CP/17/C3

ANSWER KEY & ANALYSIS

MOCK CLAT -3
SECTION-I: ENGLISH

1. B. ‘to’ is the correct preposition.

2. C. ‘comprises’ is the correct tense.
3. A. ‘who’ fits with the sentence.
4. A. ‘apply’ is the correct tense.
5. C. ‘schooling’ fits with the sentence.
6. D. Recluse means someone who is shut away or to desert.
7. C. Absolve means vindication or exoneration.
8. D. Periapt refers to an amulet.
9. A. Rejuvenate means to revitalise.
10. C. Pertinacious means persevering or tenacious.
11. C. Carte blanche is freedom over other’s property.
12. B. Bon mot is a witty remark.
13. C. Ad libituum is work done without planning
14. B. Mano a mano means a man to man challenge.
15. C. Haute couture is high fashion.
16. B. Snake in the grass is hidden enemy.
17. B. Kick the bucket is to ‘pass away’.
18. C. Alpha and Omega is from start to end( alpha is the first letter of greek alphabet and
omega is the last).
19. D. To break the ice is to start a conversation.
20. B. A dark horse is someone with a hidden talent.
21. B. The negative of need to is ‘don’t’.
22. C. The negative of used to is ‘did’nt.
23. B. The tag tells us that the verb will be ‘will’.
24. A. The negative of has is ‘hasn’t’.
25. B. The negative of ought is ‘shouldn’t’.

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26. D. No error.
27. A. ‘have acceded’ . the verb accede will take ‘ have acceded’ as its present perfect
form.
28. B. ‘who’ has not yet submitted. Relative pronoun who will be used here.
29. B. ‘plays’ an advisory role. Subject is unhcr which is singular so verb has to be
singular.
30. D. No error.
31. D. 1st Para gives the correct answer.
32. B. 1st Para gives the correct answer.
33. D. 2nd Para gives the correct answer.
34. B. 3rd Para gives the correct answer.
35. A. 4th Para gives the correct answer.
36. A. 5th Para gives the correct answer.
37. B. The best choice would be declarative as the others are just not right.
38. B. The passage gives a historical perspective of the power projects between india and
Nepal.
39. B. As there are lot of factual and assertive statements mentioned in the passage it
depends majorly on facts to carry the ideas forward.
40. C. Since the passage gives the historical background, this is the best choice for title.
SECTION-II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

41 B 53 C 65 A
42 B 54 D 66 B
43 C 55 D 67 B
44 D 56 C 68 D
45 A 57 B 69 D
46 B 58 D 70 A
47 A 59 A 71 A
48 B 60 C 72 B
49 B 61 B 73 C
50 C 62 B 74 D
51 A 63 C 75 C
52 C 64 A 76 B

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77 C 82 B 87 D
78 A 83 A 88 D
79 D 84 B 89 B
80 A 85 A 90 D
81 D 86 D

SECTION-III:NUMERIC ABILITY

91: Option b

The smallest number is 3, the next number is 8 and so on while the largest such 2 digit
number is 98.

Total numbers will be 20.

92: Option d

As per the problem 144 x 24 = 72 x Y where Y is the second number.

Solving for Y we get Y = 48

Ans 3: Option a

Let the initial price be P and so the new price will be 60P/100 ie 3P/5.

If the price changes from P to 3P/5, the consumption will change from Q to 5Q/3.

Increase in quantity = 5Q/3 – Q = 2Q/3.

As per the problem, this is 24 kgs.

Therefore, 2Q/3 = 24 kg and so Q=36 kg.

Therefore, originally, 36 kg was being purchased for Rs.1200.

New quantity = 36+24 = 60 kg.

Therefore, new price = 1200/60 = Rs.20/kg

9 4: Option b

CP of 120 grams = SP of 100 grams.

Therefore, ((120-100)/100)x100 = 20% profit.

9 5: Option b

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It is given that N when divided by 11 gives a remainder of 7.

Therefore, N2 when divided by 11 will give a remainder of 7 x 7 = 49 which in turn will

mean a remainder of 5.

Also, N4 will give a remainder of 5 x 5 = 25 which in turn will mean a remainder of 3.

Now N5 will give a remainder of 3 x 7 = 21 which in turn will mean a remainder of 10.

9 6: Option d

Alongwith a mark-up of 20%, the milkman needs to make an additional profit of 10% to get
an overall profit of 32%.

This means, the amount of impurity added must be equal to 10% of the pure component.

If water added is 4 litres, the amount of milk must be 40 litres.

97: Option c

Using the successive percentage change rule

= -10-10+(100/100)

= -19%

ie 19% decrease.

98: Option a

The difference between the two values ie 54% and 45% is equal to 9%.

Therefore, 9% of the total = 12+10.5

9% of the total = 22.5

Therefore, total = (22.5 x 100) / 9

= 250 marks.

99: Option c

We know that 11.11% is the equivalent of 1/9.

Let the salary of B be 9 and so the salary of A will be 9-9x1/9 = 9-1 = 8

Now we need to find out by what % is 9 more than 8.

Therefore, ((9-8)/8) x 100 = 12.5%

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100: Option b

As per the problem, we have ((45-50)/50)x100

= -10% ie 10% decrease.

101: Option a

The LCM of 5 and 7 is 35. We need to take 35 or any of it’s multiple and subtract two to get
the required numbers.

The multiple of 35 closest to 1000 is 1050. Subtract 70 to get to 980 which is also a multiple
of 35 and finally subtract 2.

The largest such number is 980-2 = 978.

Sum of the digits of 978 = 9+7+8 = 24.

102: Option d

Using the successive percentage change rule we have

=-20+10-(200/100)

= -10-2 = -12%.

103: Option a

Effective SI for 2 years = 8+8 = 16%.

Effective CI for 2 years = 8+8+64/100 = 16.64%.

Difference = 0.64 percentage points.

Therefore, (0.64/100) x 6000 = 6.4 x 6 = Rs.38.4/-

104: Option c

The SI for 5 years is Rs.1500 and so the SI for 1 year is Rs.300 and the SI for 2 years is
Rs.600.

CI for 2 years = Rs.607.5/-

Difference between CI and SI for 2 years is because of the additional interest on the first
year’s interest in case of CI.

Therefore, 607.5-600 = R/100 of 300

7.5 = 3R

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And so R=2.5%.

105: Option b

Required answer = ((25-1)/(5-1)) x 9 = 6 x 9 = 54 years.

106: Option c

1/3 : 1/4 : 1/5 is the same as 60/3 : 60/4 : 60/5

= 20:15:12

Maximum share = 20/47 x 9400 = 20 x 200 = Rs.4000

Minimum share = 12/47 x 9400 = 12 x 200 = Rs.2400

Required difference = Rs.4000-Rs.2400 = Rs.1600

107: Option d

Let their respective age be x and 3x.

According to the problem, we have

(3x+6) / (x+6) = 11/5

15x+30 = 11x+66

4x=36

x=9

Therefore, 3 years ago their ages were 9 and 27 respectively.

The father’s age 5 years ago = 27-2 = 25 years.

108: Option c

Let the time taken when he is 10 minutes late be t.

His speed becomes (120/100) of his earlier speed ie 20% more.

This can also be written as 6/5 of his earlier speed.

If speed becomes 6/5 of his earlier speed, his time taken will become 5/6 of his earlier time.

Now if the earlier time is 5t/6, the new time will be 6t/5.

As per the problem, the difference between the two times is 15 minutes.

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Therefore, 6t/5 – t = 15 minutes

t/5 = 15 minutes and so t=75 minutes.

This is the time when he is 10 minutes late.

Therefore, actual time taken = 75-10 = 65 minutes.

109: Option a

Let the efficiency of B = 1 unit and so the efficiency of A = 3 units.

Total efficiency = 1+3 = 4 units and therefore, the total work = 72 units.

This can be completed by A alone in 72/3 = 24 days.

110: Option b

If 2 is in the thousand’s place, numbers formed will be

____1 way___ x ___6 ways_____ x ___6 ways______ x ____6 ways______

= 216 numbers.

Out of this, 2000 is not acceptable.

Also, we will include one number starting with 3 and that is 3000.

Effective numbers = 216-1+1 = 216.

SECTION-IV:LEGAL APTITUDE

Question No. Option Explanation

Explanation: Applying Rule A to the facts at hand, it is evident that
the communication of the proposal is complete when it comes to the
111 b knowledge of Fatima, to whom the proposal is made.
Explanation: Applying Rule B to the instant case, it is evident that
the communication of acceptance is complete as against Rubaiya
when Fatima posts the letter to Rubaiya, while the communication
of acceptance is complete as against Fatima when Rubaiya receives
112 d the letter.
113 c Explanation: Direct application of Rule C.a.
114 b Explanation: Direct application of Rule A.
Explanation: Applying Rule B to the facts, since Savita’s was not a
115 a public office, it can be transferred to someone else as per law.
Explanation: Since Bhanu was aware of the restrictions regarding
the graveyard and still chose to jump inside, even if it was to elude
116 a arrest, he has committed a punishable offence as per the Rule.

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Explanation: There was no intention/knowledge on Russell’s part to

hurt religious sentiments by hiding behind the temple with shoes on.
Also, he was running for his life and no such intention to defile
religious sentiments is evident from his actions. Thus, the priest
117 b cannot sue him.
Explanation: Smriti did not intend to hurt any religious sentiments
nor did she know of any likelihood that people in the procession
might be offended by her joining them. Thus, she has not committed
118 b an offence under the Rule.
Explanation: Since burning of waste can be harmful to the health of
people and the environment in general, Jamnadas may be punished
119 a under the Rule.
Explanation: The element of ‘voluntariness’ is missing from the
facts and since the fire at Batuk’s house was accidental, he cannot
120 b be fined under the Rule.
Explanation: While Gumra did not have any dishonest intentions,
she took the money from Yakub’s safe without his permission. This
121 a amounts to conversion as per Rule A.
Explanation: Since an element of dishonesty is involved, it is theft,
122 b not conversion, as per Rule B.
123 b Explanation: Direct application of Rule C.
Explanation: The lady did not intend to nor voluntarily tried to hurt
124 b Milly through her cockatoo. Thus, she cannot be sued for battery.
Explanation: There would be no change in the answer, since again,
there was no element of voluntariness to hurt Milly on the lady’s
125 b part.
Explanation: Rule B may be applied here. Further, Hardeep’s letter
was a counter-offer not acceptance of an offer. Thus, Ramdeepak’s
126 b offer has not been validly accepted.
Explanation: Rule C protects Ramdeepak in the instant case since
the proposal to Bhuwan was subject to a condition which failed
127 b when Ramdeepak was offered a higher price by Kevalram.
Explanation: Since M/s. Ol sells different varieties of oil and there
is no certainty as to the type of oil under the contract, no valid
128 b contract exists between Ramdeepak and M/s. Ol as per Rule A.
Explanation: Since the doctrine of privity applies here (Rule A),
129 b only Samir can sue Tej, not Ethena.
Explanation: Since the doctrine of privity does not apply here (Rule
B), both Urvashi and Rita are entitled to sue Shyam with respect to
130 c the trust.
Explanation: Reading Rules B and C, it is clear that Uday was
entitled to express his ideas on an issue through a visual medium
and there was nothing objectionable in the content to warrant
131 b restrictions on its release.

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Explanation: None of the Rules justifies the restriction of a

film/documentary for reasons as advanced by the MLA. Notably,
the problem involved only one person and that too, was a remote
132 b possibility.
Explanation: (a) is incorrect because that right is guaranteed only to
Indian citizens. (b) is ambiguous because the exact nature of the
133 d content in the film is not known from the facts.
Explanation: As per Rule C, it is not immoral to help a dancing girl
(Malti, in the instant case) and hence, as per Rule A, the agreement
134 a may be enforced.
Explanation: Rule A read with Rule B makes it clear that the
agreement between Tinku and Malti, disrupting her marital relations
135 b is immoral, and hence unlawful.
136 b Explanation: Direct application of Rule A.
137 b Explanation: Direct application of Rule B.
138 b Explanation: Direct application of Rule C.
Explanation: Under the Rules, immunity is only accorded if
Ridhima had been administered alcohol against her will or without
her knowledge. Since she had willingly consumed alcohol and then
139 a attacked Smita, she does not have the said immunity.
Explanation: Since Smita was intoxicated against her will, due to
140 b Harshita’s actions, she will not be liable for any offence.
Explanation: Ananya’s comments were in no way aimed at
disparaging India. Since the ingredients of sedition as under Rule A
141 b are not fulfilled, they cannot pursue this course of action.
Explanation: Rule C and D provide exemptions from being charged
for sedition. Expressing one’s opinion about a legal provision or
writing a factually-correct article about it cannot be counted as an
142 b effort to incite disaffection or hatred towards India.
Explanation: These provisions are applicable only to persons in
143 b India. Since Nicole is in Australia, this law does not apply to her.
Explanation: There is no reasonable apprehension created of an
immediate harmful contact by Amu Talik and thus, there is no
144 b assault as under Rule A.
145 a Explanation: Direct application of Rule A.
Explanation: While the IT officials are not bound to disclose by
whom they got tipped off, they must present documents to show that
146 a they have a right to search and conduct the raid.
Explanation: As a public servant, the officer is not bound to disclose
all information, especially when investigations in a case are
pending. Further, giving incomplete information would be against
147 b public interest (Rule B).
148 b Explanation: Direct application of Rule A.
Explanation: Freddy did not profess to possess skill or experience
149 b from the United Kingdom and Shahi should have been more careful.

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Explanation: Freddy performed his duty properly by filing the tax

returns for Percy. There was no professional negligence on his part,
150 a since the documents were forged by Roland.
Explanation: Sakshi Malik won the bronze medal in freestyle
151 b wrestling in the 58kg. category.
152 c
153 d
154 b
155 c
156 a Explanation: Gwadar Port involves China and Pakistan.
157 a
158 c
159 b
Explanation: The ILP is an official document issued by the
Government of India to an Indian citizen for inward travel into a
160 b protected area for a limited period of time.

SECTION-V:LOGICAL REASONING

161. (b) All those who did get a first division in high school will not take admission into
Aryan college.
162. (a) If one goes in the sun, vitamin D deficiency will be caused. But if vitamin
deficiency is there, it may have been caused by a reason other than going in the sun as
this is not the only reason.
163. (b) Burning of sodium follows its throwing into water. There could also be other
reasons of it bursting into flames.
164. (c) Validity could be one of the reasons of its being redeemable. (d) cannot be the
answer since the cheque may be not redeemable because of a reason other than validity
date.
165. (c) All those who have a DGFT permit may trade but may not necessarily trade. All
manufactured produce may not be traded at Nathula.
166. (c) Options (a) and (d) are general and may not apply to this specific case. The belief
given in (c) will make villagers unwilling to adopt the toilet construction despite the
incentive and publicity.
167. (b) The store is looking for large volumes of sale and (b) will prevent that.
168. (b) The RFID will track the location only.
169. (a) The argument links higher average weight with consumption of branded fast food.
(a) presents lack of physical work as a cause of increased weight and hence weakens the
argument. (b): higher pocket money not necessarily spent on food. (c): irrelevant. (d)
Reason for imposing additional tax is not clear.
170. (d) Option (c) goes beyond the scope of the argument. In option (b) “caution must
be..” adds an opinion to the conclusion. (a) generalises the conclusion.
171. (d)

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172. (d)
173. (c)
174. (a)
175. (d)
176. (b) The requirement in villages is for qualified and experienced teachers while new
recruits will lack in experience. The key here was experienced teachers.
177. (a) The second course of action is impractical since internet and networking are an
essential feature of computers today.
178. (b) The course of action (a) is impractical as rationing will be done at a high cost may
still not reduce consumption because of black marketing of petroleum.
179. (a) The option (b) is not practical as vehicles are meant for fast transport.
180. (b) Keeping fixtures at bare minimum is not practical as it will lead to inconvenience
to the large majority of travellers.
181. (c) The term ‘widespread’ indicates seriousness of the problem.
182. (b) No action can be taken without ascertaining the causes.
183. (d). all+no=no.
184. (d). all+all=all/some.
185. (a) . All+all=some.
General explanation for questions 186-190:

Monday Tuesday Wednesday Thursday Friday

Hammer High Jump Shot Put Pole Vault Javelin

Tony/Quinn Tony/Quinn Remo Sam Pat

High Jump Shot Put Hammer Pole Vault Javelin

Tony/Quinn Remo Tony/Quinn Sam Pat

186: Option d

187: Option d

Ans 3: Option c

188: Option c

189: Option c

190: Option b

191: Option b

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A___________B

(F) (M)

C_______________D

(M) (F)

192: Option a

The given series is as follows:

5x2–1=9

9 x 3 – 1 = 26

26 x 4 – 1 = 103 and so on.

The required answer will be 103 x 5 – 1 = 515-1 = 514.

General explanation for questions 193-200:

M
Q
K
L

R N M O

J
I
N

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1. The outer values in the circle indicate the name of the persons. The boxes inside represent
the cities which they belong to.

2. The arrows in the picture show the orientation of their respective seating ie towards the
circle or away from the circle.

Ans 193: Option b

Ans 194: Option a

Ans 195: Option c

Ans 196: Option d

Ans 197: Option c

Rey represents good, Mey represents are and so Sey will represent you.

Ans 198: Option c

Ans 199: Option d

Ans 200: Option b

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