Solving Non-homogenous Inequalities

Using Bernoulli’s Inequality

Sang Truong

July 4th, 2010

1 Theory

Bernoulli’s inequality theorem states

Theorem 1. For all real number x > −1 and real number r > 1, the following inequality holds

(1 + x)r ≥ 1 + rx. (1)

The equality holds if and only if x = 0.

The inequality sign changes when 0 < r < 1, that is

(1 + x)r ≤ 1 + rx.

If we let x + 1 → x, the inequality can be restated as

Theorem 2. For all x > 0 and r > 1,

xr ≥ rx + 1 − r. (2)

The equality holds if and only if x = 1.

Inequality (2) is used more often than its original form (1).
a
Let r = with a > b > 0 and x → xb , we have
b
Theorem 3. Let a, b ∈ R+ and a > b. Then for all x > 0,
a a
xa ≥ xb + 1 − . (3)
b b
This inequality looks more appealing than the other two because it allows us to compare x with
the difference between the two powers. One of the strengths of this inequality is that it can be
applied for inequalities with irrational powers and non-homogeneous inequalities.

2 Techniques to solve homogeneous inequalities

2.1 Difference-in-power technique

Problems can be solved by Bernoulli’s inequality is easy to detect because they usually have ir-
rational powers or the abrupt change in powers. To illustrate the difference-in-power technique,
let’s start with the following inequality.

1
Problem 1. Let x1 , x2 , . . . , xk be positive numbers. Prove that for all m > n > 0,
 m1  n1
xm m m
xn1 + xn2 + · · · + xnk
 
1 + x2 + · · · + xk
≥ .
n n

SOLUTION. The idea of using Bernoulli’s inequality is to show the difference between the smaller
and bigger powers. Since the inequality is homogeneous, we can assume xn1 + xn2 + · · · + xnk = n.
The inequality is equivalent to

xm m m
1 + x2 + · · · + xk ≥ n

Now we have the valuation between the two powers m, n

m m n
xm n
i = [1 + (xi − 1)]
n ≥ 1 + (x − 1), ∀i = 1, k.
n i
Add these inequalities side-by-side,
m n
xm m m
1 + x2 + · · · + xk ≥ n + (x1 + xn2 + · · · + xnk − n).
n
Since xn1 + xn2 + · · · + xnk = n, we can conclude xm m m
1 + x2 + · · · + xk ≥ n.

The equality holds if and only if x1 = x2 = · · · = xk . r

Problem 2. Prove that for all positive numbers a, b, c, the following inequality holds
 √3 √3 
 √3
a b c 3
+ + ≥ √ .
b+c c+a a+b 2 3
√
SOLUTION. We need to valuate the powers 3 and 1 by using Bernoulli’s inequality. Note that
we need some proper constant to make the equality hold at correct points.
√3
√ √
  
2a 2a
≥ 3 +1− 3,
b+c b+c
√3
√ √
  
2b 2b
≥ 3 +1− 3,
c+a c+a
√3
√ √
  
2c 2c
≥ 3 +1− 3.
a+b a+b
Add up these three inequalities and using Nesbitt’s inequality, the inequality is proved.

The equality holds if and only if a = b = c. r

2.2 Observing equality cases

In many problems, the equality does not hold when all the variables are the same. In order to
use Bernoulli’s inequality for these problems, we need to use additional parameters. Note that
in Theorem 2, the equality holds when the variable equals to 1.

2
Problem 3. Let a, b, c, k, r be positive constants, r > 1 and x, y, z be positive variables such
that ax + by + cz = k. Find the minimum of

P = xr + y r + z r .

SOLUTION. Suppose the equality holds when x = x0 , y = y0 , z = z0 . We use Bernoulli’s inequality

as follows  r  
x x
≥r + 1 − r,
x0 x0
Multiply both sides by xr0 , we get

xr ≥ rxxr−1
0 + (1 − r)xr−1
0 .

Construct similar inequalities for y, z and add them up,

P ≥ r(xxr−1
0 + yy0r−1 + zz0r−1 ) + (1 − r)(xr0 + y0r + z0r ).

We need to choose x0 , y0 , z0 > 0 such that

 r−1
 x0 y r−1 z r−1
= 0 = 0
a b c .
 ax + by + cz = k
0 0 0

Solving this system of equation, we obtain

 1
 ka r−1
x0 = r


 r r


 a r−1 + b r−1 + c r−1
1
kb r−1

y0 = r r r
.


 a r−1 + b r−1 + c r−1
1
kc

 r−1
 z0 = r

 r r
a r−1 + b r−1 + c r−1
The minimum value of P is xr0 + y0r + z0r . r

2.3 Bernoulli’s inequality in studying the monotony of a function

Bernoulli’s inequality can be used to study the monotony of functions that have exponential
form.

Problem 4. For all real numbers a, b, c > 0, the following function increases on (0, +∞)
 2 x  2 x  2 x
a b c
f (x) = + + .
bc ca ab
SOLUTION. Let x1 > x2 > 0, we need to prove

f (x1 ) ≥ f (x2 ).

Using Bernoulli’s inequality (Theorem 3)

 2  x1  x
a x 1 a2 2 x1
≥ +1− ,
bc x2 bc x2

3
  x1 x2
b2 b2
 
x1 x1
≥ +1− ,
ca x2 ca x2
 x1  x2
c2 c2
 
x1 x1
≥ +1− .
ab x2 ab x2
Add these three inequalities side-by-side,
 
x1 x1
f (x1 ) ≥ f (x2 ) + 3 1 − .
x2 x2

Hence, we only need to prove that

 
x1 x1
f (x2 ) + 3 1 − ≥ f (x2 ).
x2 x2

The preceding inequality is equivalent to f (x2 ) ≥ 3, which is true thanks to AM − GM

inequality s     
x x x
3 a2 2 b 2 2 c 2 2
f (x2 ) ≥ 3 = 3.
bc ca ab

3 Techniques to solve non-homogeneous inequalities

Before going to more advanced methods to solve non-homogeneous inequalities, let’s go over
the difference-in-power method to solve some simpler problems.

Problem 5. Let a, b > 0 satisfying a + b = 1. Find all solutions in the interval (0, 1) of

x(1 + b)
xa > .
1 + bx
SOLUTION. The above inequality actually holds for all x ∈ (0, 1). Let’s prove it by using
Bernoulli’s inequality

xb = [1 − (1 − x)]b ≤ 1 − b(1 − x) = 1 − b + bx.

Therefore,
(1 + b)xb ≤ (1 + b)(1 − b + bx) < 1 + bx.
But b = 1 − a, whence (1 + b)x1−a < 1 + bx, or

(1 + b)x
xa >
1 + bx
Hence the inequality holds for all x ∈ (0, 1). r

Problem 6. Solve the equation

p
3x4 − 4x3 = 1 − (1 + x2 )3 .

SOLUTION. We will prove that

p
3x4 − 4x3 + (1 + x2 )3 ≥ 1, ∀x ∈ R.

4
Using Bernoulli’s inequality
p 3 3
(1 + x2 )3 = (1 + x2 ) 2 ≥ 1 + x2 .
2
Therefore,
p 3 1
3x4 − 4x3 + (1 + x2 )3 ≥ 3x4 − 4x3 + x2 + 1 = x2 (6x2 − 8x + 3) + 1 ≥ 1
2 2
Equality holds if and only if x = 0.

Hence the equation has the only solution, x = 0. r

Problem 7. Prove that for all natural numbers n ≥ 2,

r r r
2 3 3 n+1 n + 1 n(n + 2)
+ + ··· + ≤ .
1 2 n n+1
SOLUTION. To eliminate the (k + 1)th root, we use Bernoulli’s inequality as following
 k+1
k+1 1 1
= 1 + (k + 1) · ≤ 1+ , ∀k ≥ 1.
k k(k + 1) k(k + 1)
Take (k + 1)th root from both sides,
r
k+1 k + 1 1 1 1
≤1+ =1+ − , ∀k ≥ 1.
k k(k + 1) k k+1
Let k run from 1 to n and add these inequalities up,
r r r      
2 3 3 n+1 n + 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
+ + ··· + ≤ 1+ − + 1+ − + ··· + 1 + −
1 2 n 1 2 2 3 n n+1
1 n(n + 2)
= n+1− = .
n+1 n+1
The inequality is proved. r

COMMENT. If we let f (n) denote the left-hand-side of the inequality, then f (x) > n (because each
n(n + 2) n
term in f is greater than 1). According to the above inequality, f (n) ≤ = n+ ,
n+1 n+1
therefore
n
n < f (n) ≤ n + .
n+1
This inequality shows that bf (n)c = n, for all n ≥ 2.

Problem 8. Let ai , bi (i = 1, 2, . . . , n) be positive real numbers. Then for all k > 1,

bk1 bk2 bkn (b1 + b2 + · · · + bn )k
+ + · · · ≥ .
ak−1
1 ak−1
2 ank−1 (a1 + a2 + · · · + an )k−1
SOLUTION. Sincethe inequality is homogenous with respect to both (ai ) and (bi ), it is reasonable
to assume that a1 + a2 + · · · + an = b1 + b2 + · · · + bn = n. The inequality is equivalent to
bk1 bk2 bkn
+ + · · · ≥ n.
ak−1
1 ak−1
2 ak−1
n

5
We can use Bernoulli’s inequality
 k  
bi bi
≥k + 1 − k, ∀i = 1, n.
ai ai
Therefore,
 k
bki
 
bi bi
= ai ≥ ai k + 1 − k = kbi + (1 − k)ai , ∀i = 1, n.
ak−1
i
ai ai
Let i = 1, 2, . . . , n and add them up,
bk1 bk2 bkn
+ + · · · + ≥ k(b1 + b2 + · · · + bn ) + (1 − k)(a1 + a2 + · · · + an )
ak−1
1 ak−1
2 ak−1
n

= kn + (1 − k)n = n.
The inequality is proved. r

Problem 9. Let a, b, c > 0 such that abc = 1. Prove that

1 1 1 3
+ + ≤ .
aa (b + c) bb (c + a) cc (a + b) 2
SOLUTION. This is a beautiful inequality.
The real exponentials a, b, c suggest the use of Bernoulli’s
inequality. However, there is no clear comparison between the powers a, b, c and 1, so we will
assume that c = min{a, b, c} without loss of generality. From abc = 1, we can conclude c ≤ 1.
Use Bernoulli’s inequality,
1 1
c
≤ · c + 1 − c = 2 − c.
c c
a b
It is easy to see that a ≥ a, b ≥ b by Bernoulli’s inequality. Therefore, we only need to prove
1 1 2−c 3
+ + ≤ .
a(b + c) b(c + a) a + b 2
 
1 1 2 1 1
Since abc = 1, we have + = 2c − c + . But
a(b + c) b(c + a) a+c b+c
√ √ √
1 1 2 ( a − b)2 ( ab − c)
+ −√ = √ ≥ 0.
a+c b+c ab + c (a + c)(b + c)( ab + c)
1 1 2c2
Whence to + ≤ 2c − √ . Since 2 − c > 0, use AM-GM inequality
a(b + c) b(c + a) ab + c
2−c 2−c
≤ √ .
a+b 2 ab
Combine all the valuations, we need to prove that
2c2 2−c 3
2c − √ + √ ≤ .
ab + c 2 ab 2
√ √ 1 1
Let t = c ≤ 1 and ab = √ = , the above inequality becomes
c t
2t4 1 3
2t2 − 1 2
+ t(2 − t2 ) ≤ .
t
+t 2 2

6
The preceding inequality is equivalent to

(t4 + 2t3 + t2 + 4t + 3)(t − 1)2 ≥ 0,

which is true for all t > 0. The original inequality is proved.

Equality occurs if and only if a = b = c = 1. r

Problem 10. Let a, b, c > 0. Prove that

(a + b)c (b + c)a (c + a)b ≤ 2a+b+c aa bb cc .

SOLUTION. Herewe do not know whether a, b, c is greater or smaller than 1. Therefore we need
to borrow another power to make it comparable to 1
 a
 a+b+c
b+c b+c a a 3(b + c)
≤ · +1− = .
2a 2a a + b + c a+b+c 2(a + b + c)

Construct the other two similar inequalities and multiply them side-by-side,
 a
 a+b+c  b
 a+b+c  c
 a+b+c
b+c c+a a+b 27(a + b)(b + c)(c + a)
≤ ≤ 1.
2a 2b 2c 8(a + b + c)3

Simplifying this inequality leads to

(a + b)c (b + c)a (c + a)b ≤ 2a+b+c aa bb cc .

The inequality is proved. Equality occurs if and only if a = b = c. r

COMMENT. Using Bernoulli’s inequality, we can also prove a stronger inequality

a+b+c

c a 2 b
(a + b) (b + c) (c + a) ≤ (a + b + c) ≤ 2a+b+c aa bb cc .
3

Following is an interesting inequality.

Problem 11. Prove that for all a ≥ b > 0,

 b  a
a 1 b 1
3 + a ≤ 3 + b .
3 3

SOLUTION. Why is this inequality interesting? Let’s find out by solving it in a natural way. The
above inequality is equivalent to

(32a + 1)b ≤ (32b + 1)a .

Let’s use Bernoulli’s inequality

b b 2a
(32a + 1) a ≤ 1 + ·3 .
a

7
Therefore, we only need to prove
b 2a
1+ · 3 ≤ 32b + 1,
a
which is equivalent to
b
≤ 9b−a .
a
With some sample test values for a and b, the above inequality does not hold. Does it mean
that this approach leads to nowhere? Not really. If we look at the last inequality carefully,
both left-hand-side and right-hand-side are less than or equal to 1. If only we can make the
right-hand-side greater or equal to 1, the proof will be done. Surprisingly, we can make this
1
happen by just noticing the “equality” between 3 and in the original inequality. With this
3
b a−b
“equality,” the last inequality can be changed to ≤ 9 , which is obviously true. r
a

To make this idea clearer, let’s solve the more general problem.

Problem 12. Let a ≥ b > 0 and k be an arbitrary postive constant. Prove that
 b  a
a 1 b 1
k + a ≤ k + b .
k k

SOLUTION. Conduct similar steps as Problem 12, we need to prove the following inequality
b
≤ k 2(b−a) .
a
This inequality obviously holds when 0 < k ≤ 1. The reason why we can make 0 < k ≤ 1 is
1
because the “equality” between k and in the original inequality. The problem is solved. r
k

Problem 13 (IMO Shortlist 2004). Let a, b, c > 0 satisfying ab + bc + ca = 1. Prove that

r r r
3 1 3 1 3 1 1
+ 6b + + 6c + + 6a ≤ .
a b c abc
SOLUTION. Using Bernoulli’s inequality,
 13
1

+ 6b 1

1

2
a
 √  ≤ √ + 6b + ,

3 3 9 3 a 3

 31
1

+ 6c 1

1

2
b
 √  ≤ √ + 6c + ,

3 3 9 3 b 3

 13
1

+ 6a 1

1

2
c
 √  ≤ √ + 6a + .

3 3 9 3 c 3

8
Add them up, we get
r r r !  
1 3 1 3 1 3 1 1 1 1 1 2
√ + 6b + + 6c + + 6a ≤ √ + + + √ (a + b + c) + 2
3 a b c 9 3 a b c 3 3
1 2
= √ + √ (a + b + c) + 2.
9 3abc 3 3
On the other hands, using basic inequalities
√3
ab + bc + ca ≥ 3 a2 b2 c2 , (ab + bc + ca)2 ≥ 3abc(a + b + c),

Therefore,
1 1
1≤ √ , a+b+c≤ .
3 3abc 3abc
Combine all above inequalities yield
√
r r r  
3 1 3 1 3 1 1 2 1 1 1
+ 6b + + 6c + + 6a ≤ 3 √ + √ · +2· √ = .
a b c 9 3abc 3 3 3abc 3 3abc abc
1
Hence we are done. Equality holds if and only if a = b = c = √ . r
3

Problem 14 (Japan 2005). Let a, b, c > 0 such that a + b + c = 1. Prove that

√3
√ √
3
a 1 + b − c + b 3 1 + c − a + c 1 + a − b ≤ 1.

SOLUTION. It is clear that 1 + b − c > 0 so we can use Bernoulli’s inequality

1 1 2 1
(1 + b − c) 3 ≤ (1 + b − c) + = (b − c) + 1,
3 3 3
Whence
√3 1
a 1 + b − c ≤ (ab − ca) + a.
3
Construct the other two inequalities similarly and add them up, the problem is solved. Equality
1
holds if and only if a = b = c = . r
3

4 “Inverted-Bernoulli” method

As we have already seen, Bernoulli’s inequality allows us to valuate terms involving in smaller
and bigger powers and bigger power term always go with the ≥ sign. This is not a case in
many strong inequalities. We need a technique to deal with these problems, namely “Inverted-
Bernoulli” method. Instead of using Bernoulli’s inequality for the given term, we will apply
the inequality for the inverse of that term. To illustrate this technique, let’s try to solve some
problems. r

Problem 15. Prove that for all a, b ∈ (0, 1),

ab + ba > 1.

9
SOLUTION. This is an old famous problem. Since both powers a, b are less than 1, direct
Bernoulli’s inequality method cannot solve the problem. However, it works perfectly with
“Inverted-Bernoulli” method,
1 1 a a
ab =   b ≥  = >
1 1 a + b − ab a+b
1+b −1
a a
b a b
Similarly, ba > . Therefore ab + ba > + = 1. r
a+b a+b a+b

Problem 16 (MOP 2002). Prove that for all a, b, c > 0

 2   23   32
2a 3 2b 2c
+ + ≥ 3.
b+c c+a a+b
SOLUTION. We can see this inequality is stronger than Nesbitt’s inequality. We will use “Inverted-
Bernoulli” to change to power to 1 as following
 2  
b+c 3 2 b+c 1 a+b+c
≤ + = .
2a 3 2a 3 3a
Therefore,
 2
2a 3 3a
≥ .
b+c a+b+c
Construct similar inequalities and add them up,
 2   23   32
2a 3 2b 2c 3a + 3b + 3c
+ + ≥ = 3.
b+c c+a a+b a+b+c
Equality hods if and only if a = b = c. r

Following is a similar problem.

Problem 17. Let a, b, c ≥ 0 such that ab + bc + ca > 0. Prove that for all n ≥ 2,
r r r
a n b c
n
+ + n ≥ 2.
b+c c+a a+b
SOLUTION. The power n1 on the left-hand-side is too small and it approaches to 0 when n → +∞.
We need to combine “Inverted-Bernoulli” and difference-in-power methods to achieve our goal.
If one of a, b, c is equal to 0, W.L.O.G. suppose a = 0 then the inequality is equivalent to
r r
n b c
+ n ≥ 2,
c a
which is true by AM-GM.
If a, b, c > 0, using “Inverted-Bernoulli” method,
r
a 1 1
= 1 ≥ .
n

b+c   2
b+c n 1 b+c n 1
+
a 2 a 2

10
 2 2 2
In addition, it can be proved that (b + c) n ≤ b n + c n . Therefore,
r 2
a 1 2a n
n
≥ 2 2 = 2 2 2 .
b+c 1 bn + cn 1 an + bn + cn
+
2 a n2 2
Construct two similar inequalities and add them up, the problem is solved.
Equality holds if and only if one of a, b, c is 0, and the other two are equal. r

Problem 18. Let a, b, c be the lengths of three sides of a triangle. Prove that
  23   23   32
5a 5b 5c
+ + ≥ 3.
3b + 3c − a 3c + 3a − b 3a + 3b − c

SOLUTION. Using Bernoulli’s inequality

  23
3b + 3c − a 2 3b + 3c − a 2 a + 2b + 2c
≤ · +1− = .
5a 3 5a 3 5a

Therefore,
  23
5a 5a
≥ .
3b + 3c − a a + 2b + 2c
Construct the other two inequalities and add them up, we need to prove
a b c 3
+ + ≥ .
a + 2b + 2c b + 2c + 2a c + 2a + 2b 5
This inequality is true by Cauchy-Schwarz’s inequality

a b c (a + b + c)2
+ + ≥
a + 2b + 2c b + 2c + 2a c + 2a + 2b a(a + 2b + 2c) + b(b + 2c + 2a) + c(c + 2a + 2b)
(a + b + c)2
=
(a + b + c)2 + 2(ab + bc + ca)
(a + b + c)2 3
≥ = .
2 5
(a + b + c)2 + (a + b + c)2
3
Equality holds if and only if a = b = c. r

Problem 19. Let n be a natural number greater than 1 and a1 , a2 , . . . , an be positive numbers.
Prove that
v
u a1 a2 an
u + + ··· +
n
t a2 a3 a1 (a1 + a2 + · · · + an )2
≥ .
n a1 a2 + a2 a3 + · · · + an a1 + (n − 1)(a21 + a22 + · · · + a2n )

SOLUTION. We will prove a stronger inequality

n(a1 + a2 + · · · + an )2
r r r
a1 a2 an
n
+ n
+ ··· + n ≥ .
a2 a3 a1 a1 a2 + a2 a3 + · · · + an a1 + (n − 1)(a21 + a22 + · · · + a2n )

11
Using “Inverted-Bernoulli” method,
na21
r
a1 1 1 na1
n
=  1 ≥ = = .
a2 a2 n a2 1 a2 + (n − 1)a1 a1 a2 + (n − 1)a21
+1−
a1 na1 n

Construct similar inequalities, add them up and use Cauchy-Schwarz’s inequality, the problem
is solved. r

1 1
Problem 20. Let 0 < a ≤ b ≤ 4 and + ≥ 1. Prove that
a b
ab ≤ b a .

SOLUTION. Using Bernoulli’s inequality

  ab
1 b 1 b a2 + b − ab
≥ · +1− = .
a a a a a2
 2   2 
2 a a b
But a + b − ab = b +1−a ≥b + 1 − a = (a − 2)2 ≥ 0, yield to
b 4 4

b a2
aa ≤ .
a2 + b − ab
Therefore, we only need to prove that
a2
≤ b.
a2 + b − ab
This inequality is equivalent to (b + a − ab)(a − b) ≤ 0, or
 
1 1
+ − 1 (a − b) ≤ 0,
a b
which is true due to the hypotheses. Equality holds if and only if a = b. r

COMMENT. The inequality still holds if 0 < a ≤ 1 ≤ b.

Problem 21. Let x, y > 0 such that x + y = 1. Prove that

x y √
√ +√ ≥ 2.
1−x 1−y
SOLUTION. Using Bernoulli’s inequality,
1 1 1
≥ = .
1 1
p
2(1 − x) (1 − x) + y+
2 2
Therefore, √ √ 2
x 2x 2x
√ ≥ = .
1−x 1 1
y+ xy + x
2 2
12
Similarly, we also get √ √ 2
y 2y 2y
√ ≥ = .
1−y 1 1
x+ xy + y
2 2
Using these two inequalities and Cauchy-Schwarz’s inequality,
 
x y √  x2 y2  √ (x + y)2
√ +√ ≥ 2 + ≥ 2·
1−x 1−y 1 1  1
xy + x xy + y 2xy + (x + y)
√ 2 √ 2 2
2 2 2 2 √
= ≥ = 2.
4xy + 1 (x + y)2 + 1
1
Equality holds if and only if x = y = . r
2

Problem 22. Let a, b, c > 0 such that ab + bc + ca = 3. Prove that for all n ≥ 1,
r r r p
n b + c n c + a n a + b 6n 3 9(a2 + b2 + c2 )
+ + ≥ .
a b c 3(n + 1) + (n − 1)(a2 + b2 + c2 )

SOLUTION. Using “Inverted-Bernoulli” method,

r
n b + a 1 1 n(b + c)
= 1 ≥ =
2a 2a n
 2a 1 2a + (n − 1)(b + c)
+1−
b+c n(b + c) n
n(b + c)2
= .
2a(b + c) + (n − 1)(b + c)2

Construct similar inequalities and use Cauchy-Schwarz’s inequality,

r r r
n b + c n c + a n a + b 4n(a + b + c)2
+ + ≥
a b c 2(n − 1)(a2 + b2 + c2 ) + 2(n + 1)(ab + bc + ca)
2n(a + b + c)2
= .
(n − 1)(a2 + b2 + c2 ) + 3(n + 1)

The problem is solved if

p
(a + b + c)2 ≥ 3 3 9(a2 + b2 + c2 ).
This inequality is true thanks to AM-GM,

(a + b + c)2 = (a2 + b2 + c2 ) + (ab + bc + ca) + (ab + bc + ca)

p p
≥ 3 3 (a2 + b2 + c2 )(ab + bc + ca)2 = 3 3 9(a2 + b2 + c2 ).

Equality holds if and only if a = b = c = 1. r

Problem 23. Let x, y > 0 and x + y = 1. Find mininum value of

P = xx + y y

13
SOLUTION. Using “Inverted-Bernoulli” method,
1 1 1
(2x)x =  x ≥ = ,
1 1 3
·x+1−x −x
2x 2x 2

1 1 1
(2y)y =  y ≥ = ,
1 1 3
·y+1−y −y
2y 2y 2
If we add these inequalities, we still have 2x and 2y on the left-hand-side. Therefore, we will
multiply them
1 4
2xx y y ≥    ≥  2 = 1.
3 3
 
3 3
−x −y −x + −y
2 2 2 2

Hence, we get
√ √ p √
P = xx + y y ≥ 2 xx y y = 2 · 2xx y y ≥ 2.
1
Equality holds if and only if x = y = . r
2

Problem 24. Let n ≥ 1 and a, b, c > 0 such that

s s s
6 6 6
6
+ 6 + 6 ≥ 3.
a + 3(n − 1) b + 3(n − 1) c + 3(n − 1)

Prove that r r r
3 n n 3 n 3 3n
+ + ≥ .
a b c 2
SOLUTION. Using “Inverted-Bernoulli” method,
r
n 3 1 1 3n
=  1 ≥ = .
a a n a 1 a + 3(n − 1)
+1−
3 3n n
Construct two similar inequalities, we get
r r r  
n 3 n 3 n 3 1 1 1
+ + ≥ 3n + + .
a b c a + 3(n − 1) b + 3(n − 1) c + 3(n − 1)

Now we have to use difference-in-power method

s
6 1 5
6
≤ + ,
a + 3(n − 1) a + 3(n − 1) 6
s
6 1 5
6
≤ + ,
b + 3(n − 1) b + 3(n − 1) 6
s
6 1 5
6
≤ + .
c + 3(n − 1) c + 3(n − 1) 6

14
Add these three inequalities and use the hypothesis,
1 1 1 1
+ + ≥ .
a + 3(n − 1) b + 3(n − 1) c + 3(n − 1) 2

Hence the problem is proved.

Equality holds if and only if a = b = c = 3 and n = 2. r

Problem 25. Prove that for all x, y, z ∈ (0, 1),

3
x2y + y 2z + z 2x > .
4
SOLUTION. Using “Inverted-Bernoulli” method,
1 1 x x
xy =  y ≥ y = > .
1 +1−y x + y − xy x+y
x x

Therefore,  2
2y x
x ≥ .
x+y
Construct similar inequalities, we get
 2  2  2
2y 2z 2x x y z
x +y +z > + + .
x+y y+z z+x

So we only need to prove that

 2  2  2
x y z 3
+ + ≥ .
x+y y+z z+x 4
y z x
To prove this inequality, let a = ,b = ,c = then abc = 1. The above inequality is
x y z
equivalent to
1 1 1 3
2
+ 2
+ 2
≥ .
(1 + a) (1 + b) (1 + c) 4
Use Cauchy-Schwarz’s inequality,
1 1 1 1
2
+ 2
≥ a  + 
(1 + a) (1 + b) 1+ (1 + ab) b
b 1+ (1 + ab)
a
b a 1 c
= + = = .
(a + b)(1 + ab) (a + b)(1 + ab) 1 + ab c+1

Whence,

1 1 1 c 1 c2 + c + 1 3 (c − 1)2 3
2
+ 2
+ 2
≥ + 2
= 2
= + 2
≥ .
(1 + a) (1 + b) (1 + c) c + 1 (c + 1) (c + 1) 4 4(c + 1) 4

The problem is proved. r

15
COMMENT. We have a more general problem: for all x1 , x2 , . . . , xn ∈ (0, 1),
 n
x2x
1
2
+ x 2x3
2 + · · · + x 2x1
n > min 1, .
4
The steps are the same as above. We only need to prove this inequality
1 1 1  n
+ + · · · + ≥ min 1, .
(1 + a1 )2 (1 + a2 )2 (1 + an )2 4

Problem 26. Prove that for all a, b, c > 0,

r
2a2 + bc 2b2 + ca 2c2 + ab (a2 + b2 + c2 )(a + b + c)
+ + ≤ .
a2 + 2bc b2 + 2ca c2 + 2ab abc
SOLUTION. This problem is more complicated. However, “Inverted-Bernoulli” method still works
fine.  12
2a2 + bc 2a2 + bc

1 1
=  21 ≥ =
3bc 3bc 3 bc 1 a2 + 2bc
+
2a2 + bc 2 2a2 + bc 2
Construct similar inequalities, we get
 12  12  12
2a2 + bc 2b2 + ca 2c2 + ab 2a2 + bc 2b2 + ca 2c2 + ab
  
+ + ≤ + + .
a2 + 2bc b2 + 2ca c2 + 2ab 3bc 3ca 3ab
On the other hand, by Cauchy-Schwarz’s inequality
1
X  2a2 + bc  2 hX i 12 X 1  21  X X  12 X 1  2
1

≤ (2a2 + bc) = 2 a2 + bc
3bc 3bc 3bc
1 1
 X  21 X 1 2
  
(a2 + b2 + c2 )(a + b + c) 2

≤ 3 a2 = .
3bc abc
Combine the two above inequalities, the problem is proved. Equality holds if and only if
a = b = c. r

COMMENT. We can prove that

2a2 + bc 2b2 + ca 2c2 + ab

+ + ≥3
a2 + 2bc b2 + 2ca c2 + 2ab
The above inequality is proved by AM-GM,
X 2a2 + bc X  2a2 + bc 1  3 3X a2 3
= − + = +
a2 + 2bc a2 + 2bc 2 2 2 a2 + 2bc 2
3X a2 3
≥ 2 2 2
+ = 3.
2 a + (b + c ) 2
Therefore, the original inequality is a stronger version of

(a2 + b2 + c2 )(a + b + c)
≥ 9.
abc

16
Problem 27. Prove that for all a, b, c > 0,
 32  23  32
4a2 + (b − c)2 4b2 + (c − a)2 4c2 + (a − b)2
  
+ 2 + 2 ≥ 3.
a2 + b2 + c2 + bc a + b2 + c2 + ca a + b2 + c2 + ab

SOLUTION. Using “Inverted-Bernoulli” method,

 32
4a2 + (b − c)2 4a2 + (b − c)2

1
= 2 ≥ .
a2 + b2 + c2 + bc a2 + b2 + c2 + bc 3 b2 + c2 + 2a2
4a2 + (b − c)2

Construct similar inequalities, we get

2
X  4a2 + (b − c)2  3 X 4a2 + (b − c)2
≥ .
a2 + b2 + c2 + bc b2 + c2 + 2a2

Therefore, we only need to prove that

4a2 + (b − c)2 4b2 + (c − a)2 4c2 + (a − b)2

+ 2 + 2 ≥ 3.
b2 + c2 + 2a2 c + a2 + 2b2 a + b2 + 2c2
4a2 + (b − c)2 (b + c)2
Since = 2 − , the above inequality is equivalent to
2a2 + b2 + c2 2a2 + b2 + c2
(b + c)2 (c + a)2 (a + b)2
+ + ≤ 3.
2a2 + b2 + c2 2b2 + c2 + a2 2c2 + a2 + b2
Using Cauchy-Schwarz’ inequality,

(b + c)2 (b + c)2 b2 c2
= ≤ + .
2a2 + b2 + c2 (a2 + b2 ) + (c2 + a2 ) a2 + b 2 c 2 + a2

Hence we get
(b + c)2 b2 c2
X X  
≤ + = 3.
2a2 + b2 + c2 a2 + b 2 c 2 + a2
The inequality is proved. Equality holds if and only if a = b = c. r

17