BECE Examiners Report

ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper was comparable with that of the previous years. The questions
were clear, within the scope of the syllabus, and at the level of the candidates.
Candidates’ performance showed little improvement over that of the past year.
The paper consisted of three parts: Part A comprises three essay questions of which
candidates were required to answer only one in not fewer than 250 words. Part B was on
comprehension. Here, candidates were given a passage to read and answer questions
based on it.
Part C (Literature) was made up of compulsory questions based on extracts selected from
the book ‘The Cockcrow’ compiled by Darmani L. and Sackey J.A. The excerpts were
specifically taken from ‘Charles Dickens’ ‘Oliver Twist’; ‘Debbie, Sandy and Pepe by
Merril Corney; ‘The Dilemma of a Ghost’ by Ama Ata Aidoo and ‘Scribbler’s Dream’ by
Lawrence Darmani.
2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS
A few of the candidates made judicious use of the English language and displayed a
remarkable degree of knowledge of the formal features of the essays they wrote.
Some of the candidates seemed to be adept at answering questions on the comprehension
and literature aspects of the paper as their works in these parts were good.
3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

A number of the candidates could not tell a debate from an ordinary argumentative
writing and consequently wrote the former instead of the latter.
Also, some of the candidates seemed to have lost focus of the requirements of the essay
questions. To cite an instance, there were a number of candidates who answered Question
3 and instead of simply requesting the maintenance of the existing buildings, they asked
for the putting up of new structures.
Again, there were others who displayed a lack of appropriate vocabulary items and this
hindered their ability to express themselves clearly and meaningfully.
Grammatical and syntactical errors obtruded in the answers of almost all the candidates
and thereby significantly diminished their marks.
In addition, many of the candidates displayed very little acquaintance with the set texts
from ‘The Cockcrow’ and obtained appalingly low marks. Questions on figures of speech
also posed great difficulty to most of the candidates.
Finally, a lot of the candidates had difficulty with answering wh-questions.
4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
(1) Candidates should pay more attention to the study of the grammar and structure of
the English language.
(2) They should be helped to distinguish between the various types of essays.
(3) They should read widely and also use the dictionary often so that they can
improve upon their stock of vocabulary and power of expression.
(4) They should be made to do a lot of exercises on essay writing.
(5) They should be encouraged to read the selected texts in ‘The Cockcrow’
carefully.
(6) They should study literary devices in order that they would be able to identify
them in texts.
(7) They should read the questions carefully for thorough understanding before
proceeding to answer them.
(8) They should be assisted to learn the techniques of answering questions, especially
wh-questions on comprehension passages.
5. DETAILED COMMENTS
Part A
The essay questions are as follows:
Question 1
As School Prefect, write a letter to your District or Municipal or Metropolitan Chief
Executive requesting the maintenance of the buildings in your school.
Question 2
Write arguments for or against the topic: “Life in the city is more dangerous than that in the
village”.
Question 3
Write a report to the Headteacher of your school about how a senior girl beat up a junior
boy.
Question 1
This was a popular question wherein the candidates were expected to write a letter to
their District/Municipal/Metropolitan Chief Executives requesting the maintenance of the
buildings in their schools.
Most of the candidates who answered this question did very well as they correctly
understood it as asking them to present their responses in the form of formal letters.
Many of them recognised that they were to make requests of their DCEs/ MCEs.
However, some of the candidates wavered in their requests and asked for new structures
to be put up instead of simply requesting the maintenance of the existing buildings.
Question 2
In this question, candidates were required to write arguments for or against the topic:
“Life in the city is more dangerous than that in the village”. This is an argumentative
writing and the candidates were expected to take a stand and advance, at least, two
arguments to support it. A lot of the candidates who attempted this question wrote letters
or debates instead of the simple or ordinary argumentative essays expected of them. This
showed that they could not tell between these forms of essays.
Question 3
Here, candidates were required to write a report to the Head teacher of their school about
how a senior girl beat up a junior boy. Essays with the formal features of a report and a
blend of description and narration were expected. Regrettably, a number of candidates
who attempted this question wrote letters and ended up losing marks.
Some of the candidates seemed to have lost focus of the requirements of the question. To cite an
instance, there were a number of them who, instead of simply writing about a senior girl beating
up a junior boy, mixed up the characters and their corresponding actions.
PART B — COMPREHENSION
Question 4
This was a mandatory question. Candidates were required to read a passage and answer
the questions based on it. It was meant to assess candidates’ ability to read and
understand a given passage.
Answers provided by many of the candidates exposed their weaknesses in understanding
the passage and providing the expected responses. Many of them simply copied parts of
the passage and presented them as answers. It was also evident that a large number of the
candidates had difficulty with answering wh-questions. In some instances, the candidates
had the required information but wrongly framed the answers. This caused them to lose a
lot of marks or score zero in these questions.
PART C — LITERATURE
Question 5
This question consisted of sub-questions based on extracts selected from the set book
‘The Cockcrow’ compiled by Darmani L. and Sackey J.A. The excerpts were specifically
taken from Charles Dickens’ ‘Oliver Twist’; ‘Debbie, Sandy and Pepe by Merril Corney;
‘The Dilemma of a Ghost’ by Ama Ata Aidoo and ‘Scribbler’s Dream’ by Lawrence
Darmani.
Some candidates exhibited familiarity with the set texts as they scored very good marks
in this part of the paper. Others, however, displayed very little acquaintance with the texts
and obtained abysmally low marks. Questions on figures of speech also posed great
difficulty to many of the candidates.
FRENCH
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper compared favourably with that of the previous years. Both
essays, Q1 and Q2, were topical and within the scope of the syllabus. The candidates
were expected to choose ONE and write an essay of between 60 and 80 words long.
Guidelines were provided to be developed into a composition. Question 1, Mon pays was
well handled by many candidates. Question 2 (picture description) was quite interesting
and illustrative.
General performance of candidates indicated an improvement in the stock of vocabulary.
There were highly commendable features in some of the responses which need to be
highlighted:
 Many of the candidates adhered to the rubrics. They answered only one question
and did not exceed the required number of words.
 Conjugation of -ER verbs was better done this year by most of the candidates.
Many of them handled the conjugation of “s’appeler” and “se brosser” very well.
 Although just a few candidates opted for question 2, there were outstanding
performances. Some pictures which demanded very logical interpretations were
properly described by some candidates. Some gave diverse and interesting
information under the picture. Others added humour to the description of the
pictures.
 In question 1, the expression of the country’s name was well done. The essay was
quite topical and, therefore, many candidates understood the question very well.
 In 2D, the expression of a boy brushing his teeth was well done in French. Many
gave the same answers as “Johnny se brosse les dents”
 Cases of deviation were remarkably few because many candidates followed the
guidelines rigidly.
 Most of the candidates were good with their spelling as just some few mistakes
were made in this regard.
In spite of the commendable features noticed in the answers of some candidates, there
were still some weaknesses:
Some candidates were not conversant with the conjugation of -ER verbs in the present
indicative tense.
 A few of the candidates struggled with the conjugation of some common irregular
verbs such as “aller” “être” and “avoir” etc.
 Many candidates were not familiar with the reflexive verbs. In Question 2B (ii),
candidates could not differentiate between the use of “se reveiller” and
“reveiller”. They could, therefore, not structure their sentences well.
 Many candidates ignored accents. For instance, “a” and “à” were used
interchangeably and indiscriminately.
 Although candidates were expected to develop the outlines into essays, some
opted to compose their own essays apparently based on some model essays they
had memorised.
 The very weak candidates simply copied the comprehension passage or part
thereof and so scored zero. Some also copied the question items of both essay
topics. Some reproduced en bloc some model essays which had no relevance to
the topic.
 Despite the clarity of the pictures, some candidates, for lack of vocabulary, wrote
some sentences which were quite illogical and incoherent.
 There were still some candidates who tabulated their answers.
 Conscious effort should be made to improve upon candidates’ stock of vocabulary
to enable them to handle Question 2 confidently. Regular exercises in essay
writing will help in this regard. Copious exercises should be set and corrected in
time for discussion. Discussion of questions in class must be tailored to reach out
to every pupil in class.
 Extensive reading should also be encouraged.
 Over dependence on model essays must be discouraged because candidates do not
make the effort to widen their scope of acquisition of vocabulary beyond the
model essays.
 Teachers must be encouraged to expose their candidates to the content and form
of the BECE past papers. It appeared some candidates had never taken any
exercises in picture description. This should be checked.
 Teachers should pay more attention to the teaching of the expression of time in
French and the right use of accents.
In Question 1, it appeared some candidates had mastered similar essays and, therefore,
chose to disregard the guidelines for composition. This led to low scores.
Question 1(a)
Le nom de votre pays.
Candidates were expected to mention the name of their country. Examples of expected
answers are:
Mon pays est le Ghana or
Mon pays s’appelle le Ghana
There were, generally, very good answers but many of the candidates wrote the wrong
form of “s’appeler” in the present indicative mood.
There were wrong answers like: ‘mon pays s’apelle Ghana”
There were also those who probably confused “le nom” with “s’appeler. They wrote
wrong answers like :Le nom de mon pays s’appelle le Ghana.
Question 1(b)
Il y a combien de régions dans votre pays ?
Candidates were expected to indicate the number of regions in their country in figures or
words. Candidates had the option to write out the names of the regions. Examples of
expected answers are:
Nous avons dix régions dans mon pays.
Il y a dix régions dans mon pays.
Most candidates wrote correct answers but there were still a few who could neither write
the names of their regions nor express the number of regions in French. E.g. “la région de
l’ouest” was wrongly written as la région de western etc. Accents in région were totally
ignored.
Question 1(c)
Quelle est la capitale de votre pays ?
Candidates were required to mention the capital town of their country.
An example is : Accra est la capitale de mon pays. This question did not pose any
problem but some candidates from Ghana, surprisingly, could not mention the capital
town of Ghana.
Question1(d)
Les langues que vous parlez dans votre pays
In this question, candidates were expected to mention some of the languages or the major
languages that are spoken in their countries. Some of the responses that were expected
include:
Les langues que nous parlons sont “ga”, “fante” et “asante”
Some of the candidates were able to mention the languages in complete sentences.
Others just listed the languages and a few of them mentioned just one language.
Question 1(e)
Les lieux importants de votre pays
What was required here was for candidates to mention some important places in the
country like the zoos, waterfalls, banks, hospitals, universities, etc.
Some of the candidates mentioned tourist sites such as, Boti Falls, Aburi Botanical
Gardens, Wli Water Falls, etc.
Those who could not answer this question, probably did not understand the word lieux
Question 1(f)
Les professions différentes des habitants
Candidates were expected to indicate the professions in French, such as:
Les habitants sont cultivateurs
Les habitants sont commerçants
For lack of vocabulary, many candidates were compelled to mention the professions of
people in English. Many failed to provide good answers.
Question 1(g)
Les plats traditionnels de votre pays.
Answers such as, Les plats traditionnels sont fufu, ampesi etc. were expected
Many candidates who wrote the local dishes provided good answers but those who
attempted to mention some foreign dishes fumbled with their French expressions.
Question 1(h)
Un Festival de votre région
The candidates were expected to provide answers such as, Le festival de ma région est
“Akwasidae” or “Homowo”
A few of the candidates gave very simple answers and explained what goes on during
such festive occasions e.g. On danse .....
Question1(i)
Ce que les jeunes aiment faire
An example of the expected answers is:
Les jeunes aiment faire du sport.
Very good answers were provided. Many candidates were able to mention various
activities that occupy the youth.
Question 1 (j)
Pourquoi est-ce que vous aimez votre pays ?
Candidates were expected to give reasons for their love of their countries.
E.g. – J’aime mon pays parce que les gens sont gentils, aimables, travailleurs etc.
Some candidates gave some of the above reasons, but some failed to realize that the
question had two segments. Those who ended their answers like: J’aime mon pays lost
half of the full marks.
Question 2
Candidates were expected to study six different pictures and narrate a story on
Johnny’s lateness to school.
Candidates had the opportunity to give diverse interpretations of the pictures. The few
who chose the picture description performed well.
Question 2AI and 2AII were well handled. Candidates were able to indicate the location
of Johnny and followed it up with the correct answers.
A(i) Où est Johnny?
Candidates were expected to indicate the location of Johny.
Example of an expected answer:
 Johnny est au lit
 Johnny est dans la chambre
Most of the candidates were able to provide correct answers. But some wrote Johnny
dort which did not give the location of Johnny.
A(ii) Qu’est-ce’qu’ll fait?
Candidates were expected to use their imagination to describe the activity of Johnny.
Examples of expected answers are
Il dort
Il se couche
Il est au lit
. This requirement was generally fulfilled.
B (i) Quelle heure est-il?
Candidates were expected to tell the exact time in the picture – a test of their
knowledge of time telling in French
Examples of expected answers are:
Il est sept heures et demie
Il est 7 heures et demie
Many lost marks for writing the time in English. The commonest mistake was: Il
est 7 hrs.
B (ii) Qui réveille Johnny?
Candidates were expected to mention any female person who could wake up
Johnny.
E.g. “La mère”, “sa mère” or la femme”, ‘la dame’, ‘sa sœur’ etc, could be the
subject of that activity.
Example: La mère réveille Johnny
In response, many candidates wrote Sa mère reveille Johnny. Others also wrote:
La maman réveille Johnny
There were few who provided wrong answers like, la mère se léve Johnny
C Pourquoi est-ce que Johnny court?
Candidates were to give reasons why Johnny was running. They had the option to
give a lot of reasons. For example:
Johnny court parce qu’il est en retard
Some did not only lack imagination they also lacked the vocabulary to express
themselves.
D Qu’est-ce qui se passe ici?
Candidates were expected to say what Johnny was doing.
Examples of expected answers are.
Johnny se prepare
Il se brosse les dents.
The clarity of this picture led many candidates to give the same answer.
Unfortunately, there were few candidates who could not conjugate “se brosser” in
the present tense. There were wrong answers like Il se brush les dents.
E (i) Qu’est-ce que la personne donne à Johnny?
Candidates were expected to describe and say the possible thing the lady was
giving to Johnny. Examples of expected answers are:
Maman donne du thé à Johnny.
La dame donne du thé à Johnny
This question was well understood but poorly answered. There was ample room
for diverse interpretation but lack of vocabulary became an impediment to the
provision of good answers.
E (ii) Pourquoi est-ce que cette personne est surprise?
Candidates were expected to use their imagination to interpret the action of the
lady in the picture. Example of an expected answer :
La personne est surprise parce que Johnny refuse de manger
Most of the candidates were not able to answer this question.
F (i) Enfin, où est-ce que Johnny arrive ?
Candidates were expected to say the location where Johnny had arrived finally.
Expected answers include: Johnny arrive à l’école
Enfin, Johnny arrive à l’école
The majority of the candidates answered this question very well.
F (ii) Qu’est-ce que le directeur fait à Johnny ?
The candidates were required to describe what the Headmaster was doing to
Johnny.
Le directeur punit Johnny is one of the examples expected.
Most of the candidates answered the question very well by indicating that the
Headmaster was lashing Johnny.
INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATIONS TECHNOLOGY (ICT)
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper compared favourably with that of the previous years. The
questions were of within the scope of the syllabus. Instructions to the questions were
clear and straightforward. Spaces provided for candidates to write their responses
were enough and time allotted for the paper was adequate.
There was slight improvement in the performance of candidates as compared to the

previous year’s.
2 A SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

(a) Majority of the candidates showed improvement in their use and spellings of
ICT terms.
(b) Most of the candidates were precise and presented their responses in short
sentences demonstrating adequate knowledge in the subject matter.
(c) Most of the candidates managed the spaces provided for writing down their
answers very well.
(d) A good number of the candidates were able to list the uses of the internet
correctly.
(e) Greater number of the candidates were able to write the names of the keyboard
key characters correctly and also gave the functions of the backspace and
space bar keys correctly.
(f) Majority of the candidates were able to give examples of Word processor
correctly.
(g) Most of the candidates were able to define correctly application software,
system software and folder, as well as cell, active cell and name box.
3 A SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES
i. The use of the English language and the ability to read the questions to
understand its demand is a major challenge to majority of the candidates.
ii. Most of the candidates used highlighting and selecting interchangeably to mean
the same thing and therefore it was very difficult for them to come up with three
differences between the two.
iii. Almost all the candidates could not identify and name the internet browser
window.
iv. Most of the candidates could not state the two types of storage media and two
ways of protecting storage media. Instead they wrote uses and importance of
storage media.
v. Some of the candidates did not write their correct index numbers while others did
not write both their index numbers and names in the spaces provided on the
answer booklet.
(a) Teachers should be trained and re-trained through refresher courses to broaden
their knowledge and understanding of the subject.
(b) Candidates should be taught to read, understand and follow the dictates of the
rubrics of the questions before answering them.
(c) Teachers should do their best to help students learn the correct spellings of key
ICT terms.
(d) The teaching of practical ICT should be intensified in schools to equip

students with the practical skills.
(e) Teachers should endeavour to complete the teaching syllabus with students
and revise with them thoroughly before they sit for the examination.
(f) Candidates should develop the habit of solving past examination questions to
familiarize themselves with the format and standard of the questions.
(g) Supervisors and invigilators should ensure candidates provide their correct
index numbers and names at the required spaces.
QUESTION 1
(a) Study the image carefully and use it to answer questions (a)(i – ii) and (b).
(i) What is the name of the image shown above?

(ii) Name the parts of the image represented by A, B, C, D, E and F in 1(a):
A………………………………………………………………………………
B………………………………………………………………………………
C…………………………………………………………………………
C………………………………………………………………………………
D………………………………………………………………………………
E………………………………………………………………………………
F………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State the function of the parts labeled A and D in 1 (a) above:
(i) A: ……………………………………………..………………………………...
……………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) D: ………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………….
(c) List four uses of the internet.
………………………………………………………………………………..…………
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(d) Write the names of the following computer keyboard key characters:
(i) &
(ii) ^
(iii) {}
(iv) /
For (a) (i), most off the candidates were able to answer the question correctly except
few of them who could not provide the correct name; some took a window to mean a
‘browser’ whiles others wrote Facebook window internet explorer.
explorer
Only few of the candidates could not iden

identify the parts labelled in (a) (ii) on the
browser window. Most of the candidates identified them correctly but had the names
wrongly written as; forward arrows
arrows, back space button and cancel.
cancel
On (b), majority of the candidates were able to state the function of the back button
and the address bar. However, some of the candidates wrote; it is used to delete
characters when clicked on and it is where the address is typed respectively.
For (c), majority of the candidates did very well in listing four uses of the internet.
However, few of the candidates messed up their responses and stated it is used for
browsing. A candidate provided the following responses; Do not use the internet to
steal, Do not spam, Do not write false things about others.
For question (d), most of the candidates were able to identify the computer keyboard
key characters correctly but had it very difficult in writing down the names. Examples
of some of their wrong spellings are: Ampasand/Ampesand, omission sign, curry
braket/curly blacket, line/backward slash respectively.
Expected Response
(a) (i) Internet Explorer Window/Internet Browser Window/Web Browser Window
(interface).
(ii)
A – Back button/ back/previous/backward
B – Forward button/forward/next
C – Title bar
D – Address bar/Location bar/URL bar
E – Refresh button / Reload button/refresh
F – Stop button/stop
(b)
(i) A – Back button: It allows a user to visit/go back/navigate to the previously
attended/viewed webpage.
(ii) D – Address bar: It allows a user to input the address of a website. It displays
the website address of the current webpage.
(c) Uses of the internet include:
 It is used in search of information
 It is used for communicating with one another
 It is used for teaching and learning
 It is used for online shopping
 It is used for watching movies
 It is used for playing games
 It is used for customer support services
 It is used for social networking etc.
(d)
(i) & – Ampersand/And
(ii) ^ – Caret/ Exponentiation/Circum Flex/Exponential/Exponent
(iii) { } – Curly brackets/ Brackets/Braces
(iv) / – Forward slash/ Slash/Division/Division sign/Division symbol
In general, performance on the question was average.
QUESTION 2
(a) Give the functions of the following keyboard keys:
(i) Backspace: ……………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………..
(ii) Space bar: ……………………………………………………………………...
……………………………………………………………………..
(b) (i) Outline three differences between selecting and highlighting a text in a Word
processing application.
……………………………………..……………………………………………………
……………………………………..……………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) Name two word processors.

…………..………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………..
Most of the candidates attempted this question and produced satisfactory responses.
For (a), candidates answered it fairly. Some provided responses as (i);it is used to
give space in a text, it is used for spacing sentences and (ii); it is used to shift or
enlarge a sentence on a computer.
Question (b) (i) was unfamiliar question and the candidates who attempted the
question struggled a lot and could not answer it correctly. Most of the candidates who
tackled the (ii) part performed extremely well. However, a few of the candidates
wrote some of the examples of word processors as; Note pard and ms ward.
Expected Response
(a)
(i) Backspace: It is used to delete/erase characters to the left of the
cursor/insertion point.
(ii) Space bar: It is used to create/insert a space/gap between words or characters.
(b) (i)
SELECTING HIGHLIGHTING
1. Meant for formatting purpose 1. Laying emphasis on a point.
2. Background vanishes after formatting 2. Background stays after highlighting.
3. Temporary action 3. Permanent /Long-lasting action.
4. Not dependent on colour 4. Dependent on colour.
5. Involves one step to accomplish 5. Involves multiple steps to accomplish.
(ii) Word processors include:

 Microsoft word  Atlantis Word processor
 Writer  Kingsoft Writer
 WordPerfect  Apache Open Office Writer
 WordPad  Calligra Words
 Notepad  Groff
 WordStar  JWPce
 Pages  KWord
 AbiWord  WordGraph
 LibreOffice Writer  AbleWord
 IBM Lotus Word Pro  WriteMonkey
 KWord  FocusWriter
 Nisus Writer  Judoom
 GNU TeXmacs  AEditetc
Generally, candidate’s performance in this question was very poor.
QUESTION 3
(a) State the two types of storage media.

…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) (i) Give three important features of storage media.
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) State two ways to protect storage media.
……………………………………………………………………………………...
……………………………………………………………………………………...
Generally, this question was fairly answered by most of the candidates who
attempted it.
For the (a) part, it was difficult for them so only few of the candidates answered it
correctly. However, most of the candidates did not understand the demand of the
question and gave examples of storage media instead of types of storage media
whereas a lot of them gave wrong responses as; primary storage media, secondary
storage media, RAM, ROM.
Candidates who answered question (b) (i) gave the uses of the storage media instead
of features. Almost all the candidates who attempted this question got it wrong.
On the (ii) part, majority of the candidates answered the question poorly. Most of the
candidates wrote on how to protect the content of the storage media instead of
protecting the storage media itself. However, few candidates gave correct answers.
Expected Response
(a) The 2 types of storage media are:
(i) Magnetic media/magnetic
(ii) Optical media/optical
(b)
(i) Important features of storage media include:
 Some of them have tracks  It has addressable units
 They have sectors  It is accessed sequentially or randomly
 They have data area  Made of plastic material
 They have silver coated surfaces  Data are recorded on sectors within
 They are non-volatile/store data tracks
permanently  Each track is subdivided into sectors
 Capacity reckoned in terms of
bytes/megabytes/terabytes
(ii) Ways to protect storage media include:

 Keeping storage media in a
protective jacket
 Keeping storage media away from
magnetic fields
 Write-protect storage media

moisture
dirt
 Keeping storage media in a
protective case
 Keeping storage media from hot
environment
Candidate’s general performance in this question was below average.
QUESTION 4
(a) What is:
(i) application software: …………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………
(ii) system software: ………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) a folder: …………………………………………………………………….….
……………………………………………………………………….
(b) Give three examples of an operating system.
This questions was probably the most well answered question by a greater number of the
candidates who attempted it.
For (a), most of the candidates were able to define application software, system software and a
folder to score a good mark. On the other hand, some of the candidates defined application
software as it is a software designed to entertain the user.
Most of the candidates were able to give examples of an operating system for the (b) part.
Surprisingly, some of the candidates could not list the examples and made many spelling
mistakes. Some of the candidates wrote; Windows 75, window 8, window 7, unxi, Linus and
Mark OS.
Expected Response
(a)
(i) Application software: It is the software/application/program/set of instructions used
to perform a specific task by the user.
(ii) System software: It is the software/application/program/set of instructions that is
used to control the operation of a computer.
(iii) A folder: This is a virtual place/location on the computer where programs, files and
other folders can be located/kept/placed/stored/organised.
(b) Examples of operating system include:
 Windows (XP, ME, 2000, Vista, Windows 7, Windows 8, Windows 10) etc
 DOS
 Mac OS
 Solaris
 Unix
 Linux
 Novell NetWare etc
General performance was above average.
QUESTION 5
(a) List three toolbars or bars in a spreadsheet application.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Define the following terms as used in spreadsheet application:
(i) cell: …………………………………………………………………………...
(ii) active cell: ……………………………………………………………………
(iii) name box: ……………………………………………………………………
This was also very popular and well answered question by most of the candidates who
tackled it.
For part (a), most of the candidates were able to list toolbars or bars in a spreadsheet
application. However, some of the candidates got the spelling of some of the words wrong
and wrote them as; Tittle bar, Formating toolbar, Formular bar, Mune bar.
The (b) part of this question saw most of the candidates exhibiting their knowledge in the
subject matter to demonstrate their understanding on the topic. Meanwhile, few of the
candidates had few of the terminologies wrongly spelt as; colomn, columm and wrongly
defined active cell as; the cell that contains the recipient address or contain the work
sheet, where the cursor is currently located. Name box was also wrongly defined as; it is
the box that contains the content of the active cell.
Expected Response
(a) Toolbars or bars in spreadsheet application include:
 Title bar
 Status bar
 Menu bar
 Formatting toolbar
 Standard toolbar
 Formula bar
 Scroll bar etc.
(i) Cell: It is the intersection of a row and a column in a worksheet and which is
identified by the column letter and row number.
(ii) Active cell: It is the current cell ready to accept data entry from the user. It is the
selected cell in the worksheet.
(iii) Name box: It is the part of a worksheet (the box to the left of the formula bar) that
displays the name of the active cell (the cell that is currently selected).
Performance generally was average.

INTEGRATED SCIENCE
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper is the same as that of previous years. Candidates’
performance, on the whole, declined as compared to last year’s.
(1) Most candidates were precise with their answers

(2) Most candidates showed good understanding of the electron configuration as
they were able to draw and show the distribution of electrons in the various
shells for potassium
(3) Most candidates were able to differentiate between pests and parasites
(4) There was an improvement in the spelling of scientific words even though few
candidates still could not write them correctly.
(1) Candidates failed to read and understand the demand of the questions; such as
the difference between state, name, explain, define and ‘what’ is as used in the
questions. Example in Question 1(d)(v) candidates were to explain how the
solid portion of the solution named in (iii) could be obtained. The response
from some candidates was just “evaporation”.
(2) Writing of the formula for compounds was a big challenge for many
candidates.
(3) Some candidates recopied the questions before answering and it made them
not to be able to answer all the number of questions required.
(4) Lack of understanding of what derived quantities are.
(1) Teachers must make time and teach candidates the difference between the
terms, “explain”, “what is”, “state” etc.
(2) Teachers should try as much as possible to take candidates through the entire
topics in the syllabus before they write their examinations.
(3) More exercises on every topic taught must be given to the students as a guide
in helping them to revise.
(4) Candidates should be encouraged to use past questions in their studies.

Question 1
(a) The diagram below is an illustration of a fish.

Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow.
(i) Identify the fish.

(ii) Name each of the parts labelled I, II, IV, V.
(iii) Name the habitat of the fish.
(iv) Explain how each of the parts III and VI enables the fish adapt to its
habitat.
(b) The diagram below is an illustration of a section through the soil.
Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow.
(i) What does the diagram represent?
(ii) Name each of the parts labelled I, II, III, IV.
(iii) Which part of the diagram:
(α) is the richest in humus?
(β) is the habitat for soil organisms?
(γ) undergoes weathering?
(iv) What is the effect of heavy rainfall on the part labelled I?
(c) The diagram below is an illustration of an electrical circuit.
Study the circuit and answer the questions that follow.
(i) Name each of the parts labelled I, II, IV, VI.

(ii) State the energy transformation that takes place in:
(α) I;
(β) IV.
(iii) State the S.I. units of the quantity measured by each of the parts labelled
(α) III;
(β) V.
(iv) State the function of the part labelled VI.
(d) In an experiment, equal volumes and equal concentrations of dilute hydrochloric
acid and dilute sodium hydroxide solutions were each placed in different test
tubes.
Read the following statements carefully.
I. Both red and blue litmus papers were dipped into each of the solutions in
turns.
II. Equal volumes of the solutions were mixed to obtain a third solution.
III. Both red and blue litmus papers were dipped into the third solution.
Use the information provided to answer the following questions.
(i) Explain briefly how you can identify each of the solutions.
(α) Hydrochloric acid;
(β) Sodium hydroxide.
(ii) State the type of reaction that occurred when the two solutions were
mixed.
(iii) What type of solution was formed when the reaction stated in (ii)
occurred?
(iv) State what would be observed when both red and blue litmus papers were
dipped into the third solution.
(v) Explain how the solid portion of the solution named in (iii) could be
obtained.
(a) The fish is Tilapia or a Bony fish. Most candidates did identify it as such. Wrong
spellings were presented by some candidates such as: “Tileapeal, Tilapse, born fish”.
Labelled parts were correctly named. Functions of parts labelled III and VI were
correctly spelled out.
Very few candidates named the correct habitat of the specimen which is fresh
water/fish pond/brackish water/lagoon/lake. Most candidates named the habitat as
aquatic or sea which was wrong.
(b) Most candidates represented the diagram correctly as soil profile and yet named the
labelled parts I, II, III, IV as horizon A, B, C D respectively instead of top soil, sub
soil, weathered rock and parent rock.
Other candidates also named the labelled parts as humus, clay, sand, gravel.
(c) Most candidates had no problem in naming the labelled parts as shown in the circuit
diagram. However, a few of them lost marks for naming labelled part I as battery
instead of cell, and wrongly spelling “resistor” (part labelled IV).
A large number of candidates named the S.I. unit measured by part labelled III as
ohms instead of ampere. A few who named it correctly wrote the unit with capital A,
just as they named the unit for part labelled IV as Volt. The correct units are ampere
or A, and volt or V.
The function of part labelled VI is to control or vary current, not just allowing current
to pass through as stated by most candidates.
(d) The acid and the base were correctly identified by most candidates using blue and red
litmus papers. The type of reaction i.e. neutralization, and solution formed i.e. salt or
neutral were also correctly stated by most candidates.
Most candidates failed to explain, but simply wrote “evaporation” and thus lost some
marks.
Question 2
(a) (i) What is an ion?

(ii) State two methods of softening hard water.
(b) (i) Differentiate between pests and parasites as used in agriculture.
(ii) Give an example each of a:
(α) pest;
(β) parasite.
(c) (i) What is work?
(ii) A force of 10 N causes a body to move a distance of 5.2 m in the direction
of the force. Calculate the work done.
(d) Name two diseases associated with the circulatory system of humans.
(a) (i) While most candidates correctly explained ion as a charged atom or an atom
gaining or losing electron, few of them described it as a metal which reacts
with water to form rust.
(ii) Most candidates correctly mentioned boiling as a method of softening hard

water. Other methods like distillation, addition of washing soda and de-
ionization escaped them.
(b) Most candidates described pests as organisms which cause damage to crops. Only a
few of them could not describe a parasite correctly to earn a mark. Parasites are also
organisms. They live in or on the body of a host, feed on the host and thus cause harm
to it.
(c) (i) A force should move a body from place to another in the direction of the force
for work to be done. A force moving alone without a load, as many candidates
indicated, cannot be said to have done any work.
(ii) Most candidates calculated work done correctly, using the formula work =
force x distance, and substituted the figures given to obtain the correct answer
as 52 Joules. Yet other candidates substituting same figures given i.e. 10 x 5.2,
obtained 5.2 joules or 520 joules. Some of the candidates failed to provide the
correct unit i.e. J or Nm.
(d) Hypertension and hypotension are the popular diseases mentioned as associated with
the circulatory system of humans. Other diseases not considered included
arteriosclerosis, piles, leukaemia, etc.
Question 3
(a) (i) What is malnutrition?

