JPT REVIEW CENTER, INC.

PREBOARD FOR BUILDING UTILITIES

MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the letter of the best answer.
1. What is included in the Plumbing System?
a. Water Supply and Sanitary System b. Water Supply and Drainage System
c. Waterworks and Sewerage System d. Water Supply and Storm Drainage System
2. What is included in the Drainage System?
a. Drain, Waste and Vent b. Sanitary System and Non-Potable Water Supply
c. Sanitary Drainage System and Storm Drainage Systemd. Sanitary Drainage and Wastewater System
3. The term used for plumbing work before the settling of the fixtures, or finishing
a. plumbing layout b. plumbing roughing-in c. plumbing installation d. plumbing fit-outs
4. Where is the Main Water Line located if road is wide?
a. under the sidewalk b. near gutter c. centreline of road d. near curb
5. Where is the Main Water Line located if road is narrow?
a. under the sidewalk b. near gutter c. centreline of road d. near curb
6. Chlorine is used for
a. Aeration b. Chlorination c. Filtration d. Disinfection
7. Another term for bibb?
a. Cock b. Plug c. Tap d. Faucet
8. A faucet adapted for use in pantry sink?
a. Gooseneck Faucet b. Key Cock c. Self-closing faucet d. Compression Cock
9. You noticed a six-storey building without the presence of an elevated water tank. What is used?
a. indirect downfeed b. indirect upfeed c. booster-feed d. direct upfeed
10. At a certain point in the distribution of water, water stopped, what could be the reason?
a. water is fed from lower level source b. water equated with the level of water source
c. water volume is lesser d. booster pump cannot reach higher level
11. Pump used for high-rise buildings
a. centrifugal pump b. piston pump c. booster pump d. impeller pump
12. Where do you place pump in a pump room?
a. besides the cistern b. under the cistern c. on top of the cistern d. away from the cistern
13. Water is drawn indirectly from the main water line to an elevated water tank and delivered by gravity system
a. indirect downfeed b. indirect upfeed c. booster-feed d. direct upfeed
14. Where do you use submersible pumps?
a. cistern b. well c. elevated water tank d. faucet
15. The banging effect present in pipe interior is caused by
a. Air Pressure b. Vacuum c. Water Hammer d. Siphonage
16. How do you address the above situation?
a. Vacuum Breaker b. Air Cushion c. Air Filter d. Air Chamber
17. A valve where flow is cut off by means of a circular disk, at right angles to the direction of flow
a. Globe Valve b. Ball Valve c. Gate Valve d. Cut-off Valve
18. Checks reversal of flow of water
a. Boiler Blow-off b. Water Hammer c. Check Valve d. Ball Valve
19. Valve used for throttling water
a. Globe Valve b. Ball Valve c. Gate Valve d. Cut-off Valve
20. Pipe has no permanent water supply
a. wet standpipe b. dry standpipe c. fire hose rack d. fire hose cabinet
21. Cast Iron Pipe without a hub is known as
a. no header b. double hub c. single hub d. hubless pipe
22. Pipe used for both CWL and sanitary drainage line
a. PVC b. HDPE c. uPVC d. LDPE
23. Type of jointing for HDPE pipes
a. Welding b. Heat welded c. Electrofusion d. Soldering
24. Type of jointing for Cast Iron Pipes
a. Threading b. fuse welding c. oakum d. caulking
25. Used to connect two straight runs of pipe, the fitting being inside threaded.
a. coupling b. nipple c. bushing d. union

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26. Used to connect two straight runs of pipe, the fitting being outside threaded.
a. coupling b. nipple c. bushing d. union
27. A fitting that closes the end of the pipe, the fitting being inside threaded
a. Cap b. Plug c. Ferrule d. Flange
28. A fitting that closes the end of the pipe, the fitting being outside threaded
a. Cap b. Plug c. Ferrule d. Flange
29. A fitting used for joining the service pipe and the distribution pipe
a. Reducer b. Bushing c. Union Patente d. Tailpiece
30. Two-gated outlet used for dry and wet standpipes
a. Wye b. Double Wye c. Single Wye d. Siamese Connection
31. Used to connect the spigot to the bell
a. Shielded Coupling b. Caulking c. Threading d. Soldering
32. Used to connect two hubless pipes
a. Shielded Coupling b. Caulking c. Threading d. Soldering
33. Copper Pipes jointing
a. Soldering b. Welding c. Brazen Joint d. Electrofusion
34. Used for washing the middle part of the body; genitals
a. Foot Tub b. Bidet c. Bath tub d. wash basin
35. A bidet designed for the invalid and the infirm
a. Foot Tub b. Bidet c. Sitz Bath d. wash basin
36. It has an air accumulator vessel; predetermined quantity of water for flushing purposes
a. Flush Tank b. Flush Valve c. Flushometer Tank d. Flushometer Valve
37. Which among these fixtures does not have a P-Trap?
a. Bath Tub b. Water Closet c. Lavatory d. Kitchen Sink
38. Which is not an energy saving feature of a fixture
a. Dual Flush b. 1.5gpf c. Pop-up Faucet d. Waterless Urinal
39. Provide flow of air to or from a drainage system; provide a circulation of air to protect traps seals from siphonage and
backpressure
a. Vent Pipe b. Vent System c. Vent d. Vent Thru Roof
40. The lowest horizontal piping of drainage system conveying waste to the building sewer beginning 0.6 m.
outside the building wall
a. House Sewer b. Building Sewer c. Building Drain d. House Storm Sewer
41. A waste pipe that does not connect directly with the building drainage
a. Receptor b. Drain Pipe c. Direct Pipe d. Indirect Waste Pipe
42. Liquids are retained to deposit settleable material
a. Rain leader b. Downspout c. Catch Basin d. Trench Canal
43. An opening of sufficient size for a man to gain access thereto
a. Manhole b. Access Panel c. Pipe Chase d. Pit
44. What is a minimum number of chambers for a Septic Tank
a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. 4
45. What is the capacity of the Digestive Chamber?
a. 1/3 b. 2/4 c. 1/4 d. 2/3
46. What should be installed when there is no presence of a public sewer?
a. STP b. Sump Pit c. Cesspool d. Septic Tank
47. The principal artery in vent system
a. Main Vent b. VSTR c. SVTR d. Main Soil Vent
48. A pipe or opening used for ensuring the circulation of air in a plumbing system; for reducing the pressure exerted on trap
seals
a. Vent Pipe b. Vent System c. Vent d. Vent Thru Roof
49. An arrangement of venting so installed that one vent pipe will serve two traps
a. Unit Vent b. Individual Vent c. Loop Vent d. Yoke Vent
50. Acts as auxiliary vent (“yoke vent”)
a. Unit Vent b. Individual Vent c. Loop Vent d. Relief Vent
51. The force which causes movement of electricity in a conductor
a. Electromotive Force b. Pressure c. Electric Circuit d. Electric Current
52. Varies between reversal of flow

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a. Alternating Current b. Direct Current c. Ampacity d. Rectified Current

53. It is the current-carrying capacity of a wire without undue heating
a. Resistance b. Polarity c. Ampacity d. Impedance
54. Known as the electric flow in an electric circuit
a. Electromotive Force b. Pressure c. Electric Circuit d. Electric Current
55. It converts Mechanical Energy to Electrical Energy
a. Alternator b. Generator c. Motor d. Converter
56. It converts Electrical Energy to Mechanical Energy
a. Alternator b. Generator c. Motor d. Converter
57. Unit of resistance or friction which is inherent in insulator is
a. Ohms b. Ampere c. Volt d. Watts
58. Unit of EMF
a. Ohms b. Ampere c. Volt d. Watts
59. How many cps is used for a residential single phase load?
a. 120 Hertz b. 180 Hertz c. 60 Hertz d. 240 Hertz
60. EMF used for household power supply
a. 115V b. 230V c. 120V d. 210V
61. It prevents flow of electric current
a. Conductor b. Insulator c. Wires d. Cable
62. This offers low resistance
a. Conductor b. Insulator c. Wires d. Cable
63. Another term for channel is
a. Pipe b. Raceway c. Tubing d. Duct
64. Point of entry of electrical service is
a. Service Cable b. Service Drop c. Gooseneck d. Service Oblique
65. One type of appliance that is considered an independent circuit
a. Electric Fan b. Range c. Microwave Oven d. Washing Machine
66. One type of appliance that is not considered an independent circuit
a. Pump b. Range c. Heater d. Washing Machine
67. Height of installation for a Power Panel
a. 6’ b. 7’ c. 6’7” d. 7’2”
68. A single line diagram showing system components
a. Key Plan b. Key Cock c. Riser d. Riser Diagram
69. A type of conduit used primarily for service entrance cable
a. EMC b. RSC c. IMC d. Riser
70. Used for Service Entrance Lateral
a. USE b. UF c. SE d. UE
71. Meaning of THHN
a. Thermoplastic, high-heat resistant, nylon jacket outer sheath b. Thermoplastic, heat resistant
c. Thermoplastic, heat resistant, nylon jacket outer sheath d. Thermoplastic, wet resistant
72. Meaning of THWN
a. Thermoplastic, moisture resistant, nylon jacket outer sheath b. Thermoplastic, heat resistant
c. Thermoplastic, heat resistant, nylon jacket outer sheath d. Thermoplastic, wet resistant
73. This cable uses copper for insulation
a. SNM b. MI c. NM d. ROMEX
74. Another Term for Armored Cable
a. Thermoplastic b. ROMEX c. BX d. Flexible Non-metal
75. Known as closed raceway
a. Bus b. Conduit c. Busbar d. Cable Tray
76. Known as open wireway
a. Bus b. Conduit c. Busbar d. Cable Tray
77. Uses busduct or busway
a. Bus b. Conduit c. Busbar d. Cable Tray
78. An electromechanical device
a. Bus b. Circuit Breaker c. Busbar d. Cable Tray
79. Detects short circuit and overload

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a. Service Switch b. Panelboard c. Fuse Box d. Circuit Protective Devices

80. Known as the final distribution point for convenience outlets and lighting
a. Service Switch b. Panelboard c. Fuse Box d. Circuit Protective Devices
81. Part of a circuit breaker that senses undue heating and overload
a. alloy link b. fusible link c. solenoid d. actuator switch
82. A free standing assemblies of switches, fuses/circuit breakers
a. Service Switch b. Panelboard c. Fuse Box d. Circuit Protective Devices
83. An equipment that controls the circuit breaker
a. Service Switch b. Panelboard c. Fuse Box d. Circuit Protective Devices
84. Type of fuse used for simple circuitry in residence
a. Cartridge Fuse b. Plug Fuse c. Solenoid Fuse d. Knife Blade Fuse
85. Uses alloy link or wire; fusible link
a. Circuit Breaker b. Fuse c. Actuator Switch d. Fuselage
86. Type of bulb that has filament
a. LED b. Incandescent c. Fluorescent d. Metal Halide
87. Type of lamp that has cathode
a. LED b. Incandescent c. Fluorescent d. Metal Halide
88. Meaning of PAR
a. Pin Actuated Resolution b. Pan Arc Release c. Phon Art Rays d. Parabolic Aluminized Reflector
89. Purpose of Ballast
a. to start the switch b. to start the ballast
c. To start the filament d. to start the cathode
90. Type of Fluorescent used for Cove Lighting
a. T5 b. T12 c. T24 d. T8
91. An electrical raceway either metallic or non-metallic
a. Conduit b. Tubing c. Pipe d. Flexible Tubing
92. A type of conduit used for feeders
a. EMC b. IMC c. RSC d. IMT
93 A type of conduit without thread
a. EMC b. IMC c. RSC d. IMT
94. Controls the intensity of light
a. Push Button b. Dimmer c. Time Switch d. Master Switch
95. The type of convenience outlet that can receive both flat and round pins
a. General Purpose Outlet b. Special Purpose Outlet c. Universal Outlet d. Two-way Outlet
96. Primary component of an electric elevator
a. Plunger b. Guide Rail c. Guide Shoes d. Cable
97. Primary component of a hydraulic elevator
a. Plunger b. Guide Rail c. Guide Shoes d. Cable
98. Also known as a Cargo Lift
a. Dumbwaiter b. Conveyor c. Freight Elevator d. Passenger Elevator
99. How does a Hydraulic Elevator function?
a. water pressure b. oil pressure c. motor and pump with tankd. pressure tank
100. How does an Electric Elevator function?
a. Cable b. Gear c. Piston d. Guide rail
101. It is the inside movable part of a hydraulic jack
a. Alternator b. Pump c. Plunger d. Piston
102. Minimum depth of an elevator pit
a. 0.40m b. 0.60m c. 0.50m d. 0.30m
103. Another term for an Elevator
a. Cargo b. Lift c. Platform d. Carrier
104. Another term for spun and worm used for high-rise buildings
a. Tractionless b. Geared Traction c. Gearless Traction d. Full Gear Traction
105. Another term for gear and worm used for mid-rise buildings
a. Tractionless b. Geared Traction c. Gearless Traction d. Full Gear Traction
106. Minimum angle of inclination for an escalator
a. 38° b. 30° c. 35° d. 33°

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107. The welded steel frame which act as the structural component of an escalator
a. Stabilizer b. Beam c. Truss d. Column
108. Where is the main drive gear of an escalator located?
a. Bottom Sprocket b. Top Sprocket c. Middle Part d. near truss
109. Where is the Drive Machine of an escalator located?
a. Bottom Sprocket b. Top Sprocket c. Middle Part d. near truss
110. What do you call the steps of an escalator?
a. Track b. Riser c. Platform d. NOTA
111. This temporarily stop the escalator to prevent further accident
a. Emergency Brake b. Switch c. Emergency Stop d. Push Button
112. Less expensive arrangement of escalator
a. Stacked Parallel b. Crisscross c. Parallel d. Scissor
113. An arrangement of escalator used for transportational building
a. Stacked Parallel b. Crisscross c. Parallel d. Scissor
114. Conveyor used in airports
a. Escalator b. Freight c. Walkalator d. Travelator
115. Lineal length of a moving walk
a. 150m b. 250m c. 300m d. 200m
116. What can a moving ramp do that an escalator and elevator cannot?
a. move crates b. move trolleys c. move cargo d. move people
117. Process of treating air to control its temperature
a. Refrigeration b. Cooling c. Air Conditioning d. Heating
118. Installed 2.10m on top of a wall
a. WACU b. Diffuser c. Ceiling Register d. Wall Register
119. What is the inside part of an air conditioning unit called?
a. Evaporator b. Condenser c. Compressor d. Ducting
120. What is the outside part of an air conditioning unit called?
a. Evaporator b. Condenser c. Compressor d. Ducting
121. Another term for Condenser used for split type air conditioner
a. AHU b. ACCU c. FCU d. NOTA
122. Another term for Evaporator used for split type air conditioner
a. AHU b. ACCU c. FCU d. NOTA
123. An appurtenance of Air Handling Unit is
a. AHU b. ACCU c. FCU d. NOTA
124. The total developed length of a tubing for a split type air conditioner
a. 2.10m b. 2.40m c. 2.70m d. 3.00m
125. Which is not a part of a split type air conditioner
a. FHU b. AHU c. ACCU d. Condensate Pipe
126. A cassette type unit is mounted at the
a. Wall b. Ceiling c. Window d. Floor
127. Disadvantage of Centralized Air Conditioning
a. Bulky b. Expensive c. Not energy efficient d. room temperature cannot be controlled
128. Air Conditioning preferred in hospitals
a. WACU b. Split Type c. Multi-Split d. Centralized Air Conditioning
129. Advantage of Variable Air Volume
a. Cheap b. Efficient c. Temperature can vary d. always available
130. Used to control temperature
a. Thermometer b. Scanner c. Thermostat d. Thermoscan
131. Uses fans and ducts to distribute air through a large volume of space. 
a. VAV b. CAV c. WACU d. Split Type
132. Centralized Air Conditioner uses
a. Tubing b. Ducting c. Piping d. Ductwork
133. Best location for Chiller
a. Ground Floor b. Basement c. Roof Deck d. Balcony
134. Where do you locate Cooling Towers?
a. Ground Floor b. Basement c. Roof Deck d. Balcony

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135. An inlet used in Centralized Air Conditioner to provide cool air inside a room during summer
a. Ceiling Register b. Wall Register c. Damper d. Wall Diffuser
136. An outlet used in Centralized Air Conditioner to accept hot air from a room during summer
a. Ceiling Register b. Wall Register c. Damper d. Wall Diffuser
137. Used to control humidity in Comfort Rooms
a. Humidifier b. Dehumidifier c. Exhaust Fan d. Wall Diffuser
138. Used to provide heat inside a room during winter
a. Heater b. Boiler c. Damper d. Register
139. The multi-zone system separates spaces for cooling
a. VAV b. CAV c. WACU d. Split Type
140. Mimics a centralized air conditioning system without the presence of a mechanical room and roof deck
a. VAV b. CAV c. WACU d. Split Type
141. Unit of sound frequency
a. Pascal b. Watts c. Decibel d. Hertz
142. Audio Frequency range of humans
a. 20-20,000 Hz b. 50-75,000 Hz c. 5-50,000 Hz d. 30-30,000 Hz
143. Pitch is the subjective term for Frequency
a. Maybe b. False c. True d. NOTA
144. Human speech is mainly in the range
a. 400-4,000 Hz b. 300-3,000 Hz c. 200-2,000 Hz d. 100-1,000 Hz
145. Prolongation of the sound in the room caused by continued multiple reflections
a. Flutter Echo b. Echo c. Reverberation d. Reflection
146. Bass sound is considered
a. Low Frequency b. Medium Frequency c. High Frequency d. No Frequency
147. Treble sound is considered
a. Low Frequency b. Medium Frequency c. High Frequency d. No Frequency
148. The sound energy transferred per second from the noise source to the air
a. Sound Pressure Level b. Sound Level c. Sound Power d. Sound Pressure
149. Sound pressure converted to the decibel scale
a. Sound Level b. Sound Pressure c. Sound Pressure Level d. Sound Power
150. The human impression of the strength of a sound
a. Pressure b. Loudness c. Power d. Intensity
151. Used to absorb the vibration of the generator base
a. Vibration Dampener b. Vibration Isolator c. Absorption base d. Vibration Diffuser
152. Expressed in units called watts (W)
a. Sound Intensity b. Sound Level c. Sound Power d. Sound Power
153. One octave increase doubles the frequency
a. True b. False c. maybe d. NOTA
154. A logarithmic scale applicable to any parameter.
a. Power b. Pascal c. Decibel d. Watts
155 Safe exposure limit for human reception for eight hours a day
a. 40dB b. 85dB c. 140dB d. 120dB
156. Bending or “flowing” of a sound wave around an object or through an opening
a. Diffusion b. Diffraction c. Absorption d. Reflection
157. The fraction of the randomly incident sound power which is absorbed, or otherwise not reflected.
a. STC b. TL c. SPL d. SAC
158. Ceiling that can diffuse sound
a. Perforated Ceiling b. Convex Ceiling c. Splay d. NOTA
159. Scattering or random redistribution of a sound wave from a surface
a. Absorption b. Transmission c. Diffusion d. Reflection
160. Absorbs sound and keeps it too (thermal storage)
a. Diffraction b. Insulation c. Absorption d. Reflection
161. Absorbs sound and transmits excess sound to the next room
a. Diffraction b. Insulation c. Absorption d. Reflection
162. A single-number index for rating how absorptive a particular material is
a. NRC b. SAC c. TL d. SPL

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163. A value given in decibels, which is determined by measuring sound pressure levels at a certain frequency in the source and
receiving rooms.
a. NRC b. SAC c. TL d. SPL
164. Sound reflected on two-focus points
a. Parabolal b. Anti-focusing c. Ellipse d. Creep
165. Sound reflected on one focus points
a. Parabola b. Anti-focusing c. Ellipse d. Creep
166. A reflection with magnitude and delay
a. Reverberation b. Vibration Isolator c. Flutter Echo d. Echo
167. Caused by repetitive reflections off hard surfaces
a. Reverberation b. Vibration Isolator c. Flutter Echo d. Echo
168. This is a single-number rating of a material’s or assembly’s barrier effect.
a. SAC b. NRC c. TL d. STC
169. Material with the lowest STC rating
a. Cellulose b. Empty wall c. Handi-foam d. Fiberglass
170. Material with the highest STC rating
a. Cellulose b. Empty wall c. Handi-foam d. Fiberglass
171. A type of lighting system which is inherently efficient; basically all light is directed downward
a. Direct b. Semi-Direct c. General-Diffuse d. Semi-Indirect
172. A type of lighting system where walls and ceiling must have a high-reflectance finish
a. Direct b. Semi-Direct c. Indirect d. Semi-Indirect
173. A type of lighting system that employs a translucent diffusing element through which the downward
component shines
a. Direct b. Semi-Direct c. Indirect d. Semi-Indirect
174. A type of lighting system where fixtures distribute approximately an equal amount of light upward and
downward
a. Direct b. Semi-Direct c. Direct-Indirect d. Semi-Indirect
175. A type of lighting system where the minor upward component serves to illuminate the ceiling
a. Direct b. Semi-Direct c. Direct-Indirect d. Semi-Indirect
176. A type of light fixture with translucent or semi-transparent (see-through) covers made of glass or
plastic; bottom or sides of light fixtures to control brightness
a. Louvers b. Lenses c. Diffusers d. Shield
177. A type of light fixture with baffles that shield the bulb from view and reflect light; can be contoured to
control light and decrease brightness.
a. Louvers b. Lenses c. Diffusers d. Shield
178. A type of light fixture with clear, transparent glass, plastic covers; incorporates prisms and flutes to
distribute light in specific ways
a. Louvers b. Lenses c. Diffusers d. Shield
179. A lighting source that closely replicates natural sunlight can be considered as light source.
a. Artificial b. General c. Natural d. Task
180. The most practical method of passive solar energy utilization in commercial buildings
a. General b. Daylight c. Artificial d. Passive
181. Directional lighting to emphasize a particular object or draw attention to a display item.
a. Localized b. Accent c. General d. Task
182. Provides an area with overall illumination; provides fairly uniform lighting
a. Localized b. Accent c. General d. Task
183. Allows the user to adjust and control lighting and provides flexibility for each user.
a. Localized b. Accent c. General d. Task
184. A type of light fixture that uses diffusers, lenses and louvers to cover bulbs from direct view to
prevent glare and distribute light
a. Louvers b. Lenses c. Diffusers d. Shielded
185. Has an upward and downward light distribution of equal percentage.
a. Localized b. Accent c. General Diffuse d. Task
186. Meaning of LED
a. Light Enhancing Diode b. Light Emitting Diode c. Light Energy Disc d. Lithium Emitting Diode
187. A type of light used for stadiums and billboards

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a. LPS b. HPS c. Mercury Vapor d. Metal Halide

188. A type of light used for outdoor parking
a. LPS b. HPS c. Mercury Vapor d. Metal Halide
189. A type of light used for indoor parking
a. LPS b. HPS c. Mercury Vapor d. Metal Halide
190. Which is not a High Intensity Discharge Lamp
a. LED b. LPS c. HPS d. MV
191. Has a tube, starter and a ballast with low mercury vapor
a. Incandescent b. Fluorescent c. LED d. CFL
192. Has a filament and glass bulb
a. Incandescent b. Fluorescent c. LED d. CFL
193. An energy saving light that has 8,000 hours life span
a. Incandescent b. Fluorescent c. LED d. CFL
194. An energy saving light that has 50,000 hours life span
a. Incandescent b. Fluorescent c. LED d. CFL
195. Light has a distinctive deep yellow light output
a. LPS b. HPS c. Mercury Vapor d. Metal Halide
196. Light has a distinctive blue-green light
a. LPS b. HPS c. Mercury Vapor d. Metal Halide
197. A color of light used for T12 and other fluorescent lamps
a. Cool White b. Warm White c. Daylight d. Sunlight
198. A color of light used for incandescent bulbs
a. Cool White b. Warm White c. Daylight d. Sunlight
199. Meaning of ESL
a. Electric Stimulated Light b. Electro Synthesis Lamp
c. Electroplated Synthetic Lamp d. Electro-Stimulated Luminescence
200. Meaning of SSL
a. Solid-State Lighting b. Synthesized Sun Light
c. Simulated State Light d. Solid-Simulated Light

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