1-Time Value of Money-Final
1-Time Value of Money-Final
1-Time Value of Money-Final
Similarly,
FV15 = 1000 (1.05)15
Growth of Rs. 1 at different n and i
Example 1:
You have ₹10,000 and you want ₹16,105 after 5 year. Then at what
interest rate you should invest it?
Ans: The ratio of cash flow consists,
16,105 / 10,000 = 1.6105
That is, you must earn an interest that will allow ₹1 to grow up to ₹1.6105
at 5 years. That is
10,000 (1 + i)5 = ₹16105
(1 + i)5 = 1.6105
i = 10%
10,000 (1.1)5 = 16105.1
At What rate Principal should Grow?
Present Value (PV):
FV1 = PV (1 + i)
PV = FV1 / (1 + i)
If FV1 = 100 (1.10) = 110
Then PV = 110 / (1.10) = 100
FV2 = PV (1 + i)2 = 100 (1.10)2 = 121
Then PV = FV2 / (1 + i)2 = 121 / 1.21 = 100
PV = FVn / (1 + i)n or FVn × [1/ (1 + i)n]
You have ₹2.3 million. If you invest it at 5% P.A interest rate, then how
long it will take you to make your investment ₹10 million.
Suppose a fixed sum of rupees i.e. ₹1.00 is deposited in a savings bank a/c
@ 6% interest P.A for 4 years. Then how the annuity will grow.
Cont…..
CF1 has a scope to grow for 3 years at 6% P.A rate i.e.
1(1.06)3 = 1.191
CF2 has a scope to grow for 2 years at 6% P.A rate i.e.
(1.06)2 = 1.124 and
Similarly, CF3 = (1.06)1 = 1.06
CF4 = 1.00
The aggregate compounded value of ₹1.00 deposited at the end of each
year for 4 years would be 1.191 + 1.124 + 1.06 + 1.00 = ₹4.375.
The above example can be expressed
FV4 = A (1 + i)3 + A (1 + i)2 + A (1 + i)1 + A
= A [(1 + i)3 + (1 + i)2 + (1 + i)1 + 1]
.
FVn = A + A (1 + i)1 + A (1 + i)2 + …… + A (1 + i)n-1
FVn = A [1 + (1 + i)1 + (1 + i)2 + …… + (1 + i)n-1]………….(1)
𝟏 + 𝒊 𝒏 −𝟏 𝟏 + 𝒓 𝑻 −𝟏
𝑭𝑽𝒏 = 𝑨 [ ] or 𝑨[ ]
𝒊 𝒓
𝟏+𝒊 𝒏 𝟏 𝟏+𝒓 𝑻 𝟏
𝑨[ − ] or 𝑨[ − ]
𝒊 𝒊 𝒓 𝒓
1.06 4 −1
Ans: 𝐹𝑉4 = 5000 [ ] = ₹5000 × 4.3746 = ₹21,873.00
0.06
Example 11:
Suppose you invest ₹3000 per year in investment fund at 6% P.A
interest rate for 30 years. How much will you have, when you retire in
30 years.
1.06 30 −1
Ans: 𝐹𝑉30 = 3000 [ ] = 3000 × 79.0582 = ₹2,37,174.56
0.06
Sinking Fund Factor (SFF)
FVn = A × CVFAn,i
A = FVn × (1 / CVFAn,i)
1 / CVFAn,i = SFFn,i
A = FVn × SFFn,i
𝑖 𝑟
𝑆𝐹𝐹𝑛,𝑖 = [ 𝑛 ] or [ 𝑇 ]
1+𝑖 −1 1+𝑟 −1
𝒊
𝑨 = 𝑭𝑽𝒏 [ 𝒏
]
𝟏+𝒊 −𝟏
You want to accumulate ₹2,37,174.56 at the end of 30 years. How much
you should invest every year at 6% P.A interest rate so that, you will be
able to have the above stated amount at the end of 30 years?
𝑖
𝐴 = 𝐹𝑉30 [ 30 −1 ]
1+𝑖
0.06
i.e. 2,37,174.56 [ 30 ]
1.06 −1
= 2,37,174.56 × 0.0126
= ₹2,999.999 or ₹3000.00 P.A
SFF is used to calculate annuity for a given sum.
Present value of an annuity
Suppose you have an opportunity to receive ₹1.00 for 4 years (at the
frequency of end of each year for 4 years). If your required rate of
interest is 10%, then calculate the PV of the annuity?
Ans:
P1 = 1 / (1.1) = 0.909
P2 (PV of CF2) = 1 / (1.1)2 = 0.826
P3 (PV of CF3) = 1 / (1.1)3 = 0.751
P4 (PV of CF4) = 1 / (1.1)4 = 0.683
The aggregate PV = ₹3.169
The computation of the above PV of annuity can be written as.
𝐴 𝐴 𝐴 𝐴
𝑃= + + + ⋯+ [ ] ……. (1)
(1+𝑖) 1+𝑖 2 1+𝑖 3 1+𝑖 𝑛
1 1 1 1
=𝐴 + + + ⋯+ [ ] ……. (2)
(1+𝑖) 1+𝑖 2 1+𝑖 3 1+𝑖 𝑛
𝑃 𝐴 𝐴
𝑃− = − [ ] ……. (4)
1+𝑖 (1+𝑖) 1+𝑖 𝑛+2
1
𝑃 + 𝑃𝑖 − 𝑃 = 𝐴[1 − 𝑛 ]
1+𝑖
1
1− 1+𝑖 𝑛
And 𝑃 = 𝐴 [ ]
𝑖
Hence Present value of an annuity can be calculates as:
(1+𝑖)𝑛 −1 1 1
𝑃= 𝐴[ 𝑛 ] or 𝐴 −
𝑖 (1+𝑖) 𝑖 𝑖 1+𝑖 𝑛
Where
(1+𝑖)𝑛 −1
[ 𝑛 ] = PV factor of annuity (PVFA)
𝑖 (1+𝑖)
1 1
Ans: 𝑃 = 5000 −
0.1 0.1 1.10 4
= 5000 [10 – 6.830] = 5000 × 3.170 = ₹15,850.00
Example 14:
Saurabh has got a scheme at the name of million rupee scheme as it pay
₹50,000 at the end of each year for 20 years. (50,000 × 20 = ₹1,000,000).
If market interest rate is 8%, what is the PV of the scheme?
Ans:
1
1− 1+𝑖 𝑛 (1+𝑖)𝑛 −1
𝑃𝑉 = 𝐴 [ ] or 𝐴[ ]
𝑖 𝑖 (1+𝑖)𝑛
1
1− 20
1.08
= 50,000 [ ]
0.08
= ₹4,90,905.00
1 𝑖(1+𝑖)𝑛
= [1 1 ] or [ 𝑛 ]
− (1+𝑖) −1
𝑖 𝑖 1+𝑖 𝑛
Example 15:
Suppose you have a loan of ₹10,00,000 today for 4 years to your friend.
If market interest rate is 10%, then how much money per year (EMI) you
should receive to recover your investment?
1 1
Ans: 10,00,000 = 𝐴 −
𝑖 𝑖 1+𝑖 𝑛
1 1
Or 10,00,000 = 𝐴 –
0.10 0.10 1.10 4
1
𝐴 = 10,00,000[ 1 1 ]
–
0.10 0.10 1.10 4
= 10,00,000 × 0.3155
= ₹3,15,500.00
Example 16:
If your employer is providing you an easy loan of ₹50,000 at 9% P.A
interest rate to buy a laptop. If you are asked to repay the loan in 3
equal installments at the end of each year for 3 years, then how much
will be the annual installment for you?
(1.09)3 −1
Ans: 50,000 = 𝐴[ ]
0.09(1.09)3
0.09(1.09)3
Or 𝐴 = 50,000 [ ]
(1.09)3 −1
= 50,000 × 0.3951
= ₹19,755
Present Value of Growing Annuity
In financial decision making, there are number of situations where CFs
grows at a constant rate. There are also inflation protected security
where returns grow at the growth of inflation.
Example 17:
Suppose you have an annuity receivable of ₹1000 at the end of each
year for 5 years and the annuity is expected to grow at 10% each year. If
market interest rate is 12%, then calculate PV of the investment?
Ans:
Year CF
1 1000 (1.10)0 = 1000
2 1000 (1.10)1 = 1100
3 1000 (1.10)2 = 1210
4 1000 (1.10)3 = 1331
5 1000 (1.10)4 = 1469
1000 1100 1210 1331 1464
𝑃𝑉 = 1
+ 2
+ 3
+ 4
+
1.12 1.12 1.12 1.12 1.12 5
1000 1.10 0 1000 1.10 1 1000 1.10 2 1000 1.10 3 1000 1.10 4
= + + + +[ ]
1.12 1 1.12 2 1.12 3 1.12 4 1.12 5
Representing this in term of formula
1 (1+𝑔)1 (1+𝑔)𝑛−1
PV = A + +⋯ +
1+𝑖 1 1+𝑖 2 1+𝑖 𝑛
1 1 (1+𝑔)𝑛
=A −
𝑖−𝑔 𝑖−𝑔 1+𝑖 2
1+𝑔
1−( )𝑛
1+𝑖
=A
𝑖−𝑔
𝐴 1+𝑔 𝑛
PV = 1−( )
𝑖−𝑔 1+𝑖
1+𝑔
1 1 1+𝑔 𝑇 1−( 1+𝑟 )𝑇
PV = A − × ( ) OR A
𝑟−𝑔 𝑟−𝑔 1+𝑟 𝑟−𝑔
𝟏.𝟎𝟗
𝟏−(𝟏.𝟐𝟎)𝟒𝟎
PV = 8,00,000 = Rs. 71,17,300.71
𝟎.𝟐𝟎−𝟎.𝟎𝟗
Present value of perpetuity:
Perpetuity is an annuity that occurs for indefinite time period. It is not very
common in financial decision making. The British bond called “Consol” is
an example of perpetuity. An investor holding a Consol is entitled to
receive yearly interest from British Govt forever.
Look at the PV. of an Annuity formula
1 1
𝑃𝑉 = 𝐴 −
𝑖 𝑖(1+𝑖)𝑛
£100
𝑃𝑉 = = £1666.67
0.06
𝑨 𝑪𝑭
𝑷𝑽 = 𝑶𝒓
(𝒊−𝒈) (𝒓−𝒈)
𝑖(1+𝑖)𝑛
Or A = 𝑃𝑉
(1+𝑖)𝑛 −1
0.09(1.09)5
= 5000
(1.09)5 −1
0.1385
= 5000 × = 5000 × 0.2571 = ₹ 1285.5
0.5386
Year Beginning Total Interest paid (₹) Principal paid (₹) End balance (₹)
balance (₹) payment (₹)
1 5000 1285.5 450 835.5 4264.5
(5000 × 0.09) (1285.5 - 450) (5000-835.5)
2 4164.5 1285.5 374.8 910.7 3253.8
(4164.5 × 0.09) (1285.5 - 374.8) (4164.5 - 910.7)
3 3253.8 1285.5 292.8 992.7 2261.1
(3253.8 × 0.09) (1285.5 - 292.8) (3253.8 – 992.7)
4 2261.1 1285.5 203.49 1082.01 1179.09
(2261.1 × 0.09) (1285.5 -203.49) (2261.1- 1082.01)
1 1
PV40 = 𝐴 − or
𝑖 𝑖 1+𝑖 𝑛
1 1
PV40 = 50,000 −
0.0075 0.0075 1.0075 480
= 50,000 × 129.6409 = ₹ 64,82,045/-
Part 1:
If FV20 = 64,82,045 n = 240 i = 0.0075
Then calculate the Annuity (A) = ?
𝑖
𝐴 = 𝐹𝑉20 [ 𝑛
]
1+𝑖 −1
0.0075
A = 64,82,045 [ 240 ] = 64,82,045 × 0.001497
1.0075 −1
= ₹ 9703 per month
That is Mr. Ramesh has to invest ₹ 9703 per month now till 20 years
(i.e. up to 50 years of his age) to receive a per month pension of ₹
50,000 for 40 years (i.e. up to 50 years of his age).
Inflation Adjustment of a Pension Fund:
Suppose a 40 yr. old employee who is expecting to retire at age of 60 is
planning for his retirement. At present he estimates that he can live
comfortably with ₹24,000 per year in terms of present rupee value. How
much should he save/invest each year until his retirement so that he can start
getting pension at the end of 21st from now till 10 years, that can allow him to
live as comfortably as he desired now.
Note: At present most of the long term investments in market are
giving an average return of 15% annually, and assume an annual average
inflation rate of 9% P.A for next 30 years.
Answer :- The investor estimates that he can live comfortably with ₹24,000
per year in terms of present rupee value & annual average inflation rate of
9% P.A. Lets calculate the inflation adjusted expected cash flow that is his
estimated annual pension amount.
Inflation adjusted CF or
Year Age future value of 24000 Pension
21 61 24000 (1.09)21 146611.39
22 62 24000 (1.09)22 159806.41
23 63 24000 (1.09)23 174188.99
24 64 24000 (1.09)24 189866.00
25 65 24000 (1.09)25 206953.94
26 66 24000 (1.09)26 225579.79
27 67 24000 (1.09)27 245881.97
28 68 24000 (1.09)28 268011.35
29 69 24000 (1.09)29 292132.37
30 70 24000 (1.09)30 318424.28
Present Value of the Future CF
146611.39 159806.41 174188.99 + 189866.00 + 206953.94 +
PV20 = + 2 + 3 4 5
1.15 1.15 1.15 1.15 1.15
𝐴 1+𝑔 𝑛
PV= 1−( )
𝑖−𝑔 1+𝑖
146611.39 1.09 10
PV20 = 1−( ) = ₹10,13,632
0.15−0.09 1.15
Now consider PV20 = ₹10,13,632 as FV20 from now and calculate the A
using SFF
𝑖
A = FV [ ]
1+𝑖 𝑛−1
0.15
= 10,13,632 [ 20 ] = 1013632 × 00976 = ₹ 9894.5
1.15 −1
Time Line of the Investment
Hence the person has to invest ₹ 9894.5 at the end of every year starting
at the age of 40 till he reaches the age of 60 in order to withdraw a
₹ 24000 equivalent money value of rupee at the subsequent years for 10
years.
Thank You