(ii) State one symptom each of the following deficiency disease:
(α) scurvy;
(β) rickets.
(b) Draw the potassium atom and show the distribution of electrons in its shells.
[K = 19]
(c) (i) Define potential energy.
(ii) An object of mass 10 kg is moving at a velocity of 2 ms-1.
Calculate the kinetic energy of the object.
(d) State one example each of:
(i) macro nutrients;
(ii) micro nutrients.
(a) Most candidates expressed knowledge about malnutrition as a condition associated

with lack of adequate nutrients in a person’s diet. Symptoms of scurvy and rickets
are unknown to most candidates – some gave lack of vitamins as symptom.
Candidates failed to realize that symptoms are signs / features we can see/feel. Hence
scurvy has symptoms including bruises, bleeding gums, rashes, fatigue etc. For
rickets, delayed growth, bow legs, pains in the spine are some of the symptoms.
(b) Most candidates scored full marks for drawing a four-shelled atom, with electron
distribution of 2, 8, 8, 1. However, only a few showed a nucleus for the atom to
score an extra mark.
(c) (i) Only a few candidates scored full marks for definition of potential energy.
Most of them described it as energy possessed by a body “at rest”. Instead of
energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position.
(ii) Most candidates messed up with the calculation. Even the few who wrote the
formula correctly could not substitute the figures given to obtain the correct
answer. It should have been
K.E. = ½ MV2
= ½ x 10 x 2 x 2
=20 joules / J
(d) For unknown reasons, most candidates (perhaps all) candidates limited themselves to
the same two reasons i.e. soil air is required to decompose organic matter; plant roots
need soil air for growth. Other reasons not considered include the following:
Soil air is needed for absorption of nutrients and water by roots; for seed germination,
for respiration in roots and soil organism etc.
Question 4
(a) (i) Explain the term hazard.

(ii) List two safety precautions against hazards in the teaching and learning
of science.
(b) In a tabular form state three differences between osmosis and diffusion.
(c) (i) What is weather?
(ii) State two differences between weather and season.
(d) (i) What is a fertile soil?
(ii) State two factors that cause loss of soil fertility.
(a) Most candidates expressed knowledge about hazards, as a potential danger

which could cause harm to a person or do damage to property. Wearing of
protective clothing was the only precaution that most candidates mentioned.
Routine maintenance of equipment, closing all taps before leaving the

laboratory, switching off electrical points, mounting of hazard signs etc
escaped candidates’ attention.
(b) The only difference between osmosis and diffusion which most candidates described
correctly is that while the former process involved a semi-permeable membrane, the
latter process does not use semi-permeable membrane. Other differences either
poorly described or not mentioned at all, include the following. In osmosis only water
molecules move, in diffusion solute molecules move.
In osmosis water moves from a dilute solution to concentrated solution while in

diffusion solute molecules move from concentrated solution to a dilute solution.
Osmosis occurs in liquids, diffusion occurs in liquids and gases.
(c) Most candidates described weather satisfactorily as atmospheric condition at a place

over a short time. They however, found it difficult to compare weather with seasons.
Difference between the two phenomenon in time duration was stated by most
candidates.
Other differences they failed to state was that the weather is caused by atmospheric
condition, it covers a relatively small area, and it is measurable. Whilst season is
caused by earth’s revolution, it covers a large area, and it is immeasurable.
(d) Most candidates indicated, correctly that a fertile soil contains all the essential
nutrients, but failed to add that such soil supports successful plant growth.
Most candidates identified only erosion, over grazing and leaching as causes for loss
of soil fertility. Many other causes not mentioned include, nutrient mining, sand
winning, mining, overcropping, excessive burning / bush fire, inefficient soil
management practices etc.
Question 5
(a) (i) What is a magnetic field?

(ii) Name two methods of making magnets.
(b) Explain briefly the term teenage pregnancy.
(c) Write the formula for each of the following compounds:
(i) calcium chloride;
(ii) copper (I) oxide;
(iii) nitrogen (IV) oxide;
(iv) ammonia.
(d) (i) List three physical properties of soil.
(ii) What is the texture of clayey soil?
(a) While most candidates described magnetic field as an area around a magnet where
magnet force is felt, few of them described it as magnetic poles, namely north and
south poles.
The methods were correctly named as induction, stroking, hammering and using
electricity.
(b) The term was satisfactorily explained by most candidates to include period covered by
“teenage”, and sex of a person involved i.e. a girl, below age 20.
(c) Most candidates failed to give correct formulae for the compounds, except calcium
chloride.
(d) “Soil has volume”, “soil has a fixed shape”, “soil promotes plant growth” are some of
physical properties of soil listed by some candidates. Most candidates however listed
correctly texture, colour and water content. Other properties not listed include
structure, consistency, porosity, drainage, capillarity, air content etc.
Smooth/ sticky as texture of clayey soil was scored by most candidates.

Question 6
(a) (i) What are derived quantities?
(ii) State the S.I. units of the following quantities:
(α) area;
(β) volume.
(b) (i) State two factors necessary for photosynthesis.

(ii) Explain the functions of each of the factors stated in (i).
(c) Explain each of the following terms:
(i) soft water;
(ii) hard water.
(d) State three reasons why some seeds are nursed.
(a) (i) Most candidates had no idea what “derived quantities” are. Some described
the term as “made from various physical quantities”, measuring tools used to
monitor weather”. Only a few candidates correctly described the term
as “combination of base/fundamental quantities”.
(ii) Again, only a few candidates stated the correct units for area and volume.
(b) (i) Most candidates knew the factors, and listed sunlight and chlorophyll. Wrong
spelling of chlorophyll denied some candidates the mark. Carbon dioxide and
water were hardly listed.
(ii) Functions of the factors were poorly described.
Chlorophyll - absorbs / traps light

Sunlight - is to provide energy
Water - combines with CO2 to produce food
Carbon dioxide - raw material / used in splitting water
(c) Most candidates explained the term satisfactorily except that a few of them could not
spell the words lather and soap correctly.
(d) The question appeared difficult for most candidates as many of them made wild
guesses such as:
“to make it easier to plant”, “to grow faster”

“to get good soil”, “to avoid over-crowding”
“to get water” etc.
Reasons for nursing seeds include the following:
1. Avoids adverse weather conditions

2. Provides favourable growth conditions (for tiny seeds)
3. Provides protection / care
4. Enables selection of healthy seedlings
5. Stimulates germination
6. Provides growth uniformly
7. Controls weeds, etc.
BDT – PRE-TECHNICAL SKILLS
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper compared favourably with that of the previous year. Candidates’
performance was good and better than that of the previous year.
(1) Most candidates answered the compulsory questions very well.

(2) Majority of candidates clearly indicated question numbers against questions that they
answered.
(3) Most candidates organized their responses in an orderly manner.
(4) Most candidates’ handwritings were readable.
(5) Most candidates have improved upon their sketching skills.
(1) Some candidates did not adhere to the dictates of the rubrics and as such answered all
the four questions instead of three.
(2) Some candidates showed lack of knowledge in the design and make processes.
(3) Most candidates could not express their thoughts and ideas clearly while some could
not also spell words correctly.
(4) Majority of candidates could not answer the Visual Art aspect of the question
correctly.
(1) Candidates should be taught to read, understand and follow the dictates of the rubrics
of the paper before answering them.
(2) Teachers should thoroughly take students through the design process and encourage
them to practice it.
(3) Teachers should endeavour to complete the syllabus with their candidates.
(4) Qualified teachers should be engaged to teach all the aspects that constitute the BDT,
i.e. Pre-Technical Skills, Home Economics and Visual Art.
QUESTION 1 - COMPULSORY
(a) State one advantage of baked foods.

(b) State two disadvantages of freehand cutting.
(c) (i) List two stages of the design process.
(ii) List two methods of recording information for solving a design problem.
(iii) Name a suitable pencil for sketching a possible solution in a design work.
(iv) List two methods of sketching a final solution in pictorial drawing.
(d) (i) Define a poster
(ii) Give two reasons why poster is important in advertisement.
(iii) List two types of poster.
(iv) State one major difference between the two types of poster.
(a) Most candidates were able to state one advantage of baked foods.
(b) A few candidates were able to answer this question correctly. Most of them rather
stated advantages instead of disadvantages.
The required answers include:

- It can result in waste of fabric;
- Mistakes made cannot be easily corrected.
(c) Majority of candidates answered this question very well and scored high marks.
(d) Very few candidates were able to answer this part of the questions very well. Most
candidates could not define a poster nor state the importance of poster.
The required answers were:

(i) Poster is a written, printed notice or advertisement that informs the public of
events, goods and services.
(ii) It educates the public or informs and warns the public.
(iii) Text poster/Pictorial poster.
(iv) Text poster contains only words without any illustrations.
QUESTION 2
(a) (i) Make a freehand pictorial sketch of the brick hammer.

(ii) Label any two parts of the brick hammer sketched in question 2(a)(i).
(iii) State one use of the brick hammer.
(b) State one reason for each of the following operations:
(i) oiling metal parts of the firmer chisel;
(ii) wearing goggles when grinding the cold chisel;
(iii) racking back a wall.
(c) State one use of each of the following electronic components:
(i) resistor;
(ii) inductor;
(iii) diode.
(a) (i) Most candidates were able to sketch the brick hammer pictorially. A
few however could not sketch the brick hammer but rather sketched the claw
hammer.
(ii) Very few candidates labelled the brick hammer. Most candidates rather
listed the parts outside the sketch.
(iii) Majority of candidates were able to state the use of the brick hammer.
(b) The question was well answered by majority of candidates.
(c) Most candidates had difficulty stating the use of the listed electronic components.
The required answers were:

(i) Resistor: it resists or opposes the flow of current.
(ii) Inductor: it creates a magnetic field/oscillates.
(iii) Diode: it allows current to flow in one direction only.
QUESTION 3
(a) Figure 1 shows the Orthographic Projection of a block made of metal. Use it to
answer questions a(i) to a(iv).
(i) Copy the views shown in figure 1.

(ii) Label the copied views shown in question a(i) with the following:
(α) front elevation ;
(β) plan;
(χ) end elevation.
(iii) State the type of orthographic projection used.
(iv) Name one cutting tool used for producing the 5 mm diameter hole.
(b) (i) Make a freehand pictorial sketch of a pick axe.
(ii) Label any one part of the pick axe sketched in question 3(b)(i).
(iii) State one use of the pick axe.
(a) (i) This question was very popular among candidates. Most candidates
were able to copy the views correctly. A few however changed the positions
of the views.
(ii) A few could not also label the views correctly.
(iii) Most candidates were able to state the type of orthographic projection used,
that is the Third Angle Orthographic projection.
(iv) Very few candidates were able to name a cutting tool for producing the hole:
the required answers are: drill bit, or twist drill bit or hand drill.
(b) (i) Most of the candidates were able to sketch a pick axe. A few however
produced 2-dimensional sketches instead of the 3-dimensional drawings
demanded by the question. Some candidates also sketched something that
looked like Tee-square to represent a pick axe.
(ii) Most candidates were able to sketch the pick axe and label the parts correctly.
(iii) Most candidates were able to state the correct use of the pick axe.
QUESTION 4
(a) (i) Make a freehand pictorial sketch of the mould box.

(ii) State one use of the mould box.
(iii) State one reason for oiling the inside of the mould box before using it.
(b) State two examples of each of the following materials:
(i) non-ferrous alloys;
(ii) aggregate;
(iii) abrasives.
(c) Figure 2 shows the sketch of a piece of timber for making a joint. Copy and
complete the processes involved in preparing the workpiece in the table below:
One Tool Used For

Operation Carrying Out Operation
(i) measure the given length and width;
(ii) cut off the rough piece;
(iii) plane the face side and face edge;
(iv) test for flatness and squareness;
(v) mark face side and face edge;
(vi) plane off waste;
(vii) square one end and mark the required length:
(viii) cut off the waste.
(a) (i) Majority of the candidates were able to make a freehand pictorial sketch
of the mould box to show resemblance. A few candidates however sketched a
chalk box or gauge box as a mould box.
(ii) Most candidates were able to state the use of the mould box. A few however
wrongly stated things like: “to keep something inside it”, “for food items”, “it
is used for batching”.
The required answer is: It is used for moulding blocks or bricks.
(iii) Most of the candidates could not answer this question well. Some candidates
gave responses like: “to make the wall smooth”, “to prevent block/brick from
rusting”.
The required answers include:

- to prevent the mortar from sticking to the internal surface of the
mould box.
(b) Most of the candidates were able to list examples of non-ferrous alloys and
aggregates. Most of them however could not list examples of abrasives.
Examples of abrasives include: emery cloth, sand/glass paper, oxide paper,
etc.
(c) Majority of candidates answered this question very well by copying and
completing the table with the correct tool used. A few candidates however did
not copy the table but only listed the tools.
RELIGIOUS AND MORAL EDUCATION 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper compared well with that of the previous years. The
questions also covered the various sections of the syllabus and were in simple
language candidates would understand.
The overall performance of the candidates was the same as that of last year. There
were few candidates whose performance was extremely excellent.
(1) Most candidates followed the rubrics of the paper by answering the
required number of questions choosing one question from each section.
(2) Most candidates numbered their points and presented them in paragraphs
making them neat and very easy to read.
(3) Candidates were able to handle questions on the following topics with
ease:
(i) Moral teachings and commitment
(ii) Obedience
3. A SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES
(1) Some candidates could not provide adequate answers to questions from
the following topics.
(i) God, his creation and his attributes.

(ii) Religious Personalities
(iii) Religious festivals
(iv) Decency and substance abuse
(v) The family
(2) Some of the candidates wasted time by defining some terms in the
questions before answering them.
(3) Some candidates could not express themselves well in the English
language and this contributed to their low performance. They had a lot of
spelling mistakes and grammatical errors in their answers.
(4) Illegible handwriting continued to be the headache of some candidates.

(1) Candidates should ensure they comprehend the demands of the questions
before they attempt answering them.
(2) Candidates should ensure they provide just what the questions demanded
in order not to provide irrelevant materials which earn them no marks.
(3) Candidates should cultivate the habit of reading story books and use the
English language in conversations in school. This will help to improve on
their grammar and spellings.
(4) Candidates should learn to write legibly to ensure their scripts could be
read with ease.
Q1. (a) Narrate the Dagomba traditional story of creation.

(b) State three attributes of God according to the Akan.
This question was in two parts; (a) and (b) and candidates were required to
answer all. The question was not popular among the candidates. Among
those who answered it, very few of them answered both parts well and
scored good marks.
Some of the candidates focused their answers on the Biblical account of

creation instead of traditional society of the Dagomba. They deviated with
wrong answers and scored very low marks. Some of the points candidates
could have considered as answers to the question were:
(i) To the Dagomba, the Supreme Being (Nawuni) is the creator of the
heavens and the earth and all the living things in it.
(ii) The Dagomba believe that Nawuni is Omnipotent, Omniscient and
Omnipresent and has no partner.
(iii) They believe Nawuni took six days to create the world and all creatures
(iv) The things created by Nawuni include; human beings, the sky, animals,
vegetation, water bodies etc.
(v) Apart from human beings, Nawuni created spirit forces and lesser gods
(bola) as his messengers.
(vi) The lesser gods were created to act as intermediaries between Him and
human beings.
The (b) part of the question was well answered by almost all the candidates who
attempted the question. Candidates were required to state attributes of God
according to the Akan. Some of the correct answers provided by the candidates
were:
(i) God is Omnipotent i.e. Almighty, All-powerful.

(ii) God is Omnipresent i.e. God is ever present everywhere.
(iii) God is Omniscient i.e. All-knowing.
(iv) God is Sovereign (Otumfour).
Performance of the candidates on this question was however fair.
Q2. (a) Narrate the covenant God made with Abraham.

(b) What three lessons can be learnt from God’s covenant with Abraham.
This question was a popular one and many candidates answered it. The (a) part
required a narration of the covenant God made with Abraham. However, some
candidates deviated and this affected their scores. They rather wrote on the
sacrifice of Isaac by Abraham and the separation of Lot and Abraham. Some of
the points candidates could have considered in their answers were:
(i) At age 75, God called Abraham and asked him to leave his country for the
land of Canaan.
(ii) God promised Abraham many descendants who would be a great nation.
(iii) God blessed Abraham and promised to make him famous
(iv) God told Abraham, he would bless those who bless him and curse those
who curse him.
(v) Abraham built an alter and worshiped God
(vi) But Abraham hid not have a child so he was worried.
(vii) Then, God promised to give Abraham a child.
(viii) God asked Abraham to perform a sacrifice as a sign that He would fulfil
His promise to him.
(ix) Abraham had a dream in which God revealed to him that, his descendants
would be strangers in a foreign land for 400 years after which they would
be free.
(x) God promised Abraham long life.
The (b) part of the question was however answered well by majority of the
candidates who attempted the question. The correct points as provided by the
candidates include:
(i) God is Almighty.

(ii) God must be respected for his greatness.
(iii) He is gracious and deals with people peacefully.
(iv) God is ready to fulfill his promise to human beings.
(v) God has the power to decide who he chooses to use to fulfill his plans.
(vi) God can change a person and situations.
Q3. (a) Describe how Christians celebrate Easter.

(b) State four reasons for which Easter feast is important to the
Christian.
This question was popular among the candidates but it was poorly answered. It
had two parts. The (a) part required candidates to describe how Christians
celebrate Easter.
Most of the candidates could not recognize that Easter spans from Good Friday to
Easter Monday. They were not able to identify the events that mark the various
days of the celebration. Some candidates provided the answer of the (b) part for
the (a) part and again repeated it for the (b) part. Candidates could have
considered some of the following points as answers to the question.
(i) Easter is the feast that marks the death and resurrection of Jesus from the
dead.
(ii) A period of six weeks or forty days of lent is used to prepare for the feast.
(iii) Lent is observed from Ash Wednesday to Holy Saturday that precedes
Easter Sunday.
(iv) On Good Friday, Christians mourn the death of Jesus Christ.
(v) On Easter Sunday, Churches are decorated with beautiful flowers and
ribbons.
(vi) Worshippers and Priests dress in descent clothes to attend church services.
(vii) During the church services, stories of the suffering, death and resurrection
of Jesus are told and special prayers and songs are offered to the risen
Lord.
(viii) The scriptures remind worshippers of how some women went to embalm
the body of Jesus at dawn but only found the tomb empty.
The answers provided for the (b) part was good and marks scored were also good.
Candidates were to state four reasons for which Easter feast is important to the
Christian. Some of the correct answers as provided by the candidates were:
(i) It marks the resurrection of Jesus Christ.
(ii) It gives Christians courage and hope that the Lord they worship is alive.
(iii) That the resurrection of Jesus Christ confirms he is the son of God.
(iv) It is the authority that makes Christians feel assured of eternal life through
Jesus Christ.
(v) Jesus has won victory over death for mankind.
(vi) That death is only a gateway to eternal life in the kingdom of God.
(vii) The resurrection story is a pillar of Christian faith.
Q4. (a) Describe four ways by which one can demonstrate good dressing habits
to school.
(b) State four reasons for which students must dress well to school.
This question required candidates to describe four ways to demonstrate good

dressing habits to school. It was a popular choice for candidates. They provided
good answers to both the (a) and the (b) parts. Many candidates scored full marks
for this question. However, some candidates focused on taking good bath,
mending torn dresses and reporting at school on time which were irrelevant to the
question. These candidates lost some marks. The overall performance of
candidates on this question was good.
Some of the correct points provided by the candidates for the demonstration of
good dressing habits were:
(i) Wear neatly washed and ironed uniform

(ii) Put on uniforms that cover sensitive parts of the body.
(iii) Underwears should not be longer than the dress
(iv) Shave one’s hairs neatly.
(v) Wear belts on the waist lines appropriately.
(vi) Tack in one’s shirts appropriately.
(vii) Put on laced shoes and sandals
(viii) Wear dresses that are fairly loosed on the body (not too tight).
(ix) Keep one’s nails well cut.
For the (b) part some of the reasons for which students must dress well to school
were.
(i) To serve as role model to others.
(ii) To show that one is well trained and disciplined.
(iii) To attract respect and admiration from others.
(iv) To avoid exposing parts of the body which can lead to abuse.
(v) To promote moral values in society, e.g. decency.
(vi) It makes one look smart and confident.
(vii) To meet the expectations of the school and society.
Q5. (a) Explain four ways of showing commitment to Allah.
(b) State four benefits of showing commitment to Allah.
This question was not popular. Very few candidates answered it and performed
very well. The (a) part of the question required candidates to explain four ways of
showing commitment to Allah. Majority of the candidates who answered it
provided the correct points and scored good marks. Some of the few candidates
who answered the question did not have adequate knowledge of the topic and
therefore gave wrong answers which did not earn them any mark. Some of the
answers required for this question were:
(i) Obeying all the commandments of Allah.

(ii) Praying to Allah and believing in him.
(iii) Studying the Qur’an and other relevant books.
(iv) Observing and practising all the teachings of Allah by being faithful and
truthful.
(v) Living good moral life.
(vi) Showing good neighbourliness by helping others.
The answers to the (b) part were very good and most of the candidates scored full
marks for it. It required candidates to state the benefits of showing commitment to
Allah. Candidate performance on the question was good. Some of the good
points as provided by the candidates were:
(i) It gives peace and joy in a person’s life.

(ii) It ensures one leads a righteous life.
(iii) It strengthens a person’s faith.
(iv) It improves one’s relation with others.
(v) It assures a person of eternal life.
Q6. (a) Explain four causes of substance abuse by students.

(b) State four defensive skills that can be used to protect oneself against
the abuse of drugs.
The question was in two parts; (a) and (b), and candidates were expected to
answer both parts. It was the most popular choice by almost all the candidates.
For the (a) part, almost all the candidates stated the correct points and scored
marks for listing the points. However, only few candidates were able to explain
the points and scored additional marks. Overall marks scored for this part was not
good enough.
The correct points raised by the candidates as in the marking scheme include the
following:
(i) Negative peer influence.
(ii) Ignorance.
(iii) Refusal to follow medical advice.
(iv) Immoral living.
(v) Curiosity.
(vi) Emotional stress.
The (b) part of the question was not properly handled by some of the candidates.
They did not understand ‘defensive skills’ and therefore deviated in answering the
question. They provided points on what the public must do to stem substance
abuse instead of what they would do to protect themselves against abuse of drugs.
Some of their points were; ‘the state must make laws to deal with the drug
pushers’, ‘parents must be responsible’ etc. Some of the points expected from
candidates as answers to the question were;
(i) Refusing to accept drugs offered by peers and adults

(ii) Avoid friends who indulge in drugs.
(iii) Read literature about drugs and follow correct administration of drugs.
(iv) Avoid self medication.
(v) Seek guidance and counseling.
(vi) Avoid eating food and drinks from people who cannot be trusted.
(vii) Observe and practice good moral teachings in one’s religion.
(viii) Avoid use of expired drugs.
(ix) Engage in sporting activities.
Q7. (a) Describe four problems that may arise if parents and children refuse
to perform their duties.
(b) State four consequences of anger in the society.
This was the most unpopular question as a handful of candidates attempted it. It
was poorly answered and marks scored were very low. Candidates could not give
problems that may arise if parents and children refuse to perform their duties.
Candidates could have provided the following points as answers to the question:
(i) It affects character formation of children.

(ii) The needs of the family will not be met.
(iii) The members of the family will not be happy.
(iv) It can lead to street children and its attendant social problems.
(v) Social vices; prostitution, stealing, drug abuse etc. will increase.
(vi) The education of children will be affected leading to school dropouts.
(vii) Children will lack development of necessary skills for life.
(viii) Parents and children will lack respect from society.
The (b) part on the consequences of anger in the society was also poorly answered
by candidates. They seemed not to understand the demands of the question.
The answers to the question expected from the candidates were:
(i) It leads to misunderstanding and conflicts.

(ii) It results in punishments e.g. suspensions, dismissals and imprisonment.
(iii) It brings about destruction of property and loss of life.
(iv) It leads to disunity in the society.
(v) It brings loss of respect from parents, teachers and peers.
(vi) It may tarnish one’s image.
(vii) You may lose friends and dear ones.
(viii) Anger may cause mental health problems e.g. hypertension.
(ix) It may incur the displeasure of God.
Performance of the candidates on this question was very poor.
Q8. (a) State four rules that govern behaviour in the classroom
(b) Explain five reasons for which rules and regulations must be obeyed.
This was the most popular choice as many candidates answered it. They were able
to state the various rules that govern behaviour in the classroom and scored very
good marks.
The points provided by candidates as in the marking scheme were:
(i) Students must be punctual and regular at school and class.

(ii) Students must attend all school gatherings.
(iii) Students must dress well to class.
(iv) Students must respect class prefects and teachers.
(v) Students must not leave class without permission.
(vi) All must be tolerant and not fight in the classroom or school compound.
(vii) Students must not disturb in the classroom especially during lessons.
The (b) part of the question required candidates to explain five reasons for which
rules and regulations must be obeyed. Candidates gave the correct reasons for
which rules and regulations must be obeyed. Marks scored by the candidates were
very good.
Some of the correct points stated by the candidates were:
(i) They help to achieve aims and objectives.

(ii) They prevent confusion and conflicts.
(iii) They help to promote peace and safety.
(iv) They help to differentiate right from wrong.
(v) They help to mould our behaviour.
(vi) They help to prevent disgrace and embarrassment.
SOCIAL STUDIES 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper this year compares favourably with that of previous
years. There was slight improvement in the performance of candidates this year.
(a) Commendable features noted were as follows:

(b) The rubrics were generally followed
(c) Some candidates had good understanding of the following topics:
 Health needs of Ghanaians

 Natural disasters
 Effects of ethnic conflicts
(d) Most candidates had legible handwriting

(e) Majority showed good understanding of the questions.
The weaknesses of candidates are varied. These include the following:
(a) Spelling errors.

(b) Most candidates did not understand the following instructional words in
the questions: Outline, Describe and State.
(c) Lack of knowledge and understanding questions on the following topics:
 Conflict management,
 Characteristics of the North East trade winds in Ghana,
 Effects of North - East trade winds,
 International co-operation.
(a) Candidates need to be helped to improve on their command of the

English language
(b) Teachers are to treat all topics in the syllabus before candidates
write the examination.
(c) Candidates need to practice with past questions
(d) Candidates should be guided to write their answers in meaningful

sentences and expound on them where necessary.
DETAILED COMMENTS
Q1. (a) List five examples of natural disasters.

(b) Outline five ways by which the physical environment can be
protected from degradation.
This question tested candidate’s knowledge and understanding of natural disasters

and measures that could be adopted to protect the physical environment from
degradation.
The question was presented in two parts (a) and (b).

The (a) part was well listed but was laced with several spelling mistakes.
Some candidates had problems with understanding the (b) part of the question and
therefore deviated. The deviations include understanding the question to be
issues that cause accidents and deaths.
Others did not provide actual ways by which the physical environment can be
protected from degradation, instead provided answers such as avoid illegal
mining, avoid overgrazing, avoid soil erosion etc, which did not amount to
practical ways of protecting the physical environment and therefore lost some
marks.
The following are some of the expected responses:
 The use of appropriate technology,

 Setting up conservation of forests,
 Public education,
 Re-cycle of resources,
 The use of lesser known resources, etc.
Q2. (a) List five characteristics of the North East Trade winds in Ghana
(b) Describe five effects of the effects of the North East Trade Winds
in Ghana.
The question was in two parts, (a) and (b) and both tested knowledge and
understanding of the climate of Ghana with reference to the north east trade winds
in Ghana.
The question was not so popular with most candidates as most of the candidate
who attempted it deviated. Candidates could not distinguish between
characteristics and effects of the north east trade winds; instead, some candidates
stated the following as characteristics erroneously, bleeding of lips, drying of
crops, drying of clothe, etc.
The following are characteristics of the north east trade winds in Ghana:
 The winds blow from the north east of Ghana to the south- west of Ghana in
terms of direction of winds
 The Winds are normally dry
 The Winds do not bring rainfall
 The winds bring along dust
 The winds blow around the months of November to March etc.
The (b) part of the question requested for the effects of the north-east trade winds in
Ghana and was well answered by most candidates.
Q3. (a) (i) Define conflict management
(ii) List five sources of conflict in society.
(b) Outline four effects of ethnic conflicts in Ghana
Question 3 was on the topic conflict management and effects of conflicts in

Ghana.
It was a popular question as most candidates answered it. Some candidates

defined conflict resolution and conflict prevention instead and lost marks. Some
candidates misunderstood the question on sources of conflict in society as
referring to places where conflicts take place such as the markets, lorry station,
chief palaces, etc. and therefore lost marks.
Sources of conflicts in Ghana include:
 Intolerance
 Suspicion
 Poor media report
 Tribal/ethnocentrism
 Abuse of human rights
 Location of/siting of public facilities etc.
The (b) part of the question expected the following as good answers
 Loss of property
 Loss of lives
 Prevents/retards developments
 Creates instability/insecurity
 Leads to famine etc.
Q4. (a) List four ways through which Ghana cooperate with other nations.
(b) Outline four reasons for which Ghana co-operates with neighboring
countries.
Question 4 was on the topic international cooperation in which candidates were

tested on the knowledge and understanding of the topic. It was not popular with
candidates as the few who answered this question performed badly.
The various ways through which Ghana cooperates with other nations include
 Political
 Social
 Cultural
 Sports
 Educational military
 Technical etc
The reasons for which Ghana co-operates with neighbouring countries include:
 To fight common interest
 Sharing of common ideas
 Relief assistance
 Solicit financial assistance
 Create wider markets
 Military assistance etc.
Q5. Outline five ways by which State Owned Enterprises differ from Private
Owned Enterprises.
Candidates were required to outline ways in which State-owned enterprises differ

from private owned enterprises. It was popular with candidates as most of them
scored high marks.
Few candidates were unable to bring out the differences using the right
conjunction or links to present their points and therefore lost some marks.
Conjunctions such as but, whereas, whilst etc are to be used to show the
differences and not separate points for each one of the enterprises. Examples
include:
 State owned enterprises are set up by central governments while private

owned enterprises are set up by private individuals
 State owned enterprises are owned by the state while private owned
enterprises are owned by individuals/group of people etc.
Q6. (a) State four ways by which the health needs of Ghanaians can be
improved.
(b) Outline four ways by which improved health of people can contribute
to national development.
Candidates were expected to state ways by which the health needs of Ghanaians
can be improved and outline ways by which the improved health needs of people
can contribute to national development.
Only a few of the candidates answered the question. They generally performed
poorly.
The health needs of people can be improved through the following:
 Provision of potable water
 Health insurance schemes
 Improved nutrition
 Regular exercises
 Public education etc
Some of the expected answers on how improved health needs of the people can
contribute to national development include:
 Produce ready and available human resources
 May reduce absenteeism due to excellent health
 Can translate to high productivity
 Can reduce government expenditure on health etc.

MATHEMATICS
1. STANDARD OF THE PAPER
The standard of the paper compared favourably with that of the previous years and the
performance of candidates was encouraging.
Candidates strengths were catalogued in the following areas as ability to:
(i) use Venn diagram to solve two set problem;
(ii) use ruler and a pair of compasses only to construct a given triangle and the
perpendicular bisector of a side and an angle of the triangle;
(iii) determine the modal age and mean age of students from a given data;
(iv) plot and indicate the coordinates of a set of given points on the graph as well as
drawing a straight line passing through the points;
(v) substitute given values into a relation to find the value of a variable;
(vi) solve inequality expression and illustrating the answer on a number line.
Candidates weaknesses were recorded as difficulty in:
(i) finding the total shaded area of a plane figure;
(ii) writing the equation for finding the two consecutive odd numbers from a story
problem;
(iii) finding the rate of production of an item within a given period of time;
(iv) solving problems involving vectors;
(v) finding the quantity and profit of a given item;
(vi) identifying vertically opposite angles and alternate angles from two parallel lines
cut by a transversal.
The Chief Examiner suggested that:
(i) teachers should use relevant teaching and learning materials to teach the topics
syllabus as this will enable candidates to understand the underlying
outlined in the syllabus
concepts of the topics;
(ii) teachers should encourage candidates to read, understand and analyse questions
before solving them;
(iii) teachers should encourage candidates to work more examples

example of all topics treated.
1. (a) In a class of 30 girls, 17 play football, 12 play hockey and 4 play both games.
(i) Draw a Venn diagram to illustrate the given information.
(ii) How many girls play:
(𝜶) one or two of the games?
(𝜷) none of the two games?
(b)
In the diagram, ABCD is a circle of radius 14cm and centre O. Line BO is

perpendicular to line AC. Calculate, the total area of the shaded portions.
𝟐𝟐
[Take 𝝅 = ]
𝟕
In part (a), most candidates were able to draw a well labelled venn diagram showing the
two intersecting sets. However, some candidates did not label the venn diagram while
others labelled one of the sets and left the other unlabeled.Most candidates showed
mastery in finding the number of girls who played one or two oof the games, likewise
none of the two games. It was observed that some could not find none of the two games.
At part (b), candidates were expected to find the area of the semi-circle and the area of
the triangle. Candidate were expected to deduce the area of the semi-circle and the area of
the triangle. Most candidates could not visualize that the shaded portion is within the
semi-circle. Rather, they considered the entire circle as having the shaded area so they
messed up with the concept for finding the shaded portion.
2. (a) Two consecutive odd numbers are such that seven times the smaller,
subtracted from nine times the bigger, gives 144. Find the two numbers.
(b) A paint manufacturing company has a machine which fills 24 tin with paint in
5 minutes.
(i) How many tins will the machine fill in:
(𝜶) 1 minute, correct to the nearest whole number?
(𝜷) 1 hour?
(ii) How many hours will it take to fill 1440 tin?

