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Multiple Choice
Questions on
Indian Evidence
Act
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Multiple choice questions on

Indian Evidence Act especially
compiled for UPSC, Civil
Services, IAS and Indian
Judicial Examinations!

1. Generally dying
declarations are admissible
as evidence under-

A. Section 20 of the Indian

Evidence Act, 1872

B. Section 25 of the Indian

Evidence Act, 1872

C. Section 32 of the Indian

Evidence Act, 1872

D. Section 35 of the Indian

Evidence Act, 1872

Ans. C

2. Which of the following

statements hold true for
dying declarations?

A. Dying declarations cannot be

used as a sole basis of
conviction

B. Dying declarations unless

corroborated cannot be used as
sole basis of conviction

C. Dying declaration which is

brief must be discarded

D. When eyewitness affirms

that the deceased was not in a
fit state to make the
declaration, medical opinion
cannot prevail

Ans. D

3. In which of the following

cases the evidence given by
the witness will NOT be
relevant under section 33 of
the Indian Evidence Act,
1872?

A. When the witness is staying

abroad

B. When the witness is dead

C. When witness cannot be

found
D. When the witness is in coma

Ans. A

4. Accused wants to submit a

document for consideration
under section 35 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872. In which
of the following cases will the
document become
irrelevant?

A. It does not deal with a fact in

issue

B. It does not deal with a

relevant fact

C. It is not an entry made in

public or other official book,
register or record

D. It is not an entry made by

public servant

Ans. C

5. A party wants to set aside a

judgement under section 44
of the Indian Evidence Act,
1872. In which of the fol-
lowing circumstances can he
do so?

A. In case the judgement was

passed by a superior Court
B. In case the person
challenging is a stranger to the
proceedings

C. In case the judgement was a

result of gross negligence

D. All of these

Ans. A

6. According to section 61 of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
–

A. The contents of documents

must be proved by primary
evidence

B. The contents of documents

must be proved by secondary
evidence

C. The contents of documents

must be proved by both
primary and secondary
evidence

D. The contents of documents

must be proved either by
primary or secondary evidence

Ans. D

7. Definition of secondary
evidence has been given
under _________ of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872?

A. Section 61

B. Section 62

C. Section 63

D. Section 64

Ans. C

8. B, an accused wants to
submit carbon copy of the
suicide note as secondary
evidence. The original is with
the opposite party and he has
failed to produce the same.
The suicide was not within
the knowledge of the accused
prior to the receipt of carbon
copy. Which of the following
statements will hold true for
the case?

A. The evidence cannot be

admitted due to applicability of
section 30 of the Indian
Evidence Act

B. The evidence cannot be

admitted because it fails to
satisfy the requirements of
section 64 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
C. The evidence cannot be
admitted because it fails to
satisfy the requirements of
section 65 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872

D. The evidence can be

admitted as it satisfies the
requirements of both section
64 and section 65 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872

Ans. D

9. According to section 65 of
the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
the secondary evidence can
be admitted in ________
exceptional cases.

A. Three

B. Five

C. Seven

D. Nine

Ans. C

10. Which of the following

sections of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 gives
provisions regarding proof as
to electronic signatures?
A. Section 67

B. Section 67A

C. Section 67B

D. Section 67C

Ans. B

11. Which of the following

section of the Indian
Evidence Act deals with proof
of other official documents?

A. Section 78

B. Section 82

C. Section 71

D. Section 74

Ans. A

12. Which of the following

section of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 has been
amended by the Criminal
Law (Amendment) Act, 2013?

A. Section 32

B. Section 55

C. Section 119
D. Section 124

Ans. C

13. Which of the following

statements hold true for
section 154 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872?

A. The Court is bound to give

leave if the requirements are
met

B. The witness must be

declared hostile before making
a plea under this section

C. The Court can give the leave

under this section suo motu

D. All of these

Ans. C

14. Which of the following

questions is proper under
section 148 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872?

A. If the imputation refers to

matters remote in time

B. If the imputation refers to

such matters that its truth does
not affect the credibility of the
witness
C. If they are of such nature
that the truth of the
imputations touches the
credibility of the witness

D. If there is great
disproportion between the
importance of the imputation
and the importance of the
evidence

Ans. C

15. During the cross

examination of the witness as
to previous statements made
before the police almost all
contradictions or omissions
were brought on record,
which were portions from the
statements made before the
police that were not deposed
before the court. Which of
the following statements will
apply to the case?

A. The credibility of the witness

has been impeached under
section 148 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872

B. The credibility of the witness

has been impeached under
section 145 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872
C. The credibility of the witness
has not been impeached
because the contradictions
were not as contemplated
under section 145 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872

D. The credibility of the witness

has not been impeached
because the protection under
section 154 of the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 will apply

Ans. C

16. A person summoned to

produce a document-

A. Does not become a witness

in the case unless he is called
as a witness

B. Automatically becomes a
witness in the case

C. Automatically becomes an
hostile witness in the case

D. Can be cross examined

without being called as a
witness

Ans. A

17. Which of the following

statements hold true for
examination in chief of a
witness?

A. The leading questions can be

used

B. It must only relate to

relevant facts

C. It must only relate to the fact

in question

D. All of these

Ans. B

18. _________________ section of

the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
was inserted by the Criminal
law (Amendment) Act, 2013.

A. Section 53

B. Section 53 A

C. Section 119

D. Section 119A

Ans. B

19. An admission is NOT

relevant in a civil case if it is-

A. Relevant otherwise than as

an admission
B. Proceeding from a person in
authority

C. Made under circumstances

from which the court can infer
that the parties agreed together
that evidence of it should not
be given

D. Made by a pleader, attorney

or a vakil

Ans. C

20. Opinions of an expert

expressed in a book
commonly offered for sale
CANNOT be proved by the
production of such book-

A. If the author is dead

B. It the author cannot be

found

C. If the author has become

incapable of giving evidence

D. If the author has gone

abroad on vacation

Ans. D

21. Which of the following

section of the Indian
Evidence Act does not apply
to interrogations by a
Customs Officer exercising
power under Section 171 -A of
the Sea Customs Act?

A. Section 131

B. Section 132

C. Section 133

D. Section 134

Ans. B

22. Which of the following

section prescribe the method
by which signature can be
proved?

A. Section 45, Indian Evidence

Act

B. Section 46, Indian Evidence

Act

C. Section 47, Indian Evidence

Act

D. both (A) and (B)

Ans. D

23. Which of the following is

true of the effects of
admissions?
A. an admission constitutes a
substantive piece of evidence
in the case and, for that reason,
can be relied upon for proving
the truth of the facts
incorporated therein

B. an admission has the effect

of shifting the onus of proving
to the contrary on the party
against whom it is produced,
with the result that it casts an
imperative duty on such party
to explain it. In the absence of a
satisfactory explanation, it is
presumed to true

C. an admission, in order to be
competent and to have the
value and effect referred to
above should be clear, certain
and definite, and not
ambiguous, vague to be true

D. all of them

Ans. D

24. An attesting witness is:

A. one who signs his name to

an instrument, at the request of
the party or parties, for the
purposes of proving or
identifying it
B. a witness who has attested
the document

C. both (A) and (B)

D. none of them

Ans. C

25. A intentionally and falsely

leads B to believe that certain
land belongs to A, and
thereby induces B to buy and
pay for it. The land
afterwards becomes the
property of A, and A seeks to
set aside the sale on the
ground that, at the time of
the sale, he had no title.
Applying Section 115, Indian
Evidence Act:

A. He must be allowed to prove

his want of title

B. He may be allowed to prove

his want of title

C. He must not be allowed to

prove his want of title

D. none of them

Ans. C
26. Admissible evidence is
thus that which is:

A. relevant

B. not excluded by any rule of

law or practice

C. either (A) or (B)

D. both (A) and (B)

Ans. D

27. A is accused of a crime

committed by him at
Calcutta. He produces a letter
written by himself and dated
at Lahore on that day, and
bearing the Lahore post-
mark of that day. Applying
Section 21, Indian Evidence
Act, which of the following is
possible?

A. The statement in the date of

the letter is admissible,
because, if A were dead, it
would be admissible under
Section 27, clauses (2)

B. The statement in the date of

the letter is admissible,
because, if A were dead, it
would be admissible under
Section 29, clauses (2)
C. The statement in the date of
the letter is admissible,
because, if A were dead, it
would be admissible under
Section 32, clauses (2)

D. The statement in the date of

the letter is admissible,
because, if A were dead, it
would be admissible under
Section 34, clauses (2)

Ans. C

28. A is tired for a riot and is

proved to have marched at
the head of a mob. Applying
Section 9, Indian Evidence
Act:

A. The cries of the mob are

irrelevant as it does not explain
the nature of the transaction

B. The cries of the mob are

relevant as explanatory of the
nature of the transaction

C. either (A) or (B)

D. none of them

Ans. B

29. A, a sculptor, agrees to

sell to B, “all my mods.” A has
both models and modelling
tools. Applying Section 98,
Indian Evidence Act:

A. evidence cannot be given to

show which he meant to sell

B. evidence needed not be

given to show which he meant
to sell

C. evidence may be given to

show which he meant to sell

D. none of them

Ans. C

30. Entry in the Monzawari

Register is admissible under:

A. Section 32, Indian Evidence

Act

B. Section 35, Indian Evidence

Act

C. Section 37, Indian Evidence

Act

D. Section 39, Indian Evidence

Act

Ans. B

31. In criminal cases under

Section 54, Indian Evidence
Act to prove that the
defendant committed the
crime charged, evidence may
not be given that he:

A. bore a bad reputation in the

community

B. has a disposition to commit

crime of that kind

C. had no other occasions

committed particular acts of
the same class evincing such
disposition

D. all of them

Ans. D

32. In which of the following

cases did the court held that
a party who produces
witnesses in court produces
them as witnesses of truth;
and simply because portions
of their statements are not
favourable to the party
producing them, they cannot
be condemned as biased
witnesses?

A. Gyasuddin Khan v. State of

Bihar, AIR 2004 SC 201, para 12
: 2004 CrLJ 395
B. Lekhraj v. State of Gujarat,
AIR 1998 SC 242 : 1998 CrLJ
396.

C. Gulabchand Ganbhiramal v.
Kudilal Govindram, AIR 1959
MP 151 : 1961 CrLJ 55 (FB).

D. Siddiqua v. Narcotics Control

Bureau, 2007 CrLJ 1471, 1480
(para 17) (Del).

Ans. C

33. In which of the following

proceeding of domestic tribu-
nals and departmental
enquiries, the Indian
Evidence Act is not
applicable?

A. officers conducting
departmental inquiries

B. departmental proceedings

C. disciplinary proceedings
tribunal

D. all of them

Ans. D

34. Proviso 1 to Section 33,

Indian Evidence Act, not only
covers cases of privity in
estate and succession of title,
but also cases where which of
the following condition is
met?

A. the interest of the relevant

party in the second proceeding
is the subject matter of the first
proceeding and is consistent
with and not antagonistic to
the interest therein of the
relevant party to the first
proceeding

B. the interest of both in the

answer to be given to the
particular question in issue in
the first proceeding is identical

C. either (A) or (B)

D. both (A) and (B)

Ans. D

35. Relevancy of facts

forming part of same
transaction is dealt under
which of the following
section of the Indian
Evidence Act?

A. Section 4

B. Section 6
C. Section 10

D. Section 8

Ans. B

36. Section 132 of the Indian

Evidence Act does not apply
to a statement made by a
person during an
investigation under:

A. Section 159 Cr. P.C

B. Section 161 Cr. P.C

C. Section 163 Cr. P.C

D. Section 166 Cr. P.C

Ans. B

37. Section 31, Indian

Evidence Act declares:

A. that admissions are not

conclusive proof of the matters
admitted, but they may operate
as estoppels

B. Unless admissions are

contractual or unless they
constitute estoppels they are
not conclusive, but are open
rebuttal or explanation.

C. either (A) or (B)

D. both (A) and (B)

Ans. D

38. Section 65, Indian

Evidence Act with which of
the following situation under
which secondary evidence
can be given?

A. when the original is shown

or appears to be in possession
and power of the person
against whom the document is
sought to be proved

B. when it is in possession or
power of any person who is out
of reach, or not subject to the
process of the Court

C. when it is in the possession

of any person legally bound to
produce it, but he fails to
produce it after the notice
mentioned in Section 66,
Indian Evidence Act is given to
him

D. all of them

Ans. D

39. The defence of alibi is best

because:
A. if the accused was not there,
when the deceased was
murdered, he could not have
murdered her

B. once the pleas of alibi is

raised no other defence is open
to the prosecution

C. it leaves room for no other

defence for the accused

D. none of them

Ans. A

40. An estate called “the

Rampur Tea Estate” is sold by
a deed which contains a map
of the property sold.
Applying Section 92, Indian
Evidence Act:

A. the fact that land not

included in the map had
always been regarded as part
of the estate and was meant to
pass by the deed need not be
proved

B. the fact that land not

included in the map had
always been regarded as part
of the estate and was meant to
pass by the deed is irrelevant
C. the fact that land not
included in the map had
always been regarded as part
of the estate and was meant to
pass by the deed cannot be
proved

D. none of them

Ans. C

41. Which of the following is

the way to assess damage
under Section 12, Indian
Evidence Act?

I. the damage suffered should

be near as possible to the sum
which will put the injured
party in the same position as
he would have been if he had
not sustained the wrong for
which he was awarded
damages or compensation

II. damages are usually

assessed on the basis of actual
loss suffered and are called
general or ordinary damages

III. where the plaintiff has not

suffered any real damages by
reason of breach of contract,
normally, nominal damages are
awarded
IV. special damages can be
awarded for personal incon-
veniences or physical dis-
comfort caused by the other
party

A. I, III and IV

B. II, III and IV

C. I, II and IV

D. all of them

Ans. D

42. The history sheet of an

accused person, kept in the
police station is not a man’s
character, as it is based on:

A. conviction

B. hearsay

C. investigation

D. none of them

Ans. B

43. The principle on which a

dying declaration is admitted
in evidence is indicated in
legal maxim:
A. nemo moriturus
proesumitur mentiri

B. lex fori

C. res judica

D. none of them

Ans. A

44. The principles of Section

44, Indian Evidence Act
cannot be extended to which
of the following?

A. misrepresentation or undue
influence

B. fraud

C. collision

D. all of them

Ans. A

45. Section 15, Indian

Evidence Act deals with a
particular application of the
general principle laid down
in:

A. Section 7, Indian Evidence

Act
B. Section 10, Indian Evidence
Act

C. Section 12, Indian Evidence

Act

D. Section 14, Indian Evidence

Act

Ans. D

46. The question is, whether

A poisoned B. Applying
Section 6, Indian Evidence
Act which of the following
facts can be relevant?

A. marks on the ground

produced by a struggle at or
near the place where the
murder was committed

B. the state of B’s health before

the symptoms ascribed to
poison, and habits of B, known
to A, which afforded an
opportunity for the
administration of poison

C. the facts that shortly before

the poisoning, B went to a fair
with money in possession, and
that he showed it or mentioned
the fact that he had it, to third
persons
D. none of them

Ans. B

47. To invoke the doctrine of

estoppel which of the follow-
ing condition must be
satisfied?

A. representation by a person
to another

B. the other shall have acted

upon the said representation

C. such person shall have been

detrimental to the interest of
the person to whom the
representation has been made

D. all of them

Ans. D

48. What do you understand

by admission of execution?

A. it means only admission of

signature

B. it means only valid

attestation of the signature by
two witnesses as required by
law

C. both (A) and (B)

D. none of them

Ans. D

49. Under Section 82, Indian

Evidence Act the Court must
presume:

A. that the seal or stamp or

signature is genuine

B. that the person signing the

document held, at the time
when he signed, the judicial or
official character he claims

C. both (A) and (B)

D. none of them

Ans. C

50. What do you understand

by libellous character?

A. constituting or containing a
libel

B. constituting or containing a
praise

C. constituting or containing a
commendation

D. none of them

Ans. A
51. A dying declaration to be
admissible:

(a) must be made before a

Magistrate

(b) must be made before the

police officer

(c) may be made before a

doctor or a private person

(d) may be made either before

a magistrate or a police officer
or a doctor or a private person.

Ans. (d)

52. Declaration in course of

business are admissible:

(a) under section 32(1) of

Evidence Act

(b) under section 32(2) of

Evidence Act

(c) under section 32(4) of

Evidence Act

(d) under section 32(7) of

Evidence Act.

Ans. (b)

53. Declaration as to custom

are admissible:
(a) under section 32(1) of
Evidence Act

(b) under section 32(2) of

Evidence Act

(c) under section 32(4) of

Evidence Act

(d) under section 32(7) of

Evidence Act.

Ans. (c)

54. Under section 32(4) of

Evidence Act, the
declaration:

(a) as to public rights &

customs are admissible

(b) as to private rights &

customs are admissible

(c) as to both public and private

rights and customs are
admissible

(d) only as to customs are

admissible.

Ans. (a)

55. Opinions of experts are

relevant:
(a) under section 45 of
Evidence Act

(b) under section 46 of

Evidence Act

(c) under section 47 of

Evidence Act

(d) under section 48 of

Evidence Act.

Ans. (a)

56. Under section 45 of

Evidence Act, the opinion of
expert can be for:

(a) identity of hand writing

(b) identity of finger

impression

(c) both (a) & (b)

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. (c)

57. Under section 45 of

Evidence Act the opinion of
expert can be on the question
of:

(a) Indian law

(b) Foreign law

(c) both (a) & (b)

(d) only (a) & not (b).

Ans. (b)

58. Opinion of an expert

under section 45 of Evidence
Act:

(a) is a conclusive proof

(b) is not a conclusive proof

(c) is supportive &

corroborative in nature

(d) either (a) or (c).

Ans. (c)

59. A disputed handwriting

can be proved:

(a) by calling an expert

(b) by examining a person

acquainted with the
handwriting of the writer of
the questioned document

(c) by comparison of the two-

admitted & disputed
handwritings

(d) all the above.

Ans. (d)

60. The res inter alia acta is

receivable:

(a) under section 45 of

Evidence Act

(b) under section 46 of

Evidence Act

(c) under section 47 of

Evidence Act

(d) under section 48 of

Evidence Act.

Ans. (b)

61. Entries in the books of

accounts regularly kept in
the course of business are
admissible under section 34
of Evidence Act:

(a) if they by themselves create

a liability

(b) if they by themselves do not

create a liability

(c) irrespective of whether they

themselves create a liability or
not

(d) either (a) or (b).

Ans. (c)

62. When the court has to

ascertain the relationship
between one person and
another, the opinion of any
person having special means
of knowledge and expressed
by conduct is admissible:

(a) under section 51 of

Evidence Act

(b) under section 50 of

Evidence Act

(c) under section 52 of

Evidence Act

(d) under section 49 of

Evidence Act.

Ans. (b)

63. The relationship in

section 50 of Evidence Act
means:

(a) relationship by blood only

(b) relationship by blood or

marriage

(c) relationship by blood or

marriage or adoption

(d) only (a) and not (b) & (c).

Ans. (c)

64. Opinion as to relationship

of marriage under section 50
of CPC:

(a) is admissible in cases of

offences against marriage

(b) is admissible in proceedings

under Indian Divorce Act

(c) is admissible both in (a) &

(b)

(d) is neither admissible in

cases of offences against
marriage nor in proceedings
under Indian Divorce Act

Ans. (d)

65. Propositions under

Evidence Act are:

I. In civil cases, character

evidence is inadmissible unless
the character of a party is a fact
in issue. II. In criminal cases,
the evidence of good character
is admissible generally.

III. In criminal proceedings,

evidence of bad character is
inadmissible unless the same is
a fact in issue.
IV. In criminal proceedings
evidence of bad character is
admissible when evidence of
good character has been given.

In relation to the above

propositions which of the
following is correct
statement:

(a) all the four (I, II, III & IV) are
correct

(b) I, II & III are correct but IV

is incorrect

(c) I & II are correct but III & IV

are incorrect

(d) I & III are correct but II & IV

are incorrect

(e) I, II & IV are correct but III

is incorrect

(f) II, III & IV are correct but I is

incorrect.

Ans. (a)

66. Facts of which the judicial

notice is to be taken are
stated in:

(a) section 56 of Evidence Act

(b) section 57 of Evidence Act

(c) section 58 of Evidence Act

(d) section 55 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (b)

67. List of facts of which the

judicial notice has to be
taken under section 57 of
Evidence Act:

(a) is exhaustive

(b) is illustrative only

(c) is both (a) & (b)

(d) is neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. (b)

68. Facts which need not be

proved by the parties
include:

(a) facts of which judicial

notice has to be taken

(b) facts which have been

admitted by the parties at or
before the hearing

(c) both (a) & (b)

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. (c)
69. The court may in its
discretion call for proving
the facts:

(a) of which judicial notice has

to be taken

(b) which have been admitted

otherwise than such
admissions

(c) both (a) & (b)

(d) neither (a) nor (b).

Ans. (b)

70. Oral evidence under

section 60 of Evidence Act
may be:

(a) direct only

(b) hearsay

(c) both (a) & (b)

(d) either (a) or (b).

Ans. (a)

71. Contents of a document

under section 59 of Evidence
Act:

(a) can be proved by oral

evidence
(b) cannot be proved by oral
evidence

(c) may or may not be proved

by oral evidence

(d) can only be proved by oral

evidence under the order of the
court.

Ans. (b)

72. Contents of a document

may be proved under section
61 of Evidence Act:

(a) by primary evidence

(b) by secondary evidence

(c) either by primary or by

secondary evidence

(d) only by primary evidence &

not by secondary evidence.

Ans. (c)

73. Secondary evidence of a

document means:

(a) copies of that document

(b) oral account of the contents

of the documents

(c) both (a) & (b)

(d) only (a) & not (b).

Ans. (c)

74. Secondary evidence of a

document is admissible as a
substitute for:

(a) admissible primary

evidence

(b) inadmissible primary

evidence under certain
circumstances

(c) inadmissible primary

evidence under all the
circumstances

(d) both (a) & (b) are correct.

Ans. (a)

75. The circumstances under

which the secondary
evidence is admissible have
been enumerated in:

(a) section 63 of Evidence Act

(b) section 64 of Evidence Act

(c) section 65 of Evidence Act

(d) section 66 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (c)
76. Secondary evidence is
admissible:

(a) where the non-production

of primary evidence has not
been accounted for

(b) where the non-production

of primary evidence has been
accounted for

(c) irrespective of whether the

non-production of primary
evidence has been accounted
for or not

(d) both (a) & (c) are correct.

Ans. (b)

77. Oral account of the

contents of a document is
admissible:

(a) when given by a person

who has seen & read the
document

(b) when given by a person

who has seen but not read the
document

(c) when given by a person to

whom the document was read
over
(d) when given by any of the
above.

Ans. (a)

78. A document required by

law to be attested can be
proved under section 68 of
Evidence Act only:

(a) by calling both the attesting

witnesse

(b) by calling at least one of the

attesting witnesses

(c) by calling none of the

attesting witnesses but by
calling some other person who
has the knowledge of the
contents

(d) all of the above are correct.

Ans. (b)

79. The calling of at least one

attesting witness to prove a
document under section 68 is
not necessary:

(a) when the document other

than a will is registered under
the Indian Registration Act,
1908
(b) when the document
including Will is registered
under the Indian Registration
Act, 1908

(c) when the document

irrespective of whether it is a
Will, is registered under the
Indian Registration Act, 1908

(d) both (b) & (c) are correct.

Ans. (a)

80. A will is required to be

proved by calling at least one
attesting witness:

(a) when it is registered

(b) when it is unregistered

(c) when it is admitted

(d) all of the above.

Ans. (d)

81. Public documents are

mentioned in:

(a) section 72 of Evidence Act

(b) section 73 of Evidence Act

(c) section 74 of Evidence Act

(d) section 75 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (c)

82. Documents which are not

covered under section 74 of
Evidence Act are called:

(a) semi-public documents

(b) quasi-public documents

(c) private documents

(d) all the above.

Ans. (c)

83. Maxim ‘omnia

proesumuntur rite esse acta’
means:

(a) all acts are presumed to be

rightly done

(b) all acts are presumed to be

not rightly done

(c) all acts are presumed to be

wrongly done

(d) all acts are presumed to be

not wrongly done.

Ans. (a)
84. Admissibility of electronic
record has been prescribed
under:

(a) section 65 of Evidence Act

(b) section 65A of Evidence Act

(c) section 65B of Evidence Act

(d) section 66 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (c)

85. Principle of ‘omnia

proesumuntur rite esse acta’
is contained in:

(a) section 78 of Evidence Act

(b) section 79 of Evidence Act

(c) section 80 of Evidence Act

(d) section 81 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (b)

86. Section 79 of Evidence Act

applies to:

(a) certificates issued by a

Government officer

(b) certified copies issued by a

Government officer
(c) other documents duly
certified to be genuine by a
Government officer

(d) all the above.

Ans. (d)

87. Section 79 of Evidence Act

contains:

(a) an irrebuttable
presumption of law

(b) a rebuttable presumption of

law

(c) a presumption of fact

(d) no presumption either of

fact or law.

Ans. (b)

88. Sections 79 to 85 of
Evidence Act contain:

(a) presumption of facts

(b) rebuttable presumptions of

law

(c) irrebuttable presumption of

law

(d) irrebuttable presumptions

of facts.
Ans. (b)

89. Presumption as to the

accuracy of maps & plans
made by the authority of
Government is contained in:

(a) section 81 of Evidence Act

(b) section 82 of Evidence Act

(c) section 83 of Evidence Act

(d) section 84 of Evidence Act.

Ans. (c)

90. Under section 83 of

Evidence Act, presumption as
to accuracy of maps & plans
can be raised in respect of:

(a) maps & plans made by

private persons

(b) maps & plans made by the

authority of Government

(c) both (a) & (b) above

(d) only (a) & not (b).

Ans. (b)

91. Which of the following

section of the Indian
Evidence Act does not apply
to interrogations by a
Customs Officer exercising
power under Section 171 -A of
the Sea Customs Act?

A. Section 131

B. Section 132

C. Section 133

D. Section 134

Ans: B

92. Which of the following is

true of the effects of
admissions?

A. An admission constitutes a
substantive piece of evidence
in the case and, for that reason,
can be relied upon for proving
the truth of the facts
incorporated therein

B. An admission has the effect

of shifting the onus of proving
to the contrary on the party
against whom it is produced,
with the result that it casts an
imperative duty on such party
to explain it. In the absence of a
satisfactory explanation, it is
presumed to true
C. An admission, in order to be
competent and to have the
value and effect referred to
above should be clear, certain
and definite, and not
ambiguous, vague to be true

D. All of them

Ans: D

93. A intentionally and falsely

leads B to believe that certain
land belongs to A, and
thereby induces B to buy and
pay for it. The land
afterwards becomes the
property of A, and A seeks to
set aside the sale on the
ground that, at the time of
the sale, he had no title.
Applying Section 115, Indian
Evidence Act:

A. He must be allowed to prove

his want of title

B. He may be allowed to prove

his want of title

C. He must not be allowed to

prove his want of title

D. None of them

Ans: C
94. A is accused of a crime
committed by him at
Calcutta. He produces a letter
written by himself and dated
at Lahore on that day, and
bearing the Lahore post-
mark of that day. Applying
Section 21, Indian Evidence
Act, which of the following is
possible?

A. The statement in the date of

the letter is admissible,
because, if A were dead, it
would be admissible under
Section 27, clauses (2)

B. The statement in the date of

the letter is admissible,
because, if A were dead, it
would be admissible under
Section 29, clauses (2)

C. The statement in the date of

the letter is admissible,
because, if A were dead, it
would be admissible under
Section 32, clauses (2)

D. The statement in the date of

the letter is admissible,
because, if A were dead, it
would be admissible under
Section 34, clauses (2)
Ans: C

95. A, a sculptor, agrees to

sell to B, “all my mods.” A has
both models and modelling
tools. Applying Section 98,
Indian Evidence Act:

A. Evidence cannot be given to

show which he meant to sell

B. Evidence needed not be

given to show which he meant
to sell

C. Evidence may be given to

show which he meant to sell

D. None of them

Ans: C

96. In criminal cases under

Section 54, Indian Evidence
Act to prove that the
defendant committed the
crime charged evidence may
not be given that he:

A. Bore a bad reputation in the

community

B. Has a disposition to commit

crime of that kind
C. Had no other occasions
committed particular acts of
the same class evincing such
disposition

D. All of them

Ans: D

97. In which of the following

proceeding of domestic
tribunals and departmental
enquiries, the Indian
Evidence Act is not
applicable?

A. Officers conducting
departmental inquiries

B. Departmental proceedings

C. Disciplinary proceedings
tribunal

D. All of them

Ans: D

98. Relevancy of facts

forming part of same
transaction is dealt under
which of the following
section of the Indian
Evidence Act?

