Banking Exams Section

Banking Awareness – 2020 for IBPS, RBI, SBI, NABARD and other Bank Examinations
1. On which date, RBI started working?

[A] 1 January 1934
[B] 1 January 1935
[C] 1 April 1935
[D] 31 March 1934
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [ 1 April 1935 ]

Notes:
In 1935, Reserve Bank commenced operations as India’s central bank on April 1 as a priva
crore.
2. First PCR was established in which of the following country?
[A] Japan
[B] Germany
[C] Australia
[D] Sweden
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Germany]

Notes:
The first Public Credit Registry in India was formed in Germany in 1934.A PCR is maintaine
supervisor. It helps in maintaining to keep records of individual and firms on unpaid debts
3. What is the full form of FEMA?
[A] Foreign Exchange Management Act
[B] Foreign Exchange Management Agency
[C] Foreign Emergency Managing agent
[D] Foreign Exchange Management Agency
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Foreign Exchange Management Act]

Notes:
FEMA stands for The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. It is an Act of the Parliame
foreign exchange. Its objective is to facilitate external trade and payments.
5. The Reserve Bank of India governs the foreign exchange reserves under the legal provis
[A] RBI Act 1934
[B] RBI Act 1935
[C] RBI Act 1949
[D] RBI Act 1951
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [RBI Act 1934]

Notes:
The Reserve Bank of India, is the custodian of the country’s foreign exchange reserves and
investment. The legal provisions governing management of foreign exchange reserves are
6. Which of the following is not the currency included in the SDR basket?
[A] Japanese Yen
[B] U.S. Dollar
[C] Chinese Yuan
[D] Brazil Real
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Brazil Real]

Notes:
Special Drawing Rights or SDR basket includes five currencies. These are US Dollar, Chine
RMB joined the US dollar, euro, Japanese yen, and British pound sterling in the SDR baske
7. Which of the following acts provide the legal provisions for the maintenance of Foreign R
[A] RBI Act 1934
[B] Banking Regulation Act 1949
[C] FEMA 1999
[D] Both a and c
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Both a and c]

Notes:
Reserve Bank of India act 1934 and Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999 are the two
to the maintenance of Foreign Exchange Reserve .
8. SMERA has been registered under which of the following Acts?
[A] Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992
[B] Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
[C] Banking Regulation Act, 1949
[D] Securities and Exchange Board of India (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Securities and Exchange Board of India (Credit Rating Agencies) Reg
Notes:
SMERA has been registered under Securities and Exchange Board of India (Credit Rating A
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) as 6th Credit Rating Agency in India.
9. Venture capital was originated in which of the following countries?
[A] India
[B] Britain
[C] France
[D] USA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [USA]

Notes:
The public successes of the venture capital industry in the 1970s and early 1980s gave ris
firms. Venture Capital Fund of America, the first private equity firm focused on acquiring s
10. Personal Loans are also called as by which of the following names?

[A] Signature Loans
[B] Unsecured Loans
[C] Consumer Loans
[D] All of the Above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [All of the Above]

Notes:
Unsecured loans (called signature loans) are advanced on the basis of the borrower’s cred
income. Repayment is usually through fixed amount installments over a fixed term. Also c
11. Who pays for the Credit Ratings in India?

[A] RBI
[B] Government of India
[C] Issuer
[D] SEBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Issuer]

Notes:
Most credit rating agencies across the world use a revenue model where the issuer pays fo
the credit rating.
12. Who is the CEO of the CRISIL?
[A] Ashu Suyash
[B] Rajesh Mokashi
[C] Naresh Takkar
[D] Varun Mirchandani
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Ashu Suyash]

Notes:
Ashu Suyash is the current CEO of the CRISIL. Rajesh Mokani is the current head of CARE
Miranchandani is the head of ONICRA.
13. Which of the following is considered to be the father of venture capital?
[A] Dariot
[B] Modigliani
[C] Vaghul
[D] Jimmy carter
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Dariot]

Notes:
Georges Frderic Doriot was a French-born American venture capitalist. In 1946, he founde
world’s first publicly owned venture capital firm, earning him the sobriquet “father of ventu
14. Which of the following mutual funds solely invests in stocks?
[A] Bond Fund
[B] Fixed Income Fund
[C] Money Market Mutual Fund
[D] Equity Fund
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Equity Fund]

Notes:
An equity fund invests 60% or more of its assets primarily in equity shares of companies .
shares of stock on a stock market by individuals and firms .
15. Which of the following clearly define Direct Housing Finance?
[A] It refers to the finance provided to individuals or groups of individual including co-oper
[B] It is channeled by the way of terms of loans to housing finance institutions, housing bo
[C] Bank finance extended to a person who is already owning a house in the town of villag
[D] Both a and c
Show Answer

Notes:
Direct Housing Finance refers to the finance provided by banks to individuals or groups of
acquisition/construction of accommodation.
16. Which of the following civilization is considered to be the origin of Factoring?
[A] Indus Valley Civilization
[B] Mesopotamian culture
[C] Incas Civilization
[D] Aztecs Civilization
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Mesopotamian culture]

Notes:
Factoring originated with ancient Mesopotamian culture, with rules of factoring preserved i
some firms to obtain cash.
17. What is the full form of QIB?
[A] Quotation for Indian Bidders
[B] Qualified Indian Bidders
[C] Qualified Institutional Bidders
[D] Quoted Indian Bidders
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Qualified Institutional Bidders]

Notes:
QIB refers to qualified institutional bidders ( Mutual Funds, banks, etc.).SEBI has instructe
namely, QIB, HNI and Retailers.
18. A Direct lease, a sale and leaseback, and a Leveraged lease are all examples of which
[A] Operating Leases
[B] Financial Leases
[C] Full-service Leases
[D] Off-Balance Sheet” methods of financing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Financial Leases]

Notes:
Finance lease, also known as Full Payout Lease, is a type of lease wherein the lessor trans
asset to the lessee. A direct lease is a simple lease where the asset is either owned by the
19. In which year for the first time a bill was introduced in the Indian Legislative Assembly
[A] 1927
[B] 1928
[C] 1929
[D] 1930
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [1927]

Notes:
In 1927, a bill to create the central bank for India was introduced in the Legislative Assem
among various sections of people.
20. Which section of the RBI Act allows the RBI to form rules regarding the exchange of da
[A] 17
[B] 21
[C] 28
[D] 42(1)
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [ 28 ]
Notes:
Section 28 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 allows the RBI to form rules regarding t
21. Which of these banks was not associated with the State Bank of India in 1959?
[A] State Bank of Hyderabad
[B] State Bank of Indore
[C] State Bank of Mysore
[D] State Bank of Patna
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [State Bank of Patna]

Notes:
SBI acquired the control of seven banks via the State Bank of India (Subsidiary Banks) Ac
Jaipur (SBBJ), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH), State Bank of Indore (SBN), State Bank of
Saurashtra (SBS) and State Bank of Travancore (SBT).
22. How many banks were nationalised in 1980?
[A] 5
[B] 6
[C] 7
[D] 8
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [6]

Notes:
Six banks were nationalised in 1980. These were as following: 1. Andhra Bank 2. Corporat
Commerce 5. Punjab & Sindh Bank 6. Vijaya Bank
23. Which of these is a Financial Inclusion scheme that was launched in 2014?
[A] Pradhan Mantri Sampada Yojna
[B] Bharat Nirman
[C] Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
[D] All of the above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana]

Notes:
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), is financial inclusion program of Government of
24. When was the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI) formed?
[A] 2005
[B] 2006
[C] 2007
[D] 2008
Show Answer
Notes:
The Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI) was formed in 2006. It is an ind
consumers of banking services in India.
25. What is the name of the central bank of Germany?
[A] German State Bank
[B] Deutsche Bundesbank
[C] Bayerische Landesbank
[D] HypoVereinsbank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Deutsche Bundesbank]

Notes:
Deutsche Bundesbank is the central bank of Germany. It is located in Frankfurt, Germany.
(ESCB).
26. How much shares the government hold in the Public sector banks?
[A] Minimum 75%
[B] More than 50%
[C] More than 33%
[D] More than 49%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [More than 50%]

Notes:
Public Sector Banks are those banks in India, where a majority stake (i.e. more than 50%
27. Which of these is not a new private sector bank?
[A] IDFC
[B] Axis Bank
[C] Lakshmi Vilas Bank
[D] Kotak Mahindra Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Lakshmi Vilas Bank]

Notes:
Lakshmi Vilas Bank was founded in 1926 by a group of seven businessmen of Karur under
other options are new private sector banks.
28. Which of these banks was earlier known as UTI Bank?
[A] IndusInd Bank
[B] YES bank
[C] ICICI Bank
[D] Axis Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Axis Bank]
Notes:
UTI Bank in June 2007 changed its name to Axis Bank. It was done to avoid confusion as s
29. Who regulates the functioning of District Cooperative Banks in India?

[A] State Government
[B] RBI
[C] State Cooperative Banks
[D] None
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [RBI]

Notes:
RBI (Reserve Bank of India) regulates and supervises the banking functions of State Coop
(DCCBs) and Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) under the various provisions of the Banking
30. In which year the Regional Rural Banks Act was passed?
[A] 1986
[B] 1976
[C] 1992
[D] 1988
Show Answer

Notes:
Regional Rural Banks Act was passed in 1976 which aimed to set up RRBs to provide suffic
rural sectors.
31. What is not true about Payment bank?

[A] It cannot issue loans
[B] It can accept deposits
[C] It can issue credit cards
[D] None of the above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [It can issue credit cards]

Notes:
Payments banks is a new model of banks conceptualised by the Reserve Bank of India (RB
issue loans and credit cards.
32. Which country Woori Bank belongs to?
[A] South Korea
[B] Canada
[C] Indonesia
[D] USA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [South Korea]

Notes:
Woori Bank belongs to South Korea. It is a foreign bank of India having 3 branches in Indi
at Chennai.
33. Which of these is a Cooperative Bank in India?
[A] Cosmos Bank
[B] SVC Bank
[C] Janata Sahakari Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [All of the above]

Notes:
All the options are cooperative banks located in various parts of the country. All of them a
34. Which is the largest cooperative bank of India presently?
[A] Saraswat Bank
[B] NKGSB Cooperative Bank
[C] Apna Sahakari Bank Ltd
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Saraswat Bank]

Notes:
Saraswat Cooperative Banking Society was founded on September 14, 1918. Saraswat Ba
banking license in 1933 and took a new name, Saraswat Cooperative Bank Ltd.
35. When were the Local Area Banks were set up first in India?
[A] 1994
[B] 1995
[C] 1996
[D] 1998
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [1996]

Notes:
Local Area Banks were set up as per a Government of India Scheme announced in August
applicants.
36. Which was the first small finance bank in India?
[A] Capital Small Finance Bank Limited
[B] Jana Small Finance Bank
[C] Ujjivan Financial Services Pvt Ltd
[D] AU Small Finance Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Capital Small Finance Bank Limited]

Notes:
Capital Small Finance Bank Limited commenced operations as India’s 1st Small Finance Ba
Area Bank.
37. What is the deposit limit on saving accounts in the Payment banks?
[A] Rs 1 lakh
[B] Rs 50000
[C] Rs 5 lakhs
[D] Rs 10 lakhs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Rs 1 lakh]

Notes:
Payments banks can accept demand deposits up to Rs. 1 lakh per account from individuals
38. Which of these cannot be issued by a Payment bank?
[A] ATM card
[B] Debit card
[C] Credit card
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Credit card]

Notes:
Payment banks can issue ATM/debit cards but not credit cards. Also, they can issue other
39. Which is India’s largest Banking Correspondent company?
[A] Airtel
[B] FINO
[C] YONO
[D] Reliance
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [FINO]

Notes:
Financial Inclusion Network and Operations (FINO) is India’s largest Business Corresponde
sector banks and insurance companies like LIC.
40. What is the function of Board for Financial Supervision (BFS)?
[A] supervision of the financial sector
[B] supervision of all types of payment and settlement systems
[C] appointing the directors of scheduled banks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [supervision of the financial sector]

Notes:
The main function of BFS is to undertake consolidated supervision of the financial sector co
Companies (NBFCs), development finance institutions, urban co-operative banks and prim
41. With which bank South Gujarat Local Area Bank Ltd was merged in 2004?
[A] Punjab National Bank
[B] State Bank of India
[C] Bank of Baroda
[D] Syndicate Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Bank of Baroda]

Notes:
South Gujarat Local Area Bank Ltd failed to maintain CRR and SLR and suffered net losses
with Bank of Baroda in 2004.
42. Which bank is a specialized financial institution for financing, facilitating and promoting
[A] EXIM Bank
[B] ICICI
[C] IDBI
[D] NABARD
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [EXIM Bank]

Notes:
The Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank) is a specialized financial institution, that wa
foreign trade of India.
43. Who was the chairman of the committee formed by RBI to evaluate applications receiv
[A] Nachiket Mor
[B] Raghuram Ram Rajan
[C] Urjit Patel
[D] Usha Thorat
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Usha Thorat]

Notes:
Usha Thorat, former deputy governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), was the chairma
applications received for small finance banks.
44. Where is the headquarters of North-East Small Finance Bank located in India?
[A] Dispur
[B] Gangtok
[C] Guwahati
[D] Patna
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Guwahati]

Notes:
The headquarters of North-East Small Finance Bank is located Guwahati in India. Its starte
45. When did RBI stop acting as the currency issuing authority of Burma?
[A] 1941
[B] 1942
[C] 1943
[D] 1947
Show Answer

Notes:
The Reserve Bank ceased to be the currency issuing authority of Burma (now Myanmar) in
to the Government of Burma.
46. What is meant by Open Market Operations?
[A] Purchase and sale of the Government Securities by RBI
[B] Rationing of the credit allocated by commercial banks by RBI
[C] Request by the RBI to the commercial banks to take certain measures
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Purchase and sale of the Government Securities by RBI]

Notes:
Open Market Operations (OMO) refer to the purchase and sale of the Government Securiti
47. What is the primary objective of DICGC?
[A] protect the interest of small depositors
[B] protect the bank to fail
[C] protect the large corporate from going bankrupt
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [protect the interest of small depositors]

Notes:
RBI has set up the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) to protec
The DICGC provides insurance cover to all eligible bank depositors up to Rs.1 lakh per dep
48. Which of the following comes under Statutory Pre-emotions?
[A] Cash Reserve Ratio
[B] Statutory Liquidity Ratio
[C] Both a and b
[D] None
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Both a and b]

Notes:
Both Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio norms comes under Statutory Pre-e
49. In which year the Paper Currency Act was passed?

[A] 1861
[B] 1885
[C] 1909
[D] 1919
Show Answer

Notes:
The Paper Currency Act was passed in 1861. With this the British Government of India was
50. Who undertakes the distribution of one rupee notes and coins and small coins all over
[A] Finance Ministry
[B] RBI
[C] Home Ministry
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [RBI]

Notes:
The distribution of one rupee notes and coins and small coins all over the country is under
51. Where is the SARFAESI Act not applicable?

[A] On unsecured loans
[B] Loans below 100000
[C] where remaining debt is below 20% of the original principal
Show Answer

Notes:
The SARFAESI Act does not apply to unsecured loans, loans below ₹100,000 or where rem
52. Which of the following is the biggest contributor of foreign exchange reserve of India?
[A] Foreign Currency assets
[B] Gold
[C] Reserve tranche with IMF
[D] Special Drawing Rights
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Foreign Currency assets]

53. Which of the following is not the fund based business of commercial banks?
[A] D.P. Operation
[B] Loans
[C] Deposits
[D] Depositing Bills
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [D.P. Operation]

54. The merger of which of the following was the first M and A activity after liberalization?
[A] GTB and Oriental Bank of Commerce
[B] Times Bank and HDFC Bank
[C] New Bank of India and Punjab National Bank
[D] ICICI and ICICI Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [ICICI and ICICI Bank]

55. Which of the following about money supply measure adopted in 1977 is correct?
[A] M2= M1 +demand deposits with post offices
[B] M3= M1 +term deposits with banks
[C] M4=M3+total deposits with post offices
[D] All the above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [M4=M3+total deposits with post offices]

Notes:
Money supply is defined as the total quantity of money circulating in the economy at a par
M2, and M3.
56. Balance in a current account is classified as which of the following?
[A] Hybrid deposit
[B] Term deposit
[C] Demand deposit
[D] Fixed deposit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Demand deposit]

Notes:
Demand deposits, bank money or scriptural money are funds held in demand deposit acco
57. What is the full form of BSBDA?
[A] Basic Saving and Bank Deposit Access
[B] Basic Saving and Bank Demand Account
[C] Broad Saving and Bank Deposit Account
[D] Basic Saving and Bank Deposit Account
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Basic Saving and Bank Deposit Account]

Notes:
Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account (BSBDA) is a Zero Balance Savings Account that take
monthly statement, and cheque book.
58. Which of the following is also known as Prepaid Debit cards?
[A] Loadable Debit Cards
[B] Reloadable Debit Cards
[C] Relational Debit Cards
[D] None of The Above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Reloadable Debit Cards]

Notes:
Reloadable prepaid cards work like traditional debit cards. Customers can load funds and u
an ATM and receive direct deposits of payroll and government benefits.
59. In production sector, a micro enterprise is an enterprise where investment in plant and
[A] Rs 10 lakh
[B] Rs 15 lakh
[C] Rs 20 lakh
[D] Rs 25 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Rs 25 lakh]

Notes:
In production sector, a micro enterprise is an enterprise where investment in plant and ma
60. Lead bank scheme was initiated by which of the following?
[A] KP Group
[B] Gadgil Study Group
[C] Ghosh committee
[D] Bhagwati committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Gadgil Study Group ]

Notes:
Lead Bank Scheme (LBS) was introduced in 1969 based on the recommendations of the G
61. The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is introduced under which of the following sections
[A] Section 25 A
[B] Section 30 A
[C] Section 40 A
[D] Section 35 A
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Section 35 A]

Notes:
The Banking Ombudsman Scheme is introduced under Section 35 A of the Banking Regula
62. How many Banking Ombudsmen have been appointed?
[A] 20
[B] 10
[C] 15
[D] 18
Show Answer

Notes:
As on date, twenty Banking Ombudsmen have been appointed with their offices.
63. Which of the following documents is mandatory for withdrawal/remittance of foreign e
[A] PAN
[B] Aadhar card
[C] Passport
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [PAN]

Notes:
Permanent Account Number (PAN) is mandatory for all transactions under Liberalised Rem
64. What was the motive to bring the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 into bei
[A] to provide for the regulation and supervision of payment systems
[B] to designate RBI as the authority
[C] matters connected therewith or incidental thereto
Show Answer

Notes:
Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007 is an Act to provide for the regulation and sup
Reserve Bank of India as the authority for that purpose and for matters connected therewi
65. How many digits are present in IFSC code?
[A] 9
[B] 15
[C] 10
[D] 11
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [11]

Notes:
IFSC – Indian Financial System Code. This is an 11 digit code with the first 4 alpha charac
representing the branch. The 5th character is 0 (zero).
66. Which of the following is not true about Unified Payments Interface (UPI)?
[A] UPI is an instant payment system developed by the National Payments Corporation of
[B] Through UPI, all payments are instant and takes place in banking hours.
[C] Under UPI person will have a single identity and password for using multiple bank acco
[D] UPI is based on the Immediate Payment Services (IMPS) infrastructure.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [ Through UPI, all payments are instant and takes place in banking ho
Notes:
UPI is an indigenously developed platform by National Payments Corporation of India (NPC
Indian Banks Association (IBA). Through UPI, all payments are instant but it provides 24/7
67. Which act governs the minting of coins in India?
[A] Indian Coinage Act, 1906
[B] Indian Rupee Act, 1996
[C] Indian Denomination Act, 1972
[D] All of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [ Indian Coinage Act, 1906 ]

Notes:
The 1906 Coinage Act, is an Act to govern the laws related to Coinage and Mints in India.
68. Liquidity status of certificate of deposit which is more negotiable is considered as?
[A] certified liquidity
[B] term liquidity
[C] more liquid
[D] less liquid
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [ more liquid ]

Notes:
Liquidity status of certificate of deposit which is more negotiable is considered as more liqu
69. Which of the following is an organised markets that enable the existing equity and deb
[A] Secondary markets
[B] Discount market
[C] Gilt repo market
[D] Primary capital markets
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Secondary markets]

Notes:
Secondary markets are organised markets that enable the existing equity and debt of issu
70. Which of the following cannot be called as a debt instrument as referred to in financial
[A] Bonds
[B] Stocks
[C] Commercial papers
[D] Loans
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Loans]

Notes:
Bonds, stocks, commercial papers, etc, can be called as a debt instrument as referred to in
71. Maximum maturity days of holding commercial paper are

[A] 170 days
[B] 270 days
[C] 120 days
[D] 5 days
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [ 270 days ]

Notes:
Commercial paper, in the global financial market, is an unsecured promissory note with a
paper is usually sold at a discount from face value and generally carries lower interest rep
commercial paper.
72. Which of the following markets enable new issues of equity and debt to be traded?
[B] Discount markets
[C] Primary capital markets
[D] Gilt repo market
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Primary capital markets]

Notes:
Primary capital markets are Organised markets that enable new issues of equity and debt
73. What is call money?
[A] It is an overnight loan in the money market
[B] It is loan of above 1 day to 14 days in the money market
[C] It is loan of above 14 day to 364 days in the money market
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [It is an overnight loan in the money market]

Notes:
Call money is minimum 5% short-term finance repayable on demand, with a maturity peri
used for inter-bank transactions.
Show Answer

Notes:
These are the measures of money supply adopted by RBI in 1977.
75. In primary markets, property of shares which made it easy to sell newly issued secur
[A] money flow
[B] decreased liquidity
[C] increased liquidity
[D] large funds
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [increased liquidity]

Notes:
In primary markets, property of shares which made it easy to sell newly issued security is
money that is readily available for investment and spending.
76. Price of underlying asset is added into intrinsic value of option to calculate which of t
[A] forward price of option
[B] exercise price of option
[C] book value of option
[D] spot price of option
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [exercise price of option]

Notes:
Price of underlying asset is added into intrinsic value of option to calculate exercise price o
77. Type of exchange members who only buy and sell for their personal account are clas
[A] non-investment traders
[B] Commercial traders
[C] Professional traders
[D] Investment traders
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Professional traders]

Notes:
A professional trader is not the one who was more trading screens, better equipment or th
account.
78. Which of the following is the regulator of the credit rating agencies in India?
[A] RBI
[B] SIDBI
[C] SBI
[D] SEBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [SEBI]

Notes:
SEBI is the regulator of the credit rating agencies in India.
79. Which of the following indicates the wealth of a person?
[A] Bank balance
[B] Capital
[C] Net worth
[D] Assets
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Net worth]

Notes:
Net worth is the value of all the non-financial and financial assets owned by an institutiona
liabilities.
80. NBFCs are required to accept public deposit for a minimum period of how many mont
[A] 12 months
[B] 6 months
[C] 18 months
[D] 24 months
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [12 months]

Notes:
The NBFCs are allowed to accept/renew public deposits for a minimum period of 12 month
81. Which of the following is not necessarily involved in an IPO process?
[A] Register of companies
[B] Underwriter
[C] Investment bank
[D] Registar of Issues
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Register of companies]

Notes:
Underwriter, Investment bank and Registar of Issues are necessarily involved in an IPO pr
82. Which among the following NBFC are not excluded from the Ombudsman scheme for
[A] Deposit accepting NBFCs
[B] NBFC-IFC
[C] Core Investment Company
[D] IDF-NBFC
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Deposit accepting NBFCs]

Notes:
The following NBFCs are excluded from the ambit of the Scheme: Non-banking Financial C
Core Investment Company (CIC), Infrastructure Debt Fund – Non-banking Financial Comp
83. Which of the following is the core investment company having total assets of not less
[A] Systemically Important Core Investment Company
[B] Infrastructure Debt Fund
[C] Infrastructure Finance Company
[D] NBFC-MFI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Systemically Important Core Investment Company]

Notes:
Systemically important Core Investment Company (CIC-ND-SI)” means a core investment
either individually or in aggregate along with other CICs in the Group and which raises or h
84. Under NBFC– Peer to Peer Lending Platform Directions, 2017 by RBI, what is the agg
across all P2Ps?
[A]
[B] Rs 15 lakh
[C] Rs 20 lakh
[D] Rs 10 lakh
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Rs 10 lakh]

Notes:
The aggregate loans taken by a borrower at any point of time, across all P2Ps is subjected
85. Credit facility in Infrastructure finance companies is related to which of the following?
[A] Equity
[B] Shares
[C] Infrastructures
[D] Loan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Loan]

Notes:
The term ‘credit facility’ means a term loan, project loan subscription to bonds/ debenture
acquired as a part of project finance package such that such subscription amounts to be “i
86. Which among the following NBFC is not excluded from the Ombudsman scheme for N
[A] Deposit accepting NBFCs
[B] NBFC-IFC
[C] Core Investment Company (CIC)
[D] IDF-NBFC
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Deposit accepting NBFCs]

Notes:
The following NBFCs are excluded from the ambit of the Scheme: Non-banking Financial C
Core Investment Company (CIC), Infrastructure Debt Fund – Non-banking Financial Comp
87. The financial assets in the NBFC factoring business should constitute what percent of
[A] 75%
[B] 50%
[C] 100%
[D] 25%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [75%]

Notes:
The financial assets in the factoring business should constitute at least 75 percent of its to
should not be less than 75 percent of its gross income.
88. Which of the following is related to factoring in NBFC-Factor?
[A] Money Market
[B] Financial transaction
[C] Financial inclusion
[D] Non of the above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Financial transaction]

Notes:
The Factoring is a financial transaction wherein the company sells its bills receivables i.e. i
89. Which of the following is defined as a central location for keeping securities on depos
[A] Institutions
[B] Depository
[C] Instrument
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Depository]

Notes:
A depository is an entity which helps an investor to buy or sell securities such as stocks an
accounts are similar to funds in bank accounts.
90. A merchant bank is a financial institution conducting money market activities and wh
[A] Lending
[B] Underwriting and financial advice
[C] Investment service
Show Answer

Notes:
A merchant bank is a financial institution conducting money market activities, lending, und
91. The net wealth of the aggregate economy is equal to the sum of which of the followin
[A] All real assets
[B] All financial assets
[C] All physical assets
[D] All real and financial assets
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [All real assets]

Notes:
The net wealth of the aggregate economy is equal to the sum of all real assets. Financial a
the economy.
92. Which of the following does not give a difference between a hire purchase and a norm
[A] Timing of payment for asset
[B] Total cost of asset
[C] Quality of asset purchased
[D] Legal ownership of asset
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Quality of asset purchased]

Notes:
Timing of payment for asset, total cost of asset and Legal ownership of asset give a differe
93. Which of the following payments can NOT be done using BBPS as of now (2020)?
[A] Electricity Bill
[B] Water Bill
[C] School Fees
[D] Mobile Bill
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [School Fees]

Notes:
BBPS covers repetitive payments for everyday utility services such as electricity, water, ga
and Direct-to-Home (DTH). Gradually, the scope would be expanded to include other types
funds, school fees, EMI”s, municipal taxes etc.
1. Which among the following is world’s largest foreign exchange market ?

[A] New York
[B] London
[C] Tokyo
[D] Moscow
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [London]

Notes:
London followed by New York, Tokyo, Zurich and Frankfurt.
2. Which was the first bank to open a branch on foreign soil?
[A] Bank of India
[C] Bank of Punjab
[D] Allahabad Bank
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [ Bank of India ]

Notes:
Bank of India was the first Indian bank to open a branch outside India in London in 1946 a
in 1974.
3. Which of the following is not the type of credit reporting institutions?
[A] Credit Bureau
[B] Credit Agencies
[C] Both a and b
Show Answer

Notes:
There are two types of Credit Reporting Institutions. These are Credit Bureau and Credit R
usually managed by central banks or bank supervision agencies. In contrast, Credit Bureau
companies.
4. FEMA head office is situated in which of the following city?
[A] Hyderabad
[B] Lucknow
[C] Bangalore
[D] New Delhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [New Delhi]

Notes:
The FEMA head-office, also known as Enforcement Directorate is situated in New Delhi and
into 5 zonal offices in Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and Jalandhar and each office is he
5. Which of the following best defines the meaning of Exchange rate?
[A] It is a price at which Foreign money is exchanged at counters.
[B] It is the price at which one country’s currency is expressed in another country’s curren
[C] It is the price at which Foreign materials are purchased or sold.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [It is the price at which one country’s currency is expressed in anothe
Notes:
Exchange Rate is the price of one country’s currency expressed in another country’s curren
exchanged for another. E.g. Rs. 71.07 per one USD.
6. In investing its Foreign Assets ,RBI is guided by three principles .Which of the following
[A] Safety
[B] Liquidity
[C] Return
Show Answer

Notes:
The Department of External Investments and Operations (DEIO) invests the country’s fore
currency from the market. In investing its foreign assets, the Reserve Bank is guided by th
7. Who is the CEO of the CRISIL?
[A] Ashu Suyash
[B] Rajesh Mokashi
[C] Naresh Takkar
[D] Varun Mirchandani
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Ashu Suyash]
Notes:
Ashu Suyash is the current CEO of the CRISIL. Rajesh Mokani is the current head of CARE
Miranchandani is the head of ONICRA.
8. How many Credit Rating Agencies are there in India?
[A] 3
[B] 6
[C] 7
[D] 9
Show Answer
Correct Answer: 6 []
Notes:
There are six credit rating agencies in India. These are CRISIL, ICRA, CARE, SMERA, Fitch
registered under SEBI.
9. What is the full form of EMI?
[A] Equal Monthly Installment
[B] Equated Monthly Installment
[C] Equal Monthly Income
[D] Equated Monthly Incentive
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Equated Monthly Installment]

Notes:
EMI stands for equated monthly installment. It is one part of the equally divided monthly o
time frame.
10. Which of the following best define the term Relationship discount?
[A] It is given to the couple applying for personal loans.
[B] It is an additional benefit by banks.
[C] It is given to a prospective applicant if they have a pre-existing relationship with the le
[D] Both b and c
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Both b and c]

Notes:
Relationship discount is an additional benefit that is provided by the banks or lenders to a
relationship with the lender. Relationship discounts may result in the lender providing borr
11. Which of the following are among the direct methods of exchange control in India?
[A] Intervention
[B] Exchange Restrictions
[C] Exchange Clearing Agreements
Show Answer

Notes:
The direct methods of exchange control are adopted by the central bank with the object of
These include intervention, exchange restriction, exchange clearing agreements and paym
12. Which of the following acts provide the legal provisions for the maintenance of Foreig
[A] RBI Act 1934
[B] Banking Regulation Act 1949
[C] FEMA 1999
[D] Both a and c
Show Answer

Notes:
Reserve Bank of India act 1934 and Foreign Exchange Management Act 1999 are the two
to the maintenance of Foreign Exchange Reserve .
13. Where does the headquarters of Brickwork Ratings India Private Limited situated?
[A] Bangalore
[B] Hyderabad
[C] Mumbai
[D] New Delhi
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Bangalore]

Notes:
Brickwork Ratings India Private Limited is headquartered in Bangalore. This credit rating a
corporation, capital market instrument and SMEs.
14. VCTs invest in which of the following assets?
[A] Any new start up company
[B] Company listed in Stock Exchange
[C] Companies listed on AIM.
[D] None of the Above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Companies listed on AIM.]

Notes:
VCT invest in holdings of shares or securities, including loans of at least five years duration
traded on the alternative investment market (AIM).
15. The idea of providing factoring services was first thought of in India by which of the f
[A] Tandem Committee
[B] Patel Committee
[C] Malhotra committee
[D] Vaghul committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Vaghul committee]

Notes:
Invoice factoring for startup companies is a flexible financing solution that is a good way fo
essential operating costs. It was suggested by Vaghul Committee in India.
16. What are the Pre-Closure charges applied on paying personal loan before tenure peri
[A] 2-4 % of Principal
[B] 2-5% of the Principal
[C] 1-9% of the Principal
[D] 7-8% of the Principal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [2-5% of the Principal]

Notes:
Pre-closure refers to completely paying off a personal loan before the loan tenure has ende
from 2% to 5% of the loan amount.
17. What is the meaning of the term Repayment Capacity?
[A] It is how much you pay in each EMI.
[B] It is the time in which one can repay Housing Loan.
[C] None of the options
[D] It is based on your monthly disposable income and other factors like spouse’s income,
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [It is based on your monthly disposable income and other factors like s
Notes:
The bank will assess repayment capacity while deciding the home loan eligibility. Repayme
income and other factors like spouse’s income, assets, liabilities, stability of income etc.
18. Who of the following plays the vital role in setting up of National Housing Bank?
[A] K. R. Puri
[B] Dr. Minoan Singh
[C] C. Rangarajan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [C. Rangarajan]

Notes:
A High Level Group under the Chairmanship of Dr. C. Rangarajan was set up under the the
recommended the setting up of National Housing Bank as an autonomous housing finance
were accepted by the Government of India.
19. Which of the following clearly define Direct Housing Finance?
[A] It refers to the finance provided to individuals or groups of individual including co-oper
[B] It is channeled by the way of terms of loans to housing finance institutions, housing bo
[C] Bank finance extended to a person who is already owning a house in the town of villag
[D] Both a and c
Show Answer

Notes:
Direct Housing Finance refers to the finance provided by banks to individuals or groups of
acquisition/construction of accommodation.
20. Factoring Business is also known as by which of the following names?
[A] Accounts Receivable Factoring
[B] Asset Based Lending
[C] Invoice Factoring
Show Answer

Notes:
Factoring is commonly referred to as accounts receivable factoring, invoice factoring, and
receivable financing is a term more accurately used to describe a form of asset based lend
21. What is the time period for a long term corporate loan?
[A] 3-15 Years
[B] 3-23 Years
[C] 3-25 Years
[D] Unlimited time period
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [3-25 Years]

Notes:
A long-term loan runs for three to 25 years. It uses company assets as collateral, and requ
flow.
22. Which of the following types of corporate loans are known as balloon loans?
[A] Short-term Loans
[B] Intermediate term Loans
[C] Long term Loans
[D] Both a and b
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Both a and b]

Notes:
Both intermediate-term loans and shorter long-term loans are also called balloon loans be
called because the final installment swells or “balloons” into a much larger amount than an
23. Venture Loans are __________?
[A] Startup Loans
[B] Long-term Loans
[C] Loan for day to day activities
[D] Small period Loans
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Startup Loans]

Notes:
Venture loans are start-up loans allowing businesses to open. Lenders do not like to give o
are high.
24. A leveraged lease is a three-sided agreement among the following:
[A] Lessee, lessor and lender.
[B] Lessor, commercial bank, and insurance company.
[C] a and b.
[D] None of the above.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [a and b.]

Notes:
A leveraged lease is a lease agreement that is partially financed by the lessor through a th
secured interest on the asset and an assignment of the lease and lease payments.
25. Which section of RBI is not correctly matched?
[A] Section 26 – describes the legal tender character of Indian bank notes.
[B] Section 18 – manner in which RBI can conduct business
[C] Both a and b
[D] None
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [ Section 18 – manner in which RBI can conduct business ]

Notes:
Section 18 of the RBI Act deals with emergency loans to banks and Section 17 of the Act d
26. Who was the Prime Minister of India when Banking Nationalization was done in 1969?
[A] Jawahar Lal Nehru
[B] Indira Gandhi
[C] Rajiv Gandhi
[D] Narsimha Rao
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Indira Gandhi]

Notes:
Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India when the first round of Banking Nationalizat
27. Which was the first Indian bank to provide Internet Banking Facility in India?
[A] HDFC
[B] ICICI
[C] SBI
[D] Axis
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [ICICI]
Notes:
ICICI Bank was the first Indian bank to provide internet banking facility and the first bank
28. Which was the first bank to introduce ATM in India?

[A] IDBI
[B] UTI
[C] ICICI
[D] HSBC
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [HSBC]

Notes:
The HSBC i.e. Hongkong and Shanghai Banking Corporation was the first bank to introduc
29. What do we call the banks which provide capital to the firms in the form of shares an
[A] Commercial Banks
[B] Universal Banks
[C] Merchant Banks
[D] IFI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Merchant Banks]

Notes:
Merchant Banks are those banks which provide capital to the firms in the form of shares a
30. Which is the first co-operative bank in India?
[A] Anyonya Co-operative Bank Limited
[B] Bombay Co-operative Bank Limited
[C] Jamnagar Co-operative Bank Limited
[D] The Hindu Co-operative Bank Limited
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Anyonya Co-operative Bank Limited]

Notes:
Anyonya Co-operative Bank Limited (ACBL) located in the city of Vadodara (formerly Barod
32. Which state Capital Local Area Bank Ltd belongs to?
[A] Maharashtra
[B] New Delhi
[C] Punjab
[D] Rajasthan
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Punjab]

Notes:
This bank was established on 14th January 2000. Its area of operation includes three distr
33. When was the National Housing Bank Act passed?

[A] 1976
[B] 1987
[C] 1996
[D] 1970
Show Answer

Notes:
National Housing Bank (NHB) was set up on 9 July 1988 under the National Housing Bank
Housing Finance Company (HFCs).
34. What can be the minimum initial contribution to the paid-up equity capital of small fin
[A] 25%
[B] 40%
[C] 75%
[D] 50%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [40%]

Notes:
The promoter’s minimum initial contribution to the paid-up equity capital of such small fina
initial shareholding by promoter in the bank is in excess of 40 per cent, it should be broug
35. How many entities were granted provisional license by RBI to convert into Small Fina
[A] 8
[B] 10
[C] 12
[D] 25
Show Answer

Notes:
In 2015, The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ten entities were given provisional licenses whic
one year.
36. Which of these accounts can be opened in a Payment Bank?
[A] Savings Account
[B] Current Account
[C] Both a and b
[D] None
Show Answer

Notes:
Both current account and savings accounts can be opened in a Payment Bank. The deposit
37. How many Payment banks were approved by RBI in 2015?
[A] 7
[B] 11
[C] 41
[D] 9
Show Answer

Notes:
Total 41 applicants had applied for the license for Payment Bank. Out of 41 applications, 1
38. Which of the following activities can be undertaken by a Business Correspondent?
[A] Selling mutual fund products
[B] Selling Pension products
[C] Extending small credit on behalf of the banks
Show Answer

Notes:
The business correspondent is authorised to collect small ticket deposits and extend small
selling mutual fund products, selling Pension products and extending small credit on behal
39. Till when the RBI served as the central bank of Pakistan?
[A] August 1947
[B] January 1950
[C] June 1948
[D] November 1949
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [June 1948]

Notes:
After the Partition of India in August 1947, the bank served as the central bank for Pakista
commenced operations.
40. Where is the headquarter of Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited loc
[A] Chennai
[B] New Delhi
[C] Hyderabad
[D] Bangalore
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Bangalore]

Notes:
The headquarter of Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited is at Bangalore, K
designs, print and supply banknotes for the Reserve Bank of India(RBI).
41. When was NABARD set up in India?
[A] 1976
[B] 1979
[C] 1981
[D] 1982
Show Answer

Notes:
The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) was established on Ju
42. What were the recommendation of Janak Raj Committee?
[A] linking bank lending rates to a market benchmark
[B] Merging all the Regional Rural banks
[C] Dissolving all the Payments banks
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [linking bank lending rates to a market benchmark]

Notes:
Janak Raj committee set up by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in 2017. it recommended
43. Who was the chairman of the Committee on Medium-term Path on Financial Inclusion
[A] Chandan Sinha
[B] Deepak Mohanty
[C] Sushil Chandra
[D] Nachiket Mor
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Deepak Mohanty]

Notes:
Deepak Mohanty was the chairman of the Committee on Medium-term Path on Financial In
44. What do we call the instruments of monetary policy which directly affect the quantity
[A] Quantitative instruments
[B] Qualitative instruments
[C] Money instruments
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Quantitative instruments]

Notes:
The instruments of monetary policy which directly affect the quantity of money supply are
Operations Liquidity Adjustment Facility (Repo and Reverse Repo) etc.
45. Which of these banks is regulated by Reserve bank of India?
[A] Local Area Banks
[B] Cooperative Banks
[C] Commercial Banks
Show Answer

Notes:
RBI regulates Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks, Local Area Banks, Cooperative Ba
Institutions (DFIs) and Non-Banking Financial Companies.
46. What is the population limit at a place under which the banks don’t require a license
[A] 10000
[B] 20000
[C] 40000
[D] 50000
Show Answer

Notes:
At present, Indian banks no longer require a license from the Reserve Bank for opening a
47. When was the currency function moved from Controller of Currency to RBI?
[A] 1935
[B] 1947
[C] 1950
[D] 1928
Show Answer

Notes:
On 1st April 1935, the currency function moved from Controller of Currency to RBI. Sectio
sole right to issue Bank notes of all denominations.
48. What do we call an unconditional order to pay a certain amount on an agreed date?
[A] Promissory note
[B] Bill of exchange
[C] Money order
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Bill of exchange]

Notes:
The bill of exchange contains an unconditional order to pay a certain amount on an agreed
promise to pay a certain sum of money on a certain date.
49. Who can become an authorised BBPOU under BBPS?
[A] Banks
[B] Non-Bank entities
[C] Both Banks and Non-Bank entities
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Both Banks and Non-Bank entities]

Notes:
Both Banks and Non-Bank entities can apply to become an authorised BBPOU under BBPS.
50. What does C in BBPCU stand for?
[A] Central
[B] Console
[C] Centralised
[D] Collection
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Central]

Notes:
BBPCU stands for Bharat Bill Payment Central Unit. It will be a single authorized entity ope
51. What do we call the facility given to a current account holder of withdrawal of more a
[A] Overdraft
[B] EMI
[C] Sweep-in Facility
[D] Recurring Deposit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Overdraft]

Notes:
An overdraft facility is a credit agreement made with a bank that allows an account holder
their account up to the approved limit.
52. Which of these committees is related to BBPS?
[A] Y Malegam committee
[B] Rangarajan committee
[C] G .Padmanabhan committee
[D] Narsimaham committee
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [G .Padmanabhan committee]

Notes:
The Committee was set up in 2013 under RBI Executive Director G. Padmanabhan to study
Systems.
53. When was UPI service launched?
[A] 2016
[B] 2017
[C] 2018
[D] 2019
Show Answer
Notes:
UPI was introduced on 11th April 2016. The interface was created by NPIC and is regulate
54. To which of the following personalities is the BHIM app dedicated?
[A] Mahatma Gandhi
[B] Dr. B.R Ambedkar
[C] Subhash Chandra Bose
[D] Jawahar Lal Nehru
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Dr. B.R Ambedkar]

Notes:
The BHIM app is dedicated to Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar. It was launched by Prime Minister
55. Which of the following is the custodian of India’s foreign exchange reserve?
[A] Department of Finance
[C] Reserve Bank of India
[D] Board of Financial Supervision
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Reserve Bank of India]

56. Which of the following is the biggest contributor of foreign exchange reserve of India
[A] Foreign Currency assets
[B] Gold
[C] Reserve tranche with IMF
[D] Special Drawing Rights
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Foreign Currency assets]

57. Which of the following items is not related with e-banking?
[A] Demand draft
[B] ECS
[C] SPMS
[D] ATM
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Demand draft]

58. Which one among the following has not started commercial banking?
[A] ICICI
[B] SIDBI
[C] IDBI
[D] UTI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [SIDBI]
59. In which of the following accounts, shares and securities are held in dematerialized fo
[A] Salary account
[B] Current account
[C] Demat account
[D] Savings account
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Demat account]

Notes:
Demat account number is quoted for all transactions to enable electronic settlements of tr
Dematerialized account for the purpose of transacting.
60. Which of the following provides a unified “Kisan Card” issued by banks across the cou
business on ATMs and POS terminals?
[A] RuPay Card
[B] Maestro Card
[C] Forex Card
[D] None of The Above
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [RuPay Card]

Notes:
RuPay is an Indian card scheme conceived and launched by the National Payments Corpor
Reserve Bank of India’s desire to have a domestic, open, multilateral system of payments
61. Micro or Small Enterprise (as defined in the MSMED Act 2006) may be said to have b
[A] Any of the borrowal account of the enterprise remains NPA for ten months or more
[B] Any of the borrowal account of the enterprise remains NPA for eight months or more
[C] Any of the borrowal account of the enterprise remains NPA for five months or more
[D] Any of the borrowal account of the enterprise remains NPA for three months or more
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Any of the borrowal account of the enterprise remains NPA for three m
Notes:
Micro or Small Enterprise (as defined in the MSMED Act 2006) may be said to have becom
remains NPA for three months or more.
62. In pension plans for employees, special account through which funds are remained n
[A] Keogh retirement account
[B] vesting account
[C] portability account
[D] individual retirement account
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [individual retirement account]

Notes:
An Individual Retirement Account (IRA) is a tax-advantaged account that is designed to he
IRAs: Traditional and Roth IRAs.
63. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. It is applicable in both urban
its objectives.
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Both 1 and 2 ]

Notes:
Lead bank scheme s applicable in both urban and rural areas. Its one of the objectives is t
64. Which one of the is PMJDY related to?
[A] Financial inclusion
[B] Bank
[C] Literacy
[D] Female education
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Financial inclusion]

Notes:
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, is financial inclusion program of Government of India wh
expand and make affordable access to financial services such as bank accounts, remittanc
65. Financial inclusion means which of the following?
[A] retail banking
[B] bringing all poor people under banking net
[C] financial statements
[D] wholesale banking
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [bringing all poor people under banking net]

Notes:
Financial inclusion aims to bring in digital financial solutions for the economically underpriv
mobile banking or financial services in order to reach the poorest people living in extremel
66. Which of the following is another name for Self help groups?
[A] mutual aid
[B] support groups
[C] groups of people
Show Answer

Notes:
Self-help groups—also called mutual help or mutual aid groups—are composed of peers wh
or who are interested in a focal issue, such as education or parenting.
67. As per the Negotiable Instruments Act 1882, the term negotiable relates to which of
[A] Money
[B] Transferable
[C] Can be passed
[D] Bargain
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Transferable]

Notes:
Negotiable term in Negotiable Instruments Act 1882 means the value in it which is transfe
68. Which are the banks covered under the Banking Ombudsman Scheme, 2006?
[A] Scheduled Commercial Banks
[B] Regional Rural Banks
[C] Scheduled Primary Co-operative Banks
[D] All of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [All of these]

Notes:
Scheduled Commercial Banks, Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Primary Co-operative B
Ombudsman Scheme, 2006.
69. The Banking Ombudsman charge how much fee for filing and resolving customers’ co
[A] No Fee
[B] Rs. 100
[C] Rs. 200
[D] Rs. 500
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [No Fee]

Notes:
The banking ombudsman is appointed by the RBI to resolve customers’ complaints regard
70. What is LRS a2?
[A] LRS Modulation
[B] LRS activation
[C] LRS Declaration
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [LRS Declaration]

Notes:
Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), the Indian government and the Reserve
(fully titled “A2 cum LRS Declaration”) to transfer funds abroad.
71. Which of the following would ‘tighten’ the liquidity situation of banks?
[A] Increased sales of government securities to individuals or institutions who pay for them
[B] Regulations requiring the banks to maintain positive end-of-day balances with the Ban
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] Lower levels of taxation and reductions in tax receipts to the Treasury
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Both 1 and 2]

Notes:
Increased sales of government securities to individuals or institutions who pay for them fro
to maintain positive end-of- day balances with the Bank of England would ‘tighten’ the liqu
72. What is call money?
[A] It is an overnight loan in the money market
[B] It is loan of above 1 day to 14 days in the money market
[C] It is loan of above 14 day to 364 days in the money market
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [It is an overnight loan in the money market]

Notes:
Call money is minimum 5% short-term finance repayable on demand, with a maturity peri
used for inter-bank transactions.
73. Who among the following issues metallic coins in India?
[A] RBI
[B] Government of India
[C] Banks and financial institutions
[D] Any of the above can issue it.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Government of India]

Notes:
The Government of India issues metallic coins in India. Coins, paper currency and deposits
74. In capital markets, which of the following are the major suppliers of trading instrume
[A] liquid corporations
[B] instrumental corporations
[C] manufacturing corporations
[D] government and corporations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [government and corporations]

Notes:
In capital markets, government and corporations are the major suppliers of trading instrum
and investments are moved between suppliers of capital and those who are in need of cap
75. Which of the following organisations issues the rules of global trade?
[A] World Bank
[B] Foreign Echange Dealers’ Association
[C] World Trade Organisation
[D] Directorate General of Foreign Trade
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [World Trade Organisation]

Notes:
The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing w
WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and rat
76. Which of the following cannot be called as a debt instrument as referred to in financia
[A] Bonds
[B] Stocks
[C] Commercial papers
[D] Loans
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Loans]

Notes:
Bonds, stocks, commercial papers, etc, can be called as a debt instrument as referred to in
77. Which of the following is the purchase of bonds and shares of Indian companies by F
[A] FDI
[B] NRI investment
[C] Portfolio investment
[D] Foreign indirect investment
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [FDI]

Notes:
A foreign direct investment (FDI) is an investment in the form of a controlling ownership in
country.
78. Which of the following indicates the wealth of a person?
[A] Bank balance
[B] Capital
[C] Net worth
[D] Assets
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Net worth]

Notes:
Net worth is the value of all the non-financial and financial assets owned by an institutiona
liabilities.
79. Which of the following markets are open to specific investors who buy securities direc
[A] Tertiary markets
[B] Primary markets
[C] Secondary markets
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Primary markets]

Notes:
The primary market is the part of the capital market that deals with the issuance and sale
issuer.
80. Which of the following microfinance institution is Universal Bank?
[A] Bandhan Financial Services Private Ltd
[B] Arohan Financial Services Private Ltd
[C] Disha Microfinance Private Ltd
[D] SKS Microfinance Private Ltd
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Bandhan Financial Services Private Ltd]

Notes:
Bandhan Financial Services Private Ltd is Universal bank.
81. Which of the following is not true about Mobile Money Identifier (MMID)?
[A] Mobile Money Identifier (MMID) is a seven-digit number, issued by banks for effecting
[B] The user’s mobile number MMID are uniquely linked with his bank account number, an
[C] Both the remitter and the beneficiary are required to have their MMIDs to effect a fund
[D] A unique MMID and mobile number combination helps in identifying the beneficiary’s d
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [ A unique MMID and mobile number combination helps in identifying th
Notes:
It should be Multiple MMIDs can be linked to same mobile number. If a person has accoun
with all MMIDs.
82. Which of the following is an organised markets that enable the existing equity and de
[B] Discount market
[C] Gilt repo market
[D] Primary capital markets
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Secondary markets]

Notes:
Secondary markets are organised markets that enable the existing equity and debt of issu
Show Answer
Notes:
These are the measures of money supply adopted by RBI in 1977.
84. Using futures contracts to transfer price risk is known as which of the following?
[A] hedging
[B] arbitrage
[C] speculating
[D] diversifying
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [hedging]

Notes:
A hedge is an investment to reduce the risk of adverse price movements in an asset. Norm
related security.
85. Which of the following NBFCs provides finance to the public whether by making loans
[A] Asset Finance Company
[B] Investment Company
[C] Loan Companies
[D] Infrastructure Finance Company
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Loan Companies]

Notes:
Loan Companies (LC) is one NBFC primarily carrying on, as its principal business, the prov
advances or otherwise for any activity other than its own but does not include an equipme
company.
86. The tenure of the loan issued by NBFC-MFI to the borrower should not be less than 2
[A] Rs. 30,000

[B] Rs. 20,000
[C] Rs. 15,000
[D] Rs. 25,000
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Rs. 15,000]

Notes:
The tenure of the loan issued by NBFC-MFI to the borrower should not be less than 24 mo
87. Which of the following credit facilities comes under Infrastructure Laon?
[A] Transport
[B] Energy
[C] Water and Sanitation
Show Answer
Notes:
The credit facility (term loans, project loans, etc.) granted by the non-banking financial co
sectors Viz. Transport, Energy, Water and Sanitation, Communication, and Social and Com
88. Trust IDF is regulated by which of the following?

[A] SBI
[B] RBI
[C] SEBI
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [SEBI]

Notes:
Infrastructure Debt Funds (IDFs) can be set up either as a Trust or as a Company. A trust
regulated by SEBI.
89. The financial assets in the NBFC factoring business should constitute what percent of
[A] 75%
[B] 50%
[C] 100%
[D] 25%
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [75%]

Notes:
The financial assets in the factoring business should constitute at least 75 percent of its to
should not be less than 75 percent of its gross income.
90. The early growth of merchant banking in the country is assigned to the which of the
[A] Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973
[B] Securities Contracts Act
[C] Income-tax Act
[D] FEMA
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973]

Notes:
The early growth of merchant banking in the country is assigned to Foreign Exchange Reg
91. Which of the following is the management of securities of the corporate sector offere
[A] Corporate Issues Management
[B] Public Issues Management
[C] Securities Issues Management
[D] Private Issues Management
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Public Issues Management]
Notes:
Public Issue Management is the management of securities of the corporate sector offered
on a rights basis, is known as public issue management.
92. Which of the following helps in monitoring the status of all issue in issue managemen
[A] Issue manager
[B] Issue recorder
[C] Issue register
[D] Issue tracker
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Issue register]

Notes:
Issue Register or Issue Log, keeps a record of all issues within a project. It helps you to m
to resolve them.
93. When making repayments on a lease, the profit and loss account will contain which it
[A] Neither interest or instalment charges
[B] Instalment charges only
[C] Interest and instalment charges
[D] Interest only
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Interest only]

Notes:
When making repayments on a lease, the profit and loss account will contain interest relev
Computer Awareness MCQs and Quiz for Banking, IBPS, RRB, RBI, SBI Exams
1. V-RAM is used for access of the following?

[A] Video & Graphics
[B] Text & Images
[C] programs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Video & Graphics ]

Notes:
V-Ram is also known as video Ram. It is a dual ported variant of dynamic RAM. VRAM is basi
textures, 3D models temporary. It is used for video access and graphics.
2. NetBIOS was introduced in 1983 by which company as an improvement to the standard B
[A] Dell
[B] IBM
[C] Compaq
[D] SyteK Inc
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [SyteK Inc]

Notes:
Sytek Inc. which is now known as Hughes LAN Systems Inc. had created the NetBIOS protoc
3. What is the name of the digital circuit that performs arithmetic and logical operations in c
[A] Arithmetic Logic Unit
[B] Digital comparator
[C] Multiplexer
[D] None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Arithmetic Logic Unit ]

Notes:
An arithmetic-logic unit (ALU) is the part of the circuit that performs Arithmetic nad logical op
processors, the ALU is divided into two units, an arithmetic unit (AU) and a logic unit (LU).
4. Structured programming languages such as C, COBOL and FORTRAN were used in which o
[A] First Generation Computers
[B] Second Generation Computers
[C] Third Generation Computers
[D] Fourth Generation Computers
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Third Generation Computers ]

Notes:
The period of third generation was from 1965-1971. The computers of third generation used
programming languages such as C, COBOL and FORTRAN were used in Third Generation com
5. BSNL, Reliance, Shaw cable, AOL, Tata Indicom all can be kept in which one of the followi
[A] ISDN
[B] IRC
[C] ISP
[D] Icons
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [ISP]

Notes:
all are internet service providers
6. Core Banking Solutions are developed to perform__?
[A] recording of transactions
[B] passbook maintenance
[C] interest calculations
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [All of the above ]

Notes:
Core banking is a banking service provided by a group of networked bank branches as a sing
perform basic transactions from any of the member branch offices.
7. When some unidentified / unknown person / firm sends you mail in a trustworthy /lucrativ
information, this is a case of __?
[A] Spam
[B] Hacking
[C] Phishing
[D] Vishing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Phishing]

Notes:
Phishing is a cybercrime in which a target or targets are contacted by email, telephone or tex
lure individuals into providing sensitive data. They take information like banking and credit ca
8. What is the fullform of W3C?
[A] World Wide Web Consortium
[B] World Wide Web Company
[C] World Wide Web Center
[D] World Wide Web Command
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [World Wide Web Consortium ]

Notes:
The World Wide Web Consortium is the main international standards organization for the Wor
up of member organizations.
9. Which of the following is a suitable term for any programmable content of a hardware dev
circuits (ASICs), programmable logic devices, etc?
[A] Hardware
[B] Software
[C] Firmware
[D] Malware
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Firmware]

Notes:
A firmware refers to a computer programme which is “embedded” in a hardware device and i
embedded software. One example is a TV remote set which has a software embedded that ca
on its motherboard.
10. The terms Goodput, Throughput and Maximum throughput are most closely associated w
[A] Bit Rate
[B] Response Time
[C] Command Line Interface
[D] Random memory
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Bit Rate ]

Notes:
The bit rate is the number of bits that are conveyed or processed per unit of time in computin
bits/s while 1MBPS means one million bits per second. One byte per second (1 B/s) correspon
11. Which of the following devices use computers as control systems for functioning?
[A] Industrial Robots
[B] Remote Controls
[C] Microwave Ovens
Show Answer

Notes:
Computers are used in a huge arena of human endeavours and act as a second self to all of u
industrial devices like industrial robots, microwave ovens, remote controls, smartphones, per
12. Which of the following is the first example of an electromechanical relay computer?
[A] Differential Analyzer
[B] Torpedo Data Computer
[C] Z2
[D] Jacquard Loom
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Z2]

Notes:
The Z2, created by a German Engineer Konrad Zuse in 1939, was one of the foremost examp
13. Which of the following is not an input device of the computer?
[A] Trackball
[B] Image Scanner
[C] Joystick
[D] Sound Card
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Sound Card]

Notes:
A sound card is not an input device of the computer. A trackball is a pointing device which co
14. Which among of the following was the world’s first electronic stored-program computer?
[A] Colossus
[B] ENIAC
[C] Manchester Baby
[D] EDVAC
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Manchester Baby]

Notes:
The Manchester Baby was the world’s first electronic stored-program computer built at Victor
15. Who had designed and constructed the first recognizably modern digital stored-program
[A] J. Lyons
[B] John Newmann
[C] Tom Kilburn
[D] Maurice Wilkes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Maurice Wilkes]

Notes:
Maurice Wilkes had designed and constructed the first recognizably modern digital stored-pro
16. A digital computer processes information in which form?
[A] Continuous form
[B] Discrete form
[C] Semi-Continuous form
[D] Semi-discrete form
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Discrete form]

Notes:
A digital computer stands for a class of devices which can solve many problems by processin
symbols, letters etc.
17. Which of the following tasks can be performed by a digital computer?
[A] Analyze vast amount of business data
[B] Simulating Global weather patterns
[C] Regulating operations of machines
Show Answer

Notes:
All the tasks mentioned above can be performed by a digital computer like analyzing vast am
regulation of operations of machines etc.
18. What are four basic functional elements of a digital computer?
[A] Input-Output Equipment
[B] Main Memory
[C] Control Unit and ALU
Show Answer

Notes:
A digital computer system has four basic functional elements like the input-output equipment
19. Which of the following are characteristics of a gaming computer?
[A] Powerful Video Card
[B] Great Memory
[C] Powerful Processor
Show Answer

Notes:
A gaming computer is basically a simple desktop computer which has high-performance hard
are essential for the handling of video games. These are called PC games.
20. Which are the input devices that enable direct data entry into a computer system from so
[A] Data Scanning devices
[B] Data retrieving devices
[C] Data acquiring devices
[D] System Access devices
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Data Scanning devices]

Notes:
They are referred to as data scanning devices. They eliminate the need to key in text data int
21. Which of the following devices produces a permanent human-readable text of graphic doc
[A] Headphone
[B] Speaker
[C] Printer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Printer]

Notes:
A printer is a device which makes a human-readable representation of graphics or text on pa
from a computer and transfers the information to paper, usually to standard size sheets of pa
22. Which of the following computer component allows you to connect to the internet?
[A] Sound Board
[B] ROM
[C] Hard Drive
[D] Modem
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Modem]

Notes:
A modem is a hardware device that converts data between transmission media so that it can
information is stored digitally, whereas information transmitted over telephone lines is transm
23. What is the job of the Mother Board?
[A] Sends power to all the components
[B] Holds all the circuits and components together
[C] Displays information
[D] Tells the computer what to do
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Holds all the circuits and components together]

Notes:
A motherboard is the circuit board found in general purpose microcomputers . It holds and al
components of a system, such as the central processing unit and memory, and provides conn
24. The CPU and memory are located on which of the following?
[A] Expansion Board
[B] Mother Board
[C] Storage Device
[D] Output Device
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Mother Board]

Notes:
A motherboard is the main circuit board found in general purpose microcomputers and expan
many of the components of the system such as CPU, and memory.
25. Which of the following devices is used for reading bar coded data ?
[A] Graphic Tablet
[B] Numeric Pad
[C] Bar Code Reader
[D] Magnetic Stripe Reader
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Bar Code Reader]

Notes:
A bar code reader is an electronic device that can read and output printed barcodes to a com
the bar code and measuring the amount of light that is reflected back.
26. Which if the following is used to provide hardcopy ?
[A] CRT
[B] Computer Console
[C] Printer
[D] Card Reader
Show Answer

Notes:
A printer is a peripheral device which makes a persistent human-readable representation of g
are the inkjet printer.
27. Which of the following is the fastest form of RAM and also the most expensive so not use
[A] SRAM
[B] DRAM
[C] SDRAM
[D] None of These
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [SRAM]

Notes:
Static random-access memory is a type of memory that uses bistable latching circuitry to sto
is eventually lost when the memory is not powered.
28. What is the term used for verification of a login name and password in computer termino
[A] Configuration
[B] Authentication
[C] Accessibility
[D] Logging
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Authentication]

Notes:
Authentication is the process of identifying an individual, usually based on a username and p
29. Which of the following issues clearly points to the overheating of the system?
[A] Abrupt Shut Downs
[B] Blue Screen Crashes
[C] Freezes
Show Answer

Notes:
Overheating of a system can be caused by various reasons. Internal issues in the circuit boar
Down of a system, Blue Screen Crashes, Freezes are some of the issues which shows that sy
30. Which of the following terms is often used for the programs that are used to find out poss
[A] Operating system extensions
[B] Cookies
[C] Diagnostic software
[D] Boot Diskettes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Diagnostic software]

Notes:
A diagnostic program is a computer program sequence that determines the operational statu
system.
31. Which of the following clearly defines the word Bus Width?

[A] It is the size of the vehicle used to ship the computer.
[B] It is the number of pins in a computer port.
[C] It is the number of bits that can be sent to a CPU simultaneously.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [It is the number of bits that can be sent to a CPU simultaneously.]
Notes:
The speed of system random-access memory is determined by two factors: bus width and bu
can send to the CPU at the same time.
32. Which of the following is the another name for Secondary Memory?
[A] Auxiliary Memory
[B] Virtual memory
[C] Main memory
[D] Internal Storage
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Auxiliary Memory]

Notes:
Auxiliary memory, also known as Secondary memory or External memory, is a non-volatile m
like primary storage.
33. Which of the following parts of the system is most affected by the ESD problem?
[A] Mother Board
[B] Expansion Board
[C] Power Supply
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Expansion Board]

Notes:
Expansion board is a printed circuit board that can be inserted into an electrical connector, or
34. What is the full form of ECC Memory?
[A] Error Correcting Code Memory
[B] Error Clearing Code Memory
[C] Electric Charged Code Memory
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Error Correcting Code Memory]

Notes:
ECC stands for Error Correcting Code Memory. It is a memory system that tests for and corre
being aware of it.
35. The smallest unit in which data can be stored is known by which of the following names?
[A] Bit
[B] Byte
[C] Kilobyte
[D] Megabyte
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Bit]

Notes:
The bit is a basic unit of information. The words bit and binary digit are used interchangeably
physically represented with a two-state device.
36. Which of the following phenomena is used by the Blu Rays to store data?
[A] Magnetic
[B] Optical
[C] Laser
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Laser]

Notes:
A blue laser is a laser that emits electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength between 360 an
Some of the most commercially common blue lasers are the diode lasers used in Blu-ray app
37. When 8 bits are combined, the resulting unit of storage is known by which of the followin
[A] Byte
[B] Nibble
[C] Kilobyte
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Byte]

Notes:
The byte is a unit of digital information that most commonly consists of eight bits. The term b
is used to specify a size of eight bits.
38. Which of the following components of Personal Computer maintains date and time of the
[A] CMOS RAM
[B] VRAM
[C] PROM
[D] Motherboard
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [CMOS RAM]
Notes:
CMOS RAM is a volatile, low-power complementary metal-oxide-semiconductor. It is alternati
39. Which of the following are different SDLC Models?
[A] Waterfall Model
[B] Iterative Model
[C] Big Bang Model
Show Answer

Notes:
There are several SDLC models available such as Waterfall Model, Iterative Model, Spiral mod
40. Which of the following is the software that resides on a single computer and does not inte
[A] Embedded Software
[B] Stand Alone Software
[C] Real time software
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Stand Alone Software]

Notes:
Standalone program is one that run as a separate computer process, not an add-on of an exi
need for installation procedure.
41. Which of the following device distributes network traffic across a number of servers?
[A] IDS
[B] Load Balancer
[C] Switch
[D] Hub
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Load Balancer]

Notes:
A load balancer is a device that acts as a reverse proxy and distributes network or application
increase capacity and reliability of applications
42. What is the name given to the device that converts between two different types of transm
[A] Bridge Router
[B] Protocol Convertor
[C] Multilayer Switch
[D] Hub Jointer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Protocol Convertor]

Notes:
A Protocol Converter is a device used to convert standard or proprietary protocol of one devic
the interoperability.
43. Which of the following represents a sine wave?
[A] Non-periodic analog signal
[B] Periodic analog signal
[C] Periodic digital signal
[D] Non-periodic digital signal
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Periodic analog signal]

Notes:
The sine wave is the most fundamental form of a periodic analog signal. A periodic signal com
period, and repeats that pattern over subsequent identical periods.
44. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using twisted paired cables for transmitting da
[A] High cost
[B] Installation is difficult
[C] Delay Skew
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Delay Skew]

Notes:
Twisted paired cables are cost-effective and easy to install. But different pairs within the cabl
to minimize crosstalk between the pairs.
45. What is the bandwidth limit for CAT2 cable?
[A] upto 1 Mbps
[B] upto 4 Mbps
[C] upto 10 Mbps
[D] upto 100 Mbps
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [upto 4 Mbps]

Notes:
.CAT2 or Category 2 cable supports speeds upto 4Mbps. It is used mostly for token ring netw
speed upto 1 Mbps.
46. Which of these IEEE standards represent wireless local area network?
[A] 802.3
[B] 802.11
[C] 802.7
[D] 802.9
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [802.11]

Notes:
The IEEE 802.11, which is a part of the IEEE 802 set of LAN protocols, defines the standards
47. Which of these is not an unguided mode of transmission?
[A] Infrared
[B] Radiowaves
[C] Optical Fiber
[D] Microwaves
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Optical Fiber]

Notes:
In unguided transmission, no physical medium is required for the transmission of electromag
transmission – Infrared, Radiowaves and Microwaves.
48. Which of the following network protocol are described by GSM?
[A] 2G
[B] 3G
[C] 4G
[D] 5G
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [2G]

Notes:
GSM is a standard developed to describe the protocols for second-generation (2G) digital cell
tablets.
49. What do we call the process of transferring a mobile station from one base station to ano
[A] Looping
[B] Hand off
[C] Forwarding
[D] Channeling
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Hand off]

Notes:
Hand off is the process of transferring an active call or data session from one cell in a cellular
50. In which year the Domain Name System was invented?
[A] 1985
[B] 1984
[C] 1983
[D] 1982
Show Answer

Notes:
Domain Name System was invented in 1983. Paul Mockapetris invented the Domain Name Sy
51. What is the name given to the specialized application that is build for a specific business?
[A] Vertical Application
[B] Horizontal Application
[C] Both a and b
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Vertical Application]

Notes:
A vertical application is a specialized system that is built for a specific business. These applica
multiple groups or business units.
52. What is a Headless Software?
[A] It is a software used without license.
[B] It is an open source software.
[C] It is a software working on a device without GUI.
[D] Both b and c
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [It is a software working on a device without GUI.]

Notes:
Headless software is a software capable of working on a device without a graphical user inter
other interfaces like network or serial port.
53. What is the name given to the computer software that is still in the early testing phase?
[A] Alpha Software
[B] Pre-installed Software
[C] Initial Phase Software
[D] Child Software
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Alpha Software]

Notes:
Alpha software is computer software that is still in the early testing phase. It is functional eno
features.
54. Who among the following invented the FORTRAN language?
[A] J.W.Backus
[B] Steff Warner
[C] Von Neuman
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [J.W.Backus]

Notes:
John Warner Backus was an American computer scientist. He invented and implemented FOR
language. He was the inventor of the Backus–Naur form (BNF).
55. Who among the following is known as the father of the DBMS?
[A] Van Neumann
[B] E.F.Codd
[C] Steve Jobs
[D] Bill Gates
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [E.F.Codd]

Notes:
Dr E.F.Codd is also known to the world as the ‘Father of Database Management Systems’. He
rules are numbered from zero to twelve. According to him, a DBMS is fully relational if it abid
56. ACID is a set of properties of database transactions intended to guarantee validity even i
ACID?
[A] Aquired Consistency In Database
[B] Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
[C] Atomicity,Control,Isolation,Dependency
[D] Atomicity,Concurrecny,Isolation,Durability
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability]

Notes:
Andreas Reuter and Theo Harder coined the acronym ACID for Atomicity, Consistency, Isolat
database operations that satisfies the ACID properties is called a transaction.
57. What is the name given to the library of related functions that are not loaded into memor
[A] DML
[B] DLL
[C] DCL
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [DLL]

Notes:
Dynamic Link Library is the library of related functions that are not loaded into memory until
contained in DLLs on those operating systems that support them.
58. What is the name given to the technique of connecting computers?
[A] Node
[B] Topology
[C] Architecture
[D] Ring
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Topology]

Notes:
Computer networks can be broken down historically into topologies, which is a technique of c
collapsed ring.
59. Which one of the following is the first scientist to bring the idea of Personal Area Network
[A] Nickey Jobs
[B] Hardley Jesley
[C] Thomas Zimmerman
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Thomas Zimmerman]

Notes:
Thomas Zimmerman was the first research scientist to bring the idea of the Personal Area Ne
60. Which of the following devices has high bandwidth?
[A] Switch
[B] Router
[C] Modem
[D] Bridge
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Switch]

Notes:
A network switch is a computer networking device that connects devices on a computer netw
data to the destination device.
61. Which university was connected for the first time with the Stanford Research Institute un
[A] University of California
[B] University of Michigan
[C] Harvard University
[D] University of New York
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [University of California]

Notes:
The first ARPANET link was established between the University of California, Los Angeles (UC
62. Which of these is known as the first search engine?
[A] Archie
[B] WAIS
[C] Gopher
[D] Google
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Archie]

Notes:
The Archie search engine is known to be the first search engine. It was developed in 1991 an
63. Which of these protocols is considered as the effective predecessor of the World Wide We
[A] LDAP
[B] Gopher
[C] SMTP
[D] SSH
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Gopher]

Notes:
The Gopher protocol is an application layer protocol which is designed for distributing, search
ecosystem is considered as the effective predecessor of the World Wide Web.
64. Which of the following device encodes and decodes the analog signals in a dial-up connec
[A] Modem
[B] NIC
[C] Router
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Modem]
Notes:
Computer information is stored digitally, whereas information transmitted over telephone line
between analog and digital forms.
65. Schools often use an approach in creating a limited browsing environments for the studen
[A] Hacked browsing
[B] Walled Garden
[C] Child Locking
[D] Mini surfing
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Walled Garden]

Notes:
A walled garden refers to a browsing environment that controls the information and Web site
keep the user navigating only specific areas of the Web.
66. Which of the following is not true about Internet access through satellites?
[A] Can be used anywhere around the world
[B] Can get affected by rain and snow
[C] Slower than dial up connection
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Slower than dial up connection]

Notes:
It is faster than dial-up but slower than DSL. It can be used anywhere around the world and
67. What is the name given to the companies providing internet services?
[A] ISP
[B] NSP
[C] NETCOM
[D] FTP
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [ISP]

Notes:
ISP stands for Internet Service Providers. Internet Service Providers are companies that conn
68. Which of these internet connections is always connected to the internet?
[A] Dial-up
[B] ISDN
[C] DSL
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [DSL]

Notes:
DSL stands for digital subscriber line. It is a type of internet connection which is always conn
connect.
69. Which port is used by HTTP?
[A] 443
[B] 80
[C] 22
[D] 79
Show Answer

Notes:
HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol. It uses port 80 to communicate whereas HTTPS
70. Which of these protocols is used to login into a remote computer?
[A] Telnet
[B] IMAP
[C] HTTP
[D] SMTP
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Telnet]

Notes:
Telnet is a protocol used to log in to remote computers. terminals over the Internet or a TCP/
71. Which of the following is not true about Internet access through satellites?
[A] Can be used anywhere around the world
[B] Can get affected by rain and snow
[C] Slower than dial up connection
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Slower than dial up connection]

Notes:
It is faster than dial-up but slower than DSL. It can be used anywhere around the world and
72. What does UDP stand for?
[A] Uninterrupted Delivery Protocol
[B] User Destination Pairing
[C] Uninterrupted Data Parsing
[D] User Datagram Protocol
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [User Datagram Protocol]

Notes:
UDP stands User Datagram Protocol. It is a connectionless and unreliable protocol. It doesn’t
73. Which of these is not correct about Trivial File Transfer Protocol?
[A] it is safer than FTP
[B] it does not offer directory navigation
[C] it uses UDP to transfer the files
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [it is safer than FTP]

Notes:
TFTP does not have the security capability or the level of functionality that FTP has. TFTP doe
files.
74. Which of these protocols is used to retrieve email messages from a mail server?
[A] IMAP
[B] HTTPS
[C] TFTP
[D] SNMP
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [IMAP]

Notes:
The Internet Message Access Protocol or IMAP is an Internet standard protocol used by email
default port used is 143.
75. Which of these is not the name of a web browser?
[A] K-Meleon
[B] Amaya
[C] Konqueror
[D] RAT
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [RAT]

Notes:
K-Meleon, Amaya and Konqueror are the names of web browsers which were in use in the 90
76. Which of the following is the oldest web browser still in general use?
[A] Lynx
[B] Safari
[C] Internet Explorer
[D] Navigator
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Lynx]
Notes:
Lynx is a customizable text-based web browser for use on cursor-addressable character cell t
use. It was launched in 1992 and still has active development.
77. Which of these is a social media networking website?
[A] Reditt
[B] Whatsapp
[C] Qzone
Show Answer

Notes:
Some of the examples of social media networking websites are Facebook, Whatsapp, YouTub
78. Which company has developed Pixel smartphone?
[A] Microsoft
[B] Google
[C] Apple
[D] Samsung
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Google]

Notes:
Pixel is an android smartphone designed, developed and marketed by Google. It was announ
Google Pixel hardware line.
79. Which of these has been used as a tagline by Apple phones?
[A] Think Different
[B] Like me
[C] Eat and Play
[D] Work Hard
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Think Different]

Notes:
“Think different” was an advertising slogan used by Apple. It was used in a television comme
80. Which of the following is an audio streaming platform app?

[A] Spotify
[B] Snapchat
[C] Allo
[D] Viber
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Spotify]

Notes:
Spotify is an audio streaming platform app. It was launched on 7th October 2008. It provides
81. Which of the following can be inserted in MS Word?

[A] Picture
[B] Clipart
[C] Charts
Show Answer

Notes:
Various items such as Picture, Clipart, Charts etc. can be inserted in MS Word. All these optio
82. What is the use of ‘Ctrl + ;’ key combination in MS Excel?
[A] Inserts current date
[B] Inserts current time
[C] Inserts current day
[D] Inserts current timestamp
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Inserts current date]

Notes:
CTRL + ; key combination inserts the current date in the selected cell. When the Ctrl key is p
83. Which of the following cannot be inserted in an MS PowerPoint slide?
[A] Picture
[B] Webpage
[C] Sound
[D] All of the above can be inserted
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [All of the above can be inserted]

Notes:
Picture, WebPages, Sounds, Charts, Shapes, Clipart and other items can be inserted in an MS
84. What is ‘Fly in’ in MS PowerPoint?
[A] Colour scheme
[B] Animation effect
[C] Page Design
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Animation effect]
Notes:
‘Fly in’ is a custom animation effect in MS PowerPoint makes the Text or other objects fly in a
85. What do we call a file in MS PowerPoint which is a pattern of a group of slides that can be
[A] Text Styles
[B] Template
[C] Colour scheme
[D] Master slide
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Template]

Notes:
A PowerPoint template is a pattern or blueprint of a slide or group of slides that you save as a
background styles, and even content.
86. Under which menu there is an option to export data in MS Access?
[A] External Data
[B] Database tools
[C] Home
[D] Create
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [External Data]

Notes:
Data can be exported the data from table, query, form, and report objects etc. The option to
tab.
87. Which of the following are types of MS Access Database object?
[A] Form
[B] Modules
[C] Tables
Show Answer

Notes:
Databases in Access are composed of many objects but the major objects are Tables, Querie
88. What is a Macro in MS Access?
[A] a datatype
[B] tool that allows to automate tasks
[C] a wizard that creates charts and infographs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [tool that allows to automate tasks]

Notes:
A Macro is a tool that allows the users to automate tasks and add functionality to the forms,
89. Which function in MS Access gives the number of time intervals between two specified da
[A] DateInter()
[B] DateSub()
[C] DateDiff()
[D] DaysBetween()
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [DateDiff()]

Notes:
The DateDiff() Function is another very popular date/time function. The DateDiff Function ret
between two specified dates.
90. What is the size of currency datatype?
[A] 2 bytes
[B] 4 bytes
[C] 6 bytes
[D] 8 bytes
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [8 bytes]

Notes:
Currency datatype includes currency values and numeric data used in mathematical calculatio
91. How can all the text in all the slides be selected in MS PowerPoint?
[A] By clicking Ctrl + A in Slides view
[B] By clicking Ctrl + A in Outline view
[C] By clicking Ctrl + O in Slides view
[D] By clicking Ctrl + S in Outline view
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [By clicking Ctrl + A in Outline view]

Notes:
All the text in all the slides can be selected in MS PowerPoint by clicking Ctrl + A in Outline vi
view.
92. What is MS Access?
[A] A RDBMS
[B] An OODBMS
[C] An ORDBMS
[D] A Network Database Model
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [A RDBMS]

Notes:
Microsoft Access is a low cost relational database management system (RDBMS) from Micros
with a graphical user interface and software-development tools.
[A] 2 bytes
[B] 4 bytes
[C] 6 bytes
[D] 8 bytes
Show Answer

Notes:
94. What does BCC mean?
[A] Blank carbon copy
[B] Blind carbon copy
[C] Blue carbon copy
[D] Black carbon copy
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Blind carbon copy]

Notes:
BCC stands for “blind carbon copy.” Unlike with CC, no one but the sender can see the list of
95. What is an Outbox in the email service?
[A] Place to keep deleted emails
[B] Emails which are received are kept here
[C] Copies of email are kept here which are to be sent
[D] None
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Copies of email are kept here which are to be sent]
Notes:
An Outbox is a place on a computer where copies of email messages that you are going to se
96. What do we call the attack that focuses on capturing small packets from the network tran
[A] Eavesdropping
[B] Phishing
[C] Denial of Service
[D] Spamming
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Eavesdropping]

Notes:
Eavesdropping is the unauthorized real-time interception of a private communication, such as
transmission. It focuses on capturing small packets from the network transmitted by other co
information.
97. What do we call the malicious computer programs that gains root or administrative acces
[A] Antivirus
[B] Spamware
[C] Rootkits
[D] Backdoors
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Rootkits]

Notes:
A rootkit is a clandestine computer program designed to provide continued privileged access
98. Which of these malicious programs collect information about users and sends the data to
[A] Polymorphic virus
[B] Boot-record infector
[C] Spyware
[D] File Infector
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Spyware]

Notes:
Spyware is a type of malicious program that is installed to collect information about users, th
the user does without his/her knowledge and sends the data to a remote user.
99. Which of these is not referred as Plastic money?
[A] Credit card
[B] Debit card
[C] Smart card
[D] 1 Rupee note
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [1 Rupee note]

Notes:
Plastic money is the generic term for all types of bank cards, credit cards, debit cards, smart
100. What was “Mosaic” in the initial history of World Wide Web?
[A] Operating System
[B] Web Browser
[C] Computer Virus
[D] Server Application
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Web Browser ]

Notes:
Mosaic was one of the first web browsers and the first “popular” web browser with a graphica
was this browser which accelarted the spread of the internet and resulted in internet boom of
1. Which company had developed the software development process framework called “Ratio
[A] Microsoft
[B] IBM
[C] Compaq
[D] None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [IBM]

Notes:
Rational Unified Process (RUP) is an iterative software development process framework creat
2003.
2. Which among the following defines web2.0 most precisely?
[A] A New version of Internet
[B] A Series of technological improvements in World Wide Web
[C] A New labeling of old Softwares improved
[D] None of these
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [A Series of technological improvements in World Wide Web ]

Notes:
It is the second stage of internet. Web 2.0 refers to websites that emphasize user-generated
(i.e., compatible with other products, systems, and devices) for end users.
3. Which among the following are not Objects in Access Database?
[A] Table
[B] Form
[C] Query
[D] Pivot table
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Pivot table]

Notes:
Databases in Access are composed of four objects: tables, queries, forms, and reports. Micro
heading, one column heading, and one filter field. It has been removed in Access 2016.
4. Which among the following is the most common source of Viruses to the hard disk of your
[A] Incoming Email
[B] Outgoing Email
[C] CD ROMs
[D] Websites
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Incoming Email ]

Notes:
Incoming emails is the most common source of Viruses to the hard disk of a computer. Hacke
is the most vulnerable way.
5. What do we call an input/output device on a computer, reserved for communication betwe
computer?
[A] EDP Device
[B] Console
[C] Jokey
[D] Link Device
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Console]

Notes:
A console is an input/output device on a computer, reserved for communication between the
It is not a platform like PC.
6. ©Brain also known as the first computer virus for MS-DOS was written by two brothers be
[A] Malaysia
[B] India
[C] Pakistan
[D] Iran
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Pakistan]

Notes:
Brain is the first PC virus in the world. It began infecting 5.2″ floppy disks in 1986. It was the
7. How many banks are promoting the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)?
[A] 6
[B] 8
[C] 10
[D] 12
Show Answer

Notes:
The National Payments Corporation of India is an umbrella organisation for operating retail p
banks.
8. Modern computers follow a generalised set of instructions to perform any function. What a
[A] Language
[B] Instructions
[C] Commands
[D] Programs
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Programs]

Notes:
Computers follow a generalised set of instructions to perform various functions. These are kn
range of tasks.
9. Which part of the computer carries out the arithmetic and logical operations?
[A] Control Unit
[B] Processing Element
[C] BIOS
[D] Mother Board
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Processing Element]

Notes:
The processing element carries out the arithmetic and logical operations while the control uni
information.
10. Which of the following comprise the input devices?
[A] Keyboard
[B] Mouse
[C] Both 1 ans 2
[D] Only 1
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Both 1 ans 2]

Notes:
Devices like keyboard and mouse are used to input data and instructions to the computer and
11. What kind of operations can a computer carry out?

[A] Arithmetic and Logical
[B] Verbal and Logical
[C] Logical and Cognitive
[D] Verbal and Arithmetic
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Arithmetic and Logical]

Notes:
A computer is a device which can carry out sequences of arithmetic and logical operations au
12. Which of the following is the first example of an electromechanical relay computer?
[A] Differential Analyzer
[B] Torpedo Data Computer
[C] Z2
[D] Jacquard Loom
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Z2]

Notes:
The Z2, created by a German Engineer Konrad Zuse in 1939, was one of the foremost examp
13. Who had proposed the principle of modern computer in his 1936 paper?
[A] Alan Turing
[B] Geoff Tootill
[C] Ferranti Mark
[D] Grace Hopper
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Alan Turing]

Notes:
The principle of the modern computer was proposed by Alan Turing. His seminal paper “On C
Computing Machine.
14. In each of the computer parts, there are many trillions of electrical circuits which can be
these arranged?
[A] Circuit Gates
[B] Circuit Bypass
[C] Logic Gates
[D] Data Knots
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Logic Gates]

Notes:
Each of the electrical circuits is arranged in logic gates so that one of the circuits may control
15. Which of the following includes Logic Operations?
[A] AND
[B] XOR
[C] NOT
Show Answer

Notes:
Logic Operations involve Boolean logic: AND, OR, XOR and NOT. These are used for creating
16. Who had discovered the Boolean algebra?
[A] George Boole
[B] Charles Babbage
[C] Augusta Ada Byron
[D] Herman Hollerith
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [George Boole]

Notes:
Englishman, George Boole had invented a new branch of mathematics called the Boolean alg
computers to make simple decisions by comparison of long strings of zeroes.
17. Who was associated with the first large-scale digital computer known as the Harvard Mar
[A] Clifford Berry
[B] Howard Aiken
[C] Konrad Zuse
[D] John Atanasoff
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Howard Aiken]

Notes:
The first large-scale digital computer was built by mathematician Howard Aiken which was sp
Automatic Sequence Controlled Calculator.
18. What was the name of the first vacuum tube invented by Lee de Forest in 1906?
[A] Colossus
[B] Leedion
[C] Audion
[D] Radion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Audion]

Notes:
Audion was the first vacuum tube invented in 1906 by Lee de Forest. It was the size of a pers
This bagged him the nickname as “the father of radio”.
19. What kind of data is processed by an analog computer?
[A] Discrete Data
[B] Intermittent Data
[C] Discretely varying Data
[D] Continuously varying Data
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Continuously varying Data]

Notes:
An analog computer is the one which is used to process continuously varying data. This chan
data.
20. Which is the first programmable analog computer?
[A] South-Pointing Chariot
[B] Planisphere
[C] Castle Clock
[D] Astrolabe
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Castle Clock]

Notes:
The castle clock which was a hydro-powered mechanical astronomical clock which was invent
21. What was the name of the first vacuum tube invented by Lee de Forest in 1906?
[A] Colossus
[B] Leedion
[C] Audion
[D] Radion
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Audion]

Notes:
Audion was the first vacuum tube invented in 1906 by Lee de Forest. It was the size of a pers
This bagged him the nickname as “the father of radio”.
22. Who had developed a computer named “Woz” described as the hacker’s hacker?
[A] Steve Wozniack
[B] Ed Roberts
[C] Steve Jobs
[D] Federico Faggin
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Steve Wozniack]

Notes:
Steve Wozniak was a Californian electronics wizard, had developed a computer of his own na
23. Who had conceived the idea of the first ever Graphical User Interface?
[A] Steve Jobs
[B] Douglas Engelbart
[C] Alan Kay
[D] Bill Gates
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Alan Kay]

Notes:
The idea of the very first Graphical User Interface was conceived by Alan Kay. It was then pr
24. EDVAC was one of the earliest electronic computers. What is its full form?
[A] Electronic Diverse Variable Automatic Computer
[B] Electronic Digital Variable Automatic Computer
[C] Electronic Data Variable Automatic Computer
[D] Electronic Discrete Variable Automatic Computer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Electronic Discrete Variable Automatic Computer]

Notes:
EDVAC or Electronic Discrete Variable Automatic Computer was one of the earliest electronic
25. What does the amplitude of an analog wave measure?
[A] Frequency
[B] Intensity
[C] Wavelength
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Intensity]

Notes:
The amplitude of an analog wave is a measure of its intensity which is related to the highest
26. How is data transmitted in analog computers?
[A] Continuous Signals
[B] Discrete Signals
[C] Intermittent Signals
[D] Interrupted Signals
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Continuous Signals]

Notes:
In Analog computers, data is transmitted for operation in the form of continuous signals.
27. Which of the following devices produces a permanent human-readable text of graphic doc
[A] Headphone
[B] Speaker
[C] Printer
Show Answer

Notes:
A printer is a device which makes a human-readable representation of graphics or text on pa
from a computer and transfers the information to paper, usually to standard size sheets of pa
28. Which of the following computer component allows you to connect to the internet?
[A] Sound Board
[B] ROM
[C] Hard Drive
[D] Modem
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Modem]

Notes:
A modem is a hardware device that converts data between transmission media so that it can
information is stored digitally, whereas information transmitted over telephone lines is transm
29. A CPU contains which of the following?
[A] A card reader and a printing device
[B] An analytical engine and a control unit
[C] A control unit and an arithmetic logic unit
[D] An arithmetic logic unit and a card reader
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [A control unit and an arithmetic logic unit]

Notes:
CPU is the main processing unit of a computer system. It consists of a control unit and an ari
instructions of a computer program by performing the basic arithmetic, logic, controlling, and
30. Monitors, printers, disk drives, keyboard, mouse are included in which of the following ca
[A] Storage Device
[B] Hardware
[C] Software
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Hardware]

Notes:
Monitors, printers, disk drives, keyboard, mouse are Hardware devices. Hardware devices ref
physical device used in or with your machine, whereas software is a collection of code installe
31. What type of device is a digital camera?

[A] Input
[B] Output
[C] Software
[D] Storage
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Input]

Notes:
A digital camera is a camera that captures photographs in digital memory. The history of the
Laboratory.
32. Which of the following clearly defines the word Bus Width?
[A] It is the size of the vehicle used to ship the computer.
[B] It is the number of pins in a computer port.
[C] It is the number of bits that can be sent to a CPU simultaneously.
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [It is the number of bits that can be sent to a CPU simultaneously.]
Notes:
The speed of system random-access memory is determined by two factors: bus width and bu
can send to the CPU at the same time.
33. The CPU and Memory are located in which of the following ?
[A] Expansion Board
[B] Mother Board
[C] Storage Device
[D] Output Device
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Mother Board]

Notes:
Motherboard holds and allows communication between many of the crucial electronic compon
memory, and provides connectors for other peripherals.
34. Which of the following is the name given to the number of concentric circles on a diskette
[A] Sectors
[B] Cylinders
[C] Tracks
[D] Clusters
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Tracks]

Notes:
The platters of a hard disk have two sides for recording the data. Every surface of the platter
tracks.
35. Which of the following is the ability of a system to jump directly to the requested data?
[A] Sequential Access
[B] Random Access
[C] Quick Access
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Random Access]

Notes:
Random-access memory is a form of computer data storage that stores data and machine co
data items to be read or written in almost the same amount of time irrespective of the physic
36. Which of the following phenomena is used by the Blu Rays to store data?
[A] Magnetic
[B] Optical
[C] Laser
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Laser]

Notes:
A blue laser is a laser that emits electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength between 360 an
Some of the most commercially common blue lasers are the diode lasers used in Blu-ray app
37. When 8 bits are combined, the resulting unit of storage is known by which of the followin
[A] Byte
[B] Nibble
[C] Kilobyte
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Byte]

Notes:
The byte is a unit of digital information that most commonly consists of eight bits. The term b
is used to specify a size of eight bits.
38. How many pins does a Single in-Line Memory Module have?
[A] 16
[B] 30 or 72
[C] 48
[D] 23
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [30 or 72]

Notes:
A SIMM, or single in-line memory module, is a type of memory module containing random-ac
1990s.It has either 30 pins or 72 pins.
39. Which of the following is the another name for the Hard Disk Drive?
[A] Thin Film Drive
[B] SSD
[C] Winchester Drive
[D] Floppy Disk Drive
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Winchester Drive]

Notes:
Winchester Drive is the another term for hard disk drive. The term Winchester comes from an
fixed storage and 30MB of removable storage.
40. Which of the following correctly defines a software?
[A] It is a collection of data or computer instructions.
[B] A software program has been first written by Ada Lovelace in the 19th century.
[C] Both a and b
[D] It is the softest part of the computer system.
Show Answer

Notes:
Computer software is all the information processed by computer systems, programs and data
related non-executable data.
41. What is the full form of CASE tools?

[A] Computer Aided Software Engineering
[B] Common Aided Software Engineering
[C] Common Application Software Engineering
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Computer Aided Software Engineering]

Notes:
CASE stands for Computer Aided Software Engineering. CASE tools are set of automated soft
and smoothen the SDLC activities.
42. A software is a set of instructions or programs to execute a specific task. Which one is n
[A] Microsoft Word
[B] Microsoft Excel
[C] Microsoft PowerPoint
[D] Monitor
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Monitor]

Notes:
Software is a general term for the various kinds of programs used to operate computers and
computer system.
43. Which of the following scheduling techniques is the most widely used in a time shared o
[A] Round Robin
[B] Shortest Job First
[C] Elevator
[D] First Come First Serve
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Round Robin]

Notes:
Round robin is used in time shared operating system, as it is more responsible. Time slices a
order, handling all processes without priority.
44. Which of the following has the shell as an exclusive feature?
[A] DOS
[B] UNIX
[C] System Software
[D] Linux
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [UNIX]

Notes:
Unix is a family of multitasking, multiuser computer operating systems. The main features of
45. Who is known as the father of the electronic spreadsheet?
[A] Cullinane
[B] Dan Bricklin
[C] Alsop
[D] Richard Rabins
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Dan Bricklin]

Notes:
Daniel Bricklin is best known as the co-creator of VisiCalc, the first electronic spreadsheet. In
word processing systems and programmed the most popular prototyping tool of the MSDOS w
46. There are many application software packages available at present. Which of the followi
[A] Redhat Linux
[B] Adobe PageMaker
[C] Open Office
[D] Both b and c
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Both b and c]

Notes:
Red Hat is an American multinational software company providing open-source software prod
software rather it is a software firm.
47. Which of the following is the Calendar application developed by Mozilla Foundation?
[A] Sunbird
[B] Seabird
[C] Thunder
[D] Seamonkey
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Sunbird]

Notes:
Mozilla Sunbird is a discontinued free and open-source, cross-platform calendar application th
Sunbird was ended to focus on development of Mozilla Lightning.
48. Which of the following is the numerical computing software for scientists and mathemat
[A] MATLAB
[B] EDGE
[C] Excel
[D] Arc
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [MATLAB]

Notes:
MATLAB is a multi-paradigm numerical computing environment and proprietary programming
productive software environment for engineers and scientists.
49. What is a Headless Software?
[A] It is a software used without license.
[B] It is an open source software.
[C] It is a software working on a device without GUI.
[D] Both b and c
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [It is a software working on a device without GUI.]

Notes:
Headless software is a software capable of working on a device without a graphical user inter
other interfaces like network or serial port.
50. Which of the following is the term used to describe software that is pre-packaged by the
[A] On-the-shelf
[B] Pre installed
[C] Off-the-shelf
[D] Both b and c
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Off-the-shelf]

Notes:
Off-the-shelf is a term used to describe software or hardware that is pre-packaged by the dev
Commercial off-the-shelf product that is a packaged software solution for businesses.
51. What is the full form of IEC?

[A] International Electrotechnical Commission
[B] International Electrical Council
[C] Internet Embedded Commission
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [International Electrotechnical Commission]

Notes:
IEC stands for International Electrotechnical Commission. Along with the ISO, the IEC contro
52. Which of the following are the primary ways to enable LAN connections?
[A] Ethernet
[B] Wi-Fi
[C] Both a and b
Show Answer

Notes:
Ethernet and Wi-Fi are the two primary ways to enable LAN connections. Ethernet is a specifi
Wi-Fi uses radio waves to connect computers to the LAN.
53. Which of the following device distributes network traffic across a number of servers?
[A] IDS
[B] Load Balancer
[C] Switch
[D] Hub
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Load Balancer]

Notes:
A load balancer is a device that acts as a reverse proxy and distributes network or application
increase capacity and reliability of applications
54. What is the name given to the device that converts between two different types of trans
[A] Bridge Router
[B] Protocol Convertor
[C] Multilayer Switch
[D] Hub Jointer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Protocol Convertor]

Notes:
A Protocol Converter is a device used to convert standard or proprietary protocol of one devic
the interoperability.
55. Which one of the following devices converts digital signal to analog signal and vice versa
[A] Switch
[B] Router
[C] Modem
[D] Bridge
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Modem]

Notes:
Modem is a device that converts digital signal to analog signal as a modulator and analog sig
start and stop bit for synchronization instead of clock.
56. What is the actual measurement of data that can be sent over network?
[A] Bandwidth
[B] Throughput
[C] Queue size
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Throughput]

Notes:
The throughput is the actual measurement of data that can be sent over network. It is differe
can travel through a network.
57. What is the maximum amount of data that a channel can transmit called as?
[A] Jitter rate
[B] Throughput
[C] Bandwidth
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Bandwidth]

Notes:
The term bandwidth refers to the maximum amount of data that a channel can transmit. For
maximum of 100 Mbps then this network can send 100 Mbps or less depending on various fa
58. Which of these standards is used to define Fiber Optic connections?
[A] IEEE 802.1
[B] IEEE 802.8
[C] IEEE 802.11
[D] IEEE 802
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [IEEE 802.8]

Notes:
The IEEE 802.8 defines the LAN standard for fiber optic media used in token passing compute
59. Which of these network topologies have all the network nodes connected directly to eac
[A] Bus
[B] Mesh
[C] Star
[D] Tree
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Mesh]

Notes:
Mesh topology is a point-to-point connection to other nodes or devices. All the network nodes
60. Which of these standards is defined by IEEE 802.3ab?
[A] Megabit Ethernet over copper wiring
[B] Gigabit Ethernet over Fiber optics
[C] Gigabit Ethernet over copper wiring
[D] Fast Ethernet
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Gigabit Ethernet over copper wiring]

Notes:
IEEE 802.3ab, which is also known as 1000BASE-T, is a standard for Gigabit Ethernet over co
61. What is the full form of GSM?

[A] Geographic System for Mobile
[B] Great System of Mobile
[C] Geographic Special Mobile
[D] Global System for Mobile
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Global System for Mobile]

Notes:
GSM stands for Global System for Mobile. Before this it was known as Group Special Mobile. A
Global System for Mobile.
62. Which of the following radio signals are used by 1G networks?
[A] Analog
[B] Digital
[C] Both Analog and Digital
[D] None
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Analog]

Notes:
The radio signals used by 1G networks are analog. While the radio signals used by the 2G ne
1G and 2G.
63. Which university was connected for the first time with the Stanford Research Institute u
[A] University of California
[B] University of Michigan
[C] Harvard University
[D] University of New York
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [University of California]

Notes:
The first ARPANET link was established between the University of California, Los Angeles (UC
64. Which of the following switching methods was used by ARPANET?
[A] Message-switching
[B] Packet-switching
[C] Circuit-switching
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Packet-switching]

Notes:
The Advanced Research Projects Agency Network or as it is called as ARPANET was an early p
TCP/IP protocol suite.
65. What does ISDN stand for?
[A] Integrated Services Data Network
[B] Information Sources Digital Network
[C] Integrated Services Digital Network
[D] Information Standard Data Network
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Integrated Services Digital Network]

Notes:
ISDN stands for Integrated Services Digital Network. It establishes the connection using the
66. Which of the following is correct about Digital Subscriber Line?
[A] It is always on
[B] It is faster than Dial-up
[C] Internet and phone can be used in the same time
Show Answer

Notes:
A Digital Subscriber Line is always on and is faster than Dial-up. In DSL, Internet and phone
67. Which of these hardware devices is used to perform traffic directing function on the inte
[A] VGA card
[B] Router
[C] Flash Drive
[D] Modem
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Router]

Notes:
A router is a computer networking device that forwards data packets between computer netw
Internet.
68. Which of these Internet protocols work at the Application layer?
[A] IP
[B] UDP
[C] FTP
[D] TCP
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [FTP]
Notes:
FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. It works at the Application layer. It enables the uploadin
69. Which of these protocols is used by TFTP for data transport?
[A] TCP
[B] UDP
[C] Both a and b
[D] None
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [UDP]

Notes:
TFTP or Trivial File Transfer Protocol makes use of UDP for data transport. Each TFTP messag
70. Which of these was the first web browser to handle all HTML 3 features?
[A] Cello
[B] Erwise
[C] UdiWWW
[D] Mosaic
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [UdiWWW]

Notes:
UdiWWW was the first web browser that was able to handle all HTML 3 features. UdiWWW wa
Information and Navigation Environment), which started in 1992.
71. Which of the following layer of the OSI model is used by the TCP for its operation?
[A] Network layer
[B] Transport layer
[C] Data Link layer
[D] Presentation layer
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Transport layer]

Notes:
TCP operates at the transport layer of the OSI model. TCP provides reliable transport, in that
retransmit that dropped segment.
72. Which port is used by HTTP?
[A] 443
[B] 80
[C] 22
[D] 79
Show Answer
Notes:
HTTP stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol. It uses port 80 to communicate whereas HTTPS
73. Which of these network protocol is used to synchronize the time of a server to another s
[A] IGMP
[B] ARP
[C] NTP
[D] SSH
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [NTP]

Notes:
The Network Time Protocol is used to synchronize the time of a computer client or server to a
satellite receiver or modem.
74. Which of these rendering engines is used by Chrome web browser?
[A] Gecko
[B] Blink
[C] Quantum
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Blink]

Notes:
Initial versions of Chrome use WebKit as the rendering engine. But Google eventually forked
use Blink.
75. Which of these tech company owns Firefox web browser?
[A] Lenovo
[B] IBM
[C] Apple
[D] Mozilla
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Mozilla]

Notes:
Firefox is an open-source web browser developed by Mozilla Corporation. It is available for W
76. What is the name of the first web browser?
[A] World Wide Web
[B] Mosaic
[C] Safari
[D] Navigator
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [World Wide Web]

Notes:
The first web browser was called as WorldWideWeb. It was invented in 1990 by Sir Tim Berne
77. With which of the following websites is Jimmy Wales associated?
[A] Wikipedia
[B] Microsoft
[C] Amazon
[D] Tumblr
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Wikipedia]

Notes:
Jimmy Wales is an American Internet entrepreneur. He is best known as the co-founder of W
78. Which of these companies own the search engine Bing?
[A] Google
[B] Microsoft
[C] Amazon
[D] IBM
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Microsoft]

Notes:
Microsoft launched Bing on June 1, 2009. On July 29, 2009, Yahoo! and Microsoft agreed on
Bing technology.
79. Where is the headquarters of Facebook located?
[A] Chicago
[B] California
[C] New York
[D] Miami
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [California]

Notes:
Facebook is a US-based online social media and social networking service company. The head
80. In which year Google play was launched?
[A] 2011
[B] 2012
[C] 2013
[D] 2014
Show Answer

Notes:
Google Play brought together the Android Market, Google Music, and the Google eBookstore
81. What is Ctrl + Q used for in MS Word?
[A] To remove the paragraph formatting
[B] To open an existing file
[C] To delete the selected text
[D] To spell check the document
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [To remove the paragraph formatting]

Notes:
Ctrl + Q is a shortcut key combination which used to remove paragraph formatting in MS Wo
82. Which menu option in MS Word contains the Ruler option?
[A] Insert Menu
[B] View Menu
[C] Edit Menu
[D] File Menu
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [View Menu]

Notes:
Ruler option is available under View menu. To see the rulers, choose View and select the Rule
83. Where is the Insert function button located in MS Excel?
[A] Under Formulas Menu
[B] Under Insert Menu
[C] Under Review Menu
[D] Under View Menu
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Under Formulas Menu]

Notes:
Ms Excel supports a wide variety of built-in functions that can be used when building formula
84. Which function in MS Excel counts the number of characters in a cell?
[A] Length
[B] LEN
[C] Count
[D] LNG
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [LEN]

Notes:
If there is a need to count the total characters in a cell, it can be done by using the LEN funct
formula bar and press Enter.
85. Which function in MS Excel will be used to convert miles into Kilometres?
[A] Conv
[B] Con
[C] Convert
[D] Change
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Convert]

Notes:
The Convert function will convert miles into kilometres. Excel’s convert function (“=CONVERT
86. Which of these is a shortcut to add a border to the selected cell in MS Excel?
[A] CTRL + Shift + /
[B] CTRL + Shift + &
[C] ALT + Shift + /
[D] ALT + Shift + B
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [CTRL + Shift + &]

Notes:
CTRL + Shift + & is used to add a border to the selected cell in MS Excel. It is a shortcut to a
87. How can all the text in all the slides be selected in MS PowerPoint?
[A] By clicking Ctrl + A in Slides view
[B] By clicking Ctrl + A in Outline view
[C] By clicking Ctrl + O in Slides view
[D] By clicking Ctrl + S in Outline view
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [By clicking Ctrl + A in Outline view]

Notes:
All the text in all the slides can be selected in MS PowerPoint by clicking Ctrl + A in Outline vi
view.
88. What do we call the boxes in the slides that contain content in them?
[A] Word Art
[B] Text Styles
[C] Placeholder
[D] Animation
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Placeholder]

Notes:
In Microsoft PowerPoint, placeholders are boxes with dotted borders that contain content and
89. Which of these datatypes in MS Access allows alphabets, numbers and special character
[A] Short Text
[B] Currency
[C] Date
[D] Autonumber
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [Short Text]
Notes:
Short text is a datatype which includes Text or combinations of text and numbers, including n
90. What is the use of Randomize function in MS Access?
[A] It gives a random date
[B] It initializes the Rnd function’s random-number generator
[C] It generates true or false randomly
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [It initializes the Rnd function’s random-number generator]

Notes:
Randomize uses number to initialize the Rnd function’s random-number generator, giving it a
91. Which menu in MS Word contains the ‘Restrict Editing’ option?

[A] View
[B] Edit
[C] Insert
[D] Review
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Review]

Notes:
Selecting Restrict Editing provides authors with options to limit options within the document.
Protect toolbox
92. Which of the following can be inserted in MS Word?
[A] Picture
[B] Clipart
[C] Charts
Show Answer

Notes:
Various items such as Picture, Clipart, Charts etc. can be inserted in MS Word. All these optio
93. Under which menu in MS PowerPoint option to add images in a slide is available?
[A] Design
[B] Slideshow
[C] Insert
[D] Edit
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [Insert]

Notes:
The option to add images in a slide is available under the Insert menu in the MS PowerPoint.
94. How can an existing presentation be opened in MS PowerPoint?
[A] Ctrl + N
[B] Ctrl + O
[C] Ctrl + S
[D] Ctrl + Shift + O
Show Answer
Correct Answer: B [Ctrl + O]

Notes:
Ctrl + O is the key shortcut to open an existing presentation in MS PowerPoint. Ctrl + N is us
95. How can we ungroup selected groups in MS PowerPoint?
[A] By pressing Ctrl + Shift + U
[B] By pressing Shift + G
[C] By pressing Shift + U
[D] By pressing Ctrl + Shift + G
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [By pressing Ctrl + Shift + G]

Notes:
To group shapes, pictures, or WordArt objects in MS PowerPoint, select the items that needs
group, and press Ctrl+Shift+G.
96. Under which menu there is an option to export data in MS Access?
[A] External Data
[B] Database tools
[C] Home
[D] Create
Show Answer
Correct Answer: A [External Data]

Notes:
Data can be exported the data from table, query, form, and report objects etc. The option to
tab.
[A] 2 bytes
[B] 4 bytes
[C] 6 bytes
[D] 8 bytes
Show Answer

Notes:
98. What do we call an attack which overwhelms a system’s resources so that it cannot respo
[A] Brute force
[B] Eavesdropping
[C] denial-of-service attack
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [denial-of-service attack]

Notes:
A denial-of-service attack overwhelms a system’s resources so that it cannot respond to serv
attack on system’s resources, but it is launched from a large number of other host machines
attacker.
99. How is a debit card different from a credit card?
[A] Debit card is double the size of credit card
[B] Debit card does not need a PIN as a credit card
[C] With Debit card, money is deducted from the account when performing a transaction
Show Answer
Correct Answer: C [With Debit card, money is deducted from the account when performing
Notes:
A debit card is similar to a credit card, but unlike a credit card, the money is immediately tra
performing a transaction.
100. Which of the following is not a cloud computing service provider?
[A] Amazon Web Services (AWS)
[B] Microsoft Azure
[C] IBM
[D] Intel
Show Answer
Correct Answer: D [Intel]

Notes:
Intel itself is not a could service provider. However, Intel powers cloud services with compati
along with its rich portfolio of enabling technologies and solutions.

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Banking Awareness – 2020 for IBPS, RBI, SBI, NABARD and other Bank Examinations

1. On which date, RBI started working?

Correct Answer: C [ 1 April 1935 ]

Correct Answer: B [Germany]

Correct Answer: A [Foreign Exchange Management Act]

Correct Answer: A [RBI Act 1934]

Correct Answer: D [Brazil Real]

Correct Answer: D [Both a and c]

Correct Answer: D [USA]

10. Personal Loans are also called as by which of the following names?

Correct Answer: D [All of the Above]

11. Who pays for the Credit Ratings in India?

Correct Answer: C [Issuer]

Correct Answer: A [Ashu Suyash]

Correct Answer: A [Dariot]

Correct Answer: D [Equity Fund]

Correct Answer: D [Both a and c]

Correct Answer: B [Mesopotamian culture]

Correct Answer: C [Qualified Institutional Bidders]

Correct Answer: B [Financial Leases]

Correct Answer: A [1927]

Correct Answer: D [State Bank of Patna]

Correct Answer: B [6]

Correct Answer: C [Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana]

Correct Answer: B [Deutsche Bundesbank]

Correct Answer: B [More than 50%]

Correct Answer: C [Lakshmi Vilas Bank]

29. Who regulates the functioning of District Cooperative Banks in India?

Correct Answer: B [RBI]

Correct Answer: B [1976]

31. What is not true about Payment bank?

Correct Answer: C [It can issue credit cards]

Correct Answer: A [South Korea]

Correct Answer: D [All of the above]

Correct Answer: A [Saraswat Bank]

Correct Answer: C [1996]

Correct Answer: A [Capital Small Finance Bank Limited]

Correct Answer: A [Rs 1 lakh]

Correct Answer: C [Credit card]

Correct Answer: B [FINO]

Correct Answer: A [supervision of the financial sector]

Correct Answer: C [Bank of Baroda]

Correct Answer: A [EXIM Bank]

Correct Answer: D [Usha Thorat]

Correct Answer: C [Guwahati]

Correct Answer: B [1942]

Correct Answer: A [Purchase and sale of the Government Securities by RBI]

Correct Answer: A [protect the interest of small depositors]

Correct Answer: C [Both a and b]

49. In which year the Paper Currency Act was passed?

Correct Answer: A [1861]

Correct Answer: B [RBI]

51. Where is the SARFAESI Act not applicable?

Correct Answer: D [All of the above]

Correct Answer: A [Foreign Currency assets]

Correct Answer: A [D.P. Operation]

Correct Answer: D [ICICI and ICICI Bank]

Correct Answer: C [M4=M3+total deposits with post offices]

Correct Answer: C [Demand deposit]