𝒏
(c) Given that s = 𝟐 [ 2a + (n – 1)d], a = 3, d = 4 and n = 10, find the value of s.
In part (a) candidates were expected to write the two consecutive odd numbers as x and x
+ 2. Having written the two numbers in algebraic form they were expected to write the
required equation as 9 (x + 2) - 7(x) = 144 and then find the value of x.
It was observed that, most candidates were not able to write the required equation as stated
above. They resorted to try and error method to solve the problem. However, few
candidates showed mastery in solving the problem. They read the question carefully and
deduced the facts which enabled them to write the required equation.
Also in part (b), candidates were expected to apply the concept of simple proportion to
find the number of tins a machine can fill in a minute. The question was well answered by
most of the candidates, but some of them did not correct the final answer to the nearest
whole. The other aspect of the question was simple and straight forward, but unfortunately
some candidates could not simplify it.
In part (c), all that they were expected to do was to substitute the given values into the
relation and evaluate. It was observed that most candidates used the concept of BODMAS
to obtain the required answer, while those who have no idea about BOADMAS
evaluated it anyhow.
3. (a) Using a ruler and a pair of compasses only, construct:
(i) a triangle ABC with |𝑩𝑪| = 9cm, |𝑨𝑪| = 8 cm and |𝑨𝑩| = 6cm;
(ii) the perpendicular bisector of line BC;
(iii) the bisector of angle ACB.
(b) Label the point of intersection of the two bisectors as Y.
(c) Draw a line to join B and Y.
(d) Measure:
(i) |𝑩𝒀|;
(ii) |𝒀𝑪|;
(iii) the base angles of triangle BYC.
(e) What type of triangle is BYC?
Most candidates attempted this question using a pair of compasses and ruler only to
construct the three given sides of the triangle accurately.
They went ahead to construct the perpendicular bisector of line BC as well as the angle
bisector of angle ACB. Candidates had no difficulty in locating Y as point of intersection
of the two bisectors, as well as drawing a line to join B and Y. They measured the lengths
of lines BY and YC and had the same dimensions so they identified triangle BYC as an
Isosceles triangle.
Some candidates also did not read the rubrics so they used only ruler to draw the triangle
since all the dimensions of its sides were given. This was a total deviation and it affected
their performance.
4. (a) The table below shows the ages of students admitted in a hospital.
Age (years)
10 11 12 13 14 15
Number of
Students 5 1 7 10 3 4
Use the information to answer the following questions:

(i) What is the modal age?
(ii) Calculate, correct to two decimal places, the mean age of the students.
(b) Rice is sold at GH¢56.00 per bag of 50kg. A trader bought some bags of rice
and paid GH¢1, 344.00.
(i) How many bags of rice did the trader buy?
(ii) If the trader retailed the bags of rice at GH¢ 1.40 per kg, how much
profit was made on 1 kg of rice?
The part (a), was well answered by most candidates. They were able to find the modal
age with ease. However, few candidate missed the concept so they stated the highest
frequency that is 10 as the modal age instead of 13years being the corresponding age of
the highest frequency. Again, they showed mastery in calculating the mean age of the
students, as well as leaving the final answer in two decimal places as demanded.
It was also observed that, some candidates could not simplify the mean by using the long
division method to obtain the required answer while others also reversed the mean
𝚺𝒇 𝚺𝒇𝒙
formula. That is 𝐦𝐞𝐚𝐧 = instead of mean = .
𝚺𝒇𝒙 𝚺𝒇
In part (b), most candidates were able to solve the (b)(i) so easily by dividing the total
cost of the rice by the unit cost per bag of rice. It was realized that they had difficulty in
finding the profit made on 1kg of rice. Instead of analyzing the question and applying the
concept of finding profit made per 1kg of rice they did not take cognizance of the profit
made on 1kg of rice but rather they used the normal concept of finding profit and had it
wrong. They were expected to find the profit made on 1kg of rice as:
Cost price = GH¢1344.00
Retailed price = Gh¢1.40 x 1200kg = GH¢1680.00
Profit on each kg = = = = 0.28GP or GH¢0.28
5. (a) Using a scale of 2 cm to 1 unit on both axes, draw on a graph sheet two
perpendicular axes 0x and 0y for – 5 ≤ x ≤ 5 and – 5 ≤ y ≤ 5.
(i) Plot, indicating the coordinates of all points A (2, 3) and B (-3,4).
Draw a straight line passing through the points A and B.
(ii) Plot on the same graph sheet, indicating the coordinates of the points C (4, 2)
and D (-2, -3). Draw a straight line passing through the points to meet line
AB.
(b) Using the graphs in 5 (a):
(i) find the values of y when x = -2;
(ii) measure the angle between the line AB and CD.
The part (a) was well answered by most candidate. They were able to draw the two
perpendicular axes ox and oy accurately on the graph. They potted and indicated all the
coordinates of the given points. Again, they were able to draw the straight lines passing
through the points as expected.
However, few candidates committed some errors such as unequal interval, non-labelling
and wrong labelling of axes. Other errors were non-labelling of points and their
corresponding coordinates. Also it was realized that if they had taken their time to work
meticulously all these errors would have been avoided. The other part of the question
depended on part (a), so those who could not do the part (a) as expected also couldn’t do
the part (b). It was also observed that some candidates who had the part (a) well
answered could not use protractor to measure the angle between lines AB and CD
accurately.
𝟐𝒙 + 𝟏 𝟔 𝟗
6. (a) If m = ,n= and m + n =
𝟐 − 𝟑𝒚 −𝟖 −𝟏𝟐
(i) values of x and y;
(ii) components of m.
𝟑 𝟏
(b) (i) Solve the inequality: (x + 1) + 1 ≤ (x – 2) + 5.
𝟒 𝟐
(ii) Illustrate the answer in b (i) on a number line.
(c)
In the diagram 𝑨𝑩 is parallel to 𝑪𝑫. Find the value of:
(i) x;
(ii) y.
Most candidates attempted this question. In part (a), they substituted the given component
vectors into the given equation and applied the concept of equal vectors to solve the
linear equations derived to obtain the values of x and y. Those who were familiar with
component vector, substituted the values of x and y into vector m and manipulated to
obtain the required components, while others did not attempt the question at all.
It was also observed that some candidates wrote the component vectors as fraction which
was totally wrong.
The part (b), was also attempted by most candidates. Some were able to clear the
fractions, expand the terms and group like terms. They solved for the value of x and
illustrated it on a number line. However, few candidates messed up with the grouping of
the like terms in order to solve for the value of x. Others also changed the inequality sign
to “equal to” sign which was unacceptable. It was also found out that some candidates did
not show the inclusiveness of the point on the number line.
In part (c), most candidates did not answer the question. However few candidates who
answered it used a wrong concept in finding the values of x and y.
Some candidates could not relate x to 47° and 102°. From the diagram, it could be seen
that the sum of the two angles is vertically opposite the angle marked x and therefore they
were equal. ie x = 47° + 102° = 149°.
The sum of y and the corresponding angle is equal to the straight angle.ie y + 149° = 180°
⟹ y = 180° – 149° = 31°
Just few candidates were able to identify the relationship between the angles, and
establish the correct facts about the unknown angles.
DAGAARE 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
This year’s paper compared favourably with that of previous years. It was of standard
because it tested the various aspects of the language as prescribed by both the teaching
and the examination syllabuses. The questions were also rendered in a manner that suited
the level and experience of the candidates.
However, candidates’ overall performance seemed to have fallen below the general
expectation. In a few isolated cases, however, some candidates scored higher marks than
last year.
2. A SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS
(1) It emerged from the scripts of the candidates that a few of them understood the
demands and tenets of the questions and so dealt with them appropriately.
(2) Some candidates deserve commendation for their performances in the essay
writing, comprehension and the lexis and structure. They used appropriate diction
in the essays and answered the comprehension questions using their own words.
(3) A few candidates were able to develop points and issues demanded by the essay
questions and presented them logically and in appropriate paragraphs.
(1) Most candidates did not understand the rubrics and as such they answered more
than one question on the same page and wrote on more than one composition
topic.
(2) Spelling, punctuation and the correct use of upper case and lower case letters were
still persistent problems for many candidates.
(3) Many candidates copied the comprehension passage as their essays. Some of the
candidates also used unauthorized language to write their essays. There were
many deviations since some candidates did not understand the demands of the
essay topics.
(4) The area of lexis and structure posed serious challenges to a good number of the
candidates because they had little knowledge of the Dagaare word class.
(1) Teachers should use previous examination papers to explain the rubrics to
students before they write the examinations.
(2) Teachers should give more exercises on spelling, punctuation and the application
of upper case and lower case letters.
(3) The teaching of essay writing should be intensified in the Junior High schools to
enable the candidates to write good essays in their final examination. Students
should be encouraged to read intensively and extensively in the target language to
build their vocabulary.
(4) Teachers should use previous examination papers and a lot of exercises to teach
the Dagaare word class in the Junior High schools. Such interventions will equip
the students adequately to write the examination.
Question 1(a)
Narrate an incident that you will never forget in your life.
The majority of candidates answered this question. A few candidates demonstrated good
understanding of the demands of the question. They exhibited sequential presentation of
ideas and good usage of the language. Some candidates who introduced their
compositions mentioned the types of incident, place of incident, day/date and time of
incident.
Nevertheless, some of them thought it was letter writing and therefore deviated. Others
just copied the comprehension passage.
By way of conclusion, the candidate was expected to state the influence the incident had
on him/her and his/her own impressions bringing out clearly why the incident would not
be forgotten.
Question 1(b)
Direct a friend from your school to your house.
Candidates who attempted this question deviated. They wrote letters to friends directing
them from their schools to their houses. They were expected to start the directions from
their school and use reliable landmarks such as churches, mosques, popular buildings and
streets as reference points. They were also to use the appropriate vocabulary to give
directions to their friend to be able to locate their (candidate’s) house.
Also, it was expected that they would give the friend an idea of the warm reception that
awaited them, thereby generating a feeling of excitement.
Many did not address the question well and therefore scored low marks.
Question 1(c)
Is it necessary that Junior High School students should also have class prefects?
This is an argumentative essay and the candidate was expected to take a stance, for or
against. That is, they were expected to take sides and defend that position. Candidates
were expected to advance the following points if their stance was for the motion – every
human institution has a leader even in the animal kingdom, to seek their welfare, act as a
liaison between them and school authorities, etc. Those whose stance was against the
topic were expected to advance the following facts; pupils are all equal in the same class
and with same qualification, they can control themselves, they can approach school
authorities when the need arises and they can manage their own teaching and learning
materials.
They could also expose the weaknesses in opposing arguments. Many of them failed to
do this and therefore scored low marks.
A few students attempted this question. Unfortunately, candidates’ arguments were not
logical.
Question 1(d)
Discuss four ways/means to minimize accidents on our roads.
Candidates who attempted this question performed poorly. Some copied the composition
topics. They needed to state or discuss some of the causes of road accidents, that is,
motor accidents on our roads. They include drunk driving, over-speeding, poor vehicle
maintenance, recklessness in driving, mechanical faults, wrong/poor certification of
drivers, non-enforcement of driving regulations, bad roads, overloading, among others.
Candidates could then use these as a basis to recommend and discuss the four ways by
which the accidents can be minimized.
Unfortunately, a lot of the candidates could either not advance the four points or discuss
them as expected.
Question 2 - Comprehension
A comprehension passage was given and candidates were asked to answer questions
based on it. They consisted of recall, inference, meaning and summary questions.
The general trend that emerged was that candidates had considerable difficulties in
understanding the text. The general performance was below expectation and this might be
due to lack of intensive and extensive reading in Dagaare. Candidates need to be taken
through techniques of extracting meaning from texts.
Question 3 - Lexis and Structure
(a) – (e): Identify the verbs in the sentences lettered (a) to (e).
Almost all the candidates could identify all the verbs used in the five sentences. Only a
few candidates wrote down the nouns in the five sentences.
(f) – (j): Identify the pronouns in the sentences lettered (f) to (j).
Many candidates were faced with the difficulty of identifying the pronouns in the
sentences because they had no idea about pronouns.
(k) – (o): Punctuate the following sentences lettered (k) to (o).
Not many candidates could punctuate the sentences correctly. Some candidates simply
underlined the nouns in the sentences.
(p) – (t): Insert the correct conjunction in each of the sentences lettered (p) to (t) to make
each pair of sentences one meaningful sentence.
Many candidates were able to provide the correct conjunctions and scored high marks. A
few candidates provided words from different word classes instead of the correct
conjunctions.
DAGBANI 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper was comparable to that of the previous years. There was,
however, some improvement in the orthography of many candidates.
2. A SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENTGHS
(1) Good orthography: The spelling, grammar, word division and punctuation of
many candidates improved greatly. They spelt their words correctly and used their
tenses, their capital and small letters appropriately. They also used the full-stop,
comma and other punctuation marks correctly. This made their answers very easy
to read and understand.
(2) Length of answers: In the composition, some candidates tried to write within the
given number of words. Where they wrote more or fell short of the number, they
did this by few words. In the other sections, their answers were short and precise.
(3) Use of language: There was ample evidence to suggest that many candidates had
prepared adequately for the examination. This reflected in their use of language
(informal, appropriate figures of speech, and good idiomatic expressions). Some
of them also used appropriate jargons and contemporary expressions.
(1) Poor orthography: The spelling, word-division, punctuation and tenses of some
candidates were very poor. Words that are normally written as single words were
divided e.g. alizini is written as alizini, yigisi is written as yi6isi, etc. Also, words
written as separate words were written as single words e.g. Oyuli Adam should be
written as O yuli Adam, changari is as cha` gari, etc. Some candidates did not
know how to use small letters and capital letters whilst others combined their
vowels poorly, etc.
(2) Copying of questions: Some candidates copied the questions into their scripts
before answering them; others merely copied them without providing any
answers.
(1) Poor orthography can be remedied in the classroom, through intensive and
extensive reading, dictation and other class exercises.
(2) Teachers should discourage students from copying questions in class exercises
before answering them. They should also be taught to value and use time
judiciously in examinations.
Question 1(a)
Many candidates chose this question. Some compositions had introductions whilst others
did not have any introductions. Candidates who introduced their compositions mentioned
the types of incident, place of incident, day/date and time of incident.
In the body, some candidates narrated the incident vividly. They mentioned how it
occurred, its intensity or otherwise and how it all ended. Some other candidates could not
narrate the incident vividly. After mentioning the type of incident they gave a poor
description of how it happened. They could not also show how it ended.
To conclude their compositions, many candidates stated why they will never forget this
particular incident. Regrettably, there were some compositions without conclusions.
Question 1(b)
A good number of candidates chose this question.
By way of introduction, some candidates sent the traditional greetings to their friends
before inviting them to visit their homes. Others expressed how happy they would be if
their friends would visit their homes starting from their schools. However, some
candidates did not introduce their compositions.
In the body, some candidates gave very reliable directions to their friends to enable them
reach/locate their houses without difficulty. Some of the points raised included arrival at
the school and immediate landmarks to note, route to take and type of roads and
landmarks along the route (e.g. market, churches/mosques, hospitals, etc.). Others
mentioned marks to note when their friends arrived at their homes (e.g. type of building,
walled gate, painted or otherwise, etc.). They also mentioned how their friends would
meet their parents and visit places of interest before returning home. However, some
candidates merely mentioned the route their friends would take but they did not indicate
landmarks to note and the types of reception their friends would receive.
To conclude their compositions, some candidates wished their friends safe journey/safe
arrival and gave assurances that their friends would locate their houses without difficulty,
following the directions given. Others assured their friends a happy welcome.
Unfortunately, some candidates did not conclude their compositions.
Question 1(c)
Should Junior High School students have class prefects?
A good number of candidates chose this question. In the introduction, some candidates
stated their stance (e.g. for or against) whilst other compositions did not have
introduction.
In the body, candidates who argued for the motion indicated that every human institution
has a leader and as such they also needed a leader. They argued further that there was the
need for someone to control and provide them with leadership, seek their welfare, act as
liaison between students and school authorities and protect their teaching and learning
materials and/or teaching process, etc.
Candidates who argued against the motion stated that all students are equal in the same
class and have the same qualifications and because of that they can control themselves.
They argued further that they did not need a bully, they can approach school authorities
on their own, address their own problems/grievances with school authorities and manage
their own teaching and learning process and/or materials. Some other candidates raised a
few points for and against the motion without taking a stance.
To conclude, some candidates reemphasized their stance. However, there were some
compositions without conclusions.
Question 1(d)
Discuss four ways to minimize accidents on our roads.
Many candidates chose this question. In the introduction of some of their compositions
some candidates affirmed that road accidents are rampant in the country, hence there is
the need to find ways to minimize them. Some compositions did not have introduction.
In the body, some candidates discussed four causes of accidents and suggested four
ways/means to reduce/minimize them. Some of the points raised for causes of accidents
included bad roads, use of non-road worthy vehicles, drunk driving and unqualified
drivers. Other points raised included overloading vehicles, misdemeanor of the police at
check points on the roads, misbehavior of motorists and other road users and erection of
unauthorized road blocks and speed rumps, etc.
Points discussed as means to address the causes raised were the construction of good
roads and regular maintenance, regular maintenance of vehicles by drivers and advice to
drivers not to drink/make or receive calls when driving. Other points discussed included
proper training and licensing of drivers, drivers to avoid greediness in loading, police to
be up to expectation at check points on the roads and education of other motorists and
pedestrians. More points discussed by other candidates included observance of road signs
and traffic regulations and removal of roadblocks and speed rumps.
Some candidates could not raise four causes and suggest four means to address them.
They raised only one or two points and discussed them very poorly too.
To conclude their compositions, some candidates expressed optimism that when the
proposed measures are adopted, road accidents will be minimized. Some candidates did
not give any conclusions to their compositions.
Candidates were given a short passage to read and answer ten questions on the passage.
The questions were based on stated facts, inference, meaning and summery (title).
The questions on stated facts and meaning were well answered. However, the questions
on summary were not well answered.
Candidates were given twenty short sentences to identify, write and fill in spaces as
follows:
(a) – (e): Write the verbs in the following sentences.
(f) – (j): Write the pronouns in the following sentences.
(k) – (o): Re-write the following sentences and indicate the appropriate punctuation in
each sentence.
(p) – (t): Fill in the appropriate conjunction in each of the following sentences.
The sentences on verbs and pronouns were well answered. However, the questions on
punctuations and conjunctions were not well attempted.
DANGME 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
This year’s paper was compared favourably with that of previous years.
In general terms candidates seemed to have performed better in this year’s papers as
compared to last year. This notwithstanding, a few individual candidates performed quite
below average especially in the comprehension test.
The scope of the paper covered the required areas of study as prescribed by the teaching
and examination syllabuses.
(1) Candidates demonstrated understanding of the questions and answered them quite
appropriately.
(2) Systematic and orderly presentation of facts and ideas was ensured in the writing
of the essays. Good paragraphing was also adhered to in most cases.
(3) Some level of maturity and good command of the language was displayed in
candidates’ use of language in the essays such as the appropriate use of proverbs,
idioms and other figurative language forms.
(4) Candidates generally demonstrated good understanding of the comprehension

passage and answered the questions quite appropriately.
(1) The majority of candidates exceeded the stipulated number of words for writing
the essays. On the contrary, some candidates also wrote far below the prescribed
number of words for the essays.
(2) Some candidates wrote addresses where they were not required especially for
question 1(b).
(3) Some candidates exhibited inadequate knowledge about verbs especially a

distinction between main and auxiliary verbs in Dangme.
(4) Use of colloquial or dialectal forms instead of the standard Dangme appeared in
the writings of most candidates. A few examples are as follows: “he yi” for “he
ye”, “lae” for “hlae”, “hi4” for “hi1 4”, “b4 m4di” for “b4 m4de”, “eny4 ni”
instead of “eny4ne”, “klaa” for “kulaa”, “pee ye” for “pee”, etc.
(5) In a few other cases, some candidates lifted either the whole comprehension
passage or some portions of it for their essays.
(1) Teachers should take steps to seriously teach the standard form of the orthography
of Dangme in the schools.
(2) Pupils should be taught how to read and derive meaning from written texts
especially on choosing the suitable title for given passages/texts.
(3) Intensive and extension reading in Dangme should be encouraged in all the
schools.
(4) Candidates’ attention should be drawn to the fact that they will not be awarded
marks for merely writing addresses to questions.
(5) Speaking of Dangme in our basic schools should be allowed to help check wrong
use of concepts and mispronunciations.
(6) The grammar of the language should be vigorously taught in the schools.
Question 1(a)
For this question, the candidate was required to narrate an event that took place in his/her
life that he/she would never forget. Quite a good number of candidates attempted this
question. The events candidates narrated were either a bad event such as losing a dear
one, loss of items, being severely reprimanded for some wrong-doing and other
joyous/happy events such as birthday celebration and receiving presents/gifts, school
awards, journeys to certain unknown places, etc.
Candidates who answered this question demonstrated clear understanding of the demands
of the question and so did quite well on it.
Question 1(b)
This question demanded that the candidate should direct a friend from his/her school to
candidate’s home. The majority of candidates answered this question. Candidates who
attempted this question also demonstrated clear understanding of the demands of the
question. They were able to state the distance from school to the house/home, signs to be
observed and noted, diversion, branch of roads that should be taken or ignored, etc.
Expressions such as “go straight, turn left or right and other physical structures were used
in giving the directions. A few candidates, however, mistook this as a letter writing and
employed that mode e.g. writing the address, salutation and validation.
Generally, the majority of candidates performed well in this question.
Question 1(c)
This question required the candidate to argue for or against the motion: whether there
should be class prefects for the JHS classes. This was the least attempted question. The
few who attempted this question demonstrated some understanding of the tenets of the
question and mostly tilted their argument in support of the motion. They argued that
every group needs a head for support and direction to ensure and maintain law and order
in the absence of a teacher. The prefect would also lead the class in taking decisions and
help to explain certain aspects of the teaching delivered by the class teacher. And in order
to show leadership, the class representative/prefect should be a good student.
Candidates, however, could not argue that, the choice brings/breeds discrimination,
because only one is chosen among the lot and that they were mature enough to control
themselves.
Question 1(d)
For this question, the candidate was to discuss four ways by which road accidents could
be curbed. Quite a good number of candidates attempted this question. Their responses
indicated that they understood the demands of the question. In attempting this question,
candidates gave a few causes of road accidents such as bad roads, over-loading of
vehicles, reckless driving, drivers drinking hard drinks before driving, wrong over-taking,
police compromising their duties, etc.
Some of the solutions discussed were that government should repair and maintain the
roads, drivers should be severely punished when caught driving under the influence of
alcohol, police should check reckless driving, drivers should stop over-loading and over-
speeding, etc. Candidates’ performance on this question was quite satisfactory.
This aspect of the paper tested candidates’ understanding of written texts – a

comprehension passage. Candidates were to read a given passage and answer the
questions – mostly content–based and inferential questions. Others were on meaning and
giving an appropriate title to the passage. Quite a good number of the candidates did well
on the content-based questions. For this year’s passage, most candidates were able to deal
quite effectively with the inferential questions. Their biggest challenge was the choosing
of a suitable title for the passage. Most of the titles exceeded the required number of
words prescribed by the question. The general performance by candidates on this
question was quite commendable.
This aspect of the paper had four (4) parts or sections and tested candidates’ knowledge
in the following areas – verbs, pronouns, punctuations and conjunctions respectively.
The first part requested the candidates to pick out the verbs in the given sentences. A few
candidates were able to recognize both the main and auxiliary verbs and picked them.
Quite a good number of candidates, however, could not make any distinction and
therefore picked one and left the other. In some extreme cases some candidates could not
differentiate between nouns and verbs and rather wrote down the nouns. General
performance was average.
The second section tested candidates’ knowledge on Dangme pronouns. Both the
objective and subjective cases of the pronouns were tested. While a good number of
candidates were able to pick the pronouns, some also picked one out of two in the same
sentence. A few, however, could not make any distinction between nouns and pronouns
and instead picked some nouns for pronouns. The general performance, however, was
commendable.
The third part tested candidates’ knowledge on the use of punctuations. The following
were tested. The use of upper case letters, commas, full-stop, and quotation marks. The
majority of the candidates did very well on this aspect. A few candidates however, only
wrote down the punctuations instead of indicating their use in sentences. Writing the
punctuations in isolation is not acceptable and candidates’ attention must be drawn to
this. All the same, performance here was good.
The last part of this paper requested the candidate to supply the appropriate conjunction
to make the sentence complete and meaningful. The performance of candidates in this
section indicated that candidates had good knowledge on the use of conjunctions in
Dangme.
The general performance was commendable.

EWE 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper compared favourably with that of previous years. Candidates’
performance, however, fell below expectation as against that of the previous year.
There was a slight improvement in candidates’ performance in Composition and Lexis

and Structure:
(1) Composition: A number of candidates displayed some maturity in their

presentation of ideas and arguments. They also presented their points in well laid
out paragraphs, developing one main idea in each paragraph. On the whole, they
also used punctuation marks appropriately.
(2) Lexis and structure: Few candidates displayed an in-depth knowledge of the word
classes in the language and scored appreciable marks in this section.
Candidates displayed little or no knowledge in the following areas:
(1) Orthography (spelling/word-division): This was poor and candidates scored little
or no marks out of the mark allocated. There was also incorrect writing of the
letters of the Ewe alphabet e.g. d, 2, f, 5, x, h, etc.
(2) Grammar: It appeared candidates had no fair knowledge of the tenses in the
language, especially the simple present, simple past and habitual tenses.
(3) Punctuation: This was poorly done. Many candidates could not even use the
comma and full-stop correctly.
(4) Paragraphing: This was poorly done. An essay of one page with many ideas was
presented in only one paragraph.
(1) Teachers need to give more classwork to the pupils. These should be marked and
the mistakes pointed out to the candidates in terms of orthography, grammar,
expressions, paragraphing, punctuation and proper writing of the letters of the
alphabet.
(2) The grammar of the language should be taught as is done in teaching the English
Language and other subjects.
(3) Generally, pupils should be made to read more literature in the language to enable
them to build up their stock of vocabulary and expression.
Question 1(a)
The question was very popular and candidates who attempted it did well to narrate real
incidents that they were eyewitnesses to. In answering this question, the candidate was
expected to state the type of incident, place, date and time of the incident. However, some
candidates went wild by writing on incidents that have no bearing on their experiences in
life. Unrelated stories were written and some even copied the Comprehension passage as
answers to the question.
There were no introduction and conclusion to most of the essays presented by most of the
candidates. Teachers are urged to guide their pupils on the correct presentation of
narrative essays.
Question 1(b)
This question was quite popular but candidates who attempted it did not do well.
Appropriate registers were absent e.g. specific landmarks to note, no need to ask others
met on the way to help locate the house. Poor use of punctuation was displayed in this
particular essay.
Some of the candidates even treated it as a form of letter writing. This was not accepted
and it should be discouraged.
Teachers are urged to guide their pupils on the correct approach to writing the different
types of essays. In the case of showing directions, emphasis should be laid on the use of
landmarks to reach the required destination and not asking people along the route for
further direction.
Question 1(c)
This question was not popular. The few candidates who attempted it did not do well. The
question required that the candidate should take a stance (for or against) and defend it..
E.g. writing for: The need to have a leader to control, seek their welfare, act as liaison
and protect their teaching and learning materials, etc.
Writing against: No need for a leader because they are all equal – same class and
qualification, no need for a bully, can address their own problems with school authorities,
can manage their own teaching and learning materials, etc.
Some of the candidates, however, went wild by writing on issues unrelated to the
classroom situation. Teachers are urged to guide their pupils on the correct approach to
writing argumentative essays.
Question 1(d)
The question was very popular and the majority of candidates who attempted it did well.
They discussed in brief, causes of road accidents and suggested ways to minimize them.
E.g. Causes: Bad roads, use of alcohol when driving, over-loading and over speeding,
illiterate drivers who cannot read road signs, misbehaviour by other motorists and
pedestrians, unauthorized road blocks, use of mobile phones while driving, etc.
Ways to minimize them: Maintenance of roads and building good ones, non-use of
alcohol while driving, regulated loading and speeding, non-use of mobile phones while
driving, proper use of the roads by other motorists and pedestrians, removal of
unauthorized road blocks, etc.
Some of the candidates, however, fumbled and presented unrelated causes and solutions
to road accidents. Such essays had no good introductions and conclusions. Many
incomprehensible scripts were produced in this question. Teachers are urged to guide
their pupils during class exercises to be able to meet the demands of questions.
This was a compulsory passage in the language followed by ten compulsory questions for
candidates to answer. The passage was quite easy to read and understand.
The majority of candidates did well. A few, however, copied parts of the given passage as
answers to the questions. Some candidates also only wrote down the questions without
providing the answers.
Teachers are urged to educate their pupils on the correct approach to answering
comprehension questions. E.g. they should always read the passage well, understand it
before attempting to answer the questions that follow it.
This question was to test candidates’ knowledge in word classes (parts of speech) in the
language. It covered such areas as verbs, pronouns, punctuation and conjunctions.
The majority of candidates did well in the four areas covered. Some, however, appeared
to have had little or no knowledge of word classes in the language, thus scoring very low
marks.
Teachers are urged to intensify the teaching of punctuation in their grammar lessons.
FANTE 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper compared favourably with that of previous years. Candidates’
performance, however, fell below those of previous years.
(1) Generally, the performance of candidates in the composition was above average.
Most candidates gave orderly presentation of their ideas that met the demands of
the questions and the number of words required
(2) A number of candidates gave straight forward answers to the comprehension

questions.
(3) Some candidates answered the questions on lexis and structure accurately which
is commendable.
(1) Orthographical errors marred the work of some candidates.
(2) Many candidates were not able to distinguish between pronoun and verb (joined
e.g. meba – I come) and pronoun and noun (separated e.g. me ba – my child).
(3) Poor paragraphing was seen in the work of some candidates.
(4) Some candidates copied the comprehension passage as parts of their essays.
(5) Many candidates also failed to use capital letters at the beginning of sentences.
(1) Teachers should conduct regular exercises on spelling and dictation to help
candidates improve upon their spelling.
(2) Teachers of Ghanaian Languages should encourage candidates to do constant

reading – both intensively and extensively.
(3) As much as possible qualified teachers of the subject should be employed rather
than reliance on unqualified ones who have very little knowledge in the subject.
(4) There is also the need to increase the number of periods in the teaching of Fante
to enable children to develop more interest in the subject.
Question 1(a)
Candidates were to narrate an incident they will never forget. By way of introduction,
they should indicate the type of incident (e.g. falling from a tree, lost in the forest), the
time/place of the incident, how it occurred from the beginning to the end and why the
candidate will never forget it.
The majority of candidates attempted this question and their submissions were
encouraging.
Question 1(b)
Candidates were expected to give a reliable direction to a friend to enable him/her locate
the house without any difficulty. Candidates were expected to mention some notable
landmarks such as mosque, church, market, etc, the route to take and any other features
one should take note of. Examples include the type of house, the type of painting, flowers
and other ornamental plants. In conclusion, the candidate was expected to assure the
friend of their safe arrival if the direction is followed.
Even though the question did not require the features of a letter, some candidates
provided them
Question 1(c)
Is it necessary that Junior High school students should also have class prefect?
This is an argumentative question and many candidates did not attempt it. The few who
attempted it performed poorly. The question called for the need to have a leader in every
organization who acts as a liaison between workers/students and management pointing
out the pros and cons.
The candidate was expected to take a stance either for or against the topic in his/her
introduction. Arguments supporting the topic could hinge on the following points:
There is the need to have a leader to control, seek their welfare, act as liaison and protect
their teaching and learning materials, etc.
On the other hand, a candidate against the motion could argue that there is no need for a
leader because they are all equal – same class and qualification, no need for a bully, can
address their own problems with school authorities, can manage their own teaching and
learning materials, etc.
Question 1(d)
This was another popular question that was attempted by many candidates. The question
was on the causes of road accidents and how to minimize them. The causes include bad
roads, drunk-driving, overloading and over-speeding. Others are misbehavior of both
motorists and other road users, poor maintenance of vehicles and non-enforcement of
road traffic regulations by police officers.
Accidents on our roads could be reduced through the construction of good roads, regular
maintenance of roads/vehicles, observance of road signs and traffic regulations in
addition to constant police patrols/checks.
Candidates’ submission showed that they had a good knowledge of road accidents – their
causes and how to minimize them.
The comprehension passage had ten questions some of which included inference, factual,
meanings of expressions and providing a suitable title for the passage.
But for questions (g), (h) and (i) which appeared a little difficult, the rest of the questions
were well answered.
Question 3 - Lexis Structure
The lexis and structure section of the paper examined the candidates in four areas namely
verbs, pronouns, punctuation and conjunctions. Candidates’ performance in this area was
highly commendable except the questions on punctuation where some candidates just
wrote the punctuation marks in isolation instead of completing given sentences by putting
in suitable punctuations. In all, the general performance was appreciable.
GA 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The paper compared favourably with that of previous years. In general terms candidates
seem to have performed better in this year’s paper as compared to that of last year. This
notwithstanding, a few individual candidates, however, performed quite below average
especially in the comprehension test.
(1) Candidates demonstrated understanding of the questions and answered them quite
appropriately.
(2) Systematic and orderly presentation of facts and ideas were ensured in the writing
of the essays. Good paragraphing was also ensured in most cases.
(3) Some level of maturity was displayed in candidates’ use of language such as the
appropriate use of proverbs, idioms and other figurative language forms.
(4) Candidates generally demonstrated good understanding of the comprehension

passage and answered the questions quite appropriately.
(1) Punctuation was the greatest weakness. This showed in the essays and the
answers to Questions 3(k) – 3(o).
(2) Negation in Ga was still a weakness in candidates’ writing. Verbs that end in
vowels had the vowels tripled to indicate negation. E.g. ba (come) – baaa (does
not/did not/come, is not coming).
(3) Word boundary was another weakness in candidates’ writing. E.g. he ni, be ni, m4
ni, n4 ni but not heni, beni, m4ni, n4ni.
The weaknesses should be isolated and given more attention. E.g. ye – yeee, nu – nuuu,
wo – wooo, etc.
Students should be taught the appropriate word division such as he ni, m4 ni, n4 ni, be ni,
gbini, he ko, m4 ko, n4 ko, be ko, gbiko, etc.
Question 1(a)
Candidates were expected to indicate the type, date, time and place of the incident and
narrate what actually happened. The incident could be one that evokes either positive or
negative memories.
Many candidates attempted this question. Some wrote very good essays. Others wrote
essays which clearly showed that they were stories read or heard. An unforgettable
incident should show some cohesion in place, time and event and incidents that are true
to life.
Question 1(b)
Candidates were expected to direct a friend from their school to the house using
landmarks like streets, buildings, routes and others.
Many candidates attempted this question. They had difficulty in giving appropriate
directions that would take the friend from the school to the house. Whether by foot or by
vehicle; private or commercial, expressions like “take left, right, alight at, lorry station,
join a vehicle going to …, a story building, painted …, a junction or roundabout” were
expected to be used.
Unfortunately, some candidates wrote letters to their friends directing them from the
school to the house. The question did not ask candidates to write letters. The marking
scheme took care of this.
Question 1(c)
Candidates were expected to write for or against the prefect and monitorial system as
practised in the Junior High Schools. The stance should be made clear in the introduction
of the essay.
All who attempted this question were in favour of the system. They argued that the
system provides leadership for the class, seeks welfare of class members, acts as liaison
between class and school authorities, protects class property like teaching and learning
materials, etc.
But the following contrary arguments could be raised:

All students are equal in the same class and have the same qualifications. As a result they
can control themselves. Also, prefects tend to be bullies. Moreover, the students can
approach school authorities on their own, address their own problems/grievances with
school authorities and manage their own teaching and learning process and/or materials.
Question 1(d)

Candidates were expected to give causes of accidents on our roads and suggest four ways
by which the accidents could be minimized. The state of the roads, the state of the
vehicles, the disposition of the driver and his art of driving, the police on our roads and
education of all road users were issues that candidates were expected to raise in the
essays. Then they could propose solutions culminating from the causes that they
discussed.
Candidates who attempted this question gave good suggestions to minimize accidents on
the roads.
Candidates were expected to read a passage and answer ten questions on it.
Candidates performed fairly well. Subquestion (c) required “money OR food” as the
answer but many candidates gave “money AND food” as the answer. Subquestion (e)
required “mli fu” or “emlifu” as the answer but the majority of candidates gave “mlifu” or
“emlifu” joining the two words wrongly. The expression “tsui n4 wo” contains the verb
‘wo’ and the answer was expected to contain a verb. ‘mlifu’ contains the verb ‘fu’ but
‘mlifu’ is a noun derived from the verbal expression ‘mli fu’.
Subquestions (h) and (i) required candidates to infer. They gave interesting inferences.
(a) – (e): Candidates were expected to isolate the verbs in given expressions. Some
candidates recognized that the verbs is made up of the root and the affixes. Some
candidates gave only the verb root as answers. Very few candidates recognized the
inherent complement verb in 3(e) as “baakpafai”.
(f) – (j): Candidates identified the pronouns. Many candidates did not separate the
pronoun ‘o’ from the noun possessed in ‘sane’ and so gave ‘osane’ instead of ‘o’ as the
pronoun.
(k) – (o): The uppercase letters in “Samsam” 3(m) and “Many1” 3(o) were not
readily/easily identified by candidates. (p) –
(t): Many candidates easily identified the conjunctions required to complete the
sentences.
GONJA 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The paper had three main parts. Part I consisted of four (4) essay questions and
candidates were instructed to answer only one (1) question. The comprehension passage
was the part II where candidates were expected to read a passage and answer ten (10)
comprehension questions. The part III was the last section of the paper – Lexis and
Structure which was made up of twenty (20) questions. All questions met the standard
required of BECE examination.
Candidates’ performance in this year’s examination could be said to be average.
A good number of students answered question 1(d) of the essay questions and most of
them provided good answers. The points provided answered the questions.
The comprehension questions were also well answered by some candidates. Many of
them showed that they understood the questions and answered them as such. A number of
candidates scored the 10 marks in this section.
The Lexis and Structure component of the paper was attempted by many candidates and
the majority of them did very well in this section.
It was observed that pupils who could not answer the essay questions, just copied the
comprehension passage from the question paper.
Some candidates could not punctuate the sentences, indicating they did not have
knowledge in the use of punctuation marks.
The correct spelling of words was another major weakness of candidates. Even simple
words were spelt wrongly. Some single words were written as separate words while
words which were supposed to be separated were written as one.
Most candidates could not write the required number of one hundred and fifty (150)
words. This is because they either lacked the points or could not elaborate them.
Another major weakness was that some candidates had very bad (illegible) handwriting.
There is the need for teachers to strengthen the teaching of punctuation in the classroom.
Teachers should also take up the teaching of spelling in schools to enable pupils
overcome the poor spelling skills.
Teachers must also discourage their pupils from copying questions and passages in the
question paper for their answers. There is the need for teachers to take the challenge of
teaching their candidates the process of writing the various types of essay – descriptive,
narrative, argumentative, speech writing, letter writing and exposition.
Question 1(a)
This was a narrative essay and the candidates were expected to mention the type of
incident, place of incident, day, date and time of incident. Candidates were also expected
to narrate how the incident occurred and mention the intensity or otherwise and how it all
ended.
This question was fairly well answered by a good number of candidates. However, a few
candidates answered this question in a form of letter. Some candidates copied the passage
of the comprehension or portions of it, and other questions and obviously scored zero.
Head teachers and teachers of Junior High Schools should discourage their students from
copying passages and questions from the question paper as their answers.
Question 1(b)
Candidates were expected to give a reliable direction to a friend to enable him/her locate
the house without any difficulty. Candidates were expected to mention some notable
landmarks such as mosque, church, market, etc. the route to take and any other features
one should take note of. The type of house when one is approaching it, building, block
house, thatch, type of painting, flowers and other ornamental trees, etc.
This question was attempted by many candidates. A good number of them performed
relatively well. Most of them used the appropriate registers in giving the direction.
Question 1(c)
This is an argumentative essay, where a candidate was expected to take his/her stance,
that is, for or against. Candidates were expected to advance the following points if their
stance was for – every human institution has a leader even in the animal kingdom, to seek
their welfare, act as a liaison between them and school authorities, etc.
Those whose stance was against the topic were expected to advance the following facts;
pupils are all equal in the same class and with same qualification, they can control
themselves, they can approach school authorities when the need arises and they can
manage their own teaching and learning materials.
This question was attempted by very few candidates. Performance on this question was
generally poor. Some candidates could not state their stance, either for or against the
motion. Most of them were unable to conclude their essays.
Question 1(d)
The question was well answered by candidates who attempted it. They affirmed that road
accidents are rampant in the country. They were also able to suggest ways/means of
minimizing these accidents.
Candidates were expected to advance four (4) causes of road accidents and four (4)
ways/means of minimizing each of them. Some of the causes such as the use of non-road
worthy vehicles, drunk and unqualified drivers, over loading of vehicles, unprofessional
behaviour of the police on the roads, unnecessary speed rumps on the roads, etc were
advanced. They were then used as a basis to propose the remedies.
The candidates were given a passage to read and answer ten (10) questions on it. The
questions were based on recall, stated facts, inference, vocabulary (meaning) and then
giving a suitable heading for the passage.
The questions were well answered by some candidates. A number of candidates scored
full marks in this section.
This section tested candidates’ knowledge in verbs, pronouns, punctuation marks and
conjunctions. It was attempted by many candidates. Most students scored questions (a) to
(e) and then (f) to (j) which tested students’ knowledge on verbs and pronouns
respectively.
Candidates’ performance in this section this year was generally satisfactory. However,
some students could not punctuate the sentences as expected. There is room for
improvement.
KASEM 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper was the same as that of the previous years. All the sections
were well addressed and the rubrics were very clear. The questions were unambiguous.
Candidates’ performance could be said to be average.
(1) Length of Essays: The majority of candidates wrote compositions with the
required number of words which is at least 150 words.
(2) Paragraphing: Many candidates wrote their essays in well laid out paragraphs,
developing on main point in each of them.
(3) Lexis and structure: The majority of candidates were able to identify verbs and
pronouns in given sentences as demanded.
(4) Punctuation: Candidates’ use of the basic punctuation marks was commendable.
These include the full stop, comma and question mark.
(1) A number of candidates copied the comprehension passage and other questions as
parts of their essays. This is a very disturbing practice.
(2) Another worrying trend was that some candidates treated the essay topics as
letters. Meanwhile, there was no question demanding letter writing.
(3) Some candidates lifted chunks of the comprehension passage as answers to the
comprehension questions.
(4) In question 3(k), (i), (m), (n), (o) where the candidates were required to write the
sentences and indicate the missing punctuation marks in them, some candidates
only wrote the punctuations without the sentences.
(1) Teachers need to intensify the teaching of composition writing, outlining the
details of each type of essay.
(2) Candidates should be made aware that comprehension is about understanding.

Therefore, they must, as much as possible, use their own words to provide
answers unless otherwise stated.
(3) Candidates must know that the rubrics on the question paper are an integral part
of the examination. As such, they should be obeyed to the letter.
Question 1(a)
Many candidates chose this question and introduced their compositions by mentioning
the type of incident, place of incident, day/date and time of incident. While some of the
events evoked good memories, others were largely negative.
In discussing the details of the incident, some candidates narrated how it occurred, its
intensity or otherwise and how it all ended. Of course, some candidates could not narrate
the incident vividly. After mentioning the type of incident they could not give details on
how it happened. They could not also show how it ended.
Many of the candidates concluded their compositions by stating why they will never
forget that particular incident. However, some candidates never gave any befitting
conclusions to their essays.
Question 1(b)
This question was heavily patronized by candidates and they generally did very well.
Some candidates started by sending greetings to their friends and their families before
inviting them to visit their homes. Some expressed how happy they would be if their
friends would visit their homes. They then gave the directions, starting from their
schools.
In the body, some candidates gave very clear directions to their friends to enable them to
locate their houses without difficulty. For example, they discussed some useful
landmarks to note upon arrival at the school. They include the route to take and type of
roads and other features along the route (e.g. market, churches/mosques, hospitals, etc.).
Others mentioned marks the friend needed to note upon arrival at their homes (e.g. type
of building, walled gate, painted or otherwise, etc.). They also expressed excitement at
their friends meeting their parents and how they would visit places of interest before
returning home.
By way of conclusion, some candidates wished their friends safe arrival and gave
assurances that with the directions given, their friends would locate their houses without
difficulty, where a warm welcome awaited them.
Unfortunately, some candidates did not conclude their compositions.
Question 1(c)
This topic is obviously argumentative in nature and the candidate was expected to take a
stance; that is, for or against. Those in favour of the motion could advance the following
points: every human institution has a leader and this also true even in the animal
kingdom, the leader would seek the welfare of his people, act as a liaison between them
and school authorities, etc.
Those who would oppose the topic were expected to advance the following facts; pupils
are all equal in the same class and with same qualification, they can control themselves,
they can approach school authorities when the need arises and they can manage their own
teaching and learning materials.
Only a limited number of candidates attempted this question and the performance was
average. Unfortunately, some candidates did not state a clear position, either for or
against the motion. Most of them were unable to conclude their essays.
Question 1(d)
A satisfactory answer to this question must necessarily include the fact that road
accidents are rampant in the country, hence the need to find ways to minimize them. The
candidate would then go ahead to discuss some causes of accidents on our roads and then
suggest ways to reduce or minimize them.
The causes include bad roads, use of non-road worthy vehicles, drunk-driving,
unqualified drivers plying the roads, overloading of vehicles, over-speeding by drivers,
misdemeanor of the police at check points on our roads, misbehavior of motorists and
other road users, etc.
Some of the means to address these causes include the construction of good roads and
regular maintenance, regular maintenance of vehicles by drivers, advice to drivers not to
drink while driving, proper training and licensing of drivers, drivers eschewing
greediness in loading, avoiding over-speeding and wrong overtaking. The police need to
be up and doing at check points on our roads, education of motorists and pedestrians as
well as observance of road signs and traffic regulations, etc.
A good conclusion should include expressing optimism that the remedial measures
suggested would bring about relief from the menace of road accidents. Many candidates
failed to draw a good conclusion.
Candidates were expected to answer ten (10) questions on a given passage. The questions
boarded on recall, inference, vocabulary (or meaning), and summary (giving a title to the
passage).
Candidates had no difficulty in answering the question that demanded recall. However,
they could not answer those that were on inference. Some also had difficulty giving an
appropriate title to the passage, especially in not more than seven words.
This section required candidates to answer 20 questions on word classes and punctuation.
(a) – (e) were on verbs. In other words, candidates were to indicate the verbs in given
sentences. (f) – (j) requested candidates to indicate the pronouns in given sentences.
In (k) – (o), candidates were required to complete given sentences by putting in the
suitable punctuations in each sentence. (p) – (t) were on conjunctions.
Candidates had a number of difficulties in this area. For example, on punctuation, many
candidates ignored the rubrics and wrote down only the punctuation marks. Again, in the
subsection on the pronouns, some candidates gave wrong pronouns.
However, they generally performed very well on the conjunctions.

NZEMA 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper compared favourably with that of previous years. There was a
significant improvement in the general performance of candidates this year as compared
to that of previous years. There was clear evidence that some candidates are taking the
learning of the language seriously.
(1) Generally, the performance of candidates in the composition was above average.
Most candidates gave orderly presentation of their ideas and met the demands of
the questions and the number of words required.
(2) In the comprehension the general performance was satisfactory. Most candidates
gave simple and precise answers, an indication that they understand the questions.
(3) The candidates’ performance in the lexis and structure section was good. They
understood every subsection of the paper and provided appropriate answers.
(1) The issue of poor spelling due to the candidates’ poor knowledge of the
orthography and poor association of sounds to letters of the alphabet still existed.
(2) In some cases, candidates’ poor knowledge of the language caused them to
reproduce parts of the comprehension passage in answer to the composition
questions.
(3) Most of the candidates could not give the correct title to the comprehension
passage white in some cases the number of words exceeded what was required.
(4) In a bit to guess the answer to some comprehension questions, some candidates
reproduced whole paragraphs of the comprehension passage as answers.
(5) The section on punctuation in the lexis and structure section was poorly answered.
Indeed, many candidates proved that they did not have command over even the
basic punctuation marks.
(1) Teachers should give more exercises to pupils to do, mark and discuss their
performance with them.
(2) The culture of reading should be encouraged by the schools. This would be
effective if the pupils are provided with more reading materials and strictly
supervised.
(3) Pupils should be taught the sound system of the language in the early stages of the
school programme to help resolve the poor spelling of pupils.
(4) Teachers should teach their pupils how to answer questions. They can do this by
taking students through past BECE questions.
Question 1(a)
The candidate was required to mention the type of incident, e.g. falling from a tree, being
punished for misconduct; mention the date, place and time of the incident and give a
narration of the incident. Finally, the candidate should state the influence that the incident
had on the candidate add why he/she will never forget that particular incident.
While some candidates met the demands of the question others’ presentation was poor.
Question 1(b)
This question required the candidate to direct a friend from the candidate’s school to
enable him/her locate their house without difficulty. A good presentation should include
using landmarks to make the location easier. Such landmarks could include church
buildings, mosques, streets, etc. Words of direction like take left, right, etc. should be
used. In addition a short description of the house should be made. Finally candidate
should assure the visitor of a warm welcome.
Though the question was not popular the performance of the few who attempted it was
average. The shortcoming of some candidates was that they presented it in the form of a
letter which should not be the case.
Question 1(c)
This is an argumentative essay and the candidate was required to take a stance and give
four reasons for the stance taken and then give a relevant conclusion.
The following points could be raised in support of the topic:
Every human institution has or needs a leader hence the need to have somebody to
control and provide leadership. The class prefect will act a liaison between them
and school authorities. He will also protect their teaching and learning materials.
However, those who wish to talk against the topic could raise the following
points:
The students are all equal in the same class and have the same qualification.
They can control themselves and can also approach the school authorities on their
own or address their own grievances with school authorities. In addition, they can
manage their own teaching and learning materials.
Just a few candidates answered this question. Their responses were poor.
Question 1(d)
The candidate was required to affirm the truthfulness of the question. The candidate was
then to discuss four causes of road accidents and then suggest means of minimizing road
accidents. Some of the causes include bad roads, over-speeding, drunk-driving, non-
maintenance of vehicles, non-enforcement of traffic regulations, overloading, etc. These
causes serve as a basis for the solutions.
This was a popular question and most of the candidates met the demands of the question.
However, some just addressed the solutions without mentioning the causes.
This was a prose passage testing candidates’ understanding at different levels; contextual,
inferential, meaning and finally providing a suitable title.
Generally, candidates’ performance in the levels of understanding, contextual and

inference was commendable. However, some of them could not answer the respective
questions on meaning and the title.
This was a question on lexis and structure put in four subsections – identification of
verbs, identification of pronouns, punctuations and conjunctions.
Performance was good except the area on punctuations. Most especially, the questions on
exclamation and quotation marks were poorly answered.
TWI (AKUAPEM) 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper was in conformity with that of the previous years. The general
performance of candidates also showed a significant improvement.
(1) The majority of candidates were able to write the composition using the required
150 words or more.
(2) They were able to address the main requirements of their chosen topics.
(3) On the comprehension, candidates’ performance was commendable as they

answered the questions on the given passage very accurately.
(4) Candidates performed creditably well in the Lexis and Structure section.
(1) A few candidates copied the comprehension passage instead of writing on the
given composition topics.
(2) Although there was no question demanding letter writing, some candidates wrote
letters.
(3) Mechanical Accuracy constituted the greatest challenge of the candidates.
(4) Some candidates resorted to lifting portions of the comprehension passage to

answer the comprehension questions.
(5) Some candidates gave seven different titles instead of one title that should not be
more than seven words.
(6) Some candidates did not follow the rubrics on the lexis and structure. For
example, questions 3(k), (i), (m), (n), (o) required that candidates write the
sentences and indicate the missing punctuations in them. Most candidates,
however, just wrote the punctuation marks without the sentences.
(1) The teaching of composition writing should be intensified.
(2) There must be more exercises on vocabulary drills so as to help students to

overcome their challenge in mechanical accuracy.
(3) Conscious effort should be made to help students grasp the technique of
answering comprehension questions using their own words.
Question 1(a)
Candidates were expected to state the type of incident, date, where and exact time it took
place. The incident could be either a pleasant one or an unpleasant one. They were to
narrate and describe what really happened, the influence it had on them as well as justify
why they considered it to be a memorable event.
Candidates handled this question very well.
Question 1(b)
Candidates were expected to give clear and unambiguous directions to their friend on the
route to follow to their house, starting from their school. They were to state the important
landmarks – both natural and artificial e.g. hills, important buildings, roundabout,
palaces, banks, etc. that are on the route. Candidates were also required to describe their
house vividly to the friend.
Many candidates mistook the question for letter-writing and therefore brought in the
features of letter-writing. There should be more teaching and learning on this type of
question since in real life we usually direct people to places.
Question 1(c)
Candidates were required to discuss whether there is the need for Junior High School
students to have class prefects. They were expected to take a stance either for or against
the motion and state the reasons for their positions.
Candidates were to give four points for their choice and explain them. Reasons in support
of the topic include. The fact that every human institution has or needs a leader hence the
need to have somebody to control and provide leadership. The class prefect will act a
liaison between them and school authorities. He will also protect their teaching and
learning materials.
Arguments against the motion could include the fact that the students are all equal in the
same class and have the same qualification. They can control themselves and can also
approach the school authorities on their own or address their own grievances with school
authorities. In addition, they can manage their own teaching and learning materials.
Question 1(d)
To answer this question satisfactorily, candidates needed to affirm that road accidents are
rampant in the country, hence the need to find ways to minimize them. Candidates were
expected to advance four (4) causes of road accidents and four (4) ways/means of
minimizing each of them.
This was a very popular question which was attempted by many of the candidates. Most
of them brought up some important causes of road accident like, bad roads, overloading
and over- speeding by drivers, poorly maintained vehicles, drunk-driving and
misbehavior of motorists and other road users and etc.
They also gave education, licensing of drivers, observance of road signs and regulations
and construction of good roads as possible means of minimizing the menace
The question was well answered but a few candidates refused to give a suitable
conclusion.
Candidates were expected to answer ten (10) questions on a given passage.
Candidates had no difficulty in answering the questions that demanded recall. However,
they could not answer those that were on inference.
Teaching and learning of comprehension should take care of all the types of
comprehension questions e.g. recall, idiom and meaning, inference, etc.
This section required candidates to answer 20 questions on word classes and punctuation.
(a) – (e) were on verbs i.e. to indicate the verbs in given sentences. Candidates had
difficulty with question (e). Instead of writing “b1sr1/sr1” as the verb, they wrote
“wob1sr1”.
Teaching and learning of the rules of spelling should be intensified. Students should be
made to note that the subject pronoun which is written together with the verb as one word
is not part of the verb when required to state the verb in a sentence.
(f) – (j) were on pronouns i.e. candidates were required to indicate the pronouns in given
sentences. Candidates had difficulty with question (i). Instead of writing “wo” they wrote
“w’asum” which is the combination of the possessive pronoun and the possessed item.
(k) – (o) were on punctuation. Candidates were required to complete given sentences by
putting in the suitable punctuations in each case. Most candidates did not follow the
rubrics and just wrote the punctuation marks in isolation.
(p) – (t) were on conjunctions. Candidates did not have much problem with this aspect of
the paper.
Teachers are encouraged to intensify the teaching of pronouns in respect to their correct
use.
TWI (ASANTE) 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The questions were within the scope of the Junior High School syllabus and were similar
in content and structure to those of the previous years. All aspects of the paper compared
favourably with the previous ones. The questions were quite simple and straightforward.
Candidates understood them well and answered them accordingly.
(1) Essay: Some of the candidates were able to produce very good essays with good
paragraphing and coherent points. In fact some level of maturity was exhibited in
the presentation and expression of some candidates.
(2) Comprehension: Except for the deductive questions and giving meaning to given
phrases, candidates’ performance was quite good. Answers given were straight to
the point.
(3) Lexis and structure: The majority of candidates did well in this section. They were
able to identify verbs and pronouns in given sentences. Punctuation of given
sentences was properly done. A fair number of candidates were also able to fill in
blanks with the appropriate conjunctions to complete given sentences.
The weaknesses of candidates may be grouped as follows:
(1) Wrong use of the Twi personal pronouns: Most candidates confused the 2nd
person pronoun singular wo (you), 3rd person pronoun singular 4no (he/she) and
3rd person pronoun plural w4n (they), when they occurred with the perfect tense
prefix “a” in writing. E.g.
Woadi - you have eaten
Wadi - he/she has eaten
W4adi - they have eaten
(2) Wrong use of the apostrophe: In Twi the apostrophe operates on possessive cases
for the pronouns, ne, (his/her), wo (your) and me (my) when it occurs with a
lexical item that has initial vowel a. E.g. ani (eyes), ano (mouth), ankaa (orange).
The rendition of the examples are: n’ani, m’ano, w’ankaa, etc.
(3) Punctuation and paragraphing: Candidates began sentences with small letters.
Some also did not put a full stop at the end of their sentences. The comma was
used indiscriminately. Some wrote several pages of composition with only one
paragraph.
(1) Teachers should make a conscious effort to teach pupils the right use of personal
pronouns, the apostrophe and punctuation marks through a number of class
exercises. Examples from very good textbooks must also be used to build up the
skills of writing of pupils.
(2) Candidates need to do both intensive and extensive reading to improve upon their
vocabulary, expression and orthography.
(3) Candidates are also advised to transfer their knowledge of work in other
languages like English and French to Twi.
Question 1(a)
Narrate an incident that you will never forget.
The demands of the question included the place, date and time of the incident. The type
of the incident should be stated, e.g. beaten severely for misconduct, severe punishment
in school, falling from a tree, etc. but the incident could also be a memorable one such as
being nominated as the best student and receiving an award.
Candidates were to narrate the incident vividly, i.e. how it occurred, its intensity or
otherwise and how it all ended. In conclusion, candidates were to state why they would
never forget this particular incident.
As one of the candidates’ most favourite topic, they had no problem advancing the points
expected. However, some candidates failed to give a good conclusion to their essay.
Question 1(b)
This topic demanded that candidates give a reliable direction to the friend to enable
him/her reach or locate the house without difficulty. This included route to take i.e. right
or left, type of road (tarred, rough, bush), landmarks along the route (market, church,
mosque, hospital, store, special trees, etc.).
Candidates were also expected to describe the type of house appropriately (walled, gated,
painted and other marks for easy identification). Candidates were to conclude the essay
by wishing the friend a safe journey or arrival and giving assurance that he/she would
locate the house without difficulty, following the directions given and that a happy
welcome awaited him/her.
Candidates who attempted this question were able to give vivid directions as expected.
However, some failed to give a description of the house or structure itself. They also did
not comment on the reception which awaited him/her.
Question 1(c)
This is an argumentative essay and candidates needed to state their stance i.e. for or
against and proceed to give reasons for the stance taken as follows:
For:
- Every human institution has a leader hence the need to have somebody to control
and provide leadership.
- The prefect will act as a liaison between them and school authorities.
- He/she would protect their teaching and learning materials.
Against
- Students are all equal in the same class and have the same qualification.
- They can control themselves.
- They can approach the school authorities on their own or address their own
grievances with school authorities.
- They can manage their own teaching and learning materials.
This question was very unpopular among candidates. The few candidates who attempted
it performed badly. Some did not take any stance at the end of their submission while
others who took a stance at the beginning ended up deviating from the stance they took.
Some also argued for both sides without clearly stating their stance at the end of it all.
Internal cohesion of arguments to prove their stance was weak and not convincing
enough.
Question 1(d)
To answer this question satisfactorily, candidates needed sound background knowledge

affirming that road accidents are rampant in the country, hence the need to find ways to
minimize them.
Candidates therefore needed to discuss some causes of accidents on our roads and then
suggest ways or means to reduce or minimize each of them.
Causes: Bad roads, use of non-road worthy vehicles, drunken and unqualified drivers,
overloading of vehicles, over-speeding by drivers, misdemeanor of the police at check
points on our roads, misbehavior of motorists and other road users, etc.
Means to address these causes: Construction of good roads and regular maintenance,
regular maintenance of vehicles by drivers, advice to drivers not to drink while driving,
proper training and licensing of drivers, drivers to avoid greediness in loading, avoid
over-speeding and wrong overtaking, police to be up to expectation at check points on
our roads, education of motorists and pedestrians as well as observation of road signs and
traffic regulations,
Even though most candidates attempted this essay, some failed to give a good conclusion
by expressing optimism about the success of the remedial measures suggested.
The given passage was within the reach of candidates. The questions on stated facts were
well answered but questions on deduction and giving meaning to given phrases
(grammar) were poorly answered. For example, candidates could not explain the
expression: hofonoo no – Ne ho y11 no ahi/ abufu/ahomete (i.e. became tired of
him/could no longer contain him/she could no longer tolerate him).
It was observed that a good number of candidates could not read the language
proficiently, hence they could not make meaning out of a simple text.
Teachers must pay greater attention to reading comprehension by teaching students the
techniques and giving them adequate training in answering lots of graded exercises
regularly on the pattern of this paper to enhance students’ performance.
This question had four sections i.e. (a) – (e), (f) – (j), (k) – (o) and (p) – (t) respectively.
Section I (a – e) was on identification of verbs in each of the five sentences.
Section II (f – j) was on the identification of pronouns in each of the five sentences.
Section III (k – o) was on punctuation of each of the five sentences.
Section IV (p – t) was on joining sentences with the appropriate conjunctions.
In Twi, the personal pronouns, the verb tense prefix and the main verb are written
together as one word. Students therefore found it difficult to differentiate the various
components. For example in question 3(e) – “Enti wob1sr1 Otemmuafo4 no anaa?”
candidates were asked to identify the verb in the sentence. The main verb in the sentence
is ‘sr1’ (beg). Since the verb ‘sr1’ is written together with the pronoun ‘wo’ (you) and the
verb tense prefix ‘b1’, the candidates wrote or underlined the whole “wob1sr1” as the
verb in the sentence which is not correct.
Then also, in Twi the apostrophe operates on the possessive case for the pronouns me
(my), 1st person singular, wo (your), 2nd person singular and ne (his/her) 3rd person
singular, when it combines with lexical items that have an initial vowel a e.g. adaka
(box), akok4 (hen), aso (ear), akyi (back), etc.
The rendition of the examples is - Me + adaka – m’adaka

Wo + akok4 – w’akok4
Ne + aso – n’aso
Therefore in Question 3(i) candidates were asked to identify the pronoun in the sentence,
“Akua p1 w’as1m”. The pronoun is wo (your) and not w’as1m which is a pronoun and a
noun, as1m or w’.
Teachers are advised to lay emphasis on this aspect to students during teaching.

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ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

 Johnny est dans la chambre

There was slight improvement in the performance of candidates as compared to the

2 A SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

3 A SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

(d) The teaching of practical ICT should be intensified in schools to equip

(i) What is the name of the image shown above?

Only few of the candidates could not iden

In general, performance on the question was average.

(iii) Name two word processors.

(ii) Word processors include:

Generally, candidate’s performance in this question was very poor.

(a) State the two types of storage media.

(ii) Ways to protect storage media include:

 Keeping storage media away from

(a) List three toolbars or bars in a spreadsheet application.

Performance generally was average.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

(1) Most candidates were precise with their answers

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

(4) Lack of understanding of what derived quantities are.

(4) Candidates should be encouraged to use past questions in their studies.

(a) The diagram below is an illustration of a fish.

(i) Identify the fish.

(i) Name each of the parts labelled I, II, IV, VI.

Read the following statements carefully.

(a) (i) What is an ion?

(ii) Most candidates correctly mentioned boiling as a method of softening hard

(a) (i) What is malnutrition?

(a) Most candidates expressed knowledge about malnutrition as a condition associated

(a) (i) Explain the term hazard.

(a) Most candidates expressed knowledge about hazards, as a potential danger

Routine maintenance of equipment, closing all taps before leaving the

In osmosis water moves from a dilute solution to concentrated solution while in

(c) Most candidates described weather satisfactorily as atmospheric condition at a place

(a) (i) What is a magnetic field?

Smooth/ sticky as texture of clayey soil was scored by most candidates.

(b) (i) State two factors necessary for photosynthesis.

(ii) Functions of the factors were poorly described.

Chlorophyll - absorbs / traps light

“to make it easier to plant”, “to grow faster”

1. Avoids adverse weather conditions

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

(1) Most candidates answered the compulsory questions very well.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

(a) State one advantage of baked foods.

The required answers include:

The required answers were:

(a) (i) Make a freehand pictorial sketch of the brick hammer.

(b) The question was well answered by majority of candidates.

The required answers were:

(i) Copy the views shown in figure 1.

(a) (i) Make a freehand pictorial sketch of the mould box.

One Tool Used For

The required answer is: It is used for moulding blocks or bricks.

The required answers include:

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

3. A SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES