FITZEE Test Papers and Soln PDF
FITZEE Test Papers and Soln PDF
FITZEE Test Papers and Soln PDF
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01– 07, 19 – 25, 37 - 43) contains 21 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 mark
for wrong answer
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.
Section-A (08 – 13, 26 – 31, 44 - 49) contains 18 questions. Each of 2 Tables with 3 Columns and
4 Rows has three questions. Column 1 will be with 4 rows designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV).
Column 2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column 3 will be with 4 rows
designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S).
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
Section-C (14 – 18, 32 – 36, 50 - 54) contains 15 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 7 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. Consider a particle at rest which may decay into two (daughter) particles or into three (daughter)
particles. Which of the following is/are true? (There are no external forces).
(A) the velocity vectors of the daughter particles must lie in a plane.
(B) given the total kinetic energy of system and the mass of each daughter particle, it is
possible to determine the speed of each daughter particle.
(C) given the speed(s) of all but one daughter particles it is possible to determine the speed
of the remaining particle.
(D) the total momentum of the daughter particles is zero.
x-axis
M M
b
m
a
z-axis
(A) Rotational kinetic energy associated with a given angular speed depends on the axis of
rotation
(B) Rotational kinetic energy about y-axis is independent of m and its value is Ma 2w 2
(C) Rotational kinetic energy about z-axis depends on m and its value is Ma +mb 2 2
w 2
2
(D) Rotational kinetic energy about x-axis is independent of m and its value is Mb w2
4. A body is fired from point P and strikes at Q inside a smooth circular wall Q
as shown in the figure. It rebounds to point S (diametrically opposite to P).
The coefficient of restitution will be:
P S
(A) cot
(B) 1
(C) tan
(D) tan2
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3 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20
6. A small block of mass ‘m’ is rigidly attached at ‘P’ to a ring of mass ‘3m’ P
and radius ‘r’. The system is released from rest at θ = 90° and rolls θ
without sliding. The angular acceleration of ring just after release is
g
(A)
4r
g
(B)
8r
g
(C)
3r
g
(D)
2r
7. Block A of mass 2m, B and C each of mass m are in equilibrium
and at rest shown in the figure. The spring balance, pulley and
strings are massless. Now, a force mg is applied on block C in
downward direction. Find the new reading of spring balance. Spring
Assume all pulleys to be frictionless. 2m balance
(A) 7 kg A
(B) 15 kg
(C) 11 kg
(D) 12 kg
B m m C
v
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10. The combination for which maximum friction acts between the body and the incline is
(A) (I)(iii)(Q)
(B) (II)(ii)(R)
(C) (III)(iv)(S)
(D) (IV)(i)(P)
Answer questions 11, 12 and 13 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.
A swimmer wishes to cross a river 600m wide flowing at a rate u m/s. His speed with respect to
water is 3 m/s. He makes his strokes at an angle with the direction of river flow. In the following
column I represents u, Column-II represents ‘’ column-III represents his horizontal drift when he
reaches across the river
Column I [U] Column-II [] Column-III [Drift]
(I) 1 (i) 30 (P) 250m
(II) 2 (ii) 53 (Q) 400m
(III) 5 (iii) 90 (R) 500m
(IV) 6 (iv) 120 (S) 1200m
12. The combination for which the time taken to cross the river is minimum is.
(A) (II)(iii)(R)
(B) (III)(ii)(Q)
(C) (I)(iv)(S)
(D) (IV)(iii)(S)
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5 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20
13. The combination for which the resultant velocity of the swimmer makes the largest angle with the
river flow is.
(A) (I)(ii)(P)
(B) (II)(iv)(Q)
(C) (IV)(i)(S)
(D) (III)(iii)(R)
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
14. A uniform square laminar plate ABCD having moment of inertia 250 A B
2
kgm (about its rotational axis passing through O) is placed on a
horizontal smooth surface. The plate has a circular groove of radius 2.5 O P
m, whose centre is concentric to the centre of the plate. The plate is free
to rotate about a point O on the groove fixed to the horizontal surface, as D C
shown in the figure. A tortoise of mass 8 kg starts moving along the
groove from a point P on the groove, which is diametrically opposite to O.
If the angle (in radian) rotated by the plate ABCD, when the tortoise
comes back to point P after a complete rotation on the groove be . What
is the value of 10 (Assume that plate is much heavier than the tortoise.
Such that the velocity of the plate is much smaller than the velocity of the
tortoise)
15. Block A shown in figure can slide over fixed rigid wire of quarter circular
shape. String connected to A and B is massless and inextensible. System
M R
is released from rest when = 0. Determine the ratio k = A (approximate
MB A
MA
integer value) for which the system will come to rest again when = 30. B MB
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 7 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
20. Which of following compounds show considerable higher value of dipole moment?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
23. There are three elements P, Q and R which belong to p-block of the periodic table they all form
trifluorides with F2, such that PF3 is Lewis acid but QF3 is a weaker Lewis base (dipole moment =
0.23 D). These two compounds react with each other in presence of F2 to produce QF4 PF4 . The
compound RF3 is a T-shape in interhalogen molecule. Which of the following is/are correct
statements with reference to above informations?
(A) All the RF bond lengths are equal in RF3 molecule
F
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20 8
25. Which of the following pairs of ions do not have the same electronic configuration?
(A) Cr3+, Fe3+
3+ 2+
(B) Fe , Mn
3+ 3+
(C) Fe , Co
3+ 3+
(D) Se , Cr
27. Which of the following combinations will give a difference of 6-7 times rate when substrate’s
hydrogen are replaced by deuterium?
(A) (I)(i)(S)
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9 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20
(B) (II)(iii)(R)
(C) (II)(iv)(Q)
(D) (IV)(i)(S)
Answer questions 29, 30 and 31 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.
31. In which of the following combinations will the reactants react in 2:5 ratio.
(A) (II) (i)(R)
(B) (I)(i)(Q)
(C) (IV)(iv)(R)
(D) (I)(iii)(S)
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
32. A sample of air with the ratio of N2 to O2 as 79 : 21 is heated to 2500 K. When equilibrium is
K p 100
established, the mole percent of NO is found to be 2%. Calculate for the reaction.
64
N2 g O2 g 2NO g
(use approx.)
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20 10
33. An organic compound was analyzed by Duma’s method. 0.45 g of the compound on combustion
Nitrogen%
gave 48.6 ml of nitrogen at 27oC and 756 mm Hg pressure. What is the value of ?
6
(use approx.)
34. How many acids among the following have basicity equal to 2
H 2SO 4 ,H3PO3H 2S2O7 ,H 2CrO 4 ,H 3PO 4 ,H 2 CO3 ,H 3BO3 ,H 2SO3 ,H 3PO 2
35. Volume strength of H2O2 is X. When 0.2 mole KMnO4 are required to react with 100 mL H2O2.
Find the value of (X+4)/12. Given that Products of the reaction are O2 and MnO.
H2C CH3
CH3
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SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 7 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
38. If the lines 2 x y 8, x 2 y 17 and the line L=0 forms an isosceles triangle, then slope of line
L can be-
(A) 1
11
(B)
2
(C) –1
2
(D)
11
A C 1
39. In a triangle ABC with usual notations, if tan tan = , then-
2 2 3
2ac
(A) b
ac
B A C 2
(B) tan tan tan
2 2 2 3
B A C 4
(C) tan tan tan
2 2 2 3
(D) a, b, c are in G. P.
sec 4 sec 4
40. The expression (wherever defined) can take the value-
tan 2 tan 2
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
41. Let n is the number of complex number(s) satisfying z+3 = z-3 +6 and z-4 =r , where r R ,
then identify the correct statement:
(A) if r=1, then n=2
(B) if r=1, then n=1
(C) if r=8 , then n=2
(D) if r=8, then n=1
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20 12
2
42. If z is complex number satisfying z 1 z 2 , then-
1 13
(A) Maximum value of z is
2
1 5
(B) maximum value of z is
2
1 5
(C) Minimum value of z is
2
1 2
(D) Minimum value of z is
2
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13 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20
Answer questions 47, 48 and 49 by appropriately matching the information given in the
three columns of the following table.
Column-II Column-III
Column -I Point of intersection of normals at
Equation of normal
Equation of parabola
at any point t t1 and t 2
(I) 2
y 4ax (i) y-tx=2at+at 3 (P) {at1 t 2 (t1 +t 2 ),-2a-a(t12 +t1 t 2 +t 22 )}
(II) y 2 4ax (ii) y+tx=2at+at 3 (Q) {-at1t 2 (t1 +t 2 ),2a+a(t12 +t1t 2 +t 22 )}
(III) x 2 4ay (iii) x-ty=2at+at 3 (R) {-2a-a(t12 +t1t 2 +t 22 ), at1t 2 (t1 +t 2 )}
(IV) x 2 4ay (iv) x+ty=2at+at 3 (S) {2a+a(t12 +t1t 2 +t 22 ),-at1t 2 (t1 +t 2 )}
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20 14
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
50. Let P and Q be distinct points on the parabola y 2 4 x such that circle, for which PQ is diameter
passes through vertex of the parabola. If area of ΔOPQ (O is origin) is 20 and the diameter of
d2
circumcircle of ΔOPQ is d, then is equal to
65
51. The sum of all in [0, 2 ] for which 3tan 2θ+8tanθ+3=0 is n , then n is equal to
52. Let R is the radius of the circle passing through the origin and cutting orthogonally each of the
2R
circles x 2 y 2 8 y 12 0 and x 2 y 2 4 x 6 y 3 0 , then is equal to
5
1
53. If 2n cos20o =sin40o +n cos40o , then is equal to
n2
x2 y 2
54. The minimum length of intercept on any tangent to the ellipse 1 cut by the circle
4 9
x 2 y 2 25 is:
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 1
SECTION – A
1. AD
Sol. As no external force is present on system, total momentum remain conserved (zero) hence final
momentum of all particle bust be in a plane so that their vector sum remain zero.
2. C
3. ABC
4. D
Sol. Let v1and v2 be the speed of the bodies before and after striking.
v1 sin v2 cos as thereis no friction
e v1 cos v2 cos
2
v2 sin
e tan 2
v1 cos
5. C
Sol. For only one collision v2 v1
v2 v1
p con.:
B A
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20 2
6. B
7. B
Sol. 2T 2mg = 2ma 2T
T mg = ma . . . (1)
a
2mg
2mg mg g A
A=
2m 2
Now, T + ma mg = mA
mg T T ma
T + T mg mg = [from equation (1)]
2 ma
mg 5mg 5
2T = 2mg + 6 = 15 Kg mg
2 2 2 mg mg
8. C
9. A
10. D
Sol. (for Q. 8 to Q. 10)
a
O
Taking torques about ICR
mg sin θ . R= I CM +mR 2
mg sin R 2
a R
ICM +mR 2
V V I CM mR
2
Final Vcm =0 t=
a mg sin R 2
Also, Applying energy conservation:-
2
1 V
mg h= ICM +mR 2
2 R
2
1 I Cm V
h 1
2 mR 2 g
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3 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20
11. B
12. D
13. A
Sol. (for Q. 11 to Q. 13)
600 200 200
t , D u
3sin sin sin
SECTION – C
14. 4
Sol. Conserving angular momentum about point O A B
r
2 2 t d
m r r cos t r sin t r cos I t
2 dt O r
2
t
or, I d m 2r 2 2r 2 cos t r cos dt D C
0 0 2
or, I = 2mr2
2
2 mr 2 2 2.5 8
= = 0.4 radian
I 250
15. 3
Sol. k = 0, U = 0
mAgR(1 cos ) mBg( 2 1)R = 0
mA
2 1
0.41 2 82
3
mB
1 3 2 0.27 27
16. 2
Sol. Three blocks A, B and C whose masses are m, km and 4m respectively are kept at rest on the
horizontal smooth surface, as shown in the figure. The ball A is given velocity v0 , rightward and it
collides with the ball B elastically. Then ball B collides elastically with the third ball C. For what
value of k, does the third ball C receive the maximum speed?
vo km 4m
m v1 v2
For the first collision:
mv1 kmv2 mvo (1)
& vo v2 v1 (2)
2vo
v2
1 k
v2
v3
v4
For 2nd collision:
kmv2 kmv4 4mv3
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20 4
M
A v
J
O J cos m
v
J cos
J sin θ + μ J cos θ= MV . . . (i)
2
(J-μJ cos θ) R= MR 2 ω------(ii)
5
J cos θ=mv----------(iii)
For pure rolling,
ωR-V=v
5J J Jcos
(1 cos (sin cos
2M M m
5 2sin
s = = 0.5
2M
m 7 cos
18. 5
Sol. Since the momentum must remain conserved, the magnitudes of velocities of the box and the
centre of mass of the rod must be equal and their direction opposite to each other as seen from
the ground. By conservation of mechanical energy
1 2 1 2 1 L
Mv Mv Icm 2 Mg
2 2 2 2
4V
where, =
L
Solving this we get,
3 24g
v= gL and =
10 5L
2L 12g 6g
Now acm of the rod in the vertical direction = =
2 10 5
Using Fyext miai , we get
6g
N 2Mg = M
5
6 16
Or, N = 2 Mg Mg
5 5
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5 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. ABD
Sol. AlCH3 is electron deficient, therefore it exist as dimer.
H
H
H3C H
C CH3
Al Al
CH3
H C
3 C
H H
H
20. BC
Sol. Due to aromaticity in B & C
21. AD
Sol. neq of K2Cr2O7 in 0.6 moles of K2Cr2O7 = 0.6 6 = 3.6
0.6 moles of K2Cr2O7 will oxidise 3.6 eq of FeSO4 or 3.6 moles of FeSO4
Hence choice (A) is correct and (B) is wrong
Also 0.6 moles of K2Cr2O7 will oxidise 3.6 eq of Sn2+ or 1.8 moles of Sn2+
Hence (D) is correct and (C) is wrong.
22. BD
Sol. (B) 500 × 0.2 = 100 millimole CH3COOH
300 × 0.2 = 60 millimole NaOH
Therefore, this is an acidic buffer, i.e. buffer of salt of weak acid and its salt.
(D) 500 × 0.2 = 100 millimole CH3COOH
500 × 0.2 = 100 millimole NH4OH
So, this is an example of salt buffer.
23. B, C, D
24. ABCD
Sol. All statements are correct.
25. ACD
Sol. Fe3+ and Mn2+ have same electronic configuration
26. B
Sol. Friedel craft alkylation does not take place in deactivated Benzene
27. B
Sol. In case of iodination, the rate determining step involves breaking of H Bond Hence when
substrate’s hydrogen are replaced by deuterium the rate slows by 6-7 times.
28. B
Sol. CH3 CH3 CH3
SO 3H
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20 6
29. C
Sol. I - +Na 2S4 O 6
I 2 +Na 2S2 O 3
30. A
2+
Sol. In an acidic medium MnO 4 reduces to Mn
31. B
Sol. 2MnO -4 +5H 2 C2 O 4 +2H +
10CO 2 +2MnO+6H 2O
SECTION – C
32. 4
Sol. N2 O2 2NO
79 21 0
79 x 21 x 2x Now 2x 2
x 1
79 1 21 1 2
78 20 2
2
2
Kp 2.56 10 3
78 20
K p 256
33. 2
Sol. 31. P1 = 756 mm Hg
P2 = 760 mm Hg
V1 = 48.6 ml V2 = ?
T1 = 300 K T2 = 273 K
Applying general gas equation
P1V1 P2 V2
T1 T2
P1V1T2
V2
T1P2
756 48.6 273
300 760
= 44 ml
Mass of organic compound = 0.45 g
28 1
% of N2 = V2 100
22400 0.45
28 1
= 44 100
22400 0.45
= 12.22 12
34. 6
Sol. By Drawing Structures of the given acids. Only the Neutralisable proton i.e attached to Oxygen
will be counted in Basicity. Hence H2SO4, H3PO3, H2S2O7, H2CrO4, H2CO3 and H2SO3 are
dibasic.
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7 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20
35. 5
Sol. Volume Strength = 5.6 * Normality
Normality = Eq/Volume in L. Hence N = 0.2*5/0.1 = 10. Hence X= 56.
36. 8
Sol. there are 3 geometrical centres
Hence 23 8
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20 8
SECTION – A
37. BCD
Sol.
B
N
P
90o A
M
PM .PN
PA.PB
cos cos
2 PM .PN
cos cos 2
For PA. PB to be
Minimum 2 0 2
OA OB OAB is isosceles
Slope of PA tan 90o cot cot
2
2t
tan 3 2
3 3 3t 2 2t
1 t
2
3t 2t 3 0
2 4 36 1 10
t
6 3
38. ABCD
Sol. Either the line L is parallel to the angle bisector of given lines.
m 1or tan 1 tan 2 (in same sense)
11 2
or
2 11
39. AB
1 s ( s a)( s b)( s c) 1
Sol. .
s ( s a) s ( s c ) 3 s 2 ( s a)(s c ) 3
3s 3b s
2s 3b a c 2b
a, b, c arein A.P
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9 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20
Also a c 2 ac
A B
Also tan tan 1
2 2
B A C 2
tan tan tan
2 2 2 3
40. CD
2
Sol. Put tan x & tan 2 y
2 2
x 1
y 1
x2 y 2 1 1 x y
2
y x y x y x y x
Apply A.M . G.M to get minimum value as
41. AD
Sol. z 3 z 3 6 ray
42. AC
2
Sol. z 1 z 2 1 z 1
2
z2 1 z 2 z 1
2 1 5
I. z z 1 0 z ,
2
2 1 13
II. z z 3 0 z 0,
2
2
III. z z 1 0 always true
1 5 1 13
z ,
2 2
43. BD
Sol. Slope will be positive
44. B
45. A
46. C
Sol. (i) cot 1 cot
2
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20 10
tan 2
2
(ii) x2 1 2 x2 5
sin 1
cos 1 1
47. A
48. B
49. A
Sol. Write equation of normal in parametric form
SECTION – C
50. 5
Sol. P t12 ,2t1 ,Q t 22 ,2t 2 ,t1t 2 =-4
1
2
2t1t22 2t2t12 20
t1 t2 5 t1 1, 4
I. P(1,2),Q(16,8)
d= 325
II. P(16,8),Q(1,-2)
d2
5
65
51. 5
8 64 36 8 28
Sol. tan =
6 6
Both negative tan tan 1
tan cot
3 7
,
2 2
y
0
2
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11 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20
3 7
,
2 2
sum=5
52. 3
2 2
Sol. Let x y 2 gx 2 fy 0
3
2 g (0) 2 f ( 4) 12 f
2
2 g ( 2) 2 f ( 3) 3 g 3
x2 y 2 6 x 3 y 0
3 5
R
2
53. 3
sin40o
Sol. n=
2cos20o -cos40o
sin40o
n=
cos20o +cos10o
sin40o sin40o 1
o o
= o o
cos70 +sin10 2sin40 cos30 3
54. 8
Sol. Tangent at Major axis of ellipse
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section-C & Section-D.
Section-A (01 – 03, 24 – 26, 47 – 49) contains 9 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-A (04 – 08, 27 – 31, 50 – 54) contains 15 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 mark
for wrong answer.
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.
Section-A (09 – 10, 32 – 33, 55 – 56) contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 2 multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3
marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
Section-C (11 – 20, 34 – 43, 57 – 66) contains 30 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-D (21 – 23, 44 – 46, 67 – 69) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
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3 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20
(A) The total energy of the two satellites plus earth system just before collision is G Mm / r
(B) The total energy of the two satellites plus earth system just before collision is 2G Mm / r
(C) The total energy of the two satellites plus earth system just before collision is G Mm / 2r
(D) The combined mass (two satellites) will fall towards the earth just after collision.
5. A rod bent at right angel along its centre line, is placed on a rough horizontal A
fixed cylinder of radius R as shown in figure. Mass of rod is 2m and rod is in
equilibrium. Assume that friction force on rod at A and B are equal in R
magnitude. Then: B
(A) Normal force applied by cylinder on rod at A is 3mg/2
(B) Normal force applied by cylinder on rod at B must be zero
(C) Friction force acting on rod at B is upward
(D) Normal force applied by cylinder on rod at A is mg
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20 4
(C) The force the friction that the rope exerts on the spool is F βR Rr r 2
2
/ βR 2
2 2
(D) The force the friction that the rope exerts on the spool is FR βR r / βR r
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains ONE paragraph. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each question
has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
A horizontal stream of water, of uniform cross sectional area ‘A’ and having constant speed v 0 along
positive x-axis, is continuously hitting a vertical face of a cube which lying on a smooth horizontal surface
as shown in the figure. The mass of the cube is M and the area of its face is a >A . After hitting the
cube the water molecules slide down the vertical face of the cube. In the beginning the cube is at rest.
Assume that the speed acquired by the cube, v, is much less than v 0. At the time t = 0, the rear end of
the cube is at the origin. Now answer the following questions.
Area A
Pipe
Cube of mass M
Stream velocity v 0
O x
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5 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20
9. The value of the x co-ordinate of the rear end at time t will be:
Av02t 2
(A)
2M
Av02t 2
(B)
M
2 Av02t 2
(C)
M
Av02t 2
(D)
4M
10. The value of v at time t will be:
Av02 t
(A)
2M
Av02 t
(B)
3M
Av02 t
(C)
M
2 Av02t
(D)
M
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains TEN questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
11. A block of wood of density 500 kg/m3 has mass m kg in air. A lead block which has apparent
weight of 28 kg in water is attached to the block of wood, and both of them are submerged in
water. If their combined apparent weight in water is 20 kg, find the value of ‘m’. Take density of
water = 1000 Kg/m 3.
12. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit around the earth with a speed equal to half the
magnitude of the escape velocity from the earth. If the satellite is stopped suddenly in its orbit and
allowed to fall freely onto the earth, find the speed (in km/sec) with which it hits the surface of the
earth (g=10 m/s2 and R=6400 km)
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20 6
15. Water is drawn form a well in a 5 kg drum of capacity 55 L by two ropes connected to the top of
-1
the drum. The linear mass density of each rope is 0.5 kg m . If the work done in lifting water to
the ground from the surface of water in the well 20m below is (1.4 10nJ); then find the value of n
(g=10 m/s2).
16. In a car race, car A takes 4s less than car B at the finish and passes the finishing point with a
velocity v more than the car B. Assuming that the cars start form rest and travel with constant
2 2 1
acceleration a1 4 ms and a2 1ms respectively, find the velocity of v in ms .
17. A body is thrown with the velocity v 0 at an angle of θ to the horizon. Determine v 0 in ms-1 if the
maximum height attained by the body is 5m and at the highest point of its trajectory the radius of
curvature is r = 3m. Neglect air resistance. [Use 80 as 9]
18. A block A of mass m is placed over a plank B of mass 2m.
Plank B is placed over a smooth horizontal surface. The A v0
coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.4. Block A is given a
-2
velocity v0 towards right. Find acceleration (in ms ) of B relative B
to A.
19. A solid sphere rolls on a smooth horizontal surface at 10 m/s and then rolls up a smooth inclined
plane of inclination 30° with horizontal. The mass of the sphere is 2 kg. Find the height attained
by the sphere before it stops (in m).
20. A small sphere of mass m = 1kg is moving with a velocity 4iˆ ˆj m / s . It hits a fixed smooth
wall and rebounds with velocity iˆ 3 ˆj m / s . The coefficient of restitution between the sphere
and the wall is n /16 . Find the value of ' n ' .
SECTION – D
(Numerical Based XXXXX.XX answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer Type
with answer xxxxx.xx.
21. A bead of mass 1/2 kg starts from rest from A to move in a vertical F
A
plane along a smooth fixed quarter ring of radius 5m, under the action
of a constant horizontal force F = 5 N as shown in figure. The speed of R
-1 =
bead as it reaches point B is: (in ms ) 5m
22. A steel wire of length 4.7 m and cross-sectional area 3×106 m 2 stretches by the same amount
6 2
as a copper wire of length 3.5 m and cross-sectional area of 4×10 m under a given load. The
ratio of Young’s modulus of steel to that of copper is:
23. Determine the time in which the smaller block reaches =0.3
10 N 2 kg
other end of bigger block in figure. =0.0
8 kg
L 3.0 m
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7 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
M.W.
(A)
4
M.W.
(B)
3
M.W.
(C)
6
M.W.
(D)
2
NH NH2
I. II. III. IV.
N
N H
(A) III>IV>I>II
(B) II>I>IV>III
(C) IV>III>II>I
(D) I>II>III>IV
-4
26. 100 ml of 0.5 M hydrazoic acid (N 3 H K a =3.6´10 ) and 400 ml of 0.1 M cyanic acid
(HOCN, K a = 8´10-4 ) are mixed. Which of the following is true for final solution?
(A) H 2 102 M
(B) N3 3.6 10 2 M
(C) OCN 4.571 103 M
(D) OCN 6.4 103 M
27. For the system at equilibrium which of the following are correct?
(A) equilibrium constant of an exothermic reaction decreases with increase of temperature
(B) the plot of lnK p vs 1/ T of an endothermic reaction can be represented as
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20 8
ln Kp
1/T
(C) K p is always greater then Kc.
1 0 H0
(D) ln K p S
R T
Z H2 O
(iii) 3SnCl2 2AuCl3 3SnCl4 P
(iv) SnCl2 2HCl I2 SnCl4 Q
(A) X shows white turbidity and is basic
(B) Y is white ppt. and Z is soluble in water
(C) P is a metal
(D) Q is an acid
30. Identify the correct statement regarding inter-halogen compounds ClF3and FCl3 .
(A) FCl3 is not possible as F does not have vacant d-orbitals to allow octet-expansion.
(B) All bond lengths in ClF3 are not identical.
(C) ClF3 has umbrella shaped geometry.
(D) F – Cl – F bond angle is 90
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9 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20
31. Adding a few drops of hydrochloric acid to a beaker containing water results in the formation of
hydrated species. Identify which hydrated species can exist in solution
(A) H3 O
(B) H3 O 2
(C) H5 O 2
(D) H 2 ClO
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains ONE paragraph. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each question
has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
H3PO4 is a tribasic acid. It forms three series of salts NaH 2 PO 4 , Na 2 HPO4 and Na 3PO 4 when it is
titrated with NaOH. The three step equilibrium constants of H3 PO 4 are K a1 104 , K a2 108 , K a3 1013
Three flasks A, B and C each having 0.1 M, 100 ml H3PO4 are present
(i) In flask A, 50 ml 0.1 M NaOH was added.
(ii) In flask B, 200 ml 0.1 M NaOH was added
(iii) In flask C, 300 ml 0.1 M NaOH was added
A B C
33. If H3PO 4 is titrated with NaOH in flask B then which indicator is suitable to show end point (at
200 ml of NaOH) and what will be the pH of final solution?
(A) 6, methylorange
(B) 6, phenolphthelien
(C) 10.5, phenolphthelien
(D) 8, phenolphthelien
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20 10
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains TEN questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
+
[ Ag NH 3 2 = 10 -8
2+
36. The amount of energy required to remove electron from a Li ion in its ground state is how
many times greater than the amount of energy needed to remove the electron from an H atom in
its ground state?
37. No. of molecules which are non-linear among the following molecules will be
ICl2 , AsF2 , NOF, N3 , CO2 , COS, H2 O, OF2 , SCl2 , SO2
38. A 2 lit flask, initially containing one mol of each CO and H 2O , was sealed and heated to 700 k,
where the following equilibrium was established.
CO(g) H2 O(g)
CO 2 (g) H2 (g) ; K C 9
Now the flask was connected to another flask containing some pure CO 2 g at same
temperature and pressure, by means of a narrow tube of negligible volume. When the equilibrium
was restored, moles of CO was found to be double of its moles at first equilibrium. Determine
volume of CO 2 g flask, (In litre).
40. If the lowest energy of X-ray have 3.055 10 8 m. If the minimum difference in energy
–
between two Bohr orbit is such that the electronic transition emits the given X ray. Assuming e
in other shell exert no influence, at what minimum Z would a transition from second to the first will
result in the emission of X-rays.
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11 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20
(2) The number of orbitals in a shell with principal quantum number n is2n2 .
1
(3) The set of quantum numbers for the last unpaired electron of Cl atom is 3,1,1,
2
(4) The ratio of energy in the first Bohr orbit of H – atom to the electron in the first excited
3
state of Be is 1:4.
(5) The electronic configuration of Co ends with 3d74s2.
(6) The order of energy of subshells in a given principle quantum level for an H-atom are
ns np nd .
(7) in silver atom (at.no. 47) , 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 electrons have a
spin opposite type.
(M)
O
H3C
SECTION – D
(Numerical Based XXXXX.XX answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer Type
with answer xxxxx.xx.
44. In a eudiometer 14 ml of CH4 and 38.5 ml of O2 was introduced. After explosion and cooling to
initial temperature (23C) the volume of eudiometer was found to be 25 ml. Calculate the vapour
pressure (in mm of Hg) of aqueous solution containing a non-volatile solute (A) at 23C. Mole
fraction of (A) is 0.1. The pressure of eudiometer is 1 atm and is constant.
45. If the number of moles of NH 3 must be added to one litre of a 0.1 M AgNO3 to reduce Ag+
concentration to 2 107 M is expressed as 3.84 10 x , then ‘x’ is?
+
(Given: K diss . of Ag NH 3 2 is 6.8 10 8 )
46. At what temperature (in C) is the average velocity of O2 molecules equal to the root mean square
velocity at 27C ?
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20 12
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
47. Find all values of ‘m’ such that the roots of the equation 2x 2 – x – 1 = 0 lie inside the roots of the
2
equation x 2m m 2
x 2m 3
0
1
(A) m ,1
2
1
(B) m ,1
3
1
(C) m ,1
4
1
(D) m ,
4
48. The least value of |z – 3 – 4i|2 + |z + 2 - yi|2 |z – 5 + 2i|2 occurs when
(A) 1 + 3i
(B) 3 + 3i
(C) 3 + 4i
(D) none of these
1824
49. The number of rational terms in the expansion of 51/ 6 71/ 9 is
(A) 101
(B) 102
(C) 103
(D) 104
50. If (a, 0) is a point on a diameter of the circle x 2+y2 =4, then x2 – 4x – a2 =0 has
(A) exactly one real root in ( -1, 0]
(B) exactly one real root in [ 2, 5]
(C) distinct roots greater than –1
(D) distinct roots less than 5
51. Tangent drawn at point P(1, 3) of a parabola intersects its tangent at vertex at M(1, 5) and cuts
the axis of parabola at T. If R(5, 5) is a point on SP; where S is focus of the parabola, then
(A) slope of axis is 3
5
(B) radius of circumcircle of SMP is units
2
(C) (ST)2 (SM)2 (PM)2
(D) tangent cuts the axis of parabola at T (3, 7)
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13 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20
x2 y2
52. If the normal at an end of a latus-rectum of the ellipse 1 passes through an extremity
a 2 b2
of the minor axis, then
5 1
(A) eccentricity of the ellipse is
2
5 1
(B) ratio of the major and minor axes is
2
(C) square of the eccentricity is equal to the ratio of the minor and major axes
(D) all of these
x2 y2
53. If two tangents can be drawn to the different branches of hyperbola 1 from the point
1 4
, , then
2
(A) 2, 0
(B) 0, 2
(C) , 2
(D) 2,
54. The number of selection of four letters taken from the word COLLEGE must be
(A) 22
(B) 18
(C) Coefficient of x 4 in the expansion of (1 x x2 )2 (1 x)3
(D) 32
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains ONE paragraph. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each question
has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
ABC be a triangle with A(1, 3) and internal angle bisector of the angles B and C be y = x and y = –2x
respectively. Then
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20 14
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains TEN questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
21
57. The number of values of x satisfying 2sinx - 42 cos x 6 in x ϵ 0, is ______.
2
60. If |z – 3| = Re z, |w – 3| = Re w and arg(z - w) = , then Im(z + w) equals _____
4
61. If , , are the roots of x 3 – 3x2 + 3x + 7 = 0 and w is a complex cube root of unity, then
1 1 1
is _______
1 1 1
2n 3
62. The value of
n0 3n
is equal to ____
63. Let an 16, 4,1,..... be a geometric sequence. Define bn as product of first n terms. Then value
1 n
of bn is _______
8 n 1
2
64. The value of ‘b’ for which the equation x 2 x 3 b has 3 real solutions
(x – 3)2 (y – 4)2
67. Given the equation of the ellipse + = 1, a parabola is such that its vertex is the
16 49
lowest point of the ellipse and it passes through the ends of the minor axis of the ellipse. The
2 A H K
equation of the parabola is in the form 16y = A(x – H) – K. Determine the value of
7 3 16
is equal to
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15 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/20
68. A circle with centre 3, 3 and of variable radius cuts the hyperbola x 2 y 2 9 at point P, Q,
R and S. then locus of centroid of PQR is a hyperbola then length of transverse axis is _____
69. If x + y + z = 10, where x, y, z N. Then the number of solutions of unordered triplet (x, y, z) such
that no two variables are equal _________
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 2
SECTION – A
1. A
Sol. f Mg sin T sin Mg sin mg sin
Torque
T .r f .r
mg Mg sin mg sin
M sin
m
1 sin
2. C
Sol. If all blocks moves with same acceleration
F
a
2 M 2m
a
A
f
B
f m m M a
2m M F
2m M
For no slipping f f1
2m M F smg
2m M
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20 2
2 smg m M
F
2m M
3. A
h
Sol. Velocity of fluid v 2g gh
2
Force F av 4R
2
4 a ghR
4. ABD
1 GMm GMm
Sol. T.E before collision 2
2 r r
mv mv 2mv ' v ' 0
GM 2m
So only gravitation P. E. occur
r
5. AC
Sol. N A f B 2mg
NB fA
NA
fA
fB
NB 2mg
6. ABD
7. ACD
1
Sol. P0 .3 1 g .1 2 g P0 2v 2
2
v 2.24 m / s
mv
F Av 2 v Av 2 2 3 N
t
Normal contact force N mg 1 A .3 g 2 A .2 g 420
f 2 N .04 420 16.8
f 2 F so force applied = 0 for minimum force.
For maximum force applied 3 N 16.8 19.8 N
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3 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20
8. AD
Sol. Taking torque about pt. of contact on rope
F R r
, aCM .r A
I Mr 2
F f maCM , f D
9. A
Sol. A value of liquid flowing out/s Av0
Mass of liquid flowing out/s Av0
Change in momentum/s Av0 v0 force
Av0 2
Force Ma a
m
1 1
So x at 2 Av0 2 t
2 2M
10. C
Sol. v u at
Av 2
0 t
m
SECTION – C
11. 8
m
Sol. Vwood
500
Opposite weight of block = weight of lead block – Vp thrust conic
28 g m ' g V ' w g 1
Here 20 g m m ' g V V ' w g
20 g mg V w g 28 g
8 m V w
m 8 kg
12. 8
2
GMm 1 Vc 1 GMm
st m
Sol. 1 case: R h 2 2 2 Rh
hR
2nd case: when it stop
1 2 GMm
P. E. mv
2 R
GMm 1 2 GMm
mv
2R 2 R
v 8 km / s
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20 4
13. 5
Sol. When string cut
mg mg 3g
A mg / 2 I 2
2I m / 3 2
3g
aCM r 3g
2 2
mg RA m aCM
RA 5 N
14. 1
1 1
Sol. [ cos ]
4
Using L.C.E
1 2 1
mv0 mgl mv 2 mgl 1 cos
2 2
v v02 2 gl cos
2
mv 2
T mg cos
l
m v02 2 gl cos 1
2mg mg cos cos so n 1
l 4
15. 4
4
Sol. [ 1.4 10 J ]
16. 8
A a1 , t 4 v ' u
Sol.
B a2 , t , v '
1 2 1
S a1 t 4 a2t 2
2 2
t 8s
v ' a2 t 8 m / s
v ' v a1 t 4
8 v 4 4
v 8m / s
17. 9
2
Sol. g
V0 cos V02 cos 2 gr 10 3 30
r
V02 sin 2
2.5 h V02 sin 2 50
2g
V02 80 V0 80 9
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5 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20
18. 6
Sol. Retardation of A
aA g
g
Acceleration of B
2
g 3 3 .4 10
So relative acceleration of B w.r.t A g g 6
2 2 2
19. 7
Sol. Using L.COM
1 2 1 2
mv I mgh
2 2
1 2 1 2 2 v2
mv mR 2 mgh
2 2 5 R
2
7v
h 7m
10 g
20. 9
Sol. N dt 1. iˆ 3 ˆj 4iˆ ˆj 3iˆ 4 ˆj
N . dt
4iˆ ˆj iˆ 3 ˆj
16
Component of 4iˆ ˆj along 3iˆ 4 ˆj
25
3iˆ 4 ˆj
16 16
Speed of approach 25
25 5
9
Component of iˆ 3 ˆj along 3iˆ 4 ˆj is
25
3iˆ 4 ˆj
Speed of separation 9 / 5
e 9 / 16
n9
SECTION – D
21. 00014.14
1
Sol. F R mgh mv 2
2
1 1 1
5 5 10 5 v 2
2 2 2
v 10 2 14.14 m / s
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20 6
22. 00001.80
Sol. s c
F s Y s Ac
Ys s
As 4s Yc c As
F c
Yc 1.79
Acc
23. 00003.19
Sol. F mg ma1
2kg F
mg
a1
mg
8kg
a2
2
a1 2 m / s
mg 6 3
a2 m / s2
M 8 8 4
3 5
2 m / s2
4 4
2s
t 2.19
arel
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7 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
24. B
25. A
26. D
Sol. H K a1 C1 K a2 C2 10 1 3.6 10 4 8 102 8 10 4 = 102 M
HOCN
H OCN
8´102 M 1 02
8 10 4 8 102
OCN = 6.4 103 M
102
27. ABD
Sol. G 0 H0 TS0
Also G0 = RT lnKp
RTlnKP = H0 TS0
RTlnKP = TS0 H0
1 0 H0
ln Kp = S
R T
Hence (A), (B) (D) is correct
28. ACD
Sol. From the given expression, G 4.73 KJ / mol & RT 2.5 KJ / mol .
This gives T = 300 K
2
PNO PNO
2
Initially, PNO2 0 hence
2
0 & ln 2 –
PN2O4 P
N2O4
Hence G expression is (–)ve & reaction moves in forward direction spontaneously.
Mole fraction of N 2 O 4 is much larger than that of NO2. Thus PN2O4 PNO2
P 2NO2 G0
But for we can’t say, hence comparison of K p value = + antilog 1.909 with
PN2O4 RT
P2NO2
QP = is inclusive.
PN2O4
Hence Q P K P or Q P K P or even QP K P can be possible.
29. ABCD
Sol. X Sn OH Cl
Y Sn OH 2
Z Na 2SnO 2
P Au
Q HI
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20 8
30. ABC
Sol. F
F Cl
31. ABCD
Sol.
H OH H H2O molecule
H2 O H H2O OH H2O 2 H
Cl
H2 O Cl
32. D
33. C
SECTION – C
34. 9
35. 1
K sp K sp [Ag ][NH3 ]2
Sol. [Ag ] K instability
[Cl ] 10 3 [Ag(NH3 )2 ]
108 25 103
[NH3 ]2 10 3
10 10
25 104
NH 3 = 5 × 10 -2
n NH 3 = 5 × 10 -2 + 2 × 25 × 10 -3
= 5 × 10-2 + 50 × 10-3 10 102 1 101 x 101
x 1
36. 9
2
E Li2 13.6 3 eV
Sol. 2
9
E H 13.6 1 eV
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9 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20
37. 7
Sol. Except N3 , CO2 and COS all are non-linear.
38. 4
39. 6
Sol. A g Bg Cg
pC 0.3
Kp 20 …..(i)
p A p B 0.15 0.1
or
pC
20 ….(ii)
2p A 2p B
or
p C = 20 x 2 x 0.5 x 2 x 0.1 = 1.2 atm = 0.2 x 6 atm
40. 2
hc
Sol. E 6.52 10 18 J
3
EH 2.176 1018 J 1.63 1018 J
4
E
Z2 4
EH
Z=2
41. 5
h
Sol. (1) The orbital angular momentum for a d-electron is 6 .
2
2
(2) The number of orbitals in a shell with principal quantum number n is n
1
(3) The set of quantum numbers for the last unpaired electron of Cl atom is 3,11,
2
(4) The ratio of energy in the first Bohr orbit of H – atom to the electron in the first excited
state of Be3 is 1:4.
(5) The electronic configuration of Co ends with 3d7 4s2 .
(6) The energy of subshells in a given principle quantum level for an H-atom are equal
(7) in silver atom (at.no. 47) , 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 electrons have
a spin of opposite type.
42. 2
43. 4
Sol. Only NaHCO3 , CsHCO3 , KHCO3 , NH 4 HCO3 exist in solid state.
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20 10
SECTION – D
44. 00013.68
45. 00001.00
Sol. Ag NH 3 2 Ag 2 NH 3
Ag 2 107 , Ag NH 3 2 0.1 M
2 2
Ag NH 3 8 2 107 NH 3
Kdiss
6.8 10
Ag NH 3 2 0.1
NH 3 0.184 M
NH 3 total added fro complexion = 0.184 2 0.1 0.384 mole/litre
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11 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20
SECTION – A
47. C
1
Sol. x ,1
2
1
D 0 & f 0 & f 1 0
2
1 1
f 0 m ,
2 4
1
f 1 0 m , 1 ,1
2
48. D
Sol. Let z = x + iy
Then |z – 3 – 4i|2 + |z + 2 – 7i|2 + |z – 5 + 2i|2
= 3 {(x - 2)2 + (y - 3)2} + 68
The leas value occurs when x = 2 and y = 3
Z = 2 + 3i
49. B
1824 r r
Sol. Tr 1 1824 Cr 5 6 7 9
for rational terms 1824 – r = 6·I & r = 9·I
1824
r = 18·I there are 1 102 rational terms
18
50. ABCD
Sol. Since (a, 0) is a point on the diameter of the circle 2
0
x2 +y2 = 4, x
-1 5
maximum value of a2 is 4
Let f(x) = x2 – 4x – a2
Clearly f(-1) = 5 – a2 > 0, f(2) = -(a2 + 4) < 0
f(0) = -a2 < 0 and f( 5) = 5 - a2 > 0
Graph of f(x) will be as shown
51. A,B,C,D
Sol. Equation of tangent at P is x + y = 4
Clearly mirror image of R(5, 5) lies on line PQ.
Now mirror image R or R Q
P
M
5 5 2( 5 5 4) R
4
1 1 2
S
( , ) ( 1,9) T(3,7)
Let PM cuts the axis at T; As M is midpoint of PT
T is (3, 7)
We know that SP = ST and SMP=
2
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20 12
1
Equation SP y 3 (x 1)
3
x + 3y10 = 0
Let S (10 3, )
7 93
Again TS || PQ 3
13 3 1 1
focus is (2, 4)
52. ABCD
53. CD
2 2
Sol. , lie on the parabola y x
x2 y2
hyperbola 1 in 1st and 2nd quadrant.
1 4
Asymptotes are y 2x
2 2
0 or c 2
and 2 2
2 or 0
, 2 or 2,
54. BC
LS 2
Sol. 3. C, O, G 3 different letters
ES 2
(1) Four different letters = 5C4 5
(2) 2 like 2 different 2C1 4C2 12
(3) 2 alike , 2 alike = 1 =1
_________
18
55. A
56. B
Sol. (for Q. 55 to Q. 56)
A(1, 3)
I y=x
y = –2x
C(–1/2, 1) B(1, 1)
Equation of IC is 2x – 4y + 5 = 0
Equation of IB is x + y = 2
1 3
, .
2 2
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13 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20
SECTION – C
57. 5
2 2
1 2 2
Sol. sin x cos x 0
3 3
1 2 2
Possible only if, sin x , cos x (2n quadrant).
3 3
58. 1
1 x2
Sol. sin cos 1 y 1 1 sin 1
2x
hence x 1
(not possible)
Case – I sin cos 1 y 1 cos 1 y
2
Case – II sin cos 1 y 1 cos 1 y
2
y0
Hence only solution is (1, 0).
59. 0
2
Sol. 15sin 4 10 1 sin 2 6
2
sin 2
5
3
cos 2
5
6 6
Hence, 8 cos ec 27 sec
3 3
5 5
8 27
2 3
0
60. 6
Sol. Let z x1 iy1,w x2 iy2
| z 3 | Re z (x1 3)2 y12 x12 ....(i)
2 2 2
| w 3 | Re w (x 2 3) y x 2 2 ...(ii)
y y2
arg(z w) 1 tan 1 ...(iii)
4 x1 x 2 4
By solving (i), (ii) and (iii) we get
y y2 6
1
x1 x 2 y1 y 2
From (iii) y1 + y2 = 6
61. 3
Sol. x3 – 3x2 + 3x + 7 = 0
(x 1)3 8
1 ; 1 2w, 1 2w 2
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20 14
1 1
= w 2 2w 2 w 2 3w 2
w w
1 1 1
1
1 1 1
62. 6
Sol. S 3 S1 S 2 where
1 1 3
S1 1 2 ...........
3 3 2
2 4 6 8
S 2 2 3 4 ..........
3 3 3 3
S2 2 4
........
3 32 33
3
S2
2
Hence, S = 6
63. 4
n 1 n 1
n a
Sol. bn a n r 2
ar 2
32
n 1 1 r
64. 4
65. 7
Sol. The length of the tangent = 25 1 30 4 3 49 7
66. 4
Sol. Equation of tangent to parabola at P(t) is given by
1 (t2,2t)
2
ty = x+t , tan P
t
1 1 N
Area of APN = (AN)(PN) (2t 2 )(2t) S(1,0)
2 2 A(t2,0)
3 2 3/ 2
2t 2(t )
t 2 [1,4] max when t2 = 4 Q(t2)
max 16
A
The maximum area of is 16 square units =4
4
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15 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE (Advanced)/20
SECTION – D
67. 00005.00
2 2
68. 00002.00
Sol. Let points are 3 sec i , 3 tan i , i =1, 2, 3, 4
2 2
Then locus of centroid of PQR is x 2 y 2 1
69. 00004.00
Sol. x + y + z = 10
1 2 7
3 1 6
4 1 5
2 3 5
Total ways = 4.
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01– 06, 19 – 24, 37 - 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 - 46) contains 12 questions. Based on this section contains TWO
(02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
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3 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
6. An ammeter has a resistance of 50 and a full scale deflection current of 50 A. It can
be used as a voltmeter or as a higher range ammeter provided that a resistance is
added to it. Choose the correct range and resistance combination from the following
(A) 20 V range with approximately 400 k resistance in series
(B) 100 V range with approximately 2 × 106 resistance in series
(C) 1 mA range with 50 resistance in parallel
(D) 0.1 mA range with 50 resistance in parallel
Space for Rough work
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 7 and 8
(A) (B)
t t
v v
(C) (D)
t t
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5 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
The main scale of a vernier callipers reads in millimetre and its vernier is divided into
10 divisions which coincide with 9 divisions of the main scale. When the two jaws of the
instrument touch each other the seventh division of the vernier scale coincide with a scale
division and the zero of the vernier lies to the right of the zero of main scale. Furthermore, when
a cylinder is tightly placed along its length between the two jaws, the zero of the vernier scale
lies slightly to the left of 3.2 cm; and the fourth vernier division coincides with a scale division.
Calculate the measured length of the cylinder.
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
11. A non-viscous liquid of constant density 103 kg/m3 flows in streamline motion along a
vertical tube PQ of variable cross-section. Height of P and Q are 2m and 2.5m
respectively. Area of tube at Q = 3 time area of tube at P. Find the work done per unit
volume (in J/m3) by pressure as liquid flows from P to Q. Speed of liquid at P is 3 m/s
(g = 10 m/s2).
12. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current through the inductor
L
is 0.6 A, while the current through the capacitor is 0.4 A. Find the
current (in A) drawn from the generator
C
Generator
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
14. A uniform disc of radius R having charge Q distributed uniformly all over its surface is
placed on a smooth horizontal surface. A magnetic field, B = kxt2, where k is a constant,
x is the distance (in metre) from the centre of the disc and t is the time (in second), is
switched on perpendicular to the plane of the disc. Find the torque (in N-m) acting on the
disc after 15 sec. (Take 4kQ = 2.50 S.I. unit and R = 1m)
15. The adjacent figure shows charged spherical shells A, B and C having C
charge densities ,-, and radii a, b, c respectively. If VA=Vc then c is A
equal to (in m) (assuming a = 0.10 m, b = 0.20 m) B
a
b -
c
16. A string of length 1 m and mass 10 gm is tightly clamped at its ends. The tension in the
string is 4 N. Identical wave pulses are produced at one end at equal intervals of time t.
What is the minimum value of t (in sec.) which allows a constructive interference
between successive pulses?
17. A cubical body floats in a mercury bath with half of its volume submerged. What fraction
of the body will be inside mercury if a layer of water is poured on the mercury covers the
body completely? (Sp. gr. of mercury = 13.6)
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7 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. Which of the following compounds are more basic than NH2 ?
NH
(A) CH3 CH2 NH2 (B)
CH3 C NH2
O
CH3
H OH
(C) H3C CH C CH CH3 (D)
CH3 H
OH
(A) O (B) O
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 25 and 26
N
(C) NH2 (D)
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9 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
26. Consider path II, choose the major product for 1 and 2.
O
N H D
O2N NH2
O KOHBr2
(1)
O
O 2N NH2
D NO2
N H
'X' 'Y'
NO2 O
(2)
(A) 1 – Y, 2 – X (B) 1 – X, 2 – Y
(C) 1 – X, 2 – X (D) 1 – Y, 2 – Y
Bond length: Internuclear distance between two adjacent atoms in a species is known as bond
length. Bond length depends on:
(i) Size of the atom involved in the bond formation
(ii) Size of the orbitals involved in the bond formation
(iii) Lone pair-lone pair repulsion
(iv) Resonance (also backbonding)
(v) s-character of combining orbital
With the increasing size of the atoms and atomic orbitals bond length increase. Lone pair-lone
pair repulsion increases bond length (if atoms are small sized) whereas resonance can increase
some bond lengths and decrease some other bond length. With increasing s-character bond
length decreases, and with increasing multiplicity of bonds, bond length decreases. However, in
some cases, bond lengths are also affected by relative position of bonds (between two similar
atoms). Usually but not always with increasing bond length, bond strength (and hence bond
dissociation energy) decreases.
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. If edge fraction unoccupied in ideal FCC structure is x. Calculate the value of 10 x.
30. Calculate depression of freezing point for 0.66 molal aq. Solution of KCl.
(Given : K f H2 O 1.86 K kg mol1 )
32. 3B
k1
k2
A 8C ; At time t = 0, initial mole of A is 1.
k3
3D
Overall half life of the reaction is 15 days. Then calculate the number of mole of B + C +
D after 45 days if the ratio of k1 : k2 : k3 is 4 : 2 : 1.
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11 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
33. 10 mL of H2A (weak diprotic acid) solution is titrated against 0.1 M NaOH. pH of the
solution is plotted against volume of strong base added and following observation is
made.
pH of solution
20 40
Vol. of strong base (mL)
If pH of the solution at first equivalence point is pH1 and at second equivalence point is
pH2.
pH2
Calculate the value of at 25°C
pH1
Given : For H2A, pK a1 4.6 and pK a2 8, log 25 1.4
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
35. Examine the structural formulas of following compounds and find out number of
compounds which show higher rate of nucleophilic addition than
O
H3C C H
O H O H O H O H O H
O H
, , , , ,
Cl NO 2 N(CH3)2 OH C N
OCH3
36. Total number of substance which contain hexagonal planer rings in their structures
(graphite, (BN)x, B3N3H6, C6H6, B2H6, H3P3O9):
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SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
38. A chord of negative slope from the point P 264, 0 is drawn to the ellipse
x 2 4y 2 16 . This chord intersects the ellipse at A and B (O is the origin).
(A) The maximum area of AOB is 4
(B) The maximum area of AOB is 8
1
(C) If the area of AOB is maximum, then the slope of line AB is
2 2
1
(D) If the area of AOB is maximum, then the slope of line AB is
8 2
x 1 y 2 z 2
39. Equation of plane passing through the line and making an angle of
1 1 2
30o with the plane x + y + z = 5 is.
(A) x y 1 2 2 2y z 6 0
(B) x y 1 2 2 2y z 6 0
(C) x y 1 2 2 2y z 6 0
(D) x y 1 2 2 2y z 6 0
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
40. The volume of the parallelepiped whose coterminous edges are represented by the
vectors 2b c, 3c a and 4a b, where a 1 sin ˆi cos ˆj sin 2k,
ˆ
2 ˆ 2 ˆ 4 ˆ
bˆ sin i cos j sin 2 k ,
3 3 3
2 ˆ 2 ˆ 4 ˆ
c sin
3 i cos 3 j sin 2 3 k is 18 cubic units, then the value of ,
in the interval 0, , is are
2
2
(A) (B)
9 9
4
(C) (D)
3 3
41. A player tosses a coin. He sets one point for head and two points for tail. He plays till he
gets sum of points equal to n. If pn be the probability that his score becomes n, then
1 1 1
(A) p3 (B) pn Pn1 Pn2
2 2 4
11 1
(C) p4 (D) pn pn1 pn 2
16 2
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15 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 43 and 44
43. The set of all values of b for which the equation b log x x 0 has exactly one real roots
is equal to
1
(A) 0, (B) (0, 1)
e
(C) , 0 (D) none of these
Given a ABC in which AD is perpendicular to base BC, Incircle with radii r1 and r2 are drawn in
ABD and ACD respectively. They touch the altitude AD at point M and N respectively.
Assume sides and angles have usual meaning.
45. If ABC is an isosceles triangle and the angle between the equal sides AB and AC is
2
, then r1 : r2 is
3
(A) 3 1: 3 1 (B) 3 3 : 2 3
(C) 3 3 : 3 (D) none of these
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
47. Let f x x 3 3x 2 and g x be its inverse. If the area bounded by g x , x – axis and
p
the ordinates x = – 2 and x = 6 is (where p& q are coprime), find value of p q 1
q
/2
49. If
0
x f cos2 x tan4 x dx k
0
f cos 2 x tan4 x dx, then the value of k is
50. If a,b,c R and a 2bc 4abc 4bc 81 . Find the value of a b c such that
2a b c 4 assumes its least value _______
2 0 0 1 cos x sin x T
51. Let A ,B and x . If P AXB, Q BX A and
0 3 3 0 sin x cos x
Tr. PQ 10
a
10
b10 , where a b , then find the value of b 2a ______
(Tr (M) denotes trace of Matrix M and MT denotes transpose of matrix M)
Space for Rough work
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17 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
10
52.
Let 1 3r. 10Cr r. 10Cr 210 .45 where , N and f x x 2 2x k 2 1 .
r 1
If , lies between the roots of f x 0 , then find the smallest positive integral value
of k.
t
53. If the straight line x 1 s, y 3 s, z 1 s and x , y 1 t, z 2 t with
2
parameters s and t respectively, are coplanar, then the value of is ___________
54. If the sum of the first 3n terms is equal to the next n terms of an A.P. whose common
difference is non – zero, then the reciprocal of the ratio of the sum of the first 2n terms to
the next 2n terms is _______
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ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
SECTION – A
1. AC
1
Sol. P 2Pl1 2Pl2 Pm …(1)
F
1 1 1
Pl1 ( 1)
f1 R1 R 2
1 1 1
Pl1 [(1.5 1] …(2)
10 15 12
1 1 1
Pl2 ( 1)
f2 R1 R 2
4 2 2
Pl2 1 …(3)
3 15 45
1 2
Pm …(4)
f 15
1 1 2 2 1 4 2 1
P 2
F 12 45 15 6 45 15 18
F 18 cm . Focus is negative means system will behave as concave mirror.
2. ABCD
Sol. For maxima path difference = n
If d = path difference between waves reaching point O = 7
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
O will be maxima.
For d = only one maxima at O is possible, the screen being finite.
3. ABCD
Sol. y = 2a cos (t + ) cos (Kx) comparison with given equation gives
2 1
K 10 m
5
= 2f = 50 f = 25 Hz
v = 5 ms–1
at x = 0.15 m
cos (10 × 0.15) = cos (1.5) = 0 for all t
at x = 0.3
cos (10 × 0.3) = cos 3 = – 1 for all t
4. CD
Sol. If 1 = 0, 2 0
t1 = 0, balancing torques about A
cos mg
N1 sin = mg ; N1 tan =
2 2
If 1 0, 2 0
T2 = 0, equilibrium cannot be attained.
If 1 0, 2 0
N1 = t2 = 2N2 ; N2 + t1 = mg
mg
N2 + 1N1 = mg ; N2 + 1(2N2) = mg ; N2
1 1 2
5. BC
Sol. vL = vC = vR ;
xL = xC = R
when inductor is short circuited
Z= R2 x 2C = 2R
30 30
I=
Z 2R
30 30
VL = ixL = ×R=
2R 2
(A) is incorrect and with similar calculations (B) will be correct.
Here f0 is the resonance frequency as vL = vC
1
f0 =
2 LC
1
and 0 = 2f0 =
LC
xL L
= = 2LC
x C 1 C
Given f = 2f0
= 20
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3 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
xL
=4
xC
(C) is also correct.
6. ABD
Sol. For ammeter,
i R R A
i max s
R s
i 0.1mA for R s 50 [as R A 50 and imax 50 A ]
For voltmeter,
V imax (R A R V )
V 10V for R v 200 k
7. A
2A 2Am
Sol. Time taken to move from mean to extreme (t) =
(F / m) F
2Am
Time period = 4t 4
F
8. A
Sol. Acceleration = constant velocity time curve should be straight line.
9. B
1
Sol. LC = mm = 0.11 mm and zero error is 7 LC
10
10. C
Sol. Measured value 3.10 + 4 LC – 7 LC = 3.10 + 0.04 – 0.07 = 3.07 cm.
SECTION – D
11. 01000.00
1 Q
Sol.
P1 P2 v 22 v12 g h2 h1
2
1 P 2.5m
= 103 (12 32 ) 103 10(0.5)
2 2m
= 4 103 5 103 = 1000 J/m3
12. 00000.20
Sol. IL and IC will be in opposite phases.
Inet = IL – IC
= 0.6 – 0.4 = 0.2 A
13. 00002.25
Sol. R to be maximum.
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
3H Total height
Y= .
2 2
14. 00002.50
Sol. d (2xdx)kxt 2
2 x dx
kt 2 x 3
3
R
d 4ktx 3
dt 3
4 ktx 3 2 2 2 Q
E2x ; E ktx ; d ktx 2 2
(2xdx)x
3 3 3 R
R
4 ktQ 4 4 ktQ R5
d x dx =
3 R2 0 3 R2 5
At t = 15sec, = 2.50 Nm
15. 00000.30
Sol. VA = VC
c=a+b
16. 00000.10
T 4 1
Sol. v= 20 m / s
10 10 3
2
t= 0.1 sec
v
17. 00000.46
V
Sol. W Hgg …(i)
2
W = xV Hg g + (1 – x) V w g …(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
V
Hgg xVHgg (1 x) Vw g
2
Solving we get x = 0.46
18. 00136.00
Sol. Let the bus be at O when it sends a signal that is
B D C
detected by the detector as of frequency = 1500 Hz
O
v
f= 1000 1500 l
v v B cos
3
cos = = 30°
2
S
By the time signal reaches at S the bus reaches at D.
Let this time be t0
OS lcosec
t0 = … (1)
v v
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5 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Now man fires and the bullet reaches C in time t1 (say). In the same time bus moves
from D to C
l
t1 = ; where u = speed of bullet
u
Also, OD + DC = lcot
vB t0 + vBt1 = lcot
lcosec
vB + vB (l/u) = lcot
v
2 2 v
2 3
3 3 3 3u
v 5
u 2
2 2
u = v 340 = 00136.00 m/s
5 5
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. ABD
Sol. In ABD the lone pair is less dispersed as compared to aniline.
20. ABD
Sol. Only (C) is asymmetric in nature, so active.
21. CD
Sol. Ethers having – O – R group can be hydrolysed.
22. ACD
Sol. (A) z* increases from Sc+ to Sc3+ so I.E. increases.
(C) Down the group I.E. decreases
(D) Along the period I.E. increases
23. ACD
Sol. EAN of metal in A, C and D is equal to next inert gas.
OC CO OC CO
OC Mn Mn CO
OC CO OC CO
24. AC
Sol. NaH H2O NaOH H2
Electrolysis 1
NaH Na H
(Molted) at cathode 2 2
at anode
25. C
Sol. In this case elimination reaction is dominating.
26. A
Sol. Position of E.W.G. (NO2) decides the rearrangement step to form R – N = C = O.
27. A
Sol. Extent of back bonding in B – F bond is decreased if – NH2 or OH groups are bonded
with boron.
28. A
Sol.
(Two types of bond)
ONN
NCN (Both bonds are identical)
NNN (Both bonds are identical)
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7 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
29. 00002.93
a 2R
Sol. Fraction of edge unoccupied
a
a 2 2R X
2 2 1
2 2
0.414
X 0.293 10 X 2.93
1.414
30. 00002.45
Sol. Tf iK f m 2 1.86 0.66
31. 00002.60
2 0.34 0.15
Sol. K C 10 0.0591
2.6 10 6
32. 00003.87
Sol. 3B
k1
k2
A 8C k1 : k2 : k3 = 4 : 2 : 1
k3
3D
mole of A remain after 45 days
N N 1 1 1
n0 T0 45/15 3
2 2 2 8
2 t1/ 2
7
moles of [A] convert into product mol
8
k1 7 3
moles of B 3
k1 k 2 k 3 8 2
k2 7 8
moles of C 2
k1 k 2 k 3 8 1
1 7 3
and moles of D 3
7 8 8
33. 00001.63
Sol. H2CO3 NaOH NaHCO3 H2O
1 1
pH1
2
2
pK a1 pK a2 4.6 8 6.3
N1V1 N2 V2
N1 10 0.1 20
N1 0.2
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
NaHCO3 NaOH
Na2CO3 H2O
2m mole 1
c M
50 mL 25
pH
14 8 1.4 10.3
2
pH2 10.3
1.63
pH1 6.3
34. 00000.80
Sol. Process AC = polytropic process
Molar Heat capacity cm = cv + R/2 = 2R
Process AB = Isobaric
cm = cp = 5R/2
TC
qAC TA
nC m dT
2R
TB
0.8
qAB 5
R
nC
TA
p,m dT
2
35. 00003.00
Sol. O H O H O H
, ,
Cl NO 2 C N
36. 00004.00
Sol. Graphite, (BN)x, B3N3H6, C6H6
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9 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
37. AB
Sol. Radical axis of S1 0 and S2 0 is the line L1 0 , the point of concurrency of family of
lines ax by c 0 if a,b,c are in A.P. is (1,-2)
38. AD
B’
Sol. Take A 1 and B 2
A’
B
39. BD
Sol. Equation of required plane is
x y 1 2y z 6 0
x 2 1 y z 1 6 0
Since it makes an angle of 30o with x + y + z = 5
1 2 1 3
2
3 1 2 1
2 2
6 3 5 2 4 2
4 2 5 2 4 2 2 2
40. ABD
Sol. Volume 2b c 3c a 4a b 18
2
24 a b c 18
a b c 3
2
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
41. CD
1
Sol. Clearly p1 .
2
3
p2 p HH p T
4
Now, the score n can be obtained in two distinct ways.
I. By throwing head when the score is n – 1
II. By throwing tail when the score is n – 2
1 1 1
pn pn1 pn2 pn 1 pn2
2 2 2
11
Also, from this P4 .
16
42. B
1
1
Sol. cos i sin z 1 cos i sin
z 1
1
E z1 hence Im E 0 z 1 1
z1
43. D
Sol. We have b loge x x 0 y
44. D
Sol. Let A x1, y1 be the point of tangency.
Then x1 b loge x1 x1 …….. (1)
b
Also, 1 1 …….. (2)
x1
On solving (1) and (2), we get
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11 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
b b ln x1 b ln x1 1 0
x1 e (As b > 0) (given)
So, b 2x1 2e
Also, point of contact is (e, e)
45. D
2
Sol. In the ABC, AD BC and BAC =
3
BAD DAC
3
BAD and DAC are congruent le’s
s r1;r2 1: 1
46. C
Sol. Let b > c
In ADC, AD2 + (a – x)2 = b2 ….(1)
ADC, AD2 x 2 C 2 …(2)
Solving (1) and (2), x c cosB and AD c sinB
From ADC
a b c sinB cosB
MD S1 AC b
2
a b c sinB cosB
MD
2
From ADB
c c cosB c sinB c c cosB c sinB
ND S2 AB c ND
2 2
a b c 2c cosB
MN ME ND
2
R sin A sinB sinC 2cosB sinC R sin B C sinB sinC 2cosB sinC
B C B C
4R sin sin sin
2 2 2
SECTION – D
47. 00008.00
1 0
5
Sol. Area 6 f x dx f x 2 dx 4
0 1
48. 00008.00
2 2
Sol.
x 4 7x 2 4x 20 x 2 4 x 2
2
x 4 9x 2 16 x 2 4 x2
Take the curve y x 2 . Both square roots can be interpreted as distances.
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
49. 00001.00
Sol.
I x f cos 2 x tan 4 x dx
0
0
x f cos2 x tan4 x dx
f cos 2 x tan 4 x dx x f cos 2 x tan 4 x dx
0 0
2 0
f cos2 x tan 4 x dx
I
/2
.2 f cos2 x tan2 x dx
2 0
Hence k 1
50. 00007.00
a 2 a 2 b c 1/ 4
Sol.
4
a b bc
2
1/ 4
81
51. 00003.00
10
Sol. XXT I; Find PQ then PQ
52. 00005.00
10 f(x)
Sol. We have 1 3r . 10Cr r . 10Cr
r 1
1 5
10 10 x
r 10 9
1 3 . Cr 10 Cr 1
r 1 r 1
10 9
1 4 1 10.2
410 5.210 210 45 5 210 .45 , so 1
and 5
Now f 1 0 and f 5 0
So, f 1 0 k 2 0
k0
and f 5 0 16 k 2 0
k 2 16 0
k , 4 4,
Hence smallest positive integral value of k = 5
53. 00002.00
x 1 y 3 z 1
Sol. The given lines are (=s)
1
x 0 y 1 z 2
and t
1/ 2 1 1
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13 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
0 1 1 3 2 1
are coplanar if 1 0
1
1 1
2
1 2 1
1 0
1
1 1
2
1 2 1 1 1 0
2 2
2
54. 00005.00
Sol. Given S3n S 'n S4n S3n
2S3n S4n
S3n S’n
S2n S’2n
3n 4n
2 2a 3n 1 d 2a 4n 1 d
2 2
12a 18n 6 d 8a 16n 4 d
4a 2n 2 d ………..(i)
2a 1 n d
S2n
Now, we have to find
S2n '
S2n S2n
S 2n ' S 4n S2n
2n
2a 2n 1 d
2
4n 2n
2a 4n 1 d 2a 2n 1 d
2 2
2 1 n d 2n 1 d 2 nd 1
nd
4 1 n d 4n 1 d 2 1 n d 2n 1 d 10 5
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46) contains 12 questions. Each question has TWO (02)
matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements
from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
2. Let IA and IB be moments of inertia of a body about two axes A and B respectively. The
axis A passes through the centre of mass of the body but B does not, then
(A) IA may be greater than IB
(B) IB may be greater than IA
(C) IA may be equal to IB
(D) IA must be smaller than IB
3. A cylinder is filled with a liquid of refractive index . The radius of the observer
cylinder is decreasing at a constant rate K. The volume of the liquid
inside the container remains constant at V. The observer and the
object O are in a state of rest and at a distance L from each other.
The apparent velocity of the object as seen by the observer, (when L
radius of cylinder is r)
(1 )2KV (1 )2KV
(A) 3
(B) object
( r ) ( Lr 2 )
(1 )2K (1 )K
(C) (D)
2
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4. Nucleus A decays to B with decay constant 1 and B decays to C with decay constant 2.
Initially at t = 0, number of nuclei of A and B are 2N0 and N0 respectively. At t = t0,
3N0
number of nuclei of B stop changing. If at this instant number of nuclei of B are .
2
1 4 1 1 4 1
(A) the value of t0 is ln (B) the value of t0 is ln
1 3 2 2 3 2
3N0 2 2N0 2
(C) the value of NA at t0 is (D) the value of NA at t0 is
2 1 3 1
c
(A) The maximum volume of the water that can be stored when the vessel is accelerated
hcb
is .
2
(B) The maximum volume of the water that can be stored the when the vessel is
hlb
accelerated is
2
hcb hg
(C) Force F that must be applied when maximum water is stored is M
2 c
hcb l g
(D) Force F that must be applied when maximum water is stored is M
2 c
6. A closed vessel contains a mixture of two diatomic gases A and B. Molar mass of A is
16 times that of B and mass of gas A contained in the vessel is 2 times that of B. Which
of the following statements are correct?
(A) Average kinetic energy per molecule of A is equal to that of B
(B) Root-mean-square value of translational velocity of B is four times that of A
(C) Pressure exerted by B is eight times of that exerted by A
(D) Number of molecules of B, in the cylinder, is eight times that of A
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This section contains FOUR questions. Each question has TWO matching lists: LIST–I and
LIST–II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements from LIST–I and LIST–II.
ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
E a E
A2 A1
R3
R2
List–I List–II
(P) Reading of ammeter A1 in ampere is (1) 4/3
(Q) Reading of ammeter A2 in ampere is (2) 8/3
(R) Reading of ammeter A3 in ampere is (3) 4
(S) Potential difference between point a and (4) zero
point b in volt is
(5) 2
Codes:
(A) P–1, Q–2, R–3, S–4 (B) P–2, Q–1, R–4, S–5
(C) P–1, Q–3, R–2, S–3 (D) P–1, Q–2, R–4, S–3
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5 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
9. List-I contains units/dimensions and List-II some combination of quantities. Match the
List-I to List-II.
List–I List–II
(P) Henry (1) LC where L is inductance and C is
capacitance
(Q) Second (2) M 2
, is length, M-mass and Q is charge
Q2
(R) (Second)3 (3) RC, R is resistance & C is capacitance.
(S) Dimensionless (4) C2LR, C-capacitance, L = Inductance, R is
resistance
(5) Pc
where Q is radiation energy striking unit
Q
area pr second. c is speed of light and P is
radiation pressure.
Codes:
(A) P–2; Q–1,3; R–4; S–5 (B) P–5; Q–1, 3; R–2; S–4
(C) P–5; Q–3; R–1, 4; S–2 (D) P–2; Q–1; R–4; S–3, 4
10. Velocity of sound in air is V and the length of organ pipe is L. Po is the mean pressure
and P0 is amplitude of pressure variations.
List – I List – II
If the pipe is closed at one end, the
(P) (1) 3V/4L
frequency of first overtone is
If the pipe is open at both ends the
(Q) (2) 2V/L
frequency of fourth harmonic is
If the pipe is closed at one end the
(R) (3) 0
pressure at open end is
(S) The pressure at closed end is (4) Po Po , Po Po
(5) Po
Codes:
(A) P–1, Q–2, R–4, S–5 (B) P–1, Q–2, R–5, S–4
(C) P–2, Q–1, R–5, S–4 (D) P–3, Q–2, R–5, S–4
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
12. A projectile is thrown with a velocity of 18 m/s at an angle of 60 with horizontal. The
interval between the moments when speed of the projectile is 15 m/s is (g = 10 m/s2)
13. A source of sound emitting a note of frequency 200Hz moves towards an observer with
a velocity v equal to the velocity of sound. If the observer also moves away from the
source with the same velocity v, the apparent frequency heard by the observer is
14. If 10% of the current passes through a moving coil galvanometer of resistance 99 ohm,
then the shunt resistance will be:
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7 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
16. An object is cooled from 750C to 650C in 2 minutes in a room at 300C. The time taken to
cool another identical object from 550C to 450C in the same room in minutes is
17. The thickness of a glass plate is measured to be 2.17 mm, 2.17 mm and 2.18 mm at
three different places. Find the average thickness of the plate from this data. (in mm)
2 kg
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. Which of the following compounds exhibit acid base reaction with NaOH?
O O
(A) H (B)
O
O
(C) C OH (D)
O
20. Which of the following reactions can produce benzaldehyde as major product?
CH3 CH2 OH HIO 4
(A) C CH Ph (B) CH OH
O3
Me2S Ph
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21. 18
O Ph
H2O,H
Products
O
Products are:
OH 18
OH
(A) (B)
O O
18 OH
OH
(C) (D)
Ph Ph
H3C
H3C H
(B)
Ph Li
C C Ph C C CH3
Ph Cl
O
(C) Br2 KOH
Ph C NH2 Ph NH2
O NH2
(D)
Br2 NaOH
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
23. The following conversion reaction can be carried out by using reaction sequences:
O O O
OH OH
Zn Hg/HCl Br2 ,hv KCN H3 O, NaBH4 Al2 O3 , 2 O /H O Oxidation
(A) (B)
3
I2 NaOH H
(C)
(D) KMnO 4 / OH/
This section contains FOUR questions. Each question has TWO matching lists: LIST–I and
LIST–II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements from LIST–I and LIST–II.
ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
25. Match List-I with List-II and select correct code for your answer.
List – I (Molecules) List – II (M = Central atom)
(P) H2O (1) largest M – H length
(Q) H2S (2) largest HMH ˆ bond angle
(R) H2Se (3) lowest boiling point
(S) H2Te (4) 4p – 1s overlapping
Code:
P Q R S
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
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11 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
26. List-I contains some cations and List-II contains some anion which produce white ppt
with corresponding cation. Match List-I with List-II and select correct code for your
answer.
List – I List – II
(P) Ag+ (1) Cl
(Q) Zn2+ (2) S2
2+
(R) Mg
2
(3) CO 3
2+
(S) Ba (4) SO 24
Code:
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 1 2 3 4
27. The unbalanced chemical reactions given in List-I show missing reagent or condition (?)
which are provided in List-II. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists:
List – I List – II
?
(P) PbO 2 H2 SO 4 PbSO 4 O 2 other product (1) NO
?
(Q) Na2S 2O 3 H2O NaHSO 4 other product (2) I2
?
(R) N2H4 N2 other product (3) Warm
?
(S) XeF2 Xe other product (4) Cl2
Code:
P Q R S
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. For soaps critical micelle concentration (CMC) is 10x (min.) to 10y (max.) mol/L. What is
the value of x?
30. The average life of a radioactive element is 7.2 min. Calculate the time required (in min.)
for the stage of 33.33% decay ( log 3 0.1761 )
2
31. 0.16 g N2H4(Kb = 4 × 106) are dissolved in water and the total volume made up to 500
mL. Calculate the mole fraction of N2H4 that has reacted with water in this solution.
Space for Rough work
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13 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
32. At 273 K and 1 atm, 10 litre of N2O4 decomposes to NO2 according to equation
N2O2 (g)
2NO2 (g)
What is degree of dissociation () when the original volume is 25% less than that of
existing volume?
34. For the reaction; FeCO 3 (s) FeO(s) CO2 (g); H 82.8 kJ at 25°C, what is (E or
U) at 25°C?
35. Calculate |fH°| (in kJ/mol) for Cr2O3 from the rG° and the S° values provided at 27°C
4Cr(s) 3O 2 (s) 2Cr2O3 (s); r G 2093.4 kJ / mol
S J / K mol : S Cr,s 24; S O2 ,g 205; S Cr2O3 ,s 81
OH
(Gly-1 = Glycinate)
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
Re z1 z 2 0, then the pair of complex numbers, w 1 a ic and w 2 b id satisfying
(A) w1 1 (B) w 2 1
(C) w1 w 1 1
(D) Re w 1 w 2 0
38. If p, q, r, s are positive real numbers and the equation x 4 px 3 qx 2 rx s 0 has four
positive real roots, then
(A) p 4 256s (B) r 4 256s3
(C) pr 16s (D) q2 36s
A
39. In a ABC with fixed base BC, the vertex A moves such than cosB cos C 4 sin2 .
2
If a, b and c denote the length of the sides of the triangle opposite to the angle A, B and
C respectively, then
(A) b c 4a
(B) b c 2a
(C) locus of point A is an ellipse
(D) locus of point A is a pair of straight lines.
x 3 x 2 10x 1 x 0
40. Let f x sin x 0x then f x has
2
1 cos x 2
x
(A) local maxima at x (B) local minima at x
2 2
(C) absolute maxima at x 0 (D) absolute maxima at x
2
Space for Rough work
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15 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
sinnx
41. If In dx, 0,1,2 then
1 sin x
x
10
(A) In In 2 (B) I
m 1
2m 1 10
10
(C) I
m 1
2m 0 (D) In In1
x 1 1 t dt, x 2
42. If f x 0
, then
5x 1, x 2
(A) f(x) is not continuous at x = 2
(B) f (x) is continuous but not differentiable at x = 2
(C) f (x) is differentiable everywhere
(D) the right derivative of f x at x = 2 does not exist
This section contains FOUR questions. Each question has TWO matching lists: LIST–I and
LIST–II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements from LIST–I and LIST–II.
ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
43. Match the sequence a1,a 2 ,a3 ,.... whose nth term is given on the left with properties of the
sequence on the right
LIST - I LIST – II
(P) /2 1 cos 2nx (1) a1,a2 ,a3 … are in A.P.
an dx
0 1 cos 2x
(Q) / 4 1 (2) a1,a 2 ,a3 ,.... are in G.P.
In tann x dx an
0 In1 In 3
(R) /4 sin nx
2 (3) a1,a 2 ,a3 ,.... are in H.P.
In dx n 0 and an In In 1 n 1
0 sin x
(S) /2 sin nx
2 (4) a1,a 2 ,a3 ,.... is a constant
bn 2
dx an bn bn1 n 1
0 sin x sequence.
(5) a1,a 2 ,a3 ,....... are in
A.G.P.
(6) a1,a 2 ,a3 ,....... are neither
in A.P. nor G. P nor H.P.
The correct option is
(A) P → 1; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 1,2, 3, 4
(B) P → 5; Q → 2; R → 6; S → 1
(C) P → 1; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 6
(D) P → 1; Q → 1; R → 5; S → 1, 2, 3, 4
Space for Rough work
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
44. Let A be a set containing n elements. P and Q are two subsets of A. The number of
ways of choosing P and Q so that
LIST - I LIST – II
(P) P Q A (1) 2 n 1
(Q) P Q (2) 3n
(R) P ~ Q is a singleton (3) 2n 1
(S) P Q (4) 3n 1
(5) n.3n1
(6) 4n 3n
The correct option is
(A) P → 2; Q → 6; R → 1; S → 5
(B) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 4
(C) P → 2; Q → 6; R → 5; S → 2
(D) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 5; S → 6
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17 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
46. Suppose a. b, c are three distinct real numbers and p (x) is a real quadratic polynomial
4a 2 4a 1 p 1 3a2 3a
such that 4b2 4b 1 p 1 3b2 3b
4c 2 4c 1 p 1 3c 2 3c
LIST - I LIST – II
(P) x – coordinates (s) of the point of intersection (1) 4
of y f x with the x – axis
(Q) 3 (2) 2
Area bounded by y f x and the x – axis
2
(R) Maximum value of f x (3) 1
(S) Length of the intercept made by y f x on the (4) –2
x – axis
(5) 0
(6) 3
The correct option is
(A) P → 2, 4; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 1
(B) P → 1, 2; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 4
(C) P → 5; Q → 6; R → 3; S → 1
(D) P → 5, 6; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 1
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
2
n 1
47. 2
If x n 1 2 2 3 2 4 ..... n
2 2 2
2
if n is even, find x 51
48. Find the number of three digit numbers of the form xyz with x, z < y, x 0 .
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
50
2 Cr
49. Let ar r 50
a and b denote the coefficient of x 49 in x a1 x a2 .. x a50 , find
Cr 1
1
b .
17
50. Let ABC and ABC’ be tow non – congruent triangles with sides AB = 4, AC = AC’ = 2 2
and angle B = 30o . The absolute value of the difference between the areas of these
triangles is
51. In a triangle ABC; A = , b = 50, c = 30, AD is a median through A, then AD2 is equal to
3
52. The tangent at three points A, B, C on the parabola y 2 4x , taken in pairs intersect at
the point P, Q and R. If , ' be the areas of the triangles ABC and PQR respectively,
then
'
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
SECTION – A
1. ACD
Sol. For the angular momentum to remain conserved, the final velocity of the particle must
not be zero.
2. ABC
m 2 m2
Sol. IB sin2 , IA
3 12
IB rod
IA
3. A
H
Sol. Xapp L H
dX app dH 1
dt dt
r 2H V
dH 2H dr 2KH
dt r dt r
dXapp 2KV 1
dt r 3
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
4. AC
dNB
Sol. 1NA 2NB
dt
dNB 3N0
at, t = t0, 0 , NB
dt 2
3N
2N0 1e1t 0 0 0
0
2
1 4 1
t0 ln
1 3 2
5. AC
Sol. The maximum amount of water that can be retained is shown in the fig. If is the angle
made by the water surface with the horizontal then.
h a hg
tan = = a=
c g c
1
So the maximum volume that can be retained is ×h×c×b.
2
hcb hg
And F = M
2 c
6. ABCD
Sol. Since both the gases are contained in the same vessel, temperature of both the gases is
same.
Average KE per molecule of a diatomic gas is 5/2 KT. Hence, average KE permolecule
of both the gases is same. Therefore, option (a) is correct.
3RT
rms
M
rms 2 M1
Hence, 16 4
rms 1 M2
Hence, option(b) is correct.
Let molar mass of B be M, then that of A will be equal to 16 M.
Let mass of gas B in the vessel be m, then that of A will be 2m. The number of moles of
a gas, in the vessel will be n = m/M. hence, number of moles of gases A and B will be
2m m
n1 and n2
16M M
n1 1
Hence,
n2 8
Hence, option(d) is correct.
Partial pressure exerted by a gas is
nRT
P
V
P n
Hence, 2 2 8
P1 n1
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3 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
8. D
E E E i1-i3 E
Sol. On solving by KVL we get, i1 , i2 , i3
R R R
2E i3
i1 i2 and i1 i3 0
R b R1
So reading of ammeter A1 is E/R = 4/3 i1 E i1-i2 E i1
A2 is 2E/R = 8/3, A3 is zero and Vab = 4V
a R3
i2
R2
9. A
Pc
Sol. RC is time constant LC is inverse of frequency and is dimensionless.
Q
10. B
(2n 1)v
Sol. For closed pipe, and for first overtone, n = 1
4L
nv
For open pipe, and for fourth harmonic, n = 4.
2L
SECTION – D
11. 00000.50
Sol. The apparent weight of block and apparent weight of fluid are changed by same amount.
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
12. 00002.40
Sol. Vx = 18 cos 60° = 9 m/s.
V1y 15 2 9 2 12 m /s V2y = –12 m/s
12 (12) 12
t = sec .
10 5
13. 00200.00
Sol. No relative motion between source and observers.
14. 00011.00
s
Sol. I1 I
s 99
I1 s
0.1
I 99 s
s 11
15. 00003.75
3
Sol. T = M 2L2
8
F 3 M2L2 cos2
Stress =
(A / cos ) 8 A
16. 00004.00
Sol. Newton’s law for cooling.
Rate of decrease of temperature temperature difference between object and
surrounding.
75 65
= Ab (70 – 30)
2
55 45
= Ab (50 – 30)
t
t = 4 min.
17. 00002.17
2.17 2.17 2.18
Sol. = 2.1733 ….. 2.17 mm upto 3 significant figure.
3
18. 00000.89
Sol. 2g – T = 2a …(i)
TR = I …(ii)
a = R …(iii)
Ia
From (ii) and (iii) T =
R2
I
2g = a 2 2
R
2g 2 9.8 9.8
a 0.89 m/s2
I 0.2 11
2 2 2 0.01
R
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5 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. BCD
20. ABCD
Sol. CH3 CH3
(A) C CH Ph C O O CH Ph
O3
Me2S
CH2 - OH H H H
HO HIO 4 C
C O
(B) HO CH OH
O Ph
Ph
CHO
O
(C) AlCl3
H C Cl
CHO
21. AC
Sol. 18
O Ph
H+
H
O18 Ph
H2O
OH
O
HO Ph
18
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
22. ABC
Sol. Self explanatory reactions.
23. BCD
Sol. All the reagents in B, C and D are suitable.
24. ABC
25. B
Sol. M – H length = H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O
HMH B.A. = H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
B.P. = H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
(due to hydrogen bonding in H2O)
All have two L.P. on central atom.
26. D
Sol. Ag+ Zn2+ Mg2+ Ba2+
Cl White ppt. No ppt. No ppt. No ppt.
S2 Black ppt. White ppt. No ppt. No ppt.
CO 23 Pale yellow ppt. White ppt. White ppt. White ppt.
SO 24 White ppt. which is No ppt. No ppt. White ppt.
sparingly soluble
In code (D) all are given with correct observation.
27. D
IV II
Sol. PbO 2 H2SO 4 PbSO 4 O 2 2H2O
Na2S 2O 3 5H2O 4Cl2 2NaHSO 4 8HCl
N2H4 2I2 N2 (g) 4HI
XeF2 2NO Xe g 2NOF
28. B
Sol. Cu2+ = 1s22s22p63s23p63d9
Cd2+ = 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p64d10
Fe2+ = 1s22s22p63s23p63d6
Mn = 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s2
SECTION – D
29. 00004.00
Sol. CMC of soap
104 M to 103 M
x=4
30. 00002.92
1 1 A0 1 1 100
Sol. ln ; ln
t avg t A t 7.2 t 100
100
3
t 2.303 7.2 0.1761
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7 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
31. 00000.02
0.16 / 32
Sol. C M
500 / 1000
K b / c 2 10 2
32. 00000.33
Sol. For ideal gas mole % = volume %
N2O2 (g)
2NO2 (g)
initial moles a 0
at eqm a(1 ) 2a
33. 00006.50
1
Sol. pH pK w pK a pK b 6.5
2
34. 00080.32
Sol. H = E + ngRT
1 8.314 298
82.8 U
1000
U 80.32
35. 01129.05
Sol. rG° = rH° T rS°
rS° = 2 81 – 4 24 – 3 205 J/mol
rH° = 2258.1 kJ/mol
rH° = 2 fH° (Cr2O3,s)
2258.1
f H Cr2O3 ,s 1129.05 kJ / mol
2
36. 00004.00
Sol. N N
O OH O
Co Co
O N OH N O
Gly 1
NH2 CH2 COO
N O
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
SECTION – A
37. ABCD
Sol. Let z1 cos i sin and z2 cos i sin
a cos ,b sin
c cos , d sin
z1 z2 cos i sin
Re z1 z 2 0 cos 0
2
z1 sin i cos
a sin d,
b cos c
Now, w 1 a ic sin icos
w 2 b id cos i sin
w 1 w 2 1 w 1w 2 1
Also, Re w 1 w 2 0
38. ABCD
Sol. p and s
By using A.M G.M. inequality
p
4s
4
p 4 256s
Similarly we can evaluate other options by same inequality
39. BC
A
Sol. cosB cos C 4 sin2
2
BC BC A
2cos cos 4 sin2
2 2 2
A BC A B C
2 cos cos 4 sin sin
2 2 2 2 2 2
A
a
b
B c C
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9 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
B C B C B C
cos cos cos sin sin
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
BC B C B C
cos cos cos sin sin
2 2 2 2 2
B C 1 1
tan tan
2 2 3 s s b s s c 3
3s s a s b s c s 2 s b s c
3 s a s 2s 3a
a b c 3a b c 2a
AB AC 2a
Also AB AC BC a
So locus of A is an ellipse with foci at B and C and the length of the major major axis in
2a.
40. AC
Sol. The function f is no differentiable at x = 0, x as
2
f ' 0 10, f ' 0 1; f ' 1, f ' 1
2 2
3x 2 2x 10 1 x 0
The function f ' x is given by f ' x cos x 0x
2
sin x x
2
The critical points of f are given by f ' x 0 or x 0, , Thus critical points are x , x
2 2
= 0. Since f ' x 0, for 0 x and f ' x 0, for x so f has local maxima at
2 2
x . Also f ' x 0 for 1 x 0 and f ' x 0 for 0 x so f has local minima at
2 2
x = 0. Since f 1 9 , f 1, f 0 0 and f 0 . Thus f has absolute minimum
2
at x 1 and absolute maximum at x = 0.
41. ABC
sinnx
Sol. In 1 sin x dx
x
sin nx x sinnx
sin nx
dx dx
0 1
x
x
sin x 1 sin x 0 sin x
sin n 2 x sinnx
Now, In 2 In dx
0 sin x
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
2cos n 1 x.sin x
dx 0
0 sin x
I1 , I2 2cos x dx 0
0
42. AD
x
Sol. f x 1 1 t dt, x 2
0
1 x 1 2
2 t dt t dt x 1
0 1 2
1 2
x 1, x 2
We have, f x 2
5x 1, x 2
lim f x 3 and lim f x 11
x 2 x2
43. A
/2
Sol. (P) a1 dx
, a2
0 2
Also, an 2 an 2an1
/2 2cos 2n 2 x cos 2n 4 x cos 2nx
dx
0 1 cos 2x
2 /2
2n 2
sin 2n 2 x 0 0
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11 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
/2 1 cos 2nx n
(S) bn dx (see (a))
0 1 cos 2x 2
an n
2
a1,a 2 ,a3 ,... are in A.P., G.P. and H.P.
Also a1,a 2 ,a3 ,..... is a constant sequence.
44. C
Sol. Let A a1,a2 ,....an . For each ai A , we have following four choices
(1) ai P, ai Q
(2) ai P, ai Q
(3) ai P, ai Q
(4) ai P, ai Q
For P Q A or P Q the number of choice is 3n . The singleton can be chose in
n
C1 ways, rest of the elements in 3n1 ways. P Q in just one way.
45. A
Sol. (P) z ei
2iei
Re i2
1 e
2iei 1
Re 2 Re , 1 1,
2 sin i 2 sin cos sin
(Q) 3 x t
8t
1 1
9 t2
t 2 8t 9
0
t2 9
t 39 t
x 1 2 x ……..(i)
8t
where 1
9 t2
t 9 t 1 0
3 t 3 t
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
t 1 3 t
x 0 1 x …….(ii)
from (i) and (ii)
x 02 x
(R) f 2 sec 2 2
3
(S) f ' x x3/2 3 3x 10 x1/2
2
3x 10
3 x x
2
– +
0 2
x2
46. A
Sol. a, b, c are three roots of the quadratic equation
4f 1 3 x 4f 1 3 x f 2 0
2
–2 1
0
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13 AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
47. 67676.00
Sol. x 51 x50 512
1 2
50 51 512 = 67626
2
48. 00240.00
Sol. We must have x 1 and y 2, since x is less than y. That is, y = j with 2 j 9 , then x
can take the j – 1 values from 1 to j – 1, and z can take the j values from 0 to j – 1. For
each value y = j, therefore, xyz can take j (j – 1) values. We can now get the answer by
summing over all values of y:
9 9 9 9
j j 1 j j 1 j2 j
j2 j 1 j 1 j 1
285 45 240
49. 01300.00
50
Sol. b ar
r 1
But ar r 2
50 r 1
r
r 51 r
50. 00004.00
a2 16 8
Sol. cos
2a 4
2
a 4 3a 8 0
a1 a2 4 3, a1a2 8
a1 a2 4
1
1 2 4 sin30o 4 4
2
51. 01225.00
b 2 c 2 a2 A
Sol. cos A
2bc
1 b2 c 2 a2
cos
2 3 2bc c b
b2 c 2 a 2 bc (1)
In triangle ABD.
a2 a
AD2 c 2 2c cosB
4 2 B D C
a/2 a/2
2 2
4AD 4c a 4ca2
c 2 a2 b 2
2 ca
2c 2 2b2 a2
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AITS-CRT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
2c 2 2b 2 b 2 c 2 bc [Using (1)]
b 2 c 2 bc
2500 900 1500 4900 AD2 1225
52. 00002.00
Sol. Let the coordinate of A, B, C be ti2 , 2ti
i 1,2,3 respectively. The tangent at A and B are t1y x t12 and t 2 y x t 22 which
intersect at x t1 t 2 , y t1 t 2
So the vertices are P t1t 2 ,t1 t 2 , Q t 2 t 3 , t 2 t 3 and R t1t 3 , t1 t 3
t1 t 2 t 2 t 3 t 3 t1
t1t 2 t1 t 2 1
1
' t2t3 t2 t3 1
2
t 3 t1 t 3 t1 1
t1 t 3 t 2 t1 t 3 0
1
t 2 t1 t 3 t 2 t1 0
2
t 3 t1 t3 t1 1
1
t1 t3 t 2 t1 t 2 t 3 2 '
2
53. 07225.00
Sol. Any point on the line is r 2 1 i 2 j 2 3 k which lies on the plane if
2 2 1 6 2 3 2 3 5 0 1 and the position vector of the point of
intersection is i j k ai bj ck a 1, b 1, c 1
2 2
50a 60b 75c 85 7225
54. 00009.00
Sol. lim f x lim f 0 h
x 0 h 0
lim
sin 1
1 0 h .cos 1 0 h
1
h 0
2 0 h. 1 0 h
lim
sin 1 1 1 h .cos 1 1 h
1
h 0
2 1 h . 1 1 h
sin 1 h.cos1 h
lim
h 0
2 1 h .h 2 2
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01– 06, 19 – 24, 37 - 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 - 46) contains 12 questions. Based on this section contains TWO
(02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. Two particles A and B, each carrying a charge Q, are held fixed with a separation d
between them. A particle C having a mass m and charge –q, in kept at the middle point
of line AB.
It displaced through a distance x perpendicular to AB. Assume x << d. Then:
(A) Force experienced by C is proportional to x
(B) Force experienced by C is proportional to d
1/2
m3 0 d3
(C) Particle C may execute SHM with time period
qQ
1/2
m2 0 d2
(D) Particle C may executes SHM with time period
qQ
2. If the potential difference of Coolidge tube producing X-ray is increased, then choose the
correct option(s).
(A) the interval between k and k increases
(B) the interval between k and 0 increases
(C) the interval between k and 0 increases
(D) 0 does not change
Here 0 is cut off wavelength and k and kB are wavelength of k and k B
characteristic X-rays.
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
6. There is an infinite long straight surface having width ‘a’. A point charge
a
q is placed at a perpendicular distance from the surface symmetrically
2
a
as shown in the figure. If the flux linked with this infinitely long surface
q
due to charge q is . Then find the value of k is q
k0 a
(A) 6 (B) 4 2
(C) 2 (D) 12
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
correct.
E a E
A2 A1
R3
R2
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5 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
m,
9. The thin rod is released from the vertical position as shown, and falls by itself, then
angular speed of the rod just before it falls flat, will be
g 3g
(A) (B)
4g 6g
(C) (D)
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
11. A 10 kg mass rests on a horizontal frictionless table. How much energy (in Joule) is
needed to accelerate the mass from rest to a speed of 5 m/s?
12. A block of mass 2kg is gently placed over a massive plank moving horizontally over a
smooth surface with velocity 6 m/s. The coefficient of friction between the block and
plank is 0.2. The distance travelled by the block till it slides on the plank is (g=10 m/s2)
14. A hollow sphere and a solid sphere have equal mass and equal moment of inertia about
the respective diameter. Find the ratio of their square of radii is given by
15. A steel wire of cross-sectional area 2mm2 and Young’s modulus 2 1011N / m2 is
stretched longitudinally by a force of 200 N. The elastic potential energy stored per unit
volume in the string is n × 104. Find the value of ‘n’.
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
20. Which of the following solution(s) form buffer if they are taken in 2 : 1 molar ratio?
(A) CH3COOH and CH3COONa (B) NH4OH and NaCl
(C) NH4OH and NH4Cl (D) NaHCO3 and Na2CO3
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9 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
correct.
For dissociation reactions, like 2 SO3 g
2 SO2 g O2 g , the degree of dissociation of
SO3 can be determined by vapour density measurement of the reacting species through the
following relation.
Dd
n 1 d
The molecular mass of the reaction mixture at equilibrium is 60. Initially only SO3 was taken for
the reaction.
Answer the following questions on the basis of above write up.
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
OH
CH Cl
3
Anhy. AlCl
P Q
3
Zn dust Cl
R
2
h
S T U
(S) Monosubstituted product
(T) Disubstituted product
(U) Trisubstituted product
Answer the following questions on the basis of above write up.
28. The most deactivating unknown compound towards EAS reaction is:
(A) R (B) U
(C) T (D) S
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. The energy of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. If the fourth ionization enthalpy
of beryllium atom is expressed as Y 10–19 J, what is the value of ‘Y’?
30. How much heat is absorbed in calorie unit by heating 5 moles of a gas at constant
pressure from 900 K to 1727.21 K?
[CP = 4R, R = 2 Cal]
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11 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
31. What is the kinetic energy of one mole of helium gas at 10000 K in kJ mol–1 unit?
KOH
32. Optically active chloride P Q
Conc.H SO
Q
Heat
R S
2 4
Major Minor
Ozonolysis
R T U
‘Q’ forms a hydrocarbon when treated with C2H5MgBr. ‘U’ is the simple aliphatic
aldehdye that give aldol condensation. (T) is acetophenone. What is the molar mass of
(P) in gram unit?
33. O
Heating
X
Decarboxylation
CH3 C CH3 3 CO 2
One mole of (X) on heating produces one mole of acetone and three moles of CO2. The
tri-sodium salt of the keto acid (X) reacts with CH3COCl in presence of pyridine to form
acid anhydride. How much CH3COCl in gram can be completely consumed by one mole
of the tri-sodium salt of (X)?
34. P NaOH
Excess NaOH
Q R
metal chloride green ppt. green solution
H O CH3COOH
R S
2 2
BaCl2 T
Soln yellow soln yellow ppt.
35. Electrolysis of molten CuSO4 is carried out in an electrolytic cell, using inert electrodes.
How many gram of copper will be deposited at cathode by passing 14 F of electricity
through the cell?
36. How many gram of magnesium carbonate (MgCO 3) can be completely dissolved in 3.26
litre of 5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction?
MgCO 3 2HCl MgCl2 CO2 H2O
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
38. lim x
x
x 1 x equals
ln 1 x x 1 cos x
(A) lim (B) lim
x 0x 2 x 0 x2
1 x 1 x
(C) lim (D) lim
x 0 x x 0
x x 2 2x
x 1 1 t dt, x 2
39. If f x 0
, then
5x 1, x 2
(A) f(x) is not continuous at x = 2
(B) f (x) is continuous but not differentiable at x = 2
(C) f (x) is differentiable everywhere
(D) the right derivative of f x at x = 2 does not exist
n n1 n2
n n 1 n2
40. If f x Pn Pn1 Pn 2 , where the symbols have their usual meanings, then
n n 1 n2
Cn Cn1 Cn2
f x is divisible by
(A) n2 n 1 (B) n 1 !
(C) n! (D) n2 3n 1
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13 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
41. The solution/s of the equation 9 cos12 x cos2 2x 1 6 cos6 x cos 2x 6 cos6 x 2cos 2x
is/are
2
(A) x n , n I (B) x n cos1 4 ,n I
2 3
2
(C) x n cos1 ,n I (D) x n, n I
3
x2 y2
42. If a straight line through a point P ,2 , 0 , meets the ellipse
1 at A and D
9 4
and x – and y–axes at B and C respectively such that PA PD PB PC , then ' ' can
lie in the interval
(A) 7, (B) 12, 8
(C) 5, 0 (D) 10,
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
correct.
Let a1,a2 ,a3 , ... be a harmonic progression such that a1 5 and a20 25 .
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
Let A 4, 2 and B 0,1 be two points on a parabola, the normals at which intersect at the
point P 2,2 .
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
1
47.
x
If 2 x 2 3 , then the positive root of x 2 , (where {x} denotes the fractional part
of x) is equal to
100x 99 sin x
48. Let L lim , where [.] denotes the greatest integer function. The
x 0
sin x x
number of divisors of L is equal to
Space for Rough work
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15 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
xy f x
49. If f x f y f for all x, y R , xy 1 and lim 2 , then the value of
1 xy x 0 x
f 3 is
f ' 2
x
50. The number of solutions of the equation sin 2x x 2 2 1 is
2
2 2
51. The minimum value of tan A cosB cot A sinB , where A and B are independent
variables, is of the form a b c , where a, b, c are natural numbers. The value of
a b c is equal to
2
52. The smallest value of ‘a’ for which the inequality a 1 x a 1 x a 1 0 holds
for all x 2 , is equal to
53. Three distinct dice are thrown and the sum of the numbers appearing on the top faces is
12. If n is the number of ways in which this is possible, the sum of the digits of n is equal
to
54. The papers of 4 students can be checked by any one of the 7 teachers. If the probability
that all the 4 papers are checked by exactly 2 teachers is A, then the value of 50A is
equal to
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
SECTION – A
1. AC
16kQqx 4Qqx
Sol. F
d3 o d3
F 4Qqx omd3
a= = ; T = 2
m pmd3 4Qq
2. BC
hc
Sol. As 0 and as V increases. 0 decreases but characteristic wavelengths do not
eV
change so interval between k & 0 increases and the same for the interval between
k & 0
3. ABC
Sol. e=a
m
And =
v
4. ABD
Sol. Bernoulli’s theorem for an orifice at depth ‘x’ in liquid ‘3d’.
H 1
Po + dg 3dg.x = Po + 3d v z …(1)
2 2
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
H 1
x gt 2 …(2)
2 2
R = Vt …(3)
Solve for R and apply maxima/minima.
5. ABCD
Sol. Due to rotation no potential difference will be across the end.
6. B
Sol. Consider three more identical surfaces, such that a square shaped cylinder is formed
with point charge at the centre. Flux will be equally divided between these surfaces.
7. B
8. A
Sol. (for Q. 7 & Q. 8) i1-i3 E
E E
On solving by KVL we get, i1 , i2 i3
R R
b R1
E
i3 i1
R E i1-i2 Ei1
a R3
2E i2
i1 i2 and i1 i3 0
R R2
So reading of ammeter A1 is E/R = 4/3
A2 is 2E/R = 8/3, A3 is zero and Vab = 4V
9. B
(i)
Sol. Kf = mg
2
1 2
and m 2 mg
2 3 2
3g
IAR
(f)
10. B
Sol. Kf = mg
2
SECTION – D
11. 00125.00
1 1
Sol. Energy required = mv 2 = 10 5 5 = 125 J.
2 2
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3 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
12. 00009.00
Sol. a g
62 02 2 gS
13. 00015.00
Sol. VB cos B VA cos A VB 15 m / s
14. 00000.60
2 2
Sol. MR12 MR 22
3 5
15. 00002.50
1
Sol. EPE per unit volume = × stress × strain
2
16. 00019.60
Sol. When crosses AB A
qvB0 cos mg qvB v
qE
qvB0 sin = qE
qE mg
tan 1
mg
B
4
qE
along horizontal v cos t0
m
u gt0 v sin
qE
u g t0 = 2gt0
m
17. 00002.00
F idB
Sol. f= = acm
3 3
48 0.5 0.25
= 2.00 FB = idB
3
18. 00000.39
Sol. Applying Snell’s law between the points O and P, we have
2 3 2
2 sin 600 sin 900 , 2 1
1 H 2
2 1 H2
2 2
1 H 2
3
, H 1
3
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. ABC
Sol. PCl5 has trigonal pyramidal structure.
20. ACD
Sol. The ratio of [salt] to [acid] or [base] should be 1 : 10 or 10 : 1 for buffer solution.
21. BCD
Sol. CH3CH = CH2 will form alcohol upon hydrolysis.
22. BCD
Sol. Silicones contain carbon, silicone and oxygen. Silanes and selenes contain silicone and
hydrogen.
23. B
Sol. It contains no complex ions.
24. ABC
Sol. The precipitate is Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3.
25. C
mol.mass of SO3 80
Sol. D 40
2 2
26. C
40 30 10
Sol. 0.66
1.5 1 30 15
27. D
Sol. OH OH CH3 CH2Cl CHCl2
CH3
P= Q= R= S= T=
CH3
28. B
Sol. CCl3
U=
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5 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
29. 00348.16
Z2
Sol. I.E4 of Be 2 13.6 1.6 1019 J
n
= 16 13.6 1.6 10 = 348.16 10–19
–19
= Y 10–19 J
Y = 348.16
30. 33088.40
Sol. H = nCPT= 5 4R (1727.21 - 900)
= 5 4 2 827.21 = 33088.40 Cal
31. 00124.71
3 3
Sol. K.E nRT 1 8.314 103 10000 124.71 kJ
2 2
32. 00168.50
Sol. CH3 CH3
Cl OH
CH2 Ph
R= C = CH - CH3
S = Ph - C - CH2CH3 H3C
T = PhCOCH3, U = CH3CHO
33. 00235.50
Sol. O
COOH
X is HOOC - CH2 - C - CH CH3COCH3 3 CO2
COOH
O
COONa
NaOOC - CH2 - C - CH 3 CH3COCl
34. 00158.50
Sol. P = CrCl3
Q = Cr(OH)3
R = [Cr(OH)4]–
S = Na2CrO4
T = BaCrO4
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
35. 00444.50
Sol. Cu2 2e Cu
2F deposits one mole
14 F will deposit 7 mole
Mass of Cu = 7 63.5 = 444.5 g
36. 00684.60
M V 5 3.26 1000
Sol. Moles of HCl = 16.3
1000 1000
16.3
Moles of MgCO3 = 8.15
2
Mass of MgCO3 = 8.15 84 = 684.6 g
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7 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
37. ABCD
1/3
Sol. gof x 2x sin x
Range of (gof) (x) is R.
38. BC
Sol. lim x
x
x 1 x
x 1 1
lim lim
x
x 1 x x
1 2
1 1
x
x 2 x3
x ... x
ln 1 x x 2 3 1
Option (A): lim 2
lim 2
x 0 x x 0 x 2
x
2 sin2
1 cos x 2 1
Option (B): lim 2
lim 2
x 0 x x 0
x 2
4
2
1/ 2 1/ 2
39. AD
x
Sol. f x 1 1 t dt, x 2
0
1 x 1 2
2 t dt t dt x 1
0 1 2
1 2
x 1, x 2
We have, f x 2
5x 1, x 2
lim f x 3 and lim f x 11
x2 x2
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
2
2 h 20
lim
h 0 2h
40. AC
n n 1 n2 n n1 n2
n n 1 n2
Sol. f x Pn Pn1 Pn 2 n! n 1 ! n 2 !
n n 1 n2
Cn Cn1 Cn 2 1 1 1
Applying C2 C2 C1 and C3 C3 C1 , we get
n 1 2
f x n! n.n! n 2
3n 1 .n! n! n2 n 1
1 0 0
41. AB
Sol. 9 cos12 x cos2 2x 1 6 cos6 x cos 2x 6 cos6 x 2cos 2x 0
2
3 cos 6
x 1 cos 2x 0
cos2 x 3 cos4 x 2 0
cos x 0
x n , n I
2
4 2
or cos x
3
2
cos x 4
3
2
x m cos1 4 , m I
3
42. ABD
Sol. Let any point on the line through P be x r cos , y 2 r sin .
x2 y2
Put this in 1 and xy 0 .
9 4
PA PD PB PC
2 sin 2 5 cos 2 13
13 4 2 25
43. C
44. D
Sol. (for Q. 43 & Q. 44)
1
Let bk .
ak
1 1
b1,b2 ,b3 , ... are in A.P. with b1 , b20
5 25
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1 1 4
If d is the common difference of this A.P. then 19d
25 5 25
4
d
475
1 4 n 1 99 4n
bn b1 n 1 d
5 475 475
475
an
99 4n
Note that an is maximum if 99 4n 0 and 99 4n is least
99
n n 24
4
Thus, an is maximum for n 24 .
Also, an 0 if 99 4n 0
99
n n 25
4
Thus, least value of n for which an 0 is 25.
45. C
46. B
Sol. (for Q 45 & Q. 46)
The normals at A and B are perpendicular. Hence, AB is a focal chord. Use
(1) The directrix is perpendicular to the line joining the mid-point of a focal chord and the
point of intersection of tangents or normals at the ends of the focal chord.
(2) The focus is the foot of the perpendicular from the point of intersection of tangents to
the focal chord.
SECTION – D
47. 00001.62
Sol. 2 x2 3 x x
2 2
x 2 x 2 2
Also, 2x 3
1 1 1
or
3 x 2
1 1
x x
1
Hence, x2 2
x
or x 3 2x 1 0
or
x 1 x 2 x 1 0
1 5
x x 0
2
48. 00008.00
Sol. For x 0 , sin x x
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
sin x
1
x
For x 0 , sin x x
sin x
1
x
100x 99 sin x
Hence, lim 100 98 198
x 0
sin x x
49. 00005.24
xy
Sol. Given, f x f y f
1 xy
Putting x = 0, y = 0, we get f (0) = 0 ………………..(i)
and putting y = –x, we get
f x f x f 0 0
f x f x ……………….(ii)
f x h f x
Now, f ' x lim
h0 h
f x h f x
lim [from Eq. (ii)]
h 0 h
xhx h
f
1 x h x f 2
lim lim 1 x xh
h 0 h h 0 h
2
1 x xh
2
. 1 x xh
2 f x
f ' x lim 2
1 x2
x 0 x
2 2
f ' 2
1 4 5
and f x 2 tan1 x c
f 0 0 c 0
c=0
f x 2 tan1 x
2
f 3 2 tan 1
3
3
50. 00001.00
x
Sol. sin 1 x 2 2x 2
2
x 2
sin 1 x
2
LHS 0 and RHS 0 .
Then solution is obtained if LHS = RHS = 0 and x satisfies both.
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11 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
51. 00007.00
Sol. The given expression can be interpreted as the square of the distance between the
points tan A, cot A and cosB, sinB .
The minimum value of this distance is the minimum distance between the curves xy 1
and x 2 y 2 1.
52. 00002.33
Sol.
a x 2 x 1 x2 x 1 0
a
x2 x 1
or a
x 2 x 1 2x
x2 x 1 x2 x 1
2x 2
a 1 2 or a 1
x x 1 1
x 1
x
1 5
Now, for x 2 , the minimum value of x is .
x 2
7
a
3
53. 00007.00
Sol. x1 x 2 x3 12
t1 t 2 t 3 9 Total solutions t i xi 1
y1 t 2 t 3 3 Extra solutions y1 t 1 6
54. 00006.12
Sol. Total number of ways in which papers of 4 students can be checked by seven teachers
= 74
Now, number of ways of choosing 2 teachers out of 7 is 7 C2 21
Number of ways in which 4 papers can be checked by exactly two teachers 24 2 14
Favourable ways 2114
Required probability
2114
6
.
4
7 49
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46) contains 12 questions. Each question has TWO (02)
matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements
from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
3. In case of earth:
(A) Potential is minimum at the centre of earth
(B) Potential is same, both at centre and infinity but not zero
(C) Potential is zero, both at centre and infinity
(D) Field is zero, both at centre and infinity
Space for Rough work
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3 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
4. In the given figure, the block is attached with a system of three ideal
A
springs A, B, C. The block is displaced by a small distance x from its
equilibrium position vertically downwards and released. T represents k
the time period of small vertical oscillations of the block. Then (pulleys
are ideal)
11m
(A) T 2 B k
2k
(B) the deformation of the spring A is (2/11) times the displacement of
the block.
(C) the deformation of the spring C is (1/11) times the displacement of C
the block. 2k
(D) the deformation of the spring B is (4/11) times the displacement of m
the block.
5. In an interference arrangement, similar to Young’s double slit S1
experiment, the slits S1 and S2 are illuminated with coherent
microwave sources, each of frequency 106 Hz. The sources d/2
are synchronized to have zero phase difference. The slits are
separated by distance d = 150.0 m. The intensity I() is d/2
measured as a function of , where is defined as shown in S2
the figure. If I0 is maximum intensity, then I() for 0 90 is
given by
(A) I( ) I0 for = 0° (B) I( ) (I0 / 2) for = 30°
(C) I( ) (I0 / 4) for = 90° (D) I() is constant for all values of
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
7. List-I shows four situations of standard young’s double slit arrangement with screen
placed far away from the slits S1 and S2. In each of these cases S1P0 = S2P0, S1P1 -
S2P1 = /4 and S1P2 – S2P2 = /3, where is the wavelength of the light used. In the
cases B, C and D, a transparent sheet of refractive index and thickness t is pasted on
slit S2. The thickness of the sheets are different in different cases. The phase difference
between the light waves reaching a point P on the screen from the two slits is denoted
by (p) and the intensity by I(p). Match each situation given in List-I with the statement(s)
in List-II
List - I List - II
(P) S2 P2 (1) P0 0
P1
P0
S1
(Q) S2 (2)
1 t / 4 P2 P1 0
P1
P0
S1
(R) S2 (3)
1 t / 2 P2 I P1 0
P1
P0
S1
(S) S2 (4)
1 t 3 / 4 P2 I P0 I P1
P1
P0
S1
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5 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
List – I List – II
(P) Process A B (1) Internal energy decreases
(Q) Process B C (2) Internal energy increases
(R) Process C D (3) Heat is lost
(S) Process D A (4) Heat is gained
(5) Work is done on the gas
The correct option is:
(A) P→1,3,5 ; Q→1,3 ; R→2,4 ; S→3,5 (B) P→1,2,5 ; Q→1,2 ; R→4 ; S→3,5
(C) P→1,5 ; Q→1,3 ; R→2,4 ; S→4,5 (D) P→3,5 ; Q→1,4 ; R→2,3 ; S→2,4
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
11. Two blocks of masses 2kg and 5kg are connected by a light string passing over
a frictionless pulley. Find the tension (in Newton) in the cord connecting the masses. (G
= 9.8 M/S2)
12. A bullet losses 19% of its kinetic energy when passes through an obstacle. Find the
fractional change in its speed
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7 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
13. A 10 m wide spacecraft moves through the interstellar space at a speed 3 × 10 6 m/s.
A magnetic field B = 3 × 10–9 T exists in the space in a direction perpendicular to the
plane of motion. Treating the spacecraft as a conductor, calculate the emf induced
across its width. (in volt)
14. The refractive index for water w.r.t. air for a sound wave if the velocities of sound in
water and air are 1440 ms-1 and 340ms-1, is approximately,
15. Two glass plates are separated by water. If surface tension of water is 75 dynes per cm
and area of each plate wetted by water is 8 cm2 and the distance between the plates is
0.12 mm, then the force (in newton) applied to separate the two plates is
16. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first overtone and another pipe P2
open at the both ends vibrating in its third overtone are in resonance with a given tuning
3
fork. The ratio of the length of P1 to that of P2 is then n = ?
n
17.
Gravitational filed in a region is given by E 3iˆ 4 ˆj N/kg. Find out the work done (in J)
in displacing a particle of mass 1 unit by 1m along the line 4y = 3x + 9?
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
21. In which of the following compound(s) the C – Cl bond is shorter than that in C2H5Cl?
Cl
NO2
Cl
CH3 CH3
(C) H3C C Cl (D)
CH3
NO2
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9 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
22. CH3
CH3 C O - CH3
CH3
Which of the following reaction(s) form the above compound?
CH3 CH3
CH2N2
(A) CH3 C Cl NaOCH3 (B) CH3 C OH
CH3 CH3
CH3
3 2 Hg OCOCH ,CH OH
CH3 - C = CH2 3
(C) CH3Cl CH3 C OK (D) NaBH4
CH3
CH3
23. Which of the following statements is/are true about an azeotropic mixture?
(A) An azeotropic mixture boils at constant temperature
(B) The composition of an azeotropic mixture changes on distillation
(C) An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point lower than that of either of
them when it shows positive deviation from the Raoult’s law
(D) An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point higher than that of either of
them if it shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
25. Match the bases mentioned in List - I with their properties mentioned in List - II.
List – I List – II
(P) LiOH (1) Undergoes dehydration on heating to
produce normal oxide
(Q) NaOH (2) Used as an antacid
(R) KOH (3) Used to prepare soft soaps
(S) Mg(OH)2 (4) Absorbs CO2 to form a compound
which hydrated form is called
washing soda
The correct option is
(A) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2 (B) P 1; Q 3,4; R 3; S 1, 2
(C) P → 2,3; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 4 (D) P → 1; Q → 3,4; R → 2; S → 2,4
26. Match the alkyl chlorides mentioned in List-I with the nature of their elimination reaction
products mentioned in List- II.
List – I List – II
(P) C2H 5 (1) One product shows geometrical
isomerism if formed through E2
CH3 - CH - CH - CH 3 mechanism
Cl
(Q) C2H5 (2) One product shows geometrical
isomerism if formed through E1
CH3 - CH - CH2 - CH2 - Cl mechanism
(R) C2H5 (3) One product shows optical
isomerism if formed through E2
CH3 - C - CH2 - CH3 mechanism
Cl
(S) C2 H5 (4) One product shows optical
isomerism if produced through E1
Cl - CH2 - CH - CH 2 - CH3 mechanism
The correct option is
(A) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2, 3, 4
(B) P 2,3; Q 1,4; R 3; S 1, 2
(C) P → 1,2,3,4; Q → 2,3,4; R → 1,2; S → 2
(D) P → 1; Q → 3,4; R → 2; S → 2,4
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11 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
27. Match the compounds mentioned in List -I with their characteristics mentioned in List-II
List – I List – II
(P) CH3COCl (1) Forms CH3COOH as only or one of
the products on hydrolysis
(Q) CH3COOC2H5 (2) Forms two organic compounds on
hydrolysis
(R) (CH3CO)2O (3) Hydrolysis is irreversible in both
acidic and basic medium
(S) CH3CONH2 (4) Undergoes the easiest nucleophilic
substitution reaction among the four
compounds
The correct option is
(A) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2 (B) P 2,3; Q 3,4; R 3; S 1, 2
(C) P → 1,3,; Q → 1,,4; R → 1,2; S → 2 (D) P → 1, 4; Q → 1,2; R → 1; S → 1,3
28. Match the precipitates of the compounds listed in List -I with the solvent(s) listed in
List-II.
List – I List – II
(P) Zn(OH)2 precipitate dissolves in (1) Potassium cyanide
(Q) Cr(OH)3 precipitate dissolves in (2) Ammonia solution
(R) AgCl precipitate dissolves in (3) Sodium hydroxide
(S) CuS precipitate dissolves in (4) Hydrochloric acid
The correct option is
(A) P → 1, 2, 3, 4; Q → 2, 3, 4; R → 1, 2; S → 1
(B) P 2,3; Q 1, 2; R 3; S 1, 2
(C) P → 1,3,; Q → 1,,4; R → 1,2; S → 2
(D) P → 2, 3, 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 4
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. The following two reactions attain equilibrium in a container by taking in initially only
FeSO4, and O2 gas is passed then
2FeSO 4 s 2
Fe 2O3 s SO2 g SO3 g ;K P 900 cm of Hg1
2 SO2 g O2 g 1
2SO3 g ;K P2 25 10 cm of Hg
4
30. The molar mass of the salt MX2 is 208.3 g. The solubility product of MX2 is 4 10-3. How
many gram of the salt should be dissolved in water to form 10 litre saturated solution?
31. KO2 s CO 2 g
P s Q g
H2O
R soln S so ln Q g
KI soln /H
Blue solution
Starch
What is the molar mass in g of the heaviest unknown product (out of P, Q, R and S) in
above reactions?
32. KOH
P Br /CCl
Q 2
R
4
Alcohol,
(Alkyl chloride)
KOH 1 eq KOH 1 eq
CH3 CH CH2
Br
S
H2 O, SN 1
O
How many grams of (P) is required to form one mole of 2, 3-dimethylbutane upon
treatment with sodium metal in dry ether?
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13 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
33. 2
HO CH2 CH CH2COOH Product
SOCl excess
OH
What will be the molar mass in gram of the organic product of above reaction?
34. Cr(III) forms an octahedral complex with NH3 and Cl ligands. The van’t Hoff factor of the
complex is 2 when it is 100% ionized in water. The complex ion shows geometrical
isomerism. What is the molar mass of the complex in gram unit?
35. Calculate the reversible work done at 5000 K in joule unit by compressing one mole of
1
an ideal gas to one-tenth of its original volume in an isothermal process?
10
36. The molar conductance at infinite dilution of CaCl2, Ca(CH3COO)2 and HCl are
respectively 271.6, 200.8 and 425.95 S cm2 mol–1. What will be the molar conductance
of CH3COOH in S cm2 mol–1 unit?
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE
OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
2 4 8
37. The value of the expression tan 2 tan 4 tan 8cot is equal to:
7 7 7 7
2 2
(A) cos ec cot (B) tan cot
7 7 14 14
2 2
sin 1 cos cos
(C) 7 (D) 7 7
2 2
1 cos sin sin
7 7 7
39.
Let f x cos1 2x 2 1 then:
(A) f x is continuous in 1, 1
(B) f x is derivable in (–1, 1)
(C) range of f x is 0,
1
(D) derivative of f x w.r.t. sin1 x at x is 2
2
Space for Rough work
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15 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
/2 /2 /2
(A) I1 0 (B) I2 I3 0
(C) I1 I2 I3 0 (D) I2 I3
2
41.
Consider the function f x cos tan1 sin cot 1 x . Which of the following is
correct?
(A) Range of f is (0, 1)
(B) f is even
(C) f ' 0 0
(D) The line y = 1 is asymptotes to the graph y f x
dy sin2 x
42. A function y f x satisfying the differential equation
sin x y cos x 2 0 is
dx x
such that, y 0 as x then the statement which is correct is:
/2
(A) lim f x 1
x 0
(B) f x dx
0
is less than
2
/2
(C) f x dx
0
is greater than unity (D) f x is an odd function
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
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17 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
, then f x is
2
x x 1
(S) Let f :R R defined as (4) One – One
3 5 101
f x x 3x 5x ..... 101x then f x is
(5) Many – one
(6) Constant
The correct option is
(A) P → 2, 3; Q → 3,4; R → 5,1; S → 4, 2 (B) P 3, 2; Q 5. 4; R 3, 4; S 5, 6
(C) P → 1, 2; Q → 2, 6; R → 5, 4; S → 2, 4 (D) P → 3, 5; Q → 2, 5; R → 3, 5; S → 1, 4
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19 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
1 121
49. If roots of x 3 ax 2 bx
9
0 are in A.P. the
64
2a3 9ab 1 is _______.
50. A bag contain N marbles (N < 200) of 4 colours: Red, White and Green. Following
events are equally likely
(i) Selection of 4 Red marbles
(ii) Selection of 1 White and 3 Red marbles
(iii) Selection of 1 White, 1 Blue and 2 Red marbles
(iv) Selection of 1 marble of each color
7S
If S is sum of digits of maximum possible value of N then is
500
51. Let A and B be two non singular matrices of order 2 such that
2 3 3 0 10 A
9A 2B 6AB B 9 B . If B and Trace (A) A then is
2 1 1 1 3 4
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 20
100
k 100
a 2100 b a b c .
52. If
k 0 k 1
C k
c
where a,b,c N, then find the least value of
670
53. If the sum of an infinite geometric series, whose first term is the limit of the function
9 7
f x 9
as x 1 and the common ratio is the limit of function
1 x 1 x7
tan x sin x 7S
g x 3
as x 0 , is S then is
ln 1 x 100
54. If f :R R be an injective mapping and p, q, r are non – zero distinct real quantities
p p q q r
satisfying f f and f f
r qr r p
q
If the graph of g x px 2 qx r passes through M (1, 6) then find the value of .
32
Space for Rough work
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
1. ABCD
Sol. Charge on capacitor at time t is
q Q0 cos t
1
Where
LC
At t ,q 0
2
t LC
2
By conservation of energy
Q20 1 2
Limax
2C 2
Q
imax 0
LC
2. ACD
Sol. Apply Gauss law and property of conductor.
3. AD
GM
Sol. V [3R2 r 2 ], inside the earth.
2R3
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
4. ABCD
Sol. Let elongation in spring A, B and C be x1, x2 and x3 respectively.
Considering spring forces and constraint relations
x2 = 4x3 …(i)
x2 = 2x1 …(ii)
and x1 + 2x2 + x3 = x …(iii)
2
4 1
x1 x ; x 2 x ; x 3 x
11 11 11
x
Also, F = 2K
11
11m
T 2
2k
5. AB
Sol. For microwaves,
c 3 108
= 300 m.
f 106
x = d sin
2 2
= d sin = (150 sin ) = sin
300
sin
I I0 cos2
2
6. ABC
2 2 2 2
Sol. T= ; R= (1)2 (1)2 T =
10 5 5
2
H=
2
1
2g 10
7. C
Sol. Optical path difference at any point P on the screen, (P) = S2P–S1P – ( – 1)t and the
intensity on the screen, at point P = 4Io × cos2 P .
8. A
Sol. (A) A B : V , P constant T, U and W is –ve, Q < 0, U < 0
(B) B C : V is same, P T , U, Q < 0, U < 0
No work is done.
(C) C D : V T, U > 0, Q > 0, W > 0
(D) D A : V decrease so W < 0
TD = T A U = 0
and then Q < 0
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3 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
9. B
12.5 12.3 11.8 12.4 12.2 12.6
Sol. Mean value = 12.3
6
x1 ....... x 6
Mean absolute error =
6
Mean absolute error
Relative error =
Mean value
10. D
Sol. According to Lenz’s law induced current flows in such a way that it is opposing the
change in magnetic flux.
SECTION – D
11. 00028.00
2m1m2 g 2 2 5 9.8
Sol. T= = 28 N
m1 m2 7
2kg
5kg
12. 00000.10
1 1 1
Sol. Given, mv 2 mu (1 0.19) mu2 (0.81)
2 2 2
v = 0.9 u
v
0.10
u
13. 00000.09
Sol. = vB = 3 × 106 × 10 × 3 × 10–9 = 9 × 10–2 0.09 V
14. 00000.23
velocity in air
Sol.
velocity in medium
15. 00001.00
Sol. The shape of water layer between the two plates T
is shown in the figure.
Thickness d of the film = 0.12 mm = 0.012 cm. d
2R
d
Radius R of cylindrical face .
2
T
F = T(2l) = P l 2R
T
P
R
T 2T
Pressure difference across the cylindrical surface .
R d
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
16. 00008.00
4 1 2 2
Sol.
3 4
17. 00000.00
Sol. dw E.dr 0
18. 00004.00
2 2
2 R R R R
R (O) ( )
Sol. Xcm = 2 2 2 2
2 2
2 R R
R ( )
2 2
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5 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. ABD
Sol. O2 contains unpaired electron in -antibonding M.O and N2 in 2p orbital N22 contains
unpaired electron in -antibonding M.OS.
20. ABC
Sol. Rate = k[X][Y]0 2 10-8 = k[0.1] [0.1]0 k = 2 10–7s–1.
21. ABD
Sol. When Cl is directly attached to benzene, +R effect of chlorine is observed. Which
increases the bond order of C – Cl bond.
22. BCD
Sol. Elimination takes place in option(A).
23. AC
Sol. Azeotropic mixture has fixed composition.
24. ACD
Sol.
a 2 rNa rCl 2 95 181 552pm
25. B
Sol. 2LiOH Li2O H2O
26. C
Sol. In E2 mechanism, loss of Hydrogen takes place from that carbon atoms which are
adjacent to the carbon atoms that hold chlorine. Carbocations are formed in E1
mechanism.
27. D
Sol. H2O/H
CH3 COOH NH4 H O
CH3CO 2 O 2 CH3COOH
2
CH3CONH2
H2 O/OH
CH3 COO NH3
28. A
Sol. Fact based
SECTION – D
29. 00400.00
Sol. K P1 pSO2 pSO3 900
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
pSO2 pSO3 30 cm of Hg
p2SO3 30
K P2 2
25 10 4
p SO2 p O2 30 pO2
1
pO2 400 cm of Hg
25 104
30. 00208.30
Sol. Ksp = 4s3 = 4 10–3
s = 10-1 = 0.1 mol L–1
In 10 L 1 mole dissolves
Mass of 1 mole = 208.3 g
31. 00138.00
Sol. P = K2CO3, Q = O2, R = KOH, S = H2O2. Heaviest product is K2CO3.
32. 00157.00
Sol. Cl
P = CH3 - CH - CH3
33. 00175.50
Sol. The product is Cl CH2 CH CH2COCl
Cl
34. 00226.50
Sol. The complex is [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl.
35. 95735.71
V2 1/ 10
Sol. W = -2.303nRT log = -2.303 1 8.314 5000 log = 95735.71
V1 1
36. 00390.55
Sol. 0
CH COOH
0
m Ca CH3 COO 2 2 m0 HCl m0 CaCl2
m 3
2
200.8 2 425.95 271.6
390.55
2
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7 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
37. ACD
2 4 8
Sol. tan 2 tan 4 tan 8 cot cot tan
7 7 7 7 7
tan 2 tan 2 4 tan 4 8 cot 8 cot [ when ]
7
1 cos 2
(a) cos ec 2 cot 2 cot cot (where )
sin 2 7 7
(b) tan cot 2cot
14 14 7
2
sin 2 sin cos
(c) 7 7 7 cot
2 7
1 cos 2 sin2
7 7
2
1 cos cos 2cos2 cos
7 7 7 7
(d) cot
7
2 sin cos sin 2 sin cos 1
7 7 7 7 7
38. ABCD
sec x tan x cos x sin x
Sol. (a) We have f x , g x
cos x cot x sec x cos ec x
k
Clearly both f x and g x are identical functions as x k I .
2
2
(b) As x 2 4x 5 x 2 1 0
Hence f x 1 x R .
Also cos2 x sin2 x 0
2
Hence g x 1 x R g.
f x and g x are identical.
ln x 2 3x 3
(c) f x e
2
3 3
As x 2 3x 3 x 0 x R .
2 4
2
Hence f x x 3x 3 x R
f x k is identical to g x
sin x cos x 2 cos2 x
(d) We have f x , g x
sec x cos ec x cot x
k
Clearly both f x and g x are identical functions as x k I .
2
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
39. AC
Sol. Differential coefficient of f x w.r.t. y
x 1
sin1 x 2 at x it is –2
x 2
f 0 2;f ' 0 2
f is not derivable at x = 0
x
–1 1 O 1 1
2 2
40. ABC
/ 2
cos sin x dx
2
Sol. I1
0
b b
f x dx f a b x dx
a a
/ 2
cos cos x dx
2
I1
0
On adding
/ 2
I1 0 ……..(i)
/2 /2
I2 cos 1 cos 2x dx cos cos 2x dx
0 0
1
cos cos t dt [Put 2x t ]
2 0
/2
2
cos cos t dt I3
2 0
I2 I3 0 …….(ii)
Hence, I1 I2 I3 0
41. BCD
Sol. Domain is x R
2
Also f x cos tan1 sin
where cot x
2
1
cos tan 1
2
1 x
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9 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
1 x2
2 y
2 1
cos where tan
1 x2 2 x 2 (0, 1)
1 x2 1
g x 2
1
2x 2 x2
1 2x
(0, 1/2)
Range is , 1 ; f ' x 2
2
2 x2 x
Hence f ' 0 0 0
Also lim f x 1
x
Hence (B), (C), (D)
42. ABC
sin x
Sol. f x
x
43. A
Sol. (P) Let S cos cos 2 cos 4 ..... cos10
2 sin .S 2 sin cos cos 2 ..... cos10
2 sin 6 cos 5 sinn cosm
S
2 sin sin
n 6 and m 5
4
(Q) E 9x sin x
x sin x
[Note that x sin x 0 in 0, ]
2
2
E 3 x sin x 12
x sin x
Emin 12 which occurs when 3x sin x 2
2
x sin x
3
[Note that x sin x is continuous at x = 0 and attains the value which is greater
2
2 2
than at x , hence it must take the in 0, ]
3 2 3
2 1
(R) f x 2 sin x 2
2
M 19 and m 3
M 8 19 8
Hence 9
m 3
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
3
(S) tan9
4
3 4
sin9 ; cos 9
5 5
3 4
Now given
sin3 cos 3
2
3 cos 3 4 sin 3
2 sin 3 cos 3
3 4
10 cos sin 3
5 5
sin 6
sin 9 3 cos 9 sin 3 sin 9 3
10 10 10
sin 6 sin 6
44. B
f 3 cosh 4 sin h 2 f 1 0
Sol. (P) lim 0 form
h 0 f 3eh 5 sec h 4 f 2
3 sin h 4 cosh f ' 3 cos h 4 sinh 2 4 f ' 1 4 6
lim 4
h 0
3e h
5 sec h tan h f ' 3e 5 sec h 4 h
3 f ' 2 3 2
f 2a h f 2a
(Q) f ' 2a lim 4 (Given)
h0 h
f 2a h f 2a
Now f ' 2a lim
h 0 h
f 2a h f 2a
lim ( f is even function)
h 0 h
f 2a h f 2a
lim
h 0 h
f ' 2a 4
f x f 4a x x 2a, 4a
Put x 2a h, we get f 2a h f 2a h
(R) We have F x f e x
F'x e x
f ' e x
And G x e
f x
G ' x e f ' x
f x
f ' 0 e
f 0
G' 0
F ' 0 e0 f ' e0
f 0
f ' 0 e 3e3
3
f ' 1 e3
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11 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
(0, 1)
(1, 1)
y = cos x
x
O (0, 0) x=x1 x=1
2
f(x) is non – derivable at
2 points x=x1 and x=1
45. C
Sol. f x ln x kx 2 0
ln x
k
x2
n x
Consider g x as shown
x2
y
1
y
2e
x
1 e
e –1
46. D
2 y
Sol. (P) f x e sgn x e x
When x0 f 0 2
2
When x0 f x e ex
1 2
When x0 ex
f x (0, 1+e)
e
(0, 2)
Hence, f x is many – one and neither odd nor
even. 1
0, 1
e
(0, 0) x
O
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
(Q) Df :1 x 2 0
x 2 1 0 x 1, 1
x 4 when x 1,1 is equal to 0.
1
f x
1 x2
Hence, f x f is even and many – one.
x 4 x 2 1
(R) f x x 4 1 2
x x 1
x 4 1 x2 x 1
x 4 x2 x 2 x x3 x 1 2
Hence, f x is many – one and neither odd nor even.
(S) f x x 3x 3 5x 5 ..... 101x101
Clearly f x is an odd function.
Now, f ' x 0 x R
f 'x 0 x R
Hence, f x f is one – one function
SECTION – D
47. 00000.25
Sol. Put x sin y y cos y t and after rearrangement put sin y z
48. 00000.50
Sol. Above sequence is in A.P.
x1 1 x 2 3 x 2009
..................... 1005 k
x1 x2 x1005
k
x1 1 x 2 3 ...... x1005 2009
x1 x 2 .............x1005
2
1005 x 21 41
k 1
2010 x 21
82
x 21
1005
49. 00007.56
Sol. Let d, , d are roots
3 a (1)
3 2 d2 b (2)
1
2 d2 (3)
9
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13 AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
a2
From (1) and (2), d2 b
3
Put d2 in (3) to get
2a3 9ab 1 4
50. 00000.22
Sol. Let number of marbles are
Red = a, White = b, Blue = c, Green = d
C4 b C3 b c C4 abcd
a a a
T T T T
abc d
where T C4
a3 a2 a 1
solving, b ,c ,d
4 3 2
N is max when a = 95
Nmax 196
51. 00000.50
6 27 1
Sol. 9A 2 6A I B
10 1
2
3A I 81
3A I 9 (1)
a b
Let A
c d
g ad bc 18 or 0 (using equation 1)
Since A 0
ad bc 2 A 2
52. 00000.30
100
k 100
Sol. Let S Ck
k 0 k 1
100 k 1 1
100 C 100 100 100 100 Ck
k Ck
k 0 k 1 k 0 k 0 k 1
1 100 101 100
2100 Ck
101 k 0 k 1
100
1
2100 101
Ck 1
101 k 0
2101 1 101 2100 2101 1 99 2
2100
100
1
101 101 101
a 2100 b (Given)
c
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AITS-CRT-II (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
53. 00000.14
9 7
Sol. Let l lim ……(i)
x 1 1 x
9
1 x7
1 9x 9 7x 7
Put x , we get l lim ………(ii)
y x 1 1 x 9 1 x7
On adding equation (i) and (ii), we get
2l 9 7 2
l1
tan x sin x
Common ratio lim 3
x 0 ln 1 x
tan x sin x
lim 3
x 0
3 ln 1 x
x
x
tan x 1 cos x 1
lim 2
x 0 x 2
54. 00000.25
p pq
Sol. Since f is injective Sp
r qr
pq pr rp rq
2pr q p r ………..(i)
q r
Also, p,r,q are in G.P.
r p
So, let r pa, q pa2 , where a is the common ratio of G.P.
Therefore from equation (i), we get
2.p.pa pa 2 p pa
2 a2 a
a2 a 2 0
a 2 a 1 0
a 2,1
So, p, 2p, 4p and (p, p, p)
(But common ratio = a= 1, is not possible as p, q, r are non – zero distinct quantities.)
Also, p q r 6 [As g x px 2 qx r passes through M (1, 6)]
p 4p 2p 6
p2
Hence q 4p 4 2 8
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 183
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01– 07, 19 – 25, 37 - 43) contains 21 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 mark
for wrong answer
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.
Section-A (08 – 13, 26 – 31, 44 - 49) contains 18 questions. Each of 2 Tables with 3 Columns and
4 Rows has three questions. Column 1 will be with 4 rows designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV).
Column 2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column 3 will be with 4 rows
designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S).
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
Section-C (14 – 18, 32 – 36, 50 - 54) contains 15 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
(0, -b)
(A) The M.I. about a line, in its plane, passing through its centre and inclined at an angle to the
1
major axis is m b 2 cos2 a 2 sin2
4
(B) The M.I. about a chord of length 2r passing through O and lying in plane of elliptic disc is
1 Ma 2 b 2
4 r2
(C) The M.I. about a line perpendicular to the plane of elliptic disc and passing through the centre
1
O is M a 2 b 2
4
(D) The M.I. about a line, in its plane, passing through its centre and inclined at an angle to the
1
minor axis is m b 2 sin2 a 2 cos2
4
2. Two equal uniform rods of length l are joined at one end so that the A
angle between them is and they rest in a vertical plane on a smooth
sphere of radius r which is fixed to the ground.
(A) The rods are in stable equilibrium if l 4r cos ec l l
(B) The rods are in stable equilibrium if l 4r cos ec
r
(C) The rods are in unstable equilibrium if l 4r cos ec o
(D) The rods are in unstable equilibrium if l 4r cos ec B C
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3 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
5. A string is tied at one end to a vibrating blade, and the other end is passes over a fixed pulley as
shown in figure. A sphere of mass m hangs on the other end of the string. The string is vibrating
in its n1 harmonic. A container of water is raised under the sphere so that the sphere is
completely submerged. In this configuration, the string vibrates in its n2 harmonic.
Vibrating blade
Sphere
n 2
(A) The magnitude of buoyant force is mg 1 1
n2
2
n
(B) The magnitude of buoyant force is mg 1 2
n1
1/3
3m
n 2
(C) The radius of the sphere is 1 1
4water n2
1/3
3m
n 2
(D) The radius of the sphere is 1 2
4water n1
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
7. An electron initially at rest at point O (lying on the cathode) is acted upon by a magnetic field
B B0 k and electric field E E0 i . This electric field results due to the potential difference V
between the cathode and anode separated by a distance d as shown in figure. Dimension of
anode & cathode plates are very large compared to ‘d’.
z
y
x V
anode
cathode
mE0
(A) The electron will not reach the anode if B0
2 2qd
mE0
(B) The electron will not reach the anode if B0
2 qd
m
(C) The electron will just reach the anode in time t
2qB
2md
(D) The electron will just reach the anode in time t
qE
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5 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each having 3
columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer 8, 9 and 10 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns
of the following table.
M
The Time period of spring-mass system executing SHM is given by T 2 . Column–1 shows the
Keff
spring mass system executing SHM. Column–2 shows the force constant (spring constant) of
combination while column–3 represents the time period of the oscillation.
Column–1 Column–2 Column–3
K1
1 4 4 1 1
(I) (i) (P) T 2 4M
K K1 K 2 K1 K 2
K2 m
K1
1 4 1 4 1
(II) (ii) (Q) T 2 M
K K1 K 2 K
1 K 2
K2 m
K1
K2
1 1 5 4 5
(III) (iii) (R) T 2 M
K K1 K 2 K
1 K 2
m
K2
K2
1 4 5 1 5
(IV) K1 (iv) (S) T 2 M
K K1 K 2 K1 K 2
m
K2
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
9. If spring constant for the combination shown in the column I (II) becomes twice if K1 & K 2
becomes twice. Then correct matching shown for the spring-mass system is
(A) (I) (i) (P) (B) (II) (i) (P)
(C) (II) (i) (Q) (D) (I) (ii) (Q)
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7 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Answer 11, 12 and 13 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
Every figure in column 1 shows a YDSE Apparatus with two slits of equal width emitting coherent light of
equal intensity I and wavelength ' ' in phase. Distance between midpoint of slits and midpoint of screen
8.82
(which are in same horizontal line) is D 107 . The distance between slits is d 104 . The plane
containing slits and the plane of screen are vertical except for figure in column 1, Row 4 where, the plane
1
of slits is tilted at an angle of 1 with the vertical but the plane of screen is here also vertical.
60
c o
52
33
5.5
1.2
c o
1.5
12
c o
4
3
(Water is filled below line oc)
c o
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
11. For setup in Column 1, Row 4, which of the following options from Column 2 & 3 are correct
match?
(A) (IV) (ii) (Q) (B) (IV) (iii) (Q)
(C) (IV) (iii) (R) (D) (IV) (ii) (R)
13. For setup in Column 1, Row 2, which of the following options from Column 2 & 3 are correct
match
(A) (II) (i) (Q) (B) (II) (iv) (P)
(C) (II) (i) (P) (D) (II) (iv) (Q)
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
14. If we model the electron as a uniform sphere of radius re spinning uniformly about an axis
passing through its centre with angular momentum Le 2 and demand that the velocity of
rotation at the equator cannot exceed the velocity c of light in vacuum. Then the minimum value
n
of re is . Find n?
mc
15. At normal incidence, a beam of light propagating in vacuum reflects off an interface with a
2
n 1
medium of refractive index n=2.0. The fraction of energy reflected R is given by R If the
n 1
fractional error in the value of n is 3%, the fractional error in the estimation of R is.
16. A light beam from a laser pointer, on normal incidence creates a circular spot of diameter
2 10 3 m on a perfectly reflecting surface. If the radiation pressure P on the surface due to totally
2
reflected beam is 10 5 N / m 2 , the time averaged power of laser beam (in mW) is n. Find n?
3
k
17. The electric field due to unknown charge distribution is given by E 2 exp 4r r , where k is a
r
constant. The total charge in overall space is equal to
18. A spherical planet of radius R has a uniform density and does not rotate. If the planet is made
2n g 2 2
up of some liquid, the pressure at any point r from the centre is
9
R r 2 . Find n?
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9 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
19. O
h
Product
(H2O)
Ph Ph
The product is/are
OH
OH
Ph
(A) (B)
Ph
Ph
Ph
O
O
OH
(C) (D)
Ph
Ph
Ph
Ph
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
21. Which is/are true about the N – N bond length among the following speices?
+
1. H2N – NH2 2. N2 3. HN - NH2 4. N2O
(A) N – N bond length is shortest in 2
(B) N – N bond length in 1 is shorter than that in 3
(C) N – N bond length in 3 is shorter than that in 1
(D) N – N bond length in 4 is intermediate between 1 and 3
Al OH3 s OH aq.
Al OH 4 aq ;K c
Which of the following relationship is correct at which solubility is minimum?
1 1
K sp 3
K 4
(A) OH (B) OH c
K
Kc sp
1
K 4
(C) OH sp
(D) None of these
Kc
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11 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each having 3
columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer 26, 27 and 28 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
HOOC C CH
(III) H3C CH2 CHO (iii) Pink colour of KMnO4 is (R) 3 mols CH3MgX is
decolorized consumed
H3CO OC C CH
EtOOC
(IV) CHO (iv) Given precipitate with (S) 5 mols CH3MgX is
O Tollen’s reagent consumed
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
Answer 29, 30 and 31 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
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13 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
32. 1 gm of complex Cr H2 O 5 Cl Cl2 .H2 O Mol.Wt. 266.5 was passed through a cation exchanger
to produce HCl. The acid liberated was diluted to 1 litre. The normality of acid solution is
7.5 10 x N . The value of x is
33. The density of steam at 270C and 8.314 10 4 pascal is 0.8 kg/m 3. The compressibility factor
a
would be . The value of a + b = ?
b
34. H O O H
(2) (1)
(4)
H
O
O
CH
H O
(3) OH
Identify the most acidic H in ascorbic acid (vitamin C)
35. Dark gray material (A) when it is heated at high temperature in air gives gas (B). Gas (B) is
colourless and odourless which can not decolourize acidified K2Cr2O7 solution. One of the
allotropic forms of (A) is (A’), however (A) is the thermodynamically more stable than (A’). (A) on
oxidation by hot concentration HNO3 gives an acid (C), whereas (A) is unaffected by
concentrated acids.
How many COOH groups are present in one molecules of acid (C)?
36. The figure given below shows three glass chambers that are connected by valves of negligible
volume. At the outset of an experiment, the valves are closed and the chambers contain the
gases as detailed in the diagram. All the chambers are at the temperature of 30 K and external
pressure of 1.0 atm. What will be the work done by N2 gas when valve -2 is opened and valve -1
remaining closed? What will be the work done by N2 gas when valve – 2 is opened and valve -1
remaining closed?
valve 1 valve 2
4.0 L
6.0 L
(C)
(A) 10.0 L
(B)
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
x2 x 1
37. Let f x and g x 2f 3 x 9f 2 x 12f x 5. In which of the following interval(s)
x2 x 1
is g(x) increasing?
1
(A) 2, 1 (B) 1,
2
2
(C) , 0 (D) 1,
5
sin2 x co s2 x
1
38. Let f x sin t dt co s1 t dt , x 0, . Then the value of f(0) equals:-
0 0 2
1
(A) f 1 (B) 2f
2
1
(C) f (D) 2f 1
2
39. Let S be set of all value (s) of ‘a’ which the inequality x 2 x a 3 0 is satisfied by at least
one negative ‘x’. Which of the following can be subset of S?
(A) 3, 2 (B) 0, 3
(C) 4, 1 (D) 2, 3
40. The vector a i 2 j k is rotated through right angle such that a crosses through the Y- axis,
while undergoing rotation. In the new position a is given by:-
(A) 2 i j k
(B) 2 i j k
(C) 3 i k (D) 3 i k
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15 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
42. Let P(A) and P(B) be the probabilities of occurrence of two events A and B respectively. If
3 2
P A and P B then which of the following is (are) correct?
5 3
1 2
(A) P A B 3
(B) P A B
3
4 3 A 3
(C) P A B (D) P
15 5 B 5
(C) Re 1, 2 1 (D) Re , 1
1 2
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each having 3
columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer 44, 45 and 46 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
Answer Questions 8 -10 by appropriate matching the information given in the three columns of the
following table.
44. The tangents to suitable hyperbola (column I) from the point (column II) are on both branches for
the value of a (column III). Which of the following options is the only correct combination.
(A) (I) (ii) (S) (B) (I) (iii) (S)
(C) (II) (iv) (R) (D) (IV) (i) (R)
45. Suitable point (column II) lies on director circle of hyperbola (column I) for the value of ‘a’. Which
of the following options is the only correct combination.
(A) (I) (ii) (P) (B) (II) (i) (R)
(C) (II) (iv) (S) (D) (IV) (iii) (Q)
46. Suitable point (column II) lies on hyperbola (column I) for the value of ‘a’ (column III). Which of the
following options is the only correct combination
(A) (III) (i) (R) (B) (II) (iv) (P)
(C) (I) (iii) (Q) (D) (IV) (i) (R)
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17 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Answer 47, 48 and 49 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
Column 1, 2, 3 contain Trigonometric Function, Maximum Value and Minimum Value respectively
Column – 1 Column – 2 Column – 3
(I) 2
7 6 tan x tan x (i) 1 (P) 1
f(x) 2
, x ,
1 tan x 2 2 4
(II) π (ii) 1 (Q) -2
f(x) = 4cosx + 3cos x+ + 3, x R
2
(III) 6 6
f(x) = sin x + cos x , x R (iii) 8 (R) 1
-
4
(IV) π π (iv) 2 (S) 1
f(x) = cosx.cos x+ .cos x- , x R
3 3 4
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
51. If M is a 3 3 matrix, such that det M 2 and M T M I, ( M T is the transpose of matrix M).
Then, the value of det M I is:
53. If ‘z’ is a complex number satisfying the equation 11z10 10 iz 9 10 iz 11 0, then the value of
3 z is:
54. The largest integer value of ‘k’ for which the equation e x 1 k tan1 x 0, possess only one real
root, is:
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
SECTION – A
1. ABC
Sol. We know that
IPQ I x cos2 I y sin2 I xy sin2 Y
1 1
IPQ mb2 cos2 m a2 sin2 I xy 0 P (rcos rsin)
4 4 r
The equation of ellipse is X
x2 y 2
1
a2 b 2 Q
r2 2 r2
cos sin2 1
a2 b2
a2b2
a 2 sin2 b 2 cos2 2
r
1 1 a2b2
4
IPQ m b2 cos2 a 2 sin2 m 2
4
r
2. AD
Sol. AB AC l
z GN OG sin
AO AG sin
l
r cos ec cos sin
2 2 2
d
0 cos 0 i .e;
dt 2
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
d 2z l A
2
r cos ec cos for E
d 2 2 2 2
G M
d 2z D
Stable equilibrium : 2 0 l 4r cos ec r C
d
d 2z H N o
Unstable equilibrium : 2 0 l 4r cos ec
d
B
3. BC
Sol. Applying KCL, we get
x
4R 4R
o C v
36R 6R
x
x v x x x v x1
0
4R 4R 36R 6R 4R 4R
3
x v C
5 o v
2 36R
4IR v 6R
5
x2
4 5IR
v 10IR
2
In steady state:
x1 v x v
1 0 x1
4R 4R 2
x2 v x 6v
2 0 x2
6R 36R 7
25
change on capacities CIR
7
4. ACD
5. AC
Sol. T1 mg (1)
T2 mg B (1)
n1 T1 n1 T2
f
2l 2l
2 2
n n
T2 1 T1 1 mg
n
2 n2
2
n n 2
B mg 1 mg mg 1 1
n2 n2
1/3
3B
r
4 g
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3 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
6. AC
Sol. ab : pi v i p1v 1 (i )
cd : pf v f p2v 2 (ii )
bc : p1v1 p2v 2 (iii )
Dividing (2) by (1), we get
2
v2 5
B 1 B
v2 3
work done by the gas
W Wab Wbc Wcd
RT0 3
ln B pi v i 1 B
2 2
7. ACD
qB
Sol.
m
The electron will not reach the anode only when it turns by by the time it comes near anode.
2
Let time taken be t.
t
qB m
tt
2 m 2qB
qE
Acceleration due to electronic field a
m
Horizontal distance curved in time t=d
1 2 mE
at d B
2 2 2qd
8. B
Sol. 1 1 4
K1 K1 K eq K 2 K1
K1 K2 K2 1 4 4
K eq K1 K 2
K1
1 4 5
K2 m m m m K eq K1 K 2
K2 K2 K2
1 1 5
K eq K1 K 2
9. B
Sol. 1 1 4
K1 K1 K eq K 2 K1
K1 K2 K2 1 4 4
K eq K1 K 2
K1
1 4 5
K2 m m m m K eq K1 K 2
K2 K2 K2
1 1 5
K eq K1 K 2
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
10. C
Sol. 1 1 4
K1 K1 K eq K 2 K1
K1 K2 K2 1 4 4
K eq K1 K 2
K1
1 4 5
K2 m m m m K eq K1 K 2
K2 K2 K2
1 1 5
K eq K1 K 2
11. C
Sol. For figure Column 1, Row1,
52
x at 0 1 5.5 1 5.5
33
Path difference 19 19
5.5
33 6
19 1 19
Hence, n 3
6 6
2 19
x
3
8
Intensity at 0 4 cos2 3
2
For figure Column 1, Row2,
x at 0 1.5 112 1.2 115 3
1
Hence, n 3 3
2
x 6
Hence, Intensity at 0 4
For figure Column 1, Row3,
4 107
x at 0 1 D 1 107
3 3
107
Hence, n 33,33,333
3
2 2 107
x
3
Hence, Intensity at 0
For figure Column 1, Row4,
8.82 1
x at 0 d sin d 10 4
60 180
882 49
108 6
49 2 49
n 8, x
6 3
Hence, Intensity at 0 3
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12. B
Sol. For figure Column 1, Row1,
52
x at 0 1 5.5 1 5.5
33
Path difference 19 19
5.5
33 6
19 1 19
Hence, n 3
6 6
2 19
x
3
8
Intensity at 0 4 cos2 3
2
For figure Column 1, Row2,
x at 0 1.5 112 1.2 115 3
1
Hence, n 3 3
2
x 6
Hence, Intensity at 0 4
For figure Column 1, Row3,
4 107
x at 0 1 D 1 107
3 3
107
Hence, n 33,33,333
3
2 2 107
x
3
Hence, Intensity at 0
For figure Column 1, Row4,
8.82 1
x at 0 d sin d 10 4
60 180
882 49
108 6
49
n 8
6
2 49
x
3
Hence, Intensity at 0 3
13. D
Sol. For figure Column 1, Row1,
52
x at 0 1 5.5 1 5.5
33
Path difference 19 19
5.5
33 6
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
19 1 19
Hence, n 3
6 6
2 19
x
3
8
Intensity at 0 4 cos 2 3
2
For figure Column 1, Row2,
x at 0 1.5 112 1.2 115 3
1
Hence, n 3 3
2
x 6
Hence, Intensity at 0 4
For figure Column 1, Row3,
4 107
x at 0 1 D 1 107
3 3
107
Hence, n 33,33,333
3
2 2 107
x
3
Hence, Intensity at 0
For figure Column 1, Row4,
8.82 1
x at 0 d sin d 10 4
60 180
882 49
108 6
49
n 8
6
2 49
x
3
Hence, Intensity at 0 3
SECTION – C
14. 5
Sol. Le 2
2
mR 2 2
5
2
mRv 2
5
5
R
mv
5 5
Rmin
mv max mc
n 5
15. 8
2
n 1
Sol. R
n 1
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16. 1
2E
Sol. Radiation pressure P
cA
1
E PCA
2
m n 1
17. 0
n ds 4qe
4 r
Sol. E
Change enclosed
n
Q E n ds
0 er
4 0 qe 4r
r
Total change over all space r
Q lim
r 4 0 qe
4 r
0
18. 3
P r
4G 2
Sol. dP rdr
0 R 3
2G 2 2
3
R r2 n 3
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. ABCD
20. ABC
Sol.
Cl Cl
en Co en en Co en
Cl Cl
21. ACD
22. AB
Sol. Cl2 O6 in solid state ClO2 ClO 4
O O
Cl O
In the gaseous O
Cl
O O
23. ABD
Sol. Fact
24. ABD
Sol. Salicylic acid is more acidic than benzoic acid due to o-effect.
o-toluidine is less basic than aniline due to SIP.
25. D
Sol. Dissolved Al(OH)3 present in solution as Al3+(aq.) as well as Al OH 4 aq.
S Al3 aq. Al OH 4 aq.
K sp
S 3
K c OH
OH
For minimum solubility
dS
0
d OH
K sp 3
or 4
Kc 0
OH
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1
3K 4
OH sp
Kc
26. C
27. C
28. D
29. C
30. B
31. A
Sol. (for Q. 29 to Q. 31)
P4 3NaOH 3H2 O PH3 g 3NaH2PO2
4Fes2 11O2 2Fe2 O3 8SO2 g
4H3PO3 3H3PO 4 PH3 g
3Cl2 g 3H2 O
ClO3 5Cl 6H
SECTION – C
32. 3
1
Sol. Mole of complex =
266.5
1 mole of complex produce 2 mole of HCl
2
Cr H2 O 5 Cl Cl2 Cr H2 O 5 Cl 2Cl
1
Mole of HCl = 2
266.5
2
NHCl 7.5 103
266.5 1
33. 7
PV PM 8.314 104 18 10 3 18 10 3
Sol. Z 0.75
nRT dRT 0.8 8.314 300 300 0.8 4
34. 2
Sol. H O O H -
O H
O
H
H
O + O
O -H
HC O
HC
H O CH2OH
H O CH2OH
35. 6
Sol. C6 COOH 6 mellitic acid is produced
36. 0
Sol. Pext 0
Total work done Pext V
Pext 0
Work done 0
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – A
37. ACD
x2 x 1
Sol. f x and g x 6 f x f x 1 f x 2
x2 x 1
Draw graph of f(x) and analyse.
38. AC
Sol. f x sin1 sin x 2 sin x cos x co s1 co s x 2sin x cos x 0
Hence, f(x) is a constant function.
39. ABD
Sol. x2 x a 3 0
or x a 3 x 2
y=|x-a|
(0,3)
y=|x-a|
0
2
0
y=3-x 2
y=3-x
13
Hence, a
4 Hence, a 3
40. AB
Sol. a i 2 j k
Let a in new position be b xi y j zk
a b x 2 y 2 z2 6
a b 0 x 2y z 0
And a, b and j are coplanar
1 2 1
x y z 0 b 2 i j k
0 1 0
41. B
Sol. L1 : x y z
x 1 y 1 z
L2 :
1 1 1
Shortest distance=1/ 2
Equation of plane containing L2 and parallel to L1 is y z 1 0
42. ABCD
3
Sol. Max
5
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4
Min 1
15
19
15
3
5
3
1
2
43. AB
Sol. z1 a ib cos i sin
z2 c id cos i sin
Re z1 z 2 0 cos 0
2
1 cos2 cos 2 1
Similarly, 2 1
Re 1 2 cos sin cos sin
1
sin2 sin 2
2
sin co s 0
Similarly, Re 1 2 0
44. B
45. C
46. D
Sol. (for Q. 44 to Q. 46)
In each of these questions, check options one by one.
47. A
48. B
49. D
Sol. (for Q. 47 to Q. 49)
7 6 tan x tan2 x
f x 2
;x ,
1 tan x 2 2
7 6 t t 2
or y ;t ,
1 t2
Hence, y 2, 8
f x 4 cos x 3 cos x 3; x R
2
4cos x 3 sin x 3
Hence, f x 2, 8
f x sin6 x cos6 x; x R
3 3
sin2 x cos x 2
3
1 sin2 x
4
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
1
Hence, f x , 1
4
f x cos x cos x cos x ; x R
3 3
cos 3 x
4
1 1
Hence, f x ,
4 4
SECTION – C
50. 7
Sol. Let C0 be the circle passing through points A, B, C and D.
Radical axis of C0 and C1 : x 2 y 3 0 1 2 3
Radical axis of C0 and C2 :2 x 3 y 0 2 3 04
Radical axis of C1 and C2 : x y 3 0 1 1 3
51. 0
T
Sol. M I MT I
T
M I M MT M M
T
M I M I M M I
T
M I M M I
T
M I M M I
M I 2 M I
M I 0
52. 4
Sol. Coefficient of x 70
8 1 7 2 6 3 5 1 2 5 1 3 4
8 7 12 15 10 12 4
53. 3
11 10iz 2
Sol. z9 Let z a ib a, b R : z a 2 b 2
11z 10i
z
9
112 220b 10 2 a 2 b 2
2
11 a b 2 2
220b 10 2
2
Clearly , z a2 b 2 1 or 1 is not possible.
Hence z 1
54. 1
Sol. e x 1 k tan 1 x 0
or , e x 1 k tan1 x
y 1 e x 1 and y 2 k tan1 x
Draw graphs and analyse.
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
Section-A (01 – 03, 24 – 26, 47 – 49) contains 9 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-A (04 – 08, 27 – 31, 50 – 54) contains 15 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 mark
for wrong answer.
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.
Section-A (09 – 10, 32 – 33, 55 – 56) contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 2 multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3
marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
Section-C (11 – 20, 34 – 43, 57 – 66) contains 30 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-D (21 – 23, 44 – 46, 67 – 69) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
8. In the circuit shown in Fig. the cell is ideal, with e.m.f. = 2V. The C
resistance of the coil of the galvanometer G is 1. Then C2=5F
(A) No current flows in G
(B) 0.2 A current flows in G A
G 1
(C) Potential difference across C1 is 1V B
(D) Potential difference across C2 is 1.2 V C1=4F
+ 2V
One mole of an ideal diatomic gas is contained in the lower part of the cylinder
beneath a piston of area 50 cm 2 as shown in the figure. The piston has negligible vacuum
mass but a block of mass M = 100 kg is kept on the piston. Initially the gas is
maintained at a temperature of 300 K and piston is at a height h from the bottom
M
of the cylinder. The gas is now heated to raise the weight by 10 cm. [Take g = 10
m/s2, atmospheric pressure = 105 N/m2]
gas h
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5 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
10. If a small hole has been created in the upper part of the cylinder, then the value of h before
heating the gas is
(A) 1.66 m (B) 2.49 m
(C) 1.40 m (D) none of these
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
11. A container filled with air under pressure P0 contains a soap bubble of radius R. When the air
pressure is reduced to half isothermally, the bubble radius becomes (5R/4). If the surface tension
RP
of the soap water solution is S, then find o .
12S
12. A glass tube of 1.0 m length is filled with water. The water is drained out very slowly from the tube
through a hole in the bottom while a vibrating 500 HZ tuning fork is held near the open upper end
of the tube. If the speed of sound is 320 ms-1, find the number of resonance that can be obtained.
13. A 50 resistor is connected in series with a coil and a sinusoidal ac–source of effective voltage
50 V. If the effective voltage drop across the resistor is 20 V and across the coil is 40 V, Find the
power developed in coil in watt?
14. The upper end of the uniform chain of linear mass density 2 kg/m is lowered
with a speed 1 m/s as shown in diagram. The normal reaction offered by the v=
ground after the chain fall through a distance 5 cm is given by k newton. Find
the value of k.
15. Bottom of glass beaker is made of a thin equi-convex lens having bottom
side silver polished as shown in the figure. Now the water is filled in the O
beaker upto a height of h = 4 m. The image of point object floating at
middle point of beaker at the surface of water coincides with it. The value
3 4
of radius of curvature of lens is g , w h
2 3
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16. A block is attached to the ceiling by a spring that has a force constant
K = 200 N/m. A conducting rod is rigidly attached to the block. The
K
combined mass of the block and the rod is m = 0.3 kg. The rod can slide
without friction along the two vertical parallel rails, which are a distance = 1
m
m apart. A capacitor of known capacitance C = 500 F is attached to the
rails by the wires. The entire system is placed in a uniform magnetic field B
= 20 T directed inwards as shown. Neglect the self inductance and electrical
resistance of the rod and all wires. The angular frequency (in rad/s) of the
vertical oscillations of the block is 4 . Find the value of ?
c
l
17. A uniform spherical shell of mass m and radius R starts from rest with m, R
pure rolling on a long inclined plane as shown in the figure. If angular
momentum of shell about point of contact after 1 sec of its starting is
2
KmR, find K [Take g = 10 m/s ] …………
30o
18. The force of interaction between two co-axial current loops having radii
R & r (r<<R), separated by a distance x carrying currents I1 & I2 R
No R 2r 2I1I2 x x r
respectively is given by the expression, F 5
. Find ‘N’ I1
2 R x
2 2 2
I2
2
19. The minimum deviation suffered by a ray emerging through a prism is equal to half the
3
refracting angle of the prism. Find the value of C if the refracting angle of the prism is 2 / C .
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7 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
22. A parachutist jumps from the top of a very high tower with a siren of frequency 800 Hz on his
back. Assume his initial velocity to be zero. After falling freely for 12s, he observes that the
frequency of sound heard by him reflected from level ground below him is differing by 700 Hz
w.r.t. the original frequency. What was the height of tower. Velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s, and
g = 10 m/s2.
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(1) (2)
26. One mole of Argon is heated using PV5/2 = constant. By what amount heat is absorbed during the
process, when temperature changes by T = 26 K.
(A) 100 J (B) 200 J
(C) 180 J (D) 208 J
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28. A2On is oxidised to AO3¯ by MnO4¯ in acid medium. If 1.5 × 10–3 mole of A2On requires 60 ml of
0.03 M-KMnO4 solution for complete oxidation, which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) The value of n = 2
(B) Empirical formula of oxide is AO.
(C) 0.15 mole of A2On would require 0.15 mole of acidified K2Cr2O7 solution
(D) 'A" may be a metal from second group of periodic table.
Me
Me
Me
(III) (IV) Me
Me
(A) I and III are Geometrical isomers. (B) I and II are Conformational pairs
(C) III and IV are Conformational pairs (D) II and IV are Geometrical isomers
30. Among the following orbital interactions which represents hyper-conjugation interaction?
PZ
•
H
H C
C H H H
(A) H H H (B)
free radical
CH3–CH2 (CH3–CH2)
+
H H
C CH C
(C) (D) H H
(H2C – CH = CH2)
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
Complex compounds which have same molecular formula but have different structural arrangements of
ligands around central metal atom or ion are called structural isomers and phenomenon is named as
structural isomerism.
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SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
34. How many more coordination isomers are possible of the following complex compound.
[PtCl2 (NH3)4] [Pt (SCN)4]
35. 3/
O
Zn / H 2O
How many different species are formed?
(i)O3
36. C6H4
(ii) Zn/H2 O
C3H2 O3
X
no of pi-bond present in X is
37. Number of possible spectral lines which may be emitted in bracket series in H atom, if electrons
present in 9th excited level returns to ground level, are
38. 15 g of a solute in 100 g water makes a solution freeze at –1°C. 30 g of a solute in 100 g of water
will give a depression in freezing point equal to
39. The enthalpies of neutralization of a weak acid HA & a weak acid HB by NaOH are
- 6900 Cal/equivalent & - 2900 Cal/equivalent respectively. When one equivalent of NaOH is
added to a solution containing one equivalent of HA & one equivalent of HB, the enthalpy change
was - 3900 Calories. If base distributed between HA & HB in X : Y then find value of X+Y.
40. 50 mL of 0.1M CuSO4 solution is electrolyzed with a current of 0.965 A for a period of 200 sec.
The reactions at electrodes are:
Cathode : Cu2+ + 2e- Cu(s) Anode : 2H2O O2 + 4H+ + 4e.
Assuming no change in volume during electrolysis, calculate the decimolar concentration of SO42-
at the end of electrolysis.
41. If the radius of Mg2+ ion, Cs+ ion, O2– ion, S2– ion and Cl– ion are 0.65 Å , 1.69 Å, 1.40 Å, 1.84 Å,
and 1.81 Å respectively. Calculate the average of co-ordination numbers of the cations in the
crystals of MgS, MgO and CsCl.
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43. How many moles of Grignard reagent will be required by one mole of given compound?
O
SH
HO C – OEt
C – Cl
CH2–CH2 O
Cl
Space for Rough work
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SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
44. KF has NaCl structure. What is the distance between K + and F– in KF in angstrom if density of KF
is 2.48 gm/cm3.
6
4
PA
2
10 20 30 time (min.)
Time of completion for the reaction (in min) is
46. A current of 0.5 A is passed through molten AlCl3 for 40 min. Calculate the mass of aluminium in
gram deposited at cathode.
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1
47. Let f(x) be defined on [0, 1] such that f(x) = min x ; n = 0, 1, 2……..then area under f(x) is
2n
1 1
(A) (B)
12 24
1 1
(C) (D)
6 36
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50. ˆ b ˆi ˆj kˆ and c 4iˆ 3ˆj 7k.
Let a 2iˆ k, ˆ Let r xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ be a vector such that
r b c b and r.a 0. The magnitude of x + y + z is
(A) 3 (B) 5
(C) 7 (D) 9
x2 y 2
51. If is one of the angle between normal to the ellipse 1 at the point whose eccentric
a2 b2
2cot
angle & . then is
2 sin2
e2 e2
(A) (B)
1 e2 1 e2
e2 e2
(C) (D)
1 e2 1 e2
52. If the point p on the parabola y 2 4ax for which PR PQ is maximum. Where
R a, 0 , Q 0, a is represented as (k1a, k2a) then find the value of (k1 + k2).
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 6
53. Let two tangents 3x 4y 20 0 & x y 3 0 of a parabola intersect the tangents at point
P(0, 5) and Q(3, 0) respectively, then
(A) length of latus rectum is 24 / 34
(B) Equation of axis is 3x 5y 33 0
(C) focus is (6, -3)
(D) Equation of tangent at vertex 5x + 3y = 15
54. If f x ecot x , where [y] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to y, then
1
(A) lim f x 1 (B) lim f x
x
x
e
2 2
1
(C) lim f x (D) lim f x 1
x
e x
2 2
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
A B C
In a ABC, suppose that tan , tan , tan are in harmonic progression.
2 2 2
B
55. What is the minimum possible value of cot ?
2
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 2
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
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17 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
60. A variable circle S of radius r cuts a rectangular hyperbola H in four distinct point A, B, C and D. If
O is the centre of H then the value of
OA 2 OB 2 OC2 OD2
is
r2
61. Let S be the sum of all x in the internal 0, 2 such that 3 cot 2 x 8 cot x 3 0 . Then the value
S
of is
62. Let A be n n matrix with A 4. B is the adjoint of the matrix 2A such that B 1024. What is
the value of n.
64. If the straight line joining origin to the point of intersection of straight lines 4x + 3y = 24 and the
curve (x- 3)2 + (y – 4)2 = c2 are at right angle then find the value of c .
2
65. The value of x x x dx where [.] is greatest integer function.
0
2
66. If f is real valued differentiable function satisfying f x f y x y , x, y R and f(0) = 0 then
f(1) is equal to
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
n n n 1n 2 n
2008
67. If T r
then lim is
r 1 3 n
r 1 Tr
68. Word of length 10 are formed using the letters A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J. Let X be the number of
such word where no letter is repeated and y see the number of such word where exactly are
letters is repeated twice and no other letter is repeated then y/9x =
69. Find the minimum value of the sum of real no. a 5 , a 4 ,3a 3 ,1, a8 and a10 a 0 .
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JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
1 1 2
work F mv 2 m 5
2 2
2. D
a y1 y 2
Sol. tan θ
g 4
y1 y 2 0.5 ........ i a
Volume of water is q
y1
4 y1 y 2
3 18 y2
2
y1 y 2 3 ........ ii
4
2.5
y2
2
speed of liquid coming from orifice is
at 2gy 2 10m / s
3. C
Sol. TP 40 N
TQ 30N
TP TQ 10 N
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
4. BD
Sol. When a displacement wave strikes a fixed end, it gets inverted after reflection and when a
pressure wave strikes a fixed end, compression pulse gets reflected as compression pulse.
5. ABD
Sol. Speed will be maximum when the block passes through the equilibrium position. F
Fspring = mg Spring
A is correct
(B) From conservation of energy
1 1
mg( x) Kx 2 mv max
2
(1)
2 2
mg mg
Where x
K 4mg 4 mg
putting x in equation (1)
4
3
Vmax gl
2
(C) is incorrect as in equilibrium compression is which is more than
4 8
T 1 m
(D) Time taken is 2
4 4 K
D is correct
6. ABC
Sol. Applying Snell’s law at face AB, we get
1 sin 60º 3 sin r
3 1
3 sinr or sin r
2 2
1
r sin1 30º
2
1
sin c
3
(where, c is the critical angle)
1
c sin1 or c 35º
3
From geometry, angle of incidence at Q is 45º. At face CD angle of incidence is greater than c .
Therefore, the rays gets totally internally reflected at face CD. Hence, option (a) is correct. From
geometry, angle of incidence at R is 30º. At face AD angle of incidence is less than c
So, the ray comes through face AD. Hence option (b) is correct.
Applying Snell’s law at face AD, we get
3
e sin1 60º
2
The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray is 90º.
Hence, option (c) is correct and option (d) is incorrect.
7. AD
Sol. WA B nRT1 ln 2
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3 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
U1 U0
W A B In 2
2
dv
2R
dT
dv 2RdT
C V 2R
CP 3R
8. BCD
Sol. Current through resistances remains constant.
9. B
PV
Sol. Q nCP T CP
R
10. A
Mg/A
Sol. Po
Pgas
SECTION – C
11. 8
3
4S 3 4S 5R
Sol. Po R 0.5Po 0.8
R R 4
96S
P
R
12. 4
C
Sol. Lmin 16 cm
4f
so resonance for length 16 cm, 48 cm, 80 cm i.e 3 cases.
13. 5
Sol. VS2 VR2 VC2 2VR VC cos
VR
i
R
PC i VC cos
14. 3
Sol. each falling link collides with the fallen links with a relative velocity
v imp vj F imp
dm1
f imp v rel m'
dt
f imp v 2 j N m'g
from equation on heap
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
N mg fimp 0
N v 2 gy
2 1 2
10 0.05
2 1 0.5
3N
15. 5
Sol. PM 2P2 PM
1 1
P2
f2 4R
1 1 2 5
2
fm 4R R 2R
2
fm R
5
h 2 fm
2R
h 2 4
5
R 5m
16. 5
1 1 q2
Sol. E mv 2 kx 2
2 2 2c
q
e Bv
c
1 1
E m B 2 2c v 2 kx 2
2 2
as E = constant
dE
0
dt
dv k
x
dt m B 2 2c
= 20 rad/sec
17. 5
Sol. Angular momentum about P = t = mgsin30o R 1 N
f
o
mg sin 30
P o
mg cos 30
18. 3
Sol.
P.E., U .B
I2 r 2 oI1R 2
3
2 R 2 x2 2
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5 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
2 2
du 3o R r I1I2 x
F 5
, N 3
dx
2
2 R x 2 2
19. 3
A
A 2
sin
A m
sin 2
Sol. 2 2
A 3 A
sin sin
2 2
3A
sin
2 4 , Let A
3 A 4
sin
2
2 sin3 3 sin 4 sin3 3 4 sin2
3 sin2 2sin .cos 2cos
4 3 cos 2 4cos 3 0
1 2 3 1
cos ,
2 3 2 2 3
A
30o 30o
4 6
2
A , C 3
3
20. 1
Sol. For maxima at P, path Diff. n, n int eger
d
s2P s1P 1 t n y 1 t n
D
10 6
n 106 m n
106 10 6
nmax 2.5& nmin
1.42
4000 1010 7000 1010
n 2, only one wavelength will give max ima at P for n 2
SECTION – D
21. 00001.53
22. 01057.50
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
23. 00772.00
Sol. Rate of formation of nuclei at time t is
dN
N, where N = number of nuclei at that time
dt
N 1 et
Number of nuclei disintegrated in time t, Nd = t 1 e t
Energy released till time t, E = E0Nd = E0 t 1 et
20% of this energy is used for heating water,
0.2E0 t 1 et ms
0.2E0 t 1 e t
ms
At t = T1/2
2 1
0.2E0 2T1 1
2
2
ms
0.2E 0 0.386
772K
ms
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7 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
24. B
Sol. O O
HO S (S)n-2 S OH
O O
No. of S-S bond = (n-1)
25. C
Sol.
-
PhLi
-
(1) Aromatic
CH3
PhLi
-
CH3
(2) Anti Aromatic
26. C
Sol. pv 5 /2 const ; n 5 / 2 (Polytropic process)
no. of moles 1
3
Cv of Ar R
2
q nC T
R
n Cv T
1 n
3 R
1 R 26
2 1 5 / 2
5
R 26
6
5
8.314 26 180 J
6
27. ABC
Sol. (a) Mechanical equilibrium
(b) Thermal equilibrium
(c) Chemical equilibrium
28. ABC
H
Sol. A2On MnO4 AO3 Mn 2
Eq. of A2On Eq. of MnO4
1.5 10 3 10 2n 60 0.03 10 3 5
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
29. ABCD
Sol. ABCD
I=Trans form but both methyl on equational position
IV=III=cis form one methyl on axial position and one on equational position
II=Trans form but both methyl on axial position
30. AB
Sol. In hyper conjugation electron interact with vacant orbital.
31. ACD
Sol. (A) NH3 Cl
NH3 NH3
Cl NH3
Pt Pt
NH3 Cl NH3
NH3
NH3 Cl
cis trans
Plane of symmetry optically in active Plane of symmetry optically in active
(B)
ox
-3
- Optically active
ox Fe
- no geometrical isomerism
ox
(C) a n
d
Square planer
Plane of symmetry
M
Optically inactive
c b - GI occurs
(D) If ligand is optically active then complex is optically active.
32. D
Sol. In polymerisation isomerism; ratio of metal and different ligand should be same.
33. B
SECTION – C
34. 8
Sol. PtCl 2 NH3 4 PtCl 2 SCN 4 c
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9 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
35. 3
Sol. O
O
O3/ C H
H +
+
Zn/H2O O C H
O O H
O
O
C H
= 2CH 3CHO +
C H
O
O
O3/ O O C H
+
Zn/H2O H3C C C CH3
C H
O
So, no. of different pdt are
O O O O
H3C CHO + H3C C C CH3 + H C C H
36. 3
Sol. 1.03 O
37. 6
Sol. 10 4
9 4
8 4
Total 6 spectral lines
7 4
6 4
5 4
38. 2
15 / m
Sol. f K f m kf 1000
100
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
15
1 kf 10 (1)
m
if mass of solute 30g
30 / m
f K f 1000
100
15
2 kf 100
m
21 2
39. 4
Sol. HA NaOH NaA H 2O; 6900 cal / eg
HB NaOH NaB H 2O; 2900 cal / eg
Let x eq of NaOH react with HA and y eg NaOH react with HB
x y 1
6900 x x 2900 y 3900
x 1/ 4
y 3/4
x : y 1: 3
x y 1 3 4
40. 1
Sol. SO42 ion is present in solution; no electrolysis of SO42
[ SO42 ]=0.1 M
Decimolar concentration of SO42 1
41. 6
rMg 2 0.65
Sol. 0.35
rS 2 1.84
Co-ordination no.=4
rMg 2 0.65
0.464
rO 2 1.4
Co-ordination no.=6
rCs 1.69
0.933
rCs 1.81
Co-ordination no.=8
Co ordination no.
r
0.225 0.414 4
r
r
0.414 0.732 6
r
r
0.732 1 8
r
42. 7
Sol. a, c, d , g, j , l , m
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11 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
43. 7
Sol. 1 2
SH O
HO C OEt
1 O O
C Cl
H2C CH2 O
Cl 2
1
SECTION – D
44. 00002.68
Z M
Sol. Density
NA a3
Z M
a3
NA d
a
Dis tan ce between K and F
2
45. 00040.00
6 8 2
Sol. Rate after 10 minutes =
10 8
4 6 2
Rate after 20 minutes =
10 8
Reaction of 1st order
At = Ao – kt
0=8–kt
8
t=
k
6 = 8 – k 10
2
k
10
8 8
t= = 40 min
k 2
10
46. 00000.11
0.5 40 60
Sol. no of equivalent of Al =
96500
0.5 40 60 1
No of moles of Al =
96500 3
0.5 40 60 27
Mass of Al deposited = 0.11 g
96500 3
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
47. A
1
1 1 1 16 1
Sol. A 1 2 ..... sq. unit
16 4 4 1 1 12
4
48. C
Sol. Area of required region is half of the area of circle.
49. C
Sol. x 1 h, h0
log 2 h log2 3.4h
3 3h
lim 1 1
h 0
8 h 4 3h sin h
3 2
1 h
2 log 1 2 4h 1
3 1
4
h
2
lim
h 0 1 1
1 1
8 h 3 8 3
3 4 3h 2 4 2 sin h
h 3h h
1 3
3 log4 1 log4 1
2 2
1 1 1 1
3 . 4 3 2 2 4
3
9
log 4 1
4
50. C
Sol. r c b r c b
a.c 8 7
r.a 0 5
a.b 2 0 1
r c b 4iˆ 3 ˆj 7kˆ 5 ˆi ˆj kˆ
r ˆi 8ˆj 2kˆ
x y z 7
51. C
1
tan
m m2 a tan
Sol. tan 1 2
1 m1m2 b a
1 2
b
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13 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
cot
a 2
b2 sin .cos
a.b
2cot
a b2 a 2
e2
b
sin 2 a2 1 e2
52. A
Sol. The line x – y + a = 0 tangent at P. then PR PQ will be maximum RQ
53. ACD
Sol. focus 6, 3 and equation of tangent at vertex is 5x 3y 15.
30 9 15 24
Length of latus rectum 4
34 34
54. BD
Sol. As x , cot x is positive being in I quadrant
2
thus cot x 0 lim f x e0 1
x
2
55. C
A C
cot cot
Sol. A G 2 2 cot B 3
2 2
B
cot 3
2
56. C
B 1
Sol. tan B
2 3 3
SECTION – C
57. 1
Sol. Ellipse in internally tangent to the circle at point of intersection.
58. 6
3
1 1
Sol. Let x a and x 3 3 b
x x
3
a2 b 2 1 1
f x a b x x3 3
ab x x
1
3 x 6.
x
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AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
59. 0
Sol. use property
60. 4
2 2 c
Sol. H xy c 2 , S x y r 2 let P ct,
t
S 1 t12 t 22 t 32 t 24 2
2
2 2
c2
1 1 1 1
S2 2 2 2 2 2
2 2 2
t1 t 2 t 3 t 4 c2
c2 c 2 4r 2
2 1
S S2 2 2
r r c
61. 5
Sol. Let y cotx; 3y 2 8y 3 0, y1, y 2 be roots
8
y1 y 2 , y1y 2 1
3
y cot x is a bijection on 0, R
and also , 2 R
3
cot x 0 when x , , 2
2 2
3
x1, x 2 , & x 3 , x 4 , 2
2 2
y1 cot x1 cot x 3 , y 2 cot x 2 cot x 4
y1y 2 1 cot x1 cotx 2 cot x 3 .cot x 4 1
x1 x 2 x 3 x 4 5
62. 3
n 1
Sol. B adj 2A B 2A
n n 1
1024 4n 1 2
2
210 2n n 2
n3
63. 6
Sol. Let h, k lies on hyperbola
h x1 k y1 2 2h k
hk 1
2 1 5
12x 2 7xy 12y 2 25 0.
64. 5
Sol. Use Homogenization.
65. 3
Sol. Properties of G.I.F.
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15 AITS-CRT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
66. 0
Sol. Use L.M.V.T
SECTION – D
67. 02008.00
Sol. t n t n t n 1
68. 01008.00
Sol. Use fundamental principle of counting.
69. 01210.00
Sol. (AM > GM)
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ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – IV
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
General Instructions:
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.
Section-A (08 – 13, 26 – 31, 44 - 49) contains 18 questions. Each of 2 Tables with 3 Columns and
4 Rows has three questions. Column 1 will be with 4 rows designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV).
Column 2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column 3 will be with 4 rows
designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S).
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
Section-C (14 – 18, 32 – 36, 50 - 54) contains 15 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
l
5. A rectangular vessel of dimension l b h and mass M contains a
liquid of density . The vessel has an orifice at its bottom at a h F
distance c from the rear wall as shown in the figure.
c
(A) The maximum volume of the water that can be stored when the vessel is accelerated is
hcb / 2
(B) The maximum volume of the water that can be stored when the vessel is accelerated is
hlb / 2
(C) Force F that must be applied when maximum water stored is M hcb / 2 hg / c
(D) Force F that must be applied when maximum water stored is M hcb / 2 lg / c
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5 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
7. A tunnel is dug along a chord of the earth at a perpendicular distance R/2 from the earth’s centre.
The wall of the tunnel may be assumed to be frictionless. A particle is released from one end of
the tunnel. The pressing force by the particle on the wall, and the acceleration of the particle vary
with x (distance of the particle from the centre) according to:
Pressing Pressing
force force
(A) (B)
x
x=R/2 x=R x=R/2 x=R
Acceleration Acceleration
(C) (D)
x x
x=R/2 x=R x=R/2 x=R
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each having 3
columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer 8, 9 and 10 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns
of the following table.
Column – 1 gives the continuous charge arrangement, Column – 2 gives the electric field at any
arbitary point P inside the cavity and Column – 3 gives the potential at the same arbitary point P:
Column –1 Column –2 Column –3
Uniformly charged non-
conducting sphere having a
cavity
(I)
(i) E in non- (P)
Potential is constant at
every point
P uniform
charge density
A charged conductor having
cavity
Q
E is uniform Potential is zero at every
(II) (ii) (Q)
P and non zero point
P Potential cannot be
(IV) (iv) E is zero (S)
defined
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7 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Answer 11, 12 and 13 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
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9 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
16. A long coaxial cable consists of two thin-walled conducing cylinders with inner radius 2cm and
outer radius 8 cm . The inner cylinder carries a steady current 0.1A, and the outer cylinder
provides the return path for that current. The current produces a magnetic field between the two
cylinders. Find the energy stored in the magnetic field for length 5m of the cable. Express answer
in nJ (use In 2 0.7 ).
0 t ms
1 2 3
2
4
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
19. Which of the following process is/are associated with change of hybridization of underlined
compounds?
(A) Al OH 3 ppt. dissolved in NaOH
(B) B2 H 6 is dissolved in THF
(C) SiF4 vapours is passed though liquid HF
(D) Solidification of PCl 5 vapour.
20. Which of the following statement is/are true? (lp – lone pair and Bp-bond pair)
(A) At 102° bond angle in H 2 O , p-p<p-Bp<Bp-Bp Repulsion
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11 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
23. When 0.5 mL of a 1.0 M HCl solution is mixed with 5.0 mL of a 0.1M NaOH solution,
temperature of solution increases by 2°C . Which of the following(s) can be predicated accurately
from this observation?
(A) If 10mL of same HCl is mixed with 10 mL of same NaOH , temperature rise will be 4°C
(B) If 10mL of 0.05 M HCl is mixed with 10 mL of 0.5 M NaCl, the temperature rise will
be 2°C
(C) If 5mL of 0.1 M HCl is mixed with 5 mL 0.1 M NH3 solution, the temperature rise will be less
than 2°C
(D) If 5 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH is mixed with 5 mL 0.1 M NaOH, the temperature rise will be less
than 2°C
24. At a certain temperature T1 , some hydrazine N 2 H 4 gas is placed in a sealed flask where the
following equilibrium is established.
3N 2 H 4 g
1
K
4 NH 3 g N 2 g H 0
If the temperature is increased to T2, some ammonia gas also decomposes as
k2
2 NH 3 g
N 2 g 3H 2 g H 0
What would be observed as temperature is increased from T1 to T2 ?
(A) Some more hydrazine would decompose.
(B) If K1 <K 2 , concentration of NH3 would decrease.
(C) Partial pressure of N2 would be doubled.
(D) All of these would be observed.
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each having 3
columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer 26, 27 and 28 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
Column –3 (Double
Column –1 Column –2
bond equivalent in
(Reaction) (Intermediate)
product)
CHCl3 , KOH
(I) +
(i) Carbocation (P) 0
Br
Ph Li
(II)
(ii) Carbonion (Q) 1
Br
Cl O
Na
(III) Cl C C OH
(iii) Free Radical (R) 2
Cl
OH
(IV)
(iv) Carbene (S) 3
H
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13 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Answer 29, 30 and 31 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
32. The solubility product constant of a metal carbonate MCO3 is 2×10-12 at 25°C. A solution is 0.1 M
in M(NO3)2 and it is saturated with 0.01M CO2. Also the ionization constant of CO2 are Ka1 =
4×10-7 and Ka2 = 5×10-11 at 25°C. The minimum pH that must be maintained to start any
precipitation is?
33. 2.0 moles of an ideal gas of unknown heat capacity are in a piston fitted cylinder at 300K. The
piston has a mass on the top of it that supplies a constant pressure. The piston is then brought
into contact with a thermostal. Heat flow into the system causing the gas to both expand and
change temperature. After the temperature has equilibrated, the work done by the gas on
surrounding was found to be 3.32 kJ. Also 14.94 kJ of heat flows into the system. What is the
atomicity of the gas. Assume R = 8.3 jK-1 mol-1.
34. The standard reduction potential of silver chloride electrode (metal – sparingly soluble salt
electrode) is 0.209 V and for silver electrode is 0.80 V. If the moles of AgCl that can dissolve in
10 L of a 0.01 M NaCl solution is represented as 10-y, then find the value of y?
(vii) energy needed for homolytic bond fission is less than that required for the heterolytic bond
fission.
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15 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
1
38. If sin tan sin cos 1 cot cos , then value of sin can be:
2 2 2 3
1
(A) 0 (B)
2
1 3
(C) (D)
2 2
39. Let , and be three real numbers. Suppose that cos cos cos 1 and
p q
sin sin sin 1 , then smallest possible value of cos
r
(where p, q, r )
(A) p q r 12 (B) p q r 10
(C) p q r 4 (D) p q r 2
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
4 3 2
40. Consider an equation 8 x 16 x 16 x 8 x a 0 then the sum of all the non-real roots of the
equation can be a
(A) 1 (B) 2
1
(C) (D) None of these
2
41. The vector(s) which is/are coplanar with vectors iˆ ˆj 2kˆ, iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ and perpendicular to the c ,
where c is unit vector perpendicular to the plane of vectors of vectors
iˆ ˆj kˆ and iˆ 2 ˆj 3kˆ is/are:
3 ˆ 5 ˆ
(A) 3iˆ 4 ˆj 5kˆ (B) i 2 2 ˆj k
2 2
4 ˆ 5 ˆ 4 ˆ
(C) iˆ j k (D) 3iˆ j 5 3kˆ
3 3 3
1 1 k
42. On xy -plane, the path defined by the equation m
m n
0 is
x y x y
1
(A) a parabola if m , k 1, n 0 (B) a hyperbola if m 1, k 1, n 0
2
(C) a pair of lines if m k n 1 (D) a pair of lines if m k 1, n 1
2 1 10 a b
43. Let A be a matrix if A , then
0 3 c d
(A) a d is a multiple of 13 (B) b is an even integer
(C) Number of factors of d b is 11 (D) Number of factors of a b c d is 22
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17 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each having 3
columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer 44, 45 and 46 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
Answer 47, 48 and 49 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
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19 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
50. A special deck of cards contains 49 cards, each labeled with a number from 1 to 7 and coloured
with one of seven colours. Each number – colour combination appears on exactly one card.
Mokshika will select a set of eight cards from the deck at random. Given that she gets atleast one
card of each colour and atleast one card with each number, the probability that Mokshika can
discard one of her cards and still have atleast one card of each colour and atleast one card with
p
each number is , where p and q are relatively prime positive integers. Find p q :
q
n
e n y e 1 1
51. If f y lim then the value of f x dx is:
n
n 1 e n
1 e n 1 1 0
dx
f x g x .g x f x at x 1 3 15 is equal to 15 , where , then find
the value of .
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – IV
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
1. AD
Sol. f
N2
mg
N1
mgr fR i
N1 sin f mg ii
N1 cos N 2 iii
Solve i , ii & iii to get N 2 and f
So, force at B f 2 N 22
For minimum value of N, use f N2
2. ABC
3g
Sol. Use g eff g sin 37 instead of g in all standard vertical circle cases
5
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
3. ABD
Sol. The impulse exerted by the string on the cylinder is equal and opposite to the impulse exerted by
the cylinder on the string.
10sin
10
10 cos
J 40000 0.25 10 3 10 ms along the string
For marble,
J 0 2 10cos
final velocity along the string is zero.
Putting J 10ms, we get 60
4. ABC
Sol. The ball has v’ component of its velocity perpendicular to the length of rod immediately after
collision u is the velocity of CM of the rod and is the angular velocity of the rod just after
collision.
Write velocity of separation = velocity of approach for the point of collision.
u
D v'
D
Use, conservation of linear momentum perpendicular to the rod and conserve angular momentum
about point D
5. AC
h a
Sol. tan
c g h
6. ABC
2r 2
Sol. The equation of free surface is y y0 y
2g
y0
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3 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
7. BC
x N
Sol. Net force towards the centre of the earth mg ' mg and
R
mg θ R/2
N mg 'sin
2
8. A
9. B
10. C
11. B
12. A
13. C
SECTION – C
14. 2
3L
Sol. Balancing torque about point O, NI R 2 B LRV 2
4
L
[ force exerted by air on rod 2 R 2 L0 RV 2 ]
2
15. 6
Sol. Use Biot-Savart Law:-
0 qV sin
B
4 r 2
16. 7
Sol. At any distance r from the axis
r dr
a
b
0 i
B
2 r
B2 0 i 2
4B
20 8 2 r 2
[Magnetic energy density]
b
du B uB dv
a
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
17. 8
1 2 1 2 1
Sol. Using energy conservation Cv0 Cv L0 I 2
2 2 2
Putting all given values
I=6A
18. 4
Sol. Make two separate equations, one f V t from 0 to 1 ms and the other from 1 to 2 ms
V1 4, for 0 1ms
And V2 4t 4, for t 1 2 ms
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5 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. ACD
Sol.
Al OH 3 NaOH
Na Al OH 4
sp 2 sp 3
SiF4 2 HF
H 2 SiF6
sp 3 sp 3d 2
PCl4 PCl6
2PCl5
sp 3d sp3 sp3d 2
20. ABC
Sol. At 104.5 angle, p p p Bp Bp Bp
At 102 angle, i.e. bond angle is decreased so, Bp Bp Bp p p Bp similarly at 106
angle, is bond angle is increased, p p p Bp Bp Bp Bp
Water can form maximum of 4 hydrogen bonds.
21. ABCD
Sol. Salt has equal moles of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 when phenol phthalein indicator is used, only
reaction occur till end point is
Na2 CO3 HCl
NaHCO3 NaCl
40 mL 40 mL
0.05M 0.05M
x 40 mL
When methyl orange is used in an independent titration, 2x mL of HCl would be required for
Na2CO3 and x mL for original NaHCO3.
y 3x 3 40 120 mL
Hence y x 80 and y x 160
If methyl orange is added subsequently at phenol phthalein end point, x mL of HCl would be
required for NaHCO3 produced from Na2CO3 and x mL for original NaHCO3 i.e. a total of 2x mL of
HCl would be required further.
NaOH NaHCO3
Na2CO3 H 2O
2m mol 2m mol
2 x
Volume of NaOH required 20 mL mL
0.10 2
22. ABC
Sol. (A) Molar volume of ideal gas at STP is 22.4 L
(B) AT critical point, z = 3/8
2
(C) Pc a / 27b , hence large ‘b’ implies low critical pressure.
(D) As p 0, gas approaches ideal behaviour hence PV=const. and PV/RT = 1 .
23. CD
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Sol. Weak acid and weak base gives less heat in neutralisation hence smaller temperature rise than in
cane of strong acids and bases if all other conditions are same.
24. AB
Sol. (A) As some ammonia is removed by 2nd reaction, some N2H4 would decompose to restore 1st
equilibrium.
(B) As K1 <K 2 , less ammonia will be formed than it is decomposed.
(C) Partial pressure of N2 will increase but it cannot be predicated with guarantee that it would be
doubled.
25. ABCD
Sol. Pb CH 3COO 2 +K 2 CrO 4
PbCrO 4 +K CH3COO
Yellow
Pb NO3 2 +K 2 CrO 4
PbCrO 4 +KNO3
Yellow
AgNO3 +KI
AgI+KNO3
Yellow
H 2S+CdSO 4
CdS+H 2SO 4
Yellow
26. C
27. D
28. C
29. C
30. B
31. A
SECTION – C
32. 4
Sol. H + +HCO3-
H 2 CO3 Ka1 4.0 107
H + +CO32-
HCO3- Ka 2 5 1011
On adding above two equilibria
2H + +CO32- Ka=2.0×10-17 1
H 2 CO3
K sp = M +2 CO32-
2- K sp 2×10-12
CO3 minimum
= = =2×10-11M
M +2 0.1
For equation (1)
2
H + CO32-
Ka =
H2CO3
2
H + ×2×10-11
2×10 -17
0.01
H 10
+ 4
pH=4
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7 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
33. 3
Sol. w 3320 p0 V nR T
3320
T 200
2 8.3
q 14.94 kJ nC p T
19.94 1000
And C p 37.35 jK 1 mol 1
2 200
3
Also C p x R, where x = atomicity.
2
C p 3 37.35
x 1.5 3
R 2 8.3
34. 7
Sol. 0.0591
ECl / AgCl / Ag E Ag
/ Ag
10 g K sp
1
0.0591
0.209 0.80 10 g K sp
1
K sp 1010
Let solubility of AgCl in 0.01 M
Ag Cl
AgCl
1010 x x 0.01
x 108
Moles of AgCl dissolved in 10 L = 10-8×10=10-7
y 7
35. 6
Sol. KC
AB2 1 x 1 x x 2
A B 2 4 2 2 2 4 2 4
AB 2 2
Now let y moles of AB2 is added
KC
2 y
1
2
2 2 2 4
2 y 1
2
2 4 4
2 y
1
8
y 82
y6
36. 6
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
SECTION – A
37. ABD
3
Sol. sin 3 x cos 3 y 2 3.sin x cos y 2
sin x cos y 2 0
sin x cos y 2
sin x 1 & cos y 1
x and y 0, 2
2
38. AD
Sol. tan sin cot cos
2 2
tan sin tan cos
2 2 2
sin n cos
2 2 2
sin cos 2n 1
sin cos 1, 1
1
sin
4 2
n
n 1
4 4
3
0, , , , 2
2 2
3
But & are not in domain
2 2
3
sin 0,
3 2
39. ACD
Sol. a cos i sin
b cos i sin
c cos i sin
then a b c 1 i
Where a, b, c are complex numbers on the unit circle. Now to minimise cos , consider a triangle
with vertices a,1 i and the origin. We want a as far away from 1 i as possible while
maintaining a nonnegative imaginary part. This is achieved when b and c have the same
argument, so b c 1 i a 2 .
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9 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
cos
12 2 22
2 1 2
1
2 2
and cos cos
4
cos cos sin sin
4 4
1 7
4
40. AB
1
Sol. Substituting x y
2
4 3 2
1 1 1 1
8 y 16 y 16 y 8 y a 0
2 2 2 2
3
8 y 4 4 y2 a 0
2
2
Let y z
3
8 z 2 4 z a 0
2
Case I:
3
If a
2
All roots are non-real
sum 2
Case II
3
If a
2
2
8z 4 z 0
2z2 z 0
1
z 0; z
2
1
y 2 0; y 2
2
2 2
1 1 1
x 0; x
2 2 2
1 1
x , ; 2 non real roots
2 2
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
1 1
sum 2
2 2
1
Case III
3
a
2
Let z k1 & k2
y 2 k1 y k1
1 1
x y k1
2 2
1
x k1
2
1 1
sum 2 k1 k1
2 2
1
41. ABC
Sol.
c
iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ
6
ˆ ˆ
Let a i j 2kˆ and b iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ
A vector coplanar to a and b and perpendicular to c
a b c a c b b c a
6
1 2 2 i 2 ˆj kˆ 1 4 1 iˆ ˆj 2kˆ
ˆ
6
3i 4 ˆj 5kˆ
6
For 6, 3 and
3
42. ABCD
Sol. (A) x y 1
x y 2 xy 1
x 2 2 xy y 2 2 x 2 y 1 0 is a parabola
1 1
(B) 1 xy x y 0 is a hyperbola
x y
1 1 1
(C) 0 x 2 3 xy y 2 0 pair of straight lines
x y x y
1 2
(D) x y 0 x y 1 0 pair of straight lines
x y
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11 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
43. ACD
n 2n
3n 2 n
Sol. As A
0 3n
a d 210 310 45 95 multiple of 13
10 10
Also d b 2 , a b c d 2 3
44. B
45. C
46. C
Sol. (for Q. 44 to Q. 46)
3
(I)
3 1 3 3
x 1 x 3
4
4 x2 4 x2
(II) u sin ln cos ln
1 x 1 x
4 x2
0
1 x
4 x2
ln
1 x
So, 2 u 2
1 1
(III) Let x 5 t ; g t 0,
2 4
t 2
g t
t 2 t 2
1
(IV) 0 cos x
ln cos 1 x ln 2
47. B
48. A
49. C
Sol. (for Q. 47 to Q. 49)
Point 1, a1 ,1 lies on P1 and P2
2 3a1 4 9 a1 1
b1 , b2 ,1 is to normal of planes P1 , P2 & P3
2b1 3b2 4 0
4b1 5b2 6 0
b1 1, b2 ... a 2, b 3
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
SECTION – C
50. 5
Sol. First note that out of the 8 selected cards, one pair of cards have to share the same number and
another pair of cards have to share the same colour. Now, these 2 pairs of cards cannot be the
same or else there will be 2 cards which are completely same.
Then WLOG let the numbers be 1,1, 2,3, 4,5, 6 and 7 and the colours be
a, a, b, c, d , e, f and g . We therefore obtain only 2 cases:
Case I: 1a 1b 2a ,3c, 4 d , 5e,6 f , 7 g . In this case, we can discard 1a
There are 2 6 12 situation in this case
Case II: 1b,1c, 2 a ,3a , 4 d ,5e, 6 f and 7g . In this case, we cannot discard. There are
6
C2 15 situations in this case.
12 4
Probability pq 5
12 15 9
51. 1
e n 1 1 e n 1
n
y
Sol. f y e lim n
n 1 e 1 e
n 1
n 1
n
1 1
e y lim n n 1
n
n 1 e e 1
ey
e 1
1 1
1
f x dx e x dx 1
0 e 1 0
52. 0
3 3
Sol. x 1 y 1 16
3 1/3
y 1 16 x 1 f x
3 1/3
x 1 16 y 1
3 1/3
f x 1 16 x 1 g x
1
f x g x
f 1 3 15 g 1 3 15 0
2
f x g x .g x f x f x f x
d 2
dx
f x f x 2 f x f x . f ' x f x . 1 f ' x
d 2
dx
f x f x at x 1 3 15 0
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13 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
53. 1
Sol. Since 23 1 mod 7
1.2 2.3 3.4 2011.2012
2 2 2 2
Let S 2 2 2 ........ 2
2 20 20 21 ........ 20 21 mod 7
1
2010 1 0
3
2 2 20 21 mod 7
670 4 2 mod 7
1 mod 7
54. 1
1
x 1 1 2
x2 1 x
2 x 1 x2 1
Sol.
1 x4
x2 1
x2 1
1
2
4 2
x 1 1
x
2
x3 x 4
1
x4 2
4
x
1
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – IV
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
Section-A (04 – 08, 27 – 31, 50 – 54) contains 15 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 mark
for wrong answer.
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.
Section-A (09 – 10, 32 – 33, 55 – 56) contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 2 multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3
marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
Section-C (11 – 20, 34 – 43, 57 – 66) contains 30 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-D (21 – 23, 44 – 46, 67 – 69) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
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3 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
4. When object ‘O’ moves towards a fixed lens mirror combination, select correct choice/choices:
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
8. The particle displacement of a travelling longitudinal wave is represented by S = f (x, t). The
midpoints of a compression zone and an adjacent rarefaction zone are represented by the letter
‘C’ and ‘R’. Which of the following is true?
S S
(A)
x C x R
S S
(B) 0
t C t R
S
(C) (pressure) C -(pressure) R 2 .(bulk modulus of air)
x C
(D) Particles of air are stationary mid-way between ‘C’ and ‘R’.
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5 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Two fixed and horizontal cylinders A and B having pistons (both massless) of cross sectional area 100
cm2 and 200 cm2 respectively, are connected by massless rod. The piston can move freely without
5 2
friction. The cylinder A contains 100 gms of an ideal gas ( = 1.5) at pressure 10 N/m and temperature
T0. The cylinder B contains identical gas at same temperature T0 but has different mass. The piston are
–2 3
held at the state such that volume of gas in cylinder A and cylinder B are same and is equal to 10 m .
The walls and piston of cylinder A are thermally insulated where as gas in cylinder B is maintained at
constant temperature T0. The whole system is in vacuum. Now the pistons are slowly released and they
move towards left and mechanical equilibrium is reached at the state when the volume of gas in cylinder
–4
A becomes 25×10 m3 .
A B
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
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7 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
14. A steel ball falling vertically strikes a fixed rigid plate A with v0
velocity v0 and rebounds horizontally as shown. Assuming
surface to be same and the effect of gravity on motion of
ball to be neglected. If the coefficient of the restitution for v1
1 A
the ball is ‘e’ then the value of is:
e
30°
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18. In a certain hypothetical radioactive decay process, species A decays into species B and species
B decays
in to species C according to the given reactions.
A2B + particles + energy
B3C + particles + energy
–1 –1
The decay constant for species A is λ1 =1 sec and that for species B is λ 2 =100 sec . Initially
4
10 moles of species of A were present, while there were none of B and C. It was found that
species B reaches its maximum number at a time t0 = 2 ln (10) sec. Calculate the value of
maximum number of moles of B.
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SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
22. If angular acceleration of the uniform disc just after release from
8πg
rest position shown in figure is , then calculate N. (C is centre C
NR
2
of semi-circular disc.) ( π = 10 )
sm ooth
23. In the show circuit, all three capacitor are identical and have R
1
R R
capacitance CμF each. Each resistor has resistance of RΩ . An
C C
ideal cell of emf V volts is connected as shown. If the magnitude of
a C
potential difference across capacitor C3 in steady state is V then
b 3
R 2 R R
value of a b is:
4
V
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2
24. Ni H 2O 6 complex typically absorbs at 600 nm. It is allowed to react with ammonia where
2
a new complex Ni NH 3 6 is formed, this complex should have absorption nearly at:
(A) 800 nm (B) 550 nm
(C) 650 nm (D) 600 nm
26. An amount of 1 mole each of A and D is introduced in 1L container, simultaneously the following
two equilibria are established:
B C
A A
K C 106 M 2 & B D K C 106 M 1
The equilibrium concentration of A will be:
-6 -3
(A) 10 M (B) 10 M
-12 -4
(C) 10 M (D) 10 M
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11 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
i PhMgBr
27. N C-CH 2 OCMe3
ii H 2O , HI
The major product(s) of above reaction ore:
O
(A) (B) CH 3OH
Ph CH2 Ph
O
(C) CMe3I (D)
Ph CH 2 OH
O
R C CH R
X
(A) Step (I) is slow and rate determining
(B) The reaction exhibit kinetic isotopic effect i.e. k H >k D
(C) Step (II) is slow and rate determining
(D) -
O O
R C CH D2 O
R R C CH R
D
this occurs at similar rate as step (II)
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30. A concentrated solution of H2SO4 is added to saturated solution of sodium dichromate as:
Na2 Cr2O7 H 2 SO4 ' A ' Na2 SO4 H 2O
Which of the following statement(s) regarding ' A ' is/are correct?
(A) ' A ' is an orange solid and is an acidic oxide
(B) ' A ' is a green solid and is an amphoteric oxide
(C) ' A ' dissolves in alkalies forming a yellow coloured solution
(D) On heating ' A ' loses oxygen & forms a green coloured compound.
31. Which of the following property(ies) are identical for body centered & face centered cubic crystal
with same unit cell edge length.
(A) Distance between the nearest neighbours in BCC and distance between a tetrahedral void
and octahedral void in FCC
(B) Coordination number of corner atom in FCC (if all tetrahedral voids are filled) and BCC
(C) Number of octahedral voids in FCC and number of tetrahedral voids in BCC
(D) Distance between second nearest neighbour in FCC & BCC
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13 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
O
OCN NCO
+ HO OH P
3 Urethane polymer
X
32. Which of the following is incorrect about the polymerisation reaction?
(A) It involves nucleophilic addition of alcohol on isocyanate.
(B) It involves nucleophilic addition elimination.
(C) On adding an amine RNH2 to the polymer, the new functional group is urea rather than
urethane.
(D) The amine added attack terminal isocyanate of the polymer.
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
35. How many of the following species contain one or more lone pair(s) on central atom, that is
present in an orbital having contribution from d-orbital.
SOF4 SeOCl2 SeF3
XeF5 BrF6 TeF5 ICl4
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15 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
37. O
CH 3 MgBr H 3O
Cu
'P'
38. Total number of molecules that can be hydrolysed at room temperature are:
XeF4 NCl3 NF3 CCl 4 PCl3 SF6 TeF6 SeBr4
40. Number of optically active isomers formed by the given reaction is(are):
OH
O
H
+ OH OH
H3C H
42. In a certain polluted atmosphere containing O3 at a steady state concentration of 2×10-8M, the
hourly production of O3 by all sources was estimated as 7.2×10-15M. If only mechanism for the
destruction of O3 is of second order, the rate constant (in ml mol-1 s-1) for the destruction reaction
is:
43. Among the following, number of sols containing negatively charged colloidal particles is/are:
Soap solution of sodium stearate, sol of AgCl obtained by adding excess AgNO3 to KCl solution,
gold sol, Fe(OH)3 sol, silcic acid sol, Basic dye, metal sulphide sol, acidic dye.
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
44. Fumaric acid C4H 4O 4 present in 1g sample of mushroom was titrated using phenolphalein as
indicator against OH ions which were obtained by electrolysis of water. As soon as OH ions
are produced, they react with fumaric acid & at complete neutralisation immediately a pink colour
is obtained. If electrolysis was done for 8685 seconds using 50mA current to reach end point,
what was percentage of fumaric acid in mushroom.
46. Two weak acids HA1 & HA2 each with same concentration & having pKa values 3 & 5 are placed
in contact with hydrogen electrode (1 atm 25°C) & are interconnected through a salt bridge. Emf
RT
of the cell in volt is: [Take 2.303 =0.06 ]
F
Space for Rough work
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17 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
x2 y2
47. If P and Q are two points on the ellipse 2 2 1, locus of the mid-point of PQ
2 a b
is:
x2 y 2 1 x2 y2
(A) (B) 4
a 2 b2 2 a 2 b2
x2 y2
(C) 2 2 2 (D) None of these
a b
sin B sin C
48. If A, B, C are acute positive angles, then sin A sin B sin A sin C is:
sin A sin B sin C
(A) 8 (B) 8
(C) 2 (D) None of these
z
49. If k 0, z k , and , then Re is equal to:
k 2 z
(A) 2k (B) k / 2
(C) k (D) 0
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
51.
2
The graph of f x ax bx c is b D
,
2a 4a
(A) ac 0 (B) bc 0
(C) ab 0 (D) abc 0
52. If P and Q are represented by the complex number z1 and z2 such that
1 / z 2 1 / z1 1 / z 2 1 / z1 then
(A) OPQ (Where O is the origin) is equilateral
(B) OPQ is right angled
1
(C) The circumcenter of OPQ is z1 z2
2
1
(D) The circumcenter of OPQ is z1 z 2
3
2 n4
n
53.
Let 1 x
2
1 x a x k
k
. If a1 , a2 and a3 are in arithmetic progression, then the possible
k 0
value/values of n is/are
(A) 5 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 2
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19 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
x2 y2
54. Consider the ellipse 1 . If f x is a positive decreasing function
f k 2 2k 5
f k 11
then
(A) The set of values of k for which the major axis is the x axis is (-3,2)
(B) The set of values of k for which the major axis is the y axis is , 2
(C) The set of values of k for which the major axis is the y axis is , 3 2,
(D) The set of values of k for which the major axis is the y axis is 3,
A box has 10 coins. Five have heads on both sides. Three have tails on both sides; two are fair. A coin is
chosen at random and tossed.
56. Probability that the coin is fair given that head has appeared is
5 1
(A) (B)
6 6
3 5
(C) (D)
8 8
Space for Rough work
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 20
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
57. In equilateral triangle ABC of side p, a square is inscribed in its incircle. If area of the square is
p 2 / k then value of k is
59. Degree of differential equation of family of ellipses of same size having minor axis along a given
line is
61. If the line 3 x 4 y 12 intersects the hyperbola at P & P and its asymptotes at Q and Q then
PQ PQ
value of is
PQ PQ
3 4
62. Let A , if let ( A A 2 A3 A 4 A n ) 64, then value of n is
1 1
x x n
63. If the number of the positive integral solution of equation is n, then
9 11 3
is [ ] denotes GIF .
/2
1 sin 2 n f(15) f(3)
65. If f(n) 2
d , ( n N ) , then the value of is
0
sin f(15) f(9)
5 7 1 11
66. The sum to infinity of the series 2
4 3 5 ..... is K/9 then K is
3 .2 3 .2 3 .4 3 .20
Space for Rough work
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21 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
1 1
67. The points of discontinuity of y g u 2
, where u are x1 , x2 , x3 find the
u u 2 x 1
value of x1 x2 x3 ?
1
xb 1
68. If 0 ln x dx ln 12.4 , where b 0 then value of ' b '
69. Three students appear in three examinations. The number of possible ways in which we can have
result such that any students fails in all examinations nor neither these is a examination which is
not cleared by any student is
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
CONCEPT RECAPITULATION TEST – IV
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
SECTION – A
1. A
Sol. In CM frame both the mass execute SHM with
k 2k
SHM
m
Initially particles are at extreme
2k
Distance = L0 ( L L0 ) cos t
m
2. C
F-(m+M)g sinθ
Sol. a=
(m+M)
So, f=ma cos
F-(m+M)g sinθ
a=
(m+M) m cos
3. B
Sol. a B =2m/s 2 ()
x3 x2 x3 k1
& x3 3 x4 k2
a2 12
a2 2a3 0 a3 6m / s 2
2 2
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
4. ABCD
Sol. The above lens mirror combination is an equivalent converging mirror.
5. AC
Sol. f=mg sinθ and PE sin =mg sin .R
q 2 R Esinθ=mg sinθ R
mg
E=
2q
6. ABCD
4r
K rdr R
Sol. (A) v= 2
0 2
r (3R) 2 4 0
K rdr
4r
2 R
(B) v=
0 r 2 0
7. BD
Sol. External electric field and induced charge on outer surface of the sphere will produce a net zero
field inside it. Net field at P must be vertically upward.
8. ACD
Sol. PC -PR =2BAK S=A sin(kx- t)
9. D
10. A
Sol. (for Q. 9 to Q.10)
Let the initial temperature, pressure and volume of gas in ‘A’ be
T0 , P0 ,V0 and the area of the position A and B be a, 2a. Now gas in chamber ‘A’ undergoes
adiabatic compression whereas gas in chamber ‘B’ undergoes isothermal expansion.
Now solving for gas in ‘A’
γ γ
P1A V1A P2A V2A P0 V0γ =P2A (0.25V0 ) P2A =8P0
Solving for gas in ‘B’
P1B V1B =P2B V2B P1B V0 =P2B ×2.5V0 P2B =0.4P1B
Also (P2A ×a)=(P2B ×2a) for gas is chambers 'B'
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3 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
8P0 a P2 2a P2 4 P0
0.4 P1 =4P0 P1 10P0
Now comparing the moles of gas in A and B
P0 V0
nA =
RT0
10P0 V0
nB = =10n A
RT0
m B =10m A =10×100gm=1kg
Again for gas is A,ΔQ=ΔU+ΔW
0 ΔU+ΔW
V0
0 0 8 P0
PV
0 ΔU 4
( 1)
ΔU=2P0 V0 =2×105 ×10-2 =2000J
F=8P0 a=8×105 ×10-2 =8000N
SECTION – C
11. 7
v12 v2
Sol. P0 0 PA gh 2
2 2
V2 2g 5 10 V1
ρv12 ρv 22
- -ρgh= PA -P0
2 2
ρv2
PA -P0 -ρgh- 2
2
3
10 103 10 10 7
10 2 104
2 2 1 2
7 7
- ×105 N/m 2 atm
20 20
12. 2
Sol. The minima will be heard at P when a crest from S1 and a trough from S2 reach there at the same
time. This will happen if L1 – L2 is λ/2 or λ+ λ/2 or 2λ+ λ/2 and so on. Hence, the increase
in L1 between consecutive minima is 1 and from the data we see that λ=0.40m .
Then λ=v/f f=340/0.40=850Hz .
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
13. 6
Sol. X CM
dm.x 2 L
dm 3
Mass of rod;
L 10 3
M 0 x dx
0 2
Torque about ‘O’;
L 2L
FB cos37 o -Mg cos 37o =TL cos 37o
2 3
1 1 104 2
103 π ×10 - × =T
π 2 2 3
10 4
T= N
6
14. 1
Sol. V0sin30o =V1cos30 o (i )
o o
eV0 cos 30 =V1sin 30 (ii )
Dividing (i) & (ii)
1 1 1
tan30o = =3
e tan30o e
15. 8
Sol. f=2N
a1Kg=2m/s 2
1
S= ×2×4=4m
2
Wfriction =-2×4=-8J
16. 4
Sol. Since the rod is in translation so 0
about O,
F sin N cos 0
2 2
F sin N cos
N
tan (1)
F
Also, N Mg (2)
Mg 40 2
So, tan
F 60 3
2
tan 1
3
X 3
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5 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
17. 4
dT
Sol. H K .2 r /
dr
R2 Hdr T2 2 lk T1 T2
K dT H Hi H f
R1 2 rl T1 R2
ln
R1
18. 2
dN A dN
Sol. 1 N A , B 21 N A 2 N B
dt dt
dN B
N B maximum 0
dt
2
21 N A 2 N Bmax N Bmax 1 N A
2
21
N Bmax N 0 e 1t 2
2
19. 3
Sol. T the FBD of any one rod is T
T N (1)
mg N (2) N
Taking torque of any one rod is mg 37 0
L N P
mg cos37 o =TLsin37 o
g
mg 4 2mg
T= =
2 3 3
2mg 2
=μmg =
3 3
20. 6
1 3 1 1
Sol. = -1 -
f L 2
20 20
FL 20cm
1 1 2 1
= - =-
f -10 20 5
1 1 1 1 1 1
v 30 5 v 30 5
1 1 1
For lens
v 30 20
SECTION – D
21. 00025.00
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
22. 00030.00
Sol. Consider equation of torque about C
4R mR 2
mg 3π = 2 α
8g 8πg 8πg
α= = 2 =
3πR 3π R 30R
23. 00018.00
Sol. No current passes through capacitors in steady state. Assume
potential at point '4' to be zero.
2V
Then points '1' and '2' are at same potential
3
Hence C1and C 2 can be taken in parallel
V
The potential at point 3 is
3
Equivalent circuit of all three capacitors is shown Hence potential
difference across capacitor C3 is
2C 2V V 2V
= × - =
2C+C 3 3 9
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7 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
24. B
Sol. NH3 is a stronger field ligand than H2O & causes greater crystal field splitting.
25. C
Sol. Radical are generally non-selective in their attack & readily combine with any species having
unpaired electron & these can be produced by polar species like R – X in gas phase or in non
polar solutions.
26. A
Sol. B C
A K C 106
1 x x x
0 1M 1M
B D A
K C 10 6
1 x 1 x x
x
1 1 106 x 106
11
27. CD
Sol.
PhMgBr
Me3CO CH 2 C N Me3CO CH 2 C NMgBr
Ph
H 2O
O
HI
Ph C CH2 + Me3C I Me3CO-CH 2 C O
OH
Ph
28. ABD
Sol. First step involving formation of carbanion is slow & second is fast. Once the carbanion is
formed, it undergoes rapid attack by an electrophile
29. ABC
Sol. U BC nCV T2 T1 750 R, H CD nC p T2 T1
BC
PB PC
PB 2 bar
TB TC
CD
nCV T2 T1 Pex V2 V1
H ABCD 0 as the whole process is not cyclic
H AB U AB 0 T 0
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
30. ACD
Sol. ' A ' is CrO3
CrO3 NaOH
Na2CrO4 H 2O
yellow solution
heat
CrO3
Cr2 O3 O2
31. ABD
Sol. Distance between nearest neighbours in BCC = Distance between test & octahedral void in FCC
= 3a / 4 and distance between second nearest neighbours in both is a
32. B
Sol. O
+ HO
OH
+
OCN N C N NCO
O C
O
O O
RNH 2
O
N O O N N
OCN
H H C
Urethane polymer O
O O
O
OCN N O O N
O
H H
RHN C N
urea group H
33. C
Sol. O OH
OH 2
HO
O
3
O
HO OH
3
SECTION – C
34. 5
Sol. n=3
The subshell of this shell contains no radial node as described by wave function
So it is 3d .
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9 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
35. 3
3
Sol. SOF4 is sp d hybrid but contains no lone pair.
SeF3 & SeOCl2 contains lone pairs in sp3 orbitals (no d - character)
XeF3 is pentagonal bipyramidal with one lone pair.
BrF6 is perfectly octahedral containing lone pair in pure s-orbital
TeF5 & ICl4 are sp3d2 hybrid with one & two lone pairs respectively.
36. 4
Sol. CO2 H 2O H1 112 1
CH 2O O2
nCO2 nH 2O H 2 356 2
nCH 2O nO2
CH 2 O n H 3 92 k Cal 3
nCH 2O
Equation (1)× n – equation (2) = equation (3)
37. 0
Sol.
O
-
O
CH 3 Mg Br
Cu
CH3
+
In presence of Cu 1,4-addition occurs.
H 3O
CH3
38. 5
Sol. XeF4 , NCl3 , PCl3 , TeF6 , SeBr4 are hydrolysed at room temperature but NF3 , CCl4 & SF6 are
either not hydrolysed or require drastic conditions for hydrolysis.
39. 2
Sol. n f reaction
6
40. 4
Sol. CH3 CH3
O O
OH
O O +
O
H
OH OH
+ OH OH
H3C H 4 optical isomers optically inactive
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
41. 2
Sol. Sugars differing around C1 & C2 only give same osazone.
42. 5
Sol. 2
r=k O3
d O3 2
k O3
dt
2
k 2 108
43. 5
Sol. Soap solution, acidic sols, sulfide sols, metal sols & acidic dyes are negatively charged.
SECTION – D
44. 00026.10
Sol. electrolysis
2 H 2O 2e H 2 2OH
50 8685
millimoles of OH produced 4.5
96500
Milimoles of acid present 2.25
Mass present 0.261g
Percentage 26.100
45. 05340.00
Sol. H 3O CK a
3
Milligram of AlCl3 C 0.4 M AlCl3 10
46. 00000.06
Sol. H HA1
H HA2 & H Ka.C
0.06 10 5.C
Ecell 0 log
1 103.C
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11 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
47. A
Sol. P a cos , b sin
And Q a cos , b sin
2 2
Q a sin , b cos
Let midpoint of PQ is (x, y), then
2x
cos sin
a
2y
sin cos
b
Squaring and adding equation (iii) and equation (iv), we get
x2 y 2 1
2 2
a b 2
48. B
Sol. Since A.M . G.M .
sin A sin B 2 sin A.sin B
Similarly, sin B sin C 2 sin B.sin C
And sin C sin A 2 sin C .sin A
sin A sin B sin B sin C
sin C sin A 8sin A.sin B.sin C
49. D
z
Sol.
k 2 z
2
But z z k , thus
k2 k2
z z
k k 2 z k 2
2
k2
z
0
Re 0
50. A
Sol. Both the lines passes through the origin. Line L1 is parallel to the vector V1 .
V1 cos 3 ˆi 2 sin ˆj cos 3 kˆ
And L2 is parallel to the vector V 2 .
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
V1.V 2
cos
a cos 3 b 2 sin c cos 3
V1 V 2 a2 b2 c 2 (cos 3 )2 2 sin 2 (cos 3 )
(a c)cos b 2 sin (a c) 3
=
a2 b2 c 2 2 6
For cos to be independent of , we get
a + c = 0 and b = 0
2a 3 3
cos or
a 2.2 2 2 6
51. ABD
Sol. From the graph it is clear that a < 0 and c > 0.
b
Now since vertex is in first quadrant > 0.
2a
b 0 b 0
52. BC
1 1 1 1
Sol. z1 z2 z1 z2
z2 z1 z2 z1
cos(1 – 2) = 0 where 1 and 2 are arguments of z1 and z2.
53. BCD
Sol. Equating coefficients of x, x 2 and x3 both sides we get,
n(n 1) n(n 1)(n 2)
a1 = n, a2 = 2, a3 2n .
2 6
Now 2a2 = a1 + a3 gives n3 – 9n2 + 26n – 24 = 0
54. AC
Sol. f(x) is a decreasing function and for the major axis to be the x-axis.
f(k2 + 2k + 5) > f(k + 11)
or k2 + 2k + 5 < k + 11
or k (–3, 2)
Then for the remaining values of k, i.e., k ( , 3) (2, ) k, the major axis is the y-axis.
55. C
5 1
C1 2 C1 3
Sol. 2
10 5
56. B
PF PH / F
Sol. pF / H
P Hi P Hi / F
F fair coin
H head appears
1 1
5 2 1
PH / F
1 1 4 5 6
5 2 5 8
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13 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – C
57. 6
Sol. A
B C
a P
R
2sin A 3
A B C R
r 4 R sin sin sin
2 2 2 2
P
r
2 3
P
side of r 2
6
2
P
Area = K 6
6
58. 0
Sol. f x 2 f 1 x x 2 1 ..... 1
Replace x by (1-x)
2
f 1 x 2 f x 1 x 1 .... 2
(2) – (1)
2
3 f x 2 1 x 2 x 2 1
f 3 0
59. 1
Sol. Let equation of line along minor axis is
lx my n 0
2 2
x
y
1
a2 b2
l m n 0
only one arbitary constant will be left (size is same)
degree of differential equation will be ‘1’
60. 9
3
Sol. 1 x x 2
x3
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
3
1 x4 4 3 1
1 x 1 x
1 x
n
Coefficient of x in expansion of 1 x
r n r 1
is Cr
61. 2
Sol. For any line in case of hyperbola we know that PQ PQ
PQ PQ PP PQ P
1 2
PQ PQ PP PQ
P
Q
62. 8
k k
3 4 1 0 2 4
Sol.
1 1 0 1 1 2
2
1 0 2 4 2 – 4
k 1 2 as 1 0
0 1 – 2
1 2k 4k
k 1 2k
n n n(n 1) 2n(n 1)
k
k 1
A n(n 1)
n n(n 1)
2
n
k 2
Let A n 64
k 1
n8
63. 8
Sol. x/9 = x/11 =I
I x / 9 I 1, I x / 11 I 1, Solution is possible only when 11I 9I+9
9
0 I
2
4
Total number of solution (9-2I)-1=24
I 0
64. 2
Sol. f ( x) 2 x x0
2 x x 0
Hence minimum value of f ( x) 2
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15 AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
65. 3
1 / 2 sin 2 (n 1) sin 2 n
Sol. f (n 1) f (n) d
0 sin 2
/2 /2 / 2
1 sin(2n 1) 1 sin 2n cos d
d 0 cos 2 n d
0
sin 0
sin
/2 /2
1 sin 2n cos d 1
2 (cos cos 3 cos(2n 1)) cos d
0
sin 0
/2
1
(1 cos 2) (cos 2 cos 4) (cos(2n 2) cos 2n)d
0
/2
1 1
d 2
0
1
f ( n 1) f ( n )
2
n 1
f ( n) (as f(1)= )
2 2
f (15 f (3)
Hence, =3
f (15) f (9)
66. 3
2r 3
Sol. General term Tr
3r 1.r(r 1)
1 1
Tr r
r 1
3 .r 3 .(r 1)
1 1
T1
3 1 32 2
1 1
T2 2
3
3 2 3 3
1 1
Tn
3n n 3n 1 (n 1)
1 1
Let Sn = T1 + T2 + …………+ Tn = n1
3 1 3 (n 1)
1 k 1
lim Sn 0 k3
x 3 9 3
SECTION – D
67. 00003.50
1
Sol. The function u f x
is discontinuous at the point x 1 . The function
x 1
1 1
y g u 2 is discontinuous at u 2 and u 1
u u 2 u 2 u 1
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AITS-CRT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
1 1
When u 2, u 2 x
x 1 2
1
When u 1, 1 x 2 . Hence, the composite function y g f x is discontinuous at
x 1
three points x 1/ 2,1, 2 .
68. 00011.40
1 1 1
xb 1 x b ln x
Sol. Let I b 0 ln x dx I' b b
0 ln x dx 0 x dx
1
xb 1 1 db
Or I' b I b ln b 1 c
b 1 0 b 1 b 1
If b 0, then I b 0 c 0. Hence, I b ln b 1
69. 00265.00
Sol. The number of ways when number student falled in any examination =(23 -1)3
The number of ways when out of above cases atleast are subject was not cleaned by any
students 3C1 (3) 3
The number of ways when out of above cases atleast any two subjects were not cleaned by any
3
student 3C 2 (1)
3 3 3
So required cases ( 2 1) 3C1 3 3C 2 = 265
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER –1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C.
Section–A (01 – 10, 21 – 30, 41 – 50) contains 30 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks
for wrong answer.
Section–B (11 – 12, 31 – 32, 51 – 52) contains 6 Match the following Type questions. Each
question having 4 statements in Column I & 5 statements in Column II with any given statement
in Column I having correct matching with one or more statement (s) given in Column II. Each
statement carries +2 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section–C (13 – 20, 33 – 40, 53 – 60) contains 24 Numerical based questions with answers as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
V
Vo 4Vo
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3 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
v 02
(A) Acceleration of m 1 just after the velocity given is
1
v 02
(B) Acceleration of m 1 just after the velocity given is
1 2
(C) Radius of curvature of path of m2 just after the velocity given is 1
(D) Radius of curvature of path of m2 just after the velocity given is 2 1
4. In the circuit shown there is steady state with the switch closed. 3
The switch is opened at t = 0. Choose the correct option(s).
Given : 24 V, C1 3F and C2 2F 9 C1
(A) The voltage across C1 before the switch is open, is 12V S
(B) The voltage across C1 after a long time after the switch is
open, is 12V
(C) The voltage across C2 after a long time after the switch is C2 6
open, is 24V
(D) The voltage across C2 before the switch is open, is 8V
5. Energy liberated in the de – excitation of hydrogen atom from 3rd level to 1st level falls on a photo-
cathode. Later when the same photo – cathode is exposed to a spectrum of some unknown
hydrogen like gas, excited to 2nd energy level, it is found that the de – Broglie wavelength of the
fastest photoelectrons, now ejected has decreased by a factor of 3. For this new gas, difference
of energies of 2nd Lyman line and 1st Balmer line found to be 3 times the ionization potential of the
hydrogen atom. Select the correct statement(s):
(A) The gas is lithium
(B) The gas is helium
(C) The work function of photo – cathode is 8.5 eV
(D) The work function of photo – cathode is 5.5 eV
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
36 V
9. A t = 0, two particles B & C are located at the origin of the coordinate system. Then they start
moving simultaneously. B moves under a constant acceleration of 2kˆ m / s2 with an initial velocity
of 8ˆjm / s . Particle C moves with constant velocity V o in such a way that B & C collides at t = 4
sec. Then mark the incorrect statement(s).
(A) v o 8ˆj 4kˆ m / s
(B) position vector of location where two particles collide is 16iˆ 32kˆ m.
(C) both (A) & (B) are correct
(D) It is not possible that B & C collide with each other for any value of V o
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5 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – B
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have
to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II
are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
MORE statement(s) in Column II.
(D) a4 (s) R r ˆi r ˆj
2
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Column – I Column - II
(A) Work done by gravity on water + (p) 3 3
cube system 10 4 Joule
2
(B) Work done by tension on the cube (q) 3 3
10 4 Joule
2
(C) Work done by gravity on water (r) 3
104 Joule
2
(D) Work done by gravity on the cube (s) 2 3 104 Joule
(t) 40 3 10 4 Joule
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
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7 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
14. A man crosses a river of width d. Current flow speed is v. Speed of swimmer relative to water is v.
Man always heads towards the point exactly opposite to the starting point at the another bank
(relative to water). If radius of curvature of the path followed by the swimmer just after he start
swimming is n 2d, then the value of n is.
15. The following measurement are obtained on a single phase load V = 220 V 1%. I = 5.0 A 1%
and W = 555 W 2%. If the power factor is calculated using these measurements, the worst case
error in the calculated power factor in percent is______________. (Give answer up to one
decimal place.)
16. A small ball of density 4o is left from the surface of liquid. The density of liquid varies as
o 1 ay , where y is height of liquid from the surface and o, a are constants. The time-
2
period of oscillation of ball is found to be sec. Find K [a = 2 m-1, g = 10 ms-2]. Neglect
K
viscosity]
17. The volume of glass vessel is 1000 cc at 200C. What volume of mercury should be poured into it
at this temperature so that the volume of the remaining space does not change with temperature
is 10 n cc. Coefficient of cubical expansion of mercury and glass are 1.8 10 4 / 0 C and
9.0 106 / 0 C respectively. Find the value of n?
19. A gas containing hydrogen like ions with atomic number z, emits photons in transition (n + 2)
n, where n = z. These photons fall on a metallic plate and eject electrons having minimum de-
broglie wavelength of 5 Å. Find the value of ‘z’ if the work function of metal is 4.2 eV. [Take h =
6.625 10-34 J-s, mass of electron = 9.1 10-31 kg]
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
21. The distribution of molecular kinetic energy at two temperature is as shown in the following graph.
300 K
Relative number of
particular energy
molecules with a
500 K
Ea (Energy)
Which of the following conclusions are correct ?
(A) The number of molecules with energy Ea or greater is proportional to the shaded area for
each temperature.
(B) The number of molecules with energy Ea or less is proportional to the shaded area for each
temperature.
(C) The number of molecules with energy Ea is the mean of all temperatures.
(D) The graph follows the Maxwell – Boltzmann energy distribution law.
22. How much charge must be supplied to a cell for the electrolytic production of 245 gram NaClO4
from NaClO3 ? Because of the side reaction, the anode efficiency for the desired reaction is 60 %.
5
(A) 6.43 10 C (B) 6.67 F
6
(C) 6.43 10 C (D) 66.7 F
23. In which of the following pairs of solutions will the values of the van’t Hoff factor be the same ?
(A) 0.05 M K 4 Fe CN 6 and 0.10 M FeSO4
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9 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
25. On treatment of hard water with zeolite, sodium ions get exchanged with
2
(A) Ca ions (B) H ions
2
(C) Mg ions (D) OH ions
28. 1. Hg
2
CH CH + 2CH3COOH
2. (300 - 4000C)
Products
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
(C) O (D) OH
Me
Et
(CH2)5 C (CH2)5 C
OH
CH2 CH2
(C) CH (D) The starting compound is recovered
(CH2)5 C
CH
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11 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – B
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have
to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II
are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
MORE statement(s) in Column II.
(t) 0
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
33. Find number of basic radicals among the following cations, which can form soluble complex on
adding excess of NH3 solution.
Pb2aq , Cd 2aq , Mn2aq , Ni2aq , Fe3aq , Zn2aq , Agaq
35. How many moles of CH3MgBr will consume when it reacts with following compound
O
C O CH3 O
HO C Cl
O O O
HS C Br
CN O
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13 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
, , ,
,
-
37. O O
KOH(aq)
CH3 C CH3 + CH3 CH2 C CH3
Calculate total number of aldol condensation product (s) including stereoisomers.
238 214
38. The total number of α & β particles emitted in the nuclear reaction 92 U
82 Pb
10
39. In 1 litre saturated solution of AgCl K SP AgCl 1.6 10 , 0.1 mol of CuCl [Ksp(CuCl) =
x
1.0 10-6] is added. The resultant concentration of Ag+ in the solution is 1.6 10 . The value of
“x” is.
1
40. A gas diffuse times as fast as hydrogen. If its molecular mass is 10 y. What is the value of y.
5
Space for Rough work
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
3 2
41. A square matrix ‘A’ of order 3, satisfies the relation A – 6A + 7I = 0, where I is unit matrix of
order 3. Which of the following are correct
(A) trace of the matrix A is 6 (B) det(A) = 6
(C) trace of the matrix A is – 7 (D) det(A) = –7
42. From a variable point P, normal are drawn to the hyperbola xy = 16. If sum of slopes of normal is
equal to the sum of ordinates & abscissas of feet of normal, then the locus of point P is the curve
‘C’. Which of the following are correct.
(A) ‘C’ is a parabola of length of latus rectum 16
(B) ‘C’ is an ellipse of length of latus rectum 16
(C) ‘C’ is a hyperbola of length of latus rectum 16
(D) focus of ‘C’ is at (8, 0)
43. Five fair dice are tossed. Which of the following are true
(A) mean of no. of dice showing even nos. is 2.5
(B) varience of no. of disc showing even nos. is 1.25
1
(C) probability that same nos. appeared on all the 5 dice is
64
(D) probability that atleast two dice show even number, if atleast one die show even number is
26
31
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15 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
2018 2019
45. If g x lim n x n x n ; x 0 then choose the correct option(s)
n
2
(A) the number of solution(s) of the equation g x e 2019 x is 2
2
(B) the number of solution(s) of the equation g x e 2019 x is 2
(C) the number of solution(s) of the equation g x e 2018 is 1
(D) the number of solution(s) of the equation g x e 2018 is 1
46. For fixed positive the locus of the point z satisfying the equation |3z – i| = |z + 2| can be
(A) a straight line (B) a circle
(C) a rectangular hyperbola (D) an ellipse
48. N is the number of ways in which 8 different books can be distributed among 3 students, if each
student receives at least 2 books. Then N is divisible by
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
49. Six people P1 P2 P3 P4 P5 P6 are going to sit in a row on a bench. P1 & P2 are adjacent. P3 doesn’t
want to sit adjacent to P4 . P5 and P6 can sit anywhere. Number of ways in which these six people
can be seated, is less or equal to
(A) 200 (B) 144
(C) 120 (D) 56
50. Plane ' ' meets the co-ordinate axes (X, Y & Z axes respectively) at A, B & C. If areas of
OAB, OBC & OCA are 3, 6 & 4 units respectively. Now which of the following are correct.
(A) Area of ABC 61 Square unit
(B) Equation of plane ' ' may be 6 x 4y 3z 12
(C) Equation of plane ' ' may be 6 x 4 y 3z 12
(D) Volume of tetrahedron OABC is 2 unit
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
SECTION – B
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have
to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II
are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
MORE statement(s) in Column II.
(t) 16
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17 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
53. A variable point ‘p’ moving inside a square whose co-ordinates of vertices are (1, 1), (-1, 1),
(-1, -1) & (1, -1) in such a way that ‘p’ is closer to the diagonals of square compare to the co-
ordinate axes. If A is the area of the region transversed by p the [A] is ([] is GIF)
e x 3 ln x 2 e2 a
54. If
1 3
x ln x x
dx
b
ln e 2 1 where a & b are positive integers. Then value of a + b is
4 4
55. The number of real roots of 6 x 8 x 16 is
x2 y 2
56. Number of points on the ellipse 1 from which perpendicular tangents can be drawn to
2 10
x2 y 2
the hyperbola 1 is
6 2
57. Number of principal solution(s) of the equation sin x cos x sin 2 x cos 2 x sin3 x 1 is
58. ‘K’ is a three digit number which is no. of ways of distributing 10 identical balls in 5 different boxes
such that no. two adjacent boxes remain empty. ‘P’ is prime number by which sum of digits of ‘K’
is divisible. The value Pmax Pmin is
59. The sum of the coefficients of all the even powers of x in the expansion of (2x 2 – 3x + 1)11 is
P1m P2n where P1 & P2 are prime numbers, P1 < P2 and m & n are positive integers. The value of
P1 P2
is
nm
2
60. I(, r) is the intercept made by the circle z z z r 0 on the real axis on complex plane,
5
where r is a real number and may be real. The value of I i ,4 is
2
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER –1
SECTION – A
1. BD
Sol. T cos mgeff ..... i
m 2
T sin ........... ii
sin
By (i)
mgeff cos mg qE 2
T mg 1
cos2 g2 mg
2 qE 2
g
m
By (i) & (ii)
mgeff m 2 qE
sin geff sin tan
cos sin m g
2
1 qE q2E 2
K.E m
2 m g 2mg
2. ABD
Sol. By first low of thermodynamics
Q = W + U
2Q = U ……………. (i)
5R
2 n C TB TA n
2
TB TA
5R
C
4
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
By (i)
1 1 5 5
Q U 6Po Vo 4Po Vo Po Vo
2 2 2 2
sinceU = -2W, therefore temperature goes on increasing from A to B
3. AC
Sol. a
P
m1
m2 v0
m1g m 2 g
m2 a
m1
m2 a
v 20
m2
m2 g
m2 v 02
T m2 a m2 g .............. 1
for m1
T m1g m1a ............... 2
m 2 v 02
from 1 and m1a m1g m2 a m2 g
v 20
m2
v 20
a
m1 m2 1
ROC of m2
m1 v 02
T m2 g m1g m2 g
1
m1 v 20 v 20
m 2
1 R
m
R 2 1 1
m1
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3 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
4. BD
24 4
Sol. i A
396 3
4
V1 9 12V
3
4
V2 6 8V
3
at t
V2 V1 24
5. BC
1 1 1
Sol. E0 z 2 1 E0 z 2 3E0
9 4 9
z2
1 / 2 3
1
KE1 E 0 1
9
1
KE 2 E0 z 2 1
4
1
KE 8.5 eV
2
6. ACD
Sol. using Kirchhoff’s loop law
di
3i 1 3i 36 0
dt
di
36 6i .............. i
dt
3i 6 i i1 36 0
3i 2i1 12 ........ ii
di1
12 4i1
by (i) and (ii) dt
on solving
i1 3 1 e 4 t
i 2 1 e 4t 4
from (ii)
power supply by battery = 36(2i – i1) = 36(9 – e-4t)
7. C
T
Sol. U = up thrust = A Pw g
2 U B
T + U = 12 g + 24 g C q
Taking torque about B,
U cos 12g cos 24g cos A
2 4 2 24
12
8. BC
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
9. BCD
Sol. vB 8ˆj 2tkˆ
v C v o v x ˆi v y ˆj v zkˆ
rB 8tjˆ t 2kˆ
rC v x tiˆ v y tjˆ v z tkˆ
At 4 sec, rB rC v x 0,v y 8m / s & v z 4m / s
v o 8ˆj 4kˆ m / s
10. AB
2
Sol. x and
2
t
SECTION – B
11. A q; B r; C p; D s.
Sol. For (B): a 2 rˆj 2r ˆi R ˆi R 2r ˆi rˆj
For (C): a3 r ˆi 2rjˆ R ˆi R r ˆi 2rjˆ
For (D): a 4 rˆj 2r ˆi R ˆi R 2 r ˆi rˆj
12. A p; B q; C r; D s.
Sol. C.M. of the cube comes down through a height of 3 m while C. M. Of displaced water goes up
3
by a height of m.
2
Loss in PE of cube = 2000 10 3 Joule.
2 3 10 4 Joule.
3 3
Gain in PE of water = 1000 10 104 Joule
2 2
Using work energy theorem:
W r + W Gravity = 0
SECTION – C
13. 5
m 2
Sol. mg
4 3
3g
4
m 3 3g
F . .
2 4 4
9mg
F 5N
32
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5 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
14. 2
dr
Sol. v
dt
rd
v
dt
2
dv vd v v
dv vd a v v
dt dt d d
B
d
r
d
v v
v
A
v
2v
a v
450
ar a sin 45
a
v2
2v 2 2d
2 2d
15. 4
Sol. V 220 1%
I 5 1%
W 555 2%
W VI.cos
W
p.f cos
V.I
555 2% 555
p.f cos 4%
220 1% 5 1% 220 5
p.f cos 0.5 4%
16. 5
dv
Sol. Fnet mg B m mg vg
dt
dv ga 3 2 2
y SHM, T sec
dt 4 a ga 5
4
K 5
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
17. 5
0 0
Sol. Let volume of glass vessel at 20 C is Vg and volume of mercury at 20 C is Vm
So volume of remaining space is = Vg - Vm
It is given constant so that
Vg Vm Vg' Vm'
Where V0' and Vm' are final volumes.
Vg Vm Vg 1 g Vm 1 Hg Vg g Vm Hg
100 9 10 6
Vm Vm 50 cc.
1.8 10 4
18. 6
Sol.
a v
2
v r /R
a
g
vr
a = acceleration of tube just before the ball hits the floor
v r = velocity of ball w.r.t. tube
v = velocity of tube w.r.t. ground
as floor is smooth, acceleration of CM of the system in horizontal
direction is zero
v2
m a r 2m a 0
R
1 1
using ME conservation for the system in ground frame, mgR m vr2 v 2 2m v 2
2 2
4g
on solving, a
6
19. 2
1 1
Sol. E 13.6 2
2 z 2 eV
n 2 n
z2 4 z 1 13.6
E 13.6 2
1 2
eV
z 2 z 2
energy of electron,
h2 h
K 2 6eV
2 m 2mK
Energy E 6 4.2 eV
4 13.6 z 1 z 1 3 2
2
10.2 2
z 2,
z 2 z 2 16 3
z 2
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7 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
20. 3
60o
r
r
ray r 60o
r
60o ray
1 60 o r 60 o r 2 60o r
nd
2 ray
2 60o r 2r 60o r 2 60o 2r
2 31 r 30o
sini sin60o
3
sinr sin30o
n 3
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
21. AD
Sol. Facts
22. AB
Sol. ClO4 2 H 2e ClO3 H 2O
23 35.5 64
Eq. mass of NaClO4 61.25
2
245
No. of equivalents of NaClO4 4 4.0 F
61.25
The anode efficiency = 60 %
4.0
No. of faradays 100 6.67 F
60
23. BD
Sol. Both pairs in (b) and (d) produce the same total number of ions after dissociation.
24. ABD
Sol. Such coordination is exhibited by compounds which have BCC Lattice structure.
25. AC
Sol. Fact based.
26. ABD
Sol. Facts
27. AD
Sol. Facts
28. BD
Sol. 1 Hg 2
+ 300°C +
CH CH 2CH3 CH3CH(OOCH3)2 CH3COOCOCH3 CH3CHO
2. C
29. AB
Sol.
COOH
+ KMnO4 + +
6 CO 2 2H2
OH
COOH
+ KMnO4 +
2 2H2
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9 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
30. BC
Sol. The gem – dihalide is obtained initially.
SECTION – B
31. (A) → (p,t); (B) → (q, r); (C) → (p,t); (D) → (q, t)
2
Sol. (A) Cathode : Pb 2e
Pb s
Cl2 g 2e
Anode : 2Cl
H 2 g 2OH
(B) Cathode : H 2O 2e
Cl2 g 2e
Anode : 2Cl
Ag s
(C) Cathode : Ag e
aq e
Anode : Ag s
Ag
H 2 g 2OH
(D) Cathode : 2 H 2O 2e
Anode : 2 H 2O
O2 4 H 4e
34. 1
Sol. x = 6, y = 6
35. 9
Sol. CH3MgBr acts as both base and nucleophile.
36. 3
Sol. -
+
, ,
37. 9
Sol. O
O
, ,
O
(E & Z) (E & Z)
O
O O
(E & Z)
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
38. 8
Sol. Facts
39. 7
Sol. Solubility of CuCl is higher than AgCl
Cl Cl K sp of CuCl 103 M
CuCl
40. 5
1
Sol. rg .rH 2
5
2
Mg rH 2
2 5 25
M H 2 rg
M g 2 25 50
10 y 50
y 5
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11 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
41. AD
Sol. Tr(A) = sum of the roots
det(A) = product of the roots
42. AD
4
4 t t2
Sol. Let P , & foot of normal 4t , so,
t 4t
4t 4 t 3 t 4 0
Let t1, t2, t3 & t4 are roots
4
then 4t1 t12
t1
2
16
Locus of P is x2 = 16(x + y)
43. ABCD
Sol.
X = no of dice showing even no. P = probability
0 5 5
3 1
1
2 6
2
4
3 5 1 1 5
4 C1. . 5
2
2 2
5 5
5 1 10
C2 . 5
2
2
5
5 1 10
C3 . 5
2
2
5
5 1 5
C4 . 5
2
2
5 5
1 1
2
2
5
5 10 10 5 1
1. 5
2. 5 3. 5 4. 5 5.
2 2 2 2 2
1 80 5
5 5 20 30 20 5 2.5
2 32 2
1 25
2
25
5 40 90 80 25 4
240 25 240 200 40 5
32 4 32 32 4
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
5
1 5
1 5
2
2 32 1 5 26
5
1 32 1 31
1
2
44. ABCD
x y
Sol. ln x ln y y 1 dy ln y ln x x 1 dx
x y y x
ln dy dx dy ln dx dy dx
y x x y
x y
d y ln d x ln
y x
So, a = 1, b = 1, c = 1, d = -1
45. CD
2018 2019
Sol. g x lim n x n x n .0
n
1
Let n as n , t 0
t
x 2018 t x 2019 t 0
g x lim
t 0 t 0
Apply L’ hospital Rule
g(x) = -ln(x)
46. AB
i
Sol. 3z z2
3
For = 3, it’s a straight line, else circle
47. BCD
Sol. orthogonal straight lines 2 - = 0, = 2
2h 2 3hk 2k 2 7
2h k h 2k 7
48. ABCD
Sol. Groups 2, 2, 4 or 2, 2, 3
8! 8!
3!
2!2!4!2! 2!3!3!2!
49. AB
Sol. Total ways
3! 2! 4C2 2! 144
50. ABCD
2 2 2 2
Sol. ar ABC ar OAB ar OBC ar OCA
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13 AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Z
C
4
0
3
2
A
X B
Y
x y z
If A & C are on positive axes & B is on negative axis then equation plane is 1
2 3 4
x y z
If A & B are on positive axes & C is on negative axis then equation of plane is 1
2 3 4
SECTION – B
51. ( A) (q ), (B ) ( p ), (C ) (t ), (D ) ( r )
Sol. (A).
Let r ai b j ck
r 1 a2 b2 c 2 1
p q r 3a 7b c
59
2
10
max
(D). X p q & X 1
52. ( A) ( p, q, r , s ), (B ) ( p, q, r ), (C ) ( p, q, r , s, t ), (D ) ( p, q )
1 3 3 1
Sol. (A). I 4
sin3 x cos3 xdx sin xdx
0 16 0 24
5 7 11
4
6
(B). I 0dx 6 1dx 5 0dx 6
1dx 76 2dx 11 1dx
0
6 6 6 6
1
(C). I sin xdx 2
3
1 x3 1 2 1 2
(D). I dx x 2 x 1 dx
0 x 1 0
x 1
SECTION – C
53. 2
Sol. A required area is the shaded region = 4 2
2 1
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
y
(-1,1) (1,1)
o
1
22
2
(-1,-1) (1,-1)
54. 5
e e e
x 3 lnx x 2 x 2 2 x2 2
Sol. 1 x 3 ln x x dx 1 xdx 1 x 3 ln x xdx
1 2
e e
xdx x x 3 dx
1 1 1
ln x 2
x
55. 2
Sol. put 7 – x = t
then given equation becomes
t 4 6t 2 7 0 t 1
7 x 1
So x = 6 or 8
56. 4
Sol. Solve director circle of hyperbola with ellipse
57. 6
Sol. cos x sin x sin 2 x cos 2 x sin3 x 1
sin x sin3 x cos x sin 2x 1 cos 2 x
4 sin x 4 sin3 x cos x 1 2 sin x 2cos 2 x
4 sin x 1 sin2 x 2cos 2 x cos x 1 2sin x 0
2cos 2
x cos x 1 2sin x 0
1 1
So, cosx 0, , sin x
2 2
58. 2
Sol. K = 771
Pmax = 5, Pmin = 3
59. 5
11 11
Sol. Sum =
2 1 2
3 1 1 2
2 1 3 1 1
2
= 3 610 = 210.311
60. 3
2
Sol. I , r 4r
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2018-19
PAPER –2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section–A (01 – 08, 21 – 28, 41 – 48) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have one or
more correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for wrong
answer.
Section–A (09 – 12, 29 – 32, 49 – 52) contains 12 paragraphs with each having 2 questions with
one or more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2
marks for wrong answer.
Section–C (13 – 20, 33 – 40, 53 – 60) contains 24 Numerical based questions with answers as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
1
(C) (D) 1
4
2. A body is moving along straight line such that it velocity represented through x and velocity
gradient is represented through y then relation between x and y for movement under constant
acceleration may be
(A) xy=const (B) x 2 y 2 const
(C) x 2 y 2 const (D) y 2 4ax
(B) For 0.2 1 block will move but wedge will not
(C) For 0.15 both will move
(D) It is not possible to move wedge without moving block over wedge
4. Let 1.0 kg of super cooled water at temp 10 C kept in a container and crushed ice at temp
20 C kept in another container. How much ice have to add the water so that whole water
freezes. Specific heat of water Sw 4.2 103 J / kg k . Specific heat of ice
Si 2.1 103 J / kg k . Latent heat of meeting ice L 336 kJ kg 1 meeting point 0 C.
Neglecting Heat capacity of vessel and surrounding.
(A) 14 kg (B) 7 kg
(C) 5 kg (D) can’t find
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3 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(A)
3 1 F
6 C
2
(B) Fll 2 3
C
(C)
3 1 F
r
6 C
(D) Fll 0
7. A solid metal cylinder rotates with angular speed about its axis of symmetry. The cylinder is in a
region having uniform magnetic field B along its axis then
(A) Electric field inside cylinder will be proportional to r distance from axis of rotation if
eB
m
eB
(B) Electric field, inside cylinder is radially away from axis of rotation of
m
(C) Charge density inside the cylinder may be positive, negative or zero accordingly and
direction of magnetic field
eB
(D) For and B charge density inside cylinder is zero.
m
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions of each
paragraph. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). One OR More than One of these four
options is/are correct.
A small insect having mass m is in rest at one end of a horizontal platform placed
inside a circular cage as shown in figure. Circular cage is pivot about its centre and
cage inner surface is smooth. Now insect start its motion on platform such that x
platform and cage is in rest. Radius of cage is R.
h
A B
C
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5 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
A charged spherical shell of radius r is connected to a capacitor of capacity C through two resistances
R1 and R2 as shown in figure. Initially charged on sphere is Q0 .
12. Heat energy developed across resistor R1 after long time interval as switch gets closed.
Q0 2c R1 R1Q0 2 4 0 r
(A) (B)
8 0 r c 4 0 r R1 R2 c R1 R2 c 4 0 r
Q2 Q0 2 R1c
(C) 0 (D)
2c 4 0 r c 4 0 r R1 R2
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
13. If a tap above empty rectangular basin able to fill it in time t1=3 min and small hole at bottom able
to make it completely empty from filled stage in time t2=2 min. Now both tap and hole are opened
simultaneously (At initial stage basin is completely empty). The maximum height up to which
H
liquid may filled in basin is 0 find n H0 Height of ba sin
n
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
14. A non uniform sphere of radius R=50 cm accelerating over a rough horizontal surface with
a 10 m s 2 and angular velocity 5 2 rad s 1 such that it rolls without slipping over surface. If
1
minimum coefficient of friction for given motion is . Then k (position of C.O.M is given in
k
figure) is
OO'=R/2
O' O
a
O=Geometric centre
O’=C.O.M
V0 V
16. A small positively charged ball of mass m is suspended by insulator thread of negligible mass.
Another similar positively charged small ball moved very slowly from large distance until it is in
original position of first ball. As a result first ball rises by height h. Work done in this process is
nmgh then n is
17. An observer moving with uniform velocity towards a stationary sound source observes frequency
f=170 Hz over a distance of x=80 m. If frequency of sound is f 0=160 Hz and sound travel with
speed c 340 ms 1. Then duration of beep emitted by source is n. Find n.
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7 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
18. Water drop is stuck between two plates of glass. Distance between plates of glass is d where
diameter of water drop disc D>>d. If surface tension of water is T and angle of contact is 0 .
D 2 1
Force between plates is T x . Find K.
d K
19. One night a person of height h=1.8 m is standing on the bank of a straight canal. There is no wind
and no ripples on water surface. On the opposite bank a lamp is installed at height H=5.4 m on a
lamppost. Light emanated from the lamp, appears as a bright spot after reflection from the water
surface. When a person starts walking along the bank the spot appears to him moving at constant
20. Let current I uniformly distributed uniformly over circumference of hollow cylinder of L and radius
I2
R. If L>>R then force enerted by one half of cylinder on other is 0 2 L. Find K.
K R
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
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9 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
14 SOCl2
24. CH2 CH CH2 OH Major product is
14
(A) CH2 CH CH2 Cl (B) CH2 CH 14 CH2 Cl
14
(C) (A) and (B) are in equal ratio (D) CH3 CH CH3
|
Cl
High T & P
25. A 3B is a first order reaction. If A is a strong monoprotic acid and B is strong diprotic
acid and reaction kinetic is studied by using a standard solution of NaOH required to neutralise
reaction mixture at different instant of time, when initially we had taken some concentration of A.
Now, it was observed that volume required after 970 sec was double that required initially, then
half life of reaction is
(A) 485 sec (B) 1942 sec
(C) 3010 sec (D) 971 sec
26. Which of the following is/are true about the salt bridge?
(A) doesn’t participate chemically in the cell reaction
(B) ensures mixing of the two electrolytic solution
(C) the ionic mobility of cation and anion of salt in salt bridge must be same
(D) in IUPAC cell notation, it is not written if the electrolyte is same in both half cell having equal
concentration
27. Which of the following overlapping can be of two types either , or , or , with
appropriate internuclear axis as per the requirement of overlapping?
(A) dx2 y2 dx2 y2 (B) s p x
(C) dxy dxy (D) pz p z
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions of each
paragraph. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). One OR More than One of these four
options is/are correct.
All the boron trihalides except BI3 may be prepared by direct reaction between the elements. Boron
thrihalides consist of trigonal – planar BX3 molecules. Unlike the halides of the other elements in the
group they are monomeric in the gas, liquid and solid states, BF3 and BCl3 are gases, BBr3 is a volatile
liquid and BI3 is a solid. Boron trihalides are Lewis acids because they form Lewis complexes with
suitable bases.
BF3 g NH3 g F3B NH3 g
However, boron chlorides, bromides and iodides are susceptible (sensitive) to protolysis by mild proton
sources such as water, alcohols and even amines for example BCl3 undergoes rapid hydrolysis.
BCl3 g 3H2 O B OH3 aq. 3HClaq.
It is supposed that the first step in the above reaction is the formation of the complex Cl 3B OH2
which then eliminates HCl and reacts further with water.
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11 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
The structure of unit cell of perovskite - a salt of lanthanum (La), manganese (Mn) and oxygen (O), has
Mn+2 at each corner, oxide on every edge centre and lanthanum ion at the body centre.
32. Considering the closed packed arrangement of ions, which of the following statement regarding
the ionic radius is the most appropriate?
(A) rLa4 rO2 (B) rLa4 rMn2
(C) edge length of unit cell = rMn2 rO2 (D) None of these
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
34. Assuming covalent radii to be additive property. What is the iodine – iodine distance in p-di-iodo
0
benzene. Given the C – C bond length in C6H6 are 1.40 A and covalent radius of iodine and
0 0
carbon atom are 1.33 A and 0.77 A .
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
36. 2 mols of an ideal gas of unknown heat capacity are in a piston fitted cylinder at 300K. The piston
has a mass on the top of it that supplies a constant pressure. The piston is then brought into
contact with a thermostat. Heat flows into the system causing the gas to both expand and change
temperature. After the temperature has equilibriated, the work done by the gas on the
surrounding was found to be 3.32 kJ. Also 14.94 kJ of heat flows into the system. What is the
atomicity of the gas. Take R = 8.3 J K-1 mol-1
0
37. At 25 C, ksp of AgCN is 4 10 16 while ka of HCN is 4 10 10. The value of molar solubility of
AgCN in 0.01 M HNO3 is 10 x. The value of x is..........
38. A certain hydrocarbon effuses 2 times slower as compared to N2 gas under identical
conditions. The number of carbon atoms in one molecule of hydrocarbon is ‘p’ and index of
hydrogen deficiency is ‘q’. Find the value of 'p q'.
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13 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
2
1 2x 1 1 1 x
41. The value of f x tan sin1 2 2 cos 2
is
2 1 x 1 x
2x 2x
(A) f x , If x 0, 1 (B) f x , If x , 1
1 x2 1 x2
2x
(C) Not finite, if x > 1 (D) f x , If x > 1
1 x2
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
2
44. If f x 1 x 2
x 1 f x 1 x 4 x 2 1 0 is true for all x R 0 , then which of the
following statement(s) is/are true?
(A) f x 2, x R 0
(B) f(x) has local maxima at x = -1
(C) f(x) has local minima at x = 1
(D) The value of definite integral cos x f x dx 0
45. Let a, b, c, d be non – zero distinct digits. The number of 4 digit numbers ‘abcd’ such that ab + cd
is even is divisible by
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 7 (D) 11
46. In a triangle ABC, if tan A = 2sin2C & 3cosA = 2sinB. sinC then possible value of C is/are
(A) (B)
8 6
(C) (D)
4 3
47. Let the function f(x) be trice differentiable and satisfies f f x 1 x x 0, 1
1
4
If J f x dx and f '' 0
0 5
Then which of the following is(are) trure?
1 2
(A) f f 1
3 3
1
(B) J
2
1 3
(C) f '' x 0 has at least one root in x ,
4 4
1 4
(D) f '' x 0 at least one root in x ,
2 5
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15 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
x2 y2
48. If P is any point on the ellipse 1, whose foci are S1 & S2. Let PS1S2 & PS2S1
a2 b2
then,
(A) PS1 PS2 2a, if a > b
(B) PS1 PS2 2b, if a < b
1 e
(C) tan .tan
2 2 1 e
a2 b2
(D) tan .tan a a2 b2
2 2 b2
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions of each
paragraph. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). One OR More than One of these four
options is/are correct.
x 1
Let g x x C .eCx & f x te 2t 1 3t 2 2 dt
0
f ' x
If L lim is non – zero finite number.
x g' x
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
y f x is parabola of the form f x x 2 bx 1, b is a constant. The tangent line is drawn at the point
where f(x) cuts y – axis, also touches x 2 y 2 r. It is also given that at least one tangent can be drawn
from point P to y = f(x), where D is a point at which y x is non – differentiable R.
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
dy y
53. Let y f t be a solution to the differential equation 2ty t 2 , then 16 lim is
dt t t
1 1
54. If & 2 , 0 are the roots of the quadratic equation x 2 2 a 1 x a 3 0,
then the sum of integral value of ‘a’.
55. If A & B are points on the parabola y 2 4ax with vertex O such that OA is perpendicular to OB
4 4
r13 r23
and having length r1 & r2 respectively, then find the value of
2 2
2 r13 r23 a2
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17 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
56. Let P(a, b, c) be any point on the plane 3x 2y z 7 then find the least value of
2 a2 b2 c 2 .
57. If f(x) is continuous function and
x 2
F x 2t 3 . f x dx dt,
0 t
Then F|| 2 / f 2 is..............
58. Let A and B be two 3 3 invertible matrices such that A is an idempotent matrix and
12 13 14
det adj B det A det A A T det adjA I L
sin2 x
In 1 t 3 dt
0
where L lim
x x
e
t
1 t tan t t 1 cos t dt
0
60. T1, T2 & T3 are three different taxies, each having 3 duly numbered seats for the passenger.
Seven passenger are to accommodated in these taxies. If probability that taxies T1 & T2 are used
m
to their full capacity is , m, n N, then the least value of n 4m is............
n
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2018-19
PAPER –2
SECTION – A
1. B
N
Sol. Ndt mv 1 e Cos
0 (1)
Ndt m V V sin (2)
x 0 fr
Vx V0 sin V0 1 e Cos
eV0 cos 1 e
tan q
Vx 1 e
2. AB
Sol. Graph must be hyperbolic.
3. BCD
Sol. N
N Fr
m
fr
m
mg fr mg N
N mg N cos sin
N sin fr cos
(for inclined plane to move over horizontal surface)
4. B
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
6. ABC
Sol.
1 2 3
3 1 3 2 2 1
V U R2 R1
7. ABCD
Sol. eVB eE
ex B eE
E Bx
Ex
8. C
/ 2
20 m 20 m
Sol. E .m.f () m 3 Rd 4 R 3
0 4 R
0 m sin
q 4 R 3
m
o
9. A
Sol. Motion of insect will be S.H.M as Plank is always horizontal N1 N2
fr h N x (1) h
fr ma (2) fr
N1
mg
x
10. D
Sol. Motion of insect will be S.H.M as Plank is always horizontal N1 N2
fr h N x (1) h
fr ma (2) fr
N1
mg
x
11. C
Sol. R.C circuit
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3 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
12. A
Sol. R.C circuit
SECTION – C
13. 9
dx 1 dx
Sol. k x
dt
in T1 dt out
dx dx dx
dt net dt in dt out
14. 6
Sol.
O R/2
O
15. 5
Sol. Process will turn from endothermic to exothermic at point where slope of P-V graph satisfy the
slope of adiabatic curve for same gas.
Y P P0 P
i.e. and P 0 V P0
V V0 V0
16. 3
Sol. Total g Electro External
{Final state is also in equilibrium}
17. 4
v v ob
Sol. fab fo
v
v f
1 ob ob
v fo
f f
v ob ob o v
fo
o ob fLo fLob
fob fo
fo fob
Difference in time interval of beep observed and produced is no. of oscillation multiplied by .
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
t
t
ob
Hence beep produced for interval
t t 4 sec
18. 2
Sol. Air
Air
2T
Po Pw
R
2T
Pw Po
R
2T
Fnet Po A Po A
R
19. 3
Sol. BD l 2
F
CD l1
CDF and BB D are similar 2
BB BD
C
CF CD G
l h D
2 1 1
l1 h
ACB and BDE are similar A B
E
AC DE
l1 l 2 l2
B'
20. 4
0 2
Sol. Magnetic Pr essure
2
2
Force 0 Pr o sec tion area
2
I
2R
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5 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
21. BC
3 4
Sol. Fe 2 Fe CN6 Fe3 Fe CN 6
Fe 4 Fe CN6 Blue precipitate
3
4
3
Fe Fe CN 6 Fe 4 Fe CN 6 Blue precipitate
3
2 4
Fe Fe CN 6 Fe2 Fe CN6 White precipitate
3
Fe3 Fe CN6 Fe Fe CN 6 Brown colour
4
Cu2 Fe CN6 Cu2 Fe CN6 Brown colour
1
Fe3 S 2 O32 Fe S 2 O3
Fe2 S 4 O26
violet colour
22. ABCD
Sol. (I) has higher dipole moment than (II).
H3C H
C C
H Br
23. ABC
Sol. H OH
O
O - H2O 3OH-
OH - CHCl 3 C OH
Ph C H + CCl 3 H
Ph CCl 3 HO
NaOH
(cannizaro reaction) -H2O
H C OH
PhCH2OH + PhCOONa
O
-
OH
HCOONa
24. B
Sol. (B) is major due to 6-membered cyclic transition state.
25. C
Sol. A
3B
a 0 initially
ax 3x time' t '
v 0 a and v t a 5x
2.303 5v 0
k log
t 6v 0 v t
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
26. ACD
Sol. Fact
27. ACD
Sol. (A) dx2 y2 dx2 y2 can do or overlap
(B) s + px can do overlap
(C) dxy dxy can do or overlap
(D) pz p z can do or overlap
28. BD
Sol. Gas having higher critical temperature, shows higher extent of adsorption.
29. B
Sol. BF3 forms addition product with water
H2 O
H BF3 OH
BF3 H2 O H3 O BF3 OH
30. A
Sol. H3BO3 is monobasic and B OH4 is conjugate base of H3BO3. Also BF3 (electron deficient)
reacts with ether as:
R2 O BF3 R2 O BF3
31. D
Sol. In the nearest neighbour of Mn2+(0), there are six oxides (x) at the adjacent six edge centre,
hence CN of
Mn2+ = 6.
The nearest neighbour points to the body centre is the 12 edge centres where oxide ions (x) are
present, hence CN of Ln4+ = 12.
In the nearest neighbour of O2-(x) there are only two Mn2+ on the adjacent corners, hence CN of x
= 2.
32. B
a
Sol.
r O2 r Mn2 2
i
a
r O2 r Ln4 2
ii
From i and ii ,
r O2 r Ln4 r O2 r mn2
r Ln r Mn
4 2
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7 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – C
33. 7
Sol. K 2Cr2 O7 ,CuSO4 , H2 O2 ,Cl2 ,O3 ,FeCl3 ,HNO3
K 2Cr2 O7 7H2SO 4 6KI 4K 2 SO4 Cr2 SO4 3 3I2 7H2O
2CuSO 4 4KI Cu2I2 I2 2K 2SO 4
H2 O2 2KI
I2 2KOH
Cl2 2KI 2KCl I2
O3 2KI H2 O
2KOH I2 O2
2FeCl3 2KI 2FeCl2 I2 2KCl
8HNO3 6KI 6KNO3 2NO 4H2 O 3I2
2KMnO4 KI H2O KIO3 2MnO 2 2KOH
34. 7
Sol. I A
P
Q
or
O
I B
AB OA OB 2OA 2 OP PA
2 PQ PA OP PQ; OPQ is equilateral
2 PQ covalent radius of C covalet radius of I
0
2 1.40 0.77 1.33 7.0 A
35. 9
Sol. x = 2, y = 0, z = 3, w = 8.
36. 7
Sol. w 3320 Pext V nRt
3320
T 200
2 8.3
Q 14.94kJ nCp T
14.94 1000
Cp 37.35 Jk 1mol1
2 200
3
Also, Cp x R where x atomicity
2
Cp 3 37.35
x 1.5 3
R 2 8.3
37. 3
Sol. k sp
AgCN
H
Ag HCN; k eq
ka
0.01 x x x
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
k sp x2
k eq 10 6
ka 0.01 x
keq is sufficiently small, 0.01 –x 0.01
x 10 4 M
38. 4
Sol. Hydrocarbon is C4H8
rHC 1 MN2
rN2 2 MHC
MHC 28 2 56
24 2 8
DBE / DU 1
2
39. 4
Sol. O
Me O Me
Final product E is
x = 4 and y = 0 Me Me
O
O
40. 8
Sol. OH
O
H O
O H
HO OH
OH 5
pentasachharides derived from D - glucose
Each of the five monosachharides may be either -D-glucose or - D – glucose, thus total
pentasachharides possible = n = 25 = 32
32
Answer is 8
4
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9 AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
41. AC
Sol. Use formula of 2 tan1 x
42. ABCD
z2 z2
Sol. (A) zz z z 0 or z z
z 1 z 1
(B) z 4 5 let 3 5z
3 5 4 5 20
(C) z 2 a i 3 a 2 x iy
x 2 a & y 3 a2
2
x 2 y2 3
(D) z 1 a b ic & a2 b2 c 2 1
1 iz a ib
1 iz 1 c
43. ABC
2 2 2 2
Sol. a b c a b c 2 a.b 0
27
9 9 9 2 a.b 0 a.b
2
2
2 a 2 a.b 27
27
a.b 2
44. ABCD
x2 1 1
Sol. f x x ,x0
x x
45. ABD
Sol. Four odd Four even Three even Three odd Two even Two odd
5 C4 .4! 4 C4 .4! 4 C3 .5 C1.4! 4 C2 .5 C2 4 4
1584
46. CD
Sol. 3 cos A coa B C cos B C cos B C cos A
2cos A cos B C cos A 2C
2 tan A.sin2C cos2C
47. ABCD
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AITS-FT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
Sol. f f x 1 x f t 1 f 1 t
f t f 1 t 1
f x f 1 x 1
48. ABC
Sol. Facts
49. C
50. D
Sol. (for Q. 49-50)
1
L lim
xe 2x 1 3x 2 2
C 1
x
C xex e x
xe x
51. B
52. D
Sol (for Q. 51-52)
1
bmax 2, r
1 b2
SECTION – C
53. 8
Sol. 1st order linear DE
54. 5
Sol. f x x 2 2 a 1 x a 3
f 0 0 & f 2 0.
55. 8
4 4
r13 r23
Sol. 16
32 2
3
2
1r r2 a
56. 7
Sol. 3iˆ 2ˆj kˆ . a ˆi bjˆ ckˆ a2 b 2 c 2 9 4 1
57. 7
2
Sol. F' x 2x 3 f x dx
x
58. 5
Sol. Newton Leibnitz’s Rule
59. 4
Sol. Sum of AGP
60. 8
Sol. Facts
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER –1
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 183
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01– 07, 19 – 25, 37 - 43) contains 21 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 mark
for wrong answer
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.
Section-A (08 – 13, 26 – 31, 44 - 49) contains 18 questions. Each of 2 Tables with 3 Columns and
4 Rows has three questions. Column 1 will be with 4 rows designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV).
Column 2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column 3 will be with 4 rows
designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S).
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
Section-C (14 – 18, 32 – 36, 50 - 54) contains 15 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
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AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
(A) The cylinders will start pure rolling and keep on rolling without sliding
(B) At t = 9 second slipping will start
(C) Velocity of centre of mass of each sphere will keep on increasing
(D) After a certain value of F angular velocity of each sphere will become constant
3. A rod bent at right angel along its centre line, is placed on a rough A
horizontal fixed cylinder of radius R as shown in figure. Mass of rod is
2m and rod is in equilibrium. Assume that friction force on rod at A and R
B are equal in magnitude. Then: B
(A) Normal force applied by cylinder on rod at A is 3mg/2
(B) Normal force applied by cylinder on rod at B must be zero
(C) Friction force acting on rod at B is upward
(D) Normal force applied by cylinder on rod at A is mg
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3 AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
5. A bob of mass M is rotating on smooth horizontal table with constant angular speed
on a circular path with the help of an elastic wire of mass m m<<M , length , specific
heat s , area of cross-section A and young’s modulus Y. Then:
(A) The increase in length of wire
YA
-1
Mω
2
(B) The increase in length of wire
YA
-1
2Mω
2
2
YA 1
(C) If the bob snaps then the rise in temperature of wire is YA (ignore
2ms 1
2 M 2
radiation loses)
2
YA 1
(D) If the bob snaps then the rise in temperature of wire is YA (ignore
2ms 1
M 2
radiation loses)
Space for Rough work
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5 AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each
having 3 columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer 8, 9 and 10 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
In the column – I below, we have four bodies of uniform mass densities. Mass of each
body is M. Column II gives their centre of mass distance from origin. Column three gives
moment of inertia of respective bodies about an axis passing through the centre of mass
and either along x-axis or parallel to x-axis:
Column I Column II Column III
x
solid R 2
(I) 2R cone (i) (P) MR 2
2 3
R
O y
y
2R
R 4R 3
(II) x O (ii) (Q) MR 2
3π 10
R 15MR 2
(IV) (iv) (S)
3 12
x
R
Semi circular disc
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AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
9. Which of the following options hold true for the semicircular disc?
(A) IV ii P (B) IV iii P
(C) IV ii R (D) IV iv Q
10. Which one of the following combinations is true for the disc from which a circular disc
has been cut off:
(A) II i P (B) II iii S
(C) II ii P (D) II iv S
Answer 11, 12 and 13 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
The table below gives different situations of vertical circular motion. Select the
appropriate combination. Column I gives the situation of motion. Column II gives the
minimum velocity required at the equilibrium position to complete the loop. Column III
gives the velocity at the point which is diametrically opposite to the equilibrium position:
Column I Column II (m/s) Column III
String
(II) (ii) 40 (Q) 10
30°
Cabin accelerating upward
the plane with g & = 3m
30°
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7 AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
11. Which of the following combinations is true for entry (II) of column (I)
(A) II i P (B) II iii S
(C) II ii Q (D) II iii Q
13. The combination which is true for entry four of column (I)
(A) IV iv R (B) IV iii Q
(C) IV iv P (D) IV ii Q
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer
ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive.
14. An insect jumps from ball A onto ball B, which are suspended from
inextensible light strings each of length L = 8 cm. The mass of L L
each ball and insect is same. What should be the minimum relative
velocity (in ms-1) of jump of insect w.r.t ball A, if both the balls
manage to complete the full circle?
A B
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
19. The correct statements about some of the ions of 3d-series in aqueous solution
(A) Cr2+ is better reducing agent than Fe2+
(B) Co3+ is better oxidising agent than Fe3+.
(C) When Fe3+ is used as oxidising agent, it attains 3d6 electronic configuration
(D) Cu is the only metal in 3d series, which is not having ability to displace hydrogen as
H2 from acid (consider thermodynamic aspect).
Space for Rough work
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AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
20. An unknown carbohydrate, formula C12 H 22 O11 reacts with Tollen’s reagent to form a
silver mirror. An - glycosidase has no effect on the carbohydrate but a
β- galactosidase hydrolyzes it to D-galactose ( C4 epimers of D-glucose) and D-
mannose ( C2 epimers of D-glucose). When the carbohydrate is methylated (using
methyl iodide and silver oxide) and then hydrolyzed with dilute HCl, the products are
2,3,4,6-tetra-O-methyl galactose and 2,3,4 tri-O-methyl mannose. Which of the following
is correct structure of unknown carbohydrate?
OH
OH
OH O
O OH
O
(A) HO OH
HO
OH
H H
OH
OH
O
O
HO CH2
(B) OH O
H HO OH
HO H
OH
OH
OH
O
O
HO CH2
(C) OH O
H HO OH
HO OH
H
OH
OH
O
H
HO
OH
O
(D)
CH2
O
HO OH
HO OH
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11 AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
21. Which of the following solution will show negative deviation from ideal behaviour
(Raoult’s law)
(A) HNO 3 +H 2 O (B) Benzene+toluene
(C) Acetone+chloroform (D) Octanol+water
22. The standard electrode potentials of some of the alkali metals are
+
(i) Li /Li 3.05 V
Na + /Na 2.71V
K + /K 2.93V
(ii) Alkali metals react with water according to the following reaction. (M = alkali metal)
2M H 2O 2MOH H 2 It is found Li reacts gently with water whereas potassium
reacts violently with water.
Which of the following statement (s) is/ are correct about the above experimental facts?
(A) ΔG values related with the kinetics of a reaction
(B) The metal having large standard oxidation potential will have lesser reactivity.
(C) K has a low melting point, and the heat of reaction is sufficient to make it melt or
even vaporize. This leads to exponential increase in its surface area thus it reacts
violently.
(D) Lithium is the best reducing agent due to its high hydration enthalpy.
23. O
COOD
Δ
CH2 CH3
H2O
P
O O
CH2CH3
(C) (D)
OH
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AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
24. Which of the following are the correct statement(s) about the reaction given?
+
i Li/Liq. NH H3 O KOH,Δ
3
t-BuOH 1,4 reduction
Q
tautomerism
R S
N
H 2 +Pd-C
P Degree of unsaturation=1
'P' is 'Q' is
(A) (B)
N N
H H
O
O O
CH3
(C) 'R' is (D)
'S' is
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13 AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each
having 3 columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer 26, 27 and 28 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
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AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
Answer 29, 30 and 31 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
Y
δ-
(IV) H (iv) E1 (S) Small increase
C C δ+
X
29. A neutral nucleophile attacks on a substrate containing neutral leaving group. Which of
the following represent the correct combination of effect of increased solvent polarity on
reaction rate?
(A) I i R (B) II i P
(C) I iii Q (D) II iii S
31. A neutral base attacks on a substrate containing an anion as leaving group. Which of the
following represent the correct combination of effect of increased solvent polarity on
reaction rate?
(A) IV iv P (B) III iv Q
(C) III ii S (D) III ii R
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15 AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer
ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive.
32. The solubility of Ag 2 C 2 O 4 in acidified water of pH=5 is 2.46 10 x . The value of ' x '
-2 -5 11 1/3
( Ka1 =5×10 , K a 2 =5×10 , K sp 5 10 , 120.004 4.93 )
33. The CFSE E in octahedral field -E symmetric field for octahedral complex for d6 electronic
x
configuration is ' x ' kJ/mol , the value of
10
[ Δ 0 =75 kJ/mole, Pairing energy=90 kJ/mole ]
3 3
CHCl 1eq. KOH CHCl 1eq. ,KOH
A B
36. O
CH O
4 moles of PCC
A
CH O
O
Maximum number of moles of Ac2 O consumed by reactant A is?
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AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
1
37. 1
e x3 3
e x dx is less than
2
(A) 2 (B) 2e
e
1
(C) e+ +2 (D) 2e
e
x
1 2
x2
38. Let f(x)=e 1 sin tdtx (0, ) then-
0
39. Let x, y , z are positive real numbers and 1 is the least value of
4 1
2 x 4 2 y 4 4 z 4 8 xyz and 2 is the least value of x 4 y xy 4 2
3
3 2 8 , then-
x y x y
(A) 1 1 (B) 2 1
(C) 2 10 (D) 2 10
4 3 2
40. Consider the equation in x, 8 x 16 x 16 x 8 x a 0 , then sum of all the non-real
roots of equation can be (a R)
(A) 1 (B) 2
1
(C) (D) None of these
2
Space for Rough work
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42. Let a, b, c be the positive integers such that a<b<c. If the two curves
y x a x b x c and 2 x y 2003 have exactly one point in common, then-
(A) least possible value of c is 1002 (B) greatest possible value of b is 1001
(C) least possible value of b is 1002 (D) greatest possible of a is 1000
th
43. Three are 5 boxes numbered from 1 to 5. There is 1 Red and 2k black balls in k box,
k 1, 2, 3, 4,5 . From each box either one red ball is taken or one or more than one black
balls are taken. But from each box both coloured balls are never taken (ball of same
coloure are all alike). Now which of the following holds good?
(A) Total number of ways selecting odd number of red balls is 4725
(B) Total number of ways of selecting even number of red balls is 5670
(C) Total number of ways selecting odd number of red balls is 5670
(D) Total number of ways of selecting even number of red balls is 4725
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AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each
having 3 columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer 44, 45 and 46 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
Col
Column I Column II
. III
The value of
tan 1 2
n ( 1) n
(I) The value of 2
n 0
is (i)
n0 n 2 n n 2 n n
n 2
(P) 2
(where [.] denotes greatest
integer function) is
Number of solutions of If a, b, c are sides of a triangle,
equation 2 a 2 +b 2 +c 2
(II) 3 3 (ii) then is always (Q) 3
16sin x 14 sin x 7 in ab+bc+ca
[0, 4 ] is less than
Number of solutions of If a, b, c are distinct real
equation numbers such that
(III) tan 1 (2sin x ) cot 1 (cos x ) in (iii)
a 2 (b c ) b 2 (a c) 2 , then (R) 4
2
[0,10 ] is the value of c (a b) is
If the sum of roots of the If P=sinA sin B,Q=sinC cos A,
quadratic equation R=sinA cosB
(IV) (a 1) x 2 (a 2 a 4) x 2a 3 0 (iv) (S) 5
S=cos A cos C , then the value
is minimum, then the value of
a(a>1) is
of 5 P 2 +Q 2 +R 2 +S2 is
44. Which of the following options is the only CORRECT combination?
(A) I ii R (B) II iv S
(C) III i Q (D) IV iv S
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19 AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Answer 47, 48 and 49 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
Column I Column II Col
. III
If S={Z: Z Z +2 Z Z =4 If the Point
and Z is minimum}
sec α,cosec α moves in the
2 2
plane of circle x y 3 and
(I) 25 (i) (P) 2
then A is (where A is area the minimum distance of this
8 point from circle is
of polygon formed of all points
in S taking as vertices) a b ( a , b N ) then a b
Two circles
1
x 2 y 2 2n1 x 2 y 0 and
Let 2
S= Z ZZ (3 4i) Z (3 4i) Z 21 0 x 2 y 2 n2 x n2 y n1
1
If M and m be maximum 2
(II) value and minimum value of (ii) (Q) 3
intersect each other
Z Z 1 1 orthogonally where n1 , n2 are
then is
i (Z Z ) M m integers then the number of
possible ordered pairs
n1 , n2 is
If
2 2
Let x is the minimum value of 1 1
2 2 2 an 1 1 1 1
Z Z 3 Z 6i then n n
(III) (iii) (R) 4
x , then the value of
is 20 1
10
3 is
n=1 a n
Consider a triangle formed by The
ea n 9 x 3 9 x 2 y 45 x 2 4 y 3 4 xy 2 20 y 2
the points
π 5π represents 3 straight lines two
2 i(π/2) 2 -i 6 2 -i 6
(IV) A e ,B e ,C e (iv) of which pass through origin (S) 5
3 3 3
1
Let P(Z) is any point on it’s in- then (Area of triangle
2 2 2 10
circle, then AP +BP +CP is
formed by these lines)
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AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 20
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer
ranging from 0 to 9, both inclusive.
50. On a normal standard die one of the 21 dots from any one of the six faces is removed at
random with each dot equally likely to be chosen. The die is then rolled. If the probability
p
that the top face has an odd number of dots is where p and q are in their lowest form,
q
find
p q
4
51. A function f is defined on the complex number by f ( z ) (a bi) z , where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are
positive numbers. This function has the property that the image of each point in the
complex plane is equidistant from that point and the origin. Given that a bi 8 and that
u
b2 where u and v are coprimes. Find the value of (u + v)-250.
v
Space for Rough work
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21 AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
n
1 2 a 1 18 2007
(n+a)
52. If 0 1 4 = 0 1 36 then find the value of .
100
0 0 1 0 0 1
4 3 2
53. If the polynomial f ( x) 4 x ax bx cx 5 where a, b, c R has four positive real
r1 r2 r3 r4
roots say r1 ,r2 ,r3 and r4 , such that + + 1 .Find the value of (a-10).
2 4 5 8
2
54. All the three vertices of an equilateral triangle lie on the parabola y x , and one of its
sides has a slope of 2. The x-coordinates of the three vertices have a sum equal to
p
where p and q are relatively prime positive integers. Find the value of (q-p)
q
Space for Rough work
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER –1
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
1. BCD
Sol. f max Mg friction f
f max R 2 g
max
I R
At the five of slipping
F 3 f max
max R a
3M
2. BC
Sol. For the bubble, PV=const.
dV dP
V P
dV 3dr 4T
, dP , P P0 according to the question
V r R
4Tr
dr
3P0 R
3. AC
Sol. AA f B 2mg
fa
NA f B 2mg
NB
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AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
NB fA
mgR f A R f B R 0
mg f A f B
Solve to get the ans.
4. BCD
Sol. Taking torque about R.H. side of loop
mg -T1 ibB=0
2
-πnir 2 Bkˆ
5. AD
T/A
where T M x x
2
Sol. Y
x/ YA
1
M
2
And ms U
2
YA 1
YA
2ms 1
M 2
6. AB
Sol. As the prism are identical so deviation will be zero for even number of prism and for
odd number of prism.
7. AC
Sol. Equivalent diagram is as shown in P is moved 2 cm right them R1=12, R3=3
R1 R 2
= Hence wheat stone will be balanced
R2 R4
5 20 R R
If s is moved left cm then R4 hence 1 2 (hence wheat stone will be
3 3 R3 R4
balanced)
8. A
9. C
10. D
11. B
12. C
13. A
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3 AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – C
14. 8
u
Sol. 2 g 8m / s
2
L L
A B A B
u u
u/2
15. 1
Sol. As the electric field is radial, by applying gauss law, we can write
Q
E.ds 0 E
1 rˆ
For r , E C 1 e 1/ 2
1 /
2
r=1/α
E.ds C 1 e1 2 4 1 /
Q
4 C 1 e 1 Q 1 e 1 N 1
0
16. 2
2q
Sol. mr 2 d vBr cos
0 2
dw qUB sin v
1 dα
dt mr rω
q
ma 2 d rwB cos
0 2 x
dv qrwB sin dF
a 2
dt m
w v
dw v
2 r 2 wdw v dv
dv r w 0 v0
x=r-rcosθ
v0
v dx=rsinθdθ
2
vdv qrwB sin
dx m
v0 / 2
vdv qrB
sin 2 d
v0 v02 v 2 m 0
2mv0
q
Br
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AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
17. 6
Sol. Consider the object as two portion ‘A uniform rod’ and ‘A frustum’ with thermal resistance
R 1 and R 2 respectively then
1
R1
k1 A1 k r 2
And R2 2
k2 A2 2k r1r2 4k r 2
Equivalent thermal resistance Req R1 R2
5
Req ....................... 1
4k r 2
Now if we consider the same lamina with equivalent thermal conductivity K eq , then
keq
3
Req R1 R2 ........ 2
keq 2 r 2keq r
2 2 2
keq r
By equating the terms of Req from eqn. (1) & (2), we get
5 3
2
4 k r 2keq r 2
6k
keq
5
N 6
18. 2
Sol. t1 = RC; t2 = R/L
LC = t1t2 = 0.1 sec -> T = 2pie
T = 2 sec.
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5 AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – I
SECTION – A
19. ABCD
0 0 0
Sol. ECr 3
/ Cr 2
EFe3
/ Fe 2
ECo 3
/ Co 2
20. BC
Sol. Hydrolysis requires a galactosidase, showing that galactose and mannose are linked
by a galactosidic linkage. For sugar to be reducing, one of the hexoses must have
free hemiacetal form.
The methylation /hydrolysis procedure shows the point of attachment of the glycosidic
bond to mannose. C1 is anomeric carbon on mannose ring and both forms satisfy
the above conditions.
21. AC
Sol. Octanol and water are insoluble.
22. CD
Sol. G is the thermodynamical concept
23. AB
Sol. -Keto acid on heating shows de-carboxylation on heating, through enol form
24. ABC
Sol. Na/EtOH Li / NH
3
N H3C N CH3 H3C N CH3
H H
P Q
H 2 O/H +
H 3C N CH3
H
H 2O
OH
H3C O H3C N
NH2 CH3
H
Tautomerism
O
NH
H 3O +
O
O
R
OH
Aldol reaction
O
CH3
S
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AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
25. ABC
Sol. F O
N S S
F O
O
F
H3C H3C
+ - + -
P O N O
H3C H3C
H3C H3C
26. B
27. C
28. C
29. A
30. C
31. C
Sol. (for Q. 29 to 31)
Increasing in polarity of the solvent will increase the rate if T.S. has more charge density
in comparison to reactant.
SECTION – C
32. 4
Sol. 2Ag + +C 2O 4-2
Ag 2 C 2O 4
C 2 O4 -2 +H 2 O
OH - +HC 2O -14
HC2 O-14 +H 2 O
OH - +H 2C 2 O 4
Ag
C2O42 C2O42 H 2C2O4 H 2C2O4
0 2
2
H C2O42 C 2O4 2 H
C2O
2
4
Ka2 Ka1 Ka2
105 1010
C2O42 1
5 10
5
25 107
[Ag + ] K sp
= 1.20004
2 [Ag + ]2
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7 AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
[Ag + ]3 =2 K sp 1.20004
[Ag + ]3 =2 5 1011 1.20004
[Ag + ]3 =10 10 1.20004
[Ag + ]3 =1012 120.004
[Ag + ] =104 4.932
[Ag + ] 4.932
solubility = =104 104 2.46
2 2
33. 3
Sol. CFSE Eligand field Eisotopic field
0.6 0
0.4 0
-2 3
= 4× Δ 0 + 2× Δ 0 +P -P
5 5
2
= 0
5
2
75 x 30
5
x
3
10
34. 2
Sol. CCl2
CHCl3 +OH -
H
CCl Cl
2
C OH
Cl
Cl
CCl
2
Cl
OH - C
Cl Cl Cl
Cl
It has two plane of symmetry
35. 4
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AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
Sol. 3
Volume of unit cell= ×(4.53) 2 ×7.41×10-24 cm3
2
so mass=1.211×10 -22 g
1.211×10-22
molecules of H 2 O= 6.023 10 23 4
18
number of H atom=4
36. 4
Sol. OH
CH2OH
(A)
CH2OH
OH
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9 AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
37. BCD
1
Sol. 3
I e x e x dx 2
1
3
Graph is concave upwards
I f (0) f (1)
38. ACD
1
x2
2 x
Sol. f '( x) e . 3
1 sin
x 2 2
1
x2
e
lim
3
0
And x 0 x
Also lim f ( x )
x
f’’(x) does not exist for x=3, 7, 11….
39. AD
2 x4 2 y 4 4 z 4 1
Sol. 2 xyz
4
4 4 4 1
And x y xy 2 3 3 2 8 5 2
x y x y
2 10 (equality cannot hold)
40. AB
1
Sol. (Put x y )
2
41. AB
2
1 4 5 8 6 x 27 x
Sol. 1
1
1
1
x 1 x 4 x 5 x 8 40
x0
2x 9 2x 9 3
Also (2 x 9)
( x 1)( x 8) ( x 4)( x 5) 40
And x=9
42. ABD
Sol. Condition is satisfied for (a, b+c-2a)
b c 2003
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AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
43. AD
Sol. Let
x: Total No of ways of selecting even number of red balls
even number of red balls
y: Total No of ways of selecting
odd numbers of red balls
(2-1)(4-1)(6-1)(8-1)(10-1)=x-y (2+1)(4+1)(6+1)(8+1)(10+1)=x+y
44. D
45. A
46. C
Sol. (for Q. 44 to 46)
1 1 1 1 1
(I) 2 3 ....... 2 4 .... (i) tan n 2 tan 1 n
2 2 2 2 n 0
1
(II) f (t ) f (t ) (t sin x ) (ii) a b 2 c 2 2( ab bc ca )
2
47. D
48. A
49. C
Sol. (for Q. 47 to 49)
2 4 (i) Minimum
(I) x 2 y 2 and points are , distance
5 5 2
2
(II) x 3 ( y 4) 2 4 required minimum and
4 tan cot 3 2 3
maximum slopes of target from origin 1
(ii) n2 1
(III) 3[( x 1) 2 ( y 2) 2 10] 1 n1
(IV) Points are on (0 ,0) and (-2, 2)
2 n 2 (n 1)2 n 2 (n 1)2
Z (iii) Tn
3 4
2 2 2 2
AP 2 BP 2 CP 2 3 Z Z1 Z 2 Z 3 (iv) ( x y 5)(3x 2 y)(3x 2 y) 0
Z ( Z1 Z 2 Z 3 ) Z ( Z1 Z 2 Z 3 )
4
1 3 5
3
SECTION – C
50. 8
Sol. E1 : Dot removed from odd face.
9
P E1
21
E 2 : Dot removed from even face.
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11 AITS-FT-II (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
12
P E2 E: Die shows odd numbers of dots.
21
11
P E P( E E1 ) P( E E2 )
21
51. 9
Sol. Z a bi Z (a bi )Z
1
a
2
2 2
a b 64
52. 2
n 1
1 2n na+8 k
k 0
Sol. 0 1 4n
0
0 1
53. 9
Sol. A.M.=G.M.
r1 r2 r3 r4
= = = =k
2 4 5 8
54. 8
Sol. t1 +t 2 =2
2-m 2
= 3
1+2m 2
m3 -2
and = 3
1+2m3
p 3
t 1 t 2 t3
q 11
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – IX
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01– 06, 19 – 24, 37 - 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 - 46) contains 12 questions. Based on this section contains TWO
(02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
2
1. A particle starts moving in a plane with constant tangential acceleration at = 2 m/s and normal
acceleration an = t4. Then choose the correct option(s).
(A) The acceleration of the particle is 2 5 m/s2 after having covered a distance S = 2m.
(B) The acceleration of the particle is 2 2 m/s2 after having covered a distance S = 2m.
(C) The radius of curvature of its trajectory is 4m after having covered a distance S = 1m.
(D) The radius of curvature of its trajectory is 2m after having covered a distance S = 1m.
(A) The time taken by the particle to move from end ‘A’ to other end ‘B’ of the tunnel is
R
.
3 g0
(B) The time taken by the particle to move from end ‘A’ to other end ‘B’ of the tunnel is
2 R
.
3 g0
(C) The maximum speed of the particle inside the tunnel is g0R .
(D) The maximum speed of the particle inside the tunnel is 2g0R .
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3 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
4. Two strings of equal radii but mass per unit length 1 = 0.9 kg/m and 1 2
2 = 0.1 kg/m are joined together and stretched between two rigid P O Q
supports as shown. A sinusoidal wave pulse of amplitude 3 cm is
incident from end ‘P’ and transmission and reflection both take place
at the joint ‘O’. There is no loss of power during propagation of the
wave. Then choose the correct option(s).
(A) The amplitude of the reflected wave is 1.5 cm.
(B) The amplitude of the transmitted wave is 4.5 cm
(C) The percentage of incident power transmitted to the second string is 60%.
(D) The percentage of the incident power reflected to the first string is 25%.
Q2
(A) The electrostatic force between the hemispherical shells is
80R2
Q2
(B) The electrostatic force between the hemispherical shells is
160R 2
Q
(C) The net electric potential at the centre ‘O’ of the shells is
20R
3Q
(D) The net electric potential at the centre ‘O’ of the shells is
20R
LI20
(A) The energy stored in inductance ‘L’ in steady state is .
18
(B) The energy stored inductance ‘2L’ in steady state is zero.
3LI02
(C) The net heat dissipated in the resistor is
2
4 2
(D) The net heat dissipated in the resistor is LI0
3
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
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5 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
13. An open rectangular tank of base area (3m 4m) and height
5 m filled with water upto height 4m is accelerated up an a = 4 m/s2
= 37
14. In the adjacent circuit the switch ‘S’ is closed at t = 0. Then find L = 2m H R1 = 2
the current (in amp) through the battery at t = 1 103 sec.
(take e1 = 0.37, e0.5 = 0.60)
C = 500 F R2 = 4
S
= 8V
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
A
N
16. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and its cap is divided into 100 divisions. When nothing is
placed between its studs, the zero of circular scale is 4 divisions above the reference line. When
a wire is placed between its studs, the main scale reading is 2 mm and 46th division of circular
scale coincides with the reference line. The length of wire is 4.76 cm. Find the curved surface
area (in cm2) of the wire in true significant figures.
18. When an -particle with kinetic energy K = 11 MeV collides with a stationary lithium nucleus, the
following nuclear reaction takes place
4
He 7 Li 10 B n
If Q – value of this reaction is E = 2.86 Mev. Find the kinetic energy (in MeV) of the neutron
outgoing at right angle to the incoming direction of -particle.
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7 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. For a real gas obeying van der waal’s equation which of the following are true?
(A) Internal energy of gas is dependent on temperature only
(B) If Z > 1 then forces of repulsion are dominant
Pb
(C) At high pressure Z 1
RT
(D) Work done in expansion of a real gas is more than for an ideal gas under isothermal
conditions.
20. Which of the following compounds give carbylamine when reacted with CHCl3 and ethanolic
KOH ?
NH2
(A)
NH CH3
(B)
HO C 2 H5 P Q
Ph NH2
H
R form R S, racemic mixture
The correct statement regarding compound (P) & (Q) is/are:
(A) Both are optically active in nature
(B) (P) & (Q) are diastereomers
(C) (P) & (Q) are meso compounds
(D) Out of (P) & (Q) one is optically active and other is optically inactive
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
(B) N2O < NO < N2O3 < N2O5 (oxidation state of nitrogen atom)
(D) SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 (reducing character)
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Volume of NaOH
25. What will be the pH of the solution when 50ml of NaOH is added to 0.1M, 300ml
H3 PO4 solution (MNaOH = 0.1)?
(A) 3
(B) 2.3
(C) 3.36
(D) 4.6
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9 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
The glycine as well as other amino acids, is amphoteric, means it contains an acidic functional group and
+
a basic functional group. The –NH3 is an acidic functional group and basic functional group is –COO . In
–
+
–NH3CH2COOH
a strongly acidic medium the species present is R as pH is raised, a proton is removed
from this species. Amino acids are crystalline solids it does not melts but on being heated it decomposes.
These are practically soluble in water but insoluble in non polar organic solvents. These properties are
attributed to fact that the stable form of amino acids is a Zwitter ion or inner salt.
pKa2 = 3.7
O
– –
O–C–CH2–CH–COO
NH3
+
pKa3 = 9.60
O
– –
O–C–CH2–CH–CHCOO
NH 2
The isoelectric point of aspartic acid is
(A) 2.8
(B) 4.8
(C) 5.75
(D) 1.9
28. When glycine is dissolved in a solution having pH = 9; at 25°C; it will move towards — in
electrolytic cell combination
(A) Anode
(B) Cathode
(C) Will not move towards any electrode
(D) None of above
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. When fluorine reacts with 2-methyl propane in presence of light gives 14% tert-butyl fluoride and
86% isobutylfluoride. What will be the ratio of relative reactivity of a tertiary hydrogen to primary.
30. If a water tank of 10000 Ltr. contains 55.5 g of CaCl2, 47.5 g of MgCl2, 84 g of MgSO4 and 81.6 g
of CaSO4, then what will be the degree of hardness for 1 ltr. of water from this tank? (Assuming
density of solution in tank = 1 g/ml)
31. Biacetyl, the flavouring that makes margarine taste "just like butter,” is extremely stable at room
temperature, but at 200°C it undergoes a first order break down with a half-life of 12.0 min. An
industrial flavour enhancing process requires that a biacetyl flavoured food be heated briefly at
200°C. How long (in minutes) can the food be heated and retain 85% of its butter flavour? (log
1.176 = 0.0706)
32. An element crystallises in fcc lattice. If the effective number of atoms of the element per unit cell
in the crystal is decreased by 0.25% due to Schottky defect then the density of crystal is (At. Wt.
= 50 gm and edge length = 0.50 nm)
33. A thin circular-disk earrings 5.0 cm in diameter is plated with a coating of gold 0.20 mm thick from
an Au3+ bath. How many days (approx.) does it take to deposit the gold on one side of one
earring if the current is 0.02 A (MW. of Au = 197 g, density of Au = 19.3 g/cm, 1 F = 96500 C)?
0
34. 3129 kJ of heat is liberated when 60 grams of ethane is completely burnt in oxygen. H f for
CO 2 and H 2O are 395kJ and 286kJ respectively. The magnitude of heat of formation
of ethane is
35. 0.5 g mixture of K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4 was treated with excess of KI in acidic medium. Iodine so
liberated required 100 ml of 0.15 N solution of sodium thiosulphate for titration. The percentage of
K2Cr2O7 in the mixture is ( MW of K2Cr2O7 = 294 and KMnO4 = 158)
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11 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
4
37. In a plane rectangular co-ordinate system xRy there are three points A 0, , B(–1, 0) and
3
C(1, 0). The distance from point P to line BC is the geometric mean of the distances from this
point to lines AB and AC. Then the locus of point P is
(A) 2x2 + 2y2 + 3y – 2 = 0
(B) 2x2 – 2y2 – 3y + 2 = 0
(C) 8x2 – 17y2 + 12y – 8 = 0
(D) 8x2 + 17y2 – 12y – 8 = 0
38. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4, ....., 2070} and A be the number of subsets of S whose sum of elements in S is
divisible by 9. If A
2a 2b 1
, then
c
(A) c=9
(B) b = 1840
(C) a = 233
(D) b = 1837
39. If the lines az az b 0 and cz cz d 0 are mutually perpendicular, where a and c are non-
zero complex numbers and b and d are real numbers, then
(A) aa cc 0
(B) ac is purely imaginary
a
(C) A rg
c 2
a c
(D)
a c
40. Of the following statement which of the below are correct, when n is natural number
1
(A) probability nC7 is divisible by 7
7
n 91
(B) probability C7 is divisible by 12 =
144
n 13
(C) probability C7 is divisible by 7
49
n 77
(D) probability C7 is divisible by 12
144
41. Let be an acute angle such that the equation x 2 + 4x cos + cot = 0 involving variable x has
multiple roots. Then the measure of in radians is/are
(A)
6
(B)
12
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
5
(C)
12
7
(D)
12
42. Im, n cosmx sinnx dx where, m, n are integers, then which of the following is/are correct?
0
(A) I16, 2 0
10
(B) I 8, 5
39
4
(C) I 5, 2
21
(D) I 3, 7 0
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Let 1 denotes the equation of the plane to which the vector (1, 1, 0) is normal and which contains the line
L whose equation is r ˆi ˆj kˆ ˆi ˆj kˆ and 2 denotes the equation of the plane containing the line
L and a point whose position vector (0, 1, 0)
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13 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
x2 y2
45. Eccentricity of the ellipse 1 , is
a2 b2
1
(A)
2
1
(B)
3
1
(C)
2
1
(D)
3
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
1
n
2
47. The value of lim n
n 1 2019 sin x 2021cos x x dx is equal to
n
8
49. There is a point A(x1, y1) on the curve f(x) = x 2 and a point B(x2, y2) on the curve g x
x
where x1 > 0 and x2 > 0. If the line AB is tangent to both these curve at these points respectively,
then the value of (x1 + y1 + x2)
50. If all the roots of the equation x1008 a1x1007 a2 x1006 ..... a1006 x 2 1008x 1 0 are real, then
a2
is
a1
51. The diagram shows a maze used for testing and training mice. A A
mouse begins at A and at each junction as represented by a dot has M
equal chances of choosing any of the new path available. The mouse B E
can move in any direction but cannot travel along any path more than
once, the probability of the mouse reaching point, C after passing K
K
through more than 3 junctions is (where K and L are relatively
L L
C D
coprime. Then the value of L – K
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
6
k
52. sin 7 (where , m are relatively coprime), then m is equal to
k 1 m
xn
53. If y2 = x2 – x + 1 and In 2
dx & AI3 + BI2 + CI1 = x y for all x R. Then the value of A + B + C is
y
2
54. For any real number be denote by f(b) is the maximal value of sin x b . The minimal
3 sin x
p
value of f(b) is , where p and q are relatively co-prime positive integers. Then the value of p + q
q
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – IX
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
SECTION – A
1. A, C
Sol. at = 2 m/s2
1 1
S ut a t t 2 0 2t 2 t 2
2 2
S = t2
v 2 u2 2at S 2 2S 4S
an = t4 = S2
an = S2
a a2t a2n 4 S4
At S = 2m
2
a 4 16 2 5 m/s
Radius of curvature of its trajectory
v 2 4S 4
r
an S 2 S
At S = 1m, r = 4m,
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
2. A, D
Sol. 0Rcot = v sin 2 B
cos 2
0R 2v sin cos
sin
N1
0R 2v sin2 R
C
Just after release a
0R = 2asin2 A R N2
9
0R 2a (since, = 37, initially)
25 0 0 fs rough
18a
0R …(i) a = R
25
N1 sin 2 f s = ma …(ii)
2
fsR mR 2
5
2
fs ma …(iii)
5
From (ii) and (iii), we get
7
N1 sin 2 = ma
5
24 7
N1 ma N1 = 3.5 a …(iv)
25 5
For the rod,
m 2
m0 g cos 2 N1Rcot 0 0
2 3
m0 g 7 4 m0 m 36a
N1 0.5 0 0
2 25 3 3 3 25
2
3.5 N1 1.2 a
3
2
3.5 3.5a 1.2a
3
7a
1.2a 3.5
3
10.5 2
a 1 m/s
10.6
From (iv)
N1 = 3.5 a = 3.5 1 = 3.5 N
3. A, C
d2 x GMr cos GM g 3g0R
Sol. 3 x 0 x v0
dt 2 R3 R R 2
g0 v0
B x
O A x
R r 30
Now, x = A sin (t + ) R
at t = 0, x = +R/2
R
A sin …(i)
2
Vx = A cos (t + )
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3 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
3g0R
at t = 0, v x
2
3g0R g0
A cos
2 R
3
R A cos …(ii)
2
Solving (i) and (ii), we get
5
A = R,
6
g 5
x R sin 0 t
R 6
R g 5
R sin 0 t
2 R 6
7 g0 5
t
6 R 6
R
t
3 g0
vmax = A
g0
v max R g0R
R
4. A, B, D
F F
v v1 2 1 2 3 1
Sol. Ar 2 A
i Ai 1 Ai 3 1.5 cm
v
2 v 1 F F 3 1
1 2
1
2
F
2
2v 2 2 2A i 2 3
At Ai Ai 4.5 cm
v 2 v1 F F 1 2 1
1
1 1 3
2 i
2 2
P A 1.5 1
Now, r r
Pi A i 3 4
1
The percentage of incident power reflected to the first string = 100 25 %
4
The percentage of incident power transmitted to the second string = 100 25 = 75%
5. B, C
Sol. The electrostatic force between the hemispherical shells is
R2 Q 2Q R 2 Q2
F 1 2
20 2R 2 8R2 20 160R2
The net electric potential at the centre ‘O’ of the sells is
KQ 2KQ 2KQ Q
V0
R 2R R 20R
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
6. A, D
di di
Sol. L 1 2L 2
dt dt
i1 i2
L di1 2L di2 L 2L R
I0 I0
i1 I0 2(i2 I0 ) i1 i2 i
2i2 i1 I0 …(i)
di
Now, L 1 iR 0
dt
di1
L (i1 i2 )R 0
dt
di 3i I
L 1 1 0 R 0
dt 2
i1 t
di1 R 3i I 3Rt
(3i1 I0 ) 2L dt
n 1 0
I0 0 4I0 2L
I0 3Rt
i1 4e 2L 1
3
3Rt
I
i2 0 2e 2L 1
3
2
1 I0 LI2
The energy stored in inductance ‘L’ in steady state = L 0
2 3 18
2
1 I0 LI2
The energy stored in inductance ‘2L’ in steady state = 2L 0
2 3 9
1 LI2 LI2 4
The net heat dissipated in the resistor = 3LI02 0 0 LI02
2 18 9 3
7. D
8. A
Sol. (for Q.7-8)
Current over the surface of cylinder is
Q
I
2 fs
I Q
B 0 0
2 a
Electric field induced on the surface of the cylinder is T
R dB R 0 Q d
E
2 dt 2 2 dt fs
0 QR 0 Qa
E …(i) T
4 4
mg T = ma …(ii) m a
2
TR 2fsR QER = mR
T 2f s QE = ma …(iii) mg
2fs = ma …(iv)
Adding (iii) and (iv), we get
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5 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
T QE = 2ma …(v)
From (ii) and (v), we get
mg QE = 3ma
Q2 a
mg 0 3ma
4
mg ma = 3ma
a = g/4
Now from equation (ii)
mg T = ma
mg 3mg
T mg
4 4
9. C
10. D
Sol. (for Q.9-10)
5R
QAB = nCPT = 2 (900 300) 3000R
2
In the process ‘BC’,
VT = constant
PV2 = constant
R 3R R R
C CV
1 x 2 1 2 2
2R
QBC = nCT = (300 900) 600R
2
nRT 2R(300 900)
WBC 1200R
(1 x) (1 2)
V 1
QCA = nRT0n 0 2R 300n 1200Rn(3) = 1200R 1.1 = 1320 R
9V
0 9
Wcycle Qcycle Q AB QBC QCA 3000R 600R 1320R 1080R
Wcycle 1080R
Efficiency of cycle, 100 100 36%
Qsupplied 3000R
SECTION – D
11. 00003.20
Sol. v cos = v0 sin v0 90
v = v0 tan …(i)
d
a v 0 sec 2
dt 90
T
v cos v sin v 0
a v 0 sec 2 0 sec (v 0 v tan )
v
m a
v0
a sec v 0 (1 tan2 )
v2
a = 0 sec 3 …(ii)
T sin = mg …(iii)
T cos = ma …(iv)
From (iii) and (iv)
g = a tan
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
v02
g sec 3 tan
2
g 4 10 1.5 5
v0 3
3.20 m/s
sec tan 5 3
v0 = 3.20 m/s
12. 00011.25
Sol. N = mg cos m, R
fk N 2 tan mgcos v = R
fk 2mgsin N = 2tan
fk mgsin
a 3gsin …(i) v0
m
CM = ICM 0
mg cos
2 mg sin fk
fkR mR 2 = 30
5
2
2mgsin m R
5
5gsin
…(ii)
R
When pure rolling starts
v = R
v0 at = (0 + t)R
v0 3g sin t = 0R + 5g sin t
v0 0R = 8 g sin t
v0
t
12gsin
v0 v 3v
v v 0 at v 0 3gsin v0 0 0
12gsin 4 4
3v 0 3 15
v 11.25 m/s
4 4
13. 00010.50
a gsin a gsin
Sol. tan a = 4 m/s2
gcos gcos
y
3
4 10
5y 5 5y 5
3 4 3 4
10 5m 3m
5
y = 1.25 m
Volume of water remained in the container
= 37
1 3
V (5 1.25) 3 4 6.25 6 37.50 m
2
volume of water spilt over the tank
V = V0 V
3
= (3 4 4) 37.50= 10.50 m
14. 00003.72
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7 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
15. 00005.25
Sol. Emf induced in the straight segment AC is AC = 0
Emf induced in the circular arc CD is
5a/ 2 5a
1 21
CD Brdr B r 2 2 Ba2
a
2 a 8
21
5 10 (0.2)2 = 5.25 volt
8
AD AC CD 0 5.25 5.25 volt
16. 00003.74
1 mm
Sol. Least count of screw gauge, L.C. 0.01 mm
100
Diameter of the wire, d = 2 mm + 46 L.C. + 4 L.C.
= 2mm + 46 0.01 mm + 4 0.01 mm = 2.50 mm = 0.250 cm
The length of wire, = 4.76 cm
The curved surface area of the wire, S = d
22 2
= 0.250 4.76 3.74 cm
7
17. 00025.60
Sol. The magnetic moment of the disc is B B B = 5T B
q mR 2 qR 2
M …(i)
2m 2 4 A C
Magnetic torque on the disc
D
q R 2 B
MB …(ii)
4
For toppling of the rod about the edge at ‘D’ /4
/4
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
qR2B g
(m0 m)
4 4
(m0 m)g
qBR2
> 25.60
min = 25.60 rad/s
18. 00003.40
Sol. Using conservation of momentum y
P = P2 cos …(i)
P1 = P2 sin …(ii) P1
Squaring and adding, we get P
P2 P12 P22 x
2mk + 2m1k1 = 2m2K2
4k + k1 = 10k2 P2
10k2 k1 = 4k
10k2 k1 = 44. …(iii)
Also, k1 + k2 = k |Q|
k1 + k2 = 11. 2.86
k1 + k2 = 8.14 …(iv)
Adding (iii) and (iv), we get
11k2 = 52.14
k2 = 4.74 MeV
k1 = 8.14 4.74
k1 = 3.40 MeV
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9 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. B, C, D
dU an 2
Sol. (A) For real gas i.e. internal energy is volume dependent also.
dV V 2
(B) Z > 1 Vreal > Videal so forces of repulsion are dominant.
(D) For ideal gas U = 0 but for real gas U 0 .
20. A, C
Sol. 10 amines give carbylamines reaction
21. A, B
Sol. CH3 O CH3 CH3 O CH3
Ph CH NH2 OH C C C 2H5 Ph CH NH C C C 2H5 (R R)
H H (P)
CH3 O C2 H 5
Ph CH NH C C CH3 (R S)
H (Q)
22. A, D
Sol. (D) The reducing character of hydrides of 15 group elements increases from NH3 to BiH3.
23. A, C, D
Sol. As Ni is added, CO will be consumed to attain the third equilibrium. As concentration of CO
decreases, COCl2 will decompose to a higher extent and hence Cl2 concentration increases
which in turn decreases the concentration of PCl3.
24. B, C
Sol. In F2C = C = CF2
Terminal C-atoms are sp2 hybridised, one sp2 hybridised orbital comes in the horizontal plane and
other sp2 hybridised orbital appears on the vertical plane.
In N2H4, the nitrogen atoms are sp3 hybridised.
25. B
Sol. Meq of H3PO4 = 300 0.1 = 30
Meq of NaOH = 50 0.1 = 5
H3 PO4 + NaOH = NaH2 PO4 + H2O
30 5 0 0
25 0 5 5
Solution is buffer
ka1 5
pH = P + log 3 + log 1/5
25
2.3010
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
26. A
2
Sol. At point ‘C’ a buffer of H2 PO 4 & HPO4 exists.
27. A
pKa 1 pKa 2
Sol. pI
2
pK a1 pK a2
Isoelectric point (PI)
2
1.9 3.7 5.6
2.8
2 2
28. A
+
NH 3–CH 2–COOH (will move towards
2
=
cathode)
H
Cationic
p
Sol. H2N–CH2–COOH p H
=
9
–
H2NCH2COO will move
Anionic towards anode
SECTION – D
29. 00001.46
Sol. Suppose relative reactivity for 3° H is x
and suppose relative reactivity for 1° H is Y
So with the given information
9y x
0.86 0.14
9y x 9y x
9y x
So
0.86 0.14
x 9 0.14
Hence, 1.46
y 0.86
30. 00023.00
Sol.
230 g
Degree of hardness 23 mg / litre 23 ppm. .
10, 000 t
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11 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
31. 00002.81
0.693
Sol. K
12
2.303 1
t t1/2 log
0.693 0.85
t = 2.81 mins.
32. 00002.64
4 0.25
Sol. z 4 3.99
100
zM
3 g / cc
a N A 10 30
3.99 50
3
g / cc
500 6.023 1023 10 30
2.64 g / cc
33. 00006.44
Sol.
6.44 days
34. 00083.50
H fC2H 6 83.5KJ
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
35. 00014.64
Sol.
36. 00001.48
Sol.
X = 0.3158
2
KP
0.6842P 1.48 atm P 1
0.3158P
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13 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
37. A, C
4
Sol. Equation of AB y x 1
3
4
AC y x 1
3
BC y = 0
1
Distance of P from AB = d1 4x 3y 4
5
1
Distance of P from AC = d2 4x 3y 4
5
Distance of P from BC = d3 y
38. A, C, D
Sol. Let f(x) = (1 + x)(1 + x 2) ..... (1 + x 2070)
Then A must be the sum of coefficient of x 9k where k is non-negative integer
22070 8.2230
A
9
39. B, C
a1 c1
Sol. Let a = a1 + ia2; c = c1 + ic2, then 1
a2 c 2
a1c1 + a2c2 = 0
a a c c a a c c
0
2 2 2i 2i
ac ac 0
ac is purely imaginary
a a
Also
c c
a
is purely imaginary
c
a
arg
c
2
40. A, B
n n n 1 n 2 n 3 n 4 n 5 n 6
Sol. C7
7!
Obviously one of the seven numerator factors must be divisible by 49.
nC 7 1
Of any 49 consecutive integer exactly seven satisfy the condition P 7
7 49 7
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
41. B, C
Sol. = 16 cos2 – 4 cot = 0
or 4 cot (2 sin 2 – 1) = 0
2 sin 2 – 1 = 0
n n
1
2 12
5
,
12 12
42. A, B, C, D
1 1
Sol. I 2cosmx sinnxdx = sin m n x sin n m x dx
20 20
mn n m
1 1 1 1 1 k
= for k I cosk 1
2 m n nm m n n m
2n
If n m is odd
I n2 m2
0 If n m is even
43. A
44. B
Sol.
(43.-44.) xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ ˆi ˆj 2 n1 ˆi ˆj
x + y = 2 ..... plane 1 L
ˆi ˆj kˆ
AB V n2 1 0 1 A(1, 1, 1)
x ˆi ˆj kˆ ˆi ˆj kˆ
1 1 1
n2 ˆi 2ˆj kˆ
n1 n2
cos
n1 n2
cos
ˆi ˆj ˆi 2jˆ kˆ 3
3
2 6 2 6 2
3
cos1
2 6
45. B
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15 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
46. A
Sol. (45.-46.) |z1| = 2
2
z z
3 1 2 1 2 0
z
2 z
z1 2 20 1 5 i
z2 6 2
z1 6 2
z2 6
z2 3 3
a = 2, b 6
b2 1
e 1 2
a 3
z1 1 5 6 1 5
Let i i
z2 3 3 3 6
5
sin
6
1 1 5
OPQ z1 z 2 sin 2 6 5
2 2 6
SECTION – D
47. 02021.00
1 1
n n
Sol. lim n2 1 2019 sin x 2021cos x x dx = lim n2 4042 x cos x dx
n n
0
n
1 1 1
4042 cos 2
n n n
= 2021
2
n3
48. 02000.00
Sol. Let 3iˆ 4ˆj 10kˆ and aiˆ bjˆ ckˆ
S cos 2000
49. 00021.00
2 8 y
Sol. y = x and y 2
x f(x) = x
8
y1 x12 and y 2 A(x1, y1)
x2
dy 8
Equality at A and B, we get 2x1 2 x
dx x2
x1x 22 4
8 B(x2, y2)
x12
x2
mAB 2x1 8
x1 x 2 g x
x
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
x1 = 4 and x2 = 1, y1 = 16 x1 + y1 + x2 = 21
50. 00503.50
Sol. From the relation between the zeros and the coefficient we obtain
x1x2 .....x1007 1008 and x1x2 ..... x1008 = 1
1008
1
Hence, x 1008
i 1 i
So we have the equality case in the A.M. – G.M. inequality
So x1 = x2 ..... = x1008 = 1
10082 1008
a2 ; a1 = –1008
2
a
So 2 503.50
a1
51. 00008.00
Sol. Possible path mouse can reach C
A A
M M
1/3
K (ii) 1/3
(i) 1/3
L K
1/2 1/3
L
C D C 1/2 1/2 D
1/2
A A
M M
52. 00071.00
2 3 4 5 6
Sol. sin sin sin sin sin sin
7 7 7 7 7 7
2
2 4
sin sin sin
7 7 7
Let 7 =
3 + 4 =
4 = – 3
sin 4 = sin( – 3)
sin 4 = sin 3
3
4 sin cos (cos 2) = 3 sin – 4 sin
2 2 2 2
16 cos (cos 2) = (3 – 4 sin )
16(1 – sin2 )(1 – 2 sin2 )2 = (3 – 4 sin2 )2
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17 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
53. 00002.50
dy
Sol. y2 = x2 – x + 1 2y 2x 1
dx
2
AI3 + BI2 + CI1 = x y
Ax 3 Bx 2 Cx
dx x 2 y
y
Ax 3 Bx 2 Cx dy
x2 2xy
y dx
5x 2
Ax3 + Bx2 + Cx = 3x 3 2x
2
5
A = 3, B = ,C=2
2
So, A + C = 5
54. 00007.00
2
Sol. Substitute t = sin x and g t t b
3t
Since g(t) is an increasing function in the interval [–1, 1]
3
It follows that f(b) = max(|g(–1)|, |g(1)|) = max b , b
2
3 3
From the graph we conclude that min f(b) = f
4 4
So p + q = 7
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – IX
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46) contains 12 questions. Each question has TWO (02)
matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements
from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
(A) The angular velocity of the disc just after collision is 4 rad/s.
(B) The angular velocity of the disc just after collision is 8 rad/s.
(C) The force on the disc due to hinge at its centre when the particle reaches the highest
point is 38 N.
(D) The force on the disc due to hinge at its centre when the particle reaches the highest
point is 44N.
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3 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
does not reach the upper edges of the plates and the contact angle is =
0. The surface tension of water is T = 7 102 N/m and the density of
water is = 103 kg/m3. Then choose the correct option(s). (g = 10 m/s2) d
5. A long current carrying cylindrical conductor of radius ‘R’ has a uniform current
density ‘j’ over its cross section inside it. If we consider the two halves that are j
obtained by dividing the conductor by a plane containing the axis of the conductor.
Then choose the correct option(s).
R
j2R3
(A) The force of interaction per unit length between the two halves is F 0 .
6
j2R3
(B) The force of interaction per unit length between the two halves is F 0 .
3
'R ' jR
(C) The magnetic field inside the conductor at a radial distance from its axis is B 0 .
2 4
'R ' 0 jR
(D) The magnetic field inside the conductor at a radial distance from its axis is B .
2 2
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
7. List –I represents the different spring mass systems. All springs and pulleys are ideal. List-II
represents their time periods of small oscillations about equilibrium position. Match the systems
mentioned in List-I with the corresponding time periods in List-II.
LIST–I LIST–II
k k 2k
m
P. 1.
m
2k
k 2k
k k
5m
Q. 2.
2k
m
k
light rigid
rod
13m
R. 3k 3. 2
k
/3
hinge
k k
M = m /2
m, R m, R m
S. Rough surface 4. 4
Cylindrical There is no k
slipping at any
rollers
contact point
(A) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 3; S→2
(B) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 4; S→2
(C) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S→2
(D) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 2; S→3
8. List – I represents the longitudinal vibration of metallic rods each of length 1 m and each rod is
rigidly clamped at two points A and B. List – II represents their frequency and wavelength of
longitudinal vibration in the fundamental mode of vibration. Then match the options of List-I
correctly with the options of List-II.
LIST–I LIST–II
A B
P. 10 cm 80 cm 10 cm 1. f = 40 kHz
11 2 3
Y = 2 10 N/m , = 8000 kg/m
A B
Q. 30 cm 40 cm 30 cm 2. f = 12.5 kHz
11 2 3
Y = 1.6 10 N/m , = 2500 kg/m
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5 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
A B
R. 10 cm 60 cm 30 cm 3. f = 20 kHz
11 2 3
Y = 2 10 N/m , = 8000 kg/m
A B
S. 15 cm 60 cm 25 cm 4. = 0.4 m
11 2 3
Y = 1.6 10 N/m , = 2500 kg/m
5. = 0.2 m
(A) P → 1, 5; Q → 3, 4; R → 2, 5; S → 1, 5
(B) P → 2, 5; Q → 3, 5; R → 2, 4; S → 2, 5
(C) P → 3, 4; Q → 3, 5; R → 2, 4; S → 2, 5
(D) P → 2, 4; Q → 3, 4; R → 2, 4; S → 1, 5
5. W = 0
(A) P → 2, 5; Q → 3; 4; R → 2, 5; S → 2, 4
(B) P → 1, 5; Q → 3; 4; R → 2, 5; S → 2, 4
(C) P → 1, 5; Q → 3; R → 2, 5; S → 2, 4
(D) P → 2, 4; Q → 3, 4; R → 2, 4; S → 1, 5
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
10. List –I contains different AC circuits with rms voltage of ac sources as shown. List –II contains the
corresponding rms currents supplied by the ac voltage sources. Then match the options of List-I
correctly with the options of List-II.
LIST–I LIST–II
XL = 8 R = 3
XC = 4
P. 1. Irms = 25 A
~
100 V
XL = 6
XC = 3
R = 8
Q. 2. Irms = 5 A
~
120 V
XL = 6
R = 8
R. XC = 3 3. Irms = 10 5 A
~
50 V
XL = 6 R1 = 8
S. XC = 4 R2 = 3 4. Irms = 20 A
~
100 V
(A) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 3
(B) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 4
(C) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 1
(D) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 3
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7 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
11. A string of mass 5 gram and length 50 cm is fixed at both ends. A pipe closed at one end has a
length of 85 cm. When the string vibrates in its third overtone and the air column in the pipe in its
first overtone, they produce a beats frequency of 4 Hz. It is observed that increasing the tension
in the string increases beats frequency. Neglect the end correction in the pipe. The velocity of
sound in air is 340 m/s. Find the tension (in Newton) in the string.
13. In young’s double slit experiment two thin films are placed in
front of two slits and the coherent parallel beam of light is P
S1 1, t1
incident at an angle = 30 with the normal to the plane of 1 cm
slits as shown in the figure. If 2 = 1.8, 1 = 1.5 t2 = 3 mm
d O
and the central maxima is formed at a distance 1 cm above
2, t2
point ‘O’ as shown. Find the thickness ‘t1’ (in mm) of the S2
upper thin film.
D=1 m
screen
d = S1S2 = 2 mm
14. When a light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on a metal surface of work function 1.9 eV,
photoelectrons are emitted. When the emitted photoelectrons are passed through a region
containing He2 atoms, a fastest photoelectron combines with He2 atom to form He atom and a
photon is emitted. The He atom thus formed is in its third excited state. Then find the energy
(in eV) of the photon emitted during the combination of the fastest photoelectron.
5 F
S
= 32V
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
4R
1 = 36V 2 = 18V
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9 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. In which of the following cases enol content will be higher than the keto content in n-hexane?
O O
(A) || ||
CH 3 C C CH 3
O
(B)
O
O
(C)
O
O O
(D) || ||
CH 3 C CH 2 C CH 3
20. In which of the following cases a mixture of optically active compounds with opposite optical
rotation will not form when solutions are separated by semipermeable membrane
(A) 0.1 M D(+)–glucose & 0.1 M D(-) – fructose
(B) 0.2 M D(+)–glucose & 0.1 M D(-) –fructose
(C) 0.1 M D(+)–glucose & 0.2 M D(-) –fructose.
(D) 0.2 M D(+)–glucose & 0.2 M sugar
21. Which of the following compounds does not undergo complete hydrolysis?
(A) SiCl4
(B) BiCl3
(C) NF3
(D) CCl 4
22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?
(A) SiH3 3 N is a stronger base than CH 3 3 N
(B) BF3 is a weaker Lewis acid than BI3
(C) Solid N 2O5 is ionic in nature
(D) Phosphine is more basic than ammonia
23. Which of the following hydroxides dissolves in excess of NaOH?
(A) Zn OH 2
(B) Al OH 3
(C) Sn OH 2
(D) Fe OH 3
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
24. Decomposition of 3A(g) 2B(g) 2C(g) follows 1st order kinetics. Initially only A is present in
the container. Pressure developed after 20min and infinite time are 3.5 and 4 atm respectively.
Which one is correct?
(A) t50% = 20 min
(B) t75% = 40 min
(C) t99% = 64/3 min
(D) t87.5% = 60 min
Q 2 2. dsp 2 hybridization
Ni CN 4
R Ni CO 4 3. Paramagnetic
S. 2 4. Diamagnetic
Pd NH 3 4
5. Tetrahedral geometry
(A) P 1, 3, 5; Q 2, 4; R 1, 4, 5; S 2, 4
(B) P 3, 4; Q 1, 4, 5; R 1, 2, 3, 4, 5; S 3, 5
(C) P 2, 5; Q 1, 4, 5; R 1, 2, 3, 5; S 3, 5
(D) P 3, 5; Q 1, 2, 3; R 1, 2, 3, 4, 5; S 2, 4
26. List -I have mixture of solutions and List – II shows pH of the resulting solution. Now, match the
column.
List – I List – II
P. A saturated solution of Mg(OH) 2 1. pH =7
-12
[KspMg(OH)2 = 4 10 ]
Q. 300 ml of 0.1 M BOH + 100 ml. of 0.1 M 2. pka2 pka3
HCl (Kb (BOH) = 104) pH =
2
5. [H+] = 10-7
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11 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
5. Homogeneous equilibrium
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
30. A fuel cell develops an electrical potential from the combustion of butane at 1 bar and 298 K
C4H10(g) + 13/2 O2(g) 4CO2(g) + 5H2O G= 2746 KJ /mole
The Ecell of the fuel cell is
31. The equilibrium constant for the following reaction will be:
HClO + CN HCN + ClO
Given Ka(HOCl)=3108
Ka(HCN) = 4.8 x 1010
32. Boiling point of an aqueous solution is 100.5oC. Given latent heat of fusion and latent heat of
vapourisation of water are 80 cal g-1 and 540 cal g-1 respectively. The freezing point depression
of the solution is nearly
33. Potassium dichromate in acidic medium reacts with H2S to oxidize it as per given unbalanced
equation. How much kg of K2Cr2O7 must be required if 1000 kg of sulphur is to be produced by
following reaction? (Molar mass of K2Cr2O7 = 294 g/mol.)
K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 + H2S K2SO4+Cr2(SO4)3+S+H2O
34. 100 ml of 0.05 M CuSO4(aq) solution was electrolysed using inert electrodes by passing current
till the pH of the solution was 2. The solution after electrolysis was neutralized and then treated
with excess of KI and the I2 formed is titrated with 0.04 M Na2S2O3. The volume of Na2S2O3
required is
35. A steel vessel of volume one litre is filled with a mixture of CH4 and O2 in 1: 2 mole ratio at a total
pressure of 1 atm at 270C. The gas mixture is exploded for complete reaction. What would be the
final pressure of the gaseous product at 1270C.
36. A certain acid–base indicator is red in acid solution and blue in basic solution. 75% of the
indicator is present in the solution in its blue form at pH = 5, calculate the pH at which the
indicator shows 90% red. [given log 3 = 0.477]
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13 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
2 2
37. If the roots of the equation x – px – 1 = 0 and x – qx – 1 = 0 form (in a suitable order) an
arithmetic progression with four members then
2 2
(A) p ,q
3 3
4 4
(B) p ,q
3 3
4 4
(C) p ,q
3 3
2 2
(D) p ,q
3 3
d2 y
38. For the curve sin x + sin y = 1 lying in the first quadrant L lim x , where L exists and is non
x 0 dx2
zero. Then
5
(A)
2
3
(B)
2
1
(C) L
4 2
1
(D) L
2 2
39. Let M(–1, 2) and N(1, 4) be two points in a plane rectangular coordinate system XOY. P is a
moving point on the x-axis. When MPN takes its maximum value, then which of the following is
true
(A) P(–7, 0)
(B) Area of triangle PMN is 4 units
(C) Equation of circumcircle of triangle PMN is (x + 7)2 + (y – 10)2 = 100
(D) P(1, 0)
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
41. Given A(0, 2) and two point B and C on the parabola y2 = x + 4 such that AB BC. Then the
y-coordinate of point C may belongs to
(A) y (–2, 2)
(B) y (–, 0] [4, )
(C) y [5, )
(D) y (–, –3]
42. If principal argument of z0 satisfying |z – 3| 2 and arg z 5i simultaneously, is , then
4
identify the correct statements
(A) |z0| = 17
8
(B) tan2
15
1
(C) tan
4
(D) |z0 – 5i| = 4 2
n
43. If Sn r ! , then for n > 6 (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
r 1
S S S
1 sin1 sin Sn 7 n ; 2 cos1 cos Sn 7 n ; 3 tan1 tan Sn 7 n ;
7 7 7
S
4 cot 1 cot Sn 7 n , then which of the following is correct
7
LIST – I LIST – II
P. Value of 1 1. 5
Q. Value of 2 2. 5 2
R. Value of 3 3. 6 2
S. Value of 4 4. 2 5
The correct option is:
(A) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 1
(B) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 1
(C) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 1
(D) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 2; S → 3
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15 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
x2 y2
44. Consider an ellipse (E) 1 , centred at point ‘O’ and having AB and CD as its major and
a2 b2
minor axes respectively. If S1 be one of its foci, radius of incircle of triangle OCS1 be 1 unit and
OS1 = 6 unit
LIST – I LIST – II
P. The length of the major axis of E is 1. 4
13
Q. The maximum distance of normal from centre of E is 2.
2
169
R. The distance between the directrix of E is 3.
12
25
S. The length of the latus rectum of E is 4.
13
The correct option is:
(A) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 4
(B) P → 1; Q → 2; R → 4; S → 3
(C) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 4; S → 3
(D) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 2
30
m 1
45. N1 be the number of zero’s at the ends of m .
m 5
N2 be the number of three digit numbers of form xyz such that x < y and z y.
2009! 2006!
N3 be the value of , (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function).
2008! 2007!
N4 be the number of positive integral pairs (x, y) satisfying the equation xy = 3370
LIST - I LIST - II
P. The number of divisors of N1 1. 8
Q. The number of divisors of N2 2. 12
R. The number of divisors of N3 3. 2
S. The number of divisors of N4 4. 4
The correct option is:
(A) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 4
(B) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2
(C) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 1
(D) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 1
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
LIST - I LIST - II
P. The function f1 is 1. continuous but not differentiable at x = 0
first derivative exists at x = 0 but second derivative does
Q. The function f2 is 2.
not exist
second derivative exists at x = 0, but it is not continuous
R. The function f3 is 3.
there
S. The function f4 is 4. second derivative exists at x = 0 and is continuous
The correct option is:
(A) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 1
(B) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 4
(C) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 2
(D) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 4
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
48. If log4(x + 2y) + log4(x – 2y) = 1. Then the minimum value of |x| – |y| is k . Then k is equal to
49. The value of tan 1º·tan 2º + tan 2º·tan 3º + ..... + tan 88º·tan 89º is equal to cot2 1º – n, then the
value of n2 is _____
1
50. Locus of a point P which divides all chords of slope of parabola x2 = 4y in the ratio 1 : 2
2
a b c
internally is another parabola with vertex , and length of latus rectum , then value of
9 9 9
2 2
ab c is
k2
51. If 3k p , then the value of p is
k 1
10 9
52. A room contains a single bulb and 22 22 identical switches. A man can switch on or switch off
any number of switches at a time. Find the minimum numbers of attempts required to identify the
correct switch for that bulb (Initially all the switch are either on or off)
1 1 1 1
53. If S 1 .....
, then [S] is equal to
2 3 4 1000000
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
54. Let S be the sum of digits of all the real coefficients of (1 + ix)2015. If log2 S = N, then N is equal to
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – IX
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
SECTION – A
1. A, C
Sol. v cos = v0 B v
v = v0 sec …(i)
m
at = 60,
v = 2 sec 60 = 2 2 = 4 m/s
v = v0 sec T
dv d
v 0 sec tan
dt dt
v sin A
a v 0 sec tan
v0 = 2 m/s
v 20
a tan2 sec
T cos = ma
mv02
T = ma sec = tan2 sec 2
0.5 4 3 4
T 24 N
1
T = 24 N
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
2. A, D
3
Sol. v x = v2 sin 2 = v2 sin 37 = v 2 …(i) m
5
4
vy = v1 sin 1 = v1 sin 53 = v1 …(ii)
5 A vy vx B
using conservation of momentum of system m1
along horizontal direction v1 m2 v2
m2 v 2 m1v1 m(v x sin 2 v y sin 1 ) 0 1 = 53 2 = 37
9 16
16v 2 9v1 25 v2 v1 0
25 25
25v 2 = 25 v 1
v1 = v2
v1
Velocity of cylinder, v v 2x v 2y (3)2 (4)2
5
v = v1 = v2 …(iii)
Now, using conservation of energy of the system
1 1 1
mgh m1v12 m2 v 22 mv 2
2 2 2
1
mgh (m1 m2 m)v 2
2
1
25gh = 50v 2
2
v gh 10 0.4 2 m/s
v = v1 = v2 = 2 m/s
3. B, C
Sol. Using conservation of angular momentum of the system about a M, R
horizontal axis passing through centre O.
P u
MR2
muR cos mR2 0 = 60 m
2
M O
muR cos 60 m R 2 0
2
1 1
0.5 20 2.5 0
2 4
0 = 8 rad/s
Now, using conservation of energy of the system
1 MR2
mgR(1 cos )
2 2
mR2 20 2
R 1M
mg m R 2 20 2
2 2 2
10 5 1 2
0.5
2
0 2
4 4
2 2
0 8
2 20 8 64 8 56
56 rad/s
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3 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
2R
Now, (M + m)g F = (M + m)
9
9 0.25
45 F = 56
2 9
F = 38 N (vertically upward)
4. A, D
Sol. 2T = dhg
2T 2 7 102
h 3 14 10 2 m 14cm h
gd 10 10 1 10 4
Force of mutual attraction between the plates is
h
gh2
F gydy
0
2 d
3 2 2
10 10 0.10 (14 10 )
= 19.6/2= 9.8 N
2
5. B, C
Sol. When 0 r R
B2r = 0jr2 dr
1 r
B 0 jr
2 j O
jR
Magnetic field at r = R/2, B 0
4
The linear current density i = jdr
The force of interaction per unit length between two halves is
R R
jr
F iB2r jdr 0 2r
0 0 2
R
0 j2 r 2 dr
0
j2R3
F 0
3
6. A, C
Sol. For the image formed by the first lens 10 cm 10 cm
3 1 2 1 3 2
A
v u R1 R2 0.2 cm
B O1 O2
3 4 3 a = 1 a = 1
4 1 2 1 3 2 w = 4/3
3v 10 10 10
4 1 1 1
3v 10 20 60
4 1 1
3v 15 10
v = 40 cm
1 v 1 3 40
Lateral magnification, m1 3
3 u 4 10
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
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5 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
ma a x
(S) 2kx 2f1 Ma …(i) k k
2 M = m /2
ma a/2 a/2
f1 f2 …(ii)
2 m, R m, R
mR2 a/2 = R
(f1 f2 )R
2
m R ma
(f1 f2 ) …(iii)
2 4
Adding (i), (ii) and (iii), we get
5ma 8kx
2kx a
4 5m
d2 x 8k 5m 5m
x T = 2 8k 2k
dt 2 5m
8. D
Sol. (P) n1 : n2 : n3 = 1 : 2 : 3 = 10 : 80 : 10 = 0.5 : 4 : 0.5
5
1 = 0.4 m
2
Y 2 1011
v 5000 m/s
8000
v 5000
f 12500 12.5 kHz ’
0.4
(Q) n1 : n2 : n3 = 1 : 2 : 3 = 30 : 40 : 30 = 1.5 : 2 : 1.5
5
1 = 0.4 m
2
Y 1.6 1011
v 8000 m/s
2500
v 8000
f 20000 20 kHz
0.4
(R) n1 : n2 : n3 = 1 : 2 : 3 = 10 : 60 : 30 = 0.5 : 3 : 1.5
5
1 = 0.4 m
2
Y 2 1011
v 5000 m/s
8000
v 5000
f 12500 12.5 kHz
0.4
(S) n1 : n2 : n3 = 1 : 2 : 3 = 15 : 60 : 25 = 1.5 : 6 : 2.5
10
1 = 0.2 m
2
Y 1.6 1011
v 8000 m/s
2500
v 8000
f 40000 40 kHz
0.2
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
9. C
3R
Sol. Q AB nC V T 2 300 900 R
2
WAB = 0
5R
QBC nCP T 2 (1800 600) 6000 R
2
WBC = PV = nRT = 2R(1800 600) = 2400 R
3R
QCD nCV T 2 (900 1800) 2700 R
2
W CD = 0
5R
QDA nCP T 2 (300 900) 3000 R
2
W DA = PV = nRT = 2R(300 900) = 1200 R
10. A
Sol. (P) z R (XL XC )i 3 (8 4)i 3 4i
z (3)2 (4)2 5
rms 100
Irms 20 A
z 5
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(Q) i = i
z XL i XCi R 6i 3i 8 3 6 8 8 6
48
z
(6 8i)
48(6 8i)
z
100
48
z 10
100
|z| = 4.8
120
Irms rms 25 A
|z| 4.8
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 i
(R) i
z XL i XCi 6i 3i 3 6 6
6
z 6i
i
z = R + z = 8 6i
| z | (8)2 (6)2 10
rms 50
Irms 5A
| z | 10
rms 100
(S) z1 R1 XL i 8 6i I1(rms) 10 A
| z1 | 10
rms 100
z2 R2 XCi 3 4i I2(rms) 20 A
| z2 | 5
2 2
Irms I1(rms) I2(rms) (10)2 (20)2 500 10 5 A
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7 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
11. 00057.76
Sol. The frequency of vibration of air column in the pipe
3v 3 340
f0 300 Hz
4 0 4 0.85
fs f0 4
fs f0 4 300 4
4 F
304
2
4 F 0.5
304
2 0.5 5 10 3
F
76
102
F = 57.76 (Newton)
12. 00001.28
Sol. Let the vertical upward displacement of the piston before coming to a v=0
complete stop is ‘x’. m x
In initial and final equilibrium of the piston
nRT0 nRT
PA mg u
( x)
nRT0 = mg …(i)
nRT = mg( + x) …(ii)
Now, nRT = mgx …(iii)
1 2
mu nC v T mgx
2
1 n3R
mu2 (T T0 ) mgx
2 2
1 3nRT
mu2 mgx
2 2
1 5
mu2 mgx
2 2
u2 88
x 1.28 meter
5g 5 10
vertical upward displacement of the piston = 1.28 meter.
13. 00002.84
Sol. Since the central maxima is formed at point ‘P’
d sin + (1 1)t1 = (2 1)t2 + d sin 1, t1 P
S1
1 M 1 cm
2 103 sin30 (1.5 1)t1 (1.8 1)3 10 3 2 10 3
100 O
1 103 + 0.5t1 = 2.4 103 + 0.02 103 N
2, t2
t1 = 2.84 103 S2
t1 = 2.84 mm
D=1 m
screen
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
14. 00003.98
Sol. Energy of each photon of light incident on the metal surface
hC 1240
E 2.48 eV
500
Kinetic energy of fastest photoelectron emitted
Kmax = E = 2.48 1.90 = 0.58 eV
z2
En = 13.6 2
n
(2)2
E 4 13.6 3.40 eV
44
Energy of the photon emitted during combination
E = Kmax E4 = 0.58 (3.40) = 3.98 eV
15. 00001.44
Sol. The equivalent circuit in steady state is shown. 8 F 4
The current through the battery in steady state is
32 2
Is 4A 2
8
Potential drop across 5 F capacitor in steady state, 5 F
V0 = 4 (2 + 4) = 24 Volt
Energy stored in 5 F capacitor in steady state
1 IS
U 5 10 6 (24)2 = 1.44 milli Joule = 32V
2
16. 00007.50
Sol. Let the charge on the conducting shell after being Q
earthed is Q. q
KQ 3kq R
0 3q
R 4R C B
3q A q
Q 0.8 R
4
Total charge that will flow to the earth is
3q 15q 15 4R
Q 3q 4 4 2 7.50 C
4
17. 00002.70
Sol. Charge on each capacitor, when switch S is opened
C 10
Q 1 2 18 90 C
2 2
Charge on the capacitor when the current through the inductor is maximum after closing the
switch ‘S’.
Q1 = C1 = 10 36 = 360 C
Q2 = C2 = 10 18 = 180 C
+Q Q +Q Q +Q1 Q1 Q2 +Q2
C C C C
imax
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9 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
1 1 1 C 2 1 2
Now, Q11 Q2 2 C12 C22 1 2 Limax
2 2 2 2 2
106 270 36 106 (270 18)
1 1 1 1
106 10 (36)2 10 (18)2 5 (18)2 2 10 3 imax
2
2 2 2 2
14580 (8100 810) 1 103 imax
2
103 imax
2
7290
imax 7.29 2.70 ampere
18. 00052.80
Sol. Thermal resistance of the cylinders are
2a
dr 1
R1 n2
a
2K1r 2K 1
4a
dr 1
R2 2K 2r 2K 2 n2
2a
Heat current flowing between the innermost and outermost cylindrical walls is
2
i 1
R1 R 2
1 = iR1
2
1 1 R1
R1 R2
1
(1 2 )
k1
1
1 1
k1 k 2
( 2 )k 2
1 1
k1 k 2
k11 k 2 2 (2k 84) (3k 32) 168 96
52.8C
k1 k 2 (2k 3k) 5
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. B, D
20. A, B, C, D
Sol. Through SPM only migration of solvent particle is permissible and hence none will be able to
make a mixture.
21. B, C, D
Sol. SiCl4 4H 2 O
H 4SiO 4 4HCl
BiCl3 H 2O
BiOCl 2HCl
22. B, C
Sol. (A) SiH3 3 N is a weaker base than CH 3 3 N
(B) BF3 is weaker Lewis acid than BI3 due to back bonding in BF3
(C) Solid N 2O5 is ionic in nature. It exist as NO 2 NO 3
(D) PH 3 is less basic than NH3
23. A, B, C
Sol. Zn OH 2 2NaOH
Na 2 ZnO2 2H 2O
Al OH 3 NaOH
NaAlO2 2H 2 O
Sn OH 2 2NaOH
Na 2SnO 2 2H 2O
24. A, B, D
Sol. 3A(g) 2B(g) 2C(g)
t=0 P0
2x 2x
t = 20 P0 – x
3 3
2P0 2P0
t 0
3 3
4P0
4 P0 = 3 atm
3
x
P0 3.5 t50% = 20 is the half life
3
x = 1.5 t75% = 2 × 20 = 40 min
t87.5% = 3 × t50% = 3 × 20 = 60
2
t99% = t 99.9%
3
2 400
= 10 t 50%
3 3
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11 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
25. A
Sol. NiCl24 sp3 and two unpaired e– – Tetrahedral
2
Ni CN 4 dsp2 and no unpaired e– – Square planar
26. D
2+
Sol. (P) Mg(OH)2(s) Mg + 2OH
s 2s
Ksp = 4s3 = 4 10-12
s = 10-4
[OH] = 2 10-4
pH = 10 + log 2
(Q) Basic buffer is formed. Hence,
1
pOH = pkb log = 4 – log 2
2
pH = 10 + log 2
(R) A salt of weak acid and weak base is formed in which ka = kb
hence, pH = 7 or
1 1 1
pH = pk w pka pkb
2 2 2
(S) H3PO4 H+ + H 2 PO4
H 2 PO4 H HPO4
HPO4 H PO4
pka2 pka3 8.102 12.5
pH of 0.01 M Na2HPO4 = =
2 2
20.602
pH = 10.301
2
Hence, q and r.
27. A
Sol. Application of Le Chatelier’s principle
28. B
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
SECTION – D
29. 00000.50
Sol.
30. 00001.09
Sol.
31. 00062.50
Sol.
= 62.50
32. 00001.81
Tb T 2 Lf
Sol. b2
Tf Tf L v
0.5 373 373 80
Tf 273 273 540
Tf 1.81
33. 03062.5
Sol. K2Cr2O7 + 4H2SO4 + 3H2S K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + 7H2O + 3S
Every 294 g K2Cr2O7 gives 96 g of S, so 3062.5 kg of K2Cr2O7 is required to produce 1000 kg of
sulphur.
34. 00112.5
Sol.
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13 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
35. 00001.33
Sol. CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O at 1270C the no of gaseous mole will remain same because
H2O will be in vapour form. These for the pressure change will be due to change in temperature
P1 P2
T1 T2
1 P
300 K 400 K
400 4
P 1.33 atm
300 3
36. 00003.56
[In – ]
Sol. pH = pk In log
[InH]
75
5 = pk In log pkIn = 4.523
25
10
pH = 4.523 + log = 4.523 – .954 = 3.56
90
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
SECTION – A
37. A, D
Sol. x2 – px – 1 = 0 roots x1 < 0 < x2 (assume)
2
x – qx – 1 = 0 roots y1 < 0 < y2
So (i) x1, x2, y1, y2 not possible as x2 > 0 and y1 < 0
(ii) x1, y1, y2, x2 are in A.P. then x1 + x2 = y1 + y2 p = q, not possible
(iii) x1, y1, x2, y2, then x2 – x1 = y2 – y1 p 2 4 q2 4
2 2
i.e. p = q p = –q 0
x x2 p p2 pq
Also, y1 1 1 0
2 2 2 2
Since p = –q
4 2
p2 ; p
3 3
2 2 2 2
Hence, (p, q) = , , ,
3 3 3 3
38. B, D
d2 y sin x cos 2 y sin y cos 2 x
Sol. Differentiate equation to get,
dx 2 cos3 y
Let sin x = t then sin y = 1 – t. Also cos x 1 t 2 and cos y 1 1 t 2 t 2 t
d2 y 3/2 1 t t
2
Then, t
dx 2 2 t
3/2
t 3 d2 y 1
Since lim 1 . So, that gives L lim x 2
x 0 x 2 x 0 dx 2 2
39. B, C, D
Sol. Centre of circle will lie on perpendicular bisector of MN. Let the centre be S(a, 3 – a)
Equation of circle (x – a)2 + (y – 3 + a)2 = 2(1 + a2)
MPN reaches maximum value when the circle through M, N and P will be tangent to the x-axis
at P
So, 2(1 + a2) = (a – 3)2 a = 1, –7
So the points are P(1, 0) and P(–7, 0)
MPN > MPN then P is (1, 0)
40. A, B, C, D
Sol. Based on basic concepts
41. B, C, D
y
Sol.
Suppose B y12 4, y1 and C y 2 4, y
1 A(0, 2)
m AB B
y1 2
mBC = –(y1 + 2) x
(–4, 0)
So, y – y1 = y1 2 y 2 4 y12 4 and (y y1)
C
We get, (2 + y1)(y + y1) + 1 = 0
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15 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
42. B, D
Sol. arg x i y 5 (0, 5) arg(z – 5i) =
4 4
y 5
tan1 z0(x0, y0) (4, 1)
x 4
y – 5 = –x x + y = 5
(3, 0) 4
Also, z 3 2
2 2
4
(x – 3) + y 2
Let z0 is point of contact of line and circle
z0 = 4 + i
1 8
tan ; tan2 and z0 17 & z0 5i 4 2
4 15
43. B
S
Sol. Sn 7 n 5
7
44. A
1
Sol. Area of OCS1 = b 6 3b
2
ab6
Semi-perimeter =
2
Inradius = 1 5b = 6 + a
S
Also, b2 + 36 = a2
13 5
Solving, we get a , b
2 2
13 5
Maximum distance of normal from centre = |a – b| = 4
2
25
2
2b2 4 25
Length of latus rectum =
a 13 13
2
a2 b2 12
e 2
=
a 13
13
2
2a 2 169
Distance between directrix =
e 12 12
13
45. A
Sol. (P) N1 = 137
(Q) N2 = 276
(R) N3 = 2008
(S) N4 = 8
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
46. B
x 2 x 0
Sol. (P) f1 x x 2 sgn x
2
x x 0
2x x 0
f1 x , f1 0 0
2x x 0
2 x 0
f1 x
2 x0
So first derivative exists at x = 0 but second derivative does not exist there
x
1
(Q) f2 x t 2 sin dt f2 0 0
0
t
1
f2 x x 2 sin , x 0, g(0) = 0
x
f2 0 0 but lim f2 x does not exist
x 0
1
(R) f3 x x 3 sin x , f3 0 0 , lim f3 x 0
x 1
1
x 3 sin x
f3 0 lim does not exist
x0 x
0 1 x 0
(S) f4 x 3
x 0 x 1
Second derivative exists and continuous at x = 0
SECTION – D
47. 00002.00
Sol. Average value of –17 and 11 is –3
Let f(x) = x3 – 3x2 + 5x – 3
(x – 1)3 + 2(x – 1)
The graph of f(x) is odd w.r.t to x = 1
The if the root of x 3 – 3x2 + 5x – 17 = 0 is = 1 + x1
Then the root of x3 – 3x2 + 5x + 11 = 0 is = 1 – x1
So, + = 2
48. 00003.00
x 2y 0
Sol. From x 2y 0
2 2
x 4y 4
x 2 y 0
We obtain 2 2
x 4y 4
In view of x > 0 and y 0, we have to find the minimum value of x – y
Let x – y = u substituting into x2 – 4y2 = 4
We obtain 3y2 – 2uy + (4 – u2) = 0
= 4u2 – 12(4 – u2) 0
u 3
4 1
If x and y , we get u 3
3 3
Therefore, minimum value of |x| – |y| = 3
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17 AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
49. 07921.00
tan r 1 tanr
Sol. tan1º
1 tanr tan r 1
Then tan1º tan2º tan 2º tan3º..... cot 2 1º 89
50. 00512.00
t12 t 22 1
Sol.
2 t1 t 2 2 (h, k)
t1 + t2 = 1
2t , t
1
2
1
4t 2t 2 2t 2 t 2 2t , t
2
2
2
Also, h 1 ; k 1 2
3 3
2
3h = 4t1 + 2(t2 + 1); 3k 2t12 1 t1
3h 2
t1 ; 3k 3t12 2t1 1
2
2
3h 2 3h 2
3k 3 2 1
2 2
2
8 4 2
h k a = 8, b = 2, c = 4
9 9 9
51. 00001.50
1
Sol. 1 + x + x2 ..... = infinite G.P. sum
1 x
Differentiate w.r.t. x
1
1 + 2x + 3x 2 ..... =
1 x 2
Multiply with x and differentiate, we get
2
2 2 2
1 + 2 x + 3 x + 4 x ..... =
2 3 x 1 2x x 1
4
x 1
1
k2 3
Multiply with x and put x =
3
, we get 3k
2
k 1
So p + q = 5
52. 01025.00
Sol. Let x be the number of switches then the minimum number be attempts required can be found by
n n+1
using. Such that if 2 < x 2
Then n + 1 will be the answer
53. 01998.00
1 y
Sol. Consider y (1, 1)
x 1 6 1
2, 10 – 1,
106
dx 2 106 1
So, S 1 1
6
1 x 1 10 ,
y
S < 1999 x 106
106 1
dx x
Also, S
1 x
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AITS-FT-IX (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
1998.001 < S
So, [S] = 1998
54. 01007.00
1
Sol. So the sum of real coefficients is equal to S
2
1 i 2015 1 i 2015 21007
log2 21007 1007 N
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – V
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01– 06, 19 – 24, 37 - 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 - 46) contains 12 questions. Based on this section contains TWO
(02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
2
36 E0R
(A) The acceleration of the topmost point of the hollow sphere at t = 0, is .
25 m
18
(B) The magnitude of frictional force at t = 0 is E0R2 .
25
2
12 E0R
(C) The acceleration of centre of mass of the hollow sphere at t = 0, is .
25 m
9
(D) The magnitude of frictional force at t = 0 is E0R2 .
25
3. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes through the process T = T0 + V3 where T0 is a positive
constant and V is molar volume. Then which of the following is/are correct.
1/3
(A) The volume for which pressure will be minimum is (T0/2) .
(B) The volume for which pressure will be minimum is (T0/2)2/3.
3
(C) The minimum pressure attainable is 21/3 RT02/3 .
2
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3 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
3
(D) The minimum pressure attainable is RT02/3 .
22/3
R
180
160
120
25
Q
B
(A) The resistance of unknown resistor R is 200 .
200
(B) the equivalent resistance across AB is
3
2
(C) The current in 25 resistor is ampere.
5
(D) The potential drop across 120 resistor is 60 volts.
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
1
(D) m 2 20
48
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5 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
10. The ratio of volume of gas in upper chamber to that of in lower chamber in final state.
(A) 2:1
(B) 1:2
(C) 4:2
(D) 1:4
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
11. There is a parabolic shaped bridge across the river of width 10 4 m/s
meter. The highest point of the bridge is 4 meter above the level
4m
of bank. A car of mass 952 kg is crossing the bridge at a constant
speed of 4 m/s. Find the force (in Newton) exerted on the bridge
by car when it is at the highest point ‘P’ of the bridge. 5m 5m
(take g = 10 m/s2)
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
13. When an inductor coil is connected to an ideal battery of emf 15 volts, a constant current 2.5 amp
flows if it is left connected for a long time. When the same inductor coil is connected to an AC
source of 20 volts and 25 Hz then the current is 2 ampere. The inductance of the inductor is
k
Henry. Find the value of k.
14. The excitation energy of a hydrogen like ion to its first excited state is 43.8 eV. Find the
magnitude of energy (in electron volts) needed to remove the electron from the ion in the ground
state.
15. One end of copper rod of uniform cross section and length 13.5 m is kept in contact with ice and
other end with water at 100C. At what distance ‘x’ (in meter) from 100C water along its length
should a temperature of 400C be maintained so that in steady state, the mass of ice melting be
equal to that of the steam produced in same time interval of time? Assume that whole system is
insulated from surrounding. Latent heat of fusion of ice and vaporization of water are 80 cal/gm
and 540 cal/gm, respectively.
O
16. A rod of length ‘’ can rotate freely in a horizontal plane about
vertical axis OO passing through one of its ends with angular 2
velocity . The mass per unit length linearly increases from
to 2 from the axis of rotation to other end as shown in the
figure. Find the tension (in Newton) in the rod at the middle
point. (take = 2 rad/sec, = 4 kg/m, = 3.6 meter and
O
neglect the gravity)
18. A uniform thin rod and circular arc of radius 10 meter are situated as
shown in the figure. The mass of the circular arc is 37 kg and mass
10 m
per unit length of the rod and the circular arc is same. The net
gravitational intensity at the centre O is KG newton/kilogram where 30
44
G is gravitational constant. Find the magnitude of K. (take tan 37 =
3/4)
O
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7 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
20. Which of the following compound(s) is/are capable of producing H2 on addition of active metal like
(Na/K)?
(A) HC CH
(B) Ph Ph
Ph Ph
(C) OCH 3
NO 2
(D) CH3CH2SH
21. Which of the following statements is/are correct provided solutes are not to suffer dissociation or
association?
(A) The magnitude of osmotic pressure is not dependent on the nature of the membrane
provided it is perfectly semipermeable.
(B) Equimolecular quantities of different solutes dissolved in the same volume of a solvent
exert equal osmotic pressure at the same temperature.
(C) Equal volumes of different solutions which are at the same temperature and exert same
osmotic pressure contain an equal number of solute molecules.
(D) The osmotic pressure of a substance in a dilute solution is the same as it would exert if it
exists as a gas in the same volume as that occupied by the solution at the same
temperature.
(C) Symmetrical hydrogen bonding is present in HF2 . i.e. the H-atom is midway.
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
(D) Hydrogen bond is an extreme of dipole – dipole attraction and therefore the force is
inversely related to the cube of distance between the dipoles.
23. OH
CO 2 H
Correct set of reagents required for above conversion is/are
+
(A) Conc. HI; KCN; H3O
(B) Conc. H3PO4; HBr in presence of peroxide, Mg-dryether; CO2, H3O+.
(C) Anhydrous ZnCl2/HCl, Mg. dry ether, CO2, H3O+.
+
(D) Conc. H2SO4, HCl in presence of peroxide, KCN, H3O .
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
A tertiary alcohol H upon acid catalyzed dehydration gives a product I. Ozonolysis of I leads to
compounds J and K. Compound J upon reaction with KOH gives benzyl alcohol and a salt of carboxylic
acid, L. Whereas K on reaction with KOH gives only M.
O
H3C Ph
M=
Ph H
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9 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
H Ph
(B) H3C Ph
H Ph
(C) Ph CH3
H CH2Ph
(D) H3C CH3
Ph H
Paragraph for Question Nos. 27 and 28
Cl
AgClO3 2
90o C
AgCl O2 X
Excess O
X
3
Y O2
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. The pH of a solution formed by mixing 10 ml 0.1 M NaH2PO4 and 20 ml 0.1 M Na2HPO4 would be
(Given pK1 2.2, pK 2 7.2 , log2 = 0.3)
(ii) the compounds which can involve in Cannizzaro reaction (including intramolecular) is ‘b’.
O O O O
|| || || ||
HCHO, PhCHO, C 2H5 C CH3 , CH3 C H, H C C H
O O
O O
|| ||
, , Ph C C H
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
31. X = C4H10O
(A) Isomers of compound X give positive iodoform test (excluding stereoisomer) = a
(B) Isomers of compound X do not give H2 on treatment with Na metal (excluding stereoisomers)
=b
(C) Isomers of compound X give red colour in Victor Mayer test = c
abc
Then would be?
2
32. If time required when a current of 9.65 amp is passed through 80 ml of 0.1 M NaCl solution in
order to make its pH = 12 is x sec. and time required when a current of 965 amp is passed
through an aqueous solution of CuSO4 to produce 0.28 litres of oxygen gas at STP is y sec. then
x
the value of would be
y
33. 6 mol of a mixture containing same number of moles of NaNO3, NH4NO3, LiNO3, Ca(NO3)2,
Pb(NO3)2 and AgNO3, was heated strongly. Total number of moles of O2(g) evolved is:
34. Among the following acids, if number of acids stronger than H3PO4 is x and number of monobasic
acids is y. then x/y would be?
H2CO3, H3PO3, CH3CO2H, H2SO4, H3PO2, H4P2O7, HClO4, H3BO3, HNO3.
2
35. The overall formation constant of Co NH3 6 in aqueous solution is 105 and the standard
3
potential for reduction of Co3+ (aq) and Co NH3 6 aq are as follows
Co3 aq e Co2 aq Eo 1.90
3 2
Co NH3 6 aq e Co NH3 6 aq Eo = + 0.1 V
3
If the nearest overall formation constant of the Co NH3 6 ion is 10x. Then the value of x would
be (Given : Ecell = Eocell 0.06logQ ]
36. The activation energy for a reaction is 30.8 × 298 × 4.606 cal/mol. If the increase in the rate
constant when its temperature is increased from 298 K to 308 K is x % then ‘x’ would be
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37. The number of codes of 20 digits which can be formed using digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 such that
difference of consecutive digit is one is N, then
(A) total number of positive integers which divides N is 40
(B) N is divisible by 38
(C) N is divisible by 7
(D) the number of ordered pair (a, b) such that a b = N and a, b I+ and gcd (a, b) = 1 is 4
38. Person A randomly selects 4 distinct numbers from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} and arrange
them in descending order to form a 4 digit number and person B randomly selects 4 distinct
numbers from set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8} and also arranges them in descending order to form a 4
digit number. Then which of the following is/are correct?
(A) probability that person A’s 4 digit number is greater than person B’s number is
8
C3 1 1
1 9
9
C4 2 C4
1
(B) probability that person A and B have same 4 digit number is 9
C4
(C) probability that person A’s 4 digit number is greater than person B’s number is
2 8 C3 8 C4 1
2 9 C4
8
C4
(D) probability that person A and B have same 4 digit number is 9
C4
39. A rabbit begins at the origin and runs up the positive y-axis with speed 5 m/s. At the same time, a
dog runs at speed 10 m/s from the point (20, 0) in pursuit of rabbit. Which of the following is/are
correct?
40
(A) the dog meet rabbit at the point 0,
3
(B) the dog meet rabbit at the point (0, 10)
3
2 80
(C) the equation of the path followed by dog 2y x x 2 2 20 x
3 20 3
(D)
the dog will pass the point 4, 20 during his run
40. Let f : R (0, 1) be a continuous function, then which of the following function has/have the
value zero at some point in the internal (0, 1)?
/2
(A) f x f t tan tdt
0
(B) x11 – f(x)
x
(C) e x f 2 t dt
0
x
(D) e x f t dt
0
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
x2 y 2
41. The normal at a variable point P on ellipse 1 , (a > b) meets axes of the ellipse in Q and
a2 b2
R. Then which of the following is/are correct statement(s)
(A) the locus of mid-point of QR is ellipse
(B) the locus of mid-point of QR is conic whose eccentricity is same as of given ellipse
(C) The locus of mid-point of QR is hyperbola
(D) The locus of mid-point of QR is conic with its eccentricity half of the eccentricity of given
ellipse
42. Two fixed points P and Q are 4 units apart and are on same side of a variable line L. Let PM and
QN are perpendicular distance of P and Q from line L satisfy equation PM + 3QN = 4, then line L
always touches a circle C
(A) the centre of circle C lies on line PQ
(B) the radius of circle is 1
(C) the radius of circle is 2
(D) the centre of the circle C lies on perpendicular bisector of PQ
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Let L be a straight line passing through (1, 1, 1) which is parallel to x + y + z = 1 and intersect the line
x + 2y + z = 1, x + y + 2z = 3
x y z x y z
44. The equation of line which intersect the line L and & parallel to is
1 9 17 1 2 3
x 1 y 1 z 2
(A)
1 2 3
x 1 y 2 z 2
(B)
2 4 3
x y z
(C)
7 14 21
x 1 y 1 z 1
(D)
1 2 3
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13 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
2 3 2.4 5 2.4.6 7
Let f x x x x x ..... x (0, 1)
1.3 1.3.5 1.3.5.7
1
45. The value of f is
2
(A)
2
(B)
3 2
(C)
2 2
(D)
4 2
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
2r 1
n
cos 2
is for (cot 2, cot 1), then the value of [ ] is equal to _____ (where
–1 –1
47. If lim
n 2r 1
r 1
[.] denotes the greatest integer function)
n 3 3
C1 n 1 n C3 n 3 .....
,
48. If the value of n2 n 3 2n where n = 10, is , then 16 is equal to _____
49. In ABC let the value of a3 cos 3B + 3 a2b cos(A – 2B) + 3 ab2 cos(2A – B) + b3 cos 3A is , then
the value of 3 is equal to _____
c
2
d2 1
n
51. Let an = 8 + (n – 1)d, n N. If lim
n
1 a2 4 , then the value of d is equal to _____
r 1 r
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
52. Let P(x) be a polynomial whose coefficient are integer satisfies P(1) = 5 and P(2) = 7. The
smallest possible positive value of P(10) is equal to _____
53. Let ‘O’ be centre of circle as shown in figure and AE be a chord from E
A the diameter AP is drawn and M is foot of perpendicular drawn
from E on AP. A circle is drawn such that it touches EM, AP at D and
AE
circle whose diameter is AP, then the value of is _____ A P
AD O M D
54. Let f : A A where A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}, then number of functions f such that f(f(f(x))) = x,
x A is _____
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – V
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
1. A, B
Sol. Q PEsin37 y
3
2R2 R E0
5
6 5 53
R3E0 mR2
5 3
O
18 RE0
25 m
x
Q
2. A, B, D
Sol. When the vessel starts accelerating then 2V00g
the sphere gets completely immersed in
the liquid of density 20.
So,
5 V00a 2V00a
T V0 20 0 a2 g2 V0 0 g .
3
H 53
53
(3/5)H T
V00g
3. A, C, D
Sol. PV = nRT
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
3
nRT nR(T0 V )
P
V V
1/ 3
dP T
0, V 0
dV 2
R(T0 T0 / 2) 3
Pmin 1/3
RT02/3 21/3 .
T0 2
2
4. B, C, D
1 1 1 90 cm
Sol.
v u f
v = 100 cm
100 cm
110 cm
5. A, B, C, D
Sol. On increasing frequency stopping potential and maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
increases.
Kmax = hf = eV0
If is decreased, Kmax and V0 both will increases.
With increases in distance between cathode and anode ‘f’ remains unchanged.
6. A, B, C, D
Sol. Equivalent resistance between P and Q = 100 6 amp 2 amp
400 A 4 amp
So current towards P = 4 ampere
100
10
Current through R = 6 4 = 2 ampere
400
So, R = 200
2 100
R
100
180
100 160
120
100 25
7. A
8. B
Sol. (for Q. 7 to Q. 8)
By the conservation of angular momentum about ‘O’
I1 I2 I0
Induced emf in the loop
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3 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
1
B 1 2 2
2
Torque on the rod OM about ‘O’
N
B 2 (1 2 ) B2 4 1
dr B r = = 0 22 M
0 4R
8R P
O 2 Q
B 2 4 0
I 2
4R 2 ‘B’
3B2 2
0
2 t
d2 3B 2 2 t
= dt 2 = 1 e 4mR
0 0 4mR 0 2
2
2
1 1 1
Heat produced = I02 I02 m 2 20
2 4 12
9. B
10. A
Sol. (for Q. 9 to Q. 10)
Let P2 is the initial pressure in upper chamber
mg
P2 P0 2P0
A
V2 = A 12 102 m3
Let P2 and V2 are final pressure and volume of upper chamber and lower piston moved by cm.
3
V2 A(28 )102 m
P2 V2 P2 V2
24P0
P2
28
Let P1 is initial pressure in lower chamber
2mg
P1 P0 3P0
A
3
V1 A 8 102 m
Let lower piston moved by ‘’ cm and P1 and V1 are final pressure and volume of lower chamber
mg 24P0 52
P1 P2 P0 P0
A 28 28
3
V1 A(8 )102 m
P1V1 P1V1
52
3P0 A 8 102 P0 A(8 )10
2
28
Solving this = 4 cm
52 4 5 2
P1 P0 2P0 2 10 N/m
28 4
24P0
P2 P0
28
V2 28 24
2
V1 8 12
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
SECTION – D
11. 04645.76
Sol. equation of parabola N
2
y = kx
y = h = ka2 v
h x
k 2 mg h
a
h 2
y 2 x a
a
3/ 2
dy 2
1 y
dx
R
d2 y
dx 2
1
R(x 0)
2k
mv 2
mg N
R
mv 2
N mg m(g v 2 2k) 4645.76 N
R
12. 00002.35
Sol. Flux passing through the loop ABCD
(8/5)
I I 8
0 dr 0 n (C, D)
2 r 2 5 (8/5)
D
0.47 10 37
0 2.35 0
2 37 74
I (A, B)
13. 00000.16
Sol. When DC source is connected resistance of inductor
15
R 6
2.5
When AC source connected
20
Z 10
2
Z2 R2 XL2
XL 8
2fL = 8
8 0.16
L
2 25
14. 00058.40
Sol. E2 E1 43.8
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5 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
E1
E1 43.8
(2)2
43.8 4
E1 58.40 eV
3
15. 00001.35
400 0 13.5 m
Sol. Qice = KA t
13.5 x Ice Water
Q KA(400 0)t (0C) x (100C)
So ice melt, m ice = ice …(i) 400C
LF 80(13.5 x)
(400 100)
Qwater = KA t
x
Q KA(400 100)
msteam water t …(ii)
Lv 540x
mice msteam
400 300
80(13.5 x) 540x
6(13.5 x) 54x
6 13.5 (54x 6x)
6 13.5
x 1.35 m
60
16. 00138.24
T / 2 O
x 2
Sol. dT 1 dx x
0 2
2 2 2 2
T 4 (3.6)2 (2)2 138.24
3 3 x dx
O
T + dT T
17. 00006.08
mR2
Sol. Idisc = I0 = kR4
4
mR2
I0
4
4
R
IPQ k (3 2)R I0 I0 2 I0 m( 2R)2
320 4mR2 320I0 16I0 304I0
18. 00002.16
2G
Sol. I 2 sin
R 2
Putting all values
I = 2.16 G newton/kilogram
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. B
Sol. 2Na2CrO 4 H2O 2CO 2 Na2Cr2O7 2NaHCO3
3K 2MnO4 2H2O 4CO2 2KMnO 4 MnO2 4KHCO3
20. A, B, D
21. A, B, C, D
22. A, B, C, D
23. B
24. C, D
25. B
26. A
Sol. (for Q. 25 to Q. 26)
H O Zn
H
Dehydration
I K
2
Aldol condensation
3o Alcohol O
H3C CH3
Ph CH2 OH L
Ph M H
OH OH 2 Ph CH3
H
OH2
CH3 Dehydration CH3
Ph Ph H Ph
Ph Ph
Ph H3C Ph
H3C O
O3 /Zn
Ph H
O O Ph I H
O O KOH
Ph C H H3C C Ph Aldol condensation
J K
O
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7 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
27. B
28. D
Sol. 2AgClO3 Cl2
90o C
2AgCl 2ClO2 O2
x
2ClO2 2O3 Cl2O6 2O2
y
Cl2 O6 2NaOH NaClO3 NaClO4 H2 O
4HClO 4 P4O10 2Cl2O7 4HPO3
SECTION – D
29. 00007.50
Sol. This is a buffer solution where H2PO 4 acts as the acid and NaH2PO4 is the salt.
HPO 4
pH pK 2 log
H2PO4
7.2 + log 2
7.50
30. 00009.00
Sol. (a) 5
O
O O
|| ||
(Except C2H5 C CH3 , CH3 C H, ,
(b) 4
31. 00003.50
Sol. a = 1; butan-2-ol
b = 3 (ethers)
c = 3 (1o alcohols)
32. 00001.60
Sol. pH = 12, pOH = 2
OH 10 2
33. 00002.25
Sol. 6 compounds has 1 mole each
NH4NO3 do not give O2
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
1
2LiNO3
Li2 O 2NO2 O2
1 mole 2 0.25 mole
2Ca NO3 2 2CaO 4NO2 O2
1 mole 0.5 mole
2AgNO3
2Ag 2NO2 O2
1 mole 0.5 mole
2NaNO3
Na2 O O2 NO NO2
1 mole 0.5 mole
Total number of moles of O2 evolved = 2.25
34. 00001.20
Sol. x = 6; (except H2CO3; CH3CO2H; H3BO3)
y=5
35. 00035.00
Sol. Co 2 6NH3 Co NH3 6
2
K 1 105
3
Co 3 6NH3 Co NH3 6 K 2 10 x
Co3 e
Co2 Eo 1.9 V
2 3
Co NH3 6 Co NH3 6 e E o 0.1 V
2 3
Co 3 Co NH3 6 Co 2 Co NH3 6 Eo 1.8 V
0.06 K
Eo log 2 (at equilibrium)
1 K1
K2
1.8 0.06log
105
K2
30 log
105
K 2 1035
36. 00900.00
k 2 30.8 298 4.606 308 208
Sol. log
k1 2.303 2 308 298
k
log 2 1
k1
k2
10
k1
k 2 10k1
10k1 k1
% increased (x) 100
k1
= 900.00
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9 AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
37. A, B, D
Sol. Let An denotes number of codes which ends with 0 or 4, Bn denotes number of codes which ends
with 1 or 3 and Cn denotes number of codes which ends with 2
An + 1 = Bn = Cn + 1, Bn + 1 = An + 2Cn, N = 23·39
38. B, C
8
C4 1
Sol. For same number probability is 9
8
C4 C4
39. A, C
dy y 5t
Sol. Let (x, y) be the point on the path followed by dog, then
dx x
xy – y = –5t ..... (1)
On differentiating equation (1), w.r.t. x
dt 1 y 2
xy = –5 =
dx 2
40. B
Sol. Use IVT
Let h(x) = x11 – f(x)
h(0) < 0 and h(1) > 0
41. A, B
x2 y2
Sol. Locus of the mid-point is 1
a4e4 a4 e4
2 2
4a 4b
42. A, B
Sol. Let P, Q be (2, 0) and (6, 0) respectively
43. D
x 1 y 1 z 1
Sol. Equation of L is
4 3 1
44. D
x y z
Sol. Required line passes through (1, 1, 1) and parallel to
1 2 3
45. C
/2
sin1 x
3
Sol. f x x sin t x sin t ..... dt
0 1 x2
46. D
/2
sin1 x
x sin t x sin t
3
Sol. f x ..... dt
0 1 x2
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – D
47. 00000.00
2r 1
n
cos 2
Sol. lim ncot
n
r 1 2r 1
48. 00001.00
Sol. Expanding (ex + 1)n – (ex – 1)n in two ways
49. 00001.00
Sol. (ae–iB + beiA)3 = (c + i(b sin A – a sin B))3 = c3
50. 00002.00
Sol. Use integration by parts, then use expansion
51. 00006.00
n
d2 8 d 8 nd 8 d
Sol. lim 1 2 lim
n ar n 8 8 n 1 d 8
r 1
52. 00023.00
Sol. P(x) = Q(x)(x – 1)(x – 2) + 2x + 3
P(10) = 72n + 23
53. 00001.00
Sol. From similar AEM and APE
AE AM
AP AE
AE2 = AM·AP = (AD – r)AP ..... (1)
AB both circles touches each other (R – r)2 = r2 + OD2 = r2 + (AD – R)2
AE = AD
54. 00351.00
7
Sol. C7 7C1 10 2 2 7C4 2
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – V
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46) contains 12 questions. Each question has TWO (02)
matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements
from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. The length of sonometer wire between two fixed ends is 100 cm. Three bridges be placed so as
to divide the wire into four segments whose fundamental frequencies are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
from the left end. Then which of the following is/are correct.
(A) The position of the first bridge from the left fixed end is 48 cm
nd
(B) The position of the 2 bridge from the right fixed end is 28 cm
rd
(C) The position of the 3 bridge from the left fixed end is 88 cm
rd
(D) The separation between the first bridge and the 3 bridge is 40 cm
(a, 0, 0)
O(0, 0, 0) A x
(0, 0, a)
E
(A) coordinates of ‘P’ is (a r, a r, r) and a >> r, then flux passing through surface
7q
OABC is .
240
(B) coordinates of ‘P’ is (a r, a r, r) and a >> r, then flux passing through surface
q
OCDE is .
240
(C) coordinates of ‘P’ is (a + r, a + r, r) and a >> r, then flux passing through surface
q
OABC is .
240
(D) coordinates of ‘P’ is (a + r, a + r, r) and a >> r, then flux passing through surface
q
OCDE is .
240
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3 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
P
P
C
C
(A) (B)
A B
B A
T
V
T
C A B C
(C) (D)
B A
V V
/4
4
(A) The tension in the string ‘A’ immediately after the string ‘B’ is cut, is mg .
7
2
(B) The tension in the string ‘A’ immediately after the string ‘B’ is cut, is mg .
7
(C) The acceleration of centre of mass of the rod immediately after the string ‘B’ is cut, is
3
g.
7
(D) The acceleration of centre of mass of the rod and the block immediately after the string
5
‘B’ is cut, is g .
7
R
q
7R
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
kq2
(A) The energy stored in the space between 3R to 5R (cavity) is .
15R
kq2
(B) The energy stored in the space between 3R to 5R (cavity) is .
30R
(C) The amount of work has to be performed to slowly transfer the charge ‘q’ from center
29 kq2
through the orifice to infinity is .
210 R
(D) The amount of work has to be performed to slowly transfer the charge ‘q’ from center
38 kq2
through the orifice to infinity is .
105 R
6. A source ‘S’ of sound wave of fixed frequency ‘f’ and an observer ‘O’ are located in air initially at
the space point A and B, a fixed distance apart. State in which of the following cases, the
observer will not see any Doppler effect and will receive the same frequency ‘f’ as produced by
the source
(A) Both the source ‘S’ and observer ‘O’ remains stationary but wind blows with constant
speed in arbitrary direction.
(B) The observer ‘O’ remains stationary but the source ‘S’ moves parallel to and in the same
direction and with the same speed as wind.
(C) The source ‘S’ remains stationary but the observer ‘O’ and the wind have same speed
away from the source.
(D) The source ‘S’ and the observer ‘O’ move directly against the wind but both with the
same speed.
7. A tank of mass 20m (including shells) fires shells of mass 2m, 4m and 8m with velocity v 0 relative
to the tank after firing, in the horizontal direction. The tank is placed over a smooth horizontal
surface. Randomly any shell is fired from the tank and all the shells are fired. Then match the
following.
LIST–I LIST–II
The magnitude of velocity of tank with respect to 29
P. 1. v0
ground after firing all shell, may be equal to 30
The magnitude of velocity of tank with respect to 4
Q. 2. v0
ground after firing all shell, may be equal to 5
The magnitude of velocity of shell of mass 4m with 59
R. 3. v0
respect to ground may be equal to 60
The magnitude of velocity of shell of mass 2m with v0
S. 4.
respect to ground may be equal to
9v 0
5.
10
(A) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S→2
(B) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 2; S→5
(C) P → 3; Q → 5; R → 4; S→2
(D) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 5; S→1
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5 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(1)
8. All identical capacitor plates each of area A are arranged such
that adjacent plates are at d distance apart. Plates are (2)
(3)
connected to a source of emf V volts as shown in figure. Match (4)
the quantities in List –I with their respective answer in List-II. A (5) B
(6)
(dielectric constant in each shaded region is k = 2) (7)
(8)
(9) V
(10)
(11)
(12)
F
LIST–I LIST–II
AV
P. Charge on plate 3 (multiple of 0 ) 1. 4/3
d
130 AV 2
Q. The heat rejected by the system (multiple of ) 2. 1
d
13A 0
R. Equivalent capacitance between AB (multiple of ) 3. 1/3
d
Potential difference between the plates 4 and 7 (multiple of
S. 4. 2/3
V/2)
5. 5/3
(A) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S→5
(B) P → 5; Q → 2; R → 4; S→3
(C) P → 4; Q → 5; R → 1; S→2
(D) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 4; S→1
9. In List –I a constant force F is applied on the rod of mass m and length ‘’ such that in each case
rod moves. A transverse pulse is created at the end point P in each case. The time to move the
pulse from P to Q is given in List –II. Then match the following.
LIST–I LIST–II
P (m, ) Q
F
P. =0 1. 12 sec
(m = 4 kg, = 20 m, F = 5 N)
P (m, ) Q
F
Q. = 1/20 2. 20 sec
(m = 9 kg, = 32 m, F = 8 N)
F
Q
R. (m, ) 3. 8 sec
P
(m = 7 kg, = 14 m, F = 2 N)
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Q F
(m, )
= 1/10
S. P 4. 14 sec
30
(m = 10 kg, = 20 m, F = 2 N)
5. 18 sec
(A) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S→2
(B) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 1; S→4
(C) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 4; S→2
(D) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 4; S→1
10. Some rigid body or block connected with springs are shown in List – I. All the rigid body or block
shown are in equilibrium and their time periods of oscillation are given in List – II.
List – I List – II
2k
2k
(9/16)k
2k
3 m
(P) 6k (1)
2k 2 5k
R/2 12k
0
There is sufficient friction between the disc and horizontal
surface such that pure rolling exist. All the springs and
pulleys are ideal and massless. If the disc is displaced
(rotated anticlockwise) towards left and then released, then
the time period of oscillation of the disc is (mass of the disc
and its radius is m and R respectively, springs constant of
each springs are shown in figure) (In the shown position all
the springs are at their natural length)
S1 S2 S2 S
1
30
30 4k 30
4k 30
g
7m
(Q) (2) 2
k
16k
All the springs and pulleys are ideal and massless. If the
block is slightly pulled vertically downward from its
equilibrium position, then the time period of oscillation of
the block is (assume strings are taught all the time)
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7 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
k/32
k/16
k/4
k/8
m
(R) (3)
2k
m
All the pulleys and strings are massless and frictionless.
Find the time period of oscillation of the block as shown in
the figure. (Springs and strings are also massless)
P B 4K
/2 /2
4K 8K
5 3m
(S) m
C2
(4)
C1 x 12 k
/2 /2
8K A
Q
In the figure shown arrangement is placed on horizontal
frictionless plane. The mass of rod PA and QB are
negligible and they are free to rotate about hinge point P
and Q respectively in the horizontal plane. The block of
mass ‘m’ is attached to springs. Springs are light and their
stiffness are shown in the figure. The block is slightly
displaced along x–axis then released. Then the time period
of oscillation of the block is
m
(5) 2
2k
(A) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S→2
(B) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S→5
(C) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S→1
(D) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 4; S→1
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
(A)
11. A ball is projected with speed 20 2 m/s at an angle of 45 (B)
with horizontal it collide with the wall and after two
successive collision it comes at the projection point. Then
find the coefficient of restitution between ball and wall B.
e = (1/2)
20 2
45
5m 10m
12. A wire is made by attaching two segments together end to end. One segment is made of
aluminium and other is steel. The effective linear expansion of two segment is 17 106/C. The
fraction length of aluminium is (linear coefficients of thermal expansion of aluminium and steel are
23 106/C and 11 106/C respectively).
14. Two charged particles P and Q of same mass ‘m’ having charge q 45
and q are projected with same magnitude of velocity v into P
Q B
magnetic field B as shown in the figure. Find the maximum v
separation (in meter) between the charged particles when they are
inside the magnetic field. Ignore electric and magnetic effect due to
charges on themselves. [take (mv/qB) = 3.14]
15. Two charged particles (m, q) and (2m, –2q) are placed in a E
gravity free space where a uniform electric field E exists as
shown in figure. After the particles are released they stay at
(2q, 2m) (q, m)
a constant distance from each other. What is the distance
between them in meter? (Neglected the gravitational
kq 27
interaction). (K is electrostatic constant and take )
E 8
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9 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
17. The main scale of vernier calipers reads in millimeter and its one division is equal to one
millimeter. Its vernier is divided into 6 divisions, which coincide with 15 divisions of main scale.
Further more when a cylinder is tightly placed along its length between two jaws, it is observed
that the zero vernier scale lies just right to 25th division of main scale and fifth division of vernier
scale coincide with the main scale. Then find the measured value in millimeter.
D D
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. O
N NH2
NH2NH2
20.
H O
O
3
A B
A and B can be distinguished by
(A) Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution
(B) NaOI
(C) Benedict’s solution
(D) Brady’s reagent
21. Identify the correct statement(s) given for the reduction of the following compounds:
(x) HO 2 C
H
NH N COOCH3 (w)
(y) O 2 N
O
(z) C6 H5
O
(r)
(A) LiAlH4 reduces x, y, z, w, r
(B) NaBH4 reduces ‘r’ only
(C) Na/C2H5OH reduces x, r and w only
(D) (CH3)2CHOH + [(CH3)2CHO–]3Al, reduces only ‘r’
22. In the Froth Floatation process, ZnS and PbS can be separated by
(A) using xanthates
(B) adjusting the proportion of oil to water
(C) using NaCN
(D) using cresols
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11 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Fertilizer
Q. Sodium thiosulphate 2.
Oxidizing agent
R. Carbon sub oxide 3.
Anhydride of malonic anhydride
S. Ammonium nitrate 4.
Antidote to cyanide poisoning
5.
(A) P → 1, 2; Q → 1, 5; R → 1, 4; S → 1, 2
(B) P → 1, 3; Q → 1, 4; R → 1, 5; S → 1, 2, 3
(C) P → 1, 3; Q → 1, 5; R → 1, 4; S → 1, 2, 3
(D) P → 1, 2; Q → 1, 4; R → 1, 5; S → 1, 2
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
NO2
Br
Q. 2. Nucleophilic addition
NO2
CHO
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. Chandreyi went to beauty parlour to bleach her hair by H2O2 solution. Requirement of oxygen for
a good bleach is 10% by mass of hair. Knowing mass of her hair to be 520 g, what concentration
of H2O2 (in M); she should be looking at the beauty parlour (if each bottle contains 500 ml of H2O2
and fully consumed during the bleach)?
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13 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
30. Wave length of first line of Balmer series of He+ ion is x times of that of its last line. Then the
value of x would be:
31. Among the following if number of linear molecules are x and number of angular molecules are y.
then value of x/y would be?
O3, N2O, NO2, SO2, CO2, SnCl2, Cl2O, HCN, NO2
32. If number of electrons present in 1990 mg of perchlorate ion is a ×1023. Then the value of a would
23
be? (NA = 6.02 × 10 )
33. In a crystalline solid, atoms of X forms FCC packing and the atoms of Y occupy all octahedral
voids. If all the atoms along one body diagonal are removed, then the simplest formula of the
crystalline solid will be XaYb, the value of (a/b) is:
34. The number of following amines, which are relatively more basic than benzyl amine is/are a and
the amines which can be easily prepared by Gabriel’s phthalimide synthesis is/are b then the
value of a/b would be:
H3C CH3 NH2
NH2 N
CH3
35. A chain silicone polymer containing 7 Si atoms is prepared by hydrolysis of (CH3)2SiCl2 and
(CH3)3SiCl. The ratio of (CH3)2SiCl2 units to (CH3)3SiCl units required to prepare that polymer that
cannot take part in further condensation reaction, would be?
36. A solution contains 0.6 g urea and 18 g glucose in 100 cc water at 27oC. If the osmotic pressure
of the solution is p bars; then find the value of p. (R = 0.083 L bar mol-1 K-1)
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1 1
e
g x
37. I dx dy , then which of the following is/are correct statement(s)?
0 f y
e 1
(A) for f(y) = y and g(x) = x2 the value of I =
2
3 e 1
(B) for f(y) = y and g(x) = x the value of I <
2
2e
(C) for f(y) = y2 and g(x) = x the value of I <
3
2e
(D) for f(y) = y2 and g(x) = x the value of I >
3
50
2r 1
38. Let p be , then which of the following is/are correct
r 1 2r
1
(A) p
15
1
(B) p
10
1
(C) p
151
1
(D) p
2
39. Let the complex number z be root of the equation 11z10 + 10iz9 + 10iz – 11 = 0, then which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) |z|2 + |z| + 1 = 3
2
(B) |z| – |z| + 1 = 1
2
(C) |z| + |z| + 1 = 7
2
(D) |z| + |z| + 1 = 8
40. The number of positive integers of n digits chosen from set {2, 3, 7, 9} which are divisible by 3 is
(A) 22 for n = 3
(B) 23 for n = 3
(C) 86 for n = 4
(D) 342 for n = 5
41. Let f : [0, 1] R be a function with continuous second derivative and f(x) (0, 1] x [0, 1]. Let
x x
2 3
f t dt g x , g(0) = f(0), f t dt h x , then for x [0, 1]
0 0
(A) h(x) g(x)
(B) h(x) g(x)
–1
(C) f(x) x + tan x
–1
(D) f(x) x + tan x
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15 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
42. Let ABCD be a rectangle with A(0, 0), B(4, 0), C(4, 4) and D(0, 4). Rectangle is folded in such a
way that corner B always lies on line AD, then which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) As the point B moves on AD the crease thus formed will touch a fixed parabola whose
focus is at (4, 0)
(B) As the point B moves on AD the crease thus formed will touch a fixed parabola whose
3
focus is at , 0
2
(C) As the point B moves on AD the crease thus formed will touch a fixed parabola whose
equation is y2 = 8(x – 2)
(D) As the point B moves on AD the crease thus formed will touch a fixed parabola whose
equation of directrix is y = 2x
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
S. Let the line y x 2 touches C at P(, ), then 8(2 + 2) is equal to 4. 5
5. 4
6. 8
The correct option is:
(A) P → 4; Q → 6; R → 2; S → 1
(B) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 6
(C) P → 4; Q → 6; R → 5; S → 2
(D) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 6
46.
Let the vertices of tetrahedron ABCD be A ˆi ˆj kˆ , B ˆi , C 2iˆ ˆj and D ˆi ˆj respectively,
match the following List-I with List-II
LIST–I LIST–II
The position vector of the foot of perpendicular drawn from A 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ
P.
to the plane BCD is
1.
2 3i j k
1
Q. Volume of tetrahedron ABCD is 2.
2
The position vector of circumcentre of circum sphere of ˆi ˆj
R. 3.
tetrahedron ABCD is
1 ˆ
S. Shortest distance between the lines AB and CD is 4.
ˆ ˆ
2 i 2j k
1
5.
6
6. ˆi 2jˆ
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17 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
n 4
m2 n 1
48. 4m is k, then is equal to _____ (where [.] denotes the greatest integer
m1 n 1 n 4m
m4n
k
function)
49. For each positive integer K, let the point P with abscissa K on curve y2 – x2 = 1 such that dK
2
represents shortest distance between P and line y = x, then 4 lim KdK K
is equal to _____
6
k
50. The value of cos 21 7
is , then the value of 1024 is equal to _____
k 0
3 ab r1r2
51. In ABC let a = 6, b = 3 and tan(A – B) = , if the value of , then the value of
4 r3
100A
52. If the area enclosed by the curve x 4 + y4 = 2xy is equal to A square unit, then the value of
is equal to _____
2
1 a b2 c 2
53. The largest positive integer n such that n holds for all
a b c b c c a a b
11 13 11 13 11 13
positive real numbers a, b, c is _____
54. Let be smallest positive root satisfying cos3 3x + cos3 5x = 8 cos3 4x·cos3 x, then cos is equal
to _____
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – V
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
SECTION – A
1. A, B, C, D
Sol. 1 2 3 4 100 cm A C E
Let n1, n2 , n3 and n4 are fundamental frequencies of these segments B D
respectively.
1 2 3 4
n1 1 n2 2 n3 3 n2 2 1
, , ,
n2 2 n3 3 n4 4 n4 4 2
1 T
n n = constant
2
n1 1 n2 2 n3 3 n4 4
n2 n n
1 2, 3 2 2, 4 2 2
n1 n3 n4
1 + 2 + 3 + 4 = 100 cm
2
2 2 2 2 2 100
3 2
2 = 24 cm
So, 1 = 48 cm
3 = 16 cm
4 = 12 cm
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
2. A, B, C, D
q P2
Sol. Using symmetry if charged particle lies at P1 then OCDE =
240
P1
q q
8 0 7q
and OABC = 0
3 24 0
If the charge particle lies at P2 then
q
OCDE =
240
q
and OABC =
240
3. A, B, C
Sol. AB U = constant
PM
nCv T constant
RT
P = constant
Isobaric process
BC = constant
PM
constant
RT
PT
Isochoric process
CA U = constant
U = nCvT = constant
T = constant
Isothermal process
4. A, C, D
Sol. Just after cutting the string B, block looses the contact with the rod.
taking torque about P
m 2 m 2
mg
4 12 16
12 g 3
, acm g
7 4 7
mg T = macm
4
T = mg
7
5. A, D
3R 7R
1 1 kq2 kq2
Sol. Work performed = 0E2 dV 0E2 dV
2 2 3R 35R
R 5R
6. A, D
Sol. In both case (A) and (D) the source and observer are relatively at rest. Thus there is no change in
the frequency.
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3 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
7. B
Sol. If first 8m, then 4m, then 2m fired, then velocity of tank
8 4 2 59 20 m
v v0 v0
20 12 8 60
If first 8m, then 2m, then 4m fired, then velocity of tank
8 2 4 29
v v0 v0
20 12 10 30
4v 0 4
If only shell 4m is fired first velocity of shell = v 0 v0
20 5
2v 9v
If only shell 2m is fired first velocity of shell = v 0 0 0
20 10
8. D
(2) (1)
Sol. Apply Kirchoff’s Law on the equivalent circuit B
A
shown in the diagram.
(2) (3)
(7) (8)
(9) (8)
F
(11) (12)
9. C
Sol. In each case
F
T x
T F x Fx
v
m/ m
dx Fx
dt m
t
dx F m
dt , t2
0 x m 0 F
10. C
Sol. (P) Case (i) 13k
Torque about ‘P’ 4 2R
3
mR2 18kR2 3
2 4k R
36k 2
3
3m 4k R
P 2
3m t2
t1
6 k
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
Case (ii)
k(2R)
3
mR2 8kR2
2
k(4R)
16k
3m
P
3m
t2 t2
4 k
5 3m
T t1 t 2
12 k
(Q) K eq 1 2(8k cos2 30) 2(8k cos2 60) 12k 4k 16k
(16.16)
So, K eq k 8k
32
x x3 x 4 x 5
(R) x x1 2
2 4 X4 X5
T T T 2T T 2T
k eq k k k k k X2
k
k eq X3
7
7m
T 2
k
x1
T
X m
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5 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
11. 00000.25
2u sin
Sol. T 4 sec
g
When the ball collide with the wall B, time elapsed
10 15
2 sec
20 10
So remaining time = 2 sec
5
Velocity of the ball after the collision with ball = 2.5 m/s
2
2.5
e 0.25
10
12. 00000.50
Sol. 1 2 1 2
11T 2 2 T (1 2 )T
1 2
2
2
1
1 2 …(i)
1 2 1
1 2
Let x , so 1 x …(ii)
1 2 1 2
(1 x) 2
x
1
1x 2 2 x
2 17 106 11 106 6
x 6 6
0.50
1 2 23 10 11 10 12
13. 00143.75
Sol. When S1 is closed and S2 is open
Current through R1
0
I1 = 0
1 3.68 4.68
Potential difference across length = 0 1.84
2 4.68
Similarly in the second case
0 468
I2 =
R2 1 184(R2 1)
2 2 2 468R2
Potential difference across length of R2 R2 .I2 =
3 3 3 184(R2 1)
2 468R2
3 184(R2 1)
64 R2 = 92
R2 = 1.4375
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
14. 00006.28
15. 00002.25
16. 00367.80
17. 00025.50
Sol. 6 V = 15S 25 38
V = 2.5 mm 13 mm
So, 5V = 12.5 mm
X = 13 mm 12.5 mm
= 0.50 mm x
1 2 3 4 5 6
So, measured value = 25.50 mm 0
12.5 mm
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7 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
18. 00000.60
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. A, B, C, D
20. A, B, C
Sol.
3 H O
O H3C CH2 C H H3C C CH3
O B O
A
21. A, B, D
Sol. Na/C2H5OH can not reduce acid.
22. B, C
23. A, B, D
24. A, B, C, D
25. C
26. D
27. A
28. B
SECTION – D
29. 00006.50
Sol. 2H2 O2 2H2 O O2
32 g O2 is obtained from 68 g H2O2
68
52 g O2 is obtained from 52g
32
M 34 68
52
2 32
68 52 2
M = 6.50
32 34
30. 00001.80
31. 00000.80
Sol. N2O, CO2, HCN and NO2 are linear.
32. 00006.02
Sol. ClO4 35.5 16 4
= 99.5 g
1990 103
Number of moles
99.5
-3
= 20 × 10
-3
Number of moles of electron = 20 × 10 × 50 = 1
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9 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
33. 00001.25
Sol. Number of atoms of X in FCC packing (at corners and face centres of cubic unit cell)
1 1
= 8 8 6 2 4
Number of atoms of Y at octahedral voids = 4
Along one body diagonal there are two X atoms and one Y-atom.
1 15
No. of effective atoms of X after removal 4 2 8 4
No. of atoms of Y after removal = 4 – 1 = 3
15
x:y :3
4
=5:4
Simplest formula = X5Y4
a = 5, b = 4, a/b = 1.25
34. 00002.50
Sol. Stronger base than benzyl amine (a) = 5.
Amines can be prepared by Gabriel’s phthalimide method (b) = 2.
35. 00002.50
36. 00004.98
6 18
Sol. Concentration per litre 0.2
60 180
0.2 0.083 300
= 4.98 bar
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AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – A
37. A, B, C
Sol. Using integration by part
38. A, B, C
n
2r 1 1
Sol. 2r 3n 1
r 1
39. A, B
Sol. |z| = 1
40. A, C, D
4n 2
Sol. Such n digit number will be sum of coefficient of x3k in (x2 + x3 + x7 + x9)n =
3
41. B, C
x x
Sol. P x f 3 t dt f 2 t dt
0 0
P(x) = f 3(x) – f(x)2 = f 2(x)·(f(x) – 1) < 0
42. A, C
Sol. B(4, 0) is focus and x = 0 is directrix of parabola
43. D
1
Sol. |2A2B–3| = 8 12
27
(P) A 43 B34 is 0
(Q) |A| = 0 and |B| = 0
(R) ABT = BTA
44. C
Sol. Equation of circle 3x2 + 3y2 + 2x + 4y = 0 and minimum value of PA + BP + CP + DP = 15
45. D
x y 2 x y 2
Sol. 1
18 2
46. B
1
Sol. Volume of tetrahedron = base area height
2
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11 AITS-FT-V (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
47. 00004.00
Sol. When x is then 2 cos x 2 3
4
48. 00010.00
Sol. Inter change m and n
49. 00000.50
50. 00008.00
n 1
k cosn
Sol. cos n n 1 n 1 if n odd
k 0
1 2 2
51. 00001.00
ab r1r2
Sol. = and C =
r3 s 2
52. 00050.00
Sol. Put x = r cos and y = r sin will give area =
4
53. 00005.00
Sol. pq p q
54. 00000.95
Sol. cos3 3x + cos3 5x = (cos 5x + cos 3x)3
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – X
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01– 06, 19 – 24, 37 - 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 - 46) contains 12 questions. Based on this section contains TWO
(02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. Three vectors A , B & C are such that
A B C A C B 0
Then which of the following may be correct.
(A) A || B
(B) B || C
(C) C || A
(D) Either A or B or C is null vector.
2. Two small stones are thrown simultaneously with the same projection speed v 0 from the top of a
pole of height h. One of the stone is thrown towards right horizontally and other stone is thrown
at an angle above horizontally towards left. After time t two stones and top point of pole are
lying on same line & x component & y component of relative velocity of first stone w.r.t. second
uy
stone are ux & uy. It is given that t = T ; here T is having the dimensions of time
ux
Pick the correct options:
(A) T is independent of
(B) T is independent of v0
2 2
uy v 02 uy 2v 20
(C) <h<
ux g ux g
2
uy 2v 02
(D) h
ux g
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3 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Case-I Case-II
a
Case-III
B
D
Q b
(A) Maximum force is needed to maintain constant velocity of EF in case III
(B) Force needed to maintain constant velocity of EF is same in all cases.
(C) In case II force needed maintain constant velocity of EF is less than the force needed in
case I.
2I2 v b
(D) Force needed to maintain constant velocity of EF in case I is given by F = 0 2 ln .
4R a
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
8. If listener would move perpendicular to the line joining the listener and stationary source then
duration of beep emitted by source would be
(A) definitely less than time taken in first - case
(B) definitely more than time taken in first - case
(C) definitely equal to time taken in first – case exactly
(D) may be less than or more than time taken in first case.
9. Potential at the midpoint of line AB in the absence of electric field E (consider that potential at
infinite is zero).
0
(A)
0
0
(B)
20
20
(C)
0
0
(D)
40
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
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5 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
13. A container of height 96 cm is filled with mercury up to the brim. The container is sealed airtight
and a hole of small area nth part of the area of container is punched in its bottom. Time taken upto
which mercury come out from the bottom hole is 5 sec. Atmospheric pressure is equal to 76 cm of
mercury. n is
15. One train is approaching an observer at rest and another train is receding from him with the same
speed 2 m/s. Both trains blow whistles of same frequency 332 Hz. The speed of sound in air is
332 m/s. Beat frequency in Hz as heard by the observer is
16. A biconvex thin lens is prepared from glass of refractive index 3/2. The two bounding surfaces
have equal radii of 35 cm each. One of the surfaces is silvered to make it reflecting. An object is
placed infront of his lens in such a way that the image coincides with the object. Distance of
object from lens is (in cm)
r
17. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is given by V = V0 n , where r0 is a
r0
constant. Assuming Bohr’s model to be applicable, the magnetic dipole moment of the electron is
x
proportional to n , n is principle quantum number. x is equal to
18. A uniform thin rod of mass 1 kg and length 65 cm is standing on a smooth horizontal table. It slips
on the smooth surface and rod starts falling. Velocity of the centre of mass of rod in (m/s) at the
instant when it makes an angle 30 with horizontal
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1 2 3
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 2 and 3
Cl Cl
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
HO
O 2N
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) iv < iii < ii < i
(B) iv < iii < i < ii
(C) i < ii < iii < iv
(D) ii < iii < i < iv
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7 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Colour of solution
Green solution (U) + (V)
is not changed
Turbidity of sulphur
Stereoisomeric complexes have same molecular formula, same constitution they differ only with respect
to the spatial orientation of ligand in space around the metal ion.
2+
27. How many geometrical isomers are possible for the complex [Pt(bn)2] [where bn is
H3C CH(NH2) CH(NH2) CH3
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
28. How many total stereoisomers are possible for the same complex [Pt(bn)2]2+?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. A vessel of volume 10 lit. contains 2.8 g of nitrogen gas at a temperature of 1805 K. Find the
pressure of the gas ( if 50% of its molecules are dissociated into atom at this temperature, [Given:
R = 0.082 atm-litre/mol K)
30. 25 ml of a solution of ferric alum Fe2(SO4)3.(NH4)2SO4.24H2O containing 1.25 gm of the salt was
boiled with iron when the reaction Fe + Fe2(SO4)3 3FeSO4 occurred. The unreacted iron was
filtered off and solution treated with 0.107 N KMnO4 in acidic medium. What is volume of KMnO4
solution used?
31. The total number of possible co-ordination isomers of the complex [CuII(NH3)4] [PtIICl4] is x then
x
value of is:
3.2
32. The dissociation constant of Acid HA and base BOH at 25°C in aqueous solution is same. The
pH of 0.01 M solution of HA is 5. The pH of 0.1 M solution of BOH is
loga0
34. Carbon atoms occupy fcc lattice points as well as alternate tetrahedral voids in diamond. If edge
length of the unit cell is 360 pm then the diameter of carbon atom in pm is:
P
35. A monoatomic gas follow the relation K then molar heat capacity of gas is x, [Assuming
V2
there is no vibrational degree of freedom]. What is the value of x in calorie [Given : R = 1.98
cal./mol K]
36. The total number of stereoisomers obtained in
the product of the following reaction is x. The
x
value of is.
5 D i O 1eq
3
ii Zn/H O P
2
Me iii Excess PhMgBr
iv H3O
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9 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
aex bln 1 x 5
37. If lim = L(finite), then
x 0 x2
(A) a=5
(B) b = –5
(C) a+b=0
(D) b + L – 2a = 10
n
3
38. Let lim
n
1 tan4 2k m
, then ‘m’ is greater than
k 3
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 28
(D) 36
39. Let a1, a2, a3, ....., an are in A.P., and a3, a5, a8, b1, b2, b3, ..... bn are in G.P. and a9 = 40, then
9
(A) ai2 6144
i 1
1 1
(B) b
18
i 1 i
9
(C) ai2 6278
i 1
1 1
(D) b
28
i 1 i
40. Let A = C1C3 + C2C4 + C3C5 + C4C6 + ..... + Cm – 2Cm, (where Cr = mCr), then
(A) A 2m Cm 2
2m
(B) A Cm 2
m
(C) A Cr2
r 0
m
(D) A Cr2
r 0
15
41. Let number of values of ‘r’ for which Cr is an odd integer, be ‘k’, then k is greater than
(A) 7
(B) 11
(C) 9
(D) 5
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
z z1
42. Let A(z1), B(z2), C(z3) lies on a circle |z| = r and forms an acute angled triangle, and ,
z2 z3
where P(z) is the point where altitude from A to BC meets the circumcircle, then
(A) is purely real
(B) is purely imaginary
(C) Arg() = 0
(D) Arg() =
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
a2 a4 a6 a
43. The a0 ..... 124 is equal to
3 5 7 125
(A) 241
240
(B)
63
1
(C)
256
(D) none of these
2 x
2f
Let I f x 2f x 2 f x dx , where f(x) is real valued function
0
1
45. The value of I is equal to
ln2
222e
(A)
22e 1
22e
(B)
22e 1
2e2
(C)
e2 1
e2
(D)
e2 1
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11 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
x2 y2
47. In an ellipse 1 . If focal chord PSP and QSQ are at right angles to each other, then
10 6
1 e2 1 e2 N
, then value of [N] (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
SP SP SQ SQ 15
4 1 4 1 4 1
1 3 ..... 2n 1 1
48. If 4 4 4 , then k1 – k2 + k3 equal to
2
4 1 4 1 4 1 k 1n k 2n k 3
2 4 ..... 2n
4 4 4
y x
49. Let (x, y) be a pair of real numbers satisfying 56x 33y 2 2
and 33x 56y . If
x y x y2
2
p
x y (where p and q are relatively prime), then (6p – q) is
q
50. The equation x4 + ax3 + bx2 + ax + 1 = 0 has atleast one real root and if the minimum value of
p
E(a, b) = a2 + b2 can be expressed as (p and q are relatively prime), then (p2 + q2) is
q
51. A bag contains (2n + 1) coins. It is known that ‘n’ of these coins have tail on both sides, whereas
the remaining (n + 1) coins are fair. A coin is randomly drawn from bag and tossed. If the
31
probability of that the toss results in a tail is , then value of n is
42
a1 a2 a3
52. Let b1 b2 b3 , where D1, D2, D3 are cofactors of c1, c2 and c3 respectively such that
c1 c 2 c3
D12 D22 D23 16 and c12 c 22 c 32 4 , then maximum value of is
2 1 0 3
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – X
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
SECTION – A
1. B, D
Sol.
A B C A C B 0
C.B A CA B B.C A B.A 0
B.A C CA B 0
A BC 0
2. A, D
Sol. Uy V0 sin
Ux V0 V0 cos
Uy
tan
Ux 2
When throwing point and two stones are collinear
y1 y 2 2V0
t tan (where top point of pole is origin and x1, x2, y1, y2 are measured
x1 x 2 g 2
from there)
1
and h gt2
2
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
3. A, C
Sol. kx R kR2
I kR2
MR2
mR2 kR2
2
M
m
T 2 2
k
4. A, D
Sol. Basic concept of charging and discharging.
5. B
Sol. Shape of conductor does not make any difference.
6. A, B, D
Sol. Theory of wave optics
7. B
8. B
Sol. for (7-8)
660
v m/s
31
If duration of beep is t
then
330t 100
v 330 v
9. B
10. D
Sol. for (9 – 10)
Total charge in an element = Rd 0 sin
Rd 0 sin
On revolving this ring we get a sphere of charge density = which is a constant.
2R sin Rd
Basic concept of potential
VA VB E.R
SECTION – D
11. 00060.00
Sol. a2 a2 2a2 cos 180 a
= 60
12. 00012.50
Sol. For equilibrium centre of mass should be on the wire.
13. 00025.02
dh 2g h 76
Sol.
dt n2 1
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3 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
0.76 5
dh 2g dt
0.96
h 76
0 n2 1
14. 00015.00
Sol. Calculate by potential method.
15. 00004.00
Sol. fBeat f1 f2
c c
f f
c v c v
2fv
fbeat
c
16. 00017.50
Sol. Object must be at 2f distance of combination
1 2 1
fnet fL fM
17. 00001.00
edV eV r
Sol. F 00
dr r
mv 2 eV0r0
r r
v = constant
nh
mvr =
2
rn
evr
M Mn
2
18. 00001.50
Sol. Constraint at contract point
/2
cos30 v v
2
energy conservation 30
1 1
mg mv 2 I2
4 2 2
g
v g
26
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. C, D
Sol. As per Usanovich concept, in the first reaction As2S3 will behave as a acid and (NH4)2S will
behave as a base. Similarly in second reaction Fe(CN)2 is acid and KCN is base.
20. B
Sol.
H
Aromatic
21. A
Sol.
Cl Cl
xy plane
yz plane
Cl Cl zx plane
22. C
Sol. Equilibrium constant for the formation of a hydrate electron deficient nature of the carbon of
carbonyl group (C = O). In the fourth compound the carbon of carbonyl group will be more
electron deficient.
23. A, B, C, D
Sol. Properties of orthoboric acid.
H3BO3 B2 O3
24. A, C
Sol. O O
HO P P OH Hypophosphoric acid
OH OH
It is tetrabasic
No P–O–P linkage
P atoms show maximum covalency
O. S. of P is 4
25. C
26. A
Sol. FeCl3 Yellow solution and does not react with dil H2SO4
2Fe3 H2S
H
2Fe2 S
U
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5 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Fe3 3NaOH Fe OH3 3Na
(excess)
Brown ppt ( V )
27. B
28. D
Sol. N N CH3 N N CH3
H3C H3C
2+ 2+
Pt Pt
N N CH3 N N CH3
H3C H3C
Optically inactive Optically active
N N CH3 N N CH3
H3C H3C
2+ 2+
Pt Pt
N N CH3 N N CH3
H3C H3C
Optically inactive Optically active
N N CH3
H3C
2+
Pt
N N CH3
H3C
Optically inactive
SECTION – D
29. 00002.22
Sol.
N2
2N
2.8
0
28
2.8 50 2.8 50
2
28 100 28 100
3
Total moles =
20
PV = nRT
3
P 10 0.082 1805
20
P = 2.22
30. 00036.36
Sol. Fe + Fe2(SO4)3 3FeSO4
1.25 gm ferric alum produces 0.5913 gm FeSO4
Meq of FeSO4 = Meq of KMnO4
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
0.5913
1000 0.107 V
152
V = 36.36 ml
31. 00001.25
Sol. There are four co-ordination isomers are possible for the given complex. These are
Cu NH3 4 PtCl4 , Cu NH3 3 Cl PtCl3NH3 ,
Cu NH3 Cl3 Pt NH3 3 Cl , CuCl4 Pt NH3 4
32. 00009.50
Sol.
HA
H A
H CK a
Ka 108
BOH
B OH
OH CK b K a K b
= 10 9
1014
H 9
10 2
= pH = 9.50
33. 00001.25
Sol. As we know,
t1/2 a10 n
1 n
t1/2 c. a0 c constant
log t 1/2 log c 1 n log a0
1 n tan 45o 1 n 1 n 0
Now, for K,
As we know for zero order reaction,
a0
t1/2
2K
a 1
log t1/2 log 0 loga0 log … (1)
2K 2K
From graph,
1
log 2
2K
1
K moll1 sec 1
200
1
250 K 250 1.25 mol / l / sec
200
34. 00155.88
a 3
Sol. 2r
4
2r = 155.88 pm
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7 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
35. 00003.63
Sol. For a polyprotic process:
x
PV = K [x 1, ]
R
C = CV,m +
1 x
3 R
C R
2 3
11R 11 1.98
3.63
6 6
36. 00001.60
Sol. P is:
Ph
D
HO Ph
Me
OH
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
SECTION – A
37. C, D
x x2 x 2 x3
x a 1 ..... b x ..... 5
ae bln 1 x 5
Sol. L lim 2
L lim 1! 2!
2
2 3
x 0 x x 0 x
a = –5, b = 5, L = –5
38. A, B, C
3
n
n
Sol. Let lim 1 tan4 k L L lim cos cos k
n
k 3 2 n 4 k 3 2
sin x x sin x x
As cos k cos k
x k 1 2 x x k 3 2
x cos cos
2 4
3
sin x
x
x 2 2 1 3
lim lim cos k cos 2k L
x x x x
k 3 2 k 3 22 2 32
x cos cos
2 4
39. A, B
Sol. Let a1 = a and b2 – a1 = d (a + 4d)2 = (a + 2d)(a + 7d) a = 2d
9
Also, a9 = 40 a + 8d = 40 a = 8, b = 4 ai2 6144
i 1
b2 3 1 1
Also, b1 = 54,
b1 2
b
18
i 1 i
40. B, D
m m
Sol. A = Coefficient of xm – 2 in 1 x x 1 m C0 m C2 A 2m
Cm 2 m C2
41. A, B, C, D
Sol. Exponent of ‘2’ is same in 15!, 14!·1!, 13!·2!, .....
Number of values of ‘r’ = 16 k = 16
42. A, C, D
z z1
Sol. Arg 0 or
z2 z3
43. D
x x
20
a0 a1x a2 x ..... a125 x dx x x 2x 3x 1
2 125 3 5 6 4
Sol. dx
0 0
21
x2 x3 x4 x126 2x6 3x 4 1 1
a0 x a1 a2 a3 ..... a125
2 3 4 126 252
2x 6 3x 4 121 1
In the expansion of , we have only even powers of ‘x’
252
a0 = a2 = a4 = ..... = a124 = 0
44. D
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9 AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
n 2k 2 2 2k 12
P 2 2
k 1 2k 2k 1
02 12 22 32 42 52 2n 2 2 2n 12
P .....
22 32 42 52 62 72 2n 2 2n 12
1 1
P 2
2 k1 = 8, k2 = 4, k3 = 1
2 8n 4n 1
4n 2n 1
k1 + k3 – k2 = 5
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
49. 00001.00
iy x
Sol. 56x 33y i 2 2
, 33x 56y (z = x + iy)
x y x y2
2
x iy
56iz 33z
x2 y2
1 1 1 7 4i
56iz 33z z2 z
z 33 56i 7 4i 65
11 p
x y 6p – q = 66 – 65 = 1
65 q
50. 00041.00
1 1 1
Sol. x2 2 b a x 0 x t
x x x
t2 + at + b – 2 = 0 at + b + t2 – 2 = 0, t2 [4, )
This represents equation of line in a-b plane and a2 + b2 represent square of distance of a point
on this line from O (origin)
t2 2 2
d t2 [4, ), dmin at t2 = 4
2 5
1 t
2 4 p 2 2
dmin p + q = 41
5 q
51. 00010.00
n n 1 1 31
Sol. P(tail) = 1 n = 10
2n 1 2n 1 2 42
52. 00008.00
Sol. Let a a1ˆi a2 ˆj a3kˆ
b b1ˆi b2 ˆj b3kˆ
c c1ˆi c 2 ˆj c 3kˆ
a b D1ˆi D2 ˆj D3kˆ
a b D12 D22 D32 4
c c12 c 22 c 32 2
Maximum value of a b c a b c 4 2 8
53. 00001.00
Sol. x
2
4
1
2x 2 1 3 1 dx
0
3
x 1 2 1dx 1
1 1
2 1 0 3
x 2x 2 1 dx
4 3 x 1 2 1dx 1 2 1 I 2
1 1
54. 00004.00
Sol. Put ex = t ex dx = dt
2e5x e4 x 4e3x 4e2x 2ex 1 e
x
1
dx tan c
e2x 4 e2x 12 2 2 e2x 1
a+b=4
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – X
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46) contains 12 questions. Each question has TWO (02)
matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements
from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
2. A thin hoop of mass 5 kg and radius 10 cm is placed on a horizontal plane. At the initial instant,
the hoop is at rest. A small washer of mass 4 kg with zero initial velocity slides from the upper
point of the hoop along a smooth groove in the inner surface of the hoop. Speed of the centre of
the hoop at the moment when the washer is at a certain point of the hoop, whose radius vector
forms an angle 60 with the vertical downward direction is (The friction between the hoop and the
plane should be neglected)
1
(A) 2 m/s
3(5 2 3 )
52 3
(B) 2 m/s
21
1
(C) m/s
6
(D) 6 m/s
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3 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
1
(B) Masses and radii are 1 kg, 2 kg and m, 1 m respectively.
2
(C) Masses and radii are 2 kg, 2 kg and 1 m, 2 m respectively.
1
(D) Masses and radii are 1 kg, 1 kg and m, 1 m respectively.
2
6. A ring of thin wire with active resistance R and inductance L rotates with constant angular velocity
in the external uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the rotation axis. In this process the flux
of magnetic induction of external field across the ring varies with time as = 0 cos t. Pick the
correct option(s).
20 2
(A) Power developed in the circuit due to rotation is given by sin2 t .
2 2
(L) R
(B) The mean mechanical power developed by external forces to maintain rotation is equal to
2 2
1 0 R
P
2 (R2 2L2 )
1 L
(C) The mean power developed in the circuit is equal to P = e0I0 cos , where tan
2 R
and I0 is peak current.
(D) The mean mechanical power developed by external forces to maintain rotation is equal to
12
I0R , where I0 is peak current.
2
LIST–I LIST–II
Acceleration of Centre of mass of cylinder 20F 21F
P. 1. a
at t = 0 13M 13M
19F 20F
Q. Acceleration of top plank at t = 0 2. a
13M 13M
F 2F
R. Acceleration of bottom plank at t = 0 3. a
13M 13M
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
17F 18F
S. Acceleration of point P of cylinder at t = 0 4. a
13M 13M
(A) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S→1
(B) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 3; S→1
(C) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 4; S→2
(D) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 1; S→3
N
E E
LIST–I LIST–II
C1
P. 2; E = 100 Volt 1. 0 Volt
C2
C1
Q. 1; E = 200 Volt 2. 100 Volt
C2
C1
R. 3; E = 100 Volt 3. 25 Volt
C2
C1
S. 4; E = 200 Volt 4. 40 Volt
C2
(A) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S→1
(B) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 4; S→2
(C) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S→1
(D) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 2; S→3
LIST–I LIST–II
200
P. Acceleration of block D at t = 0 is 1.
61
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5 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
680
Q. Tension in the slant string attached to C is 2.
61
820
R. Tension in the string joining A and B 3.
61
60
S. Acceleration of block A at t = 0 4.
61
(A) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S→1
(B) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 4; S→2
(C) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3; S→1
(D) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 2; S→3
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
12. An equilateral triangular lamina of mass 1 kg and side length 10 cm is rotating with constant
angular velocity 4 rad/sec about an axis passing through centroid O of the triangle and
perpendicular to the plane of lamina. The axis is rotating with constant angular velocity 3 rad/sec.
Rate of charge of angular momentum of triangular lamina is
14. A light beam of diameter 3 3 cm in the shape of a hollow cylinder is incident symmetrically
around the radius of symmetry on a glass hemisphere of radius 3 cm and refractive indices 3
and 1.7 for violet and red colours. Distance between the red and violet colour of light in flat face of
hemisphere is (in cm)
15. According to Moseley’s Law, the ratio of the slope of graph between and z (here and z are
3
n2
frequency of radiation and atomic number respectively) for K and K is given by . n is equal
2
to
16. A magnetic field of 3.0 103 T along z-axis exerts a force (3iˆ 4ˆj) 1010 N on a particle having
a charge 2 109 C and moving in x-y plane. Here î and ĵ are unit vectors for x-axis and y-axis
respectively. Velocity of particle is given by (xiˆ yj)
ˆ m/s. (x y) is equals to
17. A solid sphere of radius 14 cm rolls without slipping in a cylindrical curve of radius 70 cm. The
time period of small oscillations is equal to (in sec) (given that g = 10 m/s2)
18. A solid sphere of radius 3 cm made of material of bulk modulus 2 109 N/m2 is surrounded by a
liquid in a cylindrical container. A massless piston of area 8 103 m2 (area of the container is
also same) floats on the surface of liquid. A mass of 5 kg is placed on the piston to compress the
liquid, change in radius of sphere (in Å) is
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7 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
20. Which of the following compounds give positive test with Tollen’s reagent:
O
O
O
H C OH H3C CH OC2H5
OH H3C C H
OH
(1) (2) (3) (4)
O H3C OC2H5 OH O
Ph C H C H3C C H3C C CH3
H3C OC2H5 H3C OC2H5
22. P4 + NaOH(aq) ? + ?
Select correct statement(s) about the reaction:
(A) One of the product is PH3
(B) It is disproportionation reaction
(C) One of the product is NaH2PO3
(D) This reaction is not given by red phosphorous
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
(A) Butylcyclobutane
(B) Cyclobutylbutane
(C) Butanecyclobutane
(D) Cyclobutanebutane
24. Which of the following reaction(s) produce(s) Cr2O3 along with O2?
(A) Heating (NH4)2Cr2O7
(B) Heating CrO3
(C) Heating K2Cr2O7
(D) Reaction of Al2O3 with Cr
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9 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(C) P 2, 5, Q 1, 4, 5, R 1, 2, 3, 5, S 3, 5
(D) P 3, 4, Q 1, 2, 3, R 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, S 2, 4
H C2H5
Q. H3C C2H5 2. Achiral
H H
R. D 3. Geometrical isomerism
H3C C2H5
H
H H
S. CH3 4. Containing plane of symmetry
H3C CH3
H
H H
5. Compound containing even number of chiral
centers
The correct option is
(A) P 2, 3, 4, Q 1, 3, 5, R 2, 3, 4 S 1, 3
(B) P 1, 3, 5, Q 2, 3, 4, R 1, 3, S 2, 3, 4
(C) P 1, 3, 5, Q 1, 3, 5, R 2, 3, 4, S 1, 3
(D) P 1, 3, 5, Q 1, 3, 5, R 1, 3, S 2, 3, 4
S. 4. Carbine formation
CHCl3
KOH
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. Calculate the pressure exerted (in atm) by 2 mole of CO2 gas at 300 K, if volume occupied by
2 –2
CO2 molecules is negligible. a = 3.592 atm lit mol .
30. What is the percentage purity of concentrated H2SO4 solution (Specific gravity 1.8 g/ml) if 5 ml of
this solution is neutralized by 84.6 ml of 1 N NaOH.
31. Calculate the accelerating potential (in volts) that must be imparted to a proton beam to give it an
effective wavelength of 0.01 nm.
Given : mass of proton = 1.6 10–27 kg
Charge on proton = 1.6 10–19 Coulomb
Plank’s constant h = 6.6 10–34 J/sec
32. An oxide of metal m (at wt = 64) contains 20% oxygen by weight. The oxide was converted into
chloride by treatment with HCl and electrolysed. Calculate the amount of metal (in gm) that would
be deposited at cathode if a current of 1 ampere was passed for a period of 3.2 hr.
35. At 470 K partially dissociated vapours of PCl5 are 60 times as heavy as H2. Calculate the
% dissociation of PCl5.
36. A gas present in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston expands against a constant pressure of
1 atm from a volume of 3 lit. to a volume of 7 lit. In doing so, it absorbs 750 J heat from
surroundings. Determine increase in internal energy of the gas. [Take 1 L atm = 101.3 J]
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11 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
3
37. Let f(x) = x – 3x + 1, then
(A) f(f(x)) = 0 has 7 solutions
(B) f(f(x)) = 0 has 4 solutions
(C) f(f(x)) = –1 has 7 solutions
(D) f(f(x)) = –1 has 4 solutions
38. If the system of linear equations (cos )x + (sin )y + cos = 0, (sin )x + (cos )y + sin = 0,
(cos )x + (sin )y – cos = 0 is consistent, then the possible values of [0, 2] is/are
(A)
2
3
(B)
4
3
(C)
2
7
(D)
4
4 9 a
39. Suppose x, y (–2, 2) and xy = –1 then the least value of u 2
2
is (where a and
4x 9y b
b are coprime), then
(A) a + b = 17
(B) a + b = 19
(C) a–b=7
(D) a–b=5
1 D
40. As shown in the diagram, the volume of tetrahedron DABC is .
6
AC C
also ACB = 45º and AD BC 3 , then
2 45º
(A) CD 3 A
(B) AD = 1
(C) BC = 2
(D) AC = 2 B
41. The number of natural numbers n such that there exists an integers number x for which
499(1997n + 1) = x2 + x, is/are less than
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
3 3 3
42. If cot 1 12 cot 1 22 cot 1 32 .......... is equal to tan–1 k, then k is
4 4 4
(A) prime
(B) even
(C) multiple of three
(D) odd
S. cos x 2 x 1 in , is 4. 3
2 2
The correct option is:
(A) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 2
(B) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 2
(C) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 3
(D) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 4; S → 2
xf x 4
44. Let f: R+ R be an increasing function such that xf(x) + 2 > 0 and f x f 1 . Match
x
the following List-I with List-II
LIST - I LIST - II
The value of [f(1)] is (where [.] denotes the
P. 1. 2
greatest integer function)
Q. Number of points of inflection of f(x) are 2. 1
The value of [1 – f(1)] is (where [.] denotes
R. 3. 0
the greatest integer function)
Number of solutions of sin x = f(8) in the
S. 4. 4
interval [–, 2] are
The correct option is:
(A) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 4
(B) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 2
(C) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 1
(D) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 4
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13 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
/4
8
Q. tan4 xdx is 2.
0
15
1
5 1
R. x 1 x dx is 3.
120
0
/2
7
1
S. sin x cos5 x dx is 4.
56
0
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
f x
47. Let f(x) and g(x) are polynomial of degree 4 such that g() = g() = g() = 0. If lim 0,
x g x
then number of different real solutions of equation f(x)g(x) + g(x)f(x) = 0 is equal to
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
5 1 7
49. Let A aij is a square matrix of order 3 such that adj A 1 7 5 and det(A) < 0,
3 3
7 5 1
1 3 3
then aij is equal to
3 i1 j1
1
50. If the value of sin 1º sin 3º sin 5º ..... sin 179º = , then ( – 82) is equal to
2
51. A1 and A2 are the vertices of the conic C1 : 4(x – 3)2 + 9(y – 2)2 – 36 = 0 and point P is moving in
the plane such that PA 1 PA 2 3 2 , then the locus of P is another conic C2. If D1 denotes the
distance between foci of conic C2. D2 denotes the product of perpendicular distances from the
points A1, A2 upon any tangent drawn to the conic C2 and D3 denotes length of tangent drawn
2
D D
from any point on auxiliary circle of conic C1 to the auxiliary circle of the conic C2, then 1 2 2
D3
is equal to
52. If (h, k) be a point on the axis of parabola 3y2 + 4y – 6x + 8 = 0 from which three distinct real
normals could be drawn to the parabola, then [h]least is equal to (where [.] denotes the greatest
integer function)
x x x N
53. If N denotes the sum of all values of x satisfying equation , then is equal to
2 3 7 7
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – X
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
SECTION – A
1. C, D
Sol. From initial to final instant v 2gh
Conservation of momentum gives : v
v
mv = 2mv
(i) (f)
2gh
v
2
Work energy theorem on block + Plank:
1 2gh 1 mgh
Wf (2m) m(2gh)
2 4 2 2
Work energy theorem on block:
1 2gh 1 3
Wf (2m) 2 m(2gh) 4 mgh
2 4
mgh 3 mgh
Wf plank mgh
2 4 4
2. C
Sol. Conservation of momentum give:
Mv m(v r cos60 v)
v
mvr cos60
v …(i) 60
(m M) m
Energy conservation vr
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
3 1 1
mgR Mv 2 m (v r cos 60 v)2 (v r sin60)2 …(ii)
2 2 2
Solve (i) and (ii) for v
3. B, C, D
Sol. Based on blackbody radiation.
4. A, B, C
G(2M1 ) M2 GM1M2 M2, R2 M2
Sol. FN dFcos dA cos dm = dA = dA
R 22 2R 22 R 22 dF 2R22
GM1M2 dF cos
The force extended by half shell (M1, R1) will be
2R 22 2M1, R1
So, A, B, C are Correct.
5. A, B, D
Sol. Based on magnetism
6. B, C, D
Sol. From the concept of power in A.C. circuit.
7. C
Sol. Equations are : a1
f1 f2 MaC …(i) M
2F
MR2 f1
(f1 f2 )R …(ii) f1
2 M
2F f1 = Ma1 …(iii)
aC
3F f2 = 2Ma2 …(iv) R
Constraints are
Lower point: R aC = a2 …(v) f2
Upper point : R + aC = a1 …(vi) f2
3F
Solve for required quantities. 2M
a2
8. B
Sol. KVL in L1 and L2 gives C1 Q Q
M
Q Q1 Q1 (Q Q1) (Q Q1) C2
E …(i)
C1 C2
Q1
Q Q1 (1) C2 (2)
E …(ii) Q1
C2 C2
Solving above
N
C C1 E E
VMN E 2
2C2 C1
9. C
Sol. Draw FBD and use LOM to solve
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3 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
10. D
Sol. From Work energy theorem, A
Wgas P0 Adx kxdx 0
1 2
Wgas P0 V kx 90 J , where x = 0.1 m
2
Using Q = U + W gas
P
= nCv T Wgas P0
3 dx
= PV P0 V0 Wgas
2
3
PV P0 V0 Wgas 2010 90 2100J
2
Calculate the other values similarly
SECTION – D
11. 00001.00
Sol. Use constraint that length of thread is constant always.
12. 00000.01
Sol. 1 angular velocity of lamina about ICM. ICM
2 angular velocity of axis ICM.
2
dL
2 L
dt
dL 1
12ICM
dt
13. 00000.50
Sol. Using = T
For no displacement, compare the stress on both side of section.
14. 00000.02
3 P
Sol. At P, sinr 60
2
Q
3 3 r
3 du 60 y
dr 2
2 2 cosr O
In OPQ,
y 3
…(i)
sinr sin(150 r)
Differentiate (i) and put r = 30 for = 3
2
|dy| = d = 0.2133
3
15. 00001.33
3R
Sol. For K; (z b)
4
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
8R
K; (z b)
9
8
3/ 2
K 9 4 1
n = 1.33
K 3 3 2
4
16. 00016.67
Sol. F q(v B)
(3iˆ 4ˆj) 1010 2 109 (x ˆi yj)
ˆ 3 103 kˆ
400 300 100
Solve: x ; y |x + y| = 16.67
6 6 6
17. 00001.76
Sol. mg sin f = ma …(i)
2
fr mr 2 …(ii)
5
5 mg sin
a gsin
7 f a
5 5g
For small ; a g x
7 7(R r) mg
7(R r)
T 2
5g
18. 00312.50
dP dV dP R dP
Sol. B dR
dV / V V B 3 B
3 50 1
dR 312.5 Å
100 3 8 10 3 2 109
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5 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. B
PKa1 PKa2
Sol. pH
2
2.4 14 4.6
2
= 5.9
20. A, B, D
21. A, B, C, D
Sol. Properties of Baryllium.
22. A, B, D
Sol. P4 3NaOH 3H2O
PH3 2NaH2PO2
White
23. A
24. B, C
Δ
Sol. NH4 2 Cr2O7 N2 4H2 O Cr2 O3
Δ 3
2CrO3 Cr2O3 O2
2
Δ 3
2K 2 Cr2O7 2K 2 CrO 4 Cr2 O3 O2
2
Al2O3 Cr No reaction
25. B
Sol. (P) [Ni(CN)4]2–
O. S of Ni is +2
Ni2 3d8 Paramagnetic
3d 4s
In presence of ligand
Ni2 3d8 Diamagnetic
3d 4s 4p
dsp2
(Q) K3[Fe(CN)6]
Oxidation state of Fe = +3
Fe3 3d5 4s0 Paramagnetic
3d 4s
In presence of ligand
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
(R) Ni2
3d 4s
In presence of ligand
Paramagnetic
sp3
(S) [Ni(NH3)6]SO4
In presence of ligand
sp3 d2 paramagnetic
26. A
Sol. Ag+ - Ag2S
- AgI yellow
- 1st group
Zn - 4th group
2+
- ZnS
- Soluble in KI
- form Amphoteric Oxide
Pb2+ - Pbs
- PbI2 yellow
- 1st and 2nd group
- form Amphoteric oxides
Bi3+ - Bi2S3
- BiI3 Black
- BiO+X– (white ppt on dilution with water)
nd
- 2 group
27. D
Sol. P – Chiral, G. I., 2 chiral centers
Q – Chiral, G.I., 2 chiral centers
R – Chiral, G. I., 3 chiral centers
S – Achiral, G. I., plane of symmetry
28. A
Sol. (P)
CHCl3 CHCl3
KOH
KOH
Cl Cl
(Q) Cl
CHClBr2
KOH
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7 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
(R) Cl
CHCl2Br2
KOH
(S) Cl
CHCl3
KOH
SECTION – D
29. 00042.22
Sol. For n mole
n2 a
P 2 V nb nRT for negligible volume b 0
V
PV – nRTV + n2a = 0
2
Quadratic in V thus,
nRT n2R 2 T 2 4an2P
V
2
V has one value at given pressure and temperature thus discriminant = 0
n2R2T2 = 4a n2P
P = 42.22 atm.
30. 00046.06
Sol. Meq of H2SO4 = Meq of NaOH
84.6
N of H2SO4 =
5
84.6
Weight of H2SO4 in 1 lit = 49
5
84.6 49
Weight of H2SO4 in 1 ml =
5 1000
84.6 49 100
Purity = 46.06%
5 1.8 1000
31. 00008.50
h 6.6 10 34
Sol. u 27 9
4.125 104 m / s
mλ 1.6 10 0.01 10
QV = 1/2 mu2
Putting all values we get V
V = 8.50 volt.
32. 00003.82
Sol. Equivalent of oxygen = Equivalent of metal
20 80
8 E
E = 32
64
N.f = 2
32
2F charge is required for 64 gm metal
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
33. 00062.10
Sol. A g B g C g
At time t 0 p 0 0
At time t 20 min px x x
At time t 0 p p
p + x = 300
2p = 500
p = 250
x = 50
2.303
K log1.25
20
0.693
t1/2 62.10 min
K
34. 00001.43
Sol. HCl + NH4OH NH4Cl + H2O H = –12.27
H+ + Cl– + NH4OH NH4 + Cl– + H2O H = –12.27 …1
–
NH4OH NH + OH H = x4 …2
From equation (1) and (2)
H+ + OH– H2O H = –12.27 – x
We know that
–12.27 – x = –13.7
X = 1.43 Kcal
35. 00073.75
Sol.
PCl5
PCl5 Cl2
1 0 0
1 α α α
Meq 1
Minitial 1 α
208.5
1 α
120
= 0.7375
Or 73.75%
36. 00344.80
Sol. Work is done against constant pressure and thus irreversible.
V = 4 lit
P = 1 atm
w = –1 4 lit-atm = - 1 × 4 × 101.3 = - 405.2 Joule
E a w
E 750 405.2
E 344.80 J
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9 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
37. A, D
Sol. f(x) = 3(x – 1)(x + 1)
f is strictly non-decreasing in (–, –1] and [1, ) and non-increasing in [–1, 1]
f(–1) = 3, f(1) = –1, f(2) = 3
f(x) = 0 has three distinct roots x 1, x2, x3 i.e. –2 < x1 < –1 < x2 < 1 < x3 < 2
So f(x) = x1 has one solution
f(x) = x2 = has 3 solution
f(x) = x3 has 3 solution
38. A, C
Sol. =0
cos sin cos
sin cos sin 0
cos sin cos
cos ·cos 2 = 0
3 5 3 7
, , , , ,
4 2 4 4 2 4
3 5 7
But , , , (rejected)
4 4 4 4
Because line are parallel, so system is inconsistent
39. A, C
4 9x 2 35x 2 35
Sol. (i) We have u 1 = 1
4 x 2 9x 2 1 9x 4 37x 2 4 2
2
37 3x 12
x
1 1 12 2
Since x 2, , 2 . So u reaches minimum value , when x
2 2 5 3
(ii) Using A.M. and G.M.
4 9
u2
4 x 9 y2
2
12 12 12 12
=
2 2
36 9x 4y xy
2 2
37 9x 4y 2 2 5
37 2 36 xy
40. A, B
1 1 1 D
Sol. AD BC AC sin 45º VABCD
3 2 6
AC C
So, AD BC 1
2 45º
AC AC
3 AD BC 3 AD BC 3 A
2 2
AC
Equality holds if and only if AD = BC = 1 B
2
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
41. A, B, C, D
2 n 2 2
Sol. (2x + 1) = 1996(1997) + 1997 for n = 1, we get (2x + 1) = 1997
So 2x + 1 = 1997 x = 998, –999
42. A, B
n
3
Sol. Tr cot 1 r 2
r 1 4
4
1 1
1
Tr tan 2 tan
4r 3 r 2 3
4
1
Tr tan1
2 1
1 r 4
1 1
Tr tan1 r tan1 r
2 2
1 1
Sn tan1 n tan1
2 2
1 1
lim Sn tan1 tan1 = tan1 = tan–1 2
n 2 2 2
43. C
3
Sol. e x e x x
3 3
Let f x e x e x f x e x 3x 2 e x 0
f(–) = , f() = 0 f(x) = x has one solution
sin5 x sin2 x; cos3 x cos2 x
sin5 x + cos3 x sin2 x + cos2 x sin5 x + cos3 x 1
Equality holds if sin5 x = sin2 x and cos3 x = cos2 x
sin x = 0, cos x = 1 or sin x = 1, cos x = 0
x , 2
2
44. A
1 17 17 1
Sol. f x f x
2x 2x 2
45. B
9
Sol. Length of common chord = 2 9 3 3
4
9 9 9 2
Angle between circles = cos1
233 3
46. B
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11 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
/2
n n 1
Sol. Let In sin xdx In In2
0
n
/4
n 1
Let Pn tan xdx Pn Pn 2
0
n 1
1
n 1 1
Let In x 1 x dx In
0
n 1 n 2
SECTION – D
47. 00002.00
f x
Sol. g() = g() = g() = 0 g(x) = a(x – )3(x – ) and lim 0
x g x
4
f(x) = b(x – )
d
h(x) = f(x)g(x) + g(x)f(x) = f x g x
dx
d
=
dx
7
7 6
ab x x = ab((x – ) + 7(x – )(x – ) )
48. 00002.00
Sol. A(3, 1, 0) inside cube B
B(1, 1, 1) outside cube
C(2, 1, 3) outside cube
Number of intersection point is 2
A
49. 00006.00
Sol. |A| = –18
A adj(A) = –18 I
a11 a12 a13 5 1 7 18 0 0
a21 a22 a 23 1 7 5 0 18 0
a31 a32 a33 7 5 1 0 0 18
1
3 aij 3 18 aij 6
3
50. 00007.00
sin 1º sin 2º sin 3º ..... sin 179º
Sol. = sin 1º sin 3º sin 5º ..... sin 179º
sin 2º sin 4º ..... sin 178º
2
1 1
44 sin2º sin 4º.....sin88º
2 2 1
= = 89
sin2º sin 4º.....sin88º 2 289
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AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
51. 00036.00
2
x 3 2 y 2
Sol. C1 : 1
9 4
A1 = (6, 2), A2 = (0, 2)
(0, 2) (3, 2) A(6, 2)
PA 1 PA 2 3 2
Clearly locus of P is hyperbola for which
A1A2 = 2ae = 6 and 2a 3 2 e 2
Locus of P is rectangular hyperbola
2 2 9
Equation of conic C2 : (x – 3) – (y – 2) =
2
Now D1 = 2ae = 6 P
2 9
D2 = b =
2 Q
O
9 3
D3 : L 9
2 2
2 Auxiliary circle of C1
D D
1 2 2 36 Auxiliary circle of C2
D3
52. 00002.00
2
2 10
Sol. y 2 x
3 9
Clearly for three distinct normal x-coordinate > 2a
10 1 19
x 2 h [h]least = 2
9 2 9
53. 00003.00
Sol. x = 6q + r where 0 r 5
x x x r r 9 r
2 3 7 2 3 7 7
for r = 0, we get q = 0 x = 0
for r = 1, we get q = 1 x = 7
for r = 2, we get q = –5 x = –28
for r = 3, we get q = 3 x = 21
for r = 4, we get q = –3 x = –14
for x = 5, we get q = –2 x = –7
N
N = sum of all value = –21 3
7
or Put x = 7k where k I
54. 00005.00
sin x x cos x sin x x tan x
Sol. f x for x 0, ; f(x) = 2
= cos x 2 ve for x 0,
x 2 x x 2
f(x) is decreasing function for x 0,
2
2
x sin x 2x cos x 2sin x
f x
x3
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13 AITS-FT-X (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – XI
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01– 06, 19 – 24, 37 - 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 - 46) contains 12 questions. Based on this section contains TWO
(02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
30
45
100
(A) Tension in string is N
2 1
100
(B) Friction force acting on sphere is N
2 1
(C) Minimum value of coefficient of friction for equilibrium is 1
(D) Normal reaction between sphere and inclination is 50 2 N.
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3 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
x1 x2 x
(A) Mutual force acting on the particles is zero when distance between then is x1
(B) Mutual force acting on the particles is zero when distance between then is x 2
(C) Mutual force between the particles is repulsive when distance between them is more than
x1 but less than x2.
(D) Equilibrium is stable at x1.
5. Electrons having de-Broglie wave length are incident on target in X-ray tube. Minimum
wavelength of X-rays generated is 1. Then choose INCORRECT statement(s).
(A) If is increased the value of 1 decreases.
(B) If is increased the value of 1 increases.
(C) The value of 1 will not change if target metal is changed.
(D) The value of 1 does not depend on .
6. Two waves having same wavelength in vacuum are in phase initially. First wave travels a path
length L1 in medium of refractive index n1 and second wave travels path length L2 in medium of
refractive index n2. They are now combined in vacuum. Based on above information choose
correct option(s).
2
(A) Phase difference between waves after combination is (n1L1 n2L 2 ) .
(B) Frequency of both waves remains unchanged when they travel through different medium.
2 L1 L2
(C) Phase difference between waves after combination is
n1 n2
(D) Frequency of wave in medium with more refractive index will be more.
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
A circular loop of radius R is kept in x–y plane with centre at origin. Magnetic field in region is given by
B B0 ˆi 2B0 ˆj 3B0kˆ . Based on above information, answer the following questions.
7. If loop starts rotating with angular velocity about x–axis. Then value of average induced emf
during the time loop changes its plane from x-y plane to x–z plane for the first time is
(A) 2B0R2
2B0 R2
(B)
(C) B0R2
B0 R2
(D)
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
8. If a current i is flowing in loop when it was in x–y plane and at rest. The direction of current is
such that when an observer situated at positive z-axis looks at loop he finds direction of current
clockwise. The value of net torque about centre of loop is
ĵ
(A) 2iR2B0 ˆi
2
(B)
iR2B ˆi 2ˆj
0
ĵ
(C) 2iR2B0 ˆi kˆ
2
(D) 2 ˆ
ˆ
iR B i 2 j k
0
ˆ
Paragraph for Question Nos. 9 and 10
An experiment is performed to calculate the focal length of a convex mirror using convex lens. The setup
consists of two pins, optical bench, one convex lens and one convex mirror.
When only convex lens is placed at a distance 60 cm from pin (object) its image is formed at a distance
30 cm from the lens as shown in figure (i) Now. Convex mirror is also kept right to the lens without
changing distance between pin (object) and lens. The mirror is kept at a distance 10 cm from lens such
that position of image of object pin and position of object pin coincides as shown in figure (ii)
60 cm 30 cm 60 cm
10 cm
Figure (i) Figure (ii)
Now answer the following questions.
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5 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
11. A uniformly charged ring is placed in x – y plane with its centre at origin. Total charge on ring is
(10 nC) and radius of ring is 1 cm. The magnitude of potential difference between points having
co–ordinate (0, 0, 2 2 cm) and (0, 0 2 6 cm) is (in volts)
12. The magnetic field in a certain cylindrical region of radius 5 cm is varying with time according to
law given by B = (4t2 – 3t) where B is in Tesla and t is in second. The value of induced electric
field at 3 cm from centre is E1 and at 6 cm from centre is E2. The value of product of magnitude of
E1 and E2 (at t = 1 sec) is k × 10–5 V2/m2. The value of k is
R (ohm)
14. Moment of inertia of a uniform equilateral triangular lamina of mass 20 kg and side length 75 cm
about an axis perpendicular to plane and passing through centroid (in kg–m2) is I. The value of
100 I is
15. If pressure inside a spherical bubble of radius 0.2 mm just below the surface of water is k 104
N/m2 then the value of k is ……... (Given surface tension of water = 7 102 N/m and
atmospheric pressure 1.013 105 N/m2)
16. Gravitational field intensity at the centre of the base of a uniform hollow hemisphere of mass 2 kg
and radius 50 cm is E 1011 N/kg. The value of E is
x
17. A harmonic pulse given by y(in cm) (0.9 cm)sin t . x in meter and t in second is travelling
4
in a uniform tight string. Same pulse is transmitted onto another string where speed of wave
becomes 2 m/s. The amplitude of transmitted wave in (cm) is
V0 V (m3)
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. Which of the following statement(s) regarding alkaline earth metals is/are correct?
(A) Only BeF2 behaves as a Lewis acid while other fluorides of alkaline earth metals don’t act
as Lewis acid.
(B) Be doesn’t react directly with fluorine hence BeF2 is prepared by heating (NH4)2BeF4.
(C) In solid state the geometry of BeCl2 is tetrahedral.
(D) All metals of alkaline earth metals show characteristic colour in flame test.
20. Which of the following complex(es) is/are diamagnetic as well as show(s) optical isomerism
(A) [PtCl2 (MeNH –CH2 – CH2 – NHMe)]
3
(B) Co C2O 4 3
(C) K Cr H2O 2 C2O4 2
(D) Ni en 2 Cl2
21. Which of the following halogen react(s) with water at room temperature to give hypohalous acid
(HOX)
(A) F2
(B) Cl2
(C) Br2
(D) I2
23. The Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution for molecular speeds of a gas is shown in the figure at given
temperature T
L
In the figure H is the height of the peak, L is the location of the maximum and W is the width at
half height. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding this graph:
(A) For a given gas, as the temperature decreases, H decreases, L increases and W
increases.
(B) At a given temperature as the molar mass decreases H increases, L decreases and W
decreases.
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7 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(C) For a given gas, as the temperature decreases, H increases, L decreases and W
decreases.
(D) At a given temperature as the molar mass decreases H decreases, L increases and W
increases.
(B)
(C) O
2
i Br , NaOH
ii H O
3
iii Sodalim e,
O O
(D) Br
i Mg,dry ether
ii O2
iii H3 O
iv Zn,
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
A hydrocarbon ‘P’ (C8H10) on oxidation gives a dicarboxylic acid which reacts with ethylene glycol produce
a polymer Glyptal. The compound ‘P’ on reaction with CrO3/Ac2O followed by acidic hydrolysis give a
compound Q. Q undergoes the following sequences to furnish S via R. The compound Q also undergoes
another set of reaction to produce T.
1. KOH 1. KMnO4 , H 1. NaOH, CaO
2. H3 O , 2. NH3 , 2. Ac 2O/Py
T
3. NH3 ,
Q
3. Strong heating
R
3. Br2 /Ac 2O
S
4. LiAlH4 4. KOH, Br2 4. H3O
5. Ac 2O, Py
O
Br
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
(B) NH2
O
Br
(C) NH2
Br
(D) O
NH CH3
Br
NHAc
O
(B)
N Ac
(C)
N Ac
O
(D)
O Ac
NH2
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9 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
S
OH
(B) OH
(C)
OH
(D)
OH
28. The compound ‘H’ on reaction with CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis gives:
(A) OH
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
(B)
OH
(C) OH
(D) OH
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. The density of solid XY having Rock salt type structure is 90 mg/cm 3. If the distance between X
and Y is n 10 10 meter. The n is (given atomic mass of X and Y are 42 and 66 gm mol-1
respectively and NA = 6 × 1023)
31. 4-amino butanoic acid is an important neurotransmitter. The plot given below shows the titration
curve for 20 ml of 0.1 M of 4-aminobutanoic acid hydrochloride against 0.1 M of NaOH
D
C
pH 10.7
B
A
4.82
10 30
Volume of NaOH (ml)
The pH of the solution when 20 ml of 0.1 M of 4-aminobutonoic acid hydrochloride is titrated with
25 ml of 0.1 M NaOH solution is [Given: log103 = 0.48]
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11 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
32. The resistance of Ba(OH)2 is 4000 times greater than KCl if measured in the same conductivity
2
cell. The molar conductivity of BaCl2, NaOH and NaCl at infinite dilution are 2x, 4x and 3x Scm
-1 -2 -2
mol respectively. If the degree of dissociation of 10 M Ba(OH)2 is a × 10 . The value of ‘a’ is:
[Given: specific conductivity of KCl is 0.002x Scm -1]
34. The solubility product of AgBr is 1 10 13 at 298 K. If standard reduction potential of half cell,
EoAg/ AgBr s /Br is 0.0725 V, the standard reduction potential, EoAg / Ag in volt is:
RT
Given : F 0.025, n10 2.3
35. Number of carbonyl groups present in the final product of the following reaction sequence is P
P
then is:
5
O O O
i O ,H O
O
3 2 2
ii H3 O ,
O O O
x
36. Total number of compounds in which central atom have only two lone pair is x then is:
2
ClF4 ,SeF2 , XeOF2 , XeO3 ,ClF2 ,SNF3 ,I3 ,SOCl2 ,SO32
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
38. Consider a pyramid built on a square base of side 2 such that the lengths of the line segments
joining its apex to the 4 corners of the base are equal and the height of the structure is equal to
the length of a side of its base. Then which of the following statements is/are true
8
(A) volume of the pyramid is
3
2
(B) the angle between the base and any other face is sin1
5
(C) the angle between two faces with common edge which passes through the apex is
1
cos1
5
(D) volume of the largest tetrahedron that can be inscribed in the pyramid is 1
n
xu
39. Consider the function F x du (n > 1), then which of the following statements is/are true
1
u
(A) F(x) has a local maxima at x = 2
(B) lim F x 0
x 1
x x , x 0 x x , x 0
40. Two functions f(x) and g(x) are defined as f x and g x ,
0 , x0 0 , x 0
(where [.] and {.} refer to the greatest integer function and the fractional part function
respectively). Then which of the following statements is/are true (where n N)
n 1 n
n 1
(A) f x dx f x dx lnn
0 0
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13 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
n 1 n
1
(B) g x dx g x dx
0 0
n1
t t
(C) f x dx g x dx has at least one solution in t 0, 2
0 0
n
(D) e lim g x dx e2
n
0
41. Consider f(x) = sin–1(sin x) – cos–1(cos x), then which of the following statements is/are true
(A) f(x) = 0 for x 0,
4
3
(B) f(x) < 0 for x ,
2 4
5
(C) f(x) > 0 for x ,
4
3
(D) f(x) < 0 for x ,
4
42. Consider a mirror made out of hyperbola x 2 – y2 = 2 such that its exterior surface is reflecting. A
ray of light passes along x – y = 2 from the exterior of the hyperbola, then the reflected ray travels
along which of the below lines.
(A) 3y – x + 3 = 0
(B) 3y + x = 0
(C) y + 7x + 2 = 0
(D) 7y + x + 2 = 0
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Finding the area or the length of boundary of the shape enclosed by a set of curves requires the use of
definite integration between limits defined by their points of intersection. Quite often it is easier to do the
integration using polar coordinates
3 3
43. The area enclosed by the curve x + y = 3xy is
3
(A)
2
1
(B)
2
(C)
2
3
(D)
2
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
(B)
2
1
(C) ln 1 2
2
(D) ln 1 2
2
Let ABC be a triangle such that origin is its circumcentre & its base, BC, always passes through the point
(4, 5). If the lateral sides (AB and AC) have x + y = 0 and x – 9y = 0 as their perpendicular bisectors, then
the locus of A is a circle .
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
47. If P is the probability of choosing two squares on a 8 8 standard chess-board such that two
1
bishops on these squares cannot attack each other in one move, then is (where [.] denotes
P
the greatest integer function).
x x 2 1 yz
48. Let x, y, z be three distinct complex numbers such that xyz = 5 and y y 2 1 zx 0 , then
z z2 1 xy
1 1 1
is equal to
x y z
49. Let A be a 3 3 orthogonal matrix and be a non-zero, real number such that
|adj(adj A)| = 16|adj A|, then 2] is equal to (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
1 n
xk 13k 9
50. Let L lim
n
k!
dx , then ln L is equal to (where [.] denotes the greatest integer
2
0 k 0
function)
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15 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
51. An unbiased dice with numbers {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} on its faces is rolled once. An observer, A, sees
1
the number shown on the dice and reports it. The probability that A speaks the truth is and the
3
2
probability that he lies is . Assume that the number he reports is always from the set {1, 2, 3, 4,
3
5, 6}. If p is the probability that the actual number on the dice is even given that A reports that the
number was 2, then p is equal to
n
1 1
52. If an n and L lim , then L is equal to
r 0 Cr n an
1
53. If S k 51 , then S is equal to
k 1 Ck
54. A parallelogram is drawn to circumscribe the curve x 2 + 4y2 = 4 such that two of its vertices are
3, 2
and 3, 2 . If L is the sum of distances of the other two vertices from the centre
1
of the curve then is equal to
L2
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – XI
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
SECTION – A
1. A, B, C, D
Sol. Total displacement is zero.
1
Total distance travelled = 10 20 2 200m
2
2. B
Sol. Equation of motion perpendicular to inclination
10 sin 30 – g cos 30 t = 0
10 1
t= t
10 3 3
2
Time of flight T = 2t = sec
3
3. A, B
Sol. Torque about centre must be zero N fr
T = fr
T cos 45 + fr = mg sin 45
45
T
2 1 100
2 2 T
100
T
2 1
mg
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
4. A, B, D
dU
Sol. F=
dx
5. A, D
Sol. The maximum energy of photon depends on the energy of electrons incident.
6. A, B
Sol. Optical path difference = n1L1 n2 2
2
x
7. A
8. A
Sol. (for Q.7-8)
R2 3B0 2B0 B0 R2
t t
2 2
2
20 R
t
B
9. A
10. A
Sol. (for Q.9-10)
1 1 1
f v u
1 1
30 60
1 1
f 20cm
f 20
Focal length of convex mirror
1
f 30 10 10cm
2
SECTION – D
11. 01200.00
1 q
Sol. V1
4 0 x R2
2
9 10 9 10 109
V1 3000
3 102
9 109 109 10
V2 1800
5 10 2
V 1200 V
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3 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
12. 00781.25
r dB
Sol. E1 =
2 dt
R2 dB
E 2= .
2r dt
3 25
5 10 2 5 102
2 2 6
25 25 3 104
= 78.125 10–4 = 781.25 10–5
46
13. 00002.88
V2 V2 48 48
Sol. P R = 2.88
4R 4P 4 200
14. 00093.75
m 2 3 3 1 180
Sol. I= 20 =
12 4 4 12 192
15. 00010.20
Sol. Excess pressure
2T 2 7 102 2
P 700 N/m
R 0.2 103
Pressure inside bubble = 1.013 105 + 700
= 10.13 104 + 0.07 104 = 10.20 104 N/m2
16. 00026.68
GM 6.67 10 11 2
Sol. E 6.67 4 1011 26.68 10 11 N/kg
2R2 1
2
2
2
17. 00000.60
2v 2 2 2 0.9
Sol. A t Ai = 2 0.3 = 0.6
(v 1 v 2 ) 6
18. 00014.00
dP P
Sol. Slope
dV V
7 5
10 V
5
70 3 4 3
V 104 m = 14 10 m
5
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. A, C
Sol. Be also reacts directly with fluorine Except Be and Mg, other alkaline earth metals give flame test.
20. A, B
Sol. 3-
H3C H
ox
Cl
N K Cr H2O 2 C2O 4 2
Co ox
Pt paramagnetic
Cl N
CH3 ox Ni en 2 Cl2
H
diamagnetic d2sp2 paramagnetic
diamagnetic dsp2
21. B, C
Sol. F2 H2O HF O2
I2 H2O
No reaction
Cl2 H2O
HCl HClO
Br2 H2O
HBr HBrO
22. B, C, D
Sol. Peptization is the process of forming colloidal sol by freshly prepared precipitate in the presence
of small amount of electrolyte.
23. B, C
Sol. As temperature decreases or molar mass decreases
H increases
L decreases
w decreases
24. A, C, D
Sol. O O O O
O O
Br2 , NaOH H3 O
NaOH,CaO
O O O
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5 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Br MgBr OMgBr OH
COOH
hot KMnO4 / OH HI/Red P
H
COOH
25. C
26. B
Sol. CH3 COOH
O HO CH2 CH2 OH
Glyptal
CH3 COOH
'P '
1 CrO3 , Ac 2O
2 H3O O
CHO COOH C NH2
KMnO 4 ,H NH3 ,
CHO COOH C NH2
'Q '
O
Strong
O
COOK
Ac 2O/Py KOH, Br2 N H
NaOH,CaO
NH2 Br NH2
Br
O
HN Ac
H3O
Br2 /Ac 2 O
'S'
NHAc NH2
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
CHO CH2OH
KOH
H3 O ,
O
CHO COOK
O
NH3 ,
Ac O, Py LiAlH
N Ac
2
N H
4 N H
'T' O
27. C
28. B
Sol. O
i CH2 COOC2H5 / Zn O
|
Br
ii H3O , C CH C OH
'H' CH3
i CH3Li
ii H3O O
OH C CH
i CH3Li CH3
C CH C CH3
ii H3 O
CH3
CH3 CH3
'P '
H3 O
3
i O O
ii H2 O/Zn
CHO
OH
KOH
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7 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
29. 00010.00
Z m
Sol. d
NA a 3
4 108 20 10 10
90 10 3 Distance between X & Y
6 10 23 a 3 2
10 10 10 m
4 108
a3
6 9 1021
a 8 10 21
3
a 2 10 7 cm
a 2 10 9 m
a 20 10 10 m
30. 00051.20
2
200
Sol. QP 3
100
2 50
G Go RTnQ
2500
31.06 4.6
1000
31.06 2.5 4.6
31.06 11.5
19.56
G H TS
19.56 4.2 TS
15.36 TS
15.36
S 1000 JK 1
300
51.2 JK 1
31. 00010.22
Sol.
H3N COOH NaOH H3N COO
2mmol 2.5 mmol
2.5 2 2mol
22
H3N COO NaOH H2N COO
2 0.5 0.5 0.5 0.5
pH pK a2 log
C.B
Acid
0.5 / V
10.7 log
15 / V
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
1
pH 10.7 log
3
= 10.7 – 0.48
= 10.22
32. 00001.25
Sol. 2x 4xx 2 3xx 2 = 4x
k1 G1 R 2
k1 for Ba OH2 k 2 for KCl
k 2 G2 R1
k1 1 k2 0.002x
k1
k 2 4000 4000 4000
k 1000 0.002x 1000 0.2x 2x x
cm 1 2
M 4000 10 4 40 20
c
x 1
m 10 1 0.125 101
M 20 4x 8
1.25 102
33. 00013.20
Sol. A g 2B g C s D g
Po
10 min Po P 2P P
Po Po 2Po Po
3Po 27 1 60 9
k ln
Po 9 bar 10 96
6n3
PT Po P 2P P
6 1.1
PT Po 2P 6.6 min1
21 9 2P
r k A
2P 12
P 6atm 6.6 2
-1
=13.2 mole/litre min
34. 00000.82
Sol.
AgBr s
Ag Br
G1o RT nK SP
Ag e
Ag Go2 nFE1o
AgBr e
Ag Br
Go3 nFE o2
Go3 G1o Go2
1FEo2 1FE1o RTnK SP
RT
Eo2 E1o nK SP
F
0.0725 E1o 0.025 29.9
0.0725 E1o 0.7475
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9 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
35. 00000.80
Sol. O O O O O O O O
O
i O ,H O HO
ii H3O
O
O
3 2 2
HO
O O O O O O O O O
36. 00001.50
Sol.
F F O F
Xe
Cl F Se F Xe F Cl F
O O O
F F
F
F O
S Cl S
N S F I I I
Cl O O O
F
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – A
37. B, C, D
2 2 2
Sol. Consider ABC, where A A , B B , C C
3 3 3
1
Now apply triangle inequality to get S
3
38. A, B, C
Sol. Take base as the x – y plane with one vertex as origin. A, B be vertices along the x, y-axes
respectively
OA 2iˆ , OB 2ˆj , OC ˆi ˆj 2kˆ , where C is the apex
OA OB 4kˆ ; OA OC 2kˆ 4ˆj ; OB OC 2kˆ 4iˆ
1 8
Volume is parallelopiped =
3 3
4
Tetrahedron with half of pyramid’s base and the pyramid’s apex has volume =
3
39. C, D
n
xu xu
Sol. Fx du ; u [1, n] is strictly monotonic in x
1
u u
F(x) is strictly monotonic
n n u n n n u n
du x du du x du
x du xn as x 1+ and x du xn as x 1–
1
u 1
u 1
u 1
u 1
u 1
u
lim F x ln n
x 1
40. A, B
n 1 n n 1 n 1
1 nx n 1
Sol. f x dx f x dx nx n dx
0 0 n nn lnn n ln n
n 1
n 1
n 1 n n 1
n x n 1
g x dx g x dx x n dx
n1
n 1
0 0 n
n
t t
t (0, 1) f x dx 0 , t 1, 2 f x dx 2 1
0 0
t
t = 1 g x dx 1
0
n n
1
lim g x dx lim i 1 Divergent series
n n
0 i0
41. A, B, D
Sol. For x 0, , f(x) = 0
2
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11 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
For x , , f(x) = – x – x = – 2x < 0
2
3
For x , , f(x) = – x – (2 – x) = – < 0
2
for x , , f(x) = –( + x) – (–x) = – < 0
2
42. D
Sol. Incident ray, if extended, passes through one focus (2, 0). So reflected ray will follow the path to
pass through the other focus (–2, 0)
43. A
1 9 cos2 sin2
4
3
Sol. Area = 2 d
2 0 cos3 sin3 2 2
44. C
1 2 1 1
dr 1 1 1
Sol. Length = r 2 d 2 1d 1 2 ln 1 2 = ln 1 2
0
d 0
2 2 0 2 2
45. A
46. C
Sol. (for Q.45.-46)
Let A(h, k), C(x 0, y0), B(x1, y1)
1 1
h + x0 = 9(k + y0) and h2 + k2 = x 20 y02 x 0 40h 9k , y 0 9h 40k
41 41
h x1 k y1 and h2 k 2 x12 y12 x1 k, y1 h
5 y1 5 y 0
4h2 + 4k2 + 41k = 0
4 x1 4 x 0
SECTION – D
47. 00001.00
Sol. Two bishops attack each other if they are in squares along the same diagonal. The number of
ways of choosing two squares along the same diagonal on a 8 8 chessboard is
2 2 2
C2 3 C2 ..... 7 C2 8 C2 = 2 8
C3 9 C3
P 1
2 8
C3 9 C3 1 280 2 1
1
64
C2 64 63 P
48. 00000.20
x x 2 1 yz
Sol. y y 2 1 zx x y y z z x 1 xy yz zx
z z2 1 xy
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
49. 00002.00
Sol. |adj A| = |A|2 = 6|A|2 = 6 (as A is orthogonal)
2 12
|Adj(adj A)| = |adj A| =
12
6 6 16 [2| = 3 16 2
50. 00003.00
1 1 1 1 1
n
xk 1 3k n
xk 3k 3x xe3x e3x 2e3 1
Sol. lim
n
k! dx nk0 k!
x lim dx xe dx
3
9
9
0 k 0 0 0 0 0
51. 00000.60
1 1 1
Sol. Probability that (i) Dice shows 2 and A reports it correctly,
6 3 18
5 2 1 1
(ii) Dice did not show 2 and A reported it as 2,
6 3 5 9
2 2 1 2
(iii) Dice showed 4 or 6 and A reported it as 2,
6 3 5 45
1 2
3
P 18 45
1 1 5
18 9
52. 00000.50
1 1 1 1 1 1 n2 1
Sol. a
Cn n C1 n Cn1 i2 n C2
n n nC
C0 n Cn 0
n
53. 00000.02
51! 1 1
Sol. Tk
50 k 1 ..... k 50 k 2 k 3 ..... k 51
1
S
50
54. 00000.05
Sol. Other 2 vertices lie on the director circle
L= 2 5
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – XI
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46) contains 12 questions. Each question has TWO (02)
matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements
from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. A light rod of length is free to rotate about one of its end in vertical plane. A ring of mass m can
slide freely without friction on the rod. Initially rod is kept horizontal and ring is situated at a
distance 3/5 from fixed end. Now, rod is released choose correct statement(s).
8g
(A) Velocity of ring when it leaves contact with rod is.
5
(B) Angular momentum of the ring about point of suspension of rod when it looses contact
72g3
with rod is m .
125
(C) Angular velocity of the rod remains constant through out the motion.
(D) Acceleration of the ring is uniform.
(A)
(B)
(C)
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3 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(D)
3. A car is moving towards a stationary observer with speed 10 m/s. The car blows a horn of
frequency 640 Hz for 10 seconds. If speed of sound in air is 330 m/s, then
(A) Frequency of horn heard by stationary observer is 660 Hz
(B) The time duration during which observer hears the horn is 12 s.
(C) Frequency of horn heard by driver of car is 640 Hz
(D) The time duration during which observer hears the horn is 10 s.
5. A ring of radius R is made up of thin wire of linear mass density having cross section area A
and Young’s modulus Y is made to rotate about its axis with angular velocity then,
(A) Tension in ring 2R2
22 4R5
(B) Elastic potential energy stored in ring is
YA
2 2
(C) Tension in ring is R
2
(D) Kinetic energy of the ring is R32
2a
(A) If loop is taken away from wire the current in the loop will be clockwise.
0 a
(B) Mutual inductance of the system for the situation shown in figure will be ln2
4
(C) If loop is taken away from the wire the current in the loop will be anticlockwise.
aln 2
(D) Mutual inductance of the system for the situation shown in figure will be 0
2
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
7. Different geometrical constructions of density are tied to string such that they are floating in a
liquid of density 3 with half of their volume outside liquid as shown in List –I and the value of
tension in the string is given in List-II.
LIST–I LIST–II
P. 1. a3 g
A cube of side 2a
Q. 2. 4 a 3 g
A cylinder of height 2a
and radius a
R. 3. 9 a3 g
a3 g
S. 4.
2
A solid hemisphere of
radius 3a
(A) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 3; S→2
(B) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 4; S→2
(C) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S→2
(D) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 4; S→3
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5 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
i
z
LIST–I LIST–II
0i ˆ i ˆ
P. (2a, 0, 0) 1. ( i) 0 (k)
8a 16a
0 i ˆ i ˆ
Q. (0, a, 0) 2. ( i) 0 ( k)
4a 8a
0 i ˆ i
R. (0, 0, 4a) 3. (k) 0 ( ˆj)
16a 8a
0 i i
S. (0, 2a, 0) 4. ( ˆi) 0 (ˆj)
32a 32a
(A) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 3; S→2
(B) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S→1
(C) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S→2
(D) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 2; S→3
9. Electric field in a region is given by E (2xy)iˆ (x 2 )jˆ V/m. Electric potential at origin
is 5V. Match the following two columns.
LIST–I LIST–II
P. Potential at point (5 m, 2m, 1m) 1. 4V
Q. Potential at point (1m, 1m, 1m) 2. 1V
R. Potential at point (2m, 1m, 1m) 3. 3V
S. Potential at point (1m, 2m, 1m) 4. 45 V
(A) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 2
(B) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 4; S → 2
(C) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2
(D) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 3
10. In a YDSE setup a transparent film of refractive index 1.5 is placed on one of the slit. Different
values of t are given in column I. Column II contains the ratio of intensity at central line on screen
after inserting the slab and before inserting the slab. Wavelength of light used in experiment is
600 nm. Then
LIST–I LIST–II
P. 400 nm 1. 3/4
Q. 200 nm 2. 1/4
R. 300 nm 3. 1/2
S. 600 nm 4. 0
(A) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 2
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
(B) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 4
(C) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2
(D) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 3
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
11. A container filled with water is suspended with the help of a spring of spring constant
500 N/cm. A small orifice is made in container and water starts flowing out. The variation of
elongation in spring with time is shown in graph calculate the flow rate of water in cm3/sec.
[Neglect any oscillations]
x (cm)
30 t (min).
12. A circular plane mirror is kept on a horizontal surface, an opaque sphere of radius R = 20 cm is
placed symmetrically on the circular plane mirror. An insect lies on the sphere at a vertical height
of 36 cm from the circular mirror. Find the minimum radius of mirror so that image is formed by
the mirror.
t (sec)
14. An open organ pipe is vibrating in air and it is vibrating in 3rd overtone with maximum pressure
amplitude 3 N/m-2 the value of maximum volumetric strain at a distance (1/12)m from any end is
-5 2
k 10 . The value of k is (Adiabatic Bulk modulus of air = 100 kN/m , length of organ pipe = 1m)
15. Total mass of a system of particles is 20 kg. To apply Newton’s law from the centre of mass
frame on a particle of mass 5 kg one has to apply pseudo force F (10iˆ 20ˆj)N on it. The
magnitude of net force acting on system of particle in Newton is F1. The value of F12 is
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7 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
16. What will be mean life (in hours) of a radioactive sample, if it is known that its activity decrease at
the rate of 19 % per hour? [Given ln(0.9) = –0.10].
17. A man can jump over 4 m wide trench on earth. Mean density of an imaginary planet is twice that
of earth, calculate maximum possible radius of that planet (in m) so that same man can escape
from planet by jumping. (Radius of earth = 6400 km, use 10 = 3.16)
18. Find the velocity (in cm/s) of the car C as appeared by the observer shown in the figure. There
are several parallel slabs of different medium placed between the car and the observer.
C
8 cm /s Observer
20 cm 30 cm 32 cm 34 cm 17 cm 16 cm
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Cu2+ ion and Cd2+ ion (M = Cu or Cd)
(A) Only CdS is soluble in yellow ammonium sulphide.
2+
(B) Only Cu ion form K3[M(CN)4] complex when treated with excess of KCN.
(C) Only Cd2+ ion form [M(NH3)4]2+ complex when treated with excess of NH3.
(D) Cu2+ ion gives back ppt. of CuS with H2S gas in presence of HCl.
20. Which of the following reagent(s) is/are correct regarding the following conversion of (P) into (Q)
O H
(B)
OH
NO 2
(C) HO O
HO O
(D) COOH
NO2
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9 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
22. If intermolecular force of attraction between the atoms of a real gas is zero, which of the following
graphs is/are correct regarding that gas (Z = compressibility factor, V = Potential energy, r =
intermolecular distance between gas particle)
(A)
Z
1
P
(B)
V
0
r
(C)
Z
1
P
(D)
V
0
r
H OCH3
H OH O
H OH
HO H
H
CH 2OH
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
OH H
H OH
(C) CH2OH CH2OH
H O H H O OH
H H
OH H OH H
OH O H
H OH H OH
(D) OH
H H OH
HO OH
HO H O
24.
O O
Very dil. NaOH
'P ' Major
H
H3C
Br
The configuration of product ‘P’ is/are:
(A)
O O
H
H3C
OH
(B)
O O
OH
H3C
H
(C)
O O
HO
CH3
H
(D)
O O
H
CH3
HO
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11 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
25. Match each coordination compound in List – I with an appropriate pair of characteristics from
List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list [Atomic number
Co = 27, Cr = 24, Ni = 28, Pt = 78, Ox = oxalate ion]:
List – I List – II
3 2
P. [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Br 1. sp d hybridization
Q. K3[Cr(Ox)2Cl2] 2. Geometrical isomerism
R. [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 3. Optical isomerism
S. [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] 4. Ionization isomerism
5. Diamagnetic
6. dsp2
The correct option is
(A) P 1, 2; Q 2, 5; R 1, 4; S 2, 6
(B) P 1, 2, 4; Q 2, 3; R 1; S 2, 5, 6
(C) P 2; Q 2, 3, 4; R 4, 5; S 2, 3
(D) P 4, 5, Q 1, 5; R 4; S 2, 5
26. Atomic orbitals of two elements combine to form molecular orbitals. The axis which connect the
nucleus of two elements is y axis then match each sets of atomic orbitals of List – I with List – II
showing shape of molecular orbital.
List – I List – II
P. pz + pz 1. Form bond and shape of bonding
molecular orbirtal is
Q. py + py 2. Form bond and shape of bonding
molecular orbital is
R. px + py 3. Form bond and shape of
antibonding molecular orbital is
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
27. Match the chemical conversions in List – I with appropriate reagent(s) which is/are required for
conversion in List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List – I List – II (Reagents)
P. NH2 OH 1. (i) Oleum
(ii) NaOH fused
CH2 OH
(iii) H+
Q. O 2. HCHO / OH
OH
H
O
O
R. NH2 3. (i) HCN / OH
(ii) H ,
n,,m
r
a0
5. 3/2 Zr
Z
3a0
n,,m e
a0
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13 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
X
29. The total number of species which having at least two unpaired electrons is X, then is:
2
2 2 2
Ni NH3 6 , Ni CN4 , PtCl4 ,O2 ,S,NO,C2 , Co NH3 4 NO3 2 NO3
2
Ti H2O 5 Cl NO 3 , S 2 vapour phase , Mn H2O 6 ,Se
(Atomic number Ti = 22, Co = 27, S = 16, Ni = 28, Pt = 78, O = 8, N = 7, Se = 34 and Mn = 25)
30. A tetrapeptide made up of natural amino acid has Leucine as the N-terminal residue which is
coupled to a chiral amino acid upon complete hydrolysis, the tetrapeptide gives alanine,
phenylalanine, glycine and leucine. The number of possible sequences of the tetrapeptide is P,
P
is:
5
33. 3L of a mixture of O2 and O3 having pressure 8.21 atm at 27oC is treated with 800 ml of 2M KI
solution buffered with a borate buffer of pH 9.2, the iodine so liberated is titrated with 200 ml of
2M hypo solution. The mole % of ozone in the mixture (Assuming ideal behaviour of gaseous
mixure and there is no reaction between oxygen and hypo solution) [Given: R = 0.0821 L atm
mol-1 K-1]
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
1.0 C
35. At 300 K the half life for first order decomposition of H2O2 is 180 minutes. If 6 moles of H2O2 is left
for 360 minute at 300 K, what will be the volume of O2 at S.T.P. (in litre) produced?
36. The total number of compounds given below can discharge the pink colour of acidic solution of
x
KMnO4 is x, then .
5
Mohr’s salt, Glauber’s salt, Oxalic acid, Ferrous oxalate, Sodium nitrite, Sodium thiosulphate,
Ethyl alcohol, Sodium sulphates, Hydrogen sulphide, Stannous chloride.
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15 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
n
n
37. Consider S r Cr , where n and r are natural numbers, then which of the following
r 1
statements is/are always true
(A) S 2n/2 n
(B) S 2n1n3
(C) S 2n/2 n
(D) S 2n1n3
n
38. Let a1, a2, ....., an represent real numbers such that ai 1 and ai 0 i {1, 2, ....., n}.
i 1
n 1
If S = aiai1 , then S can take which of the following values
i 1
(A) 0
1
(B)
4
2
(C)
3
(D) 1
39. An equilateral triangle is constructed such that the origin is one of its vertices while the other two
x3 y2
vertices lie on the line z 2 , then which of the following statements is/are correct
2 3
(A) area of the equilateral triangle is 3
1
(B) inradius of the equilateral triangle is
3
2
(C) circumradius of the equilateral triangle is
3
2 2 2
(D) centroid of the equilateral triangle is , ,
3 3 3
40. In ABC, if AD is a median and AD is perpendicular to AC, then which of the following statements
is/are correct
2 c 2 a2
(A) cos A cos C
3ac
b2 c 2 a2
(B) cos A cos C
ac
(C) tan A + 2 tan B = 0
(D) tan A + 2 tan C = 0
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
41. If f(x) satisfies the differential equation xf(x) = f(x) + x2 + 9(f(x))2 and f(1) = 0, then which of the
following statements is/are true
f x
(A) lim 0
x 1 x 1
f x
(B) lim 1
x 1 x 1
f 1 x f 1 x
(C) lim 0
x 0 x2
f 1 x f 1 x
(D) lim 2
x 0 x2
dx
42. Consider In n
where n > 1, then which of the following statements is/are true
0
x 1 x2
2
(A) I2
3
2
(B) I2
5
(C) I10 I5
(D) I10 I5
x
1 1
–1 ; if x 1 x 1 e x x ; if x 0
43. Let f 1(x) = x tan x, f2(x) = ln2 , f 3(x) = and
1 ; if x 1 0 ; if x 0
2 tan x
f 4(x) = 4 if x
cot 2x 4
LIST - I LIST - II
P. Number of critical points for f1(x) over its domain is 1. –1
Q. Derivative of f 2(x) at x = 1 is 2. 0
Number of points of discontinuity for f 3(x) in the interval
R. 3. 1
[–2, 2] is
Value of f4 such that the function is continuous
4
S. 4. 2
5
everywhere on interval , is
6 6
5. 3
6. none of these
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17 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
44. Let four curves C1, C2, C3 and C4 in the Argand plane be defined as below
2
C1 is z2 z 2 z z 2 z ; C2 is 1 i z 2 i z 3 i 0 ;
C3 is 1 i z 1 i z 5 2 z 5 2i ; C4 is 3 4i z 3 4i z 6 20 z 3 3i
LIST - I LIST - II
P. Shape defined by C1 is 1. point circle
Q. Shape defined by C2 is 2. circle
R. Shape defined by C3 is 3. ellipse
S. Shape defined by C4 is 4. hyperbola
5. parabola
6. pair of straight lines
The correct option is:
(A) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 5; S → 3
(B) P → 2; Q → 6; R → 4; S → 6
(C) P → 5; Q → 6; R → 5; S → 3
(D) P → 5; Q → 1; R → 4; S → 6
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
3 1
Q. cot 1 k 2 4 2. tan1
2
k 1
1
R. 2k 1 2k 2k 1 3.
2
k 1
1 1
S. 4k 1 4k 1 4.
2 8
k 1
4
5. 1
6. tan–1 2
The correct option is:
(A) P → 5; Q → 6; R → 1; S → 4
(B) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 3; S → 4
(C) P → 4; Q → 6; R → 1; S → 5
(D) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 6; S → 1
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
47. The number of parabola(s) that can be drawn, with x 3y as directrix and passing through both
the points 4 3, 2 and (2, 0), is equal to
48. In a given circle if n chords are drawn, where n 2, such that no three chords are concurrent
inside the circle and m is the number of points of intersection of the chords inside the circle, then
the number of line segments obtained by dividing the chords through these m points of
f 8, 8
intersection is f(n, m). Then is equal to (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
f 6, 3
1 1 x 1
50. If L lim ln 2 tan x , then is equal to
x 0 x5 1 x L
2
51. Let C be the curve z 2 on the Argand plane. If a and b represent the maximum and
z
2 2
minimum modulus of the complex numbers on C, then a + b is equal to
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19 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
/2
n I4
52. If In cos x cosnxdx , then is equal to
0
I8
53. The minimum distance of the curve |z – (2 + 4i)| – |z – (2 – 4i)| = 6 from the point 2 + i in the
Argand plane is equal to
54. Let a1a2a3a4 be the decimal representation of a 4-digit number. This number is said to be “non-
adjacent” if for any pair (i, j), where 1 i, j 4 and i j, |ai – aj| > 1. Let P be the probability that a
4-digit number chosen randomly is “non-adjacent”, then P is equal to _____
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
FULL TEST – XI
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
SECTION – A
1. A, B, D
Sol. There will be no normal reaction between rod and ring, because rod is 3/5
massless. The motion of ring will be free fall under gravity.
Velocity of ring when it leaves contact with rod
4 8g 4/5
2 g
5 5
Angular momentum
3 8g 72g3
=m m
5 5 125
2. C, D
Sol. P0A + kx0 = PiA P0A
P0A + k(x0 + x) = PA
k
P P0 (x0 x)
A
Volume = v 0 (x x0 )A
k PiA kx0
P P0 (V V0 )
A2 P0A + kx0 = PiA
kV kV
P 2 P0 20
A A
P = mV + C
2
nRT = mV + CV
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
3. A, D
330
Sol. f 640
(330 10)
330
640 660 Hz
320
4. A, B, C
Sol. q q0 sin t
6
i q0 cos
6
q0 3 24
q0 8 3
2 2 3
Alternatively
q02 1 (4 3 )2 1
2 (6)2
2C 2 2 2
q0 8 3
2
1 2 q0
Li0 i0 4 3
2 2C
5. A, D
Sol. Td = dm2R
Td = 2R2
1
K.E. = (.2R)R2 2 T T
2
= R32
Elastic potential energy d
1 (stress)2
= volume
2 Y
1 2R2 2R2
= .A 2R
2 YA 2
2 4R5
=
yA
6. A, D
0 i
Sol. d = adr
2r
ia
= 0 ln2
2
7. D
V
Sol. 3g Vg T
2
V g
T
2
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3 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
8. B
i
Sol. Magnetic field due to long wire is given by B 0 nˆ , where n̂ is determined by right hand thumb
2r
rule.
9. D
Sol. V x2 y 5
V(5, 2 1) = 45 V
V(1, 1, 1) = +4 V
V(2, 1, 1) = 1 V
V(1, 2, 1) = 3 V
10. B
Sol. ( - 1)t = x
t
= x
2
2
= x
= t
600
SECTION – D
11. 00000.11
Sol. kx = mg + m 0g – Av2
dx dm dv
k. .g A.2v.
dt dt dt
500 (5 1) 1 dm
30 60 10 dt
2000 1
= = 0.11 .
30 60 10 9
12. 00060.00
R A
Sol. sin 53 = 530
OA
5R
OA =
4
9R
AB = 53
0
4 O
BC
tan53 =
AB R
9R 4
BC =
4 3 B C
BC = 3R = 60 cm
13. 01000.00
Sol. Potential difference across resistor = iR = 10 100 = 1000 V
Which is equal to potential difference across capacitor.
14. 00001.50
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
4
Sol.
2
3 P0
P = P sin /3 =
2
v 3 p 3 3
= 103
v 2B 2 100
3 -5
105 = 1.5 10 .
2
15. 08000.00
Sol. acm (2iˆ 4ˆj)
F1 = m acm
F12 = 20 400
= 8000
16. 00005.00
Sol. A = A0 (1 – 0.19)
A = A0e t
0.81 = et
= ln(0.81)
= 20.10 = 0.20
1 1
5hours
0.20
17. 02528.00
u2 2
Sol. 4 u = 4g
g
2GM
v 2c
R2
4
Ve2 241. R
3
GM 4
u2 = 4. = 4.G R3
R2 3
R2 = Re
18. 00006.00
2 1
Sol. Velocity of image : 8 6cm / s
4/3 2
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5 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. B, D
2
Sol. Cu2 4NH3
Cu NH3 4
2
Cd2 4NH3 Cd NH3 4
CdS and CuS both are insoluble in yellow ammonium sulphide.
20. A, C, D
Sol. CH3 CH3
CH C Sia 2B H,THF
CH HC
H2O2 , OH
Q
CH3 CH3
BSia 2
CH3 CH3
Hg OAc 2 THF CH3 OH NaBH4 /OH
CH C CH3 CH HC
HgOAc CH3
OCH3 OCH3
21. A, C, D
22. B, C
Sol. Since intermolecular forces are zero hence potential energy increases with decreasing distance,
while Z increases by increasing pressure.
23. B, C, D
Sol. -hydroxy ketones and aldehydes give +ve Tollen’s test hence are reducing sugar.
24. A, C
Sol. SNNGP path hence retention of configuration.
25. B
Sol. [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Br → shows cis-trans isomerism, paramagnetic.
sp3d2 hybridization, shows ionization isomerism.
K3[Cr(Ox)2Cl2] → shows cis-trans isomerism, paramagnetic,
2 3
shows optical isomerism d sp hybridization
3 2
[Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 → sp d hydridization, paramagnetic
[Pt(NH3)2Cl2] → Geometrical isomerism, dsp2 hybridization, diamagnetic
26. C
27. B
Sol. NH2 OH OH
CH2OH
i NaNO2 /HCl
ii H2O
HCHO/ OH
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
O O
OH OH
CN
H
HCHO /OH H
HCN, OH
H H COOH
CH2OH
CH2OH CH2OH
OH
O
NH2
NaNO 2/HCl
0 - 5o C
28. B
SECTION – D
29. 00003.50
2 2
Sol. Ni NH3 6 ,O2 , Ti H2O 5 Cl NO3 ,S2 ,Se, Mn H2O 6 ,S
30. 00000.80
Sol. Leucine form N-terminal then possible combination
Leu – Ala – Phe – gly Leu – Phen – Ala – gly
Leu – Ala – Gly – Phe Leu – Phen – Gly – Ala
31. 00001.50
Sol. 2A s 2A n 2ne
B2n 2ne
B
2A s B2naq
2A naq
B s
Go nFEo
9.5
Eo
2nF
n 2
RT A
EE o
n 2n
nF B
103 9.5 103 2500
2 0.7
F 2nF 2nF
2n 6, n 3
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7 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
32. 08250.00
Sol.
A 3B6 g
3AB 2 g
1
1- 3
nT 1 2
VD1 n2
VD2 n1
2 1 2
= 1/2
1
3
PAB2 2 4 3 atm
2
1
4
PA 3B6 2 1 atm
2
3
3 3
KP 3
1
3
r G RTn 3
o
33. 00020.00
Sol. PV = nRT
8.21 × 3 = n × 0.0821 × 300
n=1
2KI O3 H2O 2KOH I2 O 2
I2 2Na2S 2O3 2NaI Na2S 4O 6
1
Moles of O3 moles of hypo solution
2
1 200 2
0.2
2 1000
0.2
Mole % 100 20
1
34. 00140.00
P1
Sol. WABC PVn WCDBEA WDB WEA
P2
2n4 = 1.2 × 2.5 + 0.3 × 4
= -2 × 2 × 0.7 = - 2.8 atm L = 4.2 L atm
W net = -2.8 + 4.2 = 1.4 L atm
= 140 J
U q W
W=-q
q = - 140 J.
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
35. 00050.40
Sol. 1
H2O2 H2O O2 g
2
a
ax x x/2
2.303 a
K log
t ax
0.693 2.303 a
log
180 360 ax
a
4
ax
3a = 4x
3 3 9
x a 6 4.5
4 4 2
Volume of O2 at S.T.P. = 4.5 × 11.2 L = 50.4 litre.
36. 00001.60
Sol. Mohr’s salt, Oxalic acid, Ferrous oxalate, Sodium nitrite, Sodium thiosulphate, Ethyl alcohol,
Hydrogen sulphide, Stannous chloride.
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9 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
37. D
2
n n n n
Sol. r Cr r 2 n Cr
r 1 r 1 r 1
38. A, B
2
ai 1
Sol. S a1 a3 ..... a2 a4 .....
2 4
39. A, B, C
Sol. Let the foot of the perpendicular from origin to the line be P(2 + 3, 3 + 2, + 2)
2(2 + 3) + 3(3 + 2) + ( + 2) = 14 + 14 = 0
= –1
P(1, –1, 1)
length of perpendicular is 3
2
side (a) = 3 2
3
3 2
Area = a 3
4
2 2 1 1 2 2 2
Circum radius = 3 , inradius = 3 , Centroid is , ,
3 3 3 3 3 3 3
40. A, B, D
2b a2 b2 c 2
Sol. cosC 3b2 = a2 – c2
a 2ab
41. B, D
1
Sol. f x x tan3 x 1
3
42. A, C
1
t
dx 1 t dt (Put t x 1 x 2 )
Sol. In n
tn 2t
0
x 1 x 2
1
1 t2 1 1 t n 1 t n1 n
= dt
2 1 tn 2 2 n 1 n 11 n2 1
43. C
0 if x 0
x
Sol. f1 x tan1 x 0 if x 0
1 x2
0 if x 0
f 2(x) is not continuous at x = 1
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AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
x 1 ; if x 2, 0
f3 x 0 ; if x 0
2
x 1 e x ; if x 0, 2
lim f4 x 1
x
4
44. D
2
Sol. C1 reduces to z z z z –4y2 = 2x
C2 reduces to (3x – 2y + 3) + i(–y + 1) = 0 point where 3x – 2y + 3 = 0 and –y + 1 = 0 intersect
C3 is simply 2 distance from fixed line = distance from fixed point
C4 is similar interpretation as above however fixed point lies on the fixed line
45. A
Sol. Use slope form
46. A
x x
Sol. tan cot 2cot x
2 2
1 2 3 2k 1 1 2k 1
cot k cot 1 cot
4 2 2
1 1 1 1 2
2k 1 2k 2k 1 2 2k 1 2k 1 2k
k 1 k 1
1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
4k 1 4k 1 2 4k 1 4k 1 2 x 4k 2 x 4k dx =
20
1 x 2
x 4k 2 dx
k 1 k 1 k 1 0 k 1
SECTION – D
47. 00000.00
Sol. Distance of directrix from 4 3, 2 is 3 and from (2, 0) is 1
2 2
d2 4 3 2 22 3 1
48. 00002.00
Sol. f(n, m) = n + 2m, each chord defines one segment, with each point of intersection creating 2
additional segments
49. 00008.00
Sol. The curve is symmetric in all 4 quadrants. Confining to first quadrant, curve is r2 = 4 cos
/2 /2
1
A 4 r 2 d 8 cos d 8
0
2 0
50. 00007.50
2 2 2
Sol. Use series expansion, L 2
5 15 15
51. 00008.00
Sol. z max 3 1 and z min 3 1
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11 AITS-FT-XI (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
52. 00004.00
/2
n
Sol. In1 cos x cosnx sin n 1 x sin x dx
0
/2 /2
cosn1 x n 1
= In sin n 1 x cos x cos n 1 xdx
n1 0 0
2In + 1 = In
53. 00004.00
Sol. Curve is one arm of hyperbola with foci (2, 4) and (2, –4)
54. 00000.08
Sol. Non-adjacent numbers with 0 = 6C3·3·3!
6
Non-adjacent numbers without 0 = C44!
3 3! 6 C3 4! 6 C4 2
P
9000 25
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01– 06, 19 – 24, 37 - 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 - 46) contains 12 questions. Based on this section contains TWO
(02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. A gas of hydrogen like atoms can absorb radiations of 68 eV. Consequently, the atoms emit
radiations of only three different wavelength. All the wave lengths are equal or smaller than that of
the absorbed photon. Then choose the correct statement(s) (hc = 12400 eV-Å)
(A) The Ionization energy of the atoms is 489.6 eV.
(B) The atomic number of atoms is 6.
(C) The minimum wavelength of emitted radiation is 28.49 Å
(D) Initially the atom was in first excited state.
2. Six capacitors and four ideal batteries are connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. Initially all
capacitors are uncharged and all switches were open. Now, all switches are closed
simultaneously. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the circuit shown in figure?
1F 2F 3V 2F 4V
A C
‘X’
S1 S2 B S3 S4 S5
(A) Work done by 4V battery is 8J.
19
(B) The potential difference between point A and B is V.
7
32
(C) Charge flow by 3V battery from ‘C’ to ‘A’ is C.
7
(D) Charge stored in capacitor ‘X’ is 3 C.
3. A concave mirror forms real image of a point object ‘O’ lying on the optical axis at a distance of 60
cm from the pole of mirror. The focal length of mirror is 30 cm. Now, the mirror is cut into two
halves symmetrically. In figure-1 both halves are shifted at a distance of 2 mm apart in a direction
perpendicular to the optical axis. In figure-2 both halves are rotated (before being separated)
about ‘O’ with reference to original position. Let I1 and I2 are the image formed by both halves in
both figure. Charge the correct statement(s).
2 mm 2 mm
O 2 mm O 2 mm
Figure 2
Figure 1
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3 AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
C B
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(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
7
A toothed wheel of mass 2 kg and radius m is
44
connected with fixed support via a massless rod
A B fixed
AB. The total number of teeth on the circumference support
of wheel is 1000, and they are closely packed. A
conveyor belt is kept just below the toothed wheel.
1
Conveyor belt is moving with a constant velocity
2
m/s. P and Q are fixed support for the conveyor
belt. The coefficient of friction between teeth of
wheel and conveyor belt is 0.4. The moment of P Q
inertia of toothed wheel about an axis passing
98
through A and perpendicular to the plane is kg-m2. Toothed wheel is free to rotate about A and rod
121
AB is also free to rotate about B. Assume normal force acts between teeth and conveyor belt is
perpendicular to the surface of conveyor belt. At t = 0, toothed wheel is at rest and brought in contact with
the conveyor belt. Now answer the following questions.
7. Total number of teeth that are touched with conveyor belt till the time toothed wheel attain
maximum angular velocity is
(A) 1000
(B) 1500
(C) 500
(D) 250
8. Let ‘x’ be the distance moved by a particular tooth to attain maximum angular velocity of toothed
y
wheel and ‘y’ be the distance moved by a fixed point on the conveyor belt for same time then
x
is given by
(A) 1/4
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 1/2
In a motor cycle engine, when combustion occurs then there is an alternate compression and expansion
of the gas product inside the engine of cylinder. In the expansion stroke, the mixture of gaseous product
in the cylinder undergoes an adiabatic expansion. Assuming that the gauge pressure immediately after
combustion is 20.0 atm in the cylinder, initially volume is 50 cm 3 and the volume of mixture after
expansion is 400 cm3. Assume that adiabatic exponent of gas involved in the cylinder is 4/3.
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5 AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
12. A planet is revolving around the sun in elliptical orbit with a semi-major axis of 4 108 km. Find
the speed of the planet , in km/sec, when it is at a distance of 2 × 108 km from the sun. Given that
N.m2
mass of sun is 2 1030 kg and universal gravitational constant is 6.67 10–11 .
kg2
13. A vernier calipers is used to measure the diameter of a cylinder. When jaws of vernier are
brought close to each other then zero of vernier scale is slightly left to the zero of main scale, and
6th division of vernier scale is exactly coincide with the one of the mark of main scale. Total
number of division on vernier scale is 10 which is equivalent to 9 mm. When cylinder is fixed
between the jaws then it is found that zero of the vernier scale lies between 6 mm and 7 mm of
the main scale and 7th division of vernier scale exactly coincide with one of the main scale
division. Find the diameter (in mm) of cylinder.
14. A non-conducting solid sphere has a charge density given by 0r n , where 0 , n are constant
and ‘r’ is the distance from the centre of sphere. If the magnitude of electric field at half of the
1
radius is times that of the surface of non-conductor then find the value of n.
16
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16. A hydrogen like atoms are kept in a closed container. All atoms are at same excited state initially.
A photons of energy 3.4 eV are incident on the container then atoms get excited at some higher
excited state. During de-excitation of atoms, they emits maximum six types of wavelength of
photons, some of them have energy 3.4 eV, some of them have more than 3.4 eV and some less
than 3.4 eV. It is assumed that electrons remain in orbit for a finite time during de-excitation. Let
a1 is the maximum acceleration in a given orbit during de-excitation and a2 is the minimum
acceleration in a given orbit. Assuming Bohr’s theory is applicable, find ratio of a1/a2.
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. For the following geometry, which of the inequality is/are correct?
F F
F F
S 1 2 O S 1 2
F F
F F
(A) 1 1
(B) 2 2
(C) 1 1
(D) 2 2
20. Two moles of a monoatomic ideal gas is taken through a reversible cyclic process starting from
“A” as shown in figure.
D C
VD
Volume (V)
VB B
45o
VA
A
TA TB
Temperature (T)
VB V o
The volume ratio 2 and D 4 . If temperature TA at ‘A’ is 27 C, then choose the correct
VA VA
option(s)
(A) Temperature of the gas at point ‘B’ is 600 K.
(B) Work done in cyclic process (ABCDA) is -1200 cal.
(C) Work done in the process (C → B) is – 1663.68 cal.
(D) Work done in the process (A → D) is – 1663.68 cal.
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O
H /
O
O O
(C) O
C Cl
C Cl
i , anhyd. AlCl3
O
ii Conc. OH ,
iii H
HO C
OH
O
O
(D)
O O HC NO 2
Magnesium mono peroxy phthalate MMPP
H3C C C CH3
O 2N CH CH COOH
CH3 COONa /CH3 COOH
22. Identify the substrate (s) which on acidic hydrolysis produces the same major product?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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24. For which of the following complexes, IUPAC names is/are correctly matched?
(A) Na Pt NH3 BrCl NO 2 -Sodiumamminebromidochloridonitrito-N-platinate (II)
(B)
CuCl2 O C NH2
2 Dichloridobis(dicarboxidotetraamine)copper II
2
(C) PtCl3
2
C2H4 -Trichlorido ethene platinate II ion.
2
4
(D) FeCl CN 4 O2 -Chloridotetracyanosuperoxoferrate(II) ion
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 25 and 26
The periodic system of the elements in our three dimensional world is based on the four quantum
numbers n = 1, 2, 3,……………;
1
0,1, ……….n -1; m 0, 1, 2........ ; and ms
2
Let us move to flatlandia. It is a two dimensional world where the periodic system of elements is based on
three quantum numbers.
1
n = 1, 2, 3………..; m = 0, 1, 2, 3,.......... n 1 ; and ms . ’m’ plays the combined role of and
2
m of the three dimensional world (for example s, p, d….level are related to ‘m’). Some tasks and basic
principles, related to this two dimensional flatlandia where the chemical and physical experience obtained
from our common three dimensional world, is applicable. Assume Auf-Bau rule, Hund’s rule of maximum
multiplicity and Pauli’s exclusion principle which are obeyed in three dimensional world, are also obeyed
in 2-dimensional world as such. Energy order of various orbitals for filling up the electrons in multi
electron atoms in flatlandia is governed by (n + |m|) rule which is analogous to the (n + l) rule in three
dimensional world.
Now, answer the following questions:
25. Total number of elements in the first four periods of flatlandia periodic table in two dimensional
world will be:
(A) 36
(B) 27
(C) 24
(D) 18
26. Identify the only incorrect statement among the following: (‘n’ represents valence shell and ‘z’
represents atomic number)
(A) In flatlandia, the maximum covalency of an element with atomic number 5 is 3.
(B) sextet rule corresponds to the octet rule in flatlandia.
(C) Total number of lone pair of electrons in all the simple binary compounds of the elements
(n = 2) with the lightest element (z = 1) are four.
(D) In flatlandia, if elements with atomic number 1 and 5 are denoted by H and C respectively
then the number of -bonds in C2H2 molecule is 1.
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AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
(iii) If AgNO3 solution is added to the discoloured solution in (ii) and acidified with HNO3, a yellow
precipitate that is insoluble on addition of NH3, but that can be readily dissolved by adding CN or
S2 O 32 , is obtained.
(iv) If an aqueous solution of the solid (X) is treated with KI and dilute H2SO4, a deep brown solution
is formed that can be decolourised by addition of sulphurous acid or Na2S2O3 solution.
(v) An amount of 0.1000 g of the solid (X) is dissolved in water, 0.5g KI and a few mL of dilute H2SO4
are added. The deep brown solution formed is titrated with a 0.1000 M Na2S2O3 solution until the
solution is completely decolourised; the consumption, 37.40 mL. (Atomic mass : Na = 23, K = 39,
Cl = 35.5, I = 127, O = 16)
Based on the above paragraph, now answer the following questions:
28. On the basis of the observations given in the above paragraph, solid (X) can be:
(A) NaI3
(B) NaClO3
(C) NaIO4
(D) NaClO4
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. When light of suitable frequency is incident on a mixture of gaseous chlorine and hydrogen,
hydrogen chloride is formed. The mixture is irradiated with a mercury UV-lamp ( = 253.6 nm).
The lamp has a power input of 10 watt. An amount of 2% of the energy supplied is absorbed by
the gas mixture (in a 10 litre vessel). Within 2.5 seconds of irradiation, 65 millimoles of HCl is
formed. If the quantum efficiency of this reaction is found to be x × 104, then find th value of ‘x’.
(Quantum efficiency is defined as the number of product molecules formed per absorbed photon)
(Take Avogadro’s number = 6.02 × 1023, Plank’s constant = 6.6 × 10-34 Js)
30. An organic compound (P) has molecular formula, C8H11NO and it can be resolved into
enantiomers. (P) does not decolourise bromine water solution. ‘P’ on refluxing with dilute H2SO4
yields another resolvable compound Q (C8H12O3) which give effervescence with NaHCO3. ‘Q’ on
treatment with NaBH4 yields R(C8H14O3) which on heating with conc. H2SO4 yields S(C8H12O2).
Compound (P) on reduction with LiAlH4, followed by treatment of H2SO4 yields the compound
which is given below
H
N
Let the sum of degree of unsaturation in P, Q, R and S be ‘x’; the sum of the number of rings in P,
Q, R and S be ‘y’ and the sum of distinct functional groups in P, Q, R and S be ‘z’ (if the same
functional group appears in two or more compounds count it once only).
xyz
Then find, the value of .
yz
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11 AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
33. Some aqueous solutions are given below. If ‘x’ be the number of solution(s) whose pH does not
change appreciably by adding small amount of H2SO4 and ‘y’ be the number of solution(s) whose
y
pH changes rapidly by adding H2SO4, then find the value of .
x
(a) 0.1 M NH4CN
(b) 0.1 M NH4OH + 0.1 M NH4Cl
(c) 100 mL, 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL, 0.5 M Ca(OH)2
(d) 100 mL, 0.1 M HCl + 100 mL, 0.2 M NaCN
(e) 100 mL, 0.1 M Ca(OH)2 + 100 mL, 0.4 M H2S
(f) 100 mL, 0.1 M NaOH + 100 mL, 0.2 M HCl
(g) 100 mL, 0.1 M NaOH + 100 mL, 0.2 M K2SO4
(h) 100 mL, 0.5 M CH3COOH + 100 mL, 0.1 M Ba(OH)2
(i) 100 mL, 0.5 M Ca(OH)2 + 100 mL, 0.1 M HCl
34. Consider the following ions:
S 2O22 ;S2O32 ;S 2O 42 ;S 2O52 ;S2O 62 ;S 2O 72 ;S 2O82 ;
If the number of ions having S – S or S = S linkage be ‘x’ and the number of ions having
S – O – S linkage be ‘y’, the number of ions having peroxy linkage b ‘ z’,. Find the value of
x
.
yz
35. o-aminobenzaldehyde is heated with acetone in dilute NaOH solution to produce the major
organic product (A), which on treatment with catalytic amount of H2SO4, produces another major
organic product (B).
Let, the degree of unsaturation of (A) be ‘x’; the degree of unsaturation of (B) be ‘y’; the number
y p
of rings in (A) be ‘z’ and the number of rings in (B) be ‘p’, then, find the value of .
xz
36. How many milliliters of 2.0 M NaOH solution must be added to 100 mL of 0.1 M H3PO4 solution in
order to obtain a buffer solution with pH about 7.2?
(The pKa values of H3PO4 are pK a1 2.1 ; pK a2 7.2 and pK a3 12.0 )
Assume the temperature of reaction mixture to be 298 K.
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AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
x
37. Let (x, y) be the ordered pair satisfying the inequalities sin cos y 2 and x > 1, where x,
2
y N. Choose the correct statement(s).
(A) if xy – yx is divisible by 8 remainder can be 1.
y x
(B) if x + y is divided by 8 remainder can be 1.
y x
(C) if x + y is divided by 8 remainder can be 3.
y x
(D) if x – y is divided by 8 remainder can be 5.
38. f : R R, be a twice differentiable function such that f(x)f(x) 0, x R. Choose the correct
option(s).
(A) y = f(x)f(x) is a strictly increasing function.
(B) if f(x) = 0 for some x R, then it is always point of inflection.
(C) f(x)f(x) > 0 x R
(D) if f(x0) = 0 and f(x0) < 0 then it is point of local maxima.
39. The roots of the equation az4 + bz2 + cz + d = 0 are vertices of a convex quadrilateral in argand
plane (a, b, c, d C). Choose the correct option(s).
(A) The intersection point of diagonals is necessarily origin.
(B) If the quadrilateral is a parallelogram then point of intersection of diagonals is origin.
(C) If the quadrilateral is a rhombus then it is necessarily a square.
d
(D) If the quadrilateral is rhombus then its area is 2 .
a
40. Let N {0} N {0}, fk(x) be a function such that fk(x) is equal to remainder when xk is divided
by 10. (k N) choose the incorrect option(s).
(A) y = fk(x) is periodic function with period 3.
(B) f 2019 (f 2017(x) – x) = f 2019(f2013(x) – x) has infinitely many solutions.
(C) f 2019(f2018(f 2017(..... f1(x))) )) = x is only true when x has 0, 1, 5 at unit place.
(D) y = fk(x) is non periodic function.
n
41. Let f(x) = ex + 1 – 1, g(x) = p|f(x)| – f xk , (n N). It is given that g(x) is differentiable function
k 1
over the real numbers. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) p can assume the value 99.
(B) if p is 100 then n can have two different values.
(C) if p is 100 then sum of possible values of m is 39.
(D) p can assume the value 36.
3
42. The line y = t intersects y = x – 3x + 2 at three points (f1 (t), t)(f 2 (t), t)(f 3 (t), t) such that
f 3(t) > f 2(t) > f 1(t). Define a function g(t) = t(f3(t) – f 1(t)). Choose the correct option(s).
(A) g(2) = 4 3
2
(B) g(2) =
3
(C) g(2) = 2 3
2
(D) g(2) =
3
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13 AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 43 and 44
Let P be a point in X-Y plane and P is a point such that OP·OP = r2, where O, P and P are collinear and
O divides P and P externally. (O is the origin)
43. If point P lies on the circle (x – 1)2 + (y – 5)2 = 4 and P also satisfy the same circle, then value of
2
r is
(A) 30
(B) 22
(C) 4
(D) none of these
k r
i
4 2019
e 3 2
47. Find the minimum value of z
1010
.
k 0 r 0
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AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
2 2 1
49. f : R R is a differentiable function satisfying 2(f(x)) f(x) = (f(2x + 1)) f(2x + 1), f 1 ,
8
2
f(6) = 2 find the value of 3
.
f 1
3
50. y = f(x) is a parabola having 0, and (0, 0) as vertex and focus respectively, find the number
2
1 1 6
of roots of the equation 2 0.
2f x 3 2f x 3 x
51. Out of 10 tokens, numbered from {1, 2, ....., 10}, first person X chooses a token then person Y
chooses the token (without replacement in both cases). A person is winner if he gets a prime
number and in the next draw other person get a non prime. If both gets prime in successive draw,
game is a draw. Game continuous till some one wins or game is drawn. If P(x) is probability of X
winning, P(y) is probability of Y wining and P(d) is probability of draw, then the value of
21P(x) + 126P(y) – 7P(d) is _____
e t e t et e t
52. A point P , traces a locus S = 0 in X–Y plane (t being a non negative
2 2
parameter). A fixed point P0, having parameter t0, lies on the curve S = 0. The area bounded by
the curve, line OP0 and x-axis in 240 sq. units (O being the origin), find the value of t0.
53. Given that cos cos + sin2 sin – cos2 sin = 1, 0 < , , < .
Find the value of sin( + – ) + sin( + – ) + sin( + – ).
54. Ten points are given in a plane such that no three points are collinear and no four of them form a
trapezium. From every point, all the possible lines are drawn which are parallel to lines formed by
taking any two points out of remaining points. Find the total number of points of intersection of
these lines. (excluding the given ten points)
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 1
2. A, B, C, D
Sol. Let potential of point A is x and potential of point B is zero. Consider charge flown through 3V
battery is q0.
2 3 x q0 0 x 2 0 …(1)
q0 x 3 1 2 x 3 2 0 …(2)
3. A, B, C
Sol. In figure-1
1 1 1
v u f
1 1 1
v 60 30
V = – 60
v
Hence m 1
v
In figure-2, images will not separated.
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AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
4. A, B
Sol. If v a 0 , then there must be a component of a along v
If r v 0 , then there must be a component of v along r
5. B, C, D
Sol. Phase difference between two particles in standing wave is either zero or at any instant of time.
Potential energy depends upon strain. Particle near to nodes will experience more strain.
6. A, B, C
Sol. a0 (2giˆ gj) ˆ
FB V(a0 g) 2Vg(iˆ ˆj)
Fnet FB mg 2Vg(iˆ ˆj) 0 Vgjˆ
2 ˆ ˆ
anet g(i j) gjˆ
0
arelative anet a0
7. C
8. C
Sol. (for Q. 7 to Q. 8)
ft = mg = 8N …(i)
f f = I
11
rad/s2 …(ii)
7
v 22
ad/sec …(iii)
R 7
2 02 2
= rad …(iv)
= 0 + t
t = 2 sec …(v)
1
y 2 1m …(vi)
2
1
x R m …(vii)
2
9. C
10. B
Sol. (for Q. 9 to Q. 10)
P1(V1) = P2(V2)
4/3
V 50
P2 = P1 1 21
V2 400
1
21
16
= 1.3125 atm
Work done =
P1V1 P2 V2
=
21 50 1.3125 400 105 10 6 = 157.5 Joule
1 4
1
3
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3 AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
11. 00000.88
dp P m
Sol. F u.
dt t t
200
2 2.2
1000
= 0.88 Newton
12. 00031.63
1 2 GmM GmM
Sol. mv – =
2 r 2a
2 1
v 2 GM
r a
2 1
= 6.67 10–11 2 1030 1011 =10.005 108
2 4
v = 31.63 km/sec
13. 00007.10
Sol. 1 MSD = 1 mm
1 VSD = 0.9 mm
L.C. = 0.1 mm
ve error = 4 0.1 mm = 0.4 mm
Reading = 6 mm + 7 0.1 mm = 6.7 mm
Diameter = 6.7 + 0.4 = 7.1 mm
14. 00003.00
R
Sol. q0 dv 0 r n 4 r 2 dr
0
R/2
n
q dv 0 r .4r 2 dr
0
kq0 kq
16.
R2 R
2
2
So n=3
15. 01800.00
Sol. x 2 16y Q
16dy
2x
dx 20 3 30 m
dy x 60°
3 P
dx 8
10 3
60
12 m
W K
WF Wff Wg WN 0
WF Wff Wg 8 3
mg 8 3 10 3 mg 42
= 1800 J
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AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
16. 00256.00
1
Sol. a 4
n
where, a is acceleration of electron and ‘n’ is no. orbits.
17. 00033.33
100 v
Sol. Acceleration of container a
200 t
v 100
dv dt
100 v 200 t
0 0
100
v m/ s.
3
18. 00001.33
I1 mL2
Sol. T1 2 , I1 mL2
mgd 3
2
I2 mL2 m L / 2
T2 2 , I2 mL2
mgd 3 6
T1 I 4 6
1 ,
T2 I2 3 11
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5 AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. A, B
Sol. In first molecule, lone pair of electrons lie in equatorial position, hence decreases 2 more rapidly
the 2 . In second molecule, -electron cloud lie closer to axial bonds and pushes them more, so
1 1 .
20. A, B, D
Sol. Since AB is an isobaric process, so
VB TB T
2 B TB 600K
VA TA 300
WABCDA WAB WBC WCD WDA
WAB nRT 1200 cal
VC V
WBC 2.303nRTB log 2.303nRTB log B as VC VD
VB VD
VB VA
WBC 2.303 2 2 600 log
VA VD
= 2.303 × 2 × 2 × 600 × log 2/4
= - 1663.68 cal.
WCD 0
VD
WD A 2.303nRTA log
VA
= 2.303 × 2 × 2 × 300 × log4
= 1663.68 cal.
WA BCD A 1200 1663.68 0 1663.68
= - 1200 cal
21. A, B, C, D
Sol. A → Curtius degradation type reaction
B → Hydration + deprotonation + tautomerisation
C → Friedel-Crafts reaction followed by benzylic acid rearrangement
D → Baeyer-Villiger + Perkin condensation reaction.
22. A, B, C, D
Sol. All substrates give the same major product which is given below
OH
23. A, B, C, D
Sol. Coordination number of Al in AlCl3(s) is 6.
Anhydrous AlCl3 is covalent but becomes ionic when dissolved in water.
BI3 is the strongest Lewis acid among all boron halides.
All BX3 are covalent in nature.
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AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
24. A, C, D
Sol.
CuCl2 O C NH2
2 Dichloridodicarbamidocopper II
2
25. C
Sol.
2
1 1s2
1s1
3 4 5 6 7 8
[ ] 2s1 [ ] 2s2 2s22p1 2s22p2 2s22p3 2s22p4
9
[ ] 3s1 10 11 12 13 14
[ ] 3s 2 3s23p1 3s23p2 3s23p3 3s23p4
15 16 17 22 23 24
18 19 20 21
[ ] 4s1 [ ] 4s2 4s 3d1
2 2 4 1 2 4 2 4s23d44p3 2 4 4
4s2, 3d2 4s , 3d3
2 2 4
4s , 3d 4s 3d 4p 4s 3d 4p 4s 3d 4p
26. C
Sol. Lewis structures 3 – 1; 1 – 4 – 1;
1
5 ; 6 ; 7 1
1 1 1
1
27. D
28. C
Sol. (for Q. 27 to Q. 28)
(i) The solid must contain Na and I. The yellow colouration of the flame indicates the presence of
Na+ ion; a yellow silver salt that is dissolved only by strong complexing agent such as CN or
S2 O 32 must be AgI.
(ii) Reaction (i) to (iv) indicates a sodium salt of an oxygen containing acid containing iodine.
Both SO2 and I– are oxidized, while in the first case I is formed with an intermediate of I2 or
I 3 (brown solution) and in the second I2 or ( I 3 ) is formed. As the solution is neutral NaIO3 or
NaIO4 come into consideration.
(iii) Conditions given in observation(v) proves that solid (x) is NaIO4.
2
1 mole of NaIO4 = 213.90 g NaIO4 = 8 moles of S2 O3 .
0.1000 8
0.1000 g NaIO4 3.740 10 3 mol of S 2O32
213.90
IO4 7I 8H
4I2 4H2O
SECTION – D
29. 00006.11
30. 00002.20
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7 AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Sol. O O O
OH O
N OH O O
C C
C OH
P Q R S
31. 00003.50
Sol. PV = RT (for 1 mole of ideal gas)
PV = R(K + V2)
RK
P RV
V
For minimum pressure
dP d2P
0 and 2 ve
dV dV
So, Pmin 2R K
32. 00000.61
Sol. H2O
s
cos104.5o s 0.20
s 1
So, fraction of s-character of lone pair in H2O = 0.30
Similarly, fraction of s-character of lone pair in NH3 = 0.31
33. 00001.25
Sol. x = 5 and y = 4
Only a, b, d, e and h will form buffer.
34. 00002.50
Sol. O S O O O O
O S S ; S ; S S O ; O S S O;
O O O
O O
O O O O O O
O S S O ; O S O S O; O S ;O O S O
O O O O O O
x = 5, y = z = 1
35. 00001.80
Sol. NH2
O
CH CH C CH3
N CH3
(A) (B)
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AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
36. 00007.50
Sol. Let, x ml of 2.0 M NaOH solution be added, then
H3PO 4 NaOH NaH2PO 4 H2O
millimoles 10 2x 0 0
0 2x 10
NaH2PO 4 NaOH Na2HPO 4 H2O
10 2x 10 0
10 2x 10 0 2x 10
= 20 – 2x
2x 10
So, 7.2 7.2 log , on solving x = 7.5
20 2x
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9 AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
37. A, B
Sol. x = 4k + 1, y = 2m (k1m N)
yx = (2m)4n + 1 (it is divisible by 8)
y 2m
x = (4n + 1) (it leave remainder 1)
38. A, C, D
Sol. As f(x)f(x) > 0 x R
For y = f(x)f(x); y = (f(x))2 + f(x)f(x) > 0
If f(x)0 < 0 then f(x0) < 0
39. B, D
Sol. If it is parallelogram z1 + z3 = z2 + z4 = 0 (in some order)
d
If it is rhombus then area is 2|z1||z2| where |z1|2|z2|2 =
a
40. A, C, D
Sol. y = fk(x) is periodic with period 10 and fk(f4k + 1(x) – x) = 0
41. B, C, D
Sol. R.H.D. at x = –1 is (p – m2) where n = 2m or 2m – 1
L.H.D. at x = –1 is (m2 – p) for differentiability m2 = p
42. A, C
Sol. x3 – 3x + 2 = 2; x = 0, 3
3(f 2(t) – 1)f(t) = 1
43. B
Sol. x2 + y2 = r2 and (x – 1)2 + (y – 5)2 = 4 must be orthogonal
44. C
Sol. OP·OP = r2
Using P(r1 cos , r1 sin )
Locus of P is
mr 2 r2
x 2 y2 x y 0
c c
45. D
46. A
Sol. (for Q. 45 to Q. 46)
3 2
ax + bx = 8a + 2b (x – 2)(ax + 2ax + 4a + b) = 0
3
D = 0 3a + b = 0 as a = 1 f(x) = x – 3x
Similarly for g(x) = 4x + ax + bx + c, f(x) = (4x3 – 3x) and f(1) = 1
3 2
SECTION – D
47. 00010.00
Sol. Minimum will occur at z = 0
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AITS-OT-(Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
4 2019
1
1010 10
k 0 r 0
48. 00009.00
Sol. Let ABCD have coordinates P
O, (i + j), (j + k), (i + k) respectively
d1 d1
cosec 3
d d
Where is angle between AB and normal of BCD
B Q
49. 00002.25
3 3
Sol. 4f (x) = f (2x + 1) + c
1 3 5
By taking x , , and 6, we get
8 4 2
3 5 3 5
f 3 c 4 , f 3 c 4f 3 , 4f 3 f 3 6 c
4 2 4 2
8 8
So, we c i.e., 4f 3(x) = f 3(2x + 1) +
3 3
50. 00002.00
Sol. The given equation reduces to 4f2(x) + x2 = 9, an ellipse.
As in the figure it has two solutions
51. 00035.32
4 k
C1 4 C2 2! 6 C2k 2 2k 2! 10 2k! 8
Sol. P x and P(d) = 0.4
k 1 10! 21
52. 00480.00
1 eto e to e to e to to P0(to)
Sol. ydx
2 2 2 0
2
1 2to
e e 2to
to e t e t
dt
to
240 O
8 0
4 2
to = 480
53. 00003.00
Sol. I = cos cos + sin2 sin – cos2 sin cos cos + sin sin = cos( – )
– = 0 & cos = 0, sin = 1
===
2
54. 57060.00
Sol. For point of intersection we take say two points A and B, from each we can draw 9C2 lines cut of
which 8C2 are parallel. So total number of intersection points are
10
2
C2 36 28 57060
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-D.
1. Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37 – 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both
of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46) contains 12 questions. Each question has TWO (02)
matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements
from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
Bird
1. A bird is flying downward with constant velocity 6 cm/s towards a fixed
container filled with a liquid of refractive index 4/3. A fish is moving upward
with constant speed 4 cm/s towards the surface of liquid. Surface of liquid is
also moving downward with constant velocity 2 cm/s as shown in the figure.
The bottom of container is silvered. Then Fish
2. Two ideal gases A and B are kept in a closed container at room temperature. Consider collisions
takes place between the molecules of A and B. Let KA and KB are the kinetic energies of
molecule A and B respectively after collision and KA and KB are the kinetic energies of molecule A
and B respectively before collision. Then choose the possible option(s)
(A) K A K A , K B K B
(B) K A K A , K B K B
(C) K A K A , K B K B
(D) K A K A , K B K B
3. OO and AA are two vertical walls. A particle is projected from O with O A
speed 10 m/s at an angle 15 from the horizontal. All collisions with each
walls are perfectly elastic. Then choose the correct statement(s).
10 m/s
15
O 1/2 m A
(A) The horizontal component of velocity will change after each collision.
(B) Particle will land on the ground between points O and A.
(C) The total number of collisions with walls is 9 till particle reaches ground again for the first
time after projection.
(D) Time taken by particle to reach the ground is 2 sin 15 seconds.
4. Two cars ‘A’ and ‘B’ are moving along y-axis and in a y
circle of radius 30 m respectively. Initial co-ordinate of
cars ‘A’ and ‘B’ are (0, 0) and (60, 0) respectively. Car ‘A’
starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration Car ‘A’
Car ‘B’
20/3 m/s2 and Car ‘B’ moves with constant speed. Time
taken by car ‘B’ to complete the circle is 12 sec. Choose x
the correct option(s).
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3 AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(A) The magnitude of average velocity of car ‘A’ with respect to car ‘B’ is 10 m/s in time
interval 0 to 3 sec.
(B) The magnitude of average velocity of car ‘A’ with respect to car ‘B’ is 10 m/s in time
interval 0 to 6 sec.
5 20 2
(C) The magnitude of average acceleration of car ‘A’ with respect to car ‘B’ is m/s
3
in time interval 0 to 6 sec.
5
(D) The magnitude of average acceleration of car ‘A’ with respect to car ‘B’ is m/s2 in
3
time interval 0 to 6 sec.
5. Two plane mirrors are placed in such a way that they make Normal
an angle 50° as shown in figure. A ray of light falls on one
mirror and it reflects from each mirror once. For the given
situation mark the correct statement(s).
50°
6. A hemisphere of radius ‘R’ is kept fixed on a horizontal surface. A nail is ‘O’ Fixed nail
also fixed at ‘O’ exactly above the centre of hemisphere at some height. A
small ball of mass ‘m’ is slowly pulled by an external force F on the
surface of hemisphere. String is massless and friction force between ball F
and hemisphere is negligible. Then
(A) As ball moves up tension in the string decreases.
(B) As ball moves up tension in the string increases.
(C) As ball moves up normal between ball and sphere decrease. R
(D) As ball moves up normal between ball and sphere increase.
LIST–I LIST–II
If all the incident energy is absorbed by surface
2
P. PQ then force on the surface and radiation 1. 3.2 106 N, 2.13 106 N/m
pressure generated are respectively.
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
R2 = 20 XL = 20
Q. 2. I = 2 2 cos t , P = 200 watt
~
10sint
XC = 20 XL = 10
R = 10
XC = 50
1 5
S. 4. I= sin t , P watt
R = 100 2 4 2
~ ~
1002 sint 1002 cost
10 7
5. I= sin t tan1 (2) , P watt
4 4 2
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5 AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(A) P → 4; Q → 4; R → 1; S→4
(B) P → 3; Q → 3; R → 1; S→3
(C) P → 3; Q → 1; R → 4; S→2
(D) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 4; S→1
9. In List -I electrical circuits are given. In each circuit perpendicular inward magnetic field (B) exist
and an initial velocity v0 is imparted to the rod (PQ towards right. Rod is conducting and has
negligible resistance. ‘m’ is the mass of rod and is the length of rod. Both rails xy and wz are
frictionless and has negligible resistance also. In List -2, velocity of rod and current in the circuit
are given. Match the circuit in List – I to the velocity and current in List – II.
LIST–I LIST–II
X P
Y
R R B
Minimum magnitude of velocity of rod
P. 1. mv 0
PQ is .
Z m 2B2 2 C
W Q
C C
B
Maximum magnitude of velocity of rod
Q. 2.
is v 0.
Z
W Q
B
Minimum magnitude of velocity of rod
S. 4.
is zero.
C C
Z
W Q
5. Current oscillates in the circuit.
(A) P → 2, 4; Q → 1, 2; R → 2, 3, 4, 5; S → 1, 2
(B) P → 2, 3; Q → 1, 2; R → 2, 3, 4, 5; S → 1, 3
(C) P → 2, 4; Q → 1, 2; R → 1, 2, 3, 5; S → 2, 4
(D) P → 2, 1; Q → 1, 2; R → 2, 3, 4, 5; S → 2, 5
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
0
10. A solid sphere of mass m = 80 kg and radius r = 0.2 m is
released from height h = 5/4 meter. Sphere is initially rotating
about horizontal axis passing through its centre of mass. It hits
with a stationary cart of mass M = 200 kg exactly at the centre
h
of cart. The cart can move smoothly on the horizontal surface.
The collision between sphere and cart occurs in such a way
that sphere reaches at same vertical displacement after
Cart
collision and falls back onto it again. It is found that sphere
starts pure rolling at the end of first collision. The coefficient of
friction between sphere and cart is = 0.1. Match the statement
given in List-I to the values given in List-II.
LIST–I LIST–II
The minimum length (in meter) of cart to occur second
P. 1. 172
collision with the sphere
Initial angular velocity ‘0’ (in rad/sec) of sphere for
Q. 2. 2.8
minimum length of cart.
Magnitude of work done (in Joule) by sphere on the
R. 3. 156
cart during the process.
Magnitude of work done (in Joule) by cart on the
S. 4. 19.5
sphere during the process
5. 16
(A) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 5; S→1
(B) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 1; S→3
(C) P → 3; Q → 5; R → 4; S→2
(D) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 4; S→1
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
11. Two large plane mirrors M1 and M2 are kept at an angle of 120 Y
as shown in figure. The co-ordinate of intersection of plane
mirror is (0, 2 meter). A man moves along x-axis. Find the length 60 60
(in meter) on x-axis for which man can see both the images of M2 M1
A
point A formed by mirrors simultaneously. (take 3 1.73 and
height of man is negligible) man (0, 0) x
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7 AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
13. A disc of mass m and radius 2R has another disc of mass 2m and
0
radius R/2 kept on it at O. The system is given an angular velocity 0 2R
about a vertical axis passing through O. The friction between discs is
R/2
negligible and smaller disc is free to rotate about O. Find the angular
O O
momentum (in M.K.S unit) of system at t = about a vertical axis
0 R
passing through O.
(Given that m = 300 gm, 0 = 8 rad/s and R = 1/2 m)
3
with the normal to the plane of slits is Sin1 . Now, if a d O
2d
3 S2
transparent glass slab of thickness is kept infront
2( 1)
of one of the slits, where ‘’ is refractive index of glass slab.
Find the intensity (in W/m2) at the geometrical centre ‘O’ of D
screen
the screen. (Given, d = 1 mm, D = 2 m, = 4/3, = 4000Å
and I0 = 4.16 W/m2)
16. A screw gauge is used to measure the thickness of a thin sheet of copper. The pitch of screw
gauge is 0.2 mm and total number of division on circular scale is 200. When two jaws are brought
th
in contact then 160 division of circular scale is exactly coincide with the main scale line, and that
the zero of main scale is barely visible. When thickness of sheet is measured with screw gauge
th
then main scale reading is 0.6 mm and 100 division coincide with the main scale line. Find the
thickness of copper sheet in mm.
17. A dense liquid is completely filled in a closed large container and kept at rest
on a horizontal surface. A steel ball is moving downward with a constant
speed of 0.5 cm/sec. Find the momentum of dense liquid in C.G.S unit, if its
density is 3 gm/cm 3. Given that volume is steel ball of 1.5 cm3.
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
18. A small body of mass ‘m’ is projected from the surface of a given
planet as shown in the figure. If small body has velocity which is just
sufficient to get out from the gravity of planet then time taken by small
2R 3
body to reach at height of 3R from the surface of planet is K .
GM
Find the value of K.
R
Planet of mass M
and radius R
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9 AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. Consider a hexagonal unit cell as shown in figure (A). It can be considered to consist of three
identical unit cells with a rhombus base as shown in figure (B).
(II)
(II)
(I) (I)
(A)
(B)
Now, identify the correct statement(s) regarding (B):
1
(A) contribution of lattice point (I) per unit cell is .
6
1
(B) contribution of lattice point (I) per unit cell is .
3
1
(C) contribution of lattice point (II) per unit cell is .
12
1
(D) contribution of lattice point (II) per unit cell is .
4
20. Identify the correct statement(s) about the product “A and B” formed in the following reactions:
(Assume carbocations do not rearrange)
H2C
H2C
H2C
(ii)
CH2 HCl Product B
Excess
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
21. Hoope’s process of purification of aluminium involves formation of layers during electrolysis. It
involves:
(A) The 3 layers have same densities but different materials.
(B) The 3 layers have different densities.
(C) The upper layer is of pure aluminium which acts as cathode.
(D) The bottom layer is of impure aluminium which acts as an anode and middle layer consist
of cryolite and fluorspar.
22. Suppose your weight is 80 kg and you want to fly in the sky with the help of balloons each
o
containing 50 moles of H2 gas at 0.5 atm and 27 C. How many balloons do you need to attach
with yourself to fly. Given density of air = 1.25 g/L and it remains constant throughout (Neglect the
weight of balloon).
(A) 25
(B) 27
(C) 30
(D) 20
23. Identify the correct statement(s) regarding the reductive ozonolysis of 2-pentene.
(A) A maximum of 10 ozonides can be formed.
(B) One of the intermediate that can be formed is
O O
H3C CH3
O O
O
O O
(C) One of the intermediate that can be formed is
H3C CH CH CH3
O O
(D) One of the intermediate that can be formed is H3C CH2 CH3
O O
24. Identify the reaction(s) with correct major product?
(A) Cl
Br
Mg, ether 1 eqvt
N
N
H
(B) O O
NaN3 /CH3 SO3H
C CH3 NH C CH3
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11 AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(C) O OH
Conc. HBr 1 eqvt
Br
NH NH2
(D) O O
Ca OH2 , I2
H3C C CH2I H3C C CH3
25. Match the polymers in List-I with their characteristic in List-II and choose the correct option from
the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(P) Bakelite (1) Natural polymer
(Q) Natural rubber (2) Addition polymer
(R) Buna-N (3) Linear polymer
(S) Cellulose (4) Co-polymer
(5) Thermosetting plastic
Codes:
(A) P 4, 5; Q 1, 2, 3; R 2, 3, 4; S 1, 3
(B) P 1, 2, 3; Q 4,5; R 2, 3, 4; S 1, 3
(C) P 4, 5; Q 2, 3, 4; R 1, 2, 3; S 2, 4
(D) P 1, 4; Q 1, 2; R 2, 3, S 3, 4
26. Match the solids in List-I with their corresponding characteristics in List-II and choose the correct
option from the codes given below: (where ‘a’ is the edge length of unit cell)
List-I List-II
(P) NaCl type solid (1) Distance of an atom/ion from 6th nearest
neighbour is 1.22a
(Q) CsCl type solid (2) Distance of an atom or ion from 4th nearest
neighbour is 1.65a
(R) FCC type of metallic solid (3) 4th nearest neighbour of an atom or ion is 24
th
(S) BCC type of metallic solid (4) 6 nearest neighbour of an atom or ion is 24
(5) 2nd nearest neighbours of an atom or ion are 6
(6) 3rd nearest distance between the neighbour is
1.22a
Codes:
(A) P 1, 4, 5, Q 2, 3, 4; R 5, 6; S 2, 3, 5
(B) P 4, 5; Q 2, 3; R 4, 6; S 2, 4, 5
(C) P 1, 4; Q 2, 3, 5; R 5, 6; S 2, 3, 5
(D) P 1, 4; Q 2, 3, 5; R 4, 5; S 2, 3, 5
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
27. Match the inequality given in List-I with corresponding property in List-II and choose the correct
option from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(P) C>N (1) Order of first electron affinity
28. Match the reaction product(s) in List-I with corresponding test which they give positively in List-II
and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(P) O (1) Carbylamine test
i MCPBA
ii dil. H SO
2 4
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13 AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. If volume occupied by CO2 molecules is negligible and ‘P’ is the pressure exerted by one mole of
P
CO2 gas at 300 K, then find the value of in atm.
16
(R = 0.08 atm mol-1 K-1, a = 3.6 atm 2 mol-2)
30. If the wave function ' ' is studied in one dimension that is along X-axis only then ' ' can be
2x
written as x A sin , here ‘A’ and ‘ ’ are constants. If the following equation can be
written as Schrodinger’s wave equation for the above mentioned wave function :
dn x mp
0, where n, m, p and q are some constants. (Where n cannot have its value
dxn q x
nmpq
greater than 2). Find the value of
m 4p
31. Sum of the spin only magnetic moment (in the units of B.M.) of the following complexes:
2 3 2 3
Cu NH3 4 ; Fe CN6 ; NiCl4 ; CoF6 ; Fe H2O 5 NO SO 4
[Given 2 1.41, 3 1.73; 5 2.24; 7 2.64; 15 3.87; 24 4.90
(ii) Rate constant of a first order reaction is 0.0693 min-1. If initial concentration of the
reactant is 20 M, then in y minutes, its concentration is reduced to 2.5 M.
(iii) Half-lives of a first order and zero order reactions are same. Assuming initial
concentration to be same in both. Let ‘z’ times of 0.693 be the ratio of their initial rates
(initial rate of 1st order to that of zero order).
Now, calculate the value of (x + y + z).
33. Both gold and silver are extracted by cyanide process. Gold in nature is frequently alloyed with
silver, which is also oxidized by aerated NaCN solution, similar to gold. 500 L of a solution of
0.002 M [Au(CN)]– and 0.003 M [Ag(CN)2]– was evaporated to half of the original volume and
treated with 78 g zinc (atomic mass = 65).
Assume that elevation from standard conditions is unimportant and that the redox reactions go to
completion. Given:
2
Zn CN4 Zn s 4CN ;
2e Eo 1.26 V
Au CN2 e
Au s 2CN ; Eo 0.60 V
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
Ag CN2 e Ag s 2CN ; E o 0.31 V
– -1
If the concentration of [Au(CN)2] in the solution after addition of zinc in it, be x mole l , and let,
the concentration of cyanide ion solution to keep 90% mole of the gold in solution in the form of
cyanide complex be ‘y’ mol/litre? (Given: formation constant Kf of [Au(CN)2]– = 4 × 1028)
x
So, if A 10 11, then find the value of ‘A’:
y
34. Pure oxygen is manufactured by the following sequential reactions, where MnO2 is acting as a
catalyst. The yield in each step of reaction is 50%.
(i) MnO2 s 2KClO3 s K 2MnO 4 s Cl2 g 2O 2 g ;
(ii) K 2MnO4 s Cl2 g 2KCl s MnO2 s O 2 g ;
How much mass of KClO3 in gms is required to liberate 60 g of O2 gas at STP?
(Atomic mass : K = 39, Cl = 35.5, O = 16)
35. A 0.001 molal solution of Pt(NH3)4Cl4 in water had a freezing point depression of 0.00558oC. If ‘x’
2x
be the number of moles of ionisable Cl ions per mole of the complex, then find the value of .
5
(Given : Kf of water = 1.86 K kg mol-1, and complex is assumed to be 100% ionized).
36. If the total number of geometrical isomers formed by the square planar complex [Mabcd] are ‘x’, the
total number of geometrical isomers formed by the complex [Mabcdef] are ‘y’ and
xy
the total number of isomers of K4[Fe(CN)6] are ‘z’, then find the value of
z
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15 AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
37. A and B are two n n matrices such that det(A) 0, A + B = (AB)2 and BAB = A + I. Choose the
correct option(s).
(A) A–1 = (A4 – I)
5 5
(B) B –A =A+B
9 4
(C) A =A +A+I
(D) A B = BA2B
2 2
1 1
38. Let f(x) be a differentiable function such that f(x) > 0, f x dx 2 , f x dx 4 . Choose the
0 0
correct option(s).
(A) f(x) = 0 has exactly one root in (0, 1).
(B) f(x) = 0 has no root in (0, 1).
1
x
(C) f x . f t dt dx 1
0 0
1 x
(D) f x . f t dt dx 7
0 0
x2
39. Points A and B lie on the auxiliary circle of ellipse y 2 1. P and Q are the corresponding
4
points on the ellipse for the points A and B respectively (O is the origin). Choose the correct
option(s).
(A) The maximum value of angle AOP is tan1 2 2 .
1
(B) The maximum value of angle AOP is tan1 .
2 2
(C) If OA OB and Q is reflection of Q in origin, then minimum value of angle POQ is
4
tan1 .
3
(D) If OA OB and Q is reflection of Q in origin, then minimum value of angle POQ is
3
tan1 .
4
40. From the set of n number {1, 3, 5, ....., 2n–1} five consecutive numbers are removed and the
393
mean of remaining numbers is . Choose the correct option(s).
5
(A) The value of n is 80.
(B) The value of n is 75.
(C) The mean of removed number is 101.
(D) The mean of removed number is 99.
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
42. A is 3 3 matrix whose every entry is 1 or –1. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) The maximum value of determinant of A is 4.
(B) Total number of different values of determinant of A can take is 3.
(C) Total number of different values of determinant of A can take is 5.
(D) Total number of different matrices A, such that determinant of A is positive, is 96.
43. Let A and B are points on the line L1, L2 respectively such that d = OA + OB + AB is minimum (O
being the origin), match the following List-I with List-II
LIST - I LIST - II
z 1 z 1
P. L1 : x 1 y 1 , L2 : x 2 4 y 1. d4 2
0 0
x 1 2z
Q. L1 : 1 y 1 z , L2 : x 2 y 2 2. d2 3
2 2
R. L1 : x y z 2 , L2 : x y z 2 3. d6 2
z
S. L1 : 2x 3 6 y , L2 : x 3 2y z 4. d4 3
0 0
The correct option is:
(A) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 3
(B) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 3
(C) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 1
(D) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 2; S → 3
44. Let every cell of adjoining 3 3 array is filled by natural number such that x1
x1x2x3 = y1y2y3 = 233457 where xi, yj are product of numbers filled in three
cells of ith row and jth column respectively i, j {1, 2, 3}, match the following x2
List-I with List-II
x3
y1 y2 y3
LIST – I LIST – II
(Condition on xi, yi) (Number of filling the array)
If xi as well as yj are divisible by 2 for every
P. 1. 3·11C3(9C2·9C5 + 12C5·6C2 – 2·9C2·6C2)
i, j {1, 2, 3}
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17 AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
45. The equation x 2 a x a has real or imaginary roots depending on values of a. List-I
represents the nature of root and List-II represents the corresponding exhaustive values of a,
match the following List-I with List-II
LIST–I LIST–II
1
P. No real root 1. 0, 1
4
1
Q. One real root 2. ,
4
1
R. Exactly two real roots 3. , 0 1,
4
3 1
S. Atleast two real roots 4. 0,
4 4
1 3
5. , 0 ,
4 4
The correct option is:
(A) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 3
(B) P → 2; Q → 1; R → 5; S → 4
(C) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 5; S → 5
(D) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 5; S → 5
46. For a given n sided regular polygon, its r vertices are chosen randomly. In List-I: the value of n
and r as well as event E is defined. In List-II: P(E), probability of event (E), is given. Match the
following List-I with List-II
LIST–I LIST–II
P. n = 10; r = 3, circumcentre lies on the side of triangle itself 1. P(E) = 1
5
Q. n = 9; r = 3, orthocentre of triangle so formed lies inside it 2. P(E)
14
R. n = 10; r = 4, quadrilateral thus formed is regular 3. P(E) = 0
n = 9; r = 4, out of four selected points, feet of perpendiculars 1
S. from one of the point to sides of triangle formed by remaining 4. P(E)
three points is collinear 3
The correct option is:
(A) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 1
(B) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 3
(C) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 3
(D) P → 2; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 3
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
a d 1 a b c c 3 f
47. Given that b e 1 5 , 1 2 3 3 find the value of b 1 e .
c f 1 d e f a 1 d
48. Let an + 1·an = an + 2an + 1, n N. For a1 = a (a 0), sequence is periodic and when a1 = b, an is
undefined for every n such that n m, m N. Let maximum value of b is c and minimum value of
b is d and e lim an (for the case when sequence is non-periodic and defined for all values of
n
n N). Find the value of (a + c + d + e).
49. f(x) = x 6 – 2x3 – 8 and g(x) = x2 + 2x + 4. Let 1, 2, ....., 6 are the roots of equation f(x) = 0, find
g(1)·g(2) ..... g(6).
2014 r
k
50. Find the remainder when 1 k 1 k 2 2019 Cr k is divided by 64.
r 0 k 0
dy y3
51. The curve f(x, y) = 0 passing through (0, 2) satisfy the differential equation x . If the
dx e y 2
line x = ln 5 intersect it at points y = and y = , then find the value of 2 + 2 + .
y
2
53. Find the maximum value of x 4 y 3 y dx , where 0 y 3.
0
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER – 2
SECTION – A
1. B, D
Sol. Distance of image of fish as seen by bird only after refraction is Bird
2
(x h) (h y) 2
1
z
1 x image
(x h) (h y) 1 h
4/3
Fish
Differentiate w.r.t. time y
d 3 17
( 6 2) ( 2 4) cm/sec
dt 4 2
Similarly we can calculate for 2nd case.
2. C, D
Sol. Collision takes place in ideal gases are elastic hence total kinetic energy will be conserved.
3. A, C, D
2u sin
Sol. T 2 sin15
g
Horizontal component of velocity will reverse in each collision.
u2 sin2
R 5 m
g
4. A, C
1 2
Sol. In time interval (0 to 3) sec, S ut at = 30 m
2
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
30
v average 10 m/s
3
In time interval (0 to 6) sec
v u at 40 m/s
v f vi (5 40) 5 5 20 2
aaverage m/s
t 6 3
5. A, C
Sol. Deviation Normal
1
1 2 (Clockwise)
50°
2 2 50 (Anti-clockwise)
40°
1 2
40°
50°
2
6. A
Sol. Ball moves very slowly hence it is in equilibrium at each instant.
7. D
hC
N x
Sol. Intensity is given by I , where
(A cos )t y
N total number of photons and
wavelength of photons 90
8. C
Sol. Circuit can be solved by using Phasor diagram.
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3 AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
9. A
Sol. By using concept of motional emf induced in the circuit.
10. A
y
Sol. v 0 2gh 5 m/s …(i) Jy
Jy = Py = 2 80 5 = 800 N-s …(ii)
Jx = Px
Jy = mv x Jx x
v0
v x = 1 m/s …(iii) f
MvC = Jx
Jx f
vC = 0.4 m/s …(iv)
25 Cart
t0 1 sec …(v)
10
Lmin = 2(1 + 0.4) 1 = 2.8 m …(vi)
At the time of second collision
R 1 = 0.4
= 7 rad/s …(vii)
J L
JxR I( 0 )
0 19.5 rad/sec …(viii)
1
WmM Mv C2 16J …(ix)
2
1 1 1
WMm I()2 mv 2x I02 172 J
2 2 2
SECTION – D
11. 00006.92
x normal
Sol. tan 60 Y
2
x2 3m
60
Hence total length = 4 3 m. M2 3030 M1
O
man x x-axis
12. 00035.20
Sol. To reach at ‘B’ it should crosses the point ‘A’. Now from work energy theorem
W = K
W g + W f = K f Ki
mg(4H) (0.4)mgH = 0 ki
Ki = 44 mH = 35.20
13. 00002.40
Sol. L Icm (r pcm )
m(2R)2
L 0 R(2m)(R0 )
2
L 4mR2 0 = 2.40
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
14. 00016.64
Sol. dsin ( 1)t x
3 3
d x
2d 2
x = 3
Hence maximum intensity will occur at ‘O’.
I = 4I0 = 16.64 W/m2
15. 00002.67
2E0
Sol. (Mg) 1 = 2
tc
2 20 2 8
M 3 8
= 103 kg
10 0.01 10 3 10 3
16. 00000.74
Sol. pitch = 0.2 mm
Total division = 200
Least count = 0.001 mm
ve zero error = 40 L.C. = 0.04 mm
Reading = 0.6 mm + 100 L.C. = 0.7 mm
Thickness = 0.7 mm + 0.04 mm = 0.74 mm
17. 00002.25
Sol. In time dt shift in centre of mass of system (ball + liquid)
m ds m2 ds2 b V vdt V vdt
d SCM 1 1 …(i)
M M
dS
Momentum of system = M. cm …(ii)
dt
= (bV) v – (V ) v
Therefore momentum of liquid = (V )v
= 2.25 gm/cm 3.
18. 00002.33
2GM
Sol. Speed of projection v 0 ...(1)
R
1 GMm 1 GMm
mv 2 mv 2 …(2)
2 R 2 r
2GM
v
r
4R t
rdr 2GM dt
R 0
3
7 2R
t .
3 GM
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5 AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. A, C
Sol. Main hexagonal unit cell (figure A) consists of three identical smaller unit cells (B).
20. A, C, D
Sol. H3C H3C
Cl Cl
CH3 CH3
Cl Cl
H3C
Cl B
A
21. B, C, D
22. B, C
Sol. Weight of pay load = 80 × 103 g
Let, the number of balloons required be x.
nRT
80 103 0 100x x 1.25
P
x = 26.8
23. A, B, D
Sol. O
O O
O3
CH3 CH CH CH2 CH3
H3C CH CH CH2 CH3
O O
H3 C CH CH CH2 CH3
O
Zn / H2O
24. A, B, D
Sol. Cl Cl
Br
Mg 1 eqvt int ramolecular nucleophilic substitution
ether
N
N N
H MgBr
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
O O O OH
H
Br
H
Br Br
Tautomerism
25. A
26. C
Sol. NaCl type solid CsCl type solid
a 3a
1st nearest distance
2 2
a
2nd nearest distance a
2
3a
3rd nearest distance 2a
2
11a
4th nearest distance a
2
5a
5th nearest distance 3a
2
3a
6th nearest distance 2a
2
27. C
Sol. General property trends.
28. A
Sol. O O
OH
i MCPBA
OH
ii dil. H2SO4
O
O
H
dil. OH
O
O
O
+ 3
C OH
NK
i CH Cl
CH3NH2
ii Dil. H
C OH
O O
Na/C2H5 OH
CH3NC CH3 NH CH3
SECTION – D
29. 00002.50
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7 AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
n2a
Sol. P 2 V nb nRT
V
n=1
a
P V 2 V b RT
If ‘b’ is negligible, then
a RT a
P V 2 V RT , P V V 2
The equation is quadratic in ‘V’, thus
RT R2 T 2 4aP
V
2P
‘V’ has one value at a given P and T, thus numerical value of discriminant = 0
So, R2 T 2 4aP
2 2
R2 T 2 0.08 300
P 40
4a 4 3.6
30. 00000.50
2x
Sol. x A sin
d x 2 2x
A cos
dx
d2 x 2
2
2x
2
A sin So, n = 2, m = -4, p = 2, q = 2
dx
d2 x 4 2 x
dx 2 2
31. 00015.05
Sol. Complex Magnetic moment
2
Cu NH3 4 3 1.73 B.M.
3
Fe CN6 3 1.73 B.M.
2
NiCl4 2 2 2.82 B.M.
3
CoF6 24 4.90 B.M.
32. 00054.50
Sol. x = 22.5; y = 30; z = 2
In parallel reactions the activation energy of the overall path is given by
k1Ea1 k 2Ea2
Ea net
k1 k 2
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
33. 00007.50
2
Sol. 2 Au CN2 Zn 2Au Zn CN4
Eo 0.60 1.26 0.66 V
o + +
Since E value for the reduction of complexed Ag ion to Ag is higher than that of complexed Au
+
ion into Au. So, Ag ion will be reduced first.
78
Moles of Zn added 1.2
65
–
Moles of [Ag(CN)2] = 0.003 × 500 = 1.5
Moles of [Au(CN)2]– = 0.002 × 500 = 1.0
–
Moles of Zn used to reduce 1.5 moles of [Ag(CN)2] = 0.75
–
Moles of [Au(CN)2] reduced by remaining 0.45 moles of Zn = 0.90
Moles of [Au(CN)2]– left in the solution = 0.10
– 0.10
Concentration of [Au(CN)2] left in the solution 2 10 4 M x
500
–
Au CN2 , K f 4 10
Also, Au 2CN
28
–
Au CN2 90 Au
Kf 4 10 28
2 2
Au CN 10 Au CN
CN 1.5 1014 M y
y 1.5 10 14
So, 7.50 10 11
x 2 10 4
So, A = 7. 50
34. 00367.50
Sol. Let, the moles of KClO3 required to be ‘x’. Assuming 50% yield in each step.
x
Moles of O2 formed in step (i) .
2
x
Moles of each of K2MnO4 and Cl2 formed in (i)
4
x
Moles of O2 formed in step (ii) =
8
x x 5x
Total moles of O2 formed
2 8 8
5x 60
8 32
x=3
35. 00000.80
Sol. Tf i K f m
0.00558 = i × 1.86 × 0.001 i 3
i 1 y 1 1 3 y 3
So, formula of the complex Pt NH3 4 Cl2 Cl2
36. 00004.50
Sol. x = 3, y = 15, z = 10
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9 AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
37. A, B, C, D
Sol. A + B = ABAB = A2 + A
2
B=A
BAB = A5 = A + I A(A4 – I) = I
B5 – A5 = (A5)2 – A5 = (A + I)2 – (A + I) = A2 + A = A + B
38. A, D
x
Sol. Let f(a) = 0 and F x f t dt
0
F(x) = –f(x) 0 x < a, F(x) = f(x) a x 1
2 2
1
x F 1 F a 2 = S1 S2 S 2 7
f x f t dt dx
2
2
2
0 0
39. B, C
b b b
tan
tan 1 1
Sol. tan a = a a ab
b b
1 tan2 cot tan 2 b 2 ab
a a a
A(a cos , a sin )
b b 2b
tan cot
a a 2ab
tan 2
a 2 2 2
b b a b
1 2 1 2
a a
40. A, C
393 n 5
Sol. n2 5 2n 5 n2 25
5
73.6 n 83.6, n = 80 is only possible value
41. B, C
x x
1 x 2 tan 2
2 1 x sin 3x
2
1 x 1 x2
Sol. lim
x 0 xp
Using expansion
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
x x3 2 x5
1 x2 3
5
.....
1 x 2 15
3 1 x2 2
1 x2 2
2x x3 x5
2 1 x 3
5
..... 3x
1 x 2
lim
3! 1 x 2 2
5! 1 x 2 2
x 0 xp
2 2 1
2 x5
3 15 2 2
lim
1 x2
5! 1 x 2
x 0 xp
2 2 2 31
p = 5 and limit =
3 15 5! 60
42. A, B, D
Sol. All the values of |A| = 4, 0 and determinant is 0 when two rows/columns are proportional
43. B
Sol. (P) d2 3
(Q) These lines are skew and O lies on shortest distance
(R) Lines are parallel and O lies mid way between them (1, 1, –1) (A, B)
(S) Lines are coplanar and perpendicular
O
44. D
Sol. We can consider 9 cells as 9 different boxes and we have to fill these boxes by 3 identical balls
(2 written on them), 4 identical balls (3 written on them) and 7 identical balls (5 written on them)
as per given conditions
45. A
Sol. (P) x2 – a = x
x2 – x – a = 0
D<0
1 + 4a < 0
1
a
4
(Q) a a
a a
a > a2
2
a –a<0
a(a – 1) < 0
0<a<1 (–a, 0)
One real
a,0 a,0
1
a (0, –a) One real
4
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11 AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
(R) x2 – x – a = 0
1 + 4a > 0, –a > 0
1
a ,a<0
4
1
a0
a, 0
4 (–a, 0) Two real
a a One real
a a , a2 > a (–a, 0)
a(a – 1) > 0, a 1
46. A
Sol. For regular quadrilateral n must be multiple of 4. Perpendiculars dropped from a plane
5
C 8C
circumcentre to side is always collinear. For one of the side to be diameter P E 101 1 and
C3
9
C1 4 C2 5
orthocentre is inside for acute angled triangle P E 1 9
C3 14
SECTION – D
47. 00021.00
a d 1 a d 1
Sol. b e 1 5 b e 2 3
c f 1 c f 3
a d 1 a d 1
2 b e 2 3 b e 1 21
c f 3 c f 1
a d 1
b e 1 21
c f 3
48. 00009.00
1 a1
Sol. Take an n
, on solving, we get an ,
2 tn 2 2 n n 1
a1 2
6
2 2 n
for periodicity a1 2 n1 1 ,
6
n
2 2
for undefined a1 2 n 1 0 ,
6
lim an 0
n
49. 01600.00
6 3
Sol. x – 2x – 8 = (x – 1)(x – 2) .....(x – 6)
6 3
(2) – 2(2) – 8 = (2 – 1)(2 – 1) ..... (2 – 6)
((2 ) – 2(22)3 – 8) = (22 – 1) ..... (2 – 6)
2 6
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AITS-OT-(Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
50. 00062.00
2014 r 2014
k
Sol. 1 k 1k 2 2019 Cr k 2 2016 Cr 22017 4034
r 0 k 0 r 0
51. 00061.25
dx x 1 x 1
Sol. e e 3
dy y y
d x 1 1
dy
e y 2 , e x y c
y y
52. 00018.00
Sol. Area PRST = PQR – QST
1 1 1
P 3, 2 3
= 8 2 3 4 4 sin150º
2 2 2 T
= 8 3 2 3 6 3
30º
Q S R
53. 00009.00
y y
2 y3
Sol.
x 4 y 3 y dx x 2 y 3 y dx
3
y2 3 y
0 0
3
y
f y y2 3 y
3
f(y) = y2 + 6y – 3y2 = 2y(3 – y) > 0 for 0 y 3 so maximum occurs at y = 3
54. 00056.25
Sol. Given expression is r1r2 + r2r3 + r1r3 = s2 = (7.5)2
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced)-2019
PART TEST – I
Paper 1
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into Two sections: Section-A & Section-D
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 - 46) contains 12 questions. Based on this section contains TWO
(02) paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1
mark for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative
marking.
Enrolment No.
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Useful Data
PHYSICS
CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(SECTION – D)
Correct Method :
0 0 3 4 8 . 4 0
0 0 2 5 1 . 3 7
0 0 2 1 3 . 0 0
Wrong Method :
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
2 5 1 . 3 7
2 1 3 .
2 1 3 . 0
2 1 3 . 0
3 4 8 . 4 0
2 5 1 . 3 7
2 1 3 . 0 0
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
distance between the peg and the ground is 2. The value of x can be : x
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
5. Two tennis balls of mass 60 g are attached with a massless rubber thread, and held
in the vertical position as shown in the figure. In this position the unstretched length
of the rubber thread is 40 cm. The upper ball is slowly raised vertically upward, until
the lower ball just becomes unsupported by the ground. At this time the length of the
thread is 1 m. The rubber thread exerts a force which is proportional to its
extension.
(A) Work done by external agent while the upper ball was raised is 0.53J.
(B) Work done by external agent while the upper ball was raised is 0.23J.
(C) Releasing the upper ball, the speed which it hits the lower one is 5.1m/s.
(D) The time that elapses between the release of the upper ball and the collision is 0.34 sec.
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
A tall tower is built from alike tubes, which have thin walls, and from rectangular 20 cm
sheets, which have negligible mass with respect to that of the tubes, as shown in
the figure. rectangular sheets are numbered from bottom as S1 , S2 , S3 …..(Static
friction is big enough, such that the tubes does not slip.) The radius of each tube is
1 cm.
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
A particle is suspended by three equal strings, of length a, from three points forming an equilateral
triangle of side 2b, in the horizontal plane.
10. If one string be cut, the tension of each of the other two strings will be changed in the ratio (i.e.
the ratio of final tension after cutting the string to tension before cutting the string):
3a2 4b2 4a2 3b2
(A) (B)
2(a2 b2 ) 2(a2 b2 )
3a 2 4b2 4a2 3b2
(C) (D)
(a2 b2 ) (a2 b2 )
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
11. A cone with height h= 1 m and a base circle of radius r = 1 m is formed from a
sector- shaped sheet of paper. The sheet is of such a size and shape that its w
two straight edges almost touch on the sloping surface of the cone. In this
state the cone is stress-free. The cone is placed on a horizontal, slippery
table-top, and loaded at its apex with a vertical force of magnitude w = 2,
h
without collapsing. The splaying of the cone is opposed by a pair of forces of
magnitude F acting tangentially at the join in the base circle (see figure).
Ignoring any frictional or bending effects in the paper, find the value of F. r
F
F
12. The two ends of a 40 cm long chain are fixed at the same height, as
shown in the figure. Find the radius of curvature of the chain at its 45 45
lowest point in cm.
13. A student of height h jumps vertically up from the “squat” position. At the top point of the jump, the
student’s center of mass is at a height 3h/4 from the ground. Find the average force F acting on
the floor prior to the moment when the student loses contact with the floor. It is known that when
the student stands on the floor, the center of mass is at a height h/2 from the floor; in the “squat”
position, the center of mass is at a height h/4 from the floor. The mass of the student is m=
0.1kg.(take g=10m/s2)
14. Two points, A and B, are located on the ground a certain distance d = 10 2m apart. Two rocks
are launched simultaneously from points A and B with equal speeds but at different angles. Each
rock lands at the launch point of the other. Knowing that one of the rocks is launched at an angle
θ = 37 with the horizontal, what is the minimum distance between the rocks during the flight?
(given cos 37 = 3/5)
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
15. A semi-cylinder is cut out of a block and the block is kept on the m
horizontal surface. A small body of mass m is released at the top of
the cylinder shaped hole. (Friction is negligible.)
If the block is able to move on the horizontal surface without friction, M
then the force exerted on the block by the small body at the lowest
point is 7mg/2 . Find the ratio of M/m?
16. A projectile launched from the ground explodes into three fragments of equal mass at the top
point of the trajectory. One of the fragments lands t seconds after the explosion two other
fragments land simultaneously 2t seconds after the explosion. How high above the ground does
the projectile explode? (take t= 2/5 seconds and g= 10m/s2)
17. A vertical rod of mass 4 kg is hanging on a rope and a 3-kg cat is grasping the bottom end of the
rod. The rope is cut off and the frightened cat begins to run up on the rod. While the rod is falling
vertically, the cat remains at the same height, with respect to the ground. The acceleration of the
rod is kg/4 m/s2 where g is the acceleration due to gravity. Find k.
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. A mixture of 2 moles of Argon and 4 moles of PCl5 (g) were introduced in a 80 litre evacuated
vessel at 527oC. The following equilibrium was established
PCl5 g
PCl3 g Cl2 g
The total pressure of the gaseous mixture in the vessel at equilibrium was found to be 6.568 atm.
Which of the following statement(s) regarding the above equilibrium is/are correct?
(A) Kc for the equilibrium is 0.025
(B) KP for the equilibrium is 1.642 atm
(C) Total number of moles of gaseous species at equilibrium is 6
(D) Number of moles of PCl5 at equilibrium is 2
23. KMnO4 reacts with K2C2O4 and H2SO4 to form MnSO4, CO2, K2SO4 and H2O. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct for the reaction?
(A) One mole of KMnO4 reacts completely to produce 112 litre of CO2(g) at STP.
(B) One mole of KMnO4 requires 5 mole of K2C2O4 in presence of H2SO4 to react completely.
(C) One mole of K2C2O4 reacts completely to produce 2 moles of CO2.
(D) The ratio of stoichiometric coefficient of KMnO4 and K2C2O4 in this reaction is 1 : 2.
24. Which of the following hydroxide(s) is/are soluble in excess of NaOH solution?
(A) Zn(OH)2 (B) Al(OH)3
(C) Fe(OH)3 (D) Ni(OH)2
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
The process of selectively precipitating an ion from a solution of more than one ion is called selective
precipitation. The selective precipitation of ions from a solution in the form of salt can be done by adding
precipitating agent slowly. AgNO3 solid is slowly added to one litre of a solution (without changing the
10
volume) containing 0.1 mole of Cl and 0.1 mole of PO34 . K sp AgCl 1.2 10 and
K sp Ag3PO 4 2.7 10 18. .
Answer the following questions based on the above paragraph.
26. The concentration of Cl in the solution when Ag3PO4 starts precipitating is
(A) 1.2 × 10 – 9 M (B) 4 × 10 – 11 M
–6
(C) 4 × 10 M (D) 4 × 10 – 5 M
Solid NH4HS was heated at 100oC in a closed container. The following equilibrium was established
NH4HS s
NH3 g H2 S g
KP for the equilibrium was found to be 0.36 atm 2. Answer the following question based on the above
equilibrium.
28. Which of the following statement is correct for the above equilibrium
(A) Addition of NH4HS (s) at equilibrium increases the concentration of NH3(g)
(B) Addition of inert gas at constant volume increases the number of moles of H2S
(C) Addition of inert gas at constant pressure increases the number of moles of NH3(g)
(D) Addition of NH3 at equilibrium increases Kp for the reaction
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13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. At a certain temperature, the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 0.36 for the reaction
SO 2 g NO2 g
SO3 g NO g
If 1.8 mole each of all the four gases are added in 1 litre container, the number of moles of SO3(g)
at equilibrium is
M M
30. 20 ml of H3PO4 solution is treated with 40 ml of NaOH solution pK a1 ,pK a2 and pK a3 of
10 10
H3PO4 are 2.15, 7.2 and 12.3 respectively. The pH of the resulting solution is
31. Total energy of electron in the 1st orbit of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV/atom. Kinetic energy of
electron in the 1st excited state of Li2+ ion in eV is
32. The half-life of first order decomposition of NH2NO2 is 6.93 hrs. at 12oC. If 6.2 g of NH2NO2 is
allowed to decompose, then the time taken in hrs for 99% decomposition of NH2NO2 is
33. A catalyst decreases activation energy of a reaction from 42 kJ mol -1 to x kJ mole-1. The rate of
reaction in the absence of the catalyst at 500 K is equal to the rate of the reaction in the presence
of catalyst at 450 K. The value of x is:
34. The half-life period of a 1st order reaction is 60 min. What percent of the reactant will be left after
180 min?
35. The weight in gram of K2Cr2O7 required to produce 5.6 L of CO2 at STP from excess of oxalic
acid in H2SO4 is : (MW of K2Cr2O7 = 294)
o
36. The wavelength of radiation in A required to excite an electron in the ground state of He2+ to the
1 o
2nd energy level is: 911.7 A
R
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
SECTION – A
n2 1! 2! ..... n!
37. If lim , where is a non-zero real number, then
n n
3 1
(A) (B)
4 2
(C) e 3/4 (D) e1/2
38. Ordered triple(s) (a, b, c) of positive reals that satisfy [a]bc = 3, a[b]c = 4, ab[c] = 5 (where [.]
denotes the greatest integer function) is/are
30 30 2 30 30 30 30
(A) , , (B) , ,
3 4 5 3 2 5
20 20 2 20 20 20 20
(C) , , (D) , ,
3 3 5 3 3 5
39. The function f: R R satisfies f(x2)f(x) = f(x)f(x2) x R, given that f(1) = 1 and f(1) = 8, then
(A) f(1) = 2 (B) f(1) = 4
(C) f(1) = 4 (D) f(1) = 2
sinnx
40. For n 0, we have In 1 2x sin x dx , then
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15 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
sin2 x 1
41. Suppose a and b are real numbers such that lim ax
, then
x 0 e bx 1 2
(A) a = 2, b = 2 (B) a = –2, b = –2
(C) a = 2, b = –2 (D) a = –2, b = 2
(Paragraph Type)
This section contains TWO paragraphs. Based on the paragraph, there are TWO questions. Each
question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
dy
An equation is called variable separable if it is of the form f x g y . In this case we formally
dx
dy
separate the variable and write g y f x dx , which after the integration gives the solution in implicit
form.
x f t
43.
Differentiable function f: R R satisfying the equation f x 1 x 2 1 2
dt is
0 1 t
(A) f(x) = cex(1 – x2) (B) f(x) = cex(1 + x3)
(C) f(x) = cex(1 + x2) (D) f(x) = cex(1 – x3)
44. Suppose f(x) and g(x) are differentiable functions such that xg(f(x))f(g(x))g(x) = f(g(x))g(f(x))f(x)
x
e 2x
x R. Moreover, f(x) is non-negative, g(x) is positive and f g t dt 1 x R.
0
2
If g(f(0)) = 1, then g(f(4)) is
(A) e 16 (B) e8
(C) e4 (D) e2
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
b
If g(x) = f(x), then f(x)dx = g(b) – g(a).
a
2018
ln x
45. Evaluate x dx
1
2016! 2017!
(A) 2019
(B)
2017 2018 2019
2017! 2018!
(C) 2018
(D)
2019 2017 2019
1
2x332 x 998 4x1664 sin x 691
46. The value of integral dx
1 1 x 666
2 2
(A) 1 (B) 1
333 3 333 5
2 2
(C) 1 (D) 1
333 4
333 4
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
1 1
2
47. Let f: R R be a continuous function with f x f x 0 and f x f x dx 18 , then the
0 0
1
4
value of f x f x dx is _____
0
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17 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
48. Let f: R R be a differentiable function such that f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1 and |f(x)| < 2 x R, if a and
1
b are real numbers such that the set of possible values of f x dx is the open interval (a, b),
0
then (b – a) is _____
49. Let f: R R be a continuous function which satisfies the identity f(2x) = 3f(x) x R.
1 2
1
If f x dx 1 , then f x dx is _____
0
21
1
3 2 1
50. Let f 1(x) = f(x) and for n 1 f n1 x f n f x . If f(x) = x 3 x x , then f
2004
x dx is
2 4 0
_____
p2
52. If L = lim xp
x
3
x 1 3 x 1 2 3 x , where L is some non-zero real number, then
L
is _____
tx 1
1 1
53. If e f x dx sin t , then
2 x f x dx is _____
2 2
54. Let f: R+ R be a differentiable function such that the tangent to curve y = f(x) always meets the
y-axis at point whose ordinate is one less than the ordinate of the point of contact. If f(1) = 0, then
1 f 2
e is _____
5
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1 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
FIITJEE JEE(Advanced)-2019
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PART TEST – I
PAPER-1
1. A, B, C, D 19. A, B, D 37. B, C
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
2. A, C 20. B, C, D 38. A, B
3. A, C, D 21. B, C, D 39. A, B
4. D 22. A, B, C, D 40. A, B
5. A, C, D 23. A, C 41. A, B
6. B, C, D 24. A, B 42. B, C
7. D 25. B 43. C
8. D 26. D 44. A
9. B 27. B 45. D
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
mv 2
3. T mg sin sin = …(i)
g sin
dv
mg sin cos mg cos = m …(ii) P
dt
work energy theorem T f = mg cos
v2/
1
(mg sin ) sin (mg cos ) = mv 2 …(iii)
2 mg sin sin
From (i) and (iii) mg sin cos
T mg sin sin = mg sin sin 2(mg cos )
T = mg (3 sin sin 2 cos )
dT
0 3 sin cos 2 cos
d
4. Mv 0cos + 0 = Mv + mv
v v
e=1=
v 0 cos
v0 m
2Mv 0 cos
v 5g M
Mm
x
Also, x = R/2 and = H
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
3 10
Solving x
4
x 2.37 m
6. Underestimate the work done against friction, and compare it with the initial gravitational potential
energy of the eraser.
First of all, we investigate whether the rubber eraser will start moving at all. It will do so provided
that mg sin α>μmg cos α, i.e. μ< tan α = tan 45◦ = 1. This is clearly the case, since μ = 0.6. So,
the eraser will start moving. The trouble is that the determination of how the normal force acting
on the eraser varies with position is difficult. A calculation of the work done against friction can be
carried out, to any given degree of accuracy, only by using a computer. The trouble is that the
determination of how the normal force acting on the eraser varies with position is difficult.
However, it is certain that the frictional force is always larger than its initial value of μmg cos α =
μmg cos 45◦ This is because, after the initial release, the angle with the horizontal made by the
slope on which the eraser moves decreases, and, in addition, the track has to provide a
centripetal force for the moving eraser. The path to reach the lowest point of the track would be
one-eighth of a circle, with a length of Rπ/4. The work done against friction can now be
underestimated by taking the normal force as if it always had its initial value:
mg R
W f Wund 0.333mgR
2 4
The gravitational potential energy difference between the initial position and the bottom of the
track is ΔEp = mgR(1 − cos α) = mgR(1 − cos 45◦) ≈ 0.293mgR.
It can be seen that |W f| >ΔEp, i.e. the work to be done against friction is clearly larger than what
can be provided by the gravitational potential energy. So, the rubber eraser cannot reach the very
lowest part of the track.
7-8. The pipes just below and just above the sheet which is moving will move the other pipes and the
other pipes will remain in the original place. If the sheet is moved by distance greater then 5 cm
the centre of gravity of the system would fall outside the base and the system will collapse.
P
b 3 2b A
9-10. cos 30 BO =
(BO) 2 3
a
Let P be particle clearly, O
O
3Ti cos = mg
30 2b/3
mg mga B
Ti sec B 2b C
3 3(3a2 4b 2 )
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
SECTION – D
11. Imagine the apex of the cone being depressed by Δh, and the radius of its base consequently
increasing by Δr, i.e. the perimeter of the base circle increases by 2πΔr. Then the total work done
by external forces would be:
wh F(2r) = 0
w h
F
2 r
However, the changes in height and base circle radius are not independent, the connection
between them being determined by the fixed length of one of the straight edges of the sheet.
Using Pythagoras’s theorem:
2 2
r r h h 2 r 2 h2
from which we have
h 2r r r
r 2h h h
So the force in question has magnitude
w r
F =1
2 h
12. The weight of the chain is balanced by the vertical components of the reaction forces at the two
suspension points. The magnitude of each of these components must be F0 = ρLg/2, where is
the mass of the chain per unit length, and L = 40 cm. If the chain made an angle of θ with the
vertical at a suspension point, the horizontal component of the chain’s tension would be F0tan θ.
Because, in practice, θ = 45◦, the horizontal component is the same as the vertical one; it is also
constant along the chain, since there are horizontal forces acting on the chain only at its ends.
At the chain’s lowest point, the tension is purely horizontal, and, as just shown, its magnitude is
F0. So, around the lowest point, consider a small piece of the chain that subtends an angle 2 at
the centre of the osculating circle, whose radius is the value r1 we seek. The length of the piece is
2r1 and it is pulled down by a gravitational force 2r1ρg. This force is balanced by the upward net
force of 2F0sin due to the tension in the chain. In the limit of small angles, when sin ≈ , the
equilibrium equation
2r1ρg = 2F0 sin
leads to
F0 = ρgr1.
Since F0 = ρLg/2, we have the simple result that r1 = L/2 = 20 cm.
13. Method 1: Even though the normal force with the floor does no physical work on the person
(energy transfers occur internally from the muscles), one can write a mathematically correct
expression as though the contact force with the floor does change the person’s energy. Hence,
we can treat the center of mass motion as Wnet = ΔKcm. Here, we are treating it as though only
gravity and the floor act onthe person, and since the person is in contact with the floor until the
h h
center of mass is a position h/2 from the ground, then Ffloor mg 0
4 2
as the student starts and ends this motion at rest. Therefore, Ffloor = 2mg.
Method 2: Since the feet come off the floor at a position h/2 from the ground, then the person
accelerates upward from h/4 to h/2 with the same magnitude as the acceleration from h/2 to 3h/4
by symmetry. Therefore, the net force on the student going upward is the same in magnitude as
the student in free fall from h/2 to 3h/4. Hence, while in contact with the floor, using Newton’s
second law, Ffloor – mg = mg ➯ Ffloor = 2mg.
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
d
14. xmin = d sin (5345) = 2
5 2 v BA
xmin
5345
A B
d
16. Let us call h the height above the ground at which the projectile explodes and v jy (j=1, 2, 3) the y-
component of the velocity at the moment of the explosion for the three fragments. I will label with
1 the fragment which lands after t seconds.
Since the landing time depends only on the y-component of the velocity at the moment of the
explosion, we have: v3y = v2y . We then need only the equations for fragments 1 and 2, stating
that at landing time the y-coordinate will be equal to 0:
gt 2
h v 1y t 0
2
g(2t)2
h v 2y t 0
2
Since the masses of the three fragments are equal, and the y-component of the projectile
momentum at the moment of the explosion is equal to 0 (it explodes at the top of the trajectory),
the momentum conservation law reads:
v1y + v2y + v3y = 0.
The solution of the above equations is then:
3
v1y gt
4
3
v 2 y v 3 y gt
8
The height above the ground at which the projectile explodes is then: h = 5gt2/4
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
18. Let Ml be the mass of the left stick, and let Mr be the mass of the right Ff
stick. Then Ml/Mr = tan θ. Let N and Ff be the normal and friction N
forces between the sticks. Ff has a maximum value of µN. Balancing
the torques on the left stick (around the contact point with the ground)
gives N = (Mlg/2) sin θ. Balancing the torques on the right stick
(around the contact point with the ground) gives Ff = (Mrg/2) cos θ.
The condition Ff ≤ µN is therefore
1
Mr cos M1 sin tan2
where we have used Ml/Mr = tan θ.
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19.
PCl5 g
PCl3 g Cl2 g
4 x x x
Total moles at equilibrium = 4 + x + 2 = 6 + x
PV
n
RT
6.568 80
6x
0.0821 800
6 x 8, x 2
2 2 2
PCl5 ,PCl3 .Cl2
80 80 80
2 2
Kc 80 80 0.025
2
80
n
K P K c RT
= 0.025 × 0.0821 × 800
= 1.642 atm
21. B2O3 P2 O5
2BPO4
22. H
O
Cl
Cl C C H
Cl O
H
Chloral hydrate
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
K sp
25. Ag 3
PO34
2.7 10 18
3
0.1
= 3 × 10 – 6 M
K AgCl
26. Cl sp
Ag
1.2 1010
3 10 6
4 10 5
1.8 1.8
29. K c 0.36, Qc 1
1.8 1.8
SO 2 g NO2 g SO3 g NO g
1.8 x 1.8 x 1.8 x 1.8 x
2
1.8 x
Kc 2
1.8 x
2
1.8 x 1.8 x
0.36 2
, 0.6
1.8 x 1.8 x
x 0.45
Number of mole of SO3 = 1.8 – 0.45 = 1.35
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
pK a2 pK a3
pH of Na2HPO4 =
2
7.2 12.3
= = 9.75
2
Z2
31. KE = 13.6 ×
n2
32
13.6 30.6 eV
22
2.303 A o
32. k log
t A
2.303 6.93 0.1
t log
0.693 0.001
t = 46.06
Ea1 Ea 2
33.
T1 T2
42 Ea
2
500 450
Ea2 37.8 kJ
x 37.80
A o
34. A 0.125 A o
23
0.125 A o
% of A left 100 12.50
A o
35. K 2Cr2 O7 4H2SO 4 3H2 C2O 4 6CO 2 7H2O Cr2 SO4 3 K 2 SO 4
134.4 L of CO2 produced by K2Cr2O7 = 294 g
294
5.6 L of CO2 produced by K2Cr2O7 5.6
134.4
= 12.25 g
1 2 1 1
36. R Z 2 2
1 2
1 3
R 4
4
1 1 1o
911.7 A
R 3 3
o
303.90 A
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
1
37. ln = lim [ln 1 + (ln 1 + ln 2) + (ln 1 + ln 2 + ln 3) + .....] – ln n
n n2
1 2 n n n 1
nln n 1 ln ..... ln lnn
n n n 2 n 1 2n 1 n n 1 r r
= lim 2
lnn = lim lnn + ln
n n n 2n n r 1 n n
1
1 3
2
and ln = 1 x ln x dx 4
0
60
38. Let p = abc and q = [a] [b] [c]. So, q is an integer and p
q
q min{[a]bc, a[b]c, ab[c]} = 3 q {1, 2, 3}
If q = 1 ab[c] < 4 but ab[c] = 5 no solution
60
If q = 3, as p max{[a]bc, a[b]c, ab[c]} = 5 and p no solution
q
q = 2 and p = 30 . Since q is a product of 3 positive integer, we have 3 cases
2 120
If [a] = 2, then a 30 3 no solution
5 9
30 30 30
If [b] = 2, then solution is , ,
3 2 5
30 30 2 30
If [c] = 2, then solution is , ,
3 4 5
39. Let f(1) = a and f(1) = b, putting x = 1 in the given equation we get b = a2
Differentiating the equation and putting x = 1 gives 2ab + 8 = ab + 2ab ab = 8
So, a = 2, b = 4
0
sinnx sinnx
40. In 1 2x sin x dx dx
0 1 2 sin x
x
sinnx sinnx sinnx
In dx dx = dx [Putting –x for x in 1st integral]
0 1 2 sin x
x
0 1 2 sin x
x
0
sin x
sin n 2 n sinnx
In 2 In dn 2 cos n 1 x dx = 0 if n N
0
sin x 0
If n is even In = I0 = 0, and if n is odd In = I1 =
42. lim
ln 2 x 1 1+ a+ b= 0
x 1 x 2 ax b
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
2ln 2 x
Using LH-Rule, we have lim 1 a + 2 = 0 a = –2, b = 1
x 1 x 2 2x a
43.
f x
1
x
f t
dt
f x 1 x 2 f x 2x
f x
f x
2x f x
f x
2 2
1 x 2 2 2
1 x2
0 1 t
1 x 1 x
f x 2x
= 1 ln f(x) = x + ln(1 + x 2) + ln c f(x) = cex(1 + x2)
f x 1 x2
xf g x g x g f x f x
44. Given equation implies
f g x g f x
d d
dx
lng f x x
dx
–2x
ln f g x 2x (as f(g(x)) = e ),
2
g(f(x)) = Ae x and g(f(0)) = 1 A = 1
dx 2017x 2018 dx dx
1 x 2018 2017x 2017 1
2017 1 x 2018
1
2018! dx = 2018!
= ..... = 2018
2017 2018 x
1
2017 2019
1
2x332 x 998 4x1664 sin x 691
46. I 2 dx , (as is an odd function and rest of the integrand is even)
0 1 x666 1 x666
1 332
1 333
Put x t 333 dx t dt
333
332 998
1 332 1
2 2t 333 t 333 333 2 2 t2 2
I 2
t dt = 2
dt = 1
333 0 1 t 333 0 1 t 333 4
SECTION – D
1
1 f x 2
47. f x f x dx = 2 0 f(0) = f(1)
0
0
1
1 f x 3
2
f x f x dx =
3
18 f(1) = 3 and f(0) = –3
0
0
48. Lines with slope 2 and passing through (0, 0) and (1, 1) are y = 2x and y – 1 = 2(x – 1)
respectively.
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
1 1
2n 1 2n 1
1 Sn 1 S0
49. Let Sn 1 f x dx, then Sn 3 1 f 2x dx 6 ..... 6n
2n 2n
n11 1
1 2 2n 2 1 S0
f x dx nlim
f x dx f x dx ..... f x
1 1 1 5
1 S0 = 5
0
2n 2n 1 2
f
2004
x dx 1 f 2004 1 x dx = 1 f 2004 1 x dx 1 f 2004 x dx (Put 1 – x for x)
0 0 0 0
p 7 1
51. If x1, x2, x3 and x4 are the root of p then 0 (as 7 is not a root of p(x))
p 7 7 xi
1 1 1 1 89
0 x4
7 1 7 3 7 5 7 x4 11
d tx d 1 1
53. e f x dx x etx f x dx sin1 t =
dt
dt 2 1
2
1 t
2
Putting t = 0, x f x dx 2
54. The tangent at (x, f(x)) meets the y-axis at (0, f(x) –1)
1
f(x) = f(x) = ln x + c and f(1) = 0 c = 0
x
*****
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FIITJEE JEE (Advanced)-2019
PART TEST – I
Paper 2
s p ec i f i c a ll y f o r t h i s p u r p o s e.
Yo u a r e n o t a l l o wed t o l ea v e t h e E xa m i n at i o n Ha l l b ef o r e t h e en d o f
t h e t es t .
INSTRUCTIONS
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Parts.
3. Part-I is Physics, Part-II is Chemistry and Part-III is Mathematics.
4. Each part is further divided into two sections: Section-A & Section-D.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
B. Filling of OMR Sheet
1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers
on OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with black pen for each character of your
Enrolment No. and write your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.
Section-A (07 – 10, 25 – 28, 43 – 46) contains 12 questions. Each question has TWO (02)
matching lists: LIST‐ I and LIST‐ II. FOUR options are given representing matching of elements
from LIST‐ I and LIST‐ II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1
mark for wrong answer.
2. Section-D (11 – 18, 29 – 36, 47 – 54) contains 24 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
Enrolment No.
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Useful Data
PHYSICS
2
Acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s
Planck constant h = 6.6 1034 J-s
Charge of electron e = 1.6 1019 C
Mass of electron me = 9.1 1031 kg
Permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85 1012 C2/N-m2
Density of water water = 103 kg/m3
Atmospheric pressure Pa = 105 N/m2
Gas constant R = 8.314 J K1 mol1
CHEMISTRY
Atomic masses: H=1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16,
F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al = 27, Si=28, P=31, S=32,
Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59,
Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5, Zn=65.4, As=75, Br=80, Ag=108,
Sn=118.7, I=127, Xe=131, Ba=137, Pb=207, U=238.
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(SECTION – D)
Correct Method :
0 0 3 4 8 . 4 0
0 0 2 5 1 . 3 7
0 0 2 1 3 . 0 0
Wrong Method :
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
3 4 8 . 4
2 5 1 . 3 7
2 1 3 .
2 1 3 . 0
2 1 3 . 0
3 4 8 . 4 0
2 5 1 . 3 7
2 1 3 . 0 0
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. A long thin uniform rod lies flat on the table as shown. One end of the
rod is slowly pulled up by a force that remains perpendicular to the rod
at all times. The rod is to be brought to the vertical position without any
slipping of the bottom end? The coefficient of static friction between rod
and ground can be:
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.3
(C) 0.4 (D) 0.5
2. Board A is placed on board B as shown. Both boards slide, without moving with respect to each
other, along a frictionless horizontal surface at a speed v . Board B hits a resting board C “head-
on.”
A A
B C B C
V=0
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
4. A dumbbell consists of a light rod of length r and two small masses m attached to it.
The dumbbell stands vertically in the corner formed by two frictionless planes. After the
bottom end is slightly moved to the right, the dumbbell begins to slide. At the moment
the top end loses contact with the vertical plane:
(A) The acceleration of top mass is g.
(B) Horizontal component of acceleration of bottom mass is zero.
(C) The height of the top mass will be 2r/3.
2
(D) Speed of the bottom mass will be gR .
3
5. Two small spheres of mass m each are attached to the ends of a light rigid rod pivot
bent at a right angle and pivoted in the vertical plane at the vertex of the right
angle. The vertical part of the rod is three times as long as the horizontal part.
Initially, the rod is held at rest in the position shown in the diagram. The pivot is
frictionless. Assume that mass of rods are negligible. Immediately after the
system is released.
3
(A) Horizontal component of acceleration of center of mass of the system is m/s2 towards
10
right.
1
(B) Vertical component of acceleration of center of mass of the system is m/s2 downwards.
20
3mg
(C) Horizontal component of hinge reaction is towards right.
10
19mg
(D) Vertical component of hinge reaction is upwards.
20
6. Two identical uniform cylinders of radius R each are placed on top of each
other next to a wall as shown. After a disturbance, the bottom cylinder slightly
moves to the right and the system comes into motion. Neglect friction
between all surfaces.
(A) The top cylinder will have maximum acceleration g.
(B) The speed of the bottom cylinder will first increase then decrease.
(C) Minimum acceleration of the bottom cylinder is zero.
2
(D) Maximum speed of the bottom cylinder is gR
3
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
R. Velocity of blocks
time
4.
S. Position of block B
time
5.
time
(A) P → 4; Q → 4; R → 1; S→4
(B) P → 3; Q → 3; R → 1; S→3
(C) P → 3; Q → 5; R → 4; S→2
(D) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 4; S→1
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
A (Hinge)
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
9. Three identical cylinders are arranged in a triangle as shown in Figure, with (3)
the bottom two lying on the ground. The ground and the cylinders are F (1) (2)
frictionless. You apply a constant horizontal force (directed to the right) on the
left cylinder. Let a be the acceleration you give to the system.
N12 is normal reaction between (1) and (2)
N13 is normal reaction between (1) and (3)
N23 is normal reaction between (2) and (3)
List –II shows various values of a.
Match the functions in List-I with the related charge distributions in List-II.
LIST–I LIST–II (values of a)
P. N12 = 0, N13 0 1. g
2. g
Q. N12 0, N13 0
2 3
3. g
R. N12 0, N13 = 0
4 3
4. g
S. N23 = 0, N13 0
6 3
5. Never possible
(A) P → 3, 4; Q → 2; R → 5; S→1
(B) P → 3, 2; Q → 1; R → 4; S→3
(C) P → 3, 1; Q → 2; R → 3; S→4
(D) P → 3, 3; Q → 1; R → 3; S→4
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
11. The wedge shown in the figure can slide without friction on a m
horizontal tabletop. The mass of the wedge is M and its angle of
o
elevation is α =30 . A body of mass m slides down without friction
along the wedge, the path of the body makes an angle of φ = 60o with
M
the ground. Find the ratio of the masses, m/M.
13. A block is placed on a long and wide inclined plane that makes angle = 45 with the horizontal.
The coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the plane is µk = 2. After a quick push, the
block acquires velocity v 0 = 62 m/s that makes angle = 60 with the line of fastest descent.
Find the time interval t during which the block is in motion. (take g = 10 m/s2)
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
15. A ball is thrown at speed v from zero height on level ground. The angle at which the particle is
thrown is such that the area under the trajectory is maximum? If the angle of projection in /k .
Find k .
16. A mass, which is free to move on a horizontal frictionless surface, is (top view)
attached to one end of a massless string that wraps partially around a
frictionless vertical pole of radius r (see the top view in Figure). You
hold on to the other end of the string. At t = 0, the mass has speed v 0 =
1m/s in the tangential direction along the dotted circle of radius R
shown. Your task is to pull on the string so that the mass keeps moving
along the dotted circle. You are required to do this in such a way that
the string remains in contact with the pole at all times. (You will have to
move your hand around the pole, of course.) What is the speed of the hand
R
mass at time t ?
2v 0 tan
17. A mass M collides elastically with a stationary mass m. If M = 2m, then there is a maximal angle
of deflection of M. This maximal angle equals /k radians. Find k .
18. A uniform flexible rope passes over two small frictionless pulleys
h
mounted at the same height (see figure). The length of rope
between the pulleys is = 23 m, and its ‘sag’ is h = 1 m. In
S=?
equilibrium, what is the length s of the rope segments that hang
down on either side?
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 6 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19.
For the equilibrium SO 2 g Cl2 g
SO 2Cl2 g , the correct statement(s) is/are
(A) Addition of SO2(g) at constant volume at equilibrium increases the concentration of SO2Cl2(g)
(B) Addition of SO2(g) at constant volume at equilibrium increases the concentration of SO2(g)
(C) Addition of SO2Cl2(g) at constant volume at equilibrium increases the concentration of
SO2Cl2(g)
(D) Addition of inert gas at constant volume at equilibrium increases the concentration of
SO2Cl2 (g)
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13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
25. Match each set of hybrid orbital from List – I with the molecule or ion given in List - II
LIST–I LIST–II
P. sp2 1. XeF5
Q. sp3 2. NO3
R. sp3d 3. NF4
S. sp3d2 4. SF2Cl2
5. IOF4
6. F2SeO
(A) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4, 6; S → 1, 5
(B) P → 2; Q → 3, 6; R → 4; S → 1, 5
(C) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3, 5; S→6
(D) P → 6; Q → 3, 6; R → 4, 2; S→1
26. Match the resulting solution in List-I with one or more properties in List – II and choose the correct
option. log2 = 0.3, log5 = 0.7. pKa CH3COOH = 4.74, pKb NH4OH = 4.74,
LIST–I LIST–II
P. 10 ml 0.1 M H2SO4 + 40 ml 0.1 M NH4OH 1. Acidic buffer solution
Q. 20 ml 0.1 M CH3COOH + 16 ml 0.1 M NaOH 2. Basic buffer solution
R. 50 ml 0.1 M CH3COOH + 50 ml 0.1 M NaOH 3. pH of the solution is 8.72
S. 10 ml 0.1 M NH4OH + 20 ml 0.1 M NH4Cl 4. pH of the solution is 8.96
5. pH of the solution 9.26
(A) P → 2, 4; Q → 1, 5; R → 3; S→2
(B) P → 2, 3; Q → 1, 4; R → 3, 1; S → 2, 4
(C) P → 5; Q → 1; R → 3, 4; S → 2
(D) P → 2, 5; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 2, 4
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
27. Match the half-life of the reaction in List-I with the integrated rate equation in List-II(a = initial
concentration of reactant and a – x = concentration of reactant at time ‘t’.)
LIST–I LIST–II
0.586 1. x
P. t1/2 a k
k t
0.693 2. 1 1 1
Q. t1/2 k
k t a x a
a 3. 2
R. t1/2 k a a x
2k t
1 4. 2.303 a
S. t1/2 k log
ka t ax
5. 2 1 1
k
t ax a
(A) P → 5; Q → 4; R → 1; S→2
(B) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S→2
(C) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S→2
(D) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S→5
28. List-I contains carbides and List-II contains the type of carbide and their hydrolysis product.
LIST–I LIST–II
P. Al4C3 1. Covalent carbide
Q. Mg2C3 2. Ionic carbide
R. CaC2 3. CH4
S. SiC 4. C3H4
5. C2H2
(A) P → 2, 3; Q → 2, 4; R → 2, 5; S → 1
(B) P → 1, 3; Q → 1, 4; R → 2, 5; S → 2
(C) P → 2, 4; Q → 1, 3; R → 1, 5; S → 5
(D) P → 2, 5; Q → 2, 4; R → 2, 3; S → 1
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SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
29. A first order reaction has a rate constant 5 10 2 s1 . The time required (in sec) for the reaction to
reduce 20 gram of the reactant to 2 g is
30. 20 g of CaCO3 is placed in a vessel of volume 12.315 litre at 1000 K. The following equilibrium
was established.
CaCO3 s
CaO s CO2 g
KP for the reaction at 1000 K is 0.3 atm. The mass of CaCO3 in gram at equilibrium is
31. 100 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH, 50 ml 0.1 M HCl and 50 ml 0.1 M Ba(OH)2 are mixed together. pKa of
CH3COOH is 4.74. The pH of the resulting solution is
32. The mass of a dust particle is 10-12 g and its velocity is 10-4 cm/sec. The error in the
measurement of velocity is 0.01%. The uncertainty in the measurement of position in A o unit is
h
0.527 10 27 erg sec
4
33. Vapour density of a metal chloride is 85.02. The equivalent weight of the metal is 7.01. The
atomic weight of the metal is
34. In He2+ an electron undergoes transition from 3rd excited state of to 2nd energy level. The
1
wavelength of the light emitted in Ao is 911.7A o
R
35. In the thermal decomposition of NH4NO2, 50% of the compound decomposed in 34.65 min. The
time required in minutes for the 90% decomposition of the compound is
36. The equilibrium constant (KP) for a reaction at 27oC for a homogeneous gaseous reaction is 10-2.
The standard free energy change Go for the reaction in calorie is (R = 2 cal)
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
SECTION – A
m
cos x n cos x
37. For two positive integers m and n lim , then which is true?
x 0 x2
1 3
(A) m = 3, n = 2 it is (B) m = 5, n = 2 it is
6 13
1 3
(C) m = 3, n = 2 it is (D) m = 5, n = 2 it is
12 20
ex
38. Let f x and g(x) = f(x), then
1 x2
(A) g(x) has two local maxima and two local minima points
(B) g(x) has exactly one local maxima and one local minima point
(C) x = 1 is a point of local maxima of g(x)
(D) there is a point of local maxima for g(x) in the interval (–1, 0)
minf t , 2 t x, 2 x 0
2
39. Let f(x) = x – 2|x| and g x max f t , 0 t x, 0 x 2 , then g(x) is not differentiable at
f x x2
(A) x = 0 (B) x = –1
(C) x = 2 (D) x = 1
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17 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
x
41. The equations of the normals to the curve f x at the points where the tangents make
1 x2
angle of with the positive direction of x-axis are
4
3
(A) x + y = 0 (B) x y
2
3
(C) x y 2 2 (D) x y
2
42. Let f be a function defined for all real x and let it satisfy the relation f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + xy(x + y)
if f(0) = –1, then
(A) f is differentiable for all real x
(B) f is differentiable for all real x
(C) f(3) = 8
1 1
(D) f satisfies the relation f x f f x f x 0
x
x
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
5. 2
6. 0
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19 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
/2
x cos x sin x 3
R. dx 3. tan1
0 x2 sin x 4
1 3
x 3
S. 3 1 x 3 1 x dx 4.
18
1
3
5.
3
2 3
6.
18
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 20
f: R R; f x e x (where [.] denotes the
P. 1. one-one
greatest integer function, and {.} denotes fractional
part function)
2
sgn x
Let f: R R defined as f x e ex (where
Q. 2. many one
sgn x denotes signum function of x, then f(x))
1 1
f: R R; f x x x 2 x (where [.]
R. 2 2 3. into and periodic
denotes the greatest integer function)
x2 x
S. f: [–1, ) (0, ) defined as f x e , then f(x) 4. onto
is
5. periodic
6. constant
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21 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains EIGHT questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For
each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
1 1 1
1
47. If limit lim n
n
2 n
11 22 33 ..... nn n2 = L, then –ln L is _____
48. The positive value of ‘a’ such that the parabola y = x2 + 1, bisects the area of the rectangle with
a
vertices (0, 0), (a, 0), (0, a2 + 1), (a, a2 + 1), then is _____
2 3
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 22
49. Let A – rational number between (0, 1), and a function f: A R has the property that for all x A
1 2001 f 2007
f x f 1 ln x , then the value and e is _____
x 2014
4
k
50. The value of which minimizes F k x 4 x k dx _____
2 0
51. For x a real number, let f(x) = 0 if x < 1 and f(x) = 2x – 2 if x 1. If number of solutions to the
n
equation f f f f x x is n, then
5
is equal to _____
52. For any real 1 denote by f() the real solution to the equation x(1 + ln x) = , then
1 f
lim is _____
2
ln
1 4
x x
6
53. x3 3
2 3 dx = x 6 2x3 3 c , then 2 is equal to _____
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1 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
FIITJEE JEE(Advanced)-2019
ANSWERS, HINTS & SOLUTIONS
PART TEST – I
PAPER-2
1. C, D 19. A, B, C 37. C, D
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
2. A, B 20. A, C 38. B, D
3. C, D 21. C, D 39. A, B, C
4. A, B, C 22. A, B, C 40. A, B, C, D
5. A, B, C, D 23. A, C 41. A, B, D
6. A, C 24. C, D 42. A, B, C, D
7. C 25. B 43. D
8. A 26. D 44. C
9. A 27. B 45. B
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
2. First consider the situation immediately after the perfectly inelastic collision between B and C but
before A has begun to slip onto C; label this as the initial configuration “i.” Clearly v Ai = v and vBi =
vCi = v/2 by momentum conservation. On the other hand, in the end (labeled “f”) all three masses
have the same final speed, so that v Af = v Bf = vCf = 2v/3 by again applying momentum
conservation. The sum of the kinetic energies of the boards thus changes by
ΔK = (KAf + KBf + KCf) – (KAi + KBi + KCi) = (mv2/12) …(1)
where m is the mass of each board. This net loss in mechanical energy is the result of the non
L
conservative “internal work” done by friction, WNC fdx A fdx C 0 fd x A x C …(2)
where the equal and opposite internal force of friction between blocks A and C is given by
f = µkN = µk mg(xA-xC)/L …(3)
with L the length of each board. Here, xA and xC are the rightward displacements of blocks A and
C from their initial positions; the ratio (x A – xC)/L thus gives the fraction of block A, which is on top
of block C, and hence the ratio of the normal force N of A on C to the weight mg of A. Substitute
Eq. (3) into Eq. (2) to find
mg L2 …(4)
WNC K
L 2
It is worth pausing to note that it would have been extremely difficult to attempt to separately
calculate the two frictional work terms in the middle expression in Eq. (2)! Finally equate the right-
hand sides of Eqs. (1) and (4) to obtain the answer,
v2
L
6 k g
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
v1 v 2
3. e=1= …(i)
2 2g
Momentum conservative m
M
M 2g m 2g mv1 Mv 2 …(ii) v2 v1
2g 2g
Solving (i) and (ii) Before After
3M m collision collision
v1 2gL 5gl
Mm
M 5 2
1.82 =1.82
m 3 2 5
4. Since the normal force on the top mass is zero and the horizontal
acceleration of the top mass is zero at the instant it loses con-tact with N
y r
the wall, the tension in the rod at that moment must be zero. Thus, mg
free-body diagrams for the two masses are as sketched below
Therefore, the top mass has downward velocity v = – dy/dt and x
mg
acceleration g = – d 2y/dt2,
While the bottom mass has rightward velocity u = dx/dt and zero acceleration. But y = (r2-x2)1/2.
dy x dx xu
v
dt r x dt
2 2 y
d2 y u dx xu dy u2 xuv
g 2
dt 2 y dt y 2 dt y y
1
mg r y m u2 v 2
2
x2 u 2r 2
2g r y u2 1 2 gy
y y2
2 8gr
y r u
3 27
5. According to Newton’s third law, the force Fsp that the system (s) exerts on the pivot (p) is
opposite to the force Fps that the pivot exerts on the system, Fsp = –Fps. Then, we can use
Newton’s second law to first deduce Fps and so to obtain the required force Fsp. The physical
situation is represented in the figure below.
y Fps
F
Fnet
x
mg D
2mg
CM 3
acm
mg
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
6. Consider a moment when the center of top the cylinder has moved
down a distance xT and the center of the bottom cylinder has moved 2R
to the right a distance xB. At this moment, the cylinders are moving 2R xT
with speeds v T and v B, respectively. From Fig. , v T and v B,
respectively. From Fig., xB
xT = 2R(1-cosθ)
Also, energy conservation gives:
v 2 v T2
m B mgxT 2mgR 1 cos
2
2 2
x B 2 2R x T 2R
Differentiating w.r.t. time
vT = vBxB/(2R – xT) = vB tan θ.
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
Eliminating v T from the energy conservation equation gives v B2 = 4gR(1 – cos θ)/(1 + tan2θ).
Setting the derivative with respect to θ equal to zero gives
cos θm = 2/3
for the angle θm at which vB is maximum. At this point, the speed of the bottom cylinder is
16gR
vB .
27
Mathematically, it appears that the speed decreases after θm. However, for this to happen, the
acceleration and, therefore, the horizontal force must be directed to the left (negative) for angles
greater than θm. But the contact force on the bottom cylinder by the top cylinder cannot be
directed to the left. Therefore, the bottom cylinder loses contact with the top one and moves off at
16gR
the maximum speed of vB
27
2 fs N N
2 2 1 h F2
h
2
1 A F1
1
h 1 hmax 2m
1 2 mg
fs = 3 N
N 4N
FH = 5 N.
g
9. (P) a 3, 4
3 3
g g
(Q) a 2
3 3 3
(R) 5
g
(S) a 1
3
M 2 A
10. Mg mg m 2
2 3 B
M
2 m g 40 mg
rad / s2 mg
M
m 3
3
40
mg F1 m 1
3
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
40 10
i.e. F1 10
3 3
20 40
Mg mg FH M m
3 3
40
40
3
160
70 FH
3
160 50
FH 70
3 3
SECTION – D
m tan 60 tan30
2
M tan30
5v o
12. (Apply conservation of energy)
2
13. Because the block does not accelerate off the plane surface, the y
normal force N that the surface exerts on the block (of mass m) f
must balance the component of the block’s weight perpendicular to i
the plane, so that N =mg cos θ, and thus the kinetic frictional force x
O
is f k = µk mg cos θ. On the other hand, the following sketch shows
the path of the block (between its initial position “i” and final position
“f ”) and the components of the forces acting on it in the plane of the
incline. I have chosen coordinates with x down the incline and y O
perpendicular to it. A tangent to the block’s path makes angle f with
mg sin
respect to the x-direction, with φi = α . (It is interesting to note that φ
must be zero because the block’s final speed and hence its final
centripetal acceleration must approach zero, which can only
happen if the frictional force points up the plane, opposite the
weight component down the plane.)
Newton’s second law in the x-direction, after dividing both sides by the block’s mass, becomes
dv x
gsin k gcos cos (1)
dt
where u is the block’s speed, with initial value u0. Writing down the y-component of Newton’s
second law introduces sin , which leads to a mess. A better choice is to instead write down the
tangential component of Newton’s second law (noting that any direction other than x would give
an independent equation),
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
dv
gsin sin k gcos (2)
dt
Solve Eq. (1) for cos φ (which is the only time-dependent quantity on the right-hand side of these
two equations) and substitute it into Eq. (2) to get
dv dv
k gcos tan2 k 2 tan x
dt dt
after simplifying. Now integrate both sides over the time t from the initial to the final point to obtain
k 0 v 0 gcos tan2 k 2 t tan 0 v o cos
v o k tan cos
t
gcos k 2 tan2
14. The rolled part of the carpet is a cylinder, and its mass is
proportional to x. Applying conservation of mechanical
2
1 1 dx x sin
1 x x g
energy, 2 2 dt 2
2
dx 2 2gx sin
v
dt
3
g
acarpet
i.e. 3.
For the cylinder,
3
mv 2 mgx sin
4
2g
acyl
i.e. 3
t1 acyl
2
t2 acarpet
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
v
dv tan t
dt
v0 v2 R 0
1
1 1 (tan )t 1 (tan )t
v(t) …(ii)
v0 v R v0 R
The speed v becomes infinite when
R
tT …(iii)
v 0 tan
This means that you can keep the mass moving the desired circle only up to time T. After that, it
is impossible. (Of course, it will become impossible, for all practical purposes, long before v
becomes infinite.) The total distance d = vdt, is infinite, because this integral diverges (barely,
like a log) as t approaches T.
17. Let’s figure out what the collision looks like in the CM frame. If M has initial speed V in the lab
frame, then the CM moves with speed VCM = MV /(M +m). The speeds of M and m in the CM
frame therefore equal, respectively,
mV MV U
U = V VCM = , and u = VCM
Mm Mm u
In the CM frame, the collision is simple. The particles keep the U
same speeds, but simply change their directions (while still moving u
in opposite directions), as shown in Figure.
The angle θ is free to have any value. This scenario clearly satisfies Vlab
conservation of energy and momentum, so it must be what happens.
The important point to note is that since θ can have any value, the tip
VCM U
of the U velocity vector can be located anywhere on a circle of radius
U. If we then shift back to the lab frame, we see that the final velocity
of M with respect to the lab frame, Vlab, is obtained by adding VCM to
the vector U, which can point anywhere on the dotted circle in Figure.
A few possibilities for Vlab are shown. The largest angle of deflection mV
is obtained when Vlab is tangent to the dotted circle, in which case we Mm
max
have the situation shown in Figure.
MV
Mm
T cos T0 …(1)
s T
T sin s g …(2) P(x, y) X
T0 O
dy dy g
tan s …(3)
dx dx T0
dy ds sin
Further: …(4)
dx ds cos
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
T T0 gy …(5)
2
sg
And, T 2 T02 …(6)
2
Using these and T = gs, we get,
2 4h2
S s , y h
8h
Alternative Solution:
It can be shown that the difference between the tensions in the rope at two arbitrary points on it
(denoted by A and B), e.g. the centre and the right-hand pulley, depends only on the height
difference between the points and the linear mass density of the rope. In an obvious notation:
FB − FA = g(hB − hA).
To prove this, consider the energy changes that would be involved if a small length of rope were
(notionally) cut out from the neighbourhood of point A and inserted close to point B.
Any arbitrary piece of the rope is in equilibrium, and so the horizontal component of the tension in
the rope between the pulleys is constant (equal to F1, say). The vertical component changes from
point to point; it is zero in the middle, and at the pulleys is equal to half the weight of the ‘sagging’
section, namely (/2)g, where λ is the linear mass density of the rope.
As illustrated in figure, we imagine a small F2
(g)/2
piece of the rope, of length , cut out from
the middle of the system, and re-inserted
F1
into the rope near one of the pulleys! What
energy changes are involved?
Closing the gap in the middle of the rope h F2
requires work F1Δl to be done, while the /2
work required to lift the small piece against
F1 (g)/2
gravity is λ Δl gh. Inserting it at the pulley
actually allows some energy to be
recovered, but formally the work required
to do this is −F2 Δl.
As a result of these changes, we have done no more than return the rope to its initial state! It
follows that the total work done must be zero, and so
F1 Δl + λ Δl gh − F2 Δl = 0,
showing that
F2 − F1 = λgh.
The same thought experiment could have been carried out for any arbitrary pair of points on the
rope, and so it is generally true that ‘the difference in tension forces at two arbitrary points of the
rope is directly proportional to the height difference between those points’.
As can be seen in Fig. 1, the connection between the rope tension F2 (at the pulley) and its
components is
2
lg
F2 2 F12
2
A third equation, one that involves s, can be established by recognising that the hanging rope
segments are each held in place by a force of strength F2:
F2 = λgs.
From equations (1) and (3), we have that F1 = λg(s − h). Substituting this into (2) gives the final
result for the length of the hanging segments as
l 2 4h 2
s
8h
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. Increase in concentration of the reactant shifts the equilibrium in the forward direction and vice
versa.
2n
23. General formula of cyclic silicate is SiO3 n
1
27. P → Order of the reaction
2
Q → 1st order reaction.
R → zero order reaction
nd
S → 2 order reaction.
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – D
2.303 a
29. t log
k ax
2.303 20
log
5 10 2 2
= 46.06
30. Kp = PCO2
0.3 12.315
n 0.045 (n = number of moles of CO2 at equilibrium)
0.0821 1000
Mole of CaCO3 = 0.2 – 0.045 = 0.155
Wt. of CaCO3 = 0.155 × 100 = 15.50
CH3 COO
pH = pKa + log
CH3COOH
5
pH = 4.74 + log = 4.74
5
h
32. x
4m V
6.625 10 27
4 3.14 10 12 108
0.527 10 7 5.27 10 8 cm
o
= 5.27 A
1 1 1
34. R Z2 2 2
n1 n2
1 1 1
R 4 2 2
2 4
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
1 3
R 4
16
1 4 4
911.7 A o
R 3 3
o
1215.60A
SECTION – A
mn
cosn x mn cosm x
37. We may assume m > n lim
x 0 x2
lim
cosn x cosm x
lim
cosn x 1 cosm n x
2
x 0 mn 1 mn 1 x 0 mn x
x 2 mn cosn x
..... mn cosm x
lim
1 cosm n x 1 cos x 1 cos x ..... cos
m n 1
mn
lim
1 cos x m n
x 0 mn x 2 mn x 2 mn x x2 2mn
x 1 x3 3x2 5x 1 e x
38. g x 3
x 2
1
Now, x3 – 3x2 + 5x + 1 is strictly increasing and has a root in (–1, 0)
f x ; 2 x 1
f 1 ; 1 x 0
39. g x
f 0 ; 0 x 1
f x ; x2
f 2, 1 f 1, 2
40. We see that f(1, 1) = 1 and f(1, 2) = 1 and f 2, 1 1
2 2
So, f(1, 2) = f(2, 1) = 2, then f(3, 1) = f(1, 3) = 3
f(x, y) = x·y; xy 0
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13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
3 3
Now, x = 0, y = 0; x = 3,y= ;x= 3 ,y=
2 2
x f(x) + lim x f x
x
x f x x f x
lim x f x lim
lim lim f x
x x x x x x
e 1
f x g x
e e
f x g x
g x
(Q) lim ; lim e use L.H. Rule
x a f x g x x f x g x
f x g1
ga e f x g x
e ; ega eln 2 = 2
f x g x
(R) Replacing f by f if necessary, we may assume f(b) > f(c) hence f(a) > f(c)
So be an absolute minimum of f on [a, b] which exists became the function is continuous
then (a, b) and therefore f() = 0
x b
b
ea e x ab ab ab
(S) I dx put t x we have dx 2 dt
a
x x t t
ab bt b t b t
a a b
e at e ab ab e t ea e t ea
I
ab
2 dt ; I dt = t dt I I = 0
b t b
t a
t
x2
44. (P) Let dx (replace x by –x)
1 sin x 1 sin2 x
x2 2
1 1
I 1 sin x dx ; 2I x dx
2 2
1 sin2 x 1 sin x 1 sin x 1 sin x 1 sin x
3
2 2
= x dx ; 2I 2 x dx ; I
3
0
1 1 dx dy 1
(Q) Let y , dy 2 dx then 2 2 ; tan1 x tan1 y ; tan1 ; cot–1 x
x x x x 1 y y 1 2 x
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
2 2 tan1 y 2
1 tan1 x dx 2 3
2 dx 2 2 = =
x2 x 1 18
2 1/2 x x 1 1/2 y y 1 4 1/2
cos x sin x
/2 2
(R) x x dx ; Put sin x t
2
0 sin x x
1
x
2/
x cos x sin x dt
tan1 x ; tan1 2
2/
dx dt ; 1 t2 ; 1
x2 1
4
(S) As function is odd
45. (P) |ex| = (0, ) x R ; {|ex|} [0, 1) ; [{|ex|}] f(x) is constant i.e. many one
sgn x 2
(Q) f x e ex ;
x=0 f(0) = 2
2
x>0 f(x) = e + e x
1 2
x<0 f(x) = ex
e
f(x) is many one
A sin1 x x x 2 dx sin1 x x x 2 dx
1 0
= 1
(Q) Area will be minimum if (0, 2) is mid-point of chord
(R) 1 |X| + |Y| 2 Y
1
A 4 2 6
2
X
(2, 0)
(1, 0)
k
k 2 1
2 x2 k2 1
(S) A x kx
dx 2
k 1
0 2
6 k 1
6 k2 2 2
k
By A.M. G.M. equality holds k = 1
SECTION – D
1
1 1 1 n 1
47. Taking log 1 lnn 2 k lnk xln x 4
2 n n k 1 0
1
L= e 4
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15 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
2006 1
g x , g g x
2007 2006
2007
So, that f(2007) = log
2006
f –1(k) = 1 k = 3
51. Clearly 0, 2 are fixed points of f and therefore solution.
On the other hand, then is no solution for x < 0, since f is non-negative valued
For 0 < x < 2, we have 0 f(x) < x < 2 and f(0) = 0
For x > 2, f(x) > x so there is no other solution
52. Let h(x) = x(1 + ln(x)); h: [1, ) [1, )
h(x) is strictly increasing and h(1) = 1, lim h x
x
Hence, h(x) is Bijective
So inverse of h(x) clearly f: [1, ) [1, ); f()
1
Now, f x
2 ln f
1
f f
By using L. Hospital rule lim lim
1 1
ln 2 ln
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
f 2 ln f
= lim 2 lnf x = lim 1
1 ln f
1
53. x5 x2 x6 2x3 3 dx ; x6 + 2x3 = t; (6x5 + 6x2) dx = dt
1 4 4
dt 1 3 3 1 6
t3 t c =
6 6 4 8
x 2x3 3 c
*****
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
1. Section–A (01 – 04, 19 – 22, 37 – 40) contains 12 multiple choice questions which out of 4
options have only one correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1
mark for wrong answer.
Section-A (05 – 12, 23 – 30, 41 – 48) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the four option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
2. Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
(A) = 30
(B) = 45
(C) = 60
(D) = 75
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
(A) 4R
(B) 2 2R
(C) 2R
(D) 2R
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
(A) = 30
(B) = 0
(C) = 25
(D) = 15
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
8. If a particle of mass m collides elastically with one of mass M at rest, and if the former is scattered
at an angle and the latter moves at an angle with respect to the line of motion of the incident
particle, then which of the following combinations are possible:
(A) = 30, = 0, m = 1kg, M = 1kg
(B) = 60, = 0, m = 3kg, M = 3kg
(C) = 45, = 45, m = 2kg, M = 2kg
(D) = 60, = 45, m = 1kg, M =√3kg
9. A locomotive engine, of mass M=1kg, has two pairs of wheels, of radius a = 0.25m, the moment
33
of inertia of each pair about its axis being Mk2; and the engine exerts a torque L = Nm on the
17
forward axle. If both pairs of wheels commence to roll without sliding when the engine starts and
F is the friction between each of the front wheels and the line capable of being called into action.
If k = 1, the values of F (in newton) can be:
(A) 1
(B) 1.5
(C) 2.5
(D) 3
12. Consider a right solid cone, whose height is h and the radius of whose base is a.
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
3Ma2
(C) The moment of inertia of cone about its axis is .
10
(D) The moment of inertia of cone about any axis passing through the centre of circular base
and lying in the plane of the circle is same.
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
TOP VIEW
15. Over a smooth light pulley is passed a string supporting at one end a
weight of mass 4 kg. At the other end of the string is a pulley of mass 1 kg.
Two masses of 2 kg and 3 kg are suspended on either side of the 1kg
pulley as shown in figure. The acceleration of the 4 kg mass is ng/49. Find
1kg
n. 4kg
2kg 3kg
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
θ
O
C
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
19. In hydrogen atom during de-excitation of electron from an excited state to ground state 15
spectral lines are emitted. Find the longest wavelength of U.V. region during de-excitation.
4
(A)
3RH
36
(B)
35RH
25
(C)
24RH
16
(D)
15RH
20. 0.167 gram of KBrO3 is reacted with excess of KI. And liberated I2 requires 75 ml of Na2S2O3.
What is normality of Na2S2O3 (where KBrO3 is converted in KBr) (at. wt. of Br is = 80)
(A) 0.08
(B) 0.16
(C) 1.8
(D) 0.2
21. N2 and H2 are 1 : 3 molar ratio, allowed to react to form NH3, at equilibrium 50% of N2 and H2 are
reacted. If the total pressure of the system was 21 atm. Find partial pressure of NH3 at
equilibrium.
(A) 5 atm
(B) 7 atm
(C) 9 atm
(D) 11 atm
22. An alkaline earth metal whose sulphate is soluble and whose oxide is inert on heating. It forms
insoluble hydroxide which is soluble in excess of NaOH. Find the metal
(A) Mg
(B) Ba
(C) Ca
(D) Be
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
(D) The number of degenerated orbitals will be 9 in a orbit of hydrogen atom where energy is
RH
proportional to .
9
24. Hydrogen like species in ground state absorb n photons having same energy and during de-
excitation emits exactly n photons. Then the energy of absorb photon would be
(A) 40.8 eV
(B) 91.8 eV
(C) 163.2 eV
(D) 57.2 eV
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
30. Which of the following statements regarding alkali metal are correct?
(A) When alkali metal dissolve in liquid NH3, as conc. of NH3 increases paramagnetic
character decreases.
(B) Alkali metal in liquid NH3 shows very strong oxidizing character.
(C) Stability of superoxide of alkali metals increases with increase in size of metal cation.
(D) All alkali metal carbonates decomposes on heating and gives CO2 gas.
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
31. A unit cell has one atom on each corner of cube and two atoms at one of it’s body diagonals if
-24 3 3
volume of unit cell is 5 × 10 cm and density of element is 15 gram/cm . The number of atom
24 23
present in 150 gram of element is x × 10 find x. (Avogadro number = 6 × 10 )
32.
NH2COONH4 s
2NH3 g CO2 g
If at equilibrium some CO2 at 1 atm is added at constant volume, 25% of original NH3 and CO2,
solidified before equilibrium was re-established. Find total pressure at new equilibrium.
Red hot
33. Cu tube C6H6
3C2H2
Find the degree of association of ethyne if observed molecular mass of mixture is 39.
34.
A s
B s 2C g
KP of above reaction is 9 atm 2, at 327oC
A 10 litre vessel contains 1 mole of B. How many moles of C would be added to drive backward
reaction to completion.
35. 50 ml of 0.1 M Na3PO4 was titrated with 50 ml of 0.2 M HCl. Find the pH of resulting mixture
where pK a1 ,pK a2 and pK a3 of H3PO4 are 5, 8, 13.
36. A single electron species having atomic number Z make a transition from 2 to 1. The emitted
photon is absorbed by excited electron of Li+2 in n1 orbit and further excited to n2. Find the value
2n1 3n2 6Z
of
10
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 04 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1
sin ln x
37. If dx is equal to
0
ln x
(A)
4
11
(B)
14
11
(C)
4 14
22
(D)
7
1 1
1
38. Number of continuous function(s) f: [0, 1] R satisfying f x dx f 2 x2 dx is/are
0
3 0
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
39. Let f, g : R [1, ) are two differentiable function on the real line satisfying the differential
equation (f 2 + g2)f + (fg)g = 0, then
(A) f is bounded, but g not
(B) f is unbounded, but g is bounded
(C) both are unbounded
(D) both f and f·g are bounded
2 2
40. The area of the set of points (x, y) in the plane that satisfy that two inequalities x + y 2 and
4 3 3 4
x + x y xy + y is
(A)
2
(B)
3
19
(C)
21
(D) none of these
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
41. Let f(x) be a real polynomial of degree 4 whose graph has two real inflection points. There are
three regions bounded by the graph and the line passing through these inflection points, then
(A) Two of these regions have equal area
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
(B) Area of one of the region is equal to the sum of other two
(C) Area of one of the region is double the sum of areas of other two
(D) Area of one of the region is square of the sum of areas of other two
42. Let a curve passing through (1, 0) satisfies the differential equation
2xe y 3y2 dy 3x 2 2ey 0 , then
dx
(A) x3 + 2xey + y3 = 3
3 2y 3
(B) x – 2xe + y = –1
5
(C) The slope of tangent to the curve at (1, 0) is
2
(D) The curve intersects x-axis at only one point
43. Let f be a function having a continuous derivative on [0, 1] and with the property that 0 < f(x) 1.
2
1
f x dx
Also, suppose that f(0) = 0, then 10 is always greater than or equal to
3
f x dx
0
2
(A)
3
1
(B)
2
1
(C)
3
(D) 1
44. Let S be the set of points in the Cartesian plane that satisfy |||x| – 2| – 1| + |||y| – 2| – 1| = 1, if a
model of S were built from wire of negligible thickness, then
(A) total length of wire required would be 64 2
(B) total length of wire required would be 32 2
(C) area enclosed by the wire is 50 sq. units
(D) area enclosed by the wire is 25 sq. units
45. Which of the following are CORRECT? (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function and {.}
fractional part of x)
–1
(A) Right hand derivative of f(x) = |sin x| cos cos x at non-differentiable point is
(B) Left hand derivative of f(x) = [x] |sin x| at non-differentiable point is (1 – k), k I
(C) Left hand derivative of f(x) = [x] sin2 x at non- differentiable point is (–1)k
1 3
(D) Right hand derivative of f(x) = |x – 1|{x} : x , at non- differentiable point is 0
2 2
46. The function f is defined by y = f(x) where x = r(3 cos t + 2|cos t|)
and y = r(2 sin t + |sin t|) : t [0, ], then
(A) f(x) is continuous on [–r, 5r]
(B) f(x) is discontinuous at one point on [–r, 5r]
(C) f(x) is differentiable x [–r, 5r]
(D) f(x) is not differentiation at 2 points on [–r, 5r]
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
x4 1
47. x 6 1 dx is
1
(A) tan1 x tan1 x 3 c
3
1 3x 3x 5
(B) tan1 c
3 1 3x 2 3x 4 x 6
1 2x x 4
(C) tan1 c
3 1 2x 5 3x 2
1 x x3 1
(D) tan1 c
2 1 x 2 3x 5
48. Let f: [0, 1] R be a double differentiable function with f(0) = f(1) = 0, and f(x) + 2f(x) + f(x) 0
x (0, 1), then
(A) f(x) 0 x [0, 1]
1
(B) if ex f(x) assumes its minimum value in [0, 1] at x , then f(x) + f(x) < 0
2
1
x 0,
2
(C) if g(x) = ex f(x), then number of real solution of the equation g(g(g(x))) = 0 is 2
(D) f(x) > 0 x [0, 1]
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
3
x2 x 1 2 3
50. Let A be the minimum value of the function f: R R, f x 6 3
, then A is
x x 1 5 3
51. If the equation x4 + ax3 + 2x2 + bx + 1 = 0; (a, b R) has a real solution, then minimum value of
2 2
a + b is
1 1 1
1 ..... 7
52. lim 2 3 n is equal to
n lnn
d2 y d2 x
53. Let y = f(x) be a one-one function satisfying the differential equation 0 and f(0) = 1,
dx 2 dy 2
f(1) = 2, then f(0) is
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 1
SECTION – A
1. A
2. B
mg
N2 (cos 3 sin ) …(iii) N2
3
mg
N1 (cos 3 sin ) …(iv)
3
Also, N1 cos 60 = mg sin
N1 = 2mg sin …(v)
From (iv) and (v),
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
mg
2mgsin (cos 3 sin )
3
2 3 sin cos 3 sin
3 3 sin cos
1
tan1
3 3
3. A
10
Sol. a1(max) g( cos sin ) m/s2 (where = 0.5 and 0 = 0.33)
13
F (m1 + m2) g(sin + 0 cos ) = (m1 + m2) a1(max)
F = 2000 N
4. B
5. A
Sol. = 30
6. A, C
7. A, C, D
Sol. The velocity parallel to the plane is unaltered by the impacts, so that the distance described
parallel to the plane will be zero at the end of a time t given by :
gsin t2
0 vt cos
2
2v cos
t
gsin
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
Also, since the elasticity is perfect, the velocity perpendicular to the plane is just reversed at each
impact. The time of flight for each trajectory is thus twice the time in which the velocity vsin ( )
2v sin
is destroyed by g cos , and thus t =
gcos
Clearly the particle will return to the point of projection if the first of these is some multiple, n, of
the second, i.e. if
2v cos 2v sin
n
gsin cos
i.e. if cot . cot ( ) is an integer.
8. C, D
m sin 2
Sol.
M sin
9. C, D
Solving we get, F=
= 2N
L k 2 a2
2a 2k a 2 2
L k a 2 2
10. A, B, D
Sol. Using conservation of momentum along horizontal direction
mu sin 53 = mv1 sin 53 + Mv2
4 4
u v1 4v 2
5 5
5v2 v1 = u …(i) v1 B 53
v 2 cos37 v1 A
e 1 m u v2
u 37
0.8 v2 + v1 = u …(ii) M 53
Solving (i) and (ii), we get
5.8 v2 = 2u
2u
v2 2 m/s
5.8
v1 = 5v2 u = 5 2 5.8 = 4.2 m/s
Ndt m(v u) 10 N s
1
3 3
Tdt Ncos53dt 5 Ndt 5 10 6 N-s
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
11. A, C, D
12. A, B, C, D
SECTION – C
13. 00005.00
14. 00005.00
15. 00009.00
Sol. Let f 1 be the acceleration upwards of the 4 kg and therefore of the 1 kg. pulley downwards. Let f 2
and f 3 be the accelerations of the 2 and 3 kg (both measured downwards). Let T, T1 be the
tensions of the upper and lower strings. Then
T – 4g = 4f1
2T1 –T + g=1.f1
2g - T1 = 2f 2
3g - T1 = 3f 3
f 2 + f 3 = 2f 1
9g
From the above equations => f1
49
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
16. 00002.00
10v 22 40 O
v2 = 2 m/s
v1 2 3 m/s
v1 sin v 2 cos
2 rad/s
a
17. 00002.50
Sol. v0 = h sin
v0 2v0
= = 2.50 rad/s
hsin h
18. 00004.50
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. A
1 1 1 3
Sol. = RH 2 - 2 = RH
λ 1 2 4
20. A
21. B
Sol.
3H2
N2 2NH3
t0 1 3 0
tt 1 0.5 3 1.5 2 0.5
1
PNH3 21 7 atm
3
22. D
Sol. Be OH 2 NaOH
NaBeO2
23. B, D
Sol. (A) m = 2, 2 , n = 3
2 2 6
(B) Ne = 1s 2s 2p
(C) 3d = 3p
1
(D) E
n2
n=3
Third shell in hydrogen atom 3s = 3p = 3d
Ans. 9 orbitals.
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
24. A, B, C
25. A, B, D
26. A, C, D
27. A, B, C, D
28. A, B, C, D
29. A, B
30. A, C
SECTION – C
31. 00006.00
32. 00003.19
Sol.
NH2COONH4 s
2NH3 g CO 2 g
2P P
3
K p 4P
NH2COONH4 s
2NH3 g CO2 g
2P 0.5P P 1 0.25 P
1.5P 0.75P 1
2 3
KP 1.5P 0.75P 1 4P
2.25 0.75P 1 4P
93
P 1 4P
44
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
27P 36
4P
16
27P 36 64P
36
36 37P, P
37
PT 1.5P 0.75P 1
2.25P 1
36
2.25 1 3.19
37
33. 00000.50
1
Sol. M
x
3C2H2 C6H6
1 0
1
3
M1 n2
M2 n1
26 2
1
39 3
2 1 1
3 3 2
34. 00002.60
Sol.
A s
B s 2C g
2
K P 9 PC
PC 3
A s
B s 2C g
1 a mol
a 1 2
PV = nRT
3 10 a 2 0.0821 600
3 10 1
a 2
0.0821 600 0.0821 20
a = 2.60
35. 00006.50
58
Sol. pH 6.5
2
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
36. 00003.00
1 1 1 1
Sol. 13.6Z 2 2 2 13.6 3 2 2 2
1 2 n1 n2
3 1 1
Z2 9 2 2
4 n1 n2
Z2 1 1
2 2
12 n1 n2
Z = 1, n1 = 3, n2 = 6
2n1 3n2 6Z
Hence =3
10
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
SECTION – A
37. A
1
sin ln x t
Sol. Let I t dx
0
ln x
1 1
ln x
I t cos t ln x dx = Re eit ln x dx
0
ln x 0
1 it 1
I t Re 2
1 t 1 t2
1
I t dt 4
0
38. A
f x 2xf x x dx 0
2 2 2
Sol.
0
1 2
f x x
2
dx 0
0
So, f(x2) = x
i.e., f x x
39. D
40. A
4 4 3 3
Sol. y + xy – x – x y 0
3 3
(y + x)(y – x ) 0
Thus the two curves partition the circle x 2 + y2 2 into 4 regions of equal area and the inequality
is satisfied by the two regions the cover the y-axis. So, the area of the set is half the area of the
circle.
41. A, B
Sol. By scaling and translating, we may assume that the two inflection points are located at x = –1 and
x=1
So, f(x) = (x 4 – 6x2 + 5) + bx + c where 2b = f(1) – f(–1); 2c = f(1) + f(–1) the line passing through
inflection points is g(x) = bx + c
So, other intersection points = 5
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
1 5 1
16 32
x 4 6x 2 5 dx x 6x 5 dx and x 6x 5 dx
4 2 4 2
So,
5 1
5 1
5
42. A, B, C, D
Sol. Let M = 3x2 + 2ey, N = 2xey + 3y2 solution of the differential equation is
3x 2e x dx 3y 2 dy c
2
3 y 3
x + 2xe + y = c
43. A, B, C, D
2
t t
3
Sol. Let F t f x dx f x dx t [0, 1]
0 0
t
F t f t 2 f x dx f 2 t
0
t
Let G t 2 f x dx f 2 t
0
G t 2f t 1 f t
So, F(t) 0 t [0, 1]
So, if 1 t 0
F(1) F(t) F(0)
2
1 1
3
f x dx f x dx 0
0 0
If f(x) = x, x [0, 1], then equality holds and in many more such example
44. A, C
45. A, B, D
–1
Sol. f(x) = |sin x| cos (cos x)
Points of non-differentiability x = (2n + 1)
LHD = –, RHD = 2
f(x) = [x]|sin x|. Points of non-differentiability x = integers
LHD = (1 – k), RHD = k
f(x) = [x]sin2(x) differentiable x R
f(x) = |x – 1|{x} : points of non-differentiability x = 1
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
46. A, D
Sol. Clearly f(x) is continuous on [r, 5r] and not differentiable at x = –r, 5r
Because there is vertical tangent at x = –r, 5r
47. A, B
x4 1 x4 x2 1 x2
Sol. x6 1 dx x6 1 dx x 6 1 dx
x 4 x2 1 x2
= dx 3 2 dx
x2 1 x 4 x 2 1 x 1
1
= tan1 x tan1 x 3
3
1 3x 3x 5
= tan1 2 4 6
c
3 1 3x 3x x
48. A, B, C
Sol. (f(x)ex) 0
So, f(x) ex is convex
So, f(x) ex max [f(0), f(1)] = 0 O 1
f(x) 0 x [0, 1]
SECTION – C
49. 00002.00
50. 00000.20
3
1
x 1
Sol. f x x
1
x3 3 1
x
1
Let x t
x
6t 3t 2
gt 1 3
t 3t 1
After g(t), we get CP: t 1, 1, 1 3
3
So, g 1 3
2 3
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13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM (Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
51. 00008.00
2 2
a b 1
Sol. f x x 2 x 1 x 8 a2 b2 x2 0 x R
2 2 4
2 2
f(x) is strictly positive unless a + b 8
52. 00007.00
n7
1 1 1 dx 1 1 1
Sol. 1 ..... 7 ..... 7
2 3 n 1
x 2 3 n
1 1 1
ln7 1 1 ..... 3 lnn7
2 3 n
1 1 1
1 ..... 7
So, lim 2 3 n 7
n lnn
53. 00001.00
dx 1
Sol.
dy dy
dx
2
d x d 1 d 1 dx 1 d2 y dx 1 d2 y
= 2
2
= 3
2
dy 2 dy dy dx dy dