Cost Accounting Questions

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Unit 1 Quiz

1. A managerial accountant who communicates information objectively is exercising which of the


following standards?
a. objectivity
b. integrity
c. competence
d. confidentiality
2. A managerial accountant who prepares clear reports and recommendations after analyzing
relevant facts is exercising which of the following standards?
a. objectivity
b. integrity
c. competence
d. confidentiality
3. Cost accounting standards
a. are legal standards set by the Institute of Management Accountants for use in all
manufacturing and professional businesses.
b. are set by the Cost Accounting Standards Board and are legally binding on all
manufacturers, but not service organizations.
c. do not exist except for those legal pronouncements for companies bidding or pricing
cost-related contracts with the government.
d. are developed by the Cost Accounting Standards Board, issued by the Institute of
Management Accountants, and are legally binding on CMAs.
4. Which of the following U.S. legislation relates to bribes being offered to foreign officials?
a. Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act
b. Foreign Illegal Activities Act
c. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act
d. Federal Bribery and Corrupt Practices Act
5. The Institute of Management Accountants' Code of Ethics
a. is a legally enforceable contract with all management accountants.
b. should be viewed as a goal for professional behavior.
c. is a legally enforceable contract with all CPAs.
d. provides ways to measure departures from ethical behavior.
6. The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act is directed at
a. U.S. corporations operating overseas.
b. foreign businesses operating in the U.S.
c. all businesses dealing with U.S. consumers.
d. all U. S. businesses with operations in foreign countries.
7. The ethical standards established for management accountants are in the areas of
a. competence, licensing, reporting, and education.
b. budgeting, cost allocation, product costing, and insider trading.
c. competence, confidentiality, integrity, and credibility.
d. disclosure, communication, decision making, and planning.
8. Which ethical standard is violated by an accountant who accepts a gift from a client
a. Credibility
b. Confidentiality
c. Competence
d. Integrity
9. Which ethical standard has been violated if an accountant fails to prepare financial statements
according to industry standards?
a. Competence
b. Confidentiality
c. Integrity
d. Credibility
10. Which ethical standard is violated when an accountant uses information from a financial
statement he is preparing to advise a relative of a stock purchase?
a. Competence
b. Confidentiality
c. Integrity
d. Credibility

Unit 2 Practice Questions


1. Select the incorrect statement concerning cost objects. (Points : 1)
a. When the cost object is the Production Department, the cost of a production supervisor's
salary would be a direct cost.
b. A direct cost must be conveniently and economically traceable to the cost object.
c. When the cost object is a Tundra truck, the cost of the truck's engine is a direct cost.
d. When the cost object is the Toyota Princeton Indiana manufacturing plant the cost of
overhead is an indirect cost.
2. Which of the following statements is correct concerning fixed costs? (Points : 1)
a. Within the relevant range, total fixed costs always increase when volume increases.
b. A step cost may be fixed or variable.
c. The fixed costs per unit will remain constant provided volume remains within the relevant
range.
d. Within the relevant range, total fixed costs always decrease when volume increases.
3. A utility bill that includes a flat charge for basic service plus a stated rate for each kilowatt hour of
usage beyond a specified level is an example of a (Points : 1)
a. mixed cost.
b. step cost.
c. variable cost.
d. independent cost.
4. Question 4.4. In relation to the dollar amount of Tundra truck sales, which of the following
classifications is appropriate for the truck tires used in production and for the salaries of
production supervisors?
Truck Tires - Production Supervisor Salaries (Points : 1)
a. Variable costFixed cost
b. Fixed costVariable cost
c. Variable costMixed cost
d. Mixed cost Fixed cost
5. The estimated unit cost for a company planning to produce and sell at a level of 12,000 units per
month is as follows:
Cost Item Estimated Unit Cost
Direct material $20
Direct labor 32
Variable manufacturing overhead 6
Fixed manufacturing overhead 12
Variable selling 4
Fixed selling 4
What is the total estimated conversion costs per unit? (Points : 1)
a. $70
b. $58
c. $52
d. $50

6. Which of the following is not a product cost for Tundra trucks? (Points : 1)
a. Steering wheel
b. Glue
c. Salary of product sales manager
d. Overhead
7. Which of the following types of firms has the highest degree of conversion causing a major
transformation from input to output? (Points : 1)
a. Lee's Landscaping Company
b. Toyota Manufacturing Company
c. Wal-Mart Stores
d. All of the above
8. Select the incorrect statement concerning the stages of the production or conversion process.
(Points : 1)
a. A manufacturing company's Finished Goods inventory account is similar to a service
company's Supplies inventory account.
b. Firms such as retailers that engage in only low or moderate degrees of conversion
ordinarily have only a single inventory account.
c. The production process occurs in three stages: raw material, work in process, and finished
goods.
d. At the point of sale, product costs flow from an inventory account to Cost of Goods Sold
expense.
9. Which of the following would not be classified as direct material for a Tundra truck? (Points : 1)
a. Cost of the battery
b. Cost of the glue used to secure the carpet in the cab of the truck
c. Cost of freight paid on the truck windshield
d. Cost of the fuel tank
10. Which of the following would be classified as direct labor for the production of a Tundra truck?
(Points : 1)
a. Wages paid to assembly line (production) workers
b. Bonuses paid to production workers for exceeding production goals
c. Production workers' Social Security taxes
d. All of the above
11. Which of the following costs would not be classified as overhead for the production of Tundra
trucks? (Points : 1)
a. Salary of plant manager
b. Indirect labor costs
c. Salary of Toyota Chief Executive Officer
d. Depreciation of production machinery
12. All of the following are reasons why overhead costs are allocated to cost objects except:
a. to compare alternative courses of action for management planning and decision making.
b. to identify the fixed and variable components of the various overhead costs.
c. to determine the full cost of the cost object.
d. to motivate the manager in charge of the cost object to manage it efficiently.
13. A Company had the following inventories at the beginning and end of January:
January 1 January 31
Finished goods $12,500 $11,700
Work in process 23,500 25,100
Direct material 13,400 12,400
The following additional manufacturing data were available for the month of January:
Direct material purchased $18,900
Direct labor 30,000
Actual factory overhead 17,500
What was the total cost of direct material used for January? (Points : 1)
a. $19,900
b. $18,900
c. $17,900
d. $6,500
14. B Company had the following inventories at the beginning and end of January:
January 1 January 31
Finished goods $125,000 $117,000
Work in process 235,000 251,000
Direct material 134,000 124,000
The following additional manufacturing data were available for the month of January:
Direct material used $189,000
Direct labor 300,000
Actual factory overhead 175,000

What was B Company's cost of goods manufactured for January? (Points : 1)


a. $672,000
b. $660,000
c. $658,000
d. $648,000
15. C Company had the following inventories at the beginning and end of January:
January 1 January 31
Finished goods $125,000 $117,000
Work in process 235,000 251,000
Direct material 134,000 124,000
Assuming the Cost of Goods Manufactured for January was $660,000, what was C Company's cost
of goods sold for January? (Points : 1)
a. $676,000
b. $668,000
c. $666,000
d. $652,000
16. All of the following are reasons for using predetermined overhead rates in product costing except:
a. to overcome the problem of fluctuations in activity levels that have no impact on fixed
overhead costs.
b. to overcome the problem caused by overhead containing both fixed and variable
costs.
c. to adjust for variations in actual overhead costs that are unrelated to fluctuations in
activity.
d. to allow management to determine whether a product, product line, or customer is
profitable.
17. What is the best method for disposing of significant underapplied factory overhead? (Points : 1)
a. Charge the underapplied amount to cost of goods sold
b. Prorate the underapplied amount to cost of goods sold, finished goods, and work in
process
c. Prorate the underapplied amount to inventory only (work in process and finished goods)
d. Charge the underapplied amount to a loss account at the end of the period
18. Select the incorrect statement concerning overapplied overhead. (Points : 1)
a. The overhead control account will have a debit balance.
b. The amount of overhead transferred to WIP from the overhead control account exceeded
the actual amount of overhead incurred.
c. Overapplied overhead must be closed at year-end because a single year's activity level was
used to set the predetermined overhead rate.
d. Overapplied overhead may result if the company's actual utilization of capacity is greater
than expected.
19. In determining cost behavior in business, the cost function is often expressed as y = a + bx. What
does the "a" term represent? (Points : 1)
a. Total variable costs
b. Total fixed costs
c. Unit variable cost
d. Unit fixed cost
20. M Company derived the following cost equation to explain its monthly manufacturing overhead
cost:
OH = $80,000 + $12MH, where MH = machine hours
The standard time required to manufacture one unit is 4 machine hours. The company applies
manufacturing overhead to production on the basis of machine hours and its normal annual
production is 50,000 units. What is the estimated variable manufacturing overhead cost for a
month in which scheduled production is 5,000 units? (Points : 1)
a. $360,000
b. $320,000
c. $240,000
d. $80,000
21. Which method of separating mixed costs ensures the best fitting regression line? (Points : 1)
a. High-low method
b. Scattergraph method
c. Proration method
d. Least squares regression method
22. W Company is working on its annual profit plan for the coming year. The company wants to
determine the cost behavior pattern of its maintenance costs. The prior year's data regarding
maintenance hours and costs are as follows.
Hours of Activity Maintenance Costs
January 480 $4,200
February 320 3,000
March 400 3,600
April 300 2,820
May 500 4,350
June 310 2,960
July 320 3,030
August 520 4,470
September 490 4,260
October 470 4,050
November 350 3,300
December 340 3,160
Using the high-low method, estimate the amount of maintenance cost per hour. (Points : 1)
a. $2,781
b. $570
c. $7.50
d. $0.13
23. X Company uses simple regression to separate its selling costs (y) into fixed and variable
components based on units sold (x). A computer software program generated the following
regression analysis results:
Average x 400
Average y 3600
a 684.65
Standard error of a 49.515
b 7.2884
Standard error of b 0.12126
Std error of the estimate 34.469
r2 0.99724
What equation should X Company use to estimate its selling costs? (Points : 1)
a. y = $3,600 + 400x
b. y = $684.65 + 7.2884x
c. y = $3,600 + 7.2884x
d. y = $684.65 + .12126x
24. In applying overhead, individual department rates would be used instead of a plant wide rate if
(Points : 1)
a. the manufactured products differ in the resources consumed from the individual
departments in the plant.
b. a company wants to adopt a standard cost system.
c. a company's manufacturing operations are highly automated.
d. manufacturing overhead is the largest component of product cost.
25. Which cost accumulation and reporting system treats the costs of all manufacturing components
(direct material, direct labor, and both variable and fixed overhead) as product costs? (Points : 1)
a. Absorption costing
b. Variable costing
c. Mixed costing
d. None of the above
26. Which cost accumulation and reporting system reports the total contribution margin? (Points : 1)
a. Absorption costing
b. Variable costing
c. Mixed costing
d. None of the above
27. Which cost accumulation and reporting system is required for external reporting and tax
purposes? (Points : 1)
a. Absorption costing
b. Variable costing
c. Mixed costing
d. None of the above
28. The primary difference between absorption and variable costing lies in the treatment of:
a. variable selling and administrative costs.
b. variable overhead costs.
c. fixed overhead costs.
d. fixed selling and administrative costs.
29. Which cost accumulation and reporting system provides management an incentive to over-
produce (i.e., produce more units than can be sold)? (Points : 1)
a. Absorption costing
b. Variable costing
c. Mixed costing
d. None of the above
30. In a period in which there is no change in inventory, which cost accumulation and reporting
system will report higher profits? (Points : 1)
a. Absorption costing
b. Variable costing
c. Mixed costing
d. None of the above

Unit 2 Quiz
1. Which of the following is not a reason to use predetermined overhead rates?
a. to overcome the problems of assigning overhead to diverse types of products
b. to compensate for fluctuations in monthly overhead costs
c. to provide a means for assigning overhead during the period rather than at the end of the
period
d. to smooth out the amount of overhead cost assigned to products when monthly production
activity differs
2. The estimated maximum potential activity for a specified time is:
a. theoretical capacity
b. practical capacity
c. normal capacity
d. expected capacity
3. The measure of activity that allows for routine variations in manufacturing activity is:
a. theoretical capacity
b. practical capacity
c. normal capacity
d. expected capacity
4. The measure of production that considers historical and estimated future production levels and
cyclical fluctuations is referred to as:
a. theoretical capacity
b. practical capacity
c. normal capacity
d. expected capacity
5. A short-run measure of activity that represents a firm?s anticipated activity level for an upcoming
period based upon expected demand is referred to as:
a. theoretical capacity
b. practical capacity
c. normal capacity
d. expected capacity
6. If a firm produces more units than it sells, absorption costing, relative to variable costing, will
result in
a. higher income and assets.
b. higher income but lower assets.
c. lower income but higher assets.
d. lower income and assets.
7. Under absorption costing, if sales remain constant from period 1 to period 2, the company will
report a larger income in period 2 when
a. period 2 production exceeds period 1 production.
b. period 1 production exceeds period 2 production.
c. variable production costs are larger in period 2 than period 1.
d. fixed production costs are larger in period 2 than period 1.
8. A basic concept of variable costing is that period costs should be currently expensed. What is the
rationale behind this procedure?
a. Period costs are uncontrollable and should not be charged to a specific product.
b. Period costs are generally immaterial in amount and the cost of assigning the amounts to
specific products would outweigh the benefits.
c. Allocation of period costs is arbitrary at best and could lead to erroneous decision by
management.
d. Because period costs will occur whether production occurs, it is improper to allocate
these costs to production and defer a current cost of doing business.
9. A firm presently has total sales of $100,000. If its sales rise, its
a. net income based on variable costing will go up more than its net income based on
absorption costing.
b. net income based on absorption costing will go up more than its net income based on
variable costing.
c. fixed costs will also rise.
d. per unit variable costs will rise.
10. For its most recent fiscal year, a firm reported that its contribution margin was equal to 40
percent of sales and that its net income amounted to 10 percent of sales. If its fixed costs for the
year were $60,000, how much were sales?
a. $150,000
b. $200,000
c. $600,000
d. can't be determined from the information given
11. The following information regarding fixed production costs from a manufacturing firm is available
for the current year:
Fixed costs in the beginning inventory $ 16,000
Fixed costs incurred this period 100,000
Which of the following statements is not true?
a. The maximum amount of fixed production costs that this firm could deduct using
absorption costs in the current year is $116,000.
b. The maximum difference between this firm's the current year income based on absorption
costing and its income based on variable costing is $16,000.
c. Using variable costing, this firm will deduct no more than $16,000 for fixed
production costs.
d. If this firm produced substantially more units than it sold in the current year, variable
costing will probably yield a lower income than absorption costing.
12. A firm has fixed costs of $200,000 and variable costs per unit of $6. It plans on selling 40,000 units
in the coming year. To realize a profit of $20,000, the firm must have a sales price per unit of at
least
a. $11.00.
b. $11.50.
c. $10.00.
d. $10.50.
13. Hahn Corporation produces a single product that sells for $7.00 per unit. Standard capacity is
100,000 units per year; 100,000 units were produced and 80,000 units were sold during the year.
Manufacturing costs and selling and administrative expenses are presented below.
There were no variances from the standard variable costs. Any under- or overapplied overhead is
written off directly at year-end as an adjustment to cost of goods sold.
   Fixed costs  Variable costs 
 Direct material  $0  $1.50 per unit produced
 Direct labor    0    1.00 per unit produced
 Manufacturing overhead   $150,000  0.50 per unit produced
 Selling & Administration expense      80,000  0.50 per unit sold
Hahn Corporation had no inventory at the beginning of the year.
In presenting inventory on the balance sheet at December 31, the unit cost under absorption
costing is
a. $2.50.
b. $3.00.
c. $3.50.
d. $4.50.
14. What is the net income under variable costing?
a. $50,000
b. $80,000
c. $90,000
d. $120,000
15. What is the net income under absorption costing?
a. $50,000
b. $80,000
c. $90,000
d. $120,000

Unit 3 Practice Questions


1. Activity-based management (ABM) focuses on improving customer value and enhancing
profitability. Which of the following is an impact of implementing ABM to control production
processes? (Points : 1)
a. More effective performance evaluation
b. More accurate cost determination and control
c. More efficient production processes
d. All of the above
2. Select the incorrect statement from the following. (Points : 1)
a. An activity is any repetitive action that is performed in fulfillment of a business function.
b. Non-value-added activities increase the time spent on a product but do not increase its
worth.
c. The objective of activity-based management is to eliminate all non-value-added
activities.
d. Activity analysis attempts to classify activities as value added or non-value-added.
3. All of the following are non-value-added time except: (Points : 1)
a. inspection time.
b. move time.
c. processing time.
d. wait time.
4. Which of the following correctly computes manufacturing cycle efficiency?
a. Total Cycle Time - Total Value-Added Time.
b. Total Cycle Time / Total Value-Added Time.
c. Total Value-Added Time + Total Non-Value-Added Time.
d. Total Value-Added Time / Total Cycle Time.
5. The need to rework products because of a poorly designed training program is an example of a
non-value-added activity caused by (Points : 1)
a. systemic factors.
b. physical factors.
c. human factors.
d. None of the above.
6. All of the following are examples of batch-level costs except: (Points : 1)
a. costs of engineering change orders.
b. purchase order costs.
c. inspection costs.
d. movement costs.
7. Select the incorrect matching of cost and cost level. (Points : 1)
a. Unit level : Direct material
b. Facility level : Equipment maintenance
c. Product level : Product development
d. Batch level : Setup costs
8. Which costing system assigns costs within multiple cost pools to products using multiple drivers?
(Points : 1)
a. Activity-based costing
b. Variable costing
c. Traditional costing
d. None of the above
9. E Corporation, which makes electronic components for NASA's space shuttle, uses activity-based
costing. One of its activities is described below:

Activity Est. Qty. Required for


Cost Driver   Cost Rat   
of Cost Driver    Current Contract
1 Quality control     No. of units  210,000 units $0.14 17,500 units

Select the incorrect statement from the following. (Points : 1)


a. $2,450 will be assigned to the contract on which the company is currently working.
b. The company's annual estimated quality control costs cannot be determined from
the information provided.
c. Since the component is being built for the U.S. Government for use on the space shuttle, it is
not unusual for the company to inspect every unit produced.
d. It is likely that the company uses a different cost driver to assign other support costs such
as setup costs.
10. P Company is considering using activity-based costing instead of its traditional costing system
because it believes its current system may be providing misleading information. The following
data shows the budgeted manufacturing overhead.

Activity Cost Driver  Budgeted Activity Budgeted Cost


Materials handling No. of parts handled 6,000,000  $720,000
Setup costs No. of setups  750   315,000
Machining costs Machine hours (MH)  30,000   540,000
Quality control No. of batches  500   225,000
     Total overhead cost  $1,800,000

The company also estimates that it will work 50,000 direct labor hours in the coming year. The
following information is provided for one of the company's products for the coming year:
Direct material and Direct Labor   
Direct materials cost per unit   $4.40
Direct labor cost per unit   
.05 DLH @ $15/DLH     .75
 Total     $5.15

 Sales and production data:   


 Expected sales    20,000 units
 Batch size     5,000 units
 Setups     2 per batch
 Total parts per finished unit     5 parts
 Machine hour required     80 MH per batch

If the organization uses a traditional full cost system, the cost per unit of this product for the
coming year will be (Points : 1)
a. $6.95.
b. $6.11.
c. $5.44.
d. $5.39.
11. If the organization uses an activity-based cost system, the cost per unit of this product for the
coming year will be (Points : 1)
a. $6.30.
b. $6.21.
c. $6.08.
d. $6.00.
12. The use of activity-based costing normally results in: (Points : 1)
a. substantially lower unit costs for low-volume products than is reported by traditional
product costing.
b. equalizing setup costs for all product lines.
c. decreased setup costs being charged to low-volume products.
d. substantially greater unit costs for low-volume products than is reported by
traditional product costing.
13. Because of the changes that are occurring in the basic operations of many firms, all of the
following represent trends in the way indirect costs are allocated except: (Points : 1)
a. treating direct labor as an indirect manufacturing cost in an automated factory.
b. using throughput time as an application base to increase awareness of the costs associated
with lengthened throughput time.
c. preferring plant-wide application rates that are applied to machine hours rather
than incurring the cost of detailed allocations.
d. using several machine cost pools to measure product costs on the basis of time in a
machine center.
14. Activity-Based Costing is appropriate for which of the following organizations? (Points : 1)
a. One that produces and sells a wide variety of products.
b. One that produces and sells a single complex product.
c. One that provides a single service to customers.
d. All of the above
15. A number of barriers must be overcome to implement activity-based costing systems successfully.
Select the barrier that is not matched up properly with its type. (Points : 1)
a. Fear of change Individual barrier
b. Regulatory agenciesEnvironmental barrier
c. Corporate culture issues Organizational barrier
d. All of the above barriers are properly classified.

Unit 3 Quiz
1. When a firm redesigns a product to reduce the number of component parts, the firm is
a. increasing consumer value.
b. increasing the value added to the product.
c. decreasing product variety.
d. decreasing non-value-added costs.
2. Non-value-added activities that are necessary to businesses, but not costs that customers are
willing to pay for are known as
a. business-value-added activities.
b. long-term variable activities.
c. short-term variable activities.
d. superior business activities.
3. A value chart indicates
a. all steps in a process and the time it takes for them to be completed.
b. the value-added steps in a process and the time it takes for them to be completed.
c. the time and cost of all value-added steps in a process.
d. the time and costs of all value-added and non-value-added steps in a process.
4. Which of the following is not a drawback of mass customization?
a. The choices are too numerous.
b. The potential for errors is great.
c. Only a small percentage of available choices is normally selected.
d. All of the above are drawbacks.
5. Product costing systems in use over the last 40 years
a. concentrated on using multiple cost pools and cost drivers.
b. were often technologically incapable of handling activity-based costing information.
c. have generally been responsive to changes in the manufacturing environment.
d. have been appropriate for managerial decision purposes as long as they met the
requirements of generally accepted accounting principles.
6. In allocating fixed costs to products in activity-based costing,
a. direct labor hours should always be used as the allocation base.
b. a company should use the same allocation base that it uses for variable costs.
c. a cost driver that is not volume-related should be used.
d. machine hours should always be used.
7. Under activity-based costing, benchmarks for product cost should contain an allowance for
a. idle time.
b. idle time and scrap materials.
c. spoilage.
d. None of the responses are correct.
8. Activity-based costing and activity-based management are effective in helping managers do all of
the following except
a. trace technology costs to products.
b. promote excellence standards.
c. identify only value-added activities.
d. analyze performance problems.
9. Traditional standard costs are inappropriate measures for performance evaluation in the "new
era" of manufacturing because they
a. build in allowances for non-value-adding activities.
b. are based on historical information.
c. don't reflect current costs.
d. are ideal goals.
10. A key concept underlying cost driver analysis is that
a. all cost drivers identified should be used for cost accumulation.
b. the cost of measuring a driver does not exceed the benefits of using it.
c. only costs occurring at the unit-level should be assigned to products or services.
d. organizational/facility costs are non-value-added and should never be assigned to products
or services.
11. When cost driver analysis is used, organizational profit or loss can be determined by subtracting
a. organizational costs from total margin provided by products.
b. organizational costs from total product revenue.
c. total product costs from total product revenue.
d. total unit, batch, product/process, and organizational level costs incurred for a period from
total product revenue.
12. The Pareto principle is important to consider when an organization is
a. assessing whether to employ activity-based costing versus attribute-based costing.
b. evaluating the number of activities that are value-added versus those that are non-value-
added.
c. deciding whether to offer a product in one color versus in ten colors.
d. determining whether simultaneous engineering activities will be impacted by the "Rule of
One."
13. Engaging in which of the following will result in radical changes being made to an organization's
processes?
a. Continuous improvement
b. Benchmarking
c. Reengineering
d. Mass customization
14. Which of the following is most likely to make the implementation of ABC/ABM slow and difficult?
a. The development of new cost drivers that measure costs more effectively.
b. A lack of involvement by or support from upper management.
c. The need for dual costing systems.
d. An inability to eliminate all business-value-added activities.
15. Activity-based costing and generally accepted accounting principles differ in that ABC
a. does not define product costs in the same manner as GAAP.
b. cannot be used to compute an income statement, but GAAP can.
c. is concerned only with costs generated from automated processes, but GAAP is concerned
with costs generated from both manual and automated processes.
d. information is useful only to managers, while GAAP information is useful to all
organizational stakeholders.

Unit 4 Practice Questions


1. All of the following would most likely use a job order costing system except: (Points : 1)
a. a dental practice.
b. an auto repair shop.
c. a small appliance maker.
d. an architectural firm.
2. Which of the following costs is not charged to Work in Process in a normal cost system?
a. Actual overhead
b. Actual direct materials
c. Actual direct labor
d. Estimated indirect labor
3. Which of the following product costs would be charged to Work in Process assuming a standard
costing system? (Points : 1)
a. Actual direct material costs
b. Actual overhead costs
c. Actual direct labor costs
d. Applied overhead costs
4. Select the incorrect job order costing system characteristic. (Points : 1)
a. Costs are accumulated by job.
b. A job may consist of multiple units provided all units are similar.
c. Costs of different jobs cannot logically be averaged so a unique cost must be determined for
each job.
d. Jobs are usually produced to distinct customer specifications.
5. Which of the following serves at a subsidiary ledger for the Work in Process account? (Points : 1)
a. Standard cost card
b. Material requisition form
c. Job requisition form
d. Job order cost sheet
6. Which of the following is not a source document used in job order costing systems? (Points : 1)
a. Cost of production report
b. Employee time sheet
c. Job cost sheet
d. Material requisition form
7. Select the response that represents the correct flow of costs in a job order costing system.
a. Raw materials, work in process, cost of goods sold, finished goods
b. Raw materials, work in process, finished goods, cost of goods sold
c. Raw materials, overhead, work in process
d. Direct material, finished goods, work in process
8. The journal entry to apply overhead to production would include: (Points : 1)
a. a debit to Manufacturing Overhead Control.
b. credits to various accounts such as Cash, Accumulated Depreciation, and Accounts Payable.
c. a credit to Manufacturing Overhead Control.
d. a credit to Work in Process.
9. The journal entry to transfer production from the Finishing Department to Finished Goods would
include a: (Points : 1)
a. credit to Finished Goods.
b. debit to Cost of Goods Manufactured.
c. credit to WIP - Finishing.
d. credit to Cost of Goods Manufactured.
10. M Corporation manufactures a specialty line of jeans using a job-order-cost system. During May,
the following costs were incurred in completing Job M1: direct materials, $13,700; direct labor,
$4,800; administrative, $1,400; and selling, $5,600. Overhead was applied at the rate of $25 per
machine hour, and Job M1 required 800 machine hours. If Job M1 resulted in 7,000 good jeans, the
cost of goods sold per unit would be (Points : 1)
a. $5.50.
b. $6.30.
c. $5.70.
d. $8.50.
11. Q Company uses a normal cost system. The following information is from its financial records for
the year:
Total manufacturing costs, $2,500,000
Cost of goods manufactured, $2,425,000
Applied overhead, 30% of total manufacturing costs
Predetermined OH rate, 80% of direct labor cost
Assuming the company's work in process inventory at January 1 was 75 percent of its December
31 work in process inventory, what is the carrying value of the company's work in process
inventory at December 31? (Points : 1)
a. $75,000
b. $100,000
c. $225,000
d. $300,000
12. Which of the following costing systems does not involve computing cost variances? (Points : 1)
a. Actual costing system
b. Normal costing system
c. Standard costing system
d. All of the above systems involve computing cost variances
13. Select the incorrect statement concerning standard costs and job order costing. (Points : 1)
a. A standard cost system determines product cost by using predetermined norms in the
inventory accounts for prices and/or quantities of cost components.
b. Standards can be used in a job order cost system only if a company typically engages in jobs
that produce fairly similar products.
c. Under GAAP, standard cost job order systems may not substitute for actual or
normal costing systems.
d. Standard cost variances can be computed for actual-to-standard differences regardless of
whether standards have been established for both quantities and prices or for prices or
rates only.
14. Which of the following statements is true concerning job order costing and management decision
making? (Points : 1)
a. Job order costing assists managers in their planning, controlling, decision making and
performance evaluations functions.
b. Job order costing allows managers to trace costs associated with specific current jobs to
better estimate costs of future jobs.
c. Job order costing provides a means by which managers can better control the costs
associated with their operations.
d. All of the above are true statements.
15. Select the incorrect statement regarding the accounting for product losses. (Points : 1)
a. Normal losses that are anticipated on all jobs are estimated and included in the
development of the predetermined OH rate.
b. Normal losses that are associated with a particular job are charged to a loss account
in the period they are incurred.
c. Abnormal losses are charged to a loss account in the period they are incurred.
d. The difference between normal and abnormal loss is one of degree and therefore must be
determined by management.
16. Which of the following would least likely use a process costing system? (Points : 1)
a. Manufacturer of custom furniture
b. Manufacturer of soft drinks
c. Manufacturer of gasoline
d. Manufacturer of paper
17. Which of the following is not a basic objective of process costing? (Points : 1)
a. Compute an average cost per unit since units are homogeneous
b. Allocate production costs between whole units and partial units
c. Separate production costs into fixed and variable components
d. Determine the amount of production costs that should be transferred to the next
department
18. Select the incorrect statement regarding equivalent units of production (EUP). (Points : 1)
a. Two units 50% complete are equivalent to one unit 100% complete.
b. Except in very rare instances, only one EUP calculation is needed per department.
c. EUP equals the number of whole units of output that could have been produced during a
period from the actual effort expended.
d. The objective of EUP calculations is to eliminate the costing problemcaused by partially
completed units.
19. The steps in process costing are listed below:
Calculate physical units to be accounted for
Calculate physical units accounted for
Calculate equivalent units of production (EUP)
Calculate total costs to be accounted for
Calculate the cost per EUP
?
What is the missing step? (Points : 1)
a. Assign costs to whole and partial units in ending inventory
b. Assign costs to whole units produced during the period
c. Assign costs to units started and completed during the period
d. Assign costs to units transferred out and units in ending inventory
20. Which of the following is true about the weighted average method of process costing? (Points : 1)
a. The calculation of EUP must take into consideration the units in both beginning and ending
inventory.
b. The cost per EUP will include prior period costs if the department had beginning inventory.
c. The most common alternative to the weighted average method is the last-in, first-out
method.
d. The weighted average method refers to a method of determining which units were sold and
which units remain in inventory.
21. Z Company employs a process costing system for its manufacturing operations. All direct
materials are added at the beginning of the process and conversion costs are added
proportionately. The production quantity schedule for April is reproduced below:
Units
Work in process on April 1 (60% complete as to conversion costs) 1,000
Units started during April 5,000
Total units to account for 6,000
Units completed and transferred out 4,000
Work in process on April 30 (20% complete as to conversion costs) 2,000
Total units accounted for 6,000

Costs pertaining to the month of April are as follows:


Beginning inventory costs: (DM, $54,600; Conversion, $35,560) $ 90,160
Costs incurred during April (DM, $468,000; Conversion $574,060) $1,042,060
Using the weighted average method, the equivalent units for direct materials for April are:
a. 6,000 units.
b. 5,000 units.
c. 4,400 units.
d. 3,800 units.
22. Using the weighted average method, the equivalent units for conversion costs for April are:
a. 6,000 units.
b. 5,000 units.
c. 4,400 units.
d. 3,800 units.
23. Using the weighted average method, the equivalent unit materials cost for April is: (Points : 1)
a. $78.00.
b. $87.10.
c. $130.65.
d. $138.55.
24. Using the weighted average method, the 4,000 units completed during April will be transferred
out at an EUP unit cost of: (Points : 1)
a. $188.69.
b. $225.65.
c. $257.31.
d. $283.04.
25. L Company uses a process cost system to account for its manufacturing operations. All direct
materials are added at the beginning of the process and conversion costs are added
proportionately. The production quantity schedule for June is reproduced below:
Units
Work in process on June 1 (20% complete as to conversion costs) 16,000
Units started during June 100,000
Total units to account for 116,000
Units completed and transferred out from beginning inventory 16,000
Units started and completed during June 76,000
Work in process on June 30 (40% complete as to conversion costs) 24,000
Total units accounted for 116,000

Costs pertaining to the month of June are as follows:


Beginning inventory costs: (DM, $54,600; Conversion, $35,560) $ 90,160
Costs incurred during June (DM, $468,000; Conversion $574,060) $1,042,060
Using the FIFO method, the equivalent units for direct materials for June are: (Points : 1)
a. 116,000 units.
b. 100,000 units.
c. 85,600 units.
d. 76,000 units.
26. Using the FIFO method, the equivalent units for conversion costs for June are: (Points : 1)
a. 116,000 units.
b. 100,000 units.
c. 98,400 units.
d. 76,000 units.
27. Using the FIFO method, the direct materials cost per equivalent unit for units started and
completed during June is: (Points : 1)
a. $6.16.
b. $6.00.
c. $5.23.
d. $4.68.
28. Select the incorrect statement concerning process costing in a multidepartment setting.
a. In this environment, goods are transferred from a predecessor (upstream) department to a
successor (downstream) department.
b. Transferred out costs of the predecessor department become transferred in costs of the
successor department.
c. Occasionally, successor departments will change the unit of measure used in predecessor
departments.
d. By definition, successor departments may not add any additional raw materials to the units
received from predecessor departments.
29. Which of the following statements is true concerning process costing? (Points : 1)
a. Companies my substitute standard costs for actual costs.
b. EUP calculations for standard process costing are identical to those of FIFO process costing.
c. An advantage of standard process costing is that material, labor, and overhead variances
can be computed to assist in performance evaluation.
d. All of the above are true.
30. An appropriate costing system for a company whose various product lines have different direct
materials but similar processing techniques is likely a (Points : 1)
a. weighted average method of process costing.
b. first-in, first out method of process costing.
c. hybrid method of process costing.
d. last-in, first out method of process costing.

Unit 4 Quiz
1. Which of the following organizations would be most likely to use a job-order costing system?
a. the loan department of a bank
b. the check clearing department of a bank
c. a manufacturer of processed cheese food
d. a manufacturer of video cassette tapes
2. A company producing which of the following would be most likely to use a price standard for
material? (Points : 1)
a. furniture
b. NFL-logo jackets
c. custom-made picture frames
d. none of the above
3. A company producing which of the following would be most likely to use a time standard for
labor? (Points : 1)
a. mattresses
b. custom-made picture frames
c. floral arrangements
d. stained-glass windows
4. In a job-order costing system, the net cost of normal spoilage is equal to (Points : 1)
a. estimated disposal value plus the cost of spoiled work.
b. the cost of spoiled work minus estimated spoilage cost.
c. the units of spoiled work times the predetermined overhead rate.
d. the cost of spoiled work minus the estimated disposal value.
5. The net cost of normal spoilage in a job-order costing system in which spoilage is common to all
jobs should be (Points : 1)
a. assigned directly to the jobs that caused the spoilage.
b. charged to manufacturing overhead during the period of the spoilage.
c. charged to a loss account during the period of the spoilage.
d. allocated only to jobs that are completed during the period.
6. Spears Manufacturing Company produces beach chairs. Chair frames are all the same size, but can
be made from plastic, wood, or aluminum. Regardless of frame choice, the same sailcloth is used
for the seat on all chairs. Spears has set a standard for sailcloth of $9.90 per square yard and each
chair requires 1 square yard of material. Spears produced 500 plastic chairs, 100 wooden chairs,
and 250 aluminum chairs during June.
The total cost for 1,000 square yards of sailcloth during the month was $10,000. At the end of the
month, 50 square yards of sailcloth remained in inventory.
The unfavorable material price variance for sailcloth purchases for the month was (Points : 1)
a. $ 100.
b. $ 495.
c. $1,090.
d. $1,585.
7. Assuming that there was no sailcloth in inventory at the beginning of June, the unfavorable
material quantity variance for the month was (Points : 1)
a. $ 495.
b. $ 500.
c. $ 990.
d. $1,000.
8. Equivalent units of production are equal to the (Points : 1)
a. units completed by a production department in the period.
b. number of units worked on during the period by a production department.
c. number of whole units that could have been completed if all work of the period had
been used to produce whole units.
d. identifiable units existing at the end of the period in a production department.
9. The weighted average method is thought by some accountants to be inferior to the FIFO method
because it (Points : 1)
a. is more difficult to apply.
b. only considers the last units worked on.
c. ignores work performed in subsequent periods.
d. commingles costs of two periods.
10. The first step in determining the cost per EUP per cost component under the weighted average
method is to (Points : 1)
a. add the beginning Work in Process Inventory cost to the current period's production
cost.
b. divide the current period's production cost by the equivalent units.
c. subtract the beginning Work in Process Inventory cost from the current period's
production cost.
d. divide the current period's production cost into the EUP.
11. The difference between EUP calculated using FIFO and EUP calculated using weighted average is
the equivalent units (Points : 1)
a. started and completed during the period.
b. residing in beginning Work in Process Inventory.
c. residing in ending Work in Process Inventory.
d. uncompleted in Work in Process Inventory.
12. EUP calculations for standard process costing are the same as (Points : 1)
a. the EUP calculations for weighted average process costing.
b. the EUP calculations for FIFO process costing.
c. LIFO inventory costing for merchandise.
d. the EUP calculations for LIFO process costing.
13. To compute equivalent units of production using the FIFO method of process costing, work for the
current period must be stated in units (Points : 1)
a. completed during the period and units in ending inventory.
b. completed from beginning inventory, units started and completed during the period,
and units partially completed in ending inventory.
c. started during the period and units transferred out during the period.
d. processed during the period and units completed during the period.
14. Material is added at the beginning of a process in a process costing system. The beginning Work in
Process Inventory for the process was 30 percent complete as to conversion costs. Using the FIFO
method of costing, the number of equivalent units of material for the process during this period is
equal to the (Points : 1)
a. beginning inventory this period for the process.
b. units started and completed this period in the process.
c. units started this period in the process plus the beginning Work in Process Inventory.
d. units started and completed this period plus the units in ending Work in Process
Inventory.
15. Averaging the total cost of completed beginning work-in-process inventory and units started and
completed over all units transferred out is known as (Points : 1)
a. strict FIFO.
b. modified FIFO.
c. weighted average costing.
d. normal costing.

Unit 5 Practice Questions


1. Select the correct statement regarding standards. (Points : 1)
a. A standard is a benchmark or norm used for planning and control.
b. The difference between standard cost and actual cost is referred to as a variance.
c. Standards are developed for materials, labor, and overhead.
d. All of the above
2. The document that summarizes the expected quantities and costs needed to produce a unit is
called a (Points : 1)
a. bill of materials.
b. total cost of ownership document.
c. operations flow document.
d. standard cost card.
3. This month R Company planned to produce 3,000 units of its product. The standard cost card calls
for six pounds of material at $.30 per pound. Actual production for the month was 3,100 units,
resulting in a favorable price variance of $380 and an unfavorable quantity variance of $120.
Based on these variances, one could conclude that: (Points : 1)
a. more materials were purchased than were used.
b. the actual cost of material was less than the standard cost.
c. the actual usage of material was less than the standard allowed.
d. the actual cost and usage of material were both less than standard.
4. An unfavorable direct labor efficiency variance could be caused by a (n): (Points : 1)
a. unfavorable variable overhead spending variance.
b. unfavorable fixed overhead volume variance.
c. unfavorable material usage variance.
d. favorable fixed overhead volume variance.
5. The flexible budget for the month of August was for 9,000 units with direct material at $15 per
unit. Direct labor was budgeted at 45 minutes per unit for a total of $81,000. Actual output for the
month was 8,500 units with $127,500 in direct material and $77,775 in direct labor expense.
Direct labor hours of 6,375 were actually worked during the month. Variance analysis would
show: (Points : 1)
a. a favorable direct labor efficiency variance of $1,275.
b. an unfavorable direct labor efficiency variance of $1,275.
c. an unfavorable direct labor rate variance of $1,275.
d. none of the above.
6. The total fixed overhead variance is the: (Points : 1)
a. measure of the lost profits from the lack of sales volume.
b. amount of the underapplied or overapplied fixed overhead costs.
c. potential cost reduction that can be achieved from better cost control.
d. measure of production inefficiency.
7. Variable overhead is applied on the basis of standard direct labor hours. If the direct labor
efficiency variance is favorable, the variable overhead efficiency variance will be: (Points : 1)
a. unfavorable.
b. favorable.
c. zero.
d. the same amount as the labor efficiency variance.
8. Y Company's product has a labor standard of 2 hours per unit. For 2011, it estimates its
production will be 200,000 units (400,000 DLHs). It budgets total overhead at $900,000, which
results in a fixed overhead rate of $1.50 per hour. Actual data for the year include: Actual
production, 198,000 units (440,000 DLHs), Actual variable overhead, $352,000, Actual fixed
overhead, $575,000 The variable overhead efficiency variance for the year is: (Points : 1)
a. $66,000 unfavorable.
b. $35,520 favorable.
c. $33,000 favorable.
d. $33,000 unfavorable.
9. Standard cost systems should be used for all of the following reasons except: (Points : 1)
a. motivation.
b. decision-making.
c. establishing blame.
d. clerical efficiency.
10. Select the correct statement from the following. (Points : 1)
a. An extremely favorable variance is not necessarily a good variance.
b. There is a movement in practice toward reporting variances less often than in the past.
c. Only unfavorable variances need to be investigated.
d. For proper performance evaluation to be made, responsibility for variances should not be
traced to specific managers.
11. The best basis upon which cost standards should be set to measure controllable production
inefficiencies is: (Points : 1)
a. engineering standards based on attainable performance.
b. normal capacity.
c. engineering standards.
d. ideal capacity.
12. Variance analysis for conversion cost in automated plants normally focuses on: (Points : 1)
a. spending variances for overhead costs.
b. efficiency variances for machinery and production costs rather than labor costs.
c. volume variance for production.
d. all of the above.
13. A possible combination of materials or labor is called (Points : 1)
a. materials-time measurement.
b. yield.
c. mix.
d. conversion.
14. A measure of the difference between the actual total quantity of input and the standard total
quantity allowed based on output is called the (Points : 1)
a. mix variance.
b. yield variance.
c. volume variance.
d. none of the above.
15. Select the correct equation for the labor mix variance. (Points : 1)
a. (Actual mix x Actual hours x Actual rate) - (Actual mix x Actual hours x Standard rate)
b. (Actual mix x Actual hours x Standard rate) - (Actual mix x Actual hours x Standard rate)
c. (Actual mix x Actual hours x Standard rate) - (Standard mix x Actual hours x
Standard rate)
d. (Standard mix x Actual hours x Standard rate) - (Standard mix x Standard hours x Standard
rate)
16. Which income statement format better facilitates the determination of a company's break-even
point? (Points : 1)
a. Absorption costing income statement
b. Full costing income statement
c. Variable costing income statement
d. None of the above
17. Select the incorrect equation for computing the breakeven point. (Points : 1)
a. Total Fixed Costs = Total Contribution Margin
b. Total Revenue = Total Costs
c. Total Profit = $0
d. Total Variable Costs = Total Fixed Costs
18. A Company sells a product for $7.50 whose variable cost is $2.25 per unit. The company needed to
sell 20,000 shirts to break even. What was the company's total fixed costs? (Points : 1)
a. $105,000
b. $150,000
c. $45,000
d. $3,810
19. B Company sells a product for $7.50 whose variable cost is $2.25 per unit. The company needed to
sell 20,000 shirts to break even and its net income was $5,040 before tax. How many units did the
company sell? (Points : 1)
a. 2,240
b. 20,000
c. 20,672
d. 20,960
20. W Company manufactures a product that sells for $800 per unit. The unit variable costs are $600
and total fixed costs are $6,600,000. The annual sales volume required for W Company to break
even is: (Points : 1)
a. $26,400,000.
b. $8,800,000.
c. $6,600,000.
d. None of the above.
21. F Company manufactures and sells T-shirts. Last year, the shirts sold for $7.50 each, and the
variable cost to manufacture them was $2.25 per unit. The company needed to sell 20,000 shirts
to break even. The net income last year was $5,040. F Company's expectation for the coming year
include the following:
The selling price of the T-shirts will be $9.00
Variable cost to manufacture will increase by one-third
Fixed costs will increase by 10%
The income tax rate of 40% will be unchanged
The number of T-shirts that must be sold to break even in the coming year is: (Points : 1)
a. 22,000.
b. 20,000.
c. 19,250.
d. 17,500.
22. A calculation used in a CVP analysis determines the break-even point. Once the break-even point
has been reached, operating income will increase by the: (Points : 1)
a. contribution margin per unit for each additional unit sold.
b. gross margin per unit for each additional unit sold.
c. fixed costs per unit for each additional unit sold.
d. variable costs per unit for each additional unit sold.
23. A company sells a product for $9.00 which has a variable manufacturing cost of $3.00 per unit.
Last year, the company needed to sell 20,000 shirts to break even. Assuming the company is
subject to a 40% tax rate and wishes to earn $22,500 profit after tax for the coming year, what
sales will be required? (Points : 1)
a. $257,625
b. $236,250
c. $213,750
d. $180,000
24. X Company sold a product last year that had a $5.00 unit contribution margin. A significant change
in the company's production technology has caused a 10% increase in annual fixed costs but a
20% decrease in unit variable costs. Assuming there was no change in the product's $10.00 selling
price what is the company's new contribution margin ratio? (Points : 1)
a. 60%
b. 50%
c. 40%
d. Can't be determined from the information provided
25. A significant change in Y Company's production technology caused its total fixed costs of
$6,708,716 to increase by 9%. However, the change caused a 20% unit cost decrease in direct
labor and a 25% decrease in the unit material cost leading to $25 increase in its $300 unit
contribution margin. After incorporating these changes, what is Y Company's new break-even
point? (Points : 1)
a. 22,500 units
b. 20,643 units
c. 24,375 units
d. 22,363 units
26. One Company sells two products, A and B. A has a unit contribution margin of $40 while B has a
unit contribution margin of $25. Last year the company sold 40,000 units of Product A and 60,000
units of Product B. What is the company's weighted average contribution margin? (Points : 1)
a. ($40 + $25) / 2
b. ($40 x 40,000) + ($25 x 60,000)
c. ($40 x 0.4) + ($25 x 0.6)
d. None of the above
27. For a profitable company, the amount by which sales can decline before losses occur is known as
the: (Points : 1)
a. sales volume variance.
b. hurdle rate.
c. marginal income rate.
d. margin of safety.
28. V Company sold 10,000 units of its product for $100 per unit. It's unit variable costs are $20 and
its total fixed costs are $600,000. Assuming the company has a 40% tax rate, what is its degree of
operating leverage? (Points : 1)
a. 4.00
b. 0.25
c. 6.67
d. 0.15
29. Which of the following is not an assumption of CVP analysis? (Points : 1)
a. All revenues and variable cost are linear.
b. Mixed costs can be accurately separated into their fixed and variable components.
c. Sales exceed production.
d. Labor productivity and market conditions will not change.
30. Select the incorrect statement from the following. (Points : 1)
a. If changes occur in selling price or cost, new computations must be made for break-even
and CVP analysis.
b. In the long-term, fixed costs should be regarded as a long-term variable cost.
c. Fixed costs exist only in a short-term perspective.
d. In the future, the only nonmonetary variable included in the break-even model will
be sales volume.

Unit 5 Quiz
1. An operations flow document (Points : 1)
a. tracks the cost and quantity of material through an operation.
b. tracks the network of control points from receipt of a customer's order through the
delivery of the finished product.
c. specifies tasks to make a unit and the times allowed for each task.
d. charts the shortest path by which to arrange machines for completing products.
2. Bailey Corporation. incurred 2,300 direct labor hours to produce 600 units of product. Each unit
should take 4 direct labor hours. Bailey Corporation applies variable overhead to production on a
direct labor hour basis.
The variable overhead efficiency variance (Points : 1)
a. will be unfavorable.
b. will be favorable.
c. will depend upon the capacity measure selected to assign overhead to production.
d. is impossible to determine without additional information.
3. A variable overhead spending variance is caused by (Points : 1)
a. using more or fewer actual hours than the standard hours allowed for the production
achieved.
b. paying a higher/lower average actual overhead price per unit of the activity base than the
standard price allowed per unit of the activity base.
c. larger/smaller waste and shrinkage.
d. both b and c are causes.
4. Fixed overhead costs are (Points : 1)
a. best controlled on a unit-by-unit basis of products produced.
b. mostly incurred to provide the capacity to produce and are best controlled on a total
basis at the time they are originally negotiated.
c. constant on a per-unit basis at all different activity levels within the relevant range.
d. best controlled as to spending during the production process.
5. In analyzing manufacturing overhead variances, the volume variance is the difference between the
(Points : 1)
a. amount shown in the flexible budget and the amount shown in the debit side of the
overhead control account.
b. predetermined overhead application rate and the flexible budget application rate times
actual hours worked.
c. budget allowance based on standard hours allowed for actual production for the
period and the amount budgeted to be applied during the period.
d. actual amount spent for overhead items during the period and the overhead amount
applied to production during the period.
6. Variance analysis for overhead normally focuses on (Points : 1)
a. efficiency variances for machinery and indirect production costs.
b. volume variances for fixed overhead costs.
c. the controllable variance as a lump-sum amount.
d. the difference between budgeted and applied variable overhead.
7. The use of separate variable and fixed overhead rates is better than a combined rate because such
a system (Points : 1)
a. is less expensive to operate and maintain.
b. does not result in underapplied or overapplied overhead.
c. is more effective in assigning overhead costs to products.
d. is easier to develop.
8. In a just-in-time inventory system, (Points : 1)
a. practical standards become ideal standards.
b. ideal standards become expected standards.
c. variances will not occur because of the zero-defects basis of JIT.
d. standard costing cannot be used.
9. Consider the equation X = Sales - [(CM/Sales) ? (Sales)]. What is X? (Points : 1)
a. net income
b. fixed costs
c. contribution margin
d. variable costs
10. If a firm's net income does not change as its volume changes, the firm('s) (Points : 1)
a. must be in the service industry.
b. must have no fixed costs.
c. sales price must equal $0.
d. sales price must equal its variable costs.
11. In a CVP graph, the slope of the total revenue line indicates the (Points : 1)
a. rate at which profit changes as volume changes.
b. rate at which the contribution margin changes as volume changes.
c. ratio of increase of total fixed costs.
d. total costs per unit.
12. If a company's fixed costs were to increase, the effect on a profit-volume graph would be that the
(Points : 1)
a. contribution margin line would shift upward parallel to the present line.
b. contribution margin line would shift downward parallel to the present line.
c. slope of the contribution margin line would be more pronounced (steeper).
d. slope of the contribution margin line would be less pronounced (flatter).
13. Management is considering replacing an existing sales commission compensation plan with a fixed
salary plan. If the change is adopted, the company's (Points : 1)
a. break-even point must increase.
b. margin of safety must decrease.
c. operating leverage must increase.
d. profit must increase.
14. As projected net income increases the (Points : 1)
a. degree of operating leverage declines.
b. margin of safety stays constant.
c. break-even point goes down.
d. contribution margin ratio goes up.
15. A managerial preference for a very low degree of operating leverage might indicate that
a. an increase in sales volume is expected.
b. a decrease in sales volume is expected.
c. the firm is very unprofitable.
d. the firm has very high fixed costs.

Unit 6 Practice Questions


1. Short-term planning that produces "single use" plans such as the annual budget is referred to as
(Points : 1)
a. strategic planning.
b. managerial planning.
c. tactical planning.
d. internal planning.
2. A budget sets the resource constraints under which managers must operate for the upcoming
budget period. The control phase includes all of the following except: (Points : 1)
a. making actual-to-budget comparisons.
b. providing feedback to operating managers.
c. investigating variances.
d. assigning blame for poor performance.
3. All of the following are operating budgets except: (Points : 1)
a. selling and administrative budget.
b. purchases budget.
c. cash budget.
d. sales budget.
4. When preparing the series of annual operating budgets, management usually starts the process
with the: (Points : 1)
a. cash budget.
b. budgeted balance sheet.
c. sales budget.
d. production budget.
5. G Company has beginning inventory of 4,000 units. Management estimates that 35,000 units will
be sold during the first quarter with a 10% increase in sales each quarter. It is the company's
policy to maintain an ending inventory equal to 25% of the next quarter's sales. Each unit sells for
$3.00. How much sales revenue should be budgeted for the third quarter? (Points : 1)
a. $84,700
b. $115,050
c. $126,000
d. $127,050
6. L Company's budget calls for the following production:
Quarter 145,000 units Quarter 334,000 units
Quarter 238,000 units Quarter 448,000 units
Each unit of product requires three pounds of direct material. The company's policy is to begin
each quarter with an inventory of direct material equal to 30% of that quarter's direct material
production requirements. Budgeted direct material purchases (in pounds) for the third quarter
would be: (Points : 1)
a. 114,600.
b. 89,400.
c. 38,200.
d. 29,800.
7. The following beginning and ending inventory levels (in units) are planned for the upcoming fiscal
year:
Beginning of Year End of Year
Raw material 40,000 50,000
Work-in-process 10,000 10,000
Finished goods 80,000 50,000

Two units of raw material are needed to produce each unit of finished product. If the company
plans to sell 480,000 units during the upcoming fiscal year, the number of units it would have to
manufacture during the year would be: (Points : 1)
a. 510,000 units.
b. 480,000 units.
c. 450,000 units.
d. 440,000 units.
8. Company is planning to sell 2,000 units and produce 2,200 units during the upcoming month. Each
unit requires 2 ounces of raw material at a cost of $15.00 per ounce and one-half hour of direct
labor at a rate of $12.50 per hour. Overhead is applied at a rate of 120% of direct labor costs. The
company has 2,000 ounces of raw material in its beginning inventory and wants to have 2,400
ounces in its ending inventory. How much direct labor cost should be budgeted for the upcoming
month? (Points : 1)
a. $27,500
b. $16,500
c. $13,750
d. $12,500
9. E Company is planning to sell 2,000 units and produce 2,200 units during the upcoming month.
Each unit requires 2 ounces of raw material at a cost of $15.00 per ounce and one-half hour of
direct labor at a rate of $12.50 per hour. Overhead is applied at a rate of 120% of direct labor
costs. The company has 2,000 ounces of raw material in its beginning inventory and wants to have
2,400 ounces in its ending inventory. How much overhead cost should be budgeted for the
upcoming month? (Points : 1)
a. $27,500
b. $16,500
c. $13,750
d. $12,500
10. The following credit sales are budgeted by J Company:
January $124,000
February 120,000
March 135,000
April 140,000
May 142,000
The company's past experience indicates that 50% of receivables are collected in the month of
sale, 30% in the month following the sale, and 20% in the second month following the sale. What
amount should be budgeted as cash receipts for March? (Points : 1)
a. $135,000
b. $128,300
c. $67,500
d. $60,800
11. M Company budgeted direct materials purchases of $150,000 in April and $240,000 in May. It is
the company's practice to pay for 70% of its purchases in the month of purchase and the
remaining 30% in the following month. Other costs are all paid during the month incurred. During
May, the following items were budgeted:
Wages expense $75,000
Purchase of office equipment 36,000
Selling and administrative expenses 24,000
Depreciation expense 18,000
What amount should be budgeted for cash disbursements for May? (Points : 1)
a. $366,000
b. $348,000
c. $324,000
d. $213,000
12. Select the correct formula to compute cost of goods manufactured. (Points : 1)
a. Beginning WIP + Raw Materials Purchased + Direct Labor + Factory Overhead - Ending WIP
b. Beginning Finished Goods + Cost of Goods Sold - Ending Finished Goods
c. Raw Materials Used + Direct Labor + Factory Overhead
d. Beginning WIP + Raw Materials Used + Direct Labor + Factory Overhead - Ending
WIP
13. A continuous budget: (Points : 1)
a. presents a statement of expectations for a period but does not present a firm commitment.
b. drops the current month or quarter and adds a future month or a future quarter as
the current month or quarter is completed.
c. presents the plan for only one level of activity and does not adjust to changes in the level of
activity.
d. presents the plan for a range of activity so that the plan can be adjusted for changes in
activity.
14. All of the following are benefits of budgeting except: (Points : 1)
a. budgeting provides assurance that the company will achieve its objectives.
b. budgeting facilitates the coordination of activities.
c. budgeting requires managers to plan ahead.
d. budgeting provides specific benchmarks for evaluating performance.
15. Which of the following items should be included in a company's budget manual? (Points : 1)
a. Sample budgetary forms
b. Calendar of scheduled budgetary activities
c. Original, revised, and approved budgets
d. All of the above should be included.

Unit 6 Quiz
1. When actual performance varies from the budgeted performance, managers will be more likely to
revise future budgets if the variances were (Points : 1)
a. controllable rather than uncontrollable.
b. uncontrollable rather than controllable.
c. favorable rather than unfavorable.
d. small.
2. The amount of raw material purchased in a period may be different than the amount of material
used that period because (Points : 1)
a. the number of units sold may be different from the number of units produced.
b. finished goods inventory may fluctuate during the period.
c. the raw material inventory may increase/decrease during the period.
d. companies often pay for material in the period after it is purchased.
3. A company that maintains a raw material inventory, which is based on the following month's
production needs, will purchase less material than it uses in a month where (Points : 1)
a. sales exceed production.
b. production exceeds sales.
c. planned production exceeds the next month's planned production.
d. planned production is less than the next month's planned production.
4. If a company has a policy of maintaining an inventory of finished goods at a specified percentage
of the next month's budgeted sales, budgeted production for January will exceed budgeted sales
for January when budgeted (Points : 1)
a. February sales exceed budgeted January sales.
b. January sales exceed budgeted December sales.
c. January sales exceed budgeted February sales.
d. December sales exceed budgeted January sales.
5. Matthews Company has a policy of maintaining an inventory of finished goods equal to 30 percent
of the following month's sales. For the forthcoming month of March, Matthews has budgeted the
beginning inventory at 30,000 units and the ending inventory at 33,000 units. This suggests that
(Points : 1)
a. February sales are budgeted at 10,000 units less than March sales.
b. March sales are budgeted at 10,000 units less than April sales.
c. February sales are budgeted at 3,000 units less than March sales.
d. March sales are budgeted at 3,000 units less than April sales.
6. For the month of November, Whetzel Corporation. predicts total cash collections to be $1 million.
Also for November, Whetzel Corporation. estimates that its beginning cash balance will be $50,000
and that it will borrow cash in the amount of $70,000. If Whetzel Corporation. estimates an ending
cash balance of $30,000 for November, what must its projected cash disbursements be? (Points :
1)
a. $1,090,000
b. $1,120,000
c. $1,070,000
d. $1,020,000
7. For the month of March, Robertson Corporation. predicts total cash collections to be $1.5 million.
Also for March, Robertson Corporation. estimates that its beginning cash balance will be $60,000
and that it will borrow cash in the amount of $80,000. If Robertson Corporation. estimates an
ending cash balance of $40,000 for March, what must its projected cash disbursements be?
a. $1,520,000
b. $1,580,000
c. $1,600,000
d. $1,640,000
8. Sullivan Company is preparing its Manufacturing Overhead budget for the second quarter of the
year. Budgeted variable factory overhead is $3.00 per unit produced; budgeted fixed factory
overhead is $75,000 per month, with $16,000 of this amount being factory depreciation.
If the budgeted cash disbursements for factory overhead for June are $80,000, then the budgeted
production for June must be: (Points : 1)
a. 7,400 units
b. 6,200 units
c. 6,500 units
d. 7,000 units
9. Mercy Medical Center has provided you with the following budget information for April:
Cash collections $876,000
April 1 cash balance 23,000
Cash disbursements 978,600
Mercy has a policy of maintaining a minimum cash balance of $20,000 and borrows only in $1,000
increments. How much will Mercy borrow in April? (Points : 1)
a. $80,000
b. $79,600
c. $99,000
d. $100,000
10. Bentonville Medical Center has provided you with the following budget information for July:
Cash collections $918,000
July 1 cash balance 32,000
Cash disbursements 1,020,400
Bentonville has a policy of maintaining a minimum cash balance of $30,000 and borrows only in
$1,000 increments. How much will Bentonville borrow in July? (Points : 1)
a. $ 70,400
b. $ 71,000
c. $100,400
d. $101,000
11. Lindburgh Company manufactures toy airplanes. Information on Lindburgh Company's labor
costs follow:
Sales commissions $5 per plane
Administration $10,000 per month
Indirect factory labor $3 per plane
Direct factory labor $5 per plane
The following information applies to the upcoming month of July for Lindburgh Company:
Budgeted production 1,200 units
Budget sales 1,000 units
What amount of budgeted labor cost would appear in the July selling, general, and administrative
expense budget? (Points : 1)
a. $10,000
b. $16,000
c. $15,000
d. $23,000
12. Lindburgh Company manufactures toy airplanes. Information on Lindburgh Company's labor
costs follow:
Sales commissions $5 per plane
Administration $10,000 per month
Indirect factory labor $3 per plane
Direct factory labor $5 per plane
The following information applies to the upcoming month of July for Lindburgh Company:
Budgeted production 1,200 units
Budget sales 1,000 units
What is Lindburgh?s budgeted factory labor cost for July? (Points : 1)
a. $8,000
b. $15,600
c. $25,600
d. $9,600
13. Budgeted sales for Fleetwood Corporation for the first quarter the year are shown below:
JANUARY FEBRUARY MARCH
UNITS: 35,000 25,000 32,000
The company has a policy that requires the ending inventory in each period to be 10 percent of the
following period's sales. Assuming that the company follows this policy, what quantity of
production should be scheduled for February? (Points : 1)
a. 24,300 units
b. 24,700 units
c. 25,000 units
d. 25,700 units
14. Budgeted sales for Parker Corporation for the second quarter the year are shown below:
APRIL MAY JUNE
UNITS: 40,000 30,000 38,000
The company has a policy that requires the ending inventory in each period to be 15 percent of the
following period's sales. Assuming that the company follows this policy, what quantity of
production should be scheduled for May? (Points : 1)
a. 28,800 units
b. 29,700 units
c. 25,000 units
d. 31,200 units
15. Production of Product B has been budgeted at 200,000 units for November. One unit of Product B
requires 2 lbs. of raw material. The projected beginning and ending materials inventory for
November are:
Beginning inventory: 2,000 lbs.
Ending inventory: 10,000 lbs.
How many lbs. of material should be purchased during November? (Points : 1)
a. 192,000
b. 208,000
c. 408,000
d. 416,000

Unit 7 Practice Questions


1. Which of the following is not a required characteristic of relevant information? (Points : 1)
a. Must be associated with the decision under consideration
b. Must have a connection to or bearing on some future endeavor
c. Must be important to the decision maker
d. Must be verifiable by an independent reviewer or auditor
2. Contribution to income that is foregone by not using a limited resource for its best alternative use
is referred to as (Points : 1)
a. marginal cost.
b. incremental cost.
c. non-relevant cost.
d. opportunity cost.
3. Total unit costs are: (Points : 1)
a. relevant for cost-volume-profit analysis.
b. needed for determining sunk costs.
c. non-relevant in marginal analysis.
d. needed for determining product contribution.
4. Sunk costs are: (Points : 1)
a. relevant to decision making.
b. not relevant to decision making.
c. non-relevant to long-run decisions but not to short-run decisions.
d. fixed costs.
5. In equipment-replacement decisions, which one of the following does not affect the decision-
making process? (Points : 1)
a. Historical cost of the old equipment
b. Cost of the new equipment
c. Operating costs of the new equipment
d. Current disposal price of the old equipment
6. Select the incorrect statement from the following. (Points : 1)
a. A cost that is the same for multiple alternatives under consideration is not relevant.
b. The cost of acquiring the machine that is currently used to produce a component is
relevant in making an outsourcing decision.
c. The cost to acquire a component in a make or buy decision is relevant.
d. The salvage or residual value of a piece of machinery is relevant in a keep-or-replace
decision.
7. A company's approach to a make-buy decision (Points : 1)
a. involves an analysis of avoidable costs.
b. depends on whether the company is operating at or below breakeven.
c. should use absorption costing.
d. should use activity-based costing.
8. P Company currently manufactures all component parts used in the manufacture of various small
appliances. A steel handle is used in three different products. The current year budget for 20,000
handles has the following unit cost:
Direct material $0.60
Direct labor 0.40
Variable overhead 0.10
Fixed overhead 0.20
Total unit cost $1.30
A steel company has offered to supply 20,000 handles to P Company for $1.25 each, which
includes delivery. Accepting the offer will: (Points : 1)
a. decrease the handle unit cost by $0.15.
b. decrease the handle unit cost by $0.25.
c. increase the handle unit cost by $0.15.
d. Increase the handle unit cost by $0.05.
9. Select the incorrect statement concerning scarce resource decisions. (Points : 1)
a. Unit contribution margin rather than gross margin is the appropriate measure of
profitability.
b. Scarce resources may include machine hours, skilled labor hours, and raw materials.
c. If the objective is to maximize profits, a scarce resource is best used to produce and
sell the product generating the highest contribution margin per unit.
d. Although in the long run, a company may acquire a higher quantity of the scarce resource,
in the short run, management must make the most efficient use of the currently available
resources.
10. D Company recently expanded its manufacturing capacity, which will allow it to produce up to
15,000 units of Products A and B. The sales department believes it can sell up to 13,000 units of
either product this year. Because the two products are very similar, D Company will produce only
one of the two products. The following information is available:
Per Unit Data
Product A Product B
Selling price $88.20 $80.00
Variable costs 52.80 52.80
Fixed costs will total $369,600 if Product A is produced but will be only $316,800 if Product B is
produced. D Company is subject to a 40% income tax rate. If the company desires an after-tax
profit of $24,000, how many units of Product B will the company have to sell? (Points : 1)
a. 4,460
b. 12,529
c. 13,118
d. 13,853
11. Select the correct statement concerning special order decisions. (Points : 1)
a. Such decisions must not violate the Robinson-Patman Act which prohibits companies from
pricing the same product at different levels when those amounts do not reflect related cost
differences.
b. Companies may give ad hoc discounts if such concessions relate to real or imagined
competitive pressures.
c. Special order decisions often hinge on productive capacity issues.
d. All of the above are correct.
12. R Company sells a product for $10.00 that has the following unit cost:
Direct material $1.60
Direct labor 2.40
Variable overhead 1.20
Fixed overhead 1.30
Total unit cost $6.50
A company that does not compete with R Company's existing customers has made an offer to
purchase 1,000 units of the product at a proposed price of $6.00. R Company is currently selling all
of the units it can produce to its existing customers. Select the correct statement from the
following. (Points : 1)
a. Reject the offer since the offer price is less than the unit production cost.
b. Accept the offer since the offer price exceeds the sum of the variable costs.
c. Reject the offer to avoid a $4.00 per unit decrease in profit on the 1,000 units.
d. Accept the offer since the offer price exceeds the unit fixed cost.
13. Select the correct definition of segment margin from the following: (Points : 1)
a. Revenue - Expenses
b. Revenue - Variable Costs
c. Revenue - Variable Costs - Avoidable Fixed Costs
d. Revenue - Variable Costs - Unavoidable Fixed Costs
14. A product that results from a joint process may be classified as (Points : 1)
a. a joint product.
b. a by-product.
c. scrap.
d. All of the above.
15. Select the incorrect statement from the following. (Points : 1)
a. Producing first-quality merchandise and factory seconds in a single operation can be
viewed as a joint process.
b. Waste is a residual output from many production processes whose sales value is
comparable to that of by-products.
c. By-products are distinguished from scrap by their higher sales value.
d. While joint cost allocations are necessary to determine financial statement valuations, such
allocations should not be used in making internal decisions.
16. Select the incorrect statement concerning the split-off point. (Points : 1)
a. The split-off point is the point at which joint process outputs are first identifiable as
individual products.
b. If joint output is processed beyond the split-off point, additional costs will be incurred and
must be assigned to the specific products for which those costs were incurred.
c. A single joint process cannot have multiple spit-off points.
d. Output may be sold at the split-off point or processed further and then sold.
17. In joint product costing and analysis, which one of the following costs is relevant when deciding
the point at which a product should be sold in order to maximize profits? (Points : 1)
a. Purchase costs of the materials required for the joint products
b. Separable costs after the split-off point
c. Joint costs to the split-off point
d. Sales salaries for the period when the units were produced
18. Before committing resources to a joint process, management must first decide whether total
expected revenue from selling the joint output 'basket' of products is likely to exceed the:
a. selling expenses for the goods.
b. joint costs and separate processing costs after split-off.
c. disposal costs for any waste generated.
d. All of the above.
19. When estimating unit selling prices for use in allocating joint production costs, which of the
following should be considered? (Points : 1)
a. Competitor prices
b. Consumers' sensitivity to price changes
c. Costs
d. All of the above
20. All of the following are common monetary measures for allocating joint costs to joint products
except: (Points : 1)
a. approximated net realizable value at split-off.
b. gross margin at split-off.
c. net realizable value at split-off.
d. sales value at split-off.
21. LS Company manufactures two products, Product L and Product S in a joint process. The joint
(common) costs incurred are $420,000 for a standard production run that generates 180,000
units of L and 120,000 units of S. Product L sells for $2.40 per unit while Product S sells for $3.90
per unit. Assuming both products are sold at the split-off point, the amount of joint cost of each
production run allocated to Product L on a net realizable value (NRV) basis is: (Points : 1)
a. $252,000.
b. $218,400.
c. $201,600.
d. $168,000.
22. Products A and B are manufactured in a joint process. The joint (common) costs incurred are
$252,000 for a standard production run that generates 108,000 gallons of Product A which sells
for $2.40 per gallon and 72,000 gallons of Product B which sells for $3.90 per gallon. If no
additional costs are incurred after the split-off point, the amount of joint cost of each production
run allocated to Product B on a physical measure basis is: (Points : 1)
a. $100,800.
b. $140,000.
c. $151,200.
d. $280,800.
23. Products X and Y are manufactured in a joint process. The joint (common) costs incurred are
$420,000 for a standard production run that generates 180,000 gallons of Product X which sells
for $2.40 per gallon and 120,000 gallons of Product Y which sells for $3.90 per gallon. If additional
processing costs beyond the split-off point are $1.40 per gallon for Product X and $0.90 per gallon
for Product Y, the amount of joint cost allocated to Product Y on a net realizable value basis is:
(Points : 1)
a. $280,000.
b. $252,000.
c. $168,000.
d. $140,000.
24. M Company incurs $10,000,000 in joint costs for its three products. The company estimates the
products' production, final selling price, and separate costs after split-off as follows:

How much of the joint costs should be allocated to Product A under the approximated net
realizable value at split-off? (Note: round percentages to zero decimal places.) (Points : 1)
a. $4,600,000
b. $4,100,000
c. $1,300,000
d. None of the above
25. P Inc. always generates a certain amount of waste due to the nature of its production activities
regardless of which products it is producing at the time. After production in a recent month, the
company sold $200 of scrap. Which of the following is the correct entry to record the sale of the
scrap using the realized value approach? (Points : 1)
a. Cash 200
Manufacturing Overhead 200
b. Cash 200
Finished Goods 200
c. Cash 200
Scrap Inventory 200
d. Cash 200
Work in Process 200
26. Select the incorrect statement concerning the accounting for by-product and scrap. (Points : 1)
a. Reducing joint cost by the NRV of the by-product/scrap is the traditional method used to
account for such goods.
b. Regardless of whether a company uses the NRV or the realized value approach, the specific
method used to account for by-product should be established before the joint cost is
allocated to the joint products.
c. Two common methods used to account for by-products are the NRV approach and the
realized value approach.
d. Under the realized value approach, the estimated selling price of the by-product is
recognized prior its actual sale.
27. Not-for-profit organizations may charge the entire cost of a joint activity to fund-raising if all of
the following criteria are met except: (Points : 1)
a. amount.
b. audience.
c. content.
d. purpose.
28. If a majority of compensation or fees for anyone performing a part of an activity is tied to
contributions raised, the activity automatically fails the (Points : 1)
a. purpose criterion and all costs of the activity must be charged to program activities.
b. content criterion and all costs of the activity must be charged to fund-raising.
c. purpose criterion and all costs of the activity must be charged to fund-raising.
d. audience criterion and all costs of the activity must be charged to administrative activities.
Unit 7 Quiz
1. An ad hoc sales discount is (Points : 1)
a. an allowance for an inferior quality of marketed goods.
b. a discount that an ad hoc committee must decide on.
c. brought about by competitive pressures.
d. none of the above.
2. Eichholtz Company uses 10,000 units of a part in its production process. The costs to make a part
are: direct material, $12; direct labor, $25; variable overhead, $13; and applied fixed overhead,
$30. Eichholtz has received a quote of $55 from a potential supplier for this part. If Eichholtz buys
the part, 70 percent of the applied fixed overhead would continue. Eichholtz Company would be
better off by (Points : 1)
a. $50,000 to manufacture the part.
b. $150,000 to buy the part.
c. $40,000 to buy the part.
d. $160,000 to manufacture the part.
3. Collins Company uses 12,000 units of a part in its production process. The costs to make a part
are: direct material, $15; direct labor, $27; variable overhead, $15; and applied fixed overhead,
$32. Eichholtz has received a quote of $60 from a potential supplier for this part. If Collins buys
the part, 75 percent of the applied fixed overhead would continue. Collins Company would be
better off by (Points : 1)
a. $30,000 to manufacture the part.
b. $348,000 to buy the part.
c. $60,000 to buy the part.
d. $216,000 to manufacture the part.
4. Buxton Company is currently operating at a loss of $15,000. The sales manager has received a
special order for 5,000 units of product, which normally sells for $35 per unit. Costs associated
with the product are: direct material, $6; direct labor, $10; variable overhead, $3; applied fixed
overhead, $4; and variable selling expenses, $2. The special order would allow the use of a slightly
lower grade of direct material, thereby lowering the price per unit by $1.50 and selling expenses
would be decreased by $1. If Buxton wants this special order to increase the total net income for
the firm to $10,000, what sales price must be quoted for each of the 5,000 units? (Points : 1)
a. $23.50
b. $24.50
c. $27.50
d. $34.00
5. The Southern Digital, Inc. produces a high-quality computer chip. Unit production costs (based on
capacity production of 100,000 units per year) follow:
Direct material $50
Direct labor 20
Overhead (20% variable) 10
Other information:
Sales price 100
SG&A costs (40% variable) 15
Assume, for this question only, that the Memory Division is producing and selling at capacity.
What is the minimum selling price that the division would consider on a "special order" of 1,000
chips on which no variable period costs would be incurred? (Points : 1)
a. $100
b. $72
c. $81
d. $94
6. The Southern Digital, Inc. produces a high-quality computer chip. Unit production costs (based on
capacity production of 100,000 units per year) follow:
Direct material $50
Direct labor 20
Overhead (20% variable) 10
Other information:
Sales price 100
SG&A costs (40% variable) 15
Assume, for this question only, that the Memory Division is operating at a level of 70,000 chips per
year. What is the minimum price that the division would consider on a "special order" of 1,000
chips to be distributed through normal channels? (Points : 1)
a. $78
b. $95
c. $100
d. $81
7. The Southern Digital, Inc. produces a high-quality computer chip. Unit production costs (based on
capacity production of 100,000 units per year) follow:
Direct material $50
Direct labor 20
Overhead (20% variable) 10
Other information:
Sales price 100
SG&A costs (40% variable) 15
Assume, for this question only, that the Memory Division is presently operating at a level of 80,000
chips per year. Accepting a "special order" on 2,000 chips at $88 will (Points : 1)
a. increase total corporate profits by $4,000.
b. increase total corporate profits by $20,000.
c. decrease total corporate profits by $14,000.
d. decrease total corporate profits by $24,000.
8. Which of the following statements is true regarding by-products or scrap? (Points : 1)
a. Process costing is the only method that should result in by-products or scrap.
b. Job order costing systems will never have by-products or scrap.
c. Job order costing systems may have instances where by-products or scrap result
from the production process.
d. Process costing will never have by-products or scrap from the production process.
9. The method of pricing by-products/scrap where no value is assigned to these items until they are
sold is known as the (Points : 1)
a. net realizable value at split-off point method.
b. sales value at split-off method.
c. realized value approach.
d. approximated net realizable value at split-off method.
10. Riley Company produces two products from a joint process: A and C. Joint processing costs for this
production cycle are $9,000.
Yards Sales Price @ Disposal Cost Further Final Sales
Split-Off @ Split-Off Processing Price
A 1,800 $7.00 $4.50 $1.50 $8.00
C 2,600 10.00 6.00 3.50 12.25
If A and C are processed further, no disposal costs will be incurred or such costs will be borne by
the buyer.
11. Using sales value at split-off, what amount of joint processing cost is allocated to Product A (round
to the nearest dollar)? (Points : 1)
a. $2,938
b. $3,682
c. $4,500
d. $6,062
12. Using sales value at split-off, what amount of joint processing cost is allocated to Product C (round
to the nearest dollar)?
a. $2,718
b. $4,500
c. $6,062
d. $6,282
13. Using net realizable value at split-off, what amount of joint processing cost is allocated to Product
C (round to the nearest dollar)?
a. $2,718
b. $4,500
c. $6,062
d. $6,282
14. Using approximated net realizable value at split-off, what amount of joint processing cost is
allocated to Product A (round to the nearest dollar)? (Points : 1)
a. $2,718
b. $2,934
c. $3,014
d. $4,500
15. Using approximated net realizable value at split-off, what amount of joint processing cost is
allocated to Product C (round to the nearest dollar)? (Points : 1)
a. $4,500
b. $5,986
c. $6,062
d. $6,282

Unit 8 Practice Questions


1. Select the incorrect statement concerning the historical relationship between cost accounting
systems and financial accounting systems. (Points : 1)
a. The two systems often compete.
b. Financial accounting systems have been the dominant system.
c. For financial reporting requirements, cost information must be highly segmented.
d. Information provided by the financial reporting system is often of little value for cost
management purposes.
2. A structure of interrelated elements that collects, organizes, and communicates data to managers
so they can plan, control, make decisions, and evaluate performance is a: (Points : 1)
a. cost management system (CMS).
b. enterprise resource planning (ERP) system.
c. management control system (MCS).
d. management information system (MIS).
3. Which of the following is not a primary component of a management control system? (Points : 1)
a. Assessor
b. Black box
c. Effector
d. Sensor
4. Which of the following is not an organizational role of a cost management system? (Points : 1)
a. Help manage core competencies
b. Link plans and strategies to actual organizational performance
c. Help identify tactics to fend off organizational threats
d. Identify the organization's mission
5. Which of the following is not a primary goal of a cost management system? (Points : 1)
a. Assess product/service life-cycle performance
b. Develop accurate product costs
c. Identify the company's least profitable customers
d. Measure performance
6. The product/service costs generated by the CMS are used for which of the following purposes?
(Points : 1)
a. Prepare financial statements
b. Create a basis for performance measurements
c. Establish prices for cost-plus contracts
d. All of the above
7. The relative composition of an organization's fixed and variable costs and, thus, how costs change
relative to changes in production or sales volume is referred to as its: (Points : 1)
a. cost behavior.
b. cost horizon.
c. cost pattern.
d. cost structure.
8. The underlying set of assumptions about the entity and the goals, processes, practices, and values
that its member share is referred to as its: (Points : 1)
a. mission.
b. strategic plan.
c. organizational culture.
d. organizational structure.
9. The strategy of identifying and exploiting temporary opportunities for advantage is known as a
(Points : 1)
a. confrontational strategy.
b. cost leadership strategy.
c. differentiation strategy.
d. systematic strategy.
10. Core competencies which are the operational dimensions that are key to the company's survival
include: (Points : 1)
a. quality.
b. customer service.
c. cost control.
d. all of the above.
11. Select the incorrect statement from the following. (Points : 1)
a. High-tech companies can't pursue a cost leadership strategy due to the high costs of
technology.
b. Management of high technology costs requires beating competitors to the market with new
products.
c. Often, getting products to market quickly and profitably requires a compromise between
product innovation and superior product design.
d. The faster a product gets to market, the fewer competitive products will exist.
12. Cost control (Cost Leadership), product replacement (Product Differentiation), and Distribution
channel development (Confrontation) are activities for which product life cycle? (Points : 1)
a. Build
b. Harvest
c. Hold
d. Grow
13. Stock options are an example of a: (Points : 1)
a. cash incentive plan.
b. short-term performance incentive.
c. long-term performance incentive.
d. none of the above.
14. Select the item that incorrectly details the shift in control emphasis in future competitive
environments? (Points : 1)
a. Performance Measurement: From concentrating on multiple types of critical success
measures to concentrating on financial results
b. Cost Standards: from using expected standards to using ideal standards
c. Budgeting: From developing annual budgets to developing rolling budgets
d. Product Offerings: From developing a limited number of product styles to engaging in mass
customization to entice a wide variety of customers
15. Which of the following is not an objective of enterprise resource planning systems? (Points : 1)
a. Manage and coordinate a myriad of organizational activities
b. Maintain the company's various legacy information systems
c. Improve operational efficiencies
d. Take advantage of cost savings from shared service centers
16. Every company has upstream suppliers and downstream customers. These relationships may be
referred to as a (Points : 1)
a. total quality management system.
b. kanban system.
c. value chain.
d. just-in-time network.
17. Which of the following items is not included in annual inventory carrying costs? (Points : 1)
a. Inventory storage cost
b. Inventory purchase cost
c. Insurance on inventory
d. Property taxes on inventory
18. The approach to producing inventory in which production is conducted in anticipation of
customer orders is referred to as a (Points : 1)
a. just in time system.
b. push system.
c. value chain.
d. pull system.
19. The primary objective of a pull system of production is to minimize: (Points : 1)
a. the purchase cost of inventory.
b. the number of parts needed to produce a product.
c. the number of production supervisors needed in the factory.
d. the cost of carrying inventory.
20. Which of the following is not a stage of development in a product's life cycle? (Points : 1)
a. Maturity
b. Growth
c. Entrenchment
d. Introduction
21. In which stage of the product life cycle are costs usually at their lowest level and profits at their
highest levels? (Points : 1)
a. Maturity
b. Growth
c. Entrenchment
d. Introduction
22. Select the correct equation for a product's target cost (TC). (Points : 1)
a. TC = Estimated selling price x (Acceptable profit margin + Selling and administrative costs)
b. TC = Estimated selling price / Acceptable profit margin + Selling and administrative costs)
c. TC = Estimated selling price - Acceptable profit margin - Selling and administrative
costs
d. TC = Estimated selling price + (Acceptable profit margin - Selling and administrative costs)
23. Which of the following is a primary goal of just-in-time systems? (Points : 1)
a. Eliminating any production process that does not add value to the product/service
b. Reducing the total cost of production/performance while increasing quality
c. Continuously improving production/performance efficiency
d. All of the above
24. What is the optimal JIT situation with regard to supplier relationships? (Points : 1)
a. Have only one vendor for any given item
b. Use at least two vendors for each item purchased to minimize chances of stockout
c. Acquire all items needed to produce the company's products from a single vendor
d. None of the above
25. A production system involving a network of robots and material conveyance devices monitored
and controlled by computers that allows for rapid production and responsiveness to changes in
production needs is referred to as: (Points : 1)
a. flexible manufacturing system.
b. computer-integrated manufacturing system.
c. focused factory arrangement system.
d. virtual reality manufacturing system.
26. Select the incorrect statement concerning lean enterprises. (Points : 1)
a. Lean manufacturing refers to making only those items in demand by customers and making
those items without waste.
b. Like JIT, one of the primary goals of lean manufacturing is to eliminate value-added
activities.
c. Lean enterprises seek to lower cycle times and increase quality.
d. Lean manufacturing can lead to reduced product life cycles.
27. Points at which the processing levels are sufficiently slow to produce idle time in other processing
mechanisms in the network are referred to as (Points : 1)
a. stress points.
b. bottlenecks.
c. traffic jams.
d. backflush points.
28. The annual demand for mantle clocks is estimated to be 5,000 units. The annual cost of carrying
one unit in inventory is $10, and the cost to initiate a production run is $1,000. There are no clocks
on hand and so the company plans to schedule four equal production runs for the coming year.
The company operates 250 business days per year. Assume that sales occur uniformly throughout
the year and that production is instantaneous. If the company does not maintain a safety stock, the
estimated total annual carrying costs for the mantle clock is: (Points : 1)
a. $10,250.
b. $6,250.
c. $5,000.
d. $4,000.
29. B Company needs help in determining the number of production runs it should schedule for the
coming year. It has no beginning inventory, annual demand of 5,000 units, annual cost of carrying
one unit in inventory is $10, and the estimated cost of setting up a production run is $1,000. How
many production runs are needed for the coming year? (Points : 1)
a. 7
b. 5
c. 4
d. 2
30. When the level of safety stock is increased: (Points : 1)
a. lead time will increase.
b. carrying costs will decrease.
c. the frequency of stock outs will decrease.
d. lead time will decrease.

Unit 8 Quiz
1. A cost management system (Points : 1)
a. is finalized when the information currently being produced is the same as the information
currently desired.
b. can be generically designed to fit the information needs of the majority of domestic (but not
global) organizations.
c. must be continuously improved to adapt to changes in an organization's internal and
external environment.
d. that has been appropriately designed from gap analysis, does not need to be changed
unless there is a change in organizational management or culture.
2. Which of the following indicates the mission being pursued by a subunit that is using cash?
generating cash? (Points : 1)
a. save harvest
b. build save
c. harvest build
d. build harvest
3. An increase in the use of technology has caused (Points : 1)
a. fewer costs to be susceptible to short-run control.
b. companies to be more flexible in responding to changing short-term conditions.
c. managers to be less concerned about capacity utilization because of the increased ability to
produce in large quantities.
d. a decline in the amount of fixed costs in an organization.
4. The life cycles of many products are becoming shorter (Points : 1)
a. causing companies to recognize that it may be more advantageous to confront,
rather than compete with, the competition.
b. making products in the maturity stage of their life cycle the basis on which firms expect
growth to be generated.
c. so companies spend less and less on product design and development because products
will not last as long as previously.
d. meaning that tools such as benchmarking and target costing become less important in
adapting to the competitive environment.
5. Most managers evaluate decision alternatives based on how (Points : 1)
a. much the decision will increase or decrease organizational profits.
b. the outcomes may affect selected performance measurement and reward criteria.
c. much the outcome will reduce the organization's cost of capital.
d. easily the decision impacts can be quantified in the organization's cost management
system.
6. Target costing (Points : 1)
a. can be applied to services if they are sufficiently uniform.
b. can be applied to services only if they are automated.
c. can be applied to services that are performed in a manufacturing environment.
d. cannot be applied to services.
7. Which of the following statements is false concerning electronic data interchange? (Points : 1)
a. Electronic data interchange (EDI) is essential in a pull system.
b. One of the benefits realized by EDI organizations is a faster processing of transactions.
c. Electronic data interchange is essential in a push system.
d. Electronic data interchange refers to computer-to-computer exchange of information.
8. When JIT is implemented, which of the following changes in the accounting system would not be
expected? (Points : 1)
a. fewer cost allocations
b. elimination of standard costs
c. combining labor and overhead into one product cost category
d. combing raw material and materials in work-in-process into one product cost category
9. In which life-cycle stage are product quality improvements and stable selling prices likely to
occur? (Points : 1)
a. introduction
b. growth
c. maturity
d. decline
10. From a cost management view, research and development cost represents (Points : 1)
a. a life-cycle investment
b. a period expense.
c. an unearned revenue.
d. a risk reserve.
11. In a JIT manufacturing environment, product costing information is least important for use in
(Points : 1)
a. work in process inventory valuation.
b. pricing decisions.
c. product profitability analysis.
d. make-or-buy decisions.
12. With JIT manufacturing, which of the following costs would be considered a direct product cost?
(Points : 1)
a. insurance on the plant
b. utilities used for manufacturing
c. janitors' salaries
d. salary of the plant supervisor
13. The JIT environment has caused a reassessment of product costing techniques. Which of the
following statements is true with respect to this reassessment? (Points : 1)
a. Traditional cost allocations based on direct labor are being questioned and
criticized.
b. The federal government, through the SEC, is responsible for the reassessment.
c. The reassessment is caused by the replacement of machine hours with labor hours.
d. None of the above is true.
14. When a firm adopts the just-in-time method of management, (Points : 1)
a. employees are retrained on different equipment, but the plant layout generally remains
unchanged.
b. new machinery and equipment must be purchased from franchised JIT dealers.
c. machinery and equipment are moved into small autonomous production lines called
islands or cells.
d. new, more efficient machinery and equipment are purchased and installed in the original
plant layout.
15. Which of the following describes the effect on direct labor when management adopts the JIT
philosophy? (Points : 1)
a. Each direct labor person performs a single task, thereby allowing that person to reach his
or her theoretical potential.
b. Because each person runs a single machine in a JIT environment, there are more employees
classified as direct labor.
c. The environment becomes more labor-intensive.
d. Machine operators are expected to run several different types of machines, help set
up for production runs, and identify and repair machinery needing maintenance.

Unit 9 Practice Questions


1. Which of the following is not a major business trend promoting the increased use of business
process reengineering? (Points : 1)
a. Increasing use of the corporate form of business organization
b. Advancement of technology
c. Pursuit of increased quality
d. Increase in price competition caused by globalization
2. Business process reengineering changes the way firms execute processes by: (Points : 1)
a. making better use of technology.
b. making less use of technology.
c. using more employees.
d. eliminating all but the most profitable products in order to simply operations.
3. Global competition is forcing firms to downsize and restructure operations to: (Points : 1)
a. defend core competencies.
b. remain cost competitive.
c. eliminate non-value activities.
d. all of the above.
4. One of the grim realities of ever-improving efficiency is that (Points : 1)
a. Input costs are declining
b. Cycle times are increasing
c. Fewer workers are required
d. All of the above
5. The data, facts, experiences, and lessons learned important to an organization's existence are
referred to as: (Points : 1)
a. a data depository.
b. an enterprise resource planning system.
c. workforce diversity.
d. organizational memory.
6. Different languages and cultures can impede communication within globally dispersed operations.
Why is accounting a useful coordinating mechanism? (Points : 1)
a. Because accounting represents an application of the universal language of mathematics
b. Because the interpretation of accounting information need not depend on local culture
c. Because accounting is the universal language of business
d. All of the above
7. All of the following are objectives of enterprise resource planning (ERP) systems except:
a. to automate accounting processes.
b. to share data across the enterprise.
c. to eliminate information system installation costs.
d. to provide real-time access to company data.
8. Installation of an ERP system impacts the financial function in all of the following ways except:
a. Financial specialists have to find ways to finance the acquisition of the ERP system.
b. Financial and system specialists become responsible for selecting and installing the
software.
c. Financial specialists will be responsible for analyzing the data repository to support
management decisions.
d. Finance specialists are accountable for integrating externally purchased data with
internally generated data.
9. Which technique uses statistical techniques to uncover answers to important questions about
business operations? (Points : 1)
a. business process reengineering (BPR)
b. data mining
c. employee to capital cost ratio (ECC)
d. enterprise resource planning system (ERP)
10. Joint ventures, equity investments, and technology swaps are examples of (Points : 1)
a. venture capitalists.
b. licensing agreements.
c. strategic alliances.
d. exclusive buyer-seller agreements
11. An agreement involving two or more firms to jointly contribute to the supply chain (Points : 1)
a. involves the exploitation of partner knowledge.
b. includes partners with access to different markets.
c. allows sharing of risks and rewards.
d. all of the above.
12. Characteristics of firms that are best suited to a successful implementation of open-book
management include all of the following except: (Points : 1)
a. small size.
b. centralized management.
c. a history of employee empowerment.
d. the presence of trust between employees and managers.
13. Open-book management: (Points : 1)
a. decreases the transparency of information within an organization.
b. requires accountants to change from a mind-set of sharing to guarding information.
c. frequently uses games and meetings to make information understandable to
financially unsophisticated employees.
d. centralizes both authority to make decisions and responsibility for decision results.
14. Which of the following is not a common principle of open-book management? (Points : 1)
a. Teach employees to understand the company's financial results
b. Link nonfinancial measures to financial results
c. Empower employees by allowing them to evaluate their own performance
d. Turn the management of the business into a game that employees can win
15. Which of the following is not a general approach to controlling environmental costs? (Points : 1)
a. Signing the Kyoto Protocol to reduce pollution
b. Cleaning up pollutants after they are produced
c. Improving processes to reduce the amount of waste produced
d. Preventing pollution by never producing polluting materials
Unit 9 Quiz
1. ERP stands for (Points : 1)
a. enterprise resource production.
b. enterprise resource purchasing.
c. enterprise resource planning.
d. enterprise resource processing.
2. ERP systems are (Points : 1)
a. packaged software.
b. methods of examining processes.
c. ways to downsize.
d. ways to expand geographical operations.
3. ERP systems should help a company (Points : 1)
a. improve quality.
b. improve service.
c. reduce overhead.
d. all of the above.
4. Data mining is used to (Points : 1)
a. uncover quality problems.
b. study customer retention.
c. identify cost drivers.
d. all of the above.
5. Data mining (Points : 1)
a. is packaged software.
b. is a method of examining processes.
c. uses statistical techniques to solve problems.
d. is a way to downsize.
6. A strategic alliance is a (Points : 1)
a. packaged software.
b. way for two companies to jointly contribute to the supply chain.
c. way to downsize.
d. method of examining processes.
7. Strategic alliances take the form of (Points : 1)
a. joint ventures.
b. technology swaps.
c. licensing.
d. all of the above.
8. ____ allows a company to accomplish a technology swap. (Points : 1)
a. Data mining
b. Strategic alliance
c. Diversity
d. BPR
9. ____ is a philosophy of increasing a firm's performance by involving all workers. (Points : 1)
a. Open-book management
b. Data mining
c. Diversity
d. Strategic alliance
10. Disclosing detailed financial information to all employees is a characteristic of (Points : 1)
a. open-book management.
b. data mining.
c. diversity.
d. strategic alliance.
11. ____ is a way of teaching accounting concepts to financially unsophisticated employees. (Points : 1)
a. Data mining
b. Open-book management
c. Game playing
d. BPR
12. To make game playing successful, the employees must be able to (Points : 1)
a. mine data.
b. form strategic alliances.
c. win.
d. use ERP.
13. For game playing to work, motivation must come from (Points : 1)
a. individual employees.
b. lower management.
c. the board of directors.
d. upper management.
14. ____ is a characteristic of a company that is best suited for open-book management. (Points : 1)
a. Large size
b. Decentralized management
c. Centralized management
d. Service-oriented
15. EMS stands for (Points : 1)
a. environmental manufacturing system.
b. employee management system.
c. emergency medical services.
d. environmental management system.

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