OML 751 TESTING OF MATERIALS

UNIT I
INTRODUCTION TO MATERIALS TESTING
Overview of materials, Classification of material testing, Purpose of testing, Selection of material, Development
of testing, Testing organizations and its committee, Testing standards, Result Analysis, Advantages of testing.
UNIT II
MECHANICAL TESTING
Introduction to mechanical testing, Hardness test (Vickers, Brinell, Rockwell), Tensile test, Impact test (Izod,
Charpy) - Principles, Techniques, Methods, Advantages and Limitations, Applications. Bend test, Shear test,
Creep and Fatigue test - Principles, Techniques, Methods, Advantages and Limitations, Applications.
UNIT III
NON DESTRUCTIVE TESTING
Visual inspection, Liquid penetrant test, Magnetic particle test, Thermography test – Principles,Techniques,
Advantages and Limitations, Applications. Radiographic test, Eddy current test,Ultrasonic test, Acoustic
emission- Principles, Techniques, Methods, Advantages and Limitations,Applications.
UNIT IV
MATERIAL CHARACTERIZATION TESTING
Macroscopic and Microscopic observations, Optical and Electron microscopy (SEM and TEM) -Principles,
Types, Advantages and Limitations, Applications. Diffraction techniques, Spectroscopic Techniques, Electrical
and Magnetic Techniques- Principles, Types, Advantages and Limitations,Applications.
UNIT V
OTHER TESTING
Thermal Testing: Differential scanning calorimetry, Differential thermal analysis. Thermo-mechanical and
Dynamic mechanical analysis: Principles, Advantages, Applications. Chemical Testing: X-Ray Fluorescence,
Elemental Analysis by Inductively Coupled Plasma-Optical Emission Spectroscopy and Plasma-Mass
Spectrometry.
UNIT I
INTRODUCTION TO MATERIALS
1. Time dependent permanent deformation is called ________________.
(a) Plastic deformation
(b) Elastic deformation
(c) Creep
(d) Anelastic deformation
Answer : C
2. Figure-out the odd point in the following
(a) Proportinal limit
(b) Elastic limit
(c) Yeild point
(d) Fracture point
Answer : D

3. If a material is subjected to two incremental true strains namely

ε1and ε2, then the total true strain is
(a) ε1*ε2
(b) ε1- ε2
(c) ε1+ ε2
(d) ε1 / ε2
Answer : C

4. Engineering stress-strain curve and True stress-strain curve are equal up to

(a) Proportional limit
(b) Elastic limit
(c) Yeild point
(d) Tensile strength point
Answer : C

5. Value of Poisson’s ratio for ionic solids in the range of

(a) 0.1
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.3
(d) 0.4
Answer : B

6. Hydrostatic stress results in the following

(a) Linear strain
(b) Shear strain
(c) Both linear and shear strains
(d) None
Answer : D

7. High elastic modulus in materials arises from

(a) High strength of bonds
(b) Weak bonds
(c) combination of bonds
(d) None
Answer : A

8. Change in elastic modulus for ordinary materials between 0K and melting point is
(a) 10-20% increase
(b) 10-20% decrease
(c) 80-90% decrease
(d) 80-90% increase
Answer : B

9. Bauschinger effect
(a) Hysteresis loss during loading and unloading
(b) Anelastic deformation
(c) Dependence of yield stress on path and direction
(d) None
Answer : C

10. Shape of true stress-strain curve for a material depends on

(a) Strain
(b) Strain rate
(c) Temperature
(d) All
Answer : D

11. Toughness of a material is equal to area under ____________ part of the stress-strain curve.
(a) Elastic
(b) Plastic
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer : C

12. True stress-strain curve need to be corrected after

(a) Elastic limit
(b) Yield limit
(c) Tensile strength
(d) no need to correct
Answer : C

13. Following condition represents onset of necking

(a) εu= n
(b) εu= 1-n
(c) εu= 1+n
(d) εu= ln (1+n)
Answer : A

14. As compared with conventional stress-strain curve, the true stress-strain curve is
(a) Above and right
(b) Below and right
(c) Above and left
(d) Below and left
Answer : C

15. According to distortion-energy criterion, yielding occurs when

(a) Distortion energy reaches a critical value
(b) Second invariant of the stress deviator exceeded some critical value
(c) Octahedral shear stress reaches a critical value
(d) All
Answer : D

16. von Mises and Tresca criteria give different yield stress for
(a) Uni-axial stress
(b) Balanced bi-axial stress
(c) Pure shear stress
(d) All
Answer : C

17. Plastic deformation results from the following

(a) Slip
(b) Twinning
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer : C

18. Time dependent recoverable deformation under load is called ____________

deformation.
(a) Elastic
(b) Anelastic
(c) Elastic after-effect
(d) Visco-elastic
Answer : B

19.Which one of the following metals would work-harden more quickly than the others?

(A) Copper

(B) Brass

(C) Lead

(D) Silver
Answer: B

20. Which of the following impurity in cast iron makes it hard and brittle?

(A) Silicon

(B) Sulphur

(C) Manganese

(D) Phosphorus
Answer: B

21.Tensile strength of steel can be safely increased by

(A) Adding carbon up to 2.8%

(B) Adding carbon up to 6.3%

(C) Adding carbon up to 0.83%

(D) Adding small quantities of copper

Answer: C
22.Which of the following metal is used for nuclear energy?

(A) Uranium

(B) Thorium

(C) Niobium

(D) All of these

Answer: D

23.Cemented carbide tools are not found to be suitable for cutting

(A) Brass

(B) Cast iron

(C) Aluminium

(D) Steel
Answer: D

24.Brass (alloy of copper and zinc) is an example of

(A) Substitutional solid solution

(B) Interstitial solid solution

(C) Intermetallic compounds

(D) All of the above

Answer: A

25.In terms of which of the following properties, metals are better than ceramics?
a) Hardness
b) Ductility
c) Toughness
d) Yield Strength
Answer: B

26.GFRP is an important composite. It stands for

a) Gelatin Fibre Reinforced Polymer
b) Graphite Fibre Reinforced Polymer
c) Germanium Fibre Reinforced Polymer
d) Glass Fibre Reinforced Polymer
Answer: d

27.Which of the following cannot be used as bio-materials?

a) Metals
b) Ceramics
c) Polymers
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d

28.Composite materials are classified based on:

(a) Type of matrix
(b) Size-and-shape of reinforcement
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer: C

29.Major load carrier in dispersion-strengthened composites

(a) Matrix
(b) Fiber
(c) Both
 (d) Can’t define
Answer: A

30.Usually softer constituent of a composite is

(a) Matrix
(b) Reinforcement
(c) Both are of equal strength
(d) Can’t define
Answer: A

31. Usually stronger constituent of a composite is

(a) Matrix
(b) Reinforcement
(c) Both are of equal strength
(d) Can’t define
Answer: B

32. Last constituent to fail in fiber reinforced composites

(a) Matrix
(b) Fiber
(c) Both fails at same time
(d) Can’t define
Answer: A

33. Size range of dispersoids used in dispersion strengthened composites

(a) 0.01-0.1 µm
(b) 0.01-0.1 nm
(c) 0.01-0.1 mm
(d) None
Answer: A

34. Rule-of-mixture provides _________ bounds for mechanical properties of particulate composites.
(a) Lower
(b) Upper
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer:C

35. Al-alloys for engine/automobile parts are reinforced to increase their

(a) Strength
(b) Wear resistance
(c) Elastic modulus
(d) Density
Answer:B

36. Mechanical properties of fiber-reinforced composites depend on

(a) Properties of constituents
(b) Interface strength
(c) Fiber length, orientation, and volume fraction
(d) All the above
Answer:D

37. Longitudinal strength of fiber reinforced composite is mainly influenced by

(a) Fiber strength
(b) Fiber orientation
(c) Fiber volume fraction
(d) Fiber length
Answer:A

37. The following material can be used for filling in sandwich structures
(a) Polymers
(b) Cement
(c) Wood
 (d) All
Answer:D

38. Not an example for laminar composite

(a) Wood
(b) Bimetallic
(c) Coatings/Paints
(d) Claddings
Answer:A
UNIT II
MECHANICAL TESTING

1) What are the metal requirements to have creep resistance property?

a. Low melting point

b. High oxidation resistance
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above
Ans (b)
2) Which of the following statements is/are false?

1. Ball indenter in Rockwell hardness test is made of diamond

2. Brale indenter in Rockwell hardness test is made of diamond
3. Micro hardness test is used to measure hardness of thin brittle materials

a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Only 3
d. All the statements are false
Ans (a)
3) Which among the following is a type of destructive test?

a. Magnetic particle test

b. Cupping test
c. Dye penetrant
d. All of the above
Ans (b)
4) Up to which point in the graph shown below, Hooke's Law is obeyed?

a.Up to point D
b. Up to point A
c. Up to point B
d. Up to point X
Ans (b)
5) At which point elastic limit is observed in stress strain curve shown below

a.Point B
 b. Point D
c. Point A
d. None of the above
Ans (a)
6) Stress strain curve is shown below. Beyond point B, metal undergoes

a.less elastic deformation and more plastic deformation

b. only elastic deformation
c. more elastic deformation and less plastic deformation
d. only plastic deformation
Ans (d)
7) What is meant by resilience in stress strain curve?

a. area in the plastic region

b. area in the elastic region
c. area in elastic and plastic region
d. none of the above
Ans (b)
8) What is the effect of temperature on stiffness of a metal?

a. Temperature has no effect on stiffness of a metal

b. As temperature increases stiffness of metal decreases
c. As temperature increases stiffness of metal increases
d. None of the above
Ans (b)
9) What is meant by malleability?

a. Metals undergo plastic deformation under compressive stresses

b. Metals can be drawn into wires
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above
Ans (a)
10) What is meant by ductility?

a. Metals can be drawn into sheets

b. Metals undergo elastic deformation under tensile loads
c. Metals undergo plastic deformation under tensile loads
d. All of the above
Ans (c)

11) Which of the following statements is/are true?

a. In tensile specimens necking is observed in brittle fractures

b. Cup and cone formation characterizes ductile fractures
c. Stress in brittle fractures increases during cracking
d. All the above
Ans (b)

12) Erichsen cupping test is known as

a. creep test
b. torsion test
c. fatigue test
d. formability test

Ans (d)
13) Match the following group 1 items with group 2 items and select the correct option

1. Durometers ---------------------------------------------- A. Value of modulus of rigidity

2. Brinell Hardness test ---------------------------------- B. To verify formability
3. Torsion test----------------------------------------------- C. Hardness of non-metallic materials like plastics
4. Erichsen cupping test ---------------------------------- D. Hardness of soft and ductile materials

a. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C
b. 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – A, 4 – B
c. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
d. 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – C

Ans (b)

14) What is the effect of L/D ratio on compressive strength?

a. compressive strength increases and then remains constant as L/D ratio increases
b. compressive strength decreases and then increases as L/D ratio increases
c. compressive strength decreases and then remains constant as L/D ratio increases
d. none of the above

Ans (a)

15) What does primary creep in creep curve indicate?

a. Due to down deformation, resistance of metal increases

b. Due to down deformation, resistance of metal decreases
c. It represents high strain rate
d. It represents creep at constant rate

Ans (a)

16)Tensile test can be performed on

a. Impact testing machine

b. Universal testing machine
c. Rockwell tester
d. Brinell tester

(Ans:b)

17.Which machine records the change in length of specimen?

a. Impact testing machine

b. Universal testing machine
c. Rockwell tester
d. Brinell tester

(Ans:b)

18.The ability of the material to resist stress without failure is called

a. Strength
b. Hardness
c. stiffness
d. toughness

(Ans:a)

19.In universal testing machine, for a circular section specimen, the gauge length is taken to be
 a. 3.65 (A)^1/2
b. 4.65 (A)^1/2
c. 5.65 (A)^1/2
d. 6.65 (A)^1/2

Where A=Area of cross section of the test specimen

(Ans:c)

20.In universal testing machine, the tensile specimen of mild steel fails in shear and the shear stress is maximum
at __ degrees planes with respect to the direction of load.

a. 30
b. 45
c. 60
d. 75

(Ans:b)

21.The shape of specimen used in compression test is

i. Cube
ii. Cylinder
iii. Cuboid
iv. Prism

Which of the above is true?

a. Only i
b. i & ii
c. i, ii & iii
d. All of the above

(Ans:b)

22.During compression test of cast iron, the failure occurs i.e. the crack appears along the

a. Diagonal
b. Surface parallel to load applied
c. Surface perpendicular to load applied
d. Any of the above

(Ans:a)

23.The property of a material that resists penetration or indentation by means of abrasion or scratching is known
as

a. Strength
b. Hardness
c. Toughness
d. Brittleness

(Ans:b)

24.During hardness test the indenter is usually a

a. Ball
b. Pyramid
c. Cone
 d. All of the above

(Ans:d)

25.The indenter used in Brinell hardness test is a

a. Ball
b. Cone
c. Cylinder
d. Pyramid

(Ans:b)

26.For hardness test of copper in Brinell hardness tester, the diameter of ball is

a. 1 mm
b. 3 mm
c. 5 mm
d. 7 mm

(Ans:c)

27.In C-scale of Rockwell hardness testing, the shape of indenter used is

a. Diamond cone
b. Steel ball
c. Steel prism
d. Any of the above

(Ans:a)

28.The load applied in C-scale of Rockwell hardness test is

a. 60 kgf
b. 100 kgf
c. 120 kgf
d. 150 kgf

(Ans:d)

29.Pyramid type diamond indenter is used in

a. Brinell hardness testing

b. Rockwell hardness testing
c. Vickers hardness testing
d. All of the above

(Ans:c)

30.The impact test is done to test _____ of a material

a. Strength
b. Ductility
c. Toughness
d. Hardness

(Ans:c)

31.In Izod test, the specimen is kept as

 a. Simply supported beam
b. Cantilever beam
c. Overhanging beam
d. Fixed ended beam

(Ans:b)

32.In Charpy impact test, the specimen is kept as

a. Simply supported beam

b. Cantilever beam
c. Overhanging beam
d. Fixed ended beam

(Ans:a)

33.In charpy test specimen, the angle of v-notch section is

a. 30 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 60 degrees
d. 90 degrees

(Ans:b)

34. Time dependent permanent deformation is called ________________.

(a)Plastic deformation

(b) Elastic deformation

(c)Creep

(d) Anelastic deformation

(Ans:C)

35. Engineering stress-strain curve and True stress-strain curve are equal up to

(a) Proportional limit

(b) Elastic limit

(c) Yeild point

(d) Tensile strength point

(Ans:C)

36. Value of Poisson’s ratio for ionic solids in the range of

(a) 0.1
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.3
(d) 0.4
(Ans:B)

37. Hydrostatic stress results in the following

(a)Linear strain
(b) Shear strain
(c) Both linear and shear strains
(d) None
(Ans:D)

38.Change in elastic modulus for ordinary materials between 0K and melting point is
(a) 10-20% increase
(b) 10-20% decrease
(c) 80-90% decrease
(d) 80-90% increase
(Ans:B)

39. High elastic modulus in materials arises from

(a) High strength of bonds

(b) Weak bonds

(c) combination of bonds

(d) None

(Ans:A)

40.Bauschinger effect
a) Hysteresis loss during loading and unloading
(b) Anelastic deformation
(c) Dependence of yield stress on path and direction
(d) None

(Ans:C)

41. Shape of true stress-strain curve for a material depends on

(a)Strain

(b) Strain rate

(c) Temperature

(d) All
(Ans:D)
42. Toughness of a material is equal to area under ____________ part of the stress-strain
curve.
(a) Elastic
(b) Plastic
(c) Both
(d) None

(Ans:C)

43. According to distortion-energy criterion, yielding occurs when

(a) Distortion energy reaches a critical value
(b) Second invariant of the stress deviator exceeded some critical value
(c) Octahedral shear stress reaches a critical value
(d) All

(Ans:D)
44.von Mises and Tresca criteria give different yield stress for
(a) Uni-axial stress

(b) Balanced bi-axial stress

(c) Pure shear stress

(d) All

(Ans:C)

45.What indenter is used for Brinell test?

a) Hardened steel ball
b) Diamond ball
c) Diamond prism
d) Steel prism
Answer: a

46.What test force is applied for nonferrous materials in Brinell test?

a) 50 kgf
b) 500 kgf
c) 1000 kgf
d) 3000 kgf
Answer: b

47.What is the most important source of error in the Brinell test?

a) Surface roughness
b) Indentation measurement
c) Coarse structure
d) Indenter error
Answer: b

48.What is the ball diameter taken for 1 kgf test load in Brinell test?
a) 1 mm
b) 5 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 50 mm
Answer: a

49.Which hardness test is most widely used in the US?

a) Brinell
b) Vickers
c) Shore
d) Rockwell
Answer: d

50.Rockwell test utilizes ___________ a measure of hardness.

a) Load
b) Depth of indentation
c) Diameter of indentation
d) Time of loading
Answer: b

51.A minor load of _________ is applied to seat the specimen in the Rockwell test.
a) 1 kg
b) 5 kg
c) 10 kg
d) 150 kg
Answer: c

52.What is a limitation of the Rockwell test?

a) Slow speed
b) Personal error
c) Bigger size of indentation
d) Different indenters
Answer: d
53.Vickers indenter has _________ angle between opposite faces of a diamond.
a) 90°
b) 120°
c) 136°
d) 180°
Answer: c

54.Which standards define Vickers hardness test?

a) ASTM E92-72
b) ASTME10
c) ASTME19-74
d) ASTME334-69
Answer: a

55.Up to a Vickers hardness of _________ the VHN agrees with the BHN.
a) 30
b) 100
c) 350
d) 1000
Answer: c

56.Why Brinell and Vickers hardness test results show similarities?

a) Same material indenter
b) Geometrically similar indentations
c) Applied load is same
d) Same size indenter
Answer: b

57.One division of the main scale equals _________ in Vickers test.

a) 0.1 mm
b) 0.01 mm
c) 1.0 mm
d) 0.001 mm
Answer: a

58.In what terms, fatigue life is measured?

a) Time of failures
b) Number of cycles of failure
c) Stress of failure
d) Appearance of fracture
Answer: b

59.Fatigue curves are popularly known as __________ curves.

a) S
b) R
c) N
d) S-N
Answer: d

60.Word “endurance limit” is used for _____________

a) Plastics
b) Ferrous materials
c) Nonferrous materials
d) Alloys
Answer: c

61.Which of the following show a fatigue limit?

a) Titanium
b) Cast iron
c) Magnesium
d) Al-Mg alloys
Answer: b
62.What is the reason for fatigue failure?
a) Movement of Dislocations
b) Submicroscopic cracks
c) Dynamic recovery
d) Vacancy coalescence
Answer: b

UNIT III
NON DESTRUCTIVE TESTING

1.What is the disadvantage of LPI?

a) Expensive
b) Slow
c) Not reliable
d) Depth restriction

Answer: d

2.LPI can’t be used on __________ specimen.

a) Large
b) Simple
c) Complex
d) Internally defected
Answer: d

3.Which order is right for LPI?

a) Penetrant apply, development, inspection, surface preparation
b) Surface preparation, penetrant apply, development, inspection
c) Penetrant apply, development, surface preparation, inspection
d) Development, surface preparation, penetrant apply, inspection
Answer: b

4.What is general dwell time?

a) 20 seconds
b) 2 minutes
c) 20 minutes
d) 2 hours
Answer: c

5. ________ increases the visibility of the flaw in LPI.

a) Developer
b) Penetrant
c) Benzene
d) Spirit
Answer: a

6.Which materials can be tested by MPI?

a) Magnetic
b) Non-magnetic
c) Paramagnetic
d) Ferromagnetic
Answer: d

7.What is Curie point for most of the ferrous magnetic materials?

a) 550˚C
b) 760˚C
c) 910˚C
d) 1133˚C
Answer: b
8.The minimum width of crack, which can be inspected by MPI, is _________
a) 1nm
b) 1µm
c) 10µm
d) 1mm
Answer: b

9.What is the advantage of using DC in MPI?

a) Battery maintenance
b) Demagnetize easy
c) Variable voltage supply
d) Subsurface detection
Answer: d

10.What principle defines eddy current inspection (ECI)?

a) Lenz law
b) Biot-Savart Law
c) Electromagnetic induction principle
d) Faraday’s law
Answer: c

11.ECI is generally restricted to a depth below ___________

a) 1µm
b) 1mm
c) 2mm
d) 6mm
Answer: d

12.What is the reason for the limitation of depth below 6mm in ECI?
a) Surface coating
b) Electron hole pair generation
c) Skin effect
d) Residual stresses
Answer: c

13.The total resistance of the coil of ECI is known as __________

a) Impedance
b) Inductance
c) Reactance
d) Capacitance
Answer: a

14.What is acoustic impedance (in MPa s/m) of aluminum?

a) 1.58
b) 45.72
c) 16.77
d) 41.08
Answer: c

15.Which of the following is the poorest transmitter of sound?

a) Oil
b) Water
c) Air
d) Copper
Answer: c

16.Which of the following is the best transmitter of sound?

a) Oil
b) Aluminum
c) Steel
d) Copper
Answer: c
17.What is a type of piezoelectric crystal?
a) Natural
b) Normal
c) Angle
d) Transverse
Answer: a

18.Radiographic inspection use _________

a) Sound waves
b) AC
c) X-rays
d) Visible light
Answer: c

19.The dark areas represent an object with ________

a) Lower density
b) High density
c) Porosity
d) Grain boundaries
Answer: a

20.The film in radiographic inspection is called __________

a) Plate
b) Radiograph
c) Micrograph
d) X-ray sheet
Answer: b

21.____ produce light area on film.

a) Inclusions
b) Pores
c) Voids
d) Blow holes
Answer: a

22.Radiography don’t give ________

a) Thickness of material
b) Hardness
c) Blow holes in casting
d) Pores in weldment
Answer: b

23.What is the wavelength of X-rays?

a) 10 picometers
b) 0.01 to 10 nanometers
c) 10 to 400 nanometers
d) 400 to 700 nanometers
Answer: b

24. Failure due to excessive deformation is controlled by ______________.

(a) Material properties

(b) Design & Dimensions

(c) Both

(d) None

Answer: c
25. Failure due to excessive deformation is controlled by ______________.
(a) Yield strength
(b) Tensile strength
(c) Young’s modulus
(d) All
Answer: c

26. Time dependent yield is known as

(a) Fracture
(b) Fatigue
(c) Buckling
(d) Creep
Answer: D

27. Cleavage fracture appears

(a) Bright
(b) Dull
(c) Difficult to identify
(d) None
Answer: A

28. Usually materials with following crystal structure fail in ductile mode
(a) FCC
(b) BCC
(c) HCP
(d) None
Answer: A

29. Brittle fracture is more dangerous than ductile fracture because _______________.
(a) No warning sign
(b) Crack propagates at very high speeds
(c) No need for extra stress during crack propagation
(d) All
Answer: D

30. Fracture voids usually form at

(a) Inclusions
(b) Second phase particles
(c) Grain boundary triple points
(d) All
Answer: D

31. Fracture stress (σf) is proportional to

(a) crack length
(b) 1/crack length
(c) (crack length)1/2
(d) (crack length)-1/2
Answer: D

32. Fracture toughness is measured in terms of

(a) Strain energy release rate
(b) Stress concentration factor
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer: c

33. In fracture mode-II, fracture surfaces

(a) shear parallel to edge of crack
(b) shear perpendicular to edge of crack
(c) displace normal to each other
(d) None
Answer: B
34. Fracture toughness, KIC, decreases with
(a) increasing temperature
(b) increasing strain rate
(c) increase in yield strength
(d) increase in grain size
Answer: B

35. DBTT for ceramics is in the range of _________ X Tm.

(a) 0.1-0.2
(b) 0.2-0.3
(c) 0.3-0.5
(d) 0.5-0.7
Answer: A

36. Following impurity decreases DBTT for steels

(a) Mn
(b) P
(c) Si
(d) Mo
Answer: A

37. Fatigue strength for non-ferrous materials in defined at _______ stress cycles.
(a) 103
(b) 105

(c) 107

(d) 109
Answer: c

38. The following equation defines S-N curve

(a) Paris equation
(b) Basquin equation
(c) Andrede equation
(d) Garofalo equation
Answer: B

39. Creep rate in ternary stage __________.

(a) Decreases
(b) Constant
(c) Increases
(d) None
Answer: c

40. Ternary stage creep is associated with ____________.

(a) Strain hardening
(b) Recovery
(c) Necking
(d) None
Answer: c

41. Total strain range in a creep test

(a) <1%
(b) around 10%
(c) around 50%
(d) > >50%
Answer: A

42. Creep mechanism that is operational at stresses 10-2 >σ/G >10-4 _____________.
(a) Dislocation creep
(b) Dislocation glide
(c) Diffusion creep
(d) GB sliding
Answer: A

43. Most often machine components fail by

(a) Buckling
(b) Creep
(c) Fatigue
(d) All
Answer: c

44. If the surface crack causing fracture in a brittle material is made twice as deep, the fracturewill
(a) decrease by a factor of √2
(b) decrease by a factor of 2
(c) decrease by a factor of 22
(d) No change
Answer: A

UNIT IV
MATERIAL CHARACTERIZATION TESTING

1.The body centered cubic (BCC) lattice is found in

(A) Aluminium

(B) Copper

(C) Cadmium

(D) Tungsten

Answer: D

2-The Brinell Hardness Number (BHN) for mild steel lies in the range of:

(A) 50 to 70

(B) 70 to 100

(C) 110 to 150

(D)150 to 300

Answer: C

3-Which of the following test is a destructive test?

(A) Radiography

(B) Compression test

(C) Ultrasonic inspection

(D) None of the above

Answer: B

4-Which hardness method can be used to measure hardness of a single grain?

(A) Rockwell

(B) Knoop

(C) Vickers

(D) Shore

Answer: B

5-Higher is the temperature of tempering:

(A) the softer will be the product

(B) the tougher will be the product

(C) the harder will be the product

(D) the stronger will be the product

Answer: B

6-Mild steel is

(A) High carbon steel

(B) Medium carbon steel

(C) Low carbon steel

(D) None of the above

Answer: C

7-The following constituents of steel is least strong and softest

(A) Ferrite

(B) Pearlite

(C) Austenite

(D) Martensite

Answer: A

8-In which of the following carbon varies from 4 to 4.5%?

(A) Wrought iron

(B) Pig iron

(C) Grey iron

(D) Cast iron

Answer: B

9-Minimum carbon content in Cast iron is

(A) 1%

(B) 2%

(C) 3%

(D) 4%

Answer: B

10-Presence of which of the following makes pig iron hard

(A) Sulphur

(B) Phosphorous

(C) Sodium

(D) Calcium

Answer: A

11-Which the following is added to steel to increase the corrosion resistance?

(A) tungsten and vanadium

(B) zinc and lead

(C) chromium and nickel

(D) Sulphur and phosphorous

Answer: C

12-Following stress relieving process is used after cold working of materials

(A) Tempering

(B) Cyaniding

(C) Annealing

(D) Normalizing

Answer: C

13-Dislocation in materials is ___ defect.

(A) Point

(B) Line
(C) Plane

(D) Casting defect

Answer: B

14-Purpose of tempering is to improve

(A) ductility

(B) malleability

(C) hardness

(D) machinability

Answer: D

15-Tensile strength of steel is increased by addition of

(A) Manganese

(B) Sulphur

(C) Phosphorous

(D) Carbon

Answer: A
16.The word ‘ceramic’ meant for ______________.

(a) soft material

(b) hard material
(c) burnt material
(d) dry material
Answer: C

17. Not a characteristic property of ceramic material

(a) high temperature stability
(b) high mechanical strength
(c) low elongation
(d) low hardness
Answer: D

18. Major ingredients of traditional ceramics

(a) silica
(b) clay
(c) feldspar
(d) all
Answer: D

19.Not a major contributor of engineering ceramics

(a)SiC
(b) SiO2
(c) Si3N4
(d) Al2O3
Answer: B

20. The following ceramic product is mostly used as pigment in paints

(a) TiO2
(b) SiO2
(c) UO2
(d) ZrO2
Answer: D

21. Most commercial glasses consist of

(a)lime
(b) soda
(c) silica
(d) all
Answer: D

22.Hot isostatic pressing is not a viable option if the chief criterion is

(a)strength without grain growth
(b) lost cost
(c) zero porosity
(d) processing refractory ceramics
Answer: B

23.Calculate the average number of grains per square inch at a magnification of 100. Consider grain
number is 40?
a) 5.49*109
b) 5.49*107
c) 5.49*1011
d) 5.49*106
Answer: c

24.For grain size number (ASTM) which of the following is true?

a) Size of grains with grain size no 8 will be more than that of grain size no 5
b) Size of grains with grain size no 6 will be more than that of grain size no 7
c) Size of grains with grain size no 6 will be more than that of grain size no 2
d) Size of grains with grain size no 14 will be more than that of grain size no 15
Answer: b

25.Which of the following is not an important application of microstructure examination?

a) To ensure that the associations between the properties and structure (and defects) are properly understood
b) To predict the properties of materials once these relationships have been established
c) To design alloys with new property combinations
d) To ascertain the mode of chemical fracture
Answer: d

26.Which of the following microscope are not used for microscopy?

a) Optical
b) Ultrasonic
c) Electron
d) Scanning probe
Answer: b

27.Which technique is used to determine the grain size of polycrystalline materials?

a) Photo micrographic technique
b) Positron annihilation technique
c) Measuring resistivity after quenching
d) Thermal imaging
Answer: a

28.Which type of microscopic technique has been developed that generate topographical maps
representing the surface features and characteristics of the specimen?
a) Optical
b) Ultrasonic
c) Electron
d) Scanning probe
Answer: d
29.Which of the following method is commonly used to determine grain size?
a) Precipitation
b) Standard comparison charts
c) Densification
d) Electrical conductivity
Answer: b

30.What is the range of grain size number in case of ASTM?

a) 1 to 10
b) 1 to 100
c) 1 to 1000
d) 1 to 10000
Answer: a

31.What is the full form of ASTM?

a) American society for testing and materials
b) African society for testing and materials
c) American society for torque and momentum forces
d) American society for tensile motion forces
Answer: a

32.Which of the following is not the structural characteristic of a polycrystalline specimen?

a) Shape
b) Average size
c) Reactivity
d) Diameter
Answer: c

33.Diffusion is the result of:

a) Random motion of particles
b) Concentration gradient
c) Kinetic energy of particles
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

34.Concentration gradient refers to:

a) Change of concentration with respect to time
b) Change of concentration with respect to space
c) Change of concentration with respect to temperature
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

35.Interstitial diffusion is generally faster than diffusion by vacancy mode. This is because:
a) Number of interstitial sites is greater than vacancies
b) Vacancy diffusion requires more energy than interstitial diffusion
c) Interstitial species are smaller than substitution species
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

36.As the temperature rises, the rate of vacancy diffusion in metals:

a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) may increase or decrease
Answer: a

37.Osmosis is different from diffusion as:

a) Diffusion requires semi-permeable membrane
b) Osmosis requires a liquid solvent
c) Osmosis is a form of active transport
d) In osmosis, solute moves from lower concentration to higher
Answer: b
38.Rate of solid-state diffusion does not depend on which of the following?
a) Temperature
b) Diffusing species
c) Host solid
d) Gravity
Answer: d

39.Diffusion is not used in which of the following?

a) Doping of semiconductors
b) Manufacturing of alloys
c) Heat treatment of metals
d) Catalysis
Answer: b

40.Carburisation is a heat treatment used for case hardening steels. Carbon is trapped on steel surface
by:
a) Osmosis
b) Interstitial diffusion
c) Vacancy diffusion
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

41.In steady state diffusion, which of the following remain unchanged with time?
a) Concentration at source
b) Concentration at sink
c) Concentration profile
d) All of mentioned
Answer: d

42.For steady-state diffusion, diffusion flux is proportional to the concentration gradient. Concentration
gradient is:
a) Rate of change of concentration with respect to space
b) Rate of change of concentration with respect to time
c) Difference in concentrations at the source and sink
d) Ratio of concentrations at source and sink
Answer: a

43.Concentration of hydrogen gas across a 2mm thick palladium sheet differs by 4 kg/m 3. Considering
steady-state diffusion with diffusion constant 10-10 m2/s, diffusion flux is ______ kg/m2.s:
a) 2 x 1010
b) 2 x 10-10
c) 5 x 10-11
d) 5 x 109
Answer: b

44.The relation between temperature and diffusion coefficient is:

a) Linear
b) Exponential
c) Sinusoidal
d) Diffusion coefficient is not related to temperature
Answer: b

45.Up to which point on the stress-strain curve is Hooke’s law valid?

a) Elastic limit
b) Yield point
c) Proportionality limit
d) Fracture point
Answer: c

46.What is the unit for stress?

a) N/m2
b) Nm2
c) N/m
d) Nm
Answer: a

47.Which of the following relation is stated by Hooke’s law?

a) Stress is directly proportional to strain
b) Stress is inversely proportional to strain
c) Stress is directly proportional to square of strain
d) Stress is inversely proportional to square of strain
Answer: a

48.Stress strain curve for cemented tungsten carbide is:

a) Hyperbola
b) Parabola
c) A curve
d) Straight line
Answer: d

49.Which of the following is found out by calculating the area under the stress strain graph?
a) Toughness
b) Hardness
c) Endurance
d) Strength
Answer: a

50.The scanning electron microscope is used to examine _____________

a) antigens
b) antibodies
c) anticoaggulants
d) cell surfaces
Answer: d

51.At the critical drying point, there is no surface tension between ________________
a) gas and oil
b) gas and liquid
c) liquid and liquid
d) oil and liquid
Answer:B

52.In SEM, the image is formed by the electrons that _________________

a) reflect back
b) ionize
c) undergo inversion
d) pass through
Answer: a

53.The AFM uses a _______________ to scan the surface of a molecule.

a) X-ray film
b) Nanosized tip
c) Non-metal tip
d) Nanodrop
Answer: b

54.The resolving power of TEM is derived from _______________

a) electrons
b) specimens
c) power
d) ocular system
Answer: a
55.The cathode of transmission electron microscope consists of a ____________________
a) tungsten wire
b) bulb
c) iron filament
d) gold wire
Answer: a

56.During TEM, a vacuum is created inside the _________________________

a) room of operation
b) specimen
c) column
d) ocular system
Answer: c

57.Which of the following component of TEM focuses the beam of electrons on the sample?
a) ocular lens
b) condenser lens
c) stage
d) column
Answer: b

58.Image formation in electron microscope is based on ___________________________

a) column length
b) electron number
c) differential scattering
d) specimen size
Answer: c

59.The biological materials have little intrinsic capability to ____________________

a) scatter electrons
b) stain
c) remain viable
d) be captured
Answer: a

60.lutaraldehyde is a ________________
a) metal
b) fixative
c) non-metal
d) atomic species
Answer: b

61.Osmium is a ___________________
a) non metal
b) heavy metal
c) alloy
d) light metal
Answer:B

62. In TEM, the tissue is stained by floating on drops of ______________________

a) hydrocarbons
b) slow-molecular weight stains
c) heavy metal soutions
d) oil immersion
Answer: c

63.Shadow casting is a technique of visualizing ___________________

a) isolated particles
b) mounts
c) shoot tips
d) root tips
Answer: a

64.Which of the following component of the light microscope illuminates the specimen by gathering
diffuse rays from the light microscope?
a) light source
b) eyepiece
c) condenser lens
d) screws
Answer: c

65.Which of the following magnification of the ocular will occupy maximum retinal surface?
a) 1X
b) 5X
c) 20X
d) 50X
Answer: d

66.The resolution attained by a microscope is limited by _____________________

a) diffraction
b) refraction
c) reflection
d) retraction
Answer: a

67. 527 nanometers is the wavelength of ______________ light.

a) red
b) white
c) violet
d) blue
Answer: b

68.The maximum possible numerical aperture of 1.5 is for a ______________ lens.

a) oil immersion
b) air interface
c) water interface
d) binocular
Answer:A

69.Unstained specimens can be visualized using ________________

a) bright-field microscope
b) phase-contrast microscope
c) mass spectroscopy
d) spectrophotometer
Answer: b

70.Rhodamine is a ___________________
a) fluorochrome
b) antibody
c) stain
d) gel type
Answer: a

UNIT V

OTHER TESTING

1.Which of the following is an application of cold working?

a) Extrusion
b) Forging
c) Hot rolling
d) Deep drawing
Answer: d

2.What does the term soaking signify?

a) Heating to a required temperature
b) Holding at a constant temperature
c) Cooling the material
d) Heating for a long time
Answer: b

3.Which material is present above the upper critical temperature line in an iron carbon phase diagram?
a) Martensite
b) Pearlite
c) Ledeburite
d) Austenite
Answer: d

4.Which of the following is not a type of annealing?

a) Spherodizing
b) Tempering
c) Full annealing
d) Stress-relief annealing
Answer: b

6. Differential scanning calorimetry (DSC) can be used to determine which of the following
properties of a semicrystalline polymer sample?
a. The melting temperature
b. The crystallization temperature
c. The degree of crystallinity
d. All of the above
Answer :d

7. For typical polymer samples, the melting temperature will be which of the following relative
to the crystallization temperature?
a. The melting temperature will be less than the crystallization temperature.
b. The melting temperature will be equal to the crystallization temperature.
c. The melting temperature will be greater than the crystallization temperature.
Answer :c

8.Heat capacity has units as

(a) J/kg.K
(b) J/mol.K
(c) J.ohm/sec.K2
(d) W/m.K
Answer :b

9.Units for thermal conductivity

(a) J/kg.K
(b) J/mol.K
(c) J.ohm/sec.K2
d) W/m.K
Answer :d

10.Lorentz constant has units as

(a) J/kg.K
(b) J/mol.K
(c) J.ohm/sec.K2
(d) W/m.K
Answer :c

11.Thermal expansion of a material has units as

(a) J/kg-K
(b) J/mol-K
(c) J.ohm/sec.K2
(d) 1/˚C
Answer :d

12. Polymers have thermal conductivities in the range of

(a) < 1
(b) 1-10
(c) 10-100
(d) >100
Answer :a

13.. Polymers have thermal expansion coefficients in the range of _____x10-6.

(a) 0.5-15
(b) 5-25
(c) 25-50
(d) 50-400
Answer :d

14. Coefficient of thermal expansion for ceramics is the range of _______x10-6.

(a) 0.5-15
(b) 5-25
(c) 25-50
(d) 50-400
Answer :a

15. Metals have thermal conductivities in the range of

(a) < 1
(b) 1-5
(c) 5-25
(d) 20-400
Answer :d

16.. Heat capacity of most materials is approximately equal to ________.

(a) R
(b) 2R
(c) 3R
(d) R/2
Answer :c

17. With increase in temperature, thermal conductivity of a metal _____________.

(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Either
(d) All, depending on metal.
Answer :d

18. Thermal conductivity in polymers increases with ________.

(a) Increase in crystallinity
(b) Decrease in crystallinity
(c) Either
(d) None
Answer :a

19.X-rays are ______________ of wavelength ~ 1 A˚ (10 -10m).

a) Rays from visible region
b) Rays from proton
c) Electromagnetic radiation
d) Electric radiation
Answer: c

20.When electrons loses their energy and convert it into electromagnetic radiation.
a) Black radiation
b) White radiation
c) ϒ-radiation
d) Blue radiation
Answer: b

21.X-rays which in diffraction experiments leads to which of the following radiations?

a) Gamma radiation
b) Monochromatic gamma radiation
c) Monochromatic X-rays
d) X-rays
Answer: c

22.In the X-ray tube which of the following element is used as window materials?
a) Boron
b) Carbon
c) Hydrogen
d) Beryllium
Answer: d

23.The collision between air molecules and diffracted X-ray are the___________
a) Sources of background scattering
b) Sources of front reflection
c) Sources of diffraction
d) Sources of background irradiation
Answer: a

24The fluorescent radiation is absorbed by placing a filter when__________

a) It is weak
b) It is strong
c) It is too much in quantity
d) It holds more energy
Answer: a

25.Fluorescent occurs when the radiation in the primary beam knocks out___________
a) Outer shell electrons
b) Inner shell electrons
c) Outer shell photon
d) Inner shell photon
Answer: b

26.Fluorescent radiation produced by electrons depends on which of the following factors?

a) Concentration of the photon
b) Solubility of the sample
c) Atomic number of the atoms
d) Frequency of the radiation
Answer: c

27.Lighter atoms _________

a) Fluoresce strongly
b) Fluoresce less strongly
c) Doesn’t Fluoresce
d) Fluoresce very very strongly
Answer: b

28.Organic and organic based materials give which type of powder patterns?
a) Very good quality powder pattern
b) Very poor quality powder pattern
c) Doesn’t give powder pattern at all
d) High concentrated powder pattern
Answer: b

29.In an isolated system, ________ can be transferred between the system and its surrounding.

a.only energy
b. only mass
c. both energy and mass
d. neither energy nor mass
Answer :d

30.Which of the following is an extensive property?

a.Volume
b. Pressure
c. Viscosity
d. All of the above
Answer :A

31.How is absolute pressure measured?

a.Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure

b. Gauge pressure – Atmospheric pressure
c. Gauge pressure / Atmospheric pressure
d. None of the above
Answer :A

32.ICP’s principle is similar to which of the following?

a) Flame emission spectroscopy
b) Fourier transforms spectroscopy
c) Atomic emission spectroscopy
d) Absorption spectroscopy
Answer: c

33.ICP is used to analyse samples in which of the following states?

a) Solids
b) Liquids
c) Gases
d) Solids and liquids
Answer: d

34.Solid samples are introduced into the ICP spectrometer using which of the following?
a) Nebulizer
b) Curvette having glass windows
c) Probe
d) Laser ablation system
Answer: d

35.Liquid samples are introduced into the ICP spectrometer using which of the following?
a) Nebulizer
b) Curvette having glass windows
c) Probe
d) Laser ablation system
Answer: a

36.Ions flow is pumped into the vacuum system using which of the following?
a) Orifice
b) Nozzle
c) Venturi meter
d) Dall tube
Answer: a
37.The most common type of ion detector found in ICP system is which of the following?
a) Faraday cup collector
b) Channeltron
c) Micro-channel plate
d) Flame ionization detector
Answer: b

38.Which of the following is the disadvantage of ICP mass spectroscopy?

a) Incapable of multi-element analysis
b) Less sensitivity
c) Impossible to obtain isotopic information
d) Not useful for detection of non-metals
Answer: d

39.The isobaric interference is not caused in which of the following elements?

a) Argon
b) Oxygen
c) Helium
d) Nitrogen
Answer: c

40.Which of the following is the disadvantage of gas chromatography?

a) It is not a good method
b) It cannot be used for qualitative analysis
c) It cannot be used for the separation of volatile components
d) It does not provide direct identification
Answer: d

41.GC- MS has been developed for which of the following systems?

a) Packed column
b) Open tubular column
c) Capillary column
d) Porous layer column
Answer: a

42.Which of the following is the type of separator used in commercial GC-MS systems?
a) Jet type molecular separator
b) Porous tube
c) Teflon tube
d) Flow type separator
Answer: a

43.The system for measurement of ion intensity in GS-MS system consists of which of the following?
a) Electrometer
b) Ion meter
c) Ion transducer
d) Intensity meter
Answer: a

44.The system for measurement of ion intensity in GS-MS system consists of which of the following?
a) Band pass amplifier
b) Narrow band amplifier
c) Wide band amplifier
d) Low pass amplifier
Answer: c

45.The kinetic energy of the photoelectron energies is dependent on _________ of the atom, which makes XPS
useful to identify the oxide state.
a) Mass
b) Charge
c) Chemical environment
d) Volume
Answer: c

46.The kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectron is dependent upon the energy of which of the following?
a) Ions around
b) Photons around
c) Material
d) Impinging photon
Answer: d

47.284.6 eV matches which of the following specific atom type?

a) Carbon
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Argon
Answer: a

48.A basic X-ray source includes which of the following components?

a) Large target anode
b) Large target cathode
c) Small target anode
d) Small target cathode
Answer: a

49.Which of the following is one of the most commonly used anode material?
a) Carbon
b) Tungsten
c) Magnesium
d) Cesium
Answer: c