A. Section 4
B. Section 6

C. Section 10

D. Section 8

Ans: B

99. Section 31, Indian

Evidence Act declares:

A. That admissions are not

conclusive proof of the matters
admitted, but they may operate
as estoppels

B. Unless admissions are

contractual or unless they
constitute estoppels they are
not conclusive, but are open
rebuttal or explanation.

C. Either (A) or (B)

D. Both (A) and (B)

Ans: D

100. The defence of alibi is

best because:

A. If the accused was not there,

when the deceased was
murdered, he could not have
murdered her
B. Once the pleas of alibi is
raised no other defence is open
to the prosecution

C. It leaves room for no other

defence for the accused

D. None of them

Ans: A

101. Which of the following is

the way to assess damage
under Section 12, Indian
Evidence Act?

I. The damage suffered should

be near as possible to the sum
which will put the injured
party in the same position as
he would have been if he had
not sustained the wrong for
which he was awarded
damages or compensation

II. Damages are usually

assessed on the basis of actual
loss suffered and are called
general or ordinary damages

III. Where the plaintiff has not

suffered any real damages by
reason of breach of contract,
normally, nominal damages are
awarded
IV. Special damages can be
awarded for personal
inconveniences or physical dis-
comfort caused by the other
party

A. I, III and IV

B. II, III and IV

C. I, II and IV

D. all of them

Ans: D

102. The principle on which a

dying declaration is admitted
in evidence is indicated in
legal maxim:

A. Nemo moriturus
proesumitur mentiri

B. Lex fori

C. Res judica

D. None of them

Ans: A

103. The proviso to the

Section 65, Indian Evidence
Act has been added by which
of the following Act?
A. Act XXXI of 1926

B. Act XXII of 1926

C. Act XIII of 1926

D. Act XIV of 1926

Ans: A

104. To invoke the doctrine of

estoppel which of the
following condition must be
satisfied?

A. Representation by a person
to another

B. The other shall have acted

upon the said representation

C. Such person shall have been

detrimental to the interest of
the person to whom the
representation has been made

D. All of them

Ans: D

105. Under Section 82, Indian

Evidence Act the Court must
presume:

A. That the seal or stamp or

signature is genuine
B. That the person signing the
document held, at the time
when he signed, the judicial or
official character he claims

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of them

Ans: C

106. What is direct evidence?

I. Evidence given where

witness testifies directly of his
own knowledge as to the main
fact or facts in dispute

II. That which tends to prove

the fact at issue without the
intervention of proof of any
other fact

III. One requiring no support

by other evidence

IV. When the principal fact, or

factum probandum, is attested
directly by witnesses, things or
documents

A. I, II

B. III, IV

C. II, III, IV
D. all of them

Ans: D

107. Which of the following

are true for Section 27,
Indian Evidence Act?

I. There must be information

II. It does not matter whether

the information amounts to
confession or not

III. That person must be

whether the information
amounts to confession or not

IV. In consequence of the

information a fact must be
deposed to as discovered

V. In such a case so much of the

information as relates
distinctly to the fact thereby
discovered may be proved

A. I, III and V

B. II, III and V

C. Ill, IV and V

D. All of them

Ans: D
108. Which of the following is
true concerning retracted
confession?

A. It is the law that once a

confession is retracted, the
Court should presume that it
was tainted and be thrown
overboard

B. The retracted confession of

co-accused is very weak and if
retracted, the same is
admissible against the maker
of it

C. The Court is bound to take

the factum of retraction of
confession

D. Retracted confession must

be looked upon with lesser
concern

Ans: C

109. Which class of persons

does Section 18, Indian
Evidence Act lies down who
can make admissions?

I. Party to the proceeding

II. Agent authorised by a party

III. Party suing or sued in a
representative character,
making admissions while
holding such character

IV. Persons who has any

proprietary or pecuniary
interest in the subject-matter of
the proceedings, during the
continuance of such interest

V. Persons from whom the

parties to the suit have derived
their interest in the subject-
matter of the suit, during the
continuance of such interest

A. I and III

B. II

C. IV and V

D. All of them

Ans: D

110. Which of the following

section of the Indian
Evidence Act deals with
admission by person from
whom interest is derived?

A. Section 12

B. Section 16
C. Section 13

D. Section 18

Ans: D

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