt c. Leonarde Keeler
b. Hans Gross d. John Larson
391. A primitive practice of detecting deception whereby controversies are settled by means of
duel, the victor will be spared from consequences and the loser will be pronounce guilty.
a. Ordeal c. Combat
b. Trial by Combat d. None f these
392. It is an instrument used for the recording of changes in blood pressure, pulse rate,
respiration and skin resistance as indication of emotional disturbances especially when
questioned.
a. Polygraphy c. Lie detector machine
b. Polygraph d. B & C
393. It is a scientific method of detecting deception using polygraph.
a. Polygraphy c. B & A
b. Lie Detection d. None of the foregoing
394. It is an emotional response to specific danger that appears to beyond a person‟s defensive
power.
a. Stimulus c. Reaction
b. Fear d. Detection
21
CRIMINALISTICS
395. It is a force or motion reaching the organism and excites the receptors.
a. Stimulus c. Deception
b. Recation d. Detection
396. It is use to measure the blood pressure and heart rate of the subject in the polygraph
examination.
a. Pneumograph c. Kymograph
b. Galvanograph d. Cardio-Sphymograph
397. The component of the Polygraph machine that records the subject‟s respiratory rate.
398. This component of the Polygraph machine records the amount of perspiration produced.
399. Questions formulated must be short, simple and direct answerable by either „yes” or “no”
only, phrased in the language easily understood by the subject.
400. These are questions which have no bearing to the case under investigation.
b. Irrelevant Question d. Uncontrollable Questions
401. These are questions pertaining to the issue under investigation.
a. Relevant Question
b. Irrelevant Question
c. Control Question
d. Uncontrollable Questions
402. It is used to test or question individuals for the purpose of detecting deception and
verifying the truth of statements through visual, permanent and simultaneous recording of a
person‟s cardiovascular and respiratory pattern as a minimum instrumentation
requirement.
a. Polygraphy c. Lie Detection
b. Polygraph d. Computer
403. The science of lie detection.
a. Polygraphy c. Lie Detection
b. Polygraph d. Computer
404. Within the U.S. Federal Government, a polygraph examination is also referred to as-
a. Psycho physiological Detection of Deception
b. PDD
c. Psychological Detection of Deception
d. Federal Scientific Detection of Deception
405. He invented the first scientific instrument to detect deception.
a. Cesare Lombroso c. William Marston
b. Cesare Beccaria d. Vittorio Benussi
406. An instrument that graphically measures an examinee‟s inhalation and exhalation.
b. Spygmograph d. Galvanograph
407. An instrument that measured changes in pulse and blood pressure.
b. Hydrospygmograph d. Galvanograph
408. He invented the Pneumograph component of the Lie detector machine.
a. Vittorio Benussi c. Cesare Lombroso
b. John Larson d. William Marston
409. He conducted a further research that dealt with Sphygmomanometer, which was used to
obtain periodic discontinuous blood pressure readings during the course of an examination.
a. William Marston c. Cesare Lombroso
b. John Larson d. Vittorio Benussi
410. A device invented that records both blood-pressure and galvanic skin response was
invented in 1920 by_______.
411. The term polygraph was first used in 1906 by James MacKenzie in his invention the “ink
polygraph”, which was used for medical purposes.
b. John Larson d. James Mackenzie
412. He is the self-proclaimed father of polygraph.
413. Today, most polygraph test are administered with the digital equipment rather than the
analog type.
414. The following are methods of detection of deception except:
a. Devices which record the psycho-physiological responses
b. Use of drugs that try to inhibit the inhibitor
c. Hypnotism
22
CRIMINALISTICS
d. Torture
415. The nervous control of the human body includes the-
a. Central Nervous System
b. Autonomic Nervous System
c. Muscular System
d. Reproductive System
e. Both A & B
416. It primarily controls the motor and sensory functions that occur at or above the
threshold.
c. Muscular System
417. It acts as a self-regulating autonomic response of the body.
c. Muscular System
418. When the person is under the influence of physical exertion or emotional stimuli, the
sympathetic will dominate and over-rid the parasympathetic, thus there will be changes in
the heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory pattern, psycho galvanic reflexes, time of
response to question, and voice tracing.
a. True c. False
b. Partially True d. Partially False
419. The parasympathetic nervous system works to restore things to normal when the
condition of stress has been removed. It is dominant branch when the condition is normal
and the subject is calm, contented and relaxed.
a. True c. False
b. Partially True d. Partially False
420. In this examination, lists of stimulus and non-stimulus words are read to the subject
who is instructed to answer as quickly as possible.
a. Lie Detection
b. Word Association Test
c. Hypnotism
d. Psychological Stress Evaluator
421. In lie detector, the time interval between the words uttered by the examiner and the
answer of the subject is recorded.
a. True c. Doubtful
b. False d. I do not Know
422. When the subject is asked with reference to his name, address, civil status, nationality,
ect., which has no relation to the subject matter of the investigation, the tendency is to delay
the answer.
a. True c. Doubtful
b. Partially True d. False
423. The Psychological Stress Evaluator is not concerned with the answer, be it a “yes” or a
“no”. The important factor is the time response in relation to stimulus and non-stimulus
words.
a. True c. Doubtful
424. It detects, measures, and graphically displays the voice modulations that we cannot hear.
a. Word Association Test c. Lie Detection Test
b. Psychological Stress d. Confession
Evaluator
425. When the person is under stress as when he is lying, the micro tremor in the voice
utterance is moderately and completely suppressed.
b. False d. Doubtful
426. When a person is relaxed and responding honestly to the questions, those inaudible
frequencies are registered clearly on the instrument.
b. False d. Doubtful
427. In the administration of truth serum, the drug given hypodermically to the subject
is_________.
a. Shabu
b. Hyoscine Hydrobromide
c. Psychiatric Sodium Amytal
d. Morphine
428. The drug administered to the subject in Narcoanalysis/Narcosynthesis is________.
a. Shabu
b. Hyoscine Hydrobromide
c. Psychiatric Sodium Amytal
d. Morphine
429. The Latin maxim which means that in wine there is truth.
a. In Vino San Miguel b. In Vino Matador
23
CRIMINALISTICS
c. InVino Veritos d. In Vino Veritas

430. It is the alteration of consciousness and concentration in which the subject manifests a
heightened suggestibility while awareness is maintained.
a. Narcism c. Cult
b. Hypnosis d. Addiction
431. It is also called Prevarication. A type of deception in the form of untruthful statements
with the intention to deceive, often with the intention to maintain a secret of reputation, to
protect someone‟s feelings from getting hurt, or to avoid punishment.
a. Lie c. Either of the two
b. Lei d. None of the above
432. It is a lie that is told when it is obvious to all concerned that is a lie.
a. Lie to Children c. White Lie
b. Bald Face Lie d. Lying by Omission
433. It is often a platitude that may use euphemism that is told to make an adult subject
acceptable to children.
b. Bald Face Lie d. Lie to adult
434. It is a lie by omitting an important fact, deliberately leaving another person with a
misconception.
435. It would cause no discord if it were undiscovered and offers some benefit to the liar, the
hearer, or both.
436. A kind of lie that would normally cause discord if it were uncovered, but it offers some
benefit to the liar and perhaps assists an orderly society.
a. Perjury c. Emergency Lie
b. Noble Lie d. Bluffing
437. It is an strategic lie told when the truth may not be told because, for example, harm to a
third party would come of it.
a. Perjury c. Bluffing
b. Emergency Lie d. Misleading
438. It is the act of lying or making verifiably false statements on material matter under oath
or affirmation in a court of law or in any of various sworn statements in writing.
a. Perjury c. Dissembling
b. Bluffing d. Misleading
439. Pretending to have the capability or intention one doesn‟t.
a. Dissembling c. Bluffing
b. Misleading d. Perjury
440. A polite term of lying, though some might consider it to being merely misleading.
a. Dissembling c. Bluffing
b. Misleading d. Perjury
441. It occurs when the most fundamental aspect of a statement is true, but the degree to
which it is true is not correct.
a. Jocose Lie c. Promotion Lie
b. Exaggeration Lie d. Misleading
442. Lies that are meant in jest and are usually understood as such by all present parties.
a. Jocose lie c. Exaggeration
b. Promotion Lie d. Misleading
443. A lie in the advertisements that contain statement that is not credible.
a. Jocose Lie c. Jocose Lie
b. Exaggeration d. Promotion Lie
444. It is wooden puppet often led into trouble by his propensity to lie.
a. Pinocchio c. Pinocchia
b. Pacquio d. Peter
445. The component of the Polygraph machine that measures the blood pressure and heart
rate.
a. Cardio-sphygmograph c. Galvanograph
b. Pneumograph d. Keymograph
446. It records the subject‟s respiratory rate.
a. Cardio-sphygmograph c. Galvanograph
b. Pneumograph d. Keymograph
447. It is an act of deceiving or misleading usually accompanied by lying.
a. Detection c. Reaction
b. Deception d. Lying
448. This valid test is only made possible when there is no widespread publicity about the
crime.
a. Peak of Tension Test c. General Question Test
b. Tension Test d. All of the above
449. It refers to the uttering or conveying falsehood or creating false or misleading information
with the intention of affecting wrongfully the acts or opinion of other.
a. Response c. Specific Response
b. Lying d. Normal Response
24
CRIMINALISTICS
450. Which of the following is not a standard qualification of a polygraph examiner?

a. He must be free of prejudice
b. He is an impartial seeker of truth
c. He must be a policeman
d. He must be of good moral character
451. This test consists of series of relevant and irrelevant questions asked in a planned order.
a. Peak of Tension Test c. Polygraph Test
b. General Peak of tension d. None of the Foregoing
Question Test
452. The examination room must be equipped with paintings, decorations or other ornaments.
453. Permanent physical illness such as mental derangement, certain heart condition and
addiction to narcotic drugs are definite causes that makes a person unfit for a polygraph
test.
454. This phase of the examination will condition the subject psychologically for the test.
a. Pre-test interview c. Post-test interview
b. Actual Interrogation d. None of the above
455. Questions formulated must be short, simple and multiple choice type.
456. Questions pertaining to the issue under investigation.
b. Irrelevant Question d. Supplementary Question
457. 458.
459. These are questions which are unrelated to the matter under investigation but of similar
nature although less serious as compared to those relevant questions under investigation.
a. Relevant Question
b. Irrelevant Question
c. Control Question
d. Supplementary Question
460. It is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical projectile propelled from a firearm by means of
the expansive force of gases coming from the burning gunpowder.
a. Cartridge c. Primer
b. Bullet d. Gun powder
461. The science of motion of projectiles.
a. Firearm Examination c. Polygraph
b. Ballistic d. Dactyloscopy
462. This consists of unburned, burning and partially burned powder together with graphite
which came out from the muzzle. It is responsible for the tattooing around the gunshot
wound of entrance.
a. Smoke c. Powder Burns
b. Powder Grains d. Flame
463. In a common police parlance, a bullet may be called ______.
a. Projectile c. Slug
b. Tingga d. Bala
464. A portion in the cartridge case which consists of a brass or gilding metal cup. The cup
contains a highly sensitive mixture of chemical compound.
a. Gunpowder c. Primer
b. Propellant d. Powder charge
465. It refers to the identification and investigation of firearms by means of ammunition fired
through them.
a. Terminal Ballistic c. Forensic Ballistic
b. Exterior Ballistic d. Interior Ballistic
466. It refers to any weapon designed to be operated from the shoulder.
a. Revolver c. Pistol
b. Rifle d. Machine Guns
467. Ignition of the propellant will cause the production of flame. The flame does not usually
go beyond a distance of ___inches in pistols.
a. 6 inches c. 5 inches
b. 3 inches d. 2 inches
468. This is an instrument used for making measurement such as bullet diameter, bore
diameter, and barrel length.
a. Micrometer c. Caliper
b. Taper Gauge d. Onoscope
469. He is credited as the father of Percussion Ignition.
a. Calvin Goddard c. Smith
b. Alexander john Forsyth d. Wesson
470. Firing pin mark can be found in a “Fired Shell”.
471. It refers to the effect of the impact of the bullet on the target.
25
CRIMINALISTICS
a. Terminal ballistic c. Forensic Ballistic

b. Exterior Ballistic d. Interior Ballistic
472. The number of lands and grooves inside the bore of a fired firearm are always_________.
a. Different c. Opposite
b. The same d. None of these
473. The size of the bullet grouping on the target.
a. Terminal Accuracy c. Terminal Velocity
b. Terminal Energy d. Terminal Penetration
474. All rim-fire cartridges and most center-fire revolver cartridges that are now manufactured
have_________.
a. Long Neck Cartridges c. Straight Cases
b. Bottle Neck cartridges d. None of these
475. It refers to the properties and attributes of the bullet while still inside the gun.
a. Terminal Ballistic c. Exterior Ballistic
b. Interior Ballistic d. Forensic Ballistic
476. The elevated portion of the bore.
a. Land c. Rifling
b. Grooves d. None of these
477. He is credited as the father of Criminalistic.
a. Calvin Goddard c. Aristotle
b. Garrand d. Hans Gross
478. In this firearm a pressure is applied on the trigger and will both cock and fire the firearm
by release of the hammer.
a. Single Action Firearm c. Single Shot Firearm
b. Double Action Firearm d. Automatic Firearm
479. The speed of the bullet upon striking the target.
a. Terminal Accuracy c. Terminal Velocity
b. Terminal Energy d. Terminal Penetration
480. It is an ancient smooth-bore and muzzle loading military shoulder arm designed to fire a
single round lead ball.
a. Musket c. Shoulder Arms
b. Machine guns d. Revolver
481. This is a part of the firearm which causes firing mechanism.
a. Hammer c. Barrel
b. Trigger d. Ejector
482. As applied to ballistic or any other subject, it suggests a relationship to courts of justice
and legal proceeding.
a. Ballistic c. Forensic
b. Legal d. None of the foregoing
483. The term ballistic is derived from the Greek word __________ which literally means to
throw.
a. Ballista c. Ballein
b. Ballo d. B or C
484. Fired bullets should be marked by the recovering officer with his initials in the
____________.
a. Nose c. Ogive
b. Mouth d. A or C
485. It refers to the circular groove near the base of the case or shell designed for the
automatic withdrawal of the case after each firing.
a. Ejector Groove c. Land Groove
b. Extractor Groove d. None of these
486. It is the amount of force on the trigger necessary to fire a gun.
a. Hair Trigger c. Trigger Pressure
b. Trigger Force d. None of these
487. He is the maker of the first known carbine.
a. David Williams c. John m.Browning
b. Alexander Forsyth d. Eliphalet Remington
488. It is generally found on the primer cup.
a. Shearing Mark c. Extractor Mark
b. Firing Pin mark d. Magazine lip Mark
489. The trigger pressure of a shotgun is______.
a. 3-4lbs. c. 3-5 lbs
b. 4 lbs d. 6-7 lbs
490. He is credited as the father of Ballistic.
a. Samuel Colt c. Forsyth
b. Calvin Goddard d. Hans Gross
491. It refers to the characteristics that are determinable even prior to the manufacture of the
firearms. These are factory specification and within the control of man.
a. Individual Characteristics c. Group Characteristics
b. Class Characteristics d. None of these
492. It describes the ability of the bullet to maintain its velocity against air resistance.
a. Trajectory c. Pull of Gravity
b. Air Resistance d. Ballistic Coefficient
493. Firearms that propel projectile of less than one inch in diameter.
26
CRIMINALISTICS
a. Artillery c. Trigger
b. Small Arms d. Ejector
494. The depressed portion of the bore.
a. Groove c. Rifling
b. Land d. Base
495. The depth of entry of the bullet in the target.
a. Pull of Gravity c. Terminal Penetration
b. Air Resistance d. Terminal Accuracy
496. It is generally used in the preliminary examination of fired bullets and shells for the
purpose of determining the relative distribution of the class characteristics.
a. Bullet Comparison c. Shadowgraph
Microscope d. Caliper
b. Stereoscopic Microscope
497. It refers to a “Loaded Shell” for rifles, carbines, shotguns, revolvers and pistols from
which a ball, bullet, shot or other missile may be fired by means of a gun powder or other
explosives..
a. Bullet c. Primer
b. Ammunition d. Ball
498. Sometimes it is called as “secondary firing pin mark” and found in the primer near the
firing pin mark.
a. Firing Pin Mark c. Ejector Mark
b. Shearing Mark d. Chamber Mark
499. The first priming mixture is composed of Potassium Chlorate, Charcoal, and _________.
a. Ground Glass c. Barium Nitrate
b. Fulminate of Mercury d. Sulphur
500. Firearm which may be fired only by a single hand.
a. Rifle c. Shotgun
b. Pistol d. All of these
501. It refers to the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time.
a. Velocity c. Pull of Gravity
b. Air Resistance d. Penetration
502. In marking physical evidence, use distinctive mark such as X.
a. true c. Partially true
b. false d. Partially false
503. This is used in determining weights of bullets and shotgun pellets to determine probably
the type of caliber and make of firearms from which they were fired.
a. Micrometer c. Helixometer
b. Bullet Comparison d. Analytical Balance
Microscope
504. The term cartridge is derived from the word “charta”, the Latin word for ____.
a. Plastic c. Cartoon
b. Metal d. Paper
505. The container of the priming mixture is _______.
a. Shell c. Primer Cup
b. Cartridge d. Primer Shell
506. He produced the first practical revolver.
a. Samuel Colt c. John M. Browning
b. John Garand d. Remington
507. The Gunpowder was invented in_________.
a. 1413 c. 1350
b. 1313 d. 1213
508. This instrument is use to measure the angle of twist in a rifled pistol and revolver.
a. Magnifying Glass c. Micrometer
b. Gunsmith tools d. Helixometer
509. The resistance encountered by the bullet whiles its flight.
a. Velocity Resistance c. Pull of Gravity
b. Air Resistance d. Penetration
510. What kind of firearm that has a muzzle velocity of more than 1,400 feet per second??
a. High Power Firearm c. Pistol
b. Low Power Firearm d. Revolver
511. Bore diameter is an example of class characteristic.
b. False d. Maybe
512. It is the distance measured between two opposite lands inside the bore.
a. Caliber c. Grooves
b. Bore d. Lands
513. The highly sensitive chemical mixture contained in the primer cup.
a. Priming Mixture c. Propellant
b. Gunpowder d. Powder Charge
514. The collecting officer can mark the cylindrical surface of the bullet.
515. These are generally found on bullets fired through “loose fit” barrels wherein the rifling is
already worn out.
27
CRIMINALISTICS
a. Shearing Mark c. Breech Face Mark

b. Stripping Mark d. Chamber Mark
516. Skid mark can be found on fired bullets.
517. It refers to the characteristics markings peculiar and not found in all firearms.
a. Class Characteristics c. Group Characteristics
b. Individual characteristic d. All of the above
518. This is especially designed to permit the firearm examiner to determine the similarity and
dissimilarity between two fired bullets and slugs or projectiles, or two fired shells by
simultaneously observing their magnified image in a single microscopic instrument.
a. Stereoscopic Microscope c. Onoscope
b. Bullet Comparison d. Shadowgraph
Microscope
519. It is applied to that part of the cartridge case that is occupied by the bullet.
a. Base c. Vents
b. Crimp d. Neck
520. These are mostly found around the body of the fired cartridge case and these are caused
by the ‟irregularities” in the inside walls of the chamber.
a. Skid Marks c. Chamber Marks
b. Rifling Marks d. Shearing mark
521. The downward reaction of the bullet toward the earth center due to its weight.
a. Downfall of bullet c. Air Resistance
b. Pull of gravity d. Penetration
522. These are found in the anterior portions of the fired bullets and caused by the forward
movement of the bullet from the chamber before it initially rotates due to the rifling inside
the gun barrel.
a. Stripping Mark c. Firing pin Mark
b. Skid Mark d. Shearing Mark
523. It is the hole in the web or the bottom of the primer pocket through which the primer
„flash” provides ignition to the gunpowder.
a. Flash holes c. Cannelures
b. Vents d. A or B
524. It refers to the straight distance between the muzzle and the target.
a. Trajectory c. Range
b. Velocity d. Penetration
525. This is used primarily in determining the bore diameter of firearms.
a. Gunsmith tools c. Micrometer
b. Taper Gauge d. Helixometer
526. The first reference to rifled barrels happened around this year.
a. 1575 c. 1807
b. 1498 d. 1853
527. The oldest propellant.
a. Black Powder c. Yellow Green powder
b. Pink powder d. Smokeless
528. In this, the diameter or the base of the cartridge is bigger than the body of the cartridge.
a. Rimless type c. Semi-rimmed
b. Rimmed Type d. None of these
529. If the Shape if the base of the bullet is boat tailed, the shape of the nose is________.
a. Pointed c. Wad-type
b. Round d. Semi-wad
530. It can be used in the close up examination of tampered serial numbers.
a. Gunsmith tool c. Stereoscopic Microscope
b. Taper Gauge d. Shadowgraph
531. It is equal to the height of the side of a land.
a. Depth of Grooves c. Rifling
b. Twist d. land
532. The gun powder is otherwise known as_____________.
a. Powder charge c. Pulbura
b. Propellant d. A & B
533. The first reference to paper cartridge happened around this year.
a. 1313 c. 1836
b. 1575 d. 1897
534. It contains a compound at the base usually similar to barium nitrates, which is set on
fire when the bullet is projected. The flash of the smoke from the burning permits the light of
the bullet to be seen especially at night time.
a. Incendiary Bullets c. Explosive Bullets
b. Tracer Bullets d. Armor Piercing Bullets
535. The rifling inside the gun barrel may twist _________.
a. To the right only c. To the right & left
b. To the left only d. All of these
536. It refers to serrated grooves that are sometimes found rolled into the necks and bodied of
the cases at the location of the bases of the bullet to prevent the bullet from being pushed
back or loosened.
28
CRIMINALISTICS
a. Neck c. Crimp
b. Base d. Cannelures
537. It refers to the actual curved path of the bullet during its flight from the gun muzzle to
the target.
a. Velocity c. Muzzle energy
b. Trajectory d. Penetration
538. Land and groove marks are called__________.
a. Skid Mark c. Rifling Mark
b. Shearing Mark d. Stripping Mark
539. Type of firearms that propel projectiles less than one inch in diameter.
a. Artillery c. Machine Guns
b. Small arms d. Shoulder Arms
540. When percussion ignition started?
a. 1853 c. 1575
b. 1807 d. 1498
541. If the shape of the nose is round, the shape of the base is______.
a. Boat-tailed c. Square-Base
b. Flat base d. Hollow-base
542. It is a tabular metallic or non-metallic container which holds together the bullet,
gunpowder and primer.
a. Bullet c. Shell
b. Cartridge Case d. B or C
543. It refers to firearms that have rifling inside their gun barrel.
a. Smooth-Bore Firearms c. Bolt Action type
b. Rifled-Bore firearms d. Repeating arms
544. The bore diameter of the firearm is the________.
a. Type of firearm c. Size of Firearm
b. Caliber of firearm d. None of these
545. The term commonly used by physicians whenever there is blackening of the margin of the
gunshot wound of entrance.
a. Powder Grains c. Muzzle Blast
b. Powder Burns d. Flame
546. This kind of bullet contains a mixture such as phosphorous or other material that can be
set on fire by impact. These are used on targets that will readily burn such as aircrafts or
gasoline depot.
a. Explosive Bullets c. Tracer Bullets
b. Incendiary Bullets d. Armor Piercing Bullets
547. The term Bullet originated from the French word_______.
a. Boulette c. Pelette
b. Boul
d. None of these
548. The noise created at the muzzle of the gun due to the sudden escape of the expanding gas
coming in contact with the air in the surrounding atmosphere at the muzzle point.
a. Muzzle Energy c. Velocity
b. Trajectory d. Muzzle Blast
549. A part of the mouth of the case that is turned in upon the bullet and holds the bullet in
place.
a. Crimp c. Neck
b. Cannelure d. Base
550. It is the most powerful propellants.
a. Smokeless Powder c. Face Powder
b. Black Powder d. Grenade Powder
551. It refers to the attributes and movement of the bullet after it has left the gun muzzle.
a. Muzzle Energy c. Interior Ballistic
b. Exterior Ballistic d. Terminal Ballistic
552. A type of weapon which fire or is designed to fire automatically or semi-automatically
more than one shot without manual reloading.
a. Artillery c. Shoulder Arms
b. Machine guns d. Single Shot Firearms
553. It is known as self-loading firearm.
a. Revolver c. Single Action Firearm
b. Automatic Pistol d. Double Action Firearm
554. The portion of the primer against which the priming mixture is crushed by a blow from
the firing pin.
a. Disc c. Primer cup
b. Anvil d. Flash Hole
555. The diameter of the base of the cartridge case is the same as the diameter of the body of
the cartridge case or shell.
a. Rimmed type c. Semi-Rimmed
b. Rimless type d. Non-rimmed
556. In this firing weapon, the empty shell is ejected when the cartridge is fired and a new
cartridge is slipped into the breach automatically as a result of the recoil.
a. Rifle c. Automatic Pistol
b. Shotgun d. Revolver
29
CRIMINALISTICS
557. Most center-fire rifle cartridge cases are of_______.

a. Bottleneck type c. Long neck
b. Straight Cases d. Short Neck
558. It refers to firearm whose projectile is a collection of lead pellets which varies in sizes with
the type of cartridge applied.
a. Single Action Firearm c. Rifle
b. Double Action Firearm d. Shotgun
559. A firearm with a long barrel and butt.
a. Shotgun c. Double Action Firearm
b. Rifle d. Single Action firearm
560. There are two classification of bullet according to mechanical construction. One is the
lead bullet and the other is_________.
a. Jacketed Bullet c. Pointed Nose
b. Round Nose d. Hollow Point
561. He is a wizard of modern firearms and pioneered the breech-loading single shot rifle.
a. David Williams c. Samuel Colt
b. John M. Browning d. John Garand
562. The two classification of firearm according to the gun-barrel internal construction is the
Rifled-bore firearm and the ___________.
a. Single Shot firearm c. Smooth Bore Firearm
b. Repeating Arms d. Repeating Arms
563. The muzzle velocity of a Rifle is________.
a. 2, 600 feet per second c. 3, 000 feet per second
b. 2, 500 feet per second d. 2, 000 feet per second
564. A type of firearms designed to fire only one shot every loading.
a. Repeating Arms c. Bolt Action Type
b. Single Shot Firearms d. Machine Guns
565. The following are attributes of the bullet while still inside the muzzle of the gun except-
a. Velocity d. Combustion of the
b. Firing pin hitting the primer gunpowder
c. Ignition of the priming
mixture
566. The bottom of the case which holds the primer and the shell head.
a. Extracting Groove
b. Base
c. Crimp
d. Mouth
567. These bullets have hardened steel cores and are fired at vehicles and other armored
targets in general.
a. Armor Piercing Bullet c. Explosive Bullet
b. Incendiary Bullet d. Tracer Bullet
568. It refers to the investigation and identification of firearms by means of ammunition fired
through them.
a. Terminal Ballistic c. Exterior ballistic
b. Forensic Ballistic d. Interior Ballistic
569. An English Monk scientist who invented the gunpowder in 1248.
a. Berthold Schwarts c. King Edward III
b. Roger Bacon d. John M Browning
570. A mechanism of the firearm by which the empty shell or ammunition is thrown from the
firearm.
a. Extractor c. Trigger
b. Ejector d. Breechblock
571. This firearm is first manually cocked then followed by pressure on the trigger to release
the hammer.
a. Automatic Firearm c. Double Action Firearm
b. Single Shot Firearm d. Single Action Firearm
572.
573. It refers to firearm that propelled projectile more than an inch in diameter.
a. Small Arms c. Smooth Bore Firearms
b. Artillery d. Machine Guns
574. He founded the great firm Smith and Wesson and pioneered he making of breech loading
rifles.
a. Daniel B. Wesson c. Calvin Goddard
b. Horace Smith d. John M. Browning
575. It contains the head stamp, caliber and year of manufacture.
a. Primer c. Shell Head
b. Base d. Neck
576. It is an instrument used for the propulsion of projectile by means of the expansive force
of gases coming from the burning gunpowder.
a. Bullet c. Paltik
b. Firearm d. Grenade
577. Firearms that have no rifling inside the gun barrel.
a. Smooth-Bore firearm c. Small Arms
b. Rifled-bore firearm d. Artillery
30
CRIMINALISTICS
578. A smooth-bore and breech loading shoulder arm designed to fire a number of lead pellets
or shots in one charge.
a. Carbine c. Hand arms
b. Shotgun d. Revolver
579. A hand firearm equipped with rotating cylinder, serving as magazine, successively places
a cartridge into position for firing.
a. Pistol c. Revolver
b. Magazine d. Carbine
580. It initiates the path of the bullet.
a. Barrel c. Yoke
b. Frame d. Extractor
581. It houses the internal part of the firearm.
a. Yoke c. Hammer
b. Bolt d. Frame
582. It pulls the empty shell from the cylinder simultaneously.
a. Yoke c. Extractor
b. Firing Pin d. Ejector
583. Smith and Wesson revolvers have _________.
a. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the right
b. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the left
c. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the right
d. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the left
584. It activates the parts necessary to fire the weapon.
a. Hammer c. Firing pin
b. Trigger d. Ratchet
585. A mechanism of the firearm responsible for the spent shell or ammunition to be
withdrawn from the firing chamber.
a. Extractor c. Breechblock
b. Ejector d. Trigger
586. What firearm has a muzzle velocity of not more than 1,400 feet per second?
a. High Powered firearm c. Average power firearm
b. Low Power Firearm d. None of these
587. The metal containing the highly sensitive priming mixture of chemical compound, which
when struck by the firing pin it would ignite.
a. Gunpowder c. Bullet
b. Primer d. Cartridge
588. It refers to a firearm which has a cylindrical magazine situated at the rear of the barrel
capable of revolving motion and which can accommodate five or six cartridges; each of which
is housed in a separate chamber.
a. Automatic Pistol c. Rifle
b. Revolver d. Shotgun
589. It is the most simple form of modern cartridge and can generally found in Cal. 22
a. Pin-Fire cartridge c. Center Fire Cartridge
b. Rim-Fire Cartridge d. All of these
590. In this kind of firearm, a pull or pressure on the trigger will cause one shot.
a. Automatic firearm c. Double Action firearm
b. Single Shot firearm d. Single Action Firearm
591. The first cartridge of a self-exploding type.
a. Pin-Fire cartridge c. Center Fire Cartridge
b. Rim-Fire Cartridge d. All of these
592. The Trigger pressure of a rifle is________.
a. 4 lbs. c. 3-5 lbs
b. 3-4 lbs d. 6-7 lbs
593. The inner surface of the barrel that has a series of parallel spiral grooves on the whole
length is called_____.
a. Bore c. Twist
b. Rifling d. Hammer
594. The number of lands and grooves varies from __________.
a. 2 to 12 c. 4 to 12
b. 3 to 12 d. 6 to 5
595. This is an expression of one complete turn of the rifling on a certain length of the barrel.
a. Turn c. Rifling
b. Twist d. Both A & B
596. It refers to a projectile propelled through the barrel of the firearm by means of the
expansive force of gases coming from the burning gunpowder.
a. Bullet
b.
597. It refers to a tabular metallic container for the gunpowder.
a. Bullet c. Cartridge
b. Primer d. None of these
598. Fingerprint patterns are ________, as all fingerprint experts agree.
a. Always inherited c. Inherited as mendelian characteristics
b. Sometimes inherited d. Never inherited
31
CRIMINALISTICS
599. In the process of developing the impressions, the fingerprint powder should be applied as
soon as the ridges become visible;
a. Across the ridge c. In the direction of the ridge trend
b. In the interspaces d. In the center of the ridge
600. Refers to as fingerprint pattern wherein the ridge flow from one side to the other without
recurving, and ridges rising in the center.
a. Plain arch c. Plain whorl
b. Tented arch d. Plain loop
601. A pattern in which the ridges flow from one circle to another without recurving, usually
forming a slight upward curve in the center having resemblance of an arch.
a. Plain arch c. Plain whorl
b. Tented arch d. Plain loop
602. It is a fingerprint pattern in which the ridge or downward slant from the little finger
toward the radius bone or the thumb.
a. Loop c. Radial loop
b. Ulnar loop d. Tented arch
603. The system of fingerprinting is referred to as:
a. Poroscopy c. Dactyloscopy
b. Podoscopy d. Palmistry
604. In taking the fingerprint, it is a must to instruct the subject to:
a. Stiffen the fingers
b. Relax the fingers
c. Wash both hands before taking the prints
d. Exert pressure on the inking process
605. It is a ridge in the center of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a rod, loop, or a
spiral in the interior of the pattern.
a. Core c. Delta
b. Loop d. Bifurcation
606. A German criminologist who discovered that fingerprinting for identification purpose were
already used in the Far East during the Tang dynasty from 618 to 906 A.D.
a. Henry Faulds c. Robert Heindle
b. Dr. Nehemiah Greu d. Alphonse Bertillon
607. Regarded as the “Father of Fingerprints”
a. Sir Edward Richard Henry c. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Sir Frances Galton d. Gilbert Thompson
608. Basis of fingerprint identification.
a. Pores c. Friction ridges
b. Ridges d. Latent print
609. Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable method of identification due to following

reason; except:
a. Fingerprints are not changeable
b. There are no two identical fingerprints
c. wounded or burned out patterns will re-appear
d. It is formed in the ninth month of pregnancy
610. Period of a person‟s life wherein papillary ridges are formed and developed?
a. 3rd month of fetal life c. At birth
b. 6th month of infancy d. 3 months after birth
611. Nucleus of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a loop, spiral or rod.
a. Delta c. Ridge
b. Core d. Whorl
612. Minimum identical characteristics detail to justify the identity between two points.
a. Nine c. Fifteen
b. Twelve d. Eighteen
613. A British scientist who devoted his work to the study of fingerprint and established his
system of fingerprint classification in England.
a. Sir Francis Galton c. Samuel Clemens
b. Sir Edward Richard Henry d. Gilbert Thompson
614. An American who first utilized fingerprint classification to prevent forgery in New Mexico.
a. Sir Francis Galton c. Samuel Clemens
615. First chief of the Identification Bureau in Paris who was known for his anthropometric
measurement.
a. Alphonse Bertillon c. Samuel Clemens
616. First Filipino expert on fingerprinting.
a. Atty. Agustin Patricio c. Atty. Lorenzo Sunico
b. Gen. Rafael Crame d. Col. Jose Lukban
617. First judicial decision within Philippine jurisprudence relying on the science of
fingerprinting.
a. People of the Philippines Vs. Medina, 59, Phil. 330
b. People of the Philippines vs. Ponferada, 54 Phil. 68
c. People of the Philippines vs.Arseni, 34 Phil. 750
d. People of the Philippines vs.Pacana, 47 Phil. 48
32
CRIMINALISTICS
618. Papillary or friction ridges may be located at:

a. Fingers c. Soles of the feet
b. Palms d. All of the above
619. The fingerprint classification which is used in the United States.
a. Henry System c. Beni‟lion System
b. Batley System d. Galton System
620. Which among the following is considered as a basic type of ridge characteristics?
a. Ridge ending c. Dots
b. Bifurcation d. All of the foregoing
621. Study of the characteristics formed by the sides of papillary ridges as means of
identification.
a. Edgeoscopy c. Podoscopy
b. Poroscopy d. Chiroscopy
622. In taking fingerprints the absolute control of the subject‟s hand is:
a. Necessary c. Optional
b. Unnecessary d. Excessive
623. Usually occupational damage to ridge formation is;
a. Temporary c. Lasting
b. Permanent d. Stable
624. An inking pad which requires no ink or roller.
a. Porelon c. Inkless pad
b. Special pad d. None of these
625. If the same digits of both hands are missing, the impression is held to be:
a. Plain whorl meeting c. Arches
b. Loops d. Dependent on ridge tracings
626. Referred to as outer terminus:
a. Delta c. Bifurcation
b. Dots d. None of these
627. Failure to clean the slab after using it produces:
a. Impression of false markings c. Pattern reversals
b. Accentuation of patterns d. Difficulty in photographing
628. In taking fingerprints ________ are rolled away from the body of the subjects.
a. All fingers c. Both thumbs
b. All finger except the thumbs d. Both little fingers
629. Impressions which are taken simultaneously on the fingerprint card are referred to as:
a. Rolled impressions c. Fragmentary impressions
b. Plain impressions d. Visible impressions
630. Known for his rule which states that “No two individuals in the world are exactly the
same size and that human skeleton does not change after 20 years.
a. Darwin c. Galton
b. Mendel d. Bertillon
631. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprints is to view the area:
a. Obliquely c. Directly
b. About half an inch distance d. about one inch distance
632. Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type of pattern are represented.
a. Accidental loop c. Double loop
b. Central pocket loop d. Whorl
633. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loops, with its respective shoulder and
deltas.
a. Double loop c. Central pocket loop
b. Accidental loop d. whorl
634. A fingerprint pattern with a single loop but has two deltas.
a. Accidental loop c. Whorl
b. Double loop d. Central pocket loop
635. What pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from the thumb toward the little finger?
a. Tented Arch c. Ulnar loop
b. Radial loop d. Loop
636. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of the impression by a
recurve, and terminate on the same side where the ridge has entered.
a. Tented arch c. Ulnar loop
b. Radial loop d. loop
637. It is triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation of a ridge at the outer portion of the
pattern.
a. Latent prints c. Core
b. Ridge d. Delta
638. The three basic types of ridge characteristics are:
a. Enclosure, long ridges and upthrusts
b. Criss-crossing ridges, incipient ridges
c. Ridge endings, dots and bifurcations
d. Type lines, converging ridges and recurving ridges
639. A single ridge that bifurcates and meets again to form a single ridge is called:
a. Enclosure ridge c. Short ridges
b. Dot ridges d. Resembling a loop
640. Which part of the human body has no papillary ridges.
33
CRIMINALISTICS
a. Soles of the foot c. Finger

b. Palm d. Both A and B
641. Points often missed in rolling impression.
a. Bifurcation c. Delta
b. Core d. Ridge
642. Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be an impression or imprint.
a. Latent print c. Whorl
b. Pattern d. Arch
643. Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint pattern?
a. Loop c. Whorl
b. Arch d. Accidental
644. A fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of spirals around core axes.
a. Whorl c. Double loop
b. Central packet loop d. Accidental
645. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on papillary ridges as a means of
identification.
a. Poroscopy c. Podoscopy
b. Edeoscopy d. Dactyloscopy
646. A ridge which forks out into two ridges.
a. Delta c. Core
b. Bifurcation d. Pores
647. Fingerprints pattern in which the downward slant or ridges from the little finger toward
the thumb.
a. Ulnar loop c. Arch
b. Radial loop d. Whorl
648. To help identify a subject who is an alien, the most vital information to be obtained at the
Bureau of Immigration and Deportation is…
a. Educational attainment of the alien c. Occupation of the alien
b. Residence of the alien d. Port of entry of the alien
649. In tracing a suspected person at large in a criminal case, the least vital among the
following would be…
a. His appearance and how he dresses
b. Known associates and companions
c. His occupation or means of livelihood
d. Where the suspect hang‟s out
650. What does the first two digit of a person‟s Social Security Number indicates?
a. The occupation of the member at the time of registration
b. The month of registration
c. The income bracket or group where the member belongs
d. The region where the member originally registered
651. In determining the identity of an unknown dead body found in a river, wherein no
identifying papers are to be found, and the body is badly mutilated and swollen, which
among the following means of identification is least dependable?
a. Fingerprints c. Scars on the body
b. Tattoo markings on the body d. Measurement of the body
652. In reporting a missing person, which among the following is the most vital information
necessary to locate the said person?
a. Clinical or medical history of the person
b. Personal traits and habits
c. Mental attitude and condition at the time of the disappearance
d. Physical description
653. Given to a complete set of ten fingers as they appear on a fingerprint card generally based
on pattern type, ridge tracing or ridge count.
a. Henry System c. Fingerprint Classification
b. Battley System d. Classification Formula
654. It constitutes approximately 65% of all fingerprints.
a. Loops c. Whorls
b. Arches d. Accidentals
655. That part of the fingerprint wherein we find the core and delta.
a. Bifurcation c. Type lines
b. Pattern area d. None of these
656. Refers to innermost ridges that run parallel, diverge and surround or tend to surround
the pattern area.
a. Delta c. Core
b. Divergence d. Type lines
657. A smooth spreading apart of two ridges which have been running parallel or nearly
parallel.
a. Island c. Divergence
b. Dot d. Convergence
658. A small ridge attached to another ridge.
a. Island c. Bifurcation
b. Dot d. appendage
659. In ridge counting of loops, which among the following is not counted?
a. Delta c. Intervening ridges
34
CRIMINALISTICS
b. Core d. Both A and B

660. When the trace is whorls is on the outside or core outside of right delta three or more
ridges, the trace is determined to be;
a. (I) Inner c. (M) Meet
b. (O) Outer d. None of these
661. Represents the total numerical value of the even numbered fingers plus one over the total
number numerical value of the odd numbered fingers plus one.
a. Primary c. Key
b. Secondary d. Final
662. In the classification, this is always shown in capital letters with the right hand over the
help.
a. Primary c. Key
663. It tells us the classification of the thumbprints on the fingerprint card and appears
showing the right hand over the left hand.
a. Primary c. Key
664. If all fingers are amputated or missing at birth, the classification will be;
a. M 32 W MMM c. M 30 W MMM
M 32 W MMM M 30 W MMM
b. M 31 W MMM d. None of these
M 31 W MMM
665. If one finger is amputated, it is given a classification with that of;
a. The opposite finger c. The first finger
b. The next finger d. The last finger
666. It consist of recordings of all friction ridges present on the palmar surfaces of the hands
and the inner surfaces of the fingers. They are commonly utilized to make accurate and
conclusive comparisons with all latent prints obtained during the investigation of a major
case.
a. Major Case print c. Special case print
b. Fingerprint chart d. None of these
667. In trying to obtain prints on fingers of a dead person which is stiff or when rigor mortis
has set in, injection of a tissue builder by a hypodermic needle at the joint of the finger up to
the tip of the finger is undertaken. Which among the following is the most commonly utilized
tissue builder?
a. Glycerine c. Saline Solution
b. Water d. Both A and B
668. This test is used to detect the presence of semen particularly in stained clothing.
a. Microscopic test c. Florence test
b. Barberio‟s test d. Ultraviolet test
669. The best method in comparative soil analysis.
a. Chemical examination c. UV light examination
b. Density gradient test d. Microscopic examination
670. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test is utilized?
a. Accelerated aging test c. Opacity examination
b. Bursting strength test d. Microscopic examination
671. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by decaying body.
a. Chloride c. Carbon dioxide
b. Ammonia d. Hydrogen sulfide
672. A condition whereby males have no spermatozoa in their seminal fluid.
a. Aspermia c. Sterility
b. Oligospremia d. Rigidity
673. It is the scientific study of serums which describes the analysis of antigen-antibody
reactions.
a. Serology c. Biology
b. Posology d. Serumnology
674. An incendiary device made of glass bottle filled with gasoline or any inflammable mixture
with a piece of absorbent cotton for a fuse or wick.
a. Tear gas c. Molotov bomb
b. Molotov Cocktail d. RDX
675. Cheapest form of solid oxidizer in an explosive mixture.
a. C-4 c. Ammonium nitrate
b. RDX d. TNT
676. Most utilized and important military explosive.
a. C-4 c. Ammonium nitrate
b. RDX d. TNT
677. Earliest substance used for writing.
a. Leaves c. Linen
b. Paper d. Egyptian papyrus
678. Agents which produce intestinal evacuation.
a. Emetic c. Antidotes
b. Cathartics d. Demulcents
679. A product of decomposition found nearly in all soils.
35
CRIMINALISTICS
a. Sedentary soil c. Primary minerals

b. Clay minerals d. Organic constituents
680. For radial cracks it states that stress lines on radial crack will be at right angle to the
rear side.
a. RFC rule c. Flotation
b. 3 R‟s d. Immersion
681. Normally responsible for retraction of the blood cloth.
a. Whiter blood cells (leucocytes)
b. Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
c. Blood platelets (thrombosytes)
d. Fibribogen
682. Rifling in the bore of small arms is primarily designed for:
a. Increase the speed of the bullet
b. Decrease the amount of recoil
c. Increase impact damage
d. Prevent the bullet from turning end over in the air
683. Scientific examination of bullets and firearms presumably used in the commission of a
crime.
a. Interior ballistics c. Terminal ballistics
b. Exterior ballistics d. Forensic ballistics
684. A result of wear and tear, corrosion, erosion which affects the normal operation of a
firearm.
a. Factory defect c. Individual intention characteristics
b. Precipitate d. Individual accidental
characteristics
685. Cannelure is used in firearms identification to determine.
a. Manufacturer of the firearm c. Type of gun
b. Manufacturer of the bullet d. Weapon that fired the shot
686. A barrel of any firearm is legally classified as:
a. Part of the firearm c. Accessory
b. Nomenclature d. Complete firearm
687. Rate of twist in the rifling of a rifle or pistol barrel.
a. Land c. Leed
b. Grooves d. Ogive
688. A test used to determine the distance from the bullet hole at which the gun was fired.
a. Triangulation c. Alphanothylamine test
b. Photo-micrographic test d. Diphenylamine test
689. After repeated firing of a revolver, this is deposited frequently on the index finger of the
hand which the shooter used to fire the gun.
a. Powder burn c. Precipitin
b. Residue d. Dirt
690. To link a shell with a shotgun that fired it, in the laboratory examination it should be
given:
a. Wadding c. Pellets
b. Cap d. Wads
691. In firearms identification, it is essential to supplement the serial number with…
a. Caliber c. Make and model number
b. Frame number d. All of these
692. It is a result when the firearm is shot at around 2 to 8 inches to the target.
a. Smudging c. Contact burn
b. Tattooing d. Contact wound
693. It is produced when the muzzle is held against the target or body when fired.
a. Smudging c. Contact burn
b. Tattooing d. Contact wound
694. In the effort to identify the shell with the revolver which fired it, which among the
following is essential?
a. Marks of the breechblock c. None of these
b. Marks of the firing pin hole d. Both A and B
695. In shots fired from an automatic pistol, the shell in most cases…
a. Will be found on the scene of the crime
b. Will remain in the chamber
c. Will be rarely found in the scene of the crime
d. Will be usually disposed by the perpetrator
696. When booking a fired bullet, the mark used to identify it is placed on.
a. Its base c. Its side and base
b. Its side d. Its nose
697. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are usually classified as:
a. Flare guns c. Matchlock
b. Zip guns d. Freakish device
698. The most reliable of all individual characteristics, when fired cartridges are concerned.
a. Extractor marks c. Chamber marks
b. Ejector marks d. Breechface markS
699. It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge‟s failure to explode on time.
a. Misfire c. Ricochet
36
CRIMINALISTICS
b. Hang fire d. Key hole shot

700. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily barrel or its lands have been worn
down would produce what kind of markings?
a. Slippage marks c. Rifling marks
b. Skid marks d. Shearing marks
701. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of projectiles.
a. Caliper d. Test bullet
b. Chronograph d. Bullet recovery box
702. Any metallic body referred to as a bullet.
a. Projectile c. Shell
b. Ball d. Missile
703. The science of dealing with the motion of projectiles at the same time it leaves the muzzle
of the firearm to the time it hits the target.
b. Exterior ballistics d. Posterior ballistics
704. The science which deals with the effect of the impact of the projectile on the target.
b. Exterior ballistics d. Posterior ballistics
705. Part of the firearm which strikes the firing pin.
a. Trigger c. Sear
b. Hammer d. Main spring
706. Applied to a shot gun which indicates bore diameter is equal to the diameter of the lead
ball whose weight in pound is equal to reciprocal gauge index.
a. Caliber c. Shot
b. Gauge d. Charge
707. An ancient smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a single round lead ball.
a. Shotgun c. Musket
b. Rifle d. Pistol
708. A smooth bore weapon designed to shoot a number of lead pellets in one charge.
a. Shotgun c. Musket
b. Rifle d. Pistol
709. Placed in the barrels of the firearm to impart a spin on the bullet that pass through it.
a. Lands c. Rifling
b. Grooves d. All of these
710. The modern method of rifling which uses a hardened steel rod with several cutting rings
spaced down the rod.
a. Button rifling c. Polygonal rifling
b. Broach rifling d. Electrochemical rifling
711. The most common method of rifling used today, wherein the grooves are formed in the
barrel under very high pressure forming the rifling in the barrel which hardens and polishes
the inside of the barrel.
b. Broach rifling d. Electrochemical rifling
712. This produces a type of rifling called polygonal rifling, common in Glock, Steyr, IMI and a
few other manufacturers.
b. Broach rifling d. Hammer forged rifling
713. Part of exterior ballistics which refers to the sound created at the muzzle end of the
barrel.
a. Muzzle energy c. Muzzle noise
b. Muzzle blast d. Range
714. A type of rimmed cartridge wherein the diameter of the rim is greater than the diameter of
the body of the cartridge case.
a. immed type c. Belted type
b. Semi-rimmed type d. Rebated type
715. A type of firearm which the pressure upon the trigger both cocks and release the
hammer.
a. Automatic c. Double action
b. Single action d. slide action type
716. All calibers of Colt revolver has________.
a. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the right
b. 5 lands , 5 Grooves and twist to the left
c. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the right
d. 6 lands, 6 grooves and twist to the left
717. A metallic cup charged with a priming composition, usually made up of potassium
chlorate, antimony sulfide and fulminate of mercury.
a. Primer c. Cartridge
b. Gunpowder
718. It is committed by giving any payable instrument to bearer such as treasury or bank
notes the appearance of a genuine document.
a. Estafa c. Forgery
b. Falsification of document d. All of these
719. It applies to documents whether public, official or commercial wherein handwriting or
signature contained therein is imitated.
37
CRIMINALISTICS
b. Falsification of document d. All of these
720. The act of making it appears that persons have participated in any proceeding or act
when in fact they have not participated in any document.
b. Falsification of document d. All of the foregoing
721. A person who alters by any means, the lettes, figures, words or signs contained in any
bank or Treasury note is liable for:
b. Falsification of document d. All of the foregoing
722. It refers to the assessment or altered, forged or suspected papers to determine if they are
genuine or otherwise.
b. Falsification of document d. Questioned document examination
723. Iodine fumes is useful in questioned document examination because:
a. It can be used to developed secret writings
b. It can be used to determine whether erasures have been made
c. It can determine the kind of ink used in writing
d. Both A and B
724. Which among the foregoing may be utilized as a means to carry out mechanical erasures?
a. Rubber eraser c. Blade
b. Sharp knife d. All of these
725. An erasure with the use of ink eradicators.
a. Mechanical erasure c. Electronic erasure
b. Chemical erasure d. All of the foregoing
726. Instruments whose origin are known and proven; which are used in comparison with a
questioned document.
a. Simulated documents c. Standard documents
b. Falsified documents d. Forged documents
727. A document executed without the intervention of a notary or any competent public official
by which some agreement or disposition is proved.
a. Public document c. Private documents
b. Official document d. Commercial document
728. To obtain conviction for the charge of possession of false bank or treasury notes this is an
essential requisite.
a. Intention to use it c. Intention to surrender it to authorities
b. Intention to keep it d. Intention to display it
729. A city mayor executed a document in his legal capacity as a local executive, that
document is classified as:
a. Public document c. Private document
730. A document notarized by a notary public or any competent authority is legally classified
as:
a. Public document c. Private document
731. A man who is unable to write may use this legally signify a signature.
a. Crude x c. Thumb mark
b. Cross mark d. Both A and B
732. Refers to the design of letters which are fundamental to a writing system.
a. Copy book form c. Line quality
b. System of writing d. Writing movement
733. It refers to any abnormality or maladjustment in the typewriter which is reflected in its
product
a. Defect c. Misalignment
b. Mal alignment d. Alteration
734. Enlarged photographic court exhibit usually referred to as bromide enlargements of a
document.
a. Standard document c. Collected documents
b. Questions documents d. Display exhibits
735. The appearance of paper when viewed by transmitted light, which discloses the formation
and texture of the sheet.
a. Lock-through of paper c. Cross marks
b. Watermarks d. Sidelight marks
736. It consists of chemical solutions.
a. Non aqueous ink c. Ink eradicators
b. Aqueous ink d. all of these
737. Any characteristic of handwriting which is sufficiently well fixed and unique to serve as a
fundamental point in the identification of the writer.
a. Copy book form c. System of writing
b. Line quality d. Significant writing habits
738. Refers to any specimen of writing executed normally without any attempt to change or
control its identifying habits and its usual quality of execution.
a. Natural writing c. Cursive writing
b. Disguised writing d. System of writing
38
CRIMINALISTICS
739. Jose Pidal in trying to alter his own signature to hide his identity is using:
740. Writing in which are for most part joined together.
741. Usual deviations found between repeated specimen of any individual handwriting or in
the product of any typewriter.
a. Normal variation c. Tremor
b. Natural variation d. Wrong hand writing
742. A person executing a signature while his arm is steadied and assisted produces a:
a. Guided signature c. Scribble
b. Normal signature d. Handwriting signature
743. A preliminary embellished initial common to capital letters.
a. Embellishment c. Buckle knot
b. Beard d. Diacritic
744. A minute curve which occurs at the end of terminal strokes.
a. Hook c. Loop
b. Spur d. Staff
745. An oblong curve found in small letters f, g, h and I.
a. Hook c. Loop
b. Spur d. Staff
746. The introductory backward stroke added to the start of many capital letters and which
can also be seen occasionally in introductory strokes of small letters.
b. Beard d. Hitch
747. A loop made as a flourish which is added to a letter.
b. Beard d. Diacritic
748. Visible record in the writing stroke of the basis movement and manner of holding the
writing instrument.
a. Line quality c. Baseline
b. Rhythm d. Writing pressure
749. Additional unnecessary stroke for ornamental purposes.
a. Embellishment c. Diacritic
b. Hump d. Knot
750. Balance quality of movement of the harmonious recurrence of stress of impulse.
a. Line quality c. Baseline
b. Rhythm d. Writing pressure
751. Refers to the periodic increase in pressure or intermittently forcing the pen against the
paper surface with increase pressure.
a. Writing pressure c. Pen emphasis
b. Shading d. Natural variation
752. An imaginary line upon which the writing rests.
a. Line quality c. Foot
b. Baseline d. Hitch
753. A signature written by the forger in his own style of handwriting without attempting to
copy to form of the genuine signature.
a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery
b. Disguised forgery d. Simple forgery
754. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skilful type of forgery.
a. Traced forgery c. Simulated forgery
b. Disguised forgery d. Simple forgery
755. Which among the following is an indication of genuineness of handwriting?
a. Continuity c. Skilful writing
b. Smoothness d. Tremor
756. Combination of the basic design of letters and writing movement as taught in school.
a. Letter form c. Copy book form
b. Line quality d. System of writing
757. Document which is completely written and signed by one person.
a. Genuine documents c. Holographic document
b. Disputed document d. Authentic document
758. A document which contains some changes either as an addition or deletion.
a. Altered document c. Obliterated document
b. Disputed document d. Inserted document
759. Signatures used to acknowledge delivery, purchase of goods and mail.
a. Complete c. Cursory
b. Formal d. Careless scribble
760. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the original undecipherable.
a. Decipherment c. Obliteration
b. Restoration d. Interlineations
761. A class of signature for routine document or day to day correspondence.
a. Formal c. Cursory
b. Complete d. Careless scribble
39
CRIMINALISTICS
762. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge important documents.

a. Complete c. Informal
b. Cursory d. Careless scribble
763. A process by which a canal like outline is produce on a fraudulent document underneath
the genuine and tracing it with the use of a pointed instrument.
a. Carbon process c. Projection process
b. Indention process d. Transmitted light process
764. A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier than the rest of its outline.
a. Off its feet c. Clogged type face
b. Twisted letter d. Rebound
765. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is almost unconscious expression of fixed
muscular habits reacting from fixed mental impressions.
a. Handwriting c. Typewriting
b. Writing d. writing movement
766. A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation and pen lifts difficult.
a. Ball point pen c. Iron nutgall ink
b. Fountain pen d. Markers
767. Disconnection between letters or letter combination due to lack of movement control.
a. Pen lift c. Patching
b. Retouching d. Retracing
768. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on the paper during manufacture.
a. Water marks c. Paper design
b. Fiber marks d. Wire marks
769. In utilizing a stereo-graphic photomicrograph, what particular condition is manifested?
a. Grainy image c. Overlapping image
b. Two image d. Three dimensional image
770. An element which is added to complete another letter.
a. Spur d. Diacritics
b. Beard hook
771. It is a signature signed at a particular time and place, purpose and normal writing
conditions.
a. Complete signature c. Evidential signature
b. Standard signature d. Model signature
772. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening of the ink stroke.
a. Shading c. Pen lift
b. Pen emphasis d. Pen pressure
773. The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity of paper money.
a. Quality or sharpness of the engraving
b. Color of the seal
c. Wet strength of the paper
d. Watermarks
774. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but made inferior or superior intrinsic value
to that of the genuine coin.
a. Priceless coin c. False coin
b. Mutilated coin d. All of these
775. It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal strokes made by the momentum of
the hand.
a. Tremor c. Genuine tremor
b. Tremors of fraud d. Deterioration
776. Any arcade formed in the body of the letters.
a. Staff c. Diacritics
b. Slant d. Humps
777. A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the horizontal inch.
a. Pica c. Proportional spacing machine
b. Elite d. Adding machine
778. Developed the system of handwriting classification utilized by most police departments.
a. Lee and Abbey c. Levine
b. Rolando Wilson d. Land steiner
779. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but
notarized by competent officials.
a. Official document c. Commercial document
b. Public document d. Private document
780. An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine coin.
a. False coin c. Priceless coin
b. Counterfeit coin d. Mutilation of coins
781. It refers to the printing surface of a type block.
a. Character c. Pitch
b. Design d. Type face
782. Widening of the ink stroke due to added pressure on a flexible pen point.
a. Shading c. Shading
b. Pen pressure d. All of these
783. It represents the backbone or main stroke of letters.
a. Slant c. Staff
b. Diacritics d. Foot
40
CRIMINALISTICS
784. It is the process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced.
a. Decipherment c. Obliteration
b. Collation d. Examination
785. An act of setting two or more items to weigh their identifying characteristics.
a. Comparison c. Conclusion
b. Collation d. Examination
786. An examination of documents wherein it is viewed with the source of illumination behind
it and the light passing through the paper.
a. Transmitted light examination c. Infrared examination
b. Oblique photography examination d. Ultraviolet examination
787. The art of attempting to interpret the personality of a person from his handwriting.
a. Questioned Document Examination c. Graphology
b. Polygraphy d. Psychology
788. Identifying typewriter characteristics which can be eliminated by cleaning the machine or
replacing the ribbon.
a. Transitory defect c. Permanent defect
b. Alignment defect d. Defect
789. A defect in typewrites due to the wear and tear of the type block in which some letters
lean to the left or right of their correct slant.
a. Off its feet c. Twisted letter
b. Clogged type face d. Rebound
790. And angle or inclination of the axis of the letter relative to the baseline.
a. Foot c. Staff
b. Slant d. Hitch
791. A distinct and peculiar character used to identify handwriting to any identifying factor
related to the writing movement itself.
a. Quality c. Skill
b. Line quality d. System of writing
792. Going back over a defective portion of a writing stroke, it is a common defect in forgeries
and is also known as retouching.
a. Patching c. Erasure
b. Smeared over writing d. Interlineations
793. Refers to written documents in the ordinary course of business or in the regular course of
man‟s activity. Also known as procured standards.
a. Requested standards c. Standard documents
b. Collected standards d. Holographic documents
794. Also known as “post litel motam” or dictated standards is a document which are executed
and prepared at one time upon request.
a. Requested standards c. Standard documents
b. Collected standards d. Holographic documents
795. Also known as formal signature it is executed in signing contracts, certifications, checks
and other important documents.
a. Complete c. Careless scribble
b. Cursory d. None of these
796. A signature usually executed in the conduct of a person‟s daily affairs.
a. Formal c. Informal
b. Cursory d. Both B and C
797. For signing mail, receipts and other insignificant documents such as signatures executed
by celebrities to their fans.
a. Complete c. Careless scribble
b. Cursory d. Informal
798. Builder of the first pyramid, he was considered as the first or earliest recorded medico-
legal expert.
a. Antistius c. Paulus Zacchias
b. Imhotep d. San Juan de Bautista
799. First chief medico legal officer of the Philippine Commonwelth.
a. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
b. Dr. Pedro Solis d. Dr. Enrique V. delos Santos
800. Regarded as the Father of Forensic Medicine.
801. Earliest known forensic pathologist or police surgeon, who performed the autopsy of
Julius Caesar, reporting that out of the 23 stab wounds, only one penetrated the chest
cavity between the first and second rib which was Caesar‟s proximate cause of death.
802. First chief of the Medico Legal Division of the Bureau of Investigation.
a. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
b. Dr. Pedro Solis d. Dr. Enrique V. delos Santos
803. This states that the greater number of points of similarities and variations between two
persons, the greater the probability of the conclusion to be accurate.
a. Prima Facie evidence rule
b. Conclusive evidence rule
c. Law of multiplicity of evidence in identification
41
CRIMINALISTICS
d. Chain of custody of evidence

804. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere.
a. Red c. Reddish-brown
b. Clay d. Black
805. It has for its characteristics as, bright scarlet in color, with high oxygen content and
leaves the blood vessel with pressure.
a. Arterial blood c. Menstrual blood
b. Venous blood d. Human blood
806. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content and usually does not spill far from the wound.
807. This blood contains a high number of deodorleins bacillus, it does not clot and has acidic
reactions.
808. A condition in which foreign matters are introduced in the blood stream blocking the
blood circulation in the finer capillaries and arteriiles.
a. Infection c. Hemorrhage
b. Embolism d. Hematoma
809. It is the disorder of the fluid balance due to peripheral deficiency, characterized by the
decreased blood volume, its flow, hemo-concentration and renal deficiency.
b. Shock d. Hematoma
810. Extravasations or loss of blood from the circulation due to inflicted wounds in the cardio-
vascular system.
811. The growth and development of micro-organism in the location of the injury or wound.
812. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin due to the rupture of blood vessels
as a result of the application of a blunt force.
a. Contusion c. Hemorrhage
b. Shock d. Hematoma
813. Wound produced to man‟s instinctive reaction of self-preservation to repel attacks or an
aggressor.
a. Defense wound c. Patterned wound
b. Self-inflicted wound d. Mutilated wound
814. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the instrument which caused it.
a. Defense wound c. Patterned wound
b. Self-inflicted wound d. Mutilated wound
815. Pulverization of the body into shape with the use of intense heat.
a. Exhumation c. Charring
b. Cremation d. Pounding
816. Prescribed depth of a grave under P.D. 856, Section 19 of the Code of Sanitation.
a. At least ½ meters deep c. At least 1 and ½ meters deep
b. At least 1 meters deep d. At least 2 meters deep
817. A person who died of a communicable disease must be buried within…
a. 6 hours after death, unless the local health officer permits otherwise
b. 12 hours after death, unless the health officer permits extension
c. 24 hours after death, unless the health officer permits extension
d. 48 hours after death, unless the health officer permits extension
d. 48 hours after death.
818. A significant difference between the male and female skull is that in males, the
supercialiary ridges are ______ than compared with females.
a. Less sharp c. More pointed
b. Sharper d. Smoother
819. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with male pelvis.
a. Greater c. Lesser
b. Equal d. Less significant
820. How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation in respiration, circulation and brain
function is sufficient to declare a person clinically dead?
a. 10-15 minutes c. 30-45 minutes
b. 15-30 minutes d. 45-60 minutes
821. A simple test used to determine cessation of respiration by placing water or mercury in a
container on top of the chest of a person and no visible movement is noticed.
a. Winslov test c. Barberio‟s test
b. Florence test d. Castle Meyer test
822. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the muscles and in which it no longer
responds to mechanical or electrical stimulus due to the dissolution of proteins.
a. Stage of primary flaccidity c. Rigor mortis
b. Stage of secondary flaccidity d. Livor mortis
823. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from a dead body in how many days?
a. 7 c. 21
42
CRIMINALISTICS
b. 14 d. 28
824. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how many days
from death?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
825. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the bone, loss of alignment of the affected
bones and separation of fragment bones.
a. Simple fracture c. Communicated fracture
b. Compound fracture d. None of these
826. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body.
a. Internal hemorrhage c. Contusion
b. Hematoma d. Internal wound
827. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object.
a. Imprint abrasion c. Friction abrasion
b. Pressure abrasion d. Graze
828. Reduction of oxygen in the blood.
a. Hypoxia c. Hypercapnea
b. Asphyxia d. None of the foregoing
829. Refers to an abrasion due to pressure applied and with accompanying movement over the
skin.
a. Pressure abrasion c. Impact abrasion
b. Imprint abrasion d. Graze
830. A nervous disease marked by seizures with convulsion and loss of consciousness.
a. Epilepsy c. Catalepsy
b. Apoplexy d. Uremia
831. Refers to the accumulation in the blood ordinarily eliminated in the urine; specifically a
toxic condition seen in urinary suppression, marked by nausea, vertigo, vomiting, coma and
convulsion.
a. Epilepsy c. Catalepsy
b. Apoplexy d. Uremia
832. LIvor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how many hours when the blood has
already clotted or diffused to different parts of the body wherein the discoloration is
permanent and darker in color?
a. 12 hours c. 36 hours
b. 24 hours d. 48 hours
833. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination with either group A or B what would
be the particular blood group of the sample?
a. Group A c. Group AB
b. Group B d. Group O
834. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years c. 30 years
b. 20 years d. 40 years
835. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white greasy substance in the soft fatty
tissue after death.
a. Saponification c. Mummification
b. Rigor mortis d. Maceration
836. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in the blood vessels
of the most dependent portions of the body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is
completed by 12 hours.
a. Rigor mortis c. Maceration
b. Primary flaccidity d. Livor mortis
837. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents after meals.
a. 2 to 3 hours c. 4 to 5 hours
b. 3 to 4 hours d. 5 to 6 hours
838. Rate of growth of human hair.
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm./day c. 0.6 to 0.6 mm./day
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm./day d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm./day
839. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body temperature is about:
a. 10 to 15⁰F c. 20 to 25⁰F
b. 15 to 20 ⁰F d. 25 to 30⁰F
840. Sudden inflammation of the pancreas caused by infections carried in the blood stream. It
may follow obstruction of the pancreatic duct and subsequent congestion of the gland.
a. Perforated peptic ulcer c. Acute intestinal obstruction
b. Generalized peritonitis d. Acute pancreatitis
841. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.
a. Wound c. Bruise
b. Trauma d. Scratch
842. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it will endanger one‟s life.
a. Non-mortal wound c. Trauma
b. Mortal wound d. Coup injury
843. A collection of blood underneath the skin.
a. Contusion c. Petechiae
b. Bruise d. Hematoma
43
CRIMINALISTICS
844. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and muscles causing skin discoloration and
extreme pain.
a. Sprain c. Fracture
b. Contusion d. Dislocation
845. It is a fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is evident.
a. Simple c. Comminuted
b. Compound d. fracture
846. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without external wounds.
a. Sprain c. Hematoma
b. Fracture d. Dislocation
847. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and blackening of the skin,
it may be ascertained that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of the body to
the gun is approximately:
a. 6 inches c. 18 inches
b. 12 inches d. 24 inches
848. A physical injury which is found at the site and also the opposite site of the application of
force.
a. Extensive injury c. Contre coup injury
b. Coup injury d. Coup and contre coup injury
849. A physical injury found at the site of the application of force.
a. Extensive injury c. Contre coup injury
b. Coup injury d. Coup and contre coup injury
850. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log and stone.
a. Punctured wound c. Lacerated wound
b. Hack wound d. Incised wound
851. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what wound would be exhibited?
852. Wound produced by a butcher‟s knife.
853. The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows ACGT, A stands for what?
a. Adenine c. Adenum
b. Adenide d. Adenoid
854. In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what sample should be obtained for DNA
testing?
a. Fingernails c. Skeleton
b. Hair d. Teeth
855. It is inherited from the mother found in the mitochondria which is in the cell body.
a. Nuclear DNA c. Mitochondrial DNA
b. Helix d. DNA nucleus
856. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years c. 30 years
b. 20 years d. 40 years
857. A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration, circulation and almost all
brain function of an organism.
a. Somatic death c. Molecular death
b. Cellular death d. Apparent death
858. Manner of walking of a person which may be natural or secondary.
a. Mannerism c. Gait
b. Tic d. Body language
859. This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to 30 minutes and is characterized by
the relaxation of the muscles and loss of their natural tone.
a. Stage of primary flaccidity c. Cadaveric spasm
b. Post mortem rigidity d. Secondary flaccidity
860. Approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA testing.
a. Minimum of 2 weeks c. Minimum of six weeks
b. Minimum of 4 weeks d. Minimum of eight weeks
861. Period of time wherein there body would be completely skeletonized, under normal
conditions in tropical countries.
a. 1 month c. 6 months
b. 3 months d. 12 months
862. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable muscular change
a. Cold stiffening c. Instantaneous rigor
b. Heat stiffening d. Putrefaction
863. Fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels or has diffused to
different parts of the body.
a. Diffusion lividity c. Rigor mortis
b. Clotting of the blood d. Hypostatic lividity
864. Approximate average amount of semen per ejaculation under normal conditions.
a. 2 to 2.5 cubic centimeters c. 5 to 10 cubic centimeters
b. 2.5 to 5 cubic centimeters d. 10 to 15 cubic centimeters
44
CRIMINALISTICS
865. DNA, is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is regarded as the fingerprint of life.
What does it stands for?
a. Deonatural acid c. Deoxyribunucleic acid
b. Dynamic natural anti-body d. Deoxyribunucliec acid
866. A powerful tool in identification which points to the source of biological evidence by
matching it with samples from the victims, suspects and their relatives.
a. DNA profiling c. Instrumentation
b. Serology d. Forensics
867. Body fluids routinely tested because they are good sources of cells.
a. Saliva and tears c. Urine and semen
b. Semen and saliva d. Semen and blood
868. Human being‟s tissue attached to the body which may undergo DNA testing
a. Hair c. Skin
b. Bone d. Fingernails
869. It is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive action of its bacteria and enzyme.
a. Primary Flaccidity c. Cadaveric spasm
b. Post mortem rigidity d. Putrefaction
870. Conclusive evidence that the subject person is a female.
a. Possession of vagina c. Possession of estrogen
b. Possession of ovaries d. Possession of progesterone
871. A person with big face and prominent cheek bones.
a. Hippocratic facie c. Myxedema facie
b. Mongolian facie d. Facies lionine
872. Conclusive evidence that a person is a male.
a. Presence of testis c. Presence of penis
b. Presence of androsterone d. Possession of testosterone
873. A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to mucous secretion of the respiratory
track after death.
a. “Cutis anserine” c. Champignon d‟ ocume
b. Washerwoman d. Cadaveric spasm
874. It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body.
a. Natural death c. Somatic death
b. Molecular death d. Apparent death
875. A type of burn produced as a result of the body coming into contact with a moving object.
a. Thermal burn c. Radiation burn
b. Friction Burn d. Electrical burn
876. A condition of a woman who has had one or more sexual experience but not had
conceived a child.
a. Moral virginity c. Physical virginity
b. Demi-virginity d. Virgo-intacta
877. Refers to the action of bacteria to a dead body.

a. Flaccidity c. LIvidity
b. Rigidity d. Putrefaction
878. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the body which produces
mechanical disruption of cell structure characterized by cold stiffening and diminished body
temperature.
a. Gangrene c. Trench foot
b. Frostbite d. Immersion foot
879. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the breakdown of sweating mechanism.
a. Heat cramp c. Heat stroke
b. Heat exhaustion d. Burning
880. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton, which part is not used?
a. Skull c. Sternum
b. Pelvis d. Tibia
881. A serious burn involving skin, nerves, muscles and bones, considered as the most severe
burn causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body and massive infection.
a. Sunburn c. 2‟ degree burn
b. P” degree burn d. 3‟d degree burn
882. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5 minutes would die, the cause of death
would be:
a. Stupor c. Asphyxia
b. Stroke d. Exhaustion
883. Most effective method in determining sex of an individual.
a. Gonodal test c. Genital test
b. Social test d. Chromosomal test
884. Its medico-legal importance is to approximate the time of death.
a. Cadaveric spasm c. Mascular contraction
b. Putrefaction d. Rigor mortis
885. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to:
a. Masturbation c. Sodomy
b. Fingering d. Sexual intercourse
886. In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell occurs in:
a. 20 to 30 minutes c. 12 to 24 hours
45
CRIMINALISTICS
b. 3 to 6 hours d. 24-36 hours

887. Most noticeable sign of death
a. Cessation of respiration
b. Progressive fall of body temperature
c. Insensibility of body and loss of power to move
d. Cessation of heart action and circulation
888. It applies to disease or trauma kills, wherein there is no chance for complication or
sequelae to develop.
a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death
b. Immediate or primary cause of death
c. Cardio-respiratory arrest
d. Nocturnal death
889. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged interval which allowed the
development of serious suquelae which becomes the cause of death. It is usually common to
cases involving stab wounds.
a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death
b. Immediate or primary cause of death
c. Cardio-respiratory arrest
d. Nocturnal death
890. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that death has occurred more than 24
hours hence are useful to proximate the time of death.
a. Flies c. Bees
b. Earthworms d. Butterflies
891. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken by a trained physician.
a. Autopsy c. Medical examination
b, Embalming d. Post-mortem examination
892. Average time of decomposition for tropical countries such as the Philippines.
a. 12 to 24 hours c. 36 to 48 hours
b. 24 to 48 hours d. 48 to 72 hours
893. After death, the metabolic process inside the body ceases, heat is no longer produced and
the body slowly loses its temperature.
a. Algor mortis c. Cadaveric spasm
b. Rigor mortis d. Suspended animation
894. Transient loss of consciousness with temporary cassation of the vital functions of the
body.
a. Death c. Suspended animation
b. Coma d. Rigor mortis
895. Hair on the body surface is usually:
a. Thick c. Fine
b. Tapering gradually to fine points d. all of the above
896. Characterized by no breathing and heart action, chill in the body and non-existent
reflexes.
a. Death c. Suspended animation
b. Coma d. Rigor mortis
897. The larger the area of contact between the forces applied on the body, the lesser is the
damage inflicted to the body.
a. Kinetic energy c. Time
b. Vital reaction d. Area of transfer
898. A branch of medicine which deals with the application of medical knowledge to the
purposes of law and in the administration of justice.
a. Forensic Medicine c. Legal Medicine
b. Medical Jurisprudence d. Human Medicine
899. It is the application of basic, clinical, medical and paramedical sciences to elucidate legal
problems.
900. It concerns with the application of medical science to elucidate legal problems.
901. It denotes knowledge of law in relation to the practice of medicine.
902. A physician who specializes or is involved primarily with medico-legal duties is known
as________.
a. Medical Jurist c. Ordinary Physician
b. Medico-legal Officer d. A or B
903. It is a rule of conduct, just, obligatory, and laid by legitimate power for common
observance and benefit.
a. Law c. Regulation
b. Order d. Ordinance
904. An ordinary physician sees an injury or disease on the point of view of treatment, while a
medical jurist sees injury or disease on the point of view of cause.
a. True b. False
46
CRIMINALISTICS
c. Partially True d. Partially False

905. A medical jurist must record all bodily injuries even if they are small or minor because
these injuries may be proofs to qualify the crime or to justify the act.
906. The purpose of a Medical Jurist examining a patient is to arrive at a definite diagnosis so
that appropriate treatment can be instituted.
907. This is composed of laws which are produced by the country‟s legislation and which are
defined, codified and incorporated by the law-making body.
a. Written or Statutory Law (Lex Scripta)
b. Unwritten or Common Law (Lex Non Scripta)
c. Imaginary Law
d. Special Law
908. This is composed of the unwritten law based on immemorial customs and usages. It is
sometimes referred to as case law, common law, Jurisprudence or customary law.
a. Written or Statutory Law (Lex Scripta)
b. Unwritten or Common Law (Lex Non Scripta)
c. Imaginary Law
d. Special Law
909. It denotes anything belonging to the court of law or used in court or legal proceeding or
something fitted for legal or public argumentations.
a. Medicine c. Law
b. Forensic d. Legal
910. It is a science and art dealing with prevention, cure and alleviation of disease. It is that
part of science and art of restoring and preserving health.
a. Medicine c. Law
911. It refers to anything conformable to the letters or rules of law as it is administered by the
court.
a. Medicine c. Law
912. A principle that, when the court has once laid down a principle of law or interpretation as
applied to a certain state of facts, it will adhere to and apply to all future cases where the
facts are substantially the same.
a. Principle of law
b. Principle of STARE DECISIS
c. Principle of Legal Medicine
d. None of the these
913. It is a mass of precepts that determines and regulates the relation of assistance,
authority, and obedience between members of a family and those which exists among
members of a society for the protection of private interest.
a. Criminal Law c. Remedial Law
b. Civil Law d. Special Law
914. A branch or division of law which defines crimes, treats of their nature and provides for
their punishment.
915. A branch or division of law which deals with the rules concerning pleadings, practices
and procedures in all courts of the Philippines.
916. He is the earliest recorded medico-legal expert.
a. Hippocrates c. Antistius
b. Imhotep d. Justinian
917. The oldest Code of law. It included legislation on adultery, rape, divorce, incest, abortion
and violence.
a. Code of Kalantiao c. Justinian code
b. Code of Hammurabi d. Code of Draco
918. He discussed the lethality of wounds.
a. Hippocrates c. Antistius
b. Imhotep d. Justinian
919. He fixed animation of fetus at the 40th day after conception.
a. Hippocrates c. Antistus
b. Imhotep d. Aristotle
920. The first police surgeon or forensic pathologist.
a. Antistius c. Hippocrates
b. Imhotep d. Aristotle
921. In his Digest, he made mention that a physician is not an ordinary witness and that a
physician gives judgment rather than testimony. This led to the recognition of expert witness
in court.
a. Justinian c. Hippocrates
b. Imhotep d. Antistus
Page 47
CRIMINALISTICS
922. The first text book in legal medicine that was promulgated in 1532 during the reign of
Emperor Charles V in Germany.
a. Constituto Criminalis Carolina
b. Manual de Medicina Domestica
c. Medico Titulares
d. Legal Medicina
923. In 1209, he issued an edict providing for the appointment of doctors to the courts for the
determination of the nature of wounds.
a. Pope Innocent III c. Pope John Paul II
b. Pope Gregory IX d. Pope Benjamin I
924. He is the regarded as the father of legal medicine.
a. Imhotep c. Paulus Zacchias
b. Aristotle d. Orfilla
925. He published in Paris a work on Virginity and Defloration. He confirmed the existence of
the hymen and that it may not rapture during sexual intercourse.
a. Paulus Zacchias c. Orfilla
b. Imhotep d. Severin Pineau
926. He introduced chemical methods in toxicology.
a. Paulus Zacchias c. Orfilla
b. Imhotep d. Severin Pineau
927. The first medical textbook printed in the Philippines including pertinent instructions
related to medico-legal practice by Spanish Physician, Rafel Genardy Mas.
a. Constituto Criminalis Carolina
b. Manual de Medicina Domestica
c. Medico Titulares
d. Legal Medicina
928. The law that created the Division of Investigation under the Department of Justice.
a. Commonwealth Act 157 c. Commonwealth Act 182
b. Commonwealth Act 181 d. Commonwealth Act 183
929. Republic Act No. 157 created the_______.
a. Bureau of Immigration c. Bureau of Investigation
b. Division of investigation d. CIDG
930. It is a means, sanctioned by the Rules of Court, of ascertaining in the Judicial preceding
the truth respecting a matter of fact.
a. Evidence c. Law
b. Proof d. Hearsay
931. The rules of evidence shall be the same in all courts and on all trials and hearings,
whether civil or criminal.
932. Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the issue and is not excluded by these rules.
It is considered relevant when it has the tendency to prove any matter of fact.
933. Evidence must have such relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its existence
or non-existence.
934. This is evidence made known or addressed to the senses of the court. It is not limited to
that which is known through the sense of vision but is extended to what the sense of
hearing, taste, smell and touch is perceived.
a. Autoptic or Real Evidence c. Experimental Evidence
b. Testimonial Evidence d. Documentary Evidence
935. Presentation of evidence may be necessary to serve the best interest of justice but the
notion of decency and delicacy may cause inhibition of its presentation.
936. Foul smelling objects, persons suffering from highly infections and communicable
disease, or objects which when touch may mean potential danger to the life and health of
the judge may be presented in the court proceeding.
937. A physician who testifies in court on matters he perceived from his patient in the course
of patient-physician relationship is considered as___________.
a. Expert Witness c. Medico-Legal Witness
b. Ordinary Witness d. Medico-Legal expert
938. A person authorized to practiced medicine, surgery or obstetrics cannot in civil case,
without the consent of the patient, be examined as to any information which he may have
acquired in attending such patient in a professional capacity, and which would blacken the
capacity of the patient. This is known as________.
a. Testimonial Evidence c. Personal Knowledlge
b. Dying Declaration d. Privileged Communication
Page 48
CRIMINALISTICS
939. The declaration of a dying person, made under a consciousness of an impending death is
admissible in spite of the fact that it is hearsay. It is made so because of necessity and it is
trustworthy.
940. The opinion of a witness in general is not admissible, except on the opinion of a witness
regarding a question of science, art or trade, when he is skilled therein.
941. These are articles or materials which are found in connection with investigation and
which aid in establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances which the
crime was committed, or in general assist in the prosecution of the criminal.
a. Testimonial Evidence c. Physical Evidence
b. Documentary Evidence d. Real Evidence
942. It is the application of sciences such as physics, chemistry, medicine, and other biological
sciences in the crime detection and investigation.
a. Jurisprudence c. Crime Detection
b. CRiminalistic d. Investigation
943. Objects or substances which may be a part of the body of the crime.
a. Corpus Delicti Evidence c. Tracing Evidence
b. Associative evidence d. Circumstantial Evidence
944. These are physical evidence which link a suspect to the crime.
b. Associative evidence d. Circumstantial Evidence
945. These are physical evidence which may assist the investigator in locating the suspect.
b. Associative Evidence d. Cirsumstantial Evidence
946. A method in the preservation of evidence, wherein a rough drawing of the scene or object
to be preserve is done.
a. Photographs c. Description
b. Sketching d. Manikin Method
947. This kind of sketch is made at the crime scene or during examination of living or dead
body.
a. Rough Sketch c. Photographs
b. Finished Sketch d. Drawing
948. A test used to question individuals for the purpose of detecting deception, verifying the
truth of statements through a visual, permanent and simultaneous recording of a person‟s
cardiovascular and respiratory pattern as a minimum instrumentation requirement.
a. Interrogation c. Polygraph Examination
b. Custodial Investigation d. Detection of Deception
949. An Italian Scientist who first employed the first scientific instrument to detect deception.
b. Leonarde Keeler d. Cesare Lombroso
950. He successfully detected deception with a Pneumograph.
b. Leonarde Keeler d. Vittorio Benussi
951. A device that can record both blood-pressure and galvanic skin response was invented in
1920 by ________.
952. The self-proclaimed father of polygraph examination.
953. An instrument that graphically measures an examinee‟s inhalation and exhalation.
a. Galvanograph c. Hydro Sphygmomanometer
954. The _________ works to restore things to normal when the conditions of stress have been
removed. It is dominant branch when the condition is normal and the subject is calm,
contented and relaxed.
a. Parasympathetic Nervous System
b. Sympathetic Nervous System
c. CNS
d. ANS
955. When the person is under the influence of physical (exertion) or emotional (anger,
excitement, fear, lie detection, etc) stimuli, the sympathetic will dominate and over-ride the
parasympathetic, thus there will be changes n the heart rate, pulse rate, blood pressure,
respiratory tracing, galvanic reflexes, time of response too question, etc.
956. This test is not concerned with the answer, be it a “yes” or a “no”. The important factor is
the time of response in relation to stimulus or non-stimulus words.
a. Psychological Stress c. Word Association Test
Evaluator d. Truth Serum
b. Narcoanalysis
Page 49
CRIMINALISTICS
957. It detects, measures, and graphically displays the voice modulations that we cannot hear.
a. Psychological Stress c. Word Association Test
Evaluator d. Truth Serum
b. Narcoanalysis
958. It is the alteration of consciousness and concentration in which the subject manifests a
heightened of suggestibility while awareness is maintained.
a. Truth Serum c. Truth Serum
b. Narcoanalysis d. Hypnosis
959. A lie that is told when it is obvious to all concerned that it is a lie.
a. White Lie c. Lie-to-Children
b. Bald-Face Lie d. Lying by Omission
960. It is the act of lying or making verifiably false statements on a material matter under oath
or affirmation in a court of law or in any of various sworn statements in writing.
a. Bluffing d. Perjury
b. Misleading
c. Dissembling
961. Blood pressure and heart rate are measured by_________.
a. Pneumograph Component c. Galvanograph
b. Cardio-sphygmograph d. Kymograph
Component
962. The component of the polygraph machine that records the amount of perspiration
produced.
a. Pneumograph Component
b. Cardio-sphygmograph Component
c. Galvanograph
d. Kymograph
963. Questions in the polygraph examination are short, simple and direct answerable by „yes‟
or „no‟ only, phrased in the language easily understood by the subject.
964. These are questions which have no bearing to the case under investigation.
a. Relevant Question c. Ordinary Question
b. Irrelevant Question d. Control Question
965. These are questions pertaining to the issue under investigation.
966. These are questions which are unrelated to the matter under investigation but are similar
nature although less serious as compared to those relevant questions under investigation.
967. This test consists of a series of relevant and irrelevant questioned asked in a planned
order.
a. General Peak Tension Test
b. Peak of tension Test
c. Post-test Interrogation
d. Pre-test
968. This test compares the physiological response to relevant questions about the crime with
the response to questions relating to possible prior misdeeds.
a. The Guilty Knowledge Test c. The Directed Lie Test
b. The Control Questions Test d. Pre-Test
969. This test tries to detect lying by comparing physiological responses when the subject s
told to deliberately lie to responses when they tell the truth.
a. The Guilty Knowledge Test c. The Directed Lie Test
b. The Control Questions Test d. Pre-Test
970. The following are physiological and Psychological Signs and Symptoms of Guilt except-
a. Sweating c. Peculiar Feeling inside
b. Fidgeting d. Smiling
971. It is the questioning of a person suspected of having committed an offense or of persons
who are reluctant to make a full disclosure of information in his possession which is
pertinent to the investigation.
a. Interview c. Torture
b. Interrogation d. None of these
972. A person whose guilt is considered on reasonable ground to be a practical possibility.
a. Accused c. Witness
b. Suspect d. None of these
973. A person, other than the suspect, who is requested to give information concerning the
incident. He may be a victim, a complainant, an accuser, a source of information, an
observer of the occurrence, a scientific specialist who examined physical evidence or s
custodian of official document.
a. Accused c. Witness
b. Suspect d. None of these
Page 50
CRIMINALISTICS
974. They are persons who commit crime in an impulsive manner usually on account of their
aggressive behavior. Such attitude is clearly shown in crimes of passion, revenge or
resentments.
a. Active aggressive Offenders c. Rational Offenders
b. Passive Inadequate d. Ordinary Offenders
Offenders
975. Persons who commit crimes because of inducement, promise or reward. They are gullible
and easily persuaded to perform acts in violation of the penal laws.
Offenders
976. Those who commit crime with motive or intention and with full possession of their mental
faculties.
Offenders
977. These are the lowest form of criminal career. They are only engaged in crimes which
require limited skill. They lack the capacity to avoid arrest and conviction.
Offenders
978. They commit crime without knowing the nature and quality of his act.
a. Active aggressive Offenders
b. Irrational Offenders
c. Rational Offenders
d. Ordinary Offenders
979. They are highly skilled and able to perform criminal acts with the least chance of being
detected. They commit crimes which require special skill rather than violence.
b. Professional Offenders d. Ordinary Offenders
980. These are persons who commit crimes in the heat of passion, anger, or revenge, and also
who commit offenses of accidental nature.
b. Emotional Offenders d. Non-Emotional Offenders
981. The interrogator must create a mood that is conducive to confession. He may be
sympathetic and friendly to the subject. The subject may be willing to disclose more
information if he is treated in a kind spirit. What technique of interrogation is that?
a. Emotional Appeal c. Bluff on Split-pair
b. Mutt and Jeff Technique Technique
d. Stern Approach
982. In this technique of interrogation, there must be at least two investigators with opposite
character; one who is arrogant and relentless who knows the subject to be guilty and will
not waste time in the interrogation, and the other who is friendly, sympathetic and kind.
d. Stern Approach
983. This is applicable where there are two or more persons who allegedly participated in the
commission of a crime. All of them are interrogated separately and the results of their
individual statements are not known to one another.
d. Stern Approach
984. The questions must be answered clearly, and the interrogator utilizes harsh language.
Immediate response from the subject is demanded.
d. Stern Approach
985. It is an expressed acknowledgement by the accused in a criminal case of the truth of his
guilt as to the crime charged, or of some essentials thereof.
a. Confession c. Extra-Judicial Confession
b. Admission d. None of these
986. A statement of fact by the accused which does not directly involve an acknowledgement of
guilt of the accused.
987. This is confession made outside of the court prior to the trial of the case.
988. Confessions obtained through force, threat, intimidation, duress or anything influencing
the voluntary act of the confessor.
a. Voluntary Extra-Judicial b. Involuntary Extra-Judicial
Confession Confession
Page 51
CRIMINALISTICS
c. Admission d. None of these

989. An extra-judicial confession made by an accused, shall not be sufficient ground for
conviction, unless corroborated by evidence of corpus delicti.
990. Confessions obtained from the defendant by means of force and violence is null and void,
and cannot be used against him at the trial.
991. A declaration which was endorsed by the World Medical Associations in 1975 containing
guidelines to be observed by physicians concerning torture and other cruel, inhuman, and
degrading treatment or punishment in relation to detention and imprisonment.
a. Philippine Declaration c. United Nation Declaration
b. Tokyo Declaration d. US Declaration
992. This is the confessions of an accused in court. It is conclusive upon the court and may be
considered to be mitigating circumstance to criminal liability.
a. Extra-judicial Confession c. Admission
b. Judicial Confession d. None of these
993. It is the determination of the individuality of a person or thing.
a. Admission c. Detection
b. Identification d. Recognition
994. In the prosecution of a criminal offense, the identity of the offender and that of the victim
must be established; otherwise it will be a ground for the dismissal of the charge or acquittal
of the accused.
995. The greater the number of points of similarities and dissimilarities of two persons
compared, the greater is the probability for the conclusion to be correct. This is known as
the__________.
a. Law of Multiplication c. Law of Multiplicity of
b. Law of Division Evidence
d. None of the above
996. The following are characteristics which may easily changed as point of identification
applicable to living person except-
a. Growth of hair c. Frequent Place of Visit
b. Clothing d. Speech
997. The following are characteristics that may not easily be changed as a point of
identification except-
a. Mental Memory c. Mannerism
b. Gait d. Body Ornamentation
998. A series of foot marks by a person walking or running.
a. Mannerism c. Facies
b. Gait d. None of the above
999. Stereotype movement or habit peculiar to an individual.
a. Mannerism c. Faces
b. Gait d. None of the above
1000. The height of the person ceases to increase after the age of ________.
a. 20 c. 25
b. 28 d. 35
1001. The introduction of coloring pigments in the layers of the skin by multiple puncture.
a. Tattoo marks c. Either A and B
b. Body Paint d. None of these
1002. A French Criminologist who devised a scheme utilizing anthropometrical measurement of
the human body as the basis of identification.
a. Cesare Lombroso c. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Cesare Becaria d. None of these
1003. A verbal, accurate and picture-que description of the person identified. Such information
may be given by a witness, relatives, or other persons who are acquainted with the physical
features of the person to be identified.
a. Potrait Parle c. Manual Composite Criminal
b. Spoken Picture Illustration
d. All of the above
1004. Experiments have shown that the best known person cannot be recognized by the
clearest moonlight at a distance greater than 16 to 17 yards and by starlight any further
than 10 to 13 yards.
a. TRUE c. Partially True
b. FALSE d. Partially False
1005. Suffrage shall be exercised by citizens of the Philippines not otherwise disqualified by law,
who are ________ years of age or over, and who shall have resided in the Philippines for at
least one year and in the place wherein they propose to vote for at least six months
preceding the election.
a. 21 c. 15
b. 18 d. 25
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CRIMINALISTICS
1006. Any male of the age of sixteen years or upwards, and any female of the age of fourteen
years or upwards, not under any of the impediments mentioned in articles 80 to 84 may
contract marriage.
1007. It is committed by having carnal knowledge of a woman by using force or intimidation,
the woman is deprived of reason or otherwise unconscious, and the woman I sunder 12
years of age, even though neither of the circumstances mentioned in the two preceding
paragraphs shall be present.
a. Seduction c. Rape
b. Abduction d. Lascivious Conduct
1008. An act of killing any child less than three days of age.
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Infanticide d. None of these
1009. The seduction of a virgin over twelve years and under eighteen years of age, committed by
any person in public authority, priests, house-servant, domestic, guardian, teacher, or any
person who, in any capacity, shall be entrusted with the education or custody of the woman
seduced.
a. Simple Seduction c. Consented Seduction
b. Qualified Seduction d. None of these
1010. The seduction of a woman who is single or a widow of good reputation, over twelve but
under eighteen of age, committed by means of deceit.
a. Simple Seduction c. Consented Seduction
b. Qualified Seduction d. None of these
1011. In the application of the Hess‟s Rule, if the length of the fetus is 9 cm, the age of the fetus
is_______.
a. 4 months c. 3 months
b. 5 months d. 2 months
1012. If the length of the fetus is 45 cm., the age of the fetus is______ months.
a. 8 months
b. 9 months
c. 6 months
d. 5 months
1013. Death occurs when there is deep irreversible coma, absence of electrical brain activity
and complete cessation of all the vital functions without possibility of resuscitation.
a. Cardio-respiratory Death c. Brain death
b. Somatic Death d. Molecular Death
1014. It occurs when there is a continuous and persistent cessation of heart action and
respiration. It is a condition in which the physician and the members of the family
pronounce a person to be dead.
1015. This is the state of the body in which there is complete, persistent and continuous
cessation of the vital functions of the brain, heart and lungs which maintain life and health.
1016. After cessation of the vital functions of the body there is still animal life among individual
cells. About three (3) to six (6) hours later there is death of individual cells. This is known
as________.
a. State of Suspended c. Clinical Death
Animation d. Somatic Death
b. Molecular Death
1017. This condition is not really death but merely a transient loss of consciousness or
temporary cessation of the vital function of the body on the account of disease or external
stimulus or other forms or influence.
a. State of Suspended d. Somatic Death
Animation
b. Molecular Death
c. Clinical Death
1018. In this test, a ligature is applied around the base of a finger with moderate tightness. In a
living person there appears a bloodless zone at the site of the application of the ligature. If
such ligature is applied to the finger of a dead man, there is no such change in color.
a. Diaphanus Test c. Magnus Test
b. Icard‟s Test d. None of these
1019. After death the metabolic process inside the body ceases. No more heat is produced but
the body loses slowly its temperature, evaporation or by conduction to the surrounding
atmosphere. The progressive fall of the body temperature is one of the most prominent signs
of death. This is known as_______.
a. Post-mortem Rigidity c. Algor-Mortis
b. Livor-mortis d. None of these
1020. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death due to rapid and early putrefactive
changes or some internal changes.
a. Post-mortem Rigidity
b. Livor-mortis
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CRIMINALISTICS
c. Post-mortem Caloricity
d. Algor Mortis
1021. The muscles are relaxed and capable of contracting when stimulated. The pupils are
dilated, the sphincters are relaxed, and there is incontinence of urination and defecation.
a. Stage of Primary Flaccidity/Period of Muscular Irritability
b. Stage of Post Mortem Rigidity or Cadaveric Rigidity or Rigor Mortis
c. Stage of Secondary Flaccidity/Secondary Relaxation
d. Stage of Caloricity
1022. The muscles become flaccid, and no longer capable of responding to mechanical and
chemical stimulus and the reaction become alkaline.
1023. The whole body becomes rigid due to the contraction of the muscles. This develops three
to six hours after death and may last from twenty-four to thirty-six hours.
1024. The stoppage of the heart action and the loss of blood vessels cause the blood to be under
the influence of gravity. It begins to accumulate in the most dependent portion of the body.
a. Rigor Mortis c. Algor Mortis
b. Livor Mortis d. None of this
1025. The blood merely gravitated into the most dependent portion of the body but still inside
the blood vessels and still fluid in form.
a. Hypostatic Lividity c. Caloricity
b. Diffusion Lividity d. None of this
1026. This appears during the later stage of its formation when blood has coagulated inside the
blood vessels or has diffused into the tissues of the body.
a. Hypostatic Lividity c. Caloricity
b. Diffusion Lividity d. None of this
1027. It is the breaking down of the complex proteins into simpler components associated with
the foul smelling gases and accompanied by the change of color.
a. Caloricity c. Putrefaction
b. Lividity d. None of these
1028. The dehydration of the whole body which results in the shivering and preservation of the
body.
a. Putrefaction c. Mummification
b. Caloricity d. Maceration
1029. This s a condition wherein the fatty tissues of the body are transformed to soft brownish
white substance known as adipocere.
a. Saponification c. Maceration
b. Mummification d. Caloricity
1030. This is the softening of the tissues when in a fluid medium is the absence of putrefactive
microorganism which is frequently observed in the death of fetus or utero.
a. Maceration c. Mummification
b. Saponification d. Caloricity
1031. An injury, disease or the combination of both injury and disease responsible for initiating
the trend or physiological disturbance, brief or prolonged, which produce the fatal
termination.
a. Cause of Death c. Mechanism of Death
b. Manner of Death d. None of These
1032. This applies to cases when trauma or disease kill quickly that there is no opportunity for
sequel or complication to develop.
a. Mechanism of Death c. Immediate Cause of Death
b. Manner of Death d. Secondary Cause of Death
1033. The injury or disease was survived for a sufficiently prolonged interval which permitted
the development of serious sequel which actually causes death.
a. Mechanism of Death c. Immediate Cause of Death
b. Manner of Death
d. Secondary Cause of Death
1034. It refers to the physiological derangement or biochemical disturbance incompatible with
life which is initiated by the cause to death.
a. Mechanism of Death c. Cause of Death
b. Manner of Death d. None of the above
1035. It is the explanation as to how the cause of death came into being or how the cause of
death arose.
a. Mechanism of Death c. Cause of Death
b. Manner of Death d. None of the above
1036. The fatality is caused solely by disease.
a. Natural Death c. Unnatural death
b. Violent Death d. None of the above
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1037. Death due to injury of any sort such as gunshot wound, stab, fracture, traumatic shock,
etc.
a. Natural Death c. Unnatural death
b. Violent Death d. B or C
1038. The so-called Sudden Infant Death Syndrome.
a. CRIB Death c. Bangungot
b. SUND d. None of these
1039. This is the unexpected death of infants, usually under six (6) months of age, while in
apparent good health.
a. CRIB Death c. Bangungot
b. SUND d. None of these
1040. This is known as “pok-kuri” disease in Japan and “bangungot” in the Philippines. It is the
sudden death of heavenly men of young age seen in the East Asian Countries.
a. Sudden Unexpected Nocturnal Death
b. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
c. Bangungot
d. None of these
1041. This death is caused by a natural disease condition in the body.
a. Sudden Death c. Special Death
b. Natural Death d. Violent Death
1042. It is the termination of life which comes quickly under circumstances when its arrival is
not expected.
1043. If the violence inflicted on a person suffering from a natural disease only accelerated the
death of the victim, the offender who inflicted such violence is responsible for the death of
the victim.
1044. Criminal liability shall be incurred by any person committing a felony although the
wrongful act done be different from which he intended.
1045. If a person died of a natural cause and the physical injuries inflicted are independent of
the cause of death, the accused will not be responsible for the death but merely for the
physical injuries inflicted.
1046. Death due to injuries inflicted in the body by some forms of outside force.
1047. The death of the victim is presumed to be a natural consequence of the physical injuries
inflicted when the following facts are established except:
a. That the victim at the time the physical injuries were inflicted was in normal
growth/health.
b. That the death may be expected from physical injuries inflicted.
c. That the death ensued within a reasonable time.
d. None of these
1048. Death due to misadventure or accident.
a. Negligent Death c. Sudden Death
b. Accidental Death d. Suicidal Death
1049. It is something that happens outside the sway of our will, and although it comes about
through some act of will, lies beyond bounds of human foreseeable consequences.
a. Sudden death c. Suicidal
b. Accident d. None of these
1050. Death due to reckless imprudence, negligence, lack of skill or lack of foresight.
a. Negligent Death c. Parricidal Death
b. Suicidal Death d. Infanticidal death
1051. Refers to the destruction of one‟s self.
a. Negligent Death c. Parricidal Death
b. Suicidal Death d. Infanticidal death
1052. A person who assists another person to commit suicide is punishable by the law.
1053. The law does not punish the person committing suicide.
1054. Any person who shall kill his father, mother, or child, whether legitimate or illegitimate,
or any of his ascendants, or his spouse, shall be guilty of _______.
a. Parricide c. Suicide
b. Infanticide d. Murder
1055. It refers to the killing of a child less than three days old.
a. Parricide c. Suicide
b. Infanticide d. Murder
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1056. It refers to the killing of a person without the presence or attendance of any of the
circumstances enumerated under article 246.
a. Homicide c. Suicide
b. Parricide d. Infanticide
1057. This is death due to sudden and fatal cessation of the action of the heart with circulation
included.
a. Death from syncope c. Death from coma
b. Death from asphyxia d. None of these
1058. It is a condition in which the supply of oxygen to the blood or to the tissues or to both
has been reduced below normal working level.
a. Death from syncope c. Dyspnea
b. Death from Coma d. Death from asphyxia
1059. It is the state of unconsciousness with insensibility of the pupil and conjunctive, and
inability to swallow resulting from the arrest of the function of the brain.
1060. It refers to the difficulty f breathing.
1061. A form of special death wherein a person is made to sit on a chair made by electrical
conducting materials with straps of electrodes on wrists, ankles, and head. An alternating
current voltage of more than 1,500 volts is out until the convict dies.
a. Death by Musketry c. Death by Electrocution
b. Death by Hanging d. Death by Gas Chamber
1062. A form of special death wherein the convict is made to stand in an elevated collapsible
platform, with a black hood on the head, a noose made of rope around the neck and the
other end of which is fixed in an elevated structure above the head. Without the knowledge
of the convict, the platform suddenly collapses which causes the sudden suspension of the
body and tightening of the noose around the neck.
a. Death by Musketry c. Death by Electrocution
b. Death by Hanging d. Death by Gas Chamber
1063. The so-called “mercy-killing” or the deliberate and painless acceleration of death of a
person usually suffering from an incurable and distressing disease.
a. Execution c. Death by Musketry
b. Euthanasia d. None of the above
1064. It refers to the intentional or deliberate application of the means to shorten the life of a
person.
a. Active Euthanasia c. Orthothanasia
b. Passive Euthanasia d. None of these
1065. There is absence of the application of the means to accelerate death but the natural
course of the disease is allowed to have its way to extinguish the life of a person.
a. Active Euthanasia c. Orthothanasia
b. Passive Euthanasia d. None of these
1066. It refers to the deprivation of a regular and constant supply of food and water which is
necessary to normal health of a person.
a. Euthanasia c. Abstinence
b. Fasting d. Starvation
1067. If the deceased was a married man or woman, the duty of the burial shall devolve upon
the surviving spouse if he/she possesses sufficient means to pay the necessary expenses.
1068. It is the artificial way of preserving he body after death by injecting 6 to 8 quarts of
antiseptic solutions of formalin, per chloride of mercury or arsenic, which is carried unto the
common carotid and the femoral arteries.
a. Cremation c. Embalming
b. Disposal of Dead Body d. Burial
1069. A body must be buried within ________ hours after death based on the Revised
Administrative Code.
1070. The death certificate is necessary before burial.
1071. It refers to the pulverization of the body into ashes by the application of heat.
a. Cremation c. Embalming
1072. The dead body must be buried within forty eight hours after death except:
a. When it is still a subject matter of legal investigation
b. When it is specifically authorized by the local health authorities that the body
may be buried more than 48 hours after death.
c. Impliedly when the body is embalmed.
d. All of the above
1073. In a gas incinerator, it is usually requires about ______ hours to transform the whole body
into ashes.
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1074. The deceased buried may be raised or disinterred upon the lawful order of the proper
court/authorities. This is known as______.
a. exhumation c. Embalming
1075. It is the effect of some forms of stimulus on the body.
a. Physical Injury c. A or B
b. Death d. None of these
1076. A wound which is caused immediately after infliction or shortly thereafter that is capable
of causing death.
a. Mortal Wound c. Superficial Wound
b. Non-Mortal Wound d. Defense Wound
1077. Wound which is not capable of producing death immediately after infliction or shortly
thereafter.
a. Defense Wound c. Non-Mortal Wound
b. Superficial Wound d. Mortal Wound
1078. Contusion, hematoma, and lacerated wound are wounds brought about by__________.
a. Sharp-Edged Instrument d. Sharp-edge and sharp-
b. Sharp-Pointed Instrument pointed instrument
c. Blunt Instrument
1079. Wound brought about by sharp-edged instrument.
a. Contusion c. Incised Wound
b. Punctured Wound d. Stab Wound
1080. Punctured wound is brought about by________.
c. Blunt Instrument
1081. Stab wound is brought about by________.
c. Blunt Instrument
1082. Wound brought about by tearing force.
a. Contusion c. Lacerated Wound
1083. Wound brought by change of atmospheric pressure.
a. Contusion c. Barotraumas
1084. Wound brought abound by heat or cold.
a. Frostbite, burns/scald c. Punctured Wound
b. Contusion d. Incised Wound
1085. Wound brought by chemical explosion.
a. Contusion c. Gunshot or shrapnel wound
1086. This wound involves the outer layers of the skin.
a. Superficial Wound c. Defense Wound
b. Deep Wound d. Patterned Wound
1087. This wound involves the inner structure beyond the layer of the skin.
a. Superficial Wound c. Defense Wound
b. Deep Wound d. Patterned Wound
1088. Wound in which the wounding agent enters the body but did not come out or the mere
piercing of a solid organ or tissue of the body.
a. Penetrating wound c. Defense Wound
b. Perforating wound d. None of these
1089. When the wounding agent produces communication between the inner and outer portion
of the hollow organ.
1090. Physical injury which is located at the site of the application of force.
a. Coup Injury
b. Contre-coup Injury
c. Coup Contre-Coup Injury
d. Locus Minoris Resistancia
1091. Physical Injury found opposite the site of application of force.
a. Coup Injury c. Coup Contre-Coup Injury
b. Contre-coup Injury d. Locus Minoris Resistancia
1092. Physical Injury found opposite the site of application of force.
a. Coup Injury c. Coup Contre-Coup Injury
b. Contre-coup Injury d. Locus Minoris Resistancia
1093. Physical Injury located neither at the site nor opposite the site of the application of force
but in some areas offering a least resistance to the force applied.
a. Coup Injury
b. Contre-coup Injury
c. Coup Contre-Coup Injury
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d. Locus Minoris Resistancia

1094. Wound which is the result of a person‟s instinctive reaction of self-protection. Injuries
suffered by the person to avoid or repel potential injury contemplated by the aggressor.
1095. Wound in the nature and shape of an object or instrument and which infers the object or
instrument causing it.
a. Defense Wound c. Incised Wound
b. Patterned Wound d. Suicidal Wound
1096. It is a wound produced on oneself. As distinguished from suicide, the person has no
intention to end his life.
b. Perforating wound d. Self-Inflicted Wound
1097. Exposure of parts of the body to heat radiation from open fires, radiators, or protective
grills over radiator.
a. Thermophilia c. Bruxism
b. Onychophagia d. Trichotillomia
1098. Nail biting, which may lead to maceration of the skin and an infection.
a. Onychophagia c. Trichotillomia
b. Bruxism d. None of these
1099. Otherwise known as grinding of the teeth. It is frequently seen in the mentally retarded
and can lead to abnormal tooth wear.
1100. The act of pulling body hairs.
1101. The penalty of Reclusion Temporal and Reclusion Perpetua shall be imposed upon any
person who shall intentionally mutilate another by depriving him, either totally or partially,
of some essential organ of reproduction.
1102. It is the act of looping or cutting off any part or parts of the living body.
a. Chop-Chop c. Scarification
b. Mutilation d. None of these
1103. It is the unlawful and violent deprival of another of the use of a part of the body so as to
render him less able in fighting, either to defend him or to annoy his adversary.
a. Mutilation c. Deprivation
b. Chop-Chop d. Mayhem
1104. A kind of wound wherein there is no breach of continuity of the skin or mucous
membrane.
a. Open Wound c. Contusion
b. Closed Wound d. None of these
1105. A kind of wound in which there is a breach of continuity of the skin or mucous
membrane.
a. Hematoma c. Open wound
b. Petechiae d. Closed Wound
1106. This is circumscribed extravasations of blood in the subcutaneous tissue or underneath
the mucus membrane.
b. Hematoma d. Open wound
1107. It is the effusion of blood into the tissues underneath the skin on account of rapture of
the blood vessels as a result of the application of force or violence.
1108. It is the extravasations or effusion of blood in a newly formed cavity underneath the skin.
It is otherwise known as blood cyst, blood tumor, bukol)
1109. It is an injury characterized by the removal of the superficial epithelial layer of the skin
cause by a rub friction against a hard rough surface.
a. Hematoma c. Abrasion
b. Open Wound d. Incised Wound
1110. This is produced by a sharp-edged or sharp-linear edge of the instrument, like a knife,
razor, bolo, edge or oyster shell, mental sheet glass etc.
a. Incised Wound c. Contusion
b. Punctured Wound d. Hematoma
1111. It is produced by the penetration of a sharp-pointed and sharp-edged instrument like a
knife, saber, dagger, and scissors.
a. Punctured Wound c. Stab Wound
b. Incised Wound d. Hematoma
1112. The stab wound may be suicidal if it is solitary and located over the vital parts of the
body.
a. True b. False
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c. Partially True d. Partially False

1113. If the wounding instrument/weapon is firmly grasped by the hand of the victim, the
wound maybe is________.
a. Suicidal c. Accidental
b. Homicidal d. None of this
1114. If the stab wound is located in any part of the body and there are injuries present other
than the stab wound, the case maybe is_______.
b. Homicidal d. None of this
1115. It is the result of a thrust of a sharp pointed instrument. The external injury is quite
small but the depth is to a certain degree. It is commonly produced by an ice pick, needle,
nail, spear, pointed stick, thorn, fang of the animal and hook.
a. Punctured Wound c. Stab Wound
b. Incised Wound d. Hematoma
1116. If the wound is multiple and usually located in the different parts of the body, the case
may be______.
b. Homicidal d. None of these
1117. It is the tear of the skin and the underlying tissues due to forcible contact with a blunt
instrument. It maybe produced by a hit with a pierce of wood, iron bar, fist blow, stone, butt
of firearm, or other objects without sharp areas.
a. Stab Wound c. Lacerated Wound
b. Punctured Wound d. Incised Wound
1118. It is the disturbance of fluid balance resulting to peripheral deficiency which is
manifested by the decreased volume of blood, reduced volume of flow, hemoconcentration
and renal deficiency.
a. Hemorrhage c. Infection
b. Shock d. Embolism
1119. It is the extravasations or loss of blood from the circulation brought about by wounds in
the cardio-vascular system.
1120. It is the appearance growth and development of microorganism on the site of the injury.
1121. This is a condition in which foreign matters are introduced in the blood stream causing
sudden block of the blood flow in the finer arterioles.
1122. Extensive abrasions on the body are always suggestive of accidental death.
1123. Absence of signs of struggle is more indicative of suicide, accident or murder.
1124. Multiple wounds in concealed portion of the body are generally indicative of homicide.
1125. The direction of the wound in suicide is________.
a. Transverse c. Crosswise
b. Oblique d. sloping
1126. It is the sudden release of potential energy producing a localized increase of pressure.
a. Muzzle Blast c. Fire
b. Explosion d. None of these
1127. At higher altitude the oxygen content of the atmosphere becomes lesser and lesser. This
is known as________.
a. Hyperbarism c. Anoxia
b. Decompression d. None of these
1128. It is the general term applied to all forms of violent death which results primarily from the
interference with the process of respiration or the condition in which the supply of oxygen to
the blood or to the tissues or both has been reduced below normal level.
a. Anoxia c. Defloration
b. Asphyxia d. None of these
1129. This is associated with the failure of the arterial blood to become normally saturated with
oxygen. It may be due to breathing in an atmosphere without or with insufficient oxygen, as
in high altitude.
a. Anemic Anoxic Death c. Stagnant Anoxic Death
b. Histotoxic Death d. Anoxic Death
1130. This is due too a decrease capacity of the blood to carry oxygen. This condition may due
to severe hemorrhage, poisoning, and low hemoglobin level in the blood.
1131. This is brought about by the failure of circulation. The failure of circulation may be due
to heart failure, shock and arterial and venous obstruction.
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1132. A form of violent death brought about by the suspension of the body by a ligature which
encircles the neck and the constricting force is the weight of the body.
a. Asphyxia by strangulation c. Asphyxia by submersion
b. Asphyxia by Suffocation d. Asphyxia by Hanging
1133. It is produce by compression of the neck by means of a ligature which is tightened by a
force other than the weight of the body.
1134. The palm of the hand of the offender is pressed in front of the neck without employing the
fingers. The pressure must be sufficient to occlude the lumen of the windpipe.
a. Garroting d. Compression of the neck
b. Manual Strangulation with the stick
c. Mugging
1135. A ligature, a metal collar or a bowstring is placed around the neck and tightened at the
back.
c. Mugging
1136. This is a form of strangulation with the assailant standing at the back and the forearm is
applied in front of the neck.
c. Mugging
1137. It is an early form of homicidal hanging usually found in southern states of the United
States. It is usually practiced by Americans against the Negros who commit crime against
the white Americans. Whenever the colored offender is apprehended, they are hanged by
means of a rope on a tree or some similar objects. The Negroes are executed without due
process of law.
a. Death by Hanging c. Garroting
b. Lynching d. Mugging
1138. It is the exclusion of air from the lungs by closure of air openings or obstruction of the air
passageway from the external openings to the air sacs.
1139. This is a form of asphyxia death caused by the closing of the external respiratory orifices,
either by the use of the hand or by some other means. The nostrils and mouth may be
blocked by the introduction of foreign substances like mud, paper, cloth, etc.
a. Lynching c. Garroting
b. Smothering d. Mugging
1140. This is a form of asphyxia wherein the nostrils and, mouth has been submerged in any
watery, viscid or pultaceous fluid for a time to prevent the free entrance of air into the air
passage and lungs.
1141. It is sometimes called the “silent Killer”, it is a colorless gas, insoluble in water and
alcohol. It is formed from the incomplete combustion of carbon fuel.
a. Hydrogen Sulfide c. Carbon Dioxide
b. Carbon Monoxide d. None of these
1142. It refers to the gas blown out of the lungs during respiration, product of complete
combustion of carbon containing compounds, and the end result of fermentation and
decomposition of organic matters.
a. Carbonic Oxide c. Carbon Monoxide
b. Carbon Dioxide d. None of these
1143. It is one of the most toxic and rapid acting gas.
a. Sulfur Dioxide c. Carbon Monoxide
b. Hydrogen Cyanide d. Carbon Dioxide
1144. It may include the act of physical or emotional persuasion that forces or places the child
in a potentially dangerous situation in which the subsequent and significant physical
injuries are severe enough to require medical treatment.
a. Physical Abuse c. Unwanted Child
b. Physical Neglect d. None of these
1145. It is the failure to provide the child with the necessities of life. It may include inadequate
or insufficient medical care, nourishment, clothing, supervision, housing, or the like. The
failure to provide must be willful.
a. Unwanted Child c. Physical Neglect
b. Physical Abuse d. None of the above
1146. The father, or in his absence the mother, is the legal administrator of the property
pertaining to the child under parental authority.
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1147. Parents who periodically batter a child with periods of proper care between battering.
They do not intend to hurt the child, but they are driven by panic or compulsion into
abusive behavior.
a. One-time Child Abuser c. Intermittent Child Abuser
b. Constant Child Abuser d. Ignorant Abuser
1148. Parents who manhandle their children for a time and never repeat the act.
1149. Parent who actually hates his or her child and callously and deliberately beats and
miscares for it. Parent has the intention to hurt the child and be different to the child‟s
sufferings.
1150. This group is perhaps the most tragic because the parents “mean” well, but their
attempts at rearing their children result in a permanent injury or death of their children,
they are “truly sorry” when the child dies.
1151. It is a condition of a female who has not experienced sexual intercourse and whose
genital organs have not been altered by carnal connection.
a. Sexually free c. Virgin
b. Virginity d. B or C
1152. A woman is a ___________ if her body is pure and if she has never had any sexual
intercourse with another, though her mind and heart is impure.
a. Moral Virginity c. Physical Virginity
b. Virtuous Female d. Demi-Virginity
1153. The state of not knowing the nature of sexual life and not having experienced sexual
relation. It applies to children below the age of puberty and whose sex organs and secondary
sex characters are not yet developed.
1154. A condition whereby a woman is conscious of the nature of the sexual life but has not
experienced sexual intercourse. The term applies to women who have reached sexual
maturity but have not experienced sexual intercourse.
1155. This term refers to a condition of a woman who permits any form of sexual liberties as
long as they abstain from rupturing the hymen by sexual act. The woman maybe embraced,
kissed, may allow her breasts to be fondled, her private organ to be held and other lascivious
acts. The woman allows sexual intercourse but only “inter-femora” or even “inter-labia” but
nor to the extent of rupturing the hymen.
1156. Literally the term refers to a truly virgin woman; that there are no structural changes her
organ to infer previous sexual intercourse.
a. Moral Virginity c. Virgo Intacta
b. Demi-Virginity d. Physical Virginity
1157. _____ are functionally related to the reproductive system since they secrete milk for
nourishment of the young child.
a. Vagina c. Vaginal Canal
b. Breast d. Labia Majora
1158. The breast is only slightly elevated from the chest without distinct boundary and showing
no definite shape.
a. Hemispherical breast c. Infantile of Flat Breast
b. Conical Shape d. Pendulous Breast
1159. The skin of the breast is loose making it capable of swinging in any direction.
a. Hemispherical breast c. Infantile of Flat Breast
b. Conical Shape d. Pendulous Breast
1160. A condition in which there is no opening in the hymen.
a. Fimbriated c. Septate
b. Imperforate d. Crib form
1161. There are two openings which may be of equal or different sizes separated by a bridge of
hymenal tissue.
1162. The hymen presents several openings instead of a single one.
1163. Hymenal opening is like a star.
b. Stellate d. Crib form
1164. The opening is small, usually linear, fleshly and resistant.
a. Infantile c. Linear
b. Annular d. Stellate
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CRIMINALISTICS
1165. It is laceration or rupture of the hymen as a result of sexual intercourse.

a. Disvirginity c. Fourchette
b. Defloration d. None of these
1166. The following are elements of rape except:
a. By using force or intimidation
b. The woman is deprived of reason or otherwise unconscious
c. When the woman I sunder twelve years of age
d. None of these
1167. It is the act of a man in having sexual bodily connection with a woman.
a. Lascivious Conduct c. Carnal Knowledge
b. Sexual Harassment d. None of these
1168. It is the viscid, albuminous fluid with faint grayish-yellow color, having the
characteristics fishy odor, and containing spermatozoa, epithelial cells, lecithin bodies and
other substances.
a. Semen c. Egg cell
b. Spermatozoon d. None of the above
1169. It is a living organism, normally present in the seminal fluid consisting of a head, neck,
and tail.
a. Semen c. Egg cell
b. Spermatozoon d. None of the above
1170. Can a woman commit the crime of rape on a man?
a. Yes c. Maybe
b. No d. None of these
1171. Can the husband commit the crime of rape on his wife?
a. Yes c. Maybe
b. No, but not absolute d. None of these
1172. It is the act of a man enticing women to have unlawful intercourse with him by means of
persuasion, solicitation, promises, bribes, or other means without employment of force.
a. Lascivious Conduct c. Seduction
b. Abduction d. Rape
1173. The seduction of a virgin over twelve years and under eighteen years of age, committed by
any person in public authority, priests, house-servant, domestic, guardian, teacher, or any
person who, in any capacity, shall be entrusted with the education or custody of the woman
seduced.
a. Simple Seduction d. Incestuous Qualified
b. Lascivious Conduct Seduction
c. Ordinary Qualified
Seduction
1174. This includes seduction wherein there is blood relationship between the seducer and the
seduced.
Seduction
1175. The seduction of a woman who is single or a widow of good reputation, over twelve but
under eighteen years of age, committed by means of deceit.
Seduction
1176. Acts which tend to excite lust; conduct is wanton, lewd, voluptuous or lewd emotion.
a. Seduction c. Acts of lasciviousness
b. Abduction d. Rape
1177. The following are acts considered lascivious except:
a. Embracing, kissing and holding the woman‟s breast.
b. Placing of the man‟s private organ over a girl‟s genital organ
c. Touching private parts against her will
d. None of these
1178. The carrying away of a woman by an abductor with lewd design.
a. Seduction c. Rape
b. Abduction d. Lascivious Conduct
1179. It is the intent of the abductor to have sexual intercourse with the woman abducted. This
can be inferred from the acts of the offender.
a. Carnal Knowledge c. Lascivious Acts
b. Lewd Design d. A or B
1180. It is committed by any married woman who shall have sexual intercourse with a man not,
hr husband and by the man who has carnal knowledge of her, knowing her to be married.
a. Concubinage c. Concubine
b. Adultery d. Paramour
1181. Any husband who shall keep a mistress in the conjugal dwelling, or, shall have sexual
intercourse, under scandalous circumstances, with a woman not his wife, or shall cohabit
with her in any other place.
a. Concubinage c. Concubine
b. Adultery d. Paramour
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1182. __________ are women who, for money or profit, habitually indulge in sexual intercourse
or lascivious conduct.
a. Concubine c. Magdalena
b. Paramour d. Prostitutes
1183. Prostitutes who received telephone calls from selected group of customers and makes
arrangements to meet them at a designated place.
a. Door Knocker c. Street Walker
b. Call Girls d. Factory Girls
1184. A prostitute who is frequent in places where liquor is sold, sometimes with the knowledge
of the management.
a. Door Knocker
b. Bar or Tavern “Pick-up”
c. Street Walker
d. Factory Girls
1185. She finds her customers in various places and makes the contact herself, but she may
walk with taxicab drivers.
1186. A newcomer in the field of prostitution. She is frequent in small hotels and furnished
rooms or roams in the hall room of these places.
1187. She works in regular house of prostitution. She accepts all comers and has nothing to do
with the selection and solicitation of customers. She is under the direct supervision of a
“madam” or “mama-san”.
1188. Can rape be committed on a prostitute?
a. Yes c. Maybe
b. No d. None of These
1189. She is the general manager of the prostitution den. She handles cash, meets customers
and transacts all business for the house.
a. Procurer c. Pimp or Bugao
b. Transporter d. Madam or Mama-san
1190. The person who is charged with the duty of getting girls to work as prostitutes.
1191. The man or woman who takes prostitutes from town to another.
1192. One who gets customers. He may be a taxicab driver, bartender, or a girl‟s own husband.
He earned by percentage basis.
1193. Employs only 4 to 8 girls in the business. This type is gradually disappearing as it is an
easy target of organized program against prostitution.
a. Call House c. Disorder House
b. Furnished Room House d. None of the above
1194. This is operated by experienced madams. The house has 2 to 3 girls and also rooms for
rent to legitimate roomers in order to maintain the appearance of respectability.
1195. It is merely a place where a telephone is maintained by a madam. The customer calls,
and the madam sends the girl out to meet him.
1196. Sexual desire towards the opposite sex. This is a normal sexual behavior, socially and
medically acceptable.
a. Homosexual c. Infantosexual
b. Heterosexual d. Pedophilia
1197. A form of sexual perversion wherein a person has the compulsive desire to have sexual
intercourse with a child of either sex.
1198. A sexual desire towards the same sex.
1199. Sexual gratification is attained by having sexual intercourse with animals.
a. Autosexual c. Necrophilia
b. Bestiality d. Dyspareunia
1200. Otherwise known as self-gratification or masturbation. It is a form of self abuse” or
“solitary vice” carried without the cooperation of another person.
a. Bestiality c. Necrophilia
b. Gerontophilia d. Autosexual
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CRIMINALISTICS
1201. Sexual desire with elder person.

a. Necrophilia c. Cunnilingus
b. Gerontophilia d. Satyriasis
1202. A sexual perversion characterized by erotic desire or actual sexual intercourse with a
corpse.
a. Homosexual c. Necrophilia
1203. Sexual relations between persons who, by reason of blood relationship cannot legally
marry.
a. Gerontophilia c. Incest
b. Necrophilia d. Dyspareunia
1204. Excessive sexual desire of men to intercourse.
a. Nymphomania c. Vaginismus
b. Satyriasis d. Dyspareunia
1205. Strong sexual feeling of women. The woman is called “hot” or “fighter”.
a. Nymphomania d. Dyspareunia
b. Satyriasis
c. Vaginismus
1206. Absence of sexual desire or arousal during sexual act in women.
a. Dyspareunia c. Vaginismus
b. Sexual Anesthesia d. Old Age
1207. Painful sexual act in women.
1208. Painful spasm of the vagina during sexual act.
1209. The use of the mouth as a way of sexual gratification.
a. Sado-masochism c. Oralism
b. Satyriasis d. Sodomy
1210. The female agent receives the penis of a man into her mouth and by friction with the lips
and tongue coupled with the act of sucking initiates orgasm.
a. Fellatio c. Anilism
b. Cunnilingus d. Sado-Masochism
1211. Sexual gratification is attained by licking or sucking the external female genetalia.
1212. A form of sexual perversion wherein a person derives excitement by licking the anus of
another person of either sex.
1213. A sexual deviation associated specifically with the act of whipping or being whipped.
a. Sadism c. Fetishism
b. Flagellation d. Sodomy
1214. A form of sexual perversion in which the infliction of pain on another is necessary or
sometimes the sole factor in sexual enjoyment.
a. Sadism c. Cannibalism
b. Masochism d. Love Bites
1215. The pain and humiliation from the opposite sex is the primary factor for sexual
gratification.
1216. Sexual gratification attained by biting without flesh eating but with presumed
unconscious wish to consume.
1217. A form of sexual perversion wherein the real or fantasied presence of an object or bodily
part is necessary fro sexual stimulation and/or gratification.
a. Fetishism c. Sodomy
b. Sadism d. Love Bites
1218. These are superficial punctuate contusions seen most frequently at the side of the neck,
overlaying or anterior to the sternomostoid muscle, breast and other parts of the body.
a. Fetishism c. Sodomy
b. Sadism d. Love Bites
1219. A person who has extreme admiration and love of one‟s self.
a. Sodomy c. Partialism
b. Uranism d. Narcissism
1220. A form of sexual perversion characterized by a compulsion to peep to see persons
undress or perform other personal activities.
a. Transvestism c. Voyeurism
b. Transexualism d. Scoptophilia
1221. It is the state of a woman who has within her body the growing product of conception or
fecundated germ.
a. Pregnancy b. Transexualism
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CRIMINALISTICS
c. Partilism d. Forttage
1222. Pregnancy is a ground for the suspension of the execution of the death sentence of a
woman.
1223. It is the willful killing of the fetus is the uterus, or violent expulsion of the fetus from the
maternal womb and which results to the death of the fetus.
a. Pregnancy c. Abortion
b. Delivery d. None of these
1224. It is the civil status of the father with respect to the child begotten by him.
a. Filiations c. Maternity
b. Paternity d. Citizenship
1225. It is the civil status of the child in relation to its mother or father.
a. Filiations c. Maternity
b. Paternity d. Citizenship
1226. Those who were born out of lawful wedlock or after a competent time after its dissolution.
a. Legitimate Child c. Lawful Child
b. Illegitimate Child d. Legal Child
1227. These are children conceived in an act of adultery or concubinage.
a. Sacrilegious Children c. Incestuous Children
b. Adulterous Children d. Manceres
1228. These are children born of parents who have been ordained in sacris.
1229. These are children born by parents who are legally incapable of contracting valid
marriage because of their blood relationship as marriage between brothers and sisters.
1230. These are children conceived by prostitutes. It is very difficult to determine the father
because of the nature of the business.
1231. It is a medical procedure by which the semen is introduced into the vagina by means
other than copulation for the purpose of procreation.
a. Vitro Fertilization c. A or B
b. Artificial Insemination d. None of the above
1232. What kind of artificial insemination when the sperm comes from the husband?
a. AIH c. AIHD
b. AID d. None of these
1233. The fertilization of the egg cell by the sperm cell extracted from the respective donors
placed in an artificial medium and after reaching a certain stage of cellular division and
development.
a. Vitro Fertilization c. Cloning
1234. The first recorded child born by In Vitro Fertilization is___________.
a. Alec Jeffry c. Meyer V. Nebraska
b. Louise Brown d. None of these
1235. A woman who is not the source of the ovum and in whose uterus the in vitro fertilized egg
is implanted to develop up to full term and delivered child.
a. Surrogate Mother c. Substitute Mother
b. Proxy Mother d. None of these
1236. A type of a sexual reproduction whereby the nucleus of a female egg is removed which
contains the genetic material and replaced with the nucleus of the body cell of the same or
another woman. The renucleated egg is then placed in a uterus for gestation and normal
development. The resulting offspring is genetically identical to the parent.
a. Vitro Fertilization c. Cloning
1237. Any male of age of sixteen years or upwards, and any female of the age of fourteen years
or upwards, not under any of the impediments mentioned in articles 80-84, may contract
marriage.
1238. Impotency may be a ground for the annulment of marriage.
1239. It is the physical incapacity of either sex to allow or grant to the other legitimate
gratification.
a. Sterility c. Disturbance of mentality
b. Impotency d. Infertility
1240. An accused in the crime of rape may claim of his inability to commit the offense on
account of his impotency.
Page 65
CRIMINALISTICS
1241. It is the loss of power of procreation and is absolutely independent of whether or not
impotence is present.
a. Sterility c. Disturbance of mentality
b. Impotency d. Infertility
1242. Insanity exempts a person from criminal liability.
1243. A false perception of external stimulus.
a. Illusion c. Dementia
b. Hallucination d. Amnesia
1244. An erroneous perception without external object of stimulus.
a. Illusion c. Dementia
b. Hallucination d. Amnesia
1245. Seeing things although not present.
a. Auditory Hallucination c. Visual Hallucination
b. Olfactory Hallucination d. Gustatory Hallucination
1246. Hearing voice in absolute silence.
a. Auditory Hallucination c. Visual Hallucination
b. Olfactory Hallucination d. Gustatory Hallucination
1247. Mental illness may be an exempting or mitigating circumstance to criminal liability.
1248. This is a normal mental condition whereby a person is performing an act while in the
state of natural sleep.
a. Delirium c. Somnambulism
b. Hypnotism d. Somnolencia
1249. Somnambulism is recognized by the court as exempting circumstance as a manifestation
of insanity.
1250. It is the feigning or simulation of a disease or injury characterized by ostentation,
exaggeration and inconsistency.
a. Mock-up c. Replication
b. Malingering d. None of these
1251. It is an alkaloid form the leaves of coca shrub cultivated extensively in Bolivia and Peru.
a. Codeine c. Shabu
b. Cocaine d. Marijuana
1252. Intoxication is an alternative circumstance to criminal liability.
1253. If intoxication is habitual, it is a mitigating circumstance.
1254. To be drunk is not punishable, but if alarm and scandal happens in a public place while
at the state of intoxication it is punishable.
1255. A state of bisexuality, having both ovaries and testicles.
a. Hermaphrodite c. Transexualism
b. Intersexuality d. Coprolalia
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CRIMINALISTICS

146. This is sensitive to ultraviolet and blue light only.

231. The first practical photographic process.

252. It is a connected writing in which one letter is joined to the next.

254. It is a document which is completely written and signed by one person.

c. Standard d. None of these

a. Embedded Security Thread

338. An examination wherein an informal interview of the subject is undertaken between 20 to

a. Normal Tracing c. Specific Response

c. InVino Veritos d. In Vino Veritas

450. Which of the following is not a standard qualification of a polygraph examiner?

a. Terminal ballistic c. Forensic Ballistic

a. Shearing Mark c. Breech Face Mark

557. Most center-fire rifle cartridge cases are of_______.

609. Fingerprinting is universally used as a valuable method of identification due to following

618. Papillary or friction ridges may be located at:

a. Soles of the foot c. Finger

b. Core d. Both A and B

a. Sedentary soil c. Primary minerals

b. Hang fire d. Key hole shot

762. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge important documents.

d. Chain of custody of evidence

877. Refers to the action of bacteria to a dead body.

b. 3 to 6 hours d. 24-36 hours

c. Partially True d. Partially False

c. Admission d. None of these

d. Locus Minoris Resistancia

c. Partially True d. Partially False

a. Anemic Anoxic Death c. Stagnant Anoxic Death

1165. It is laceration or rupture of the hymen as a result of sexual intercourse.

1201. Sexual desire with elder person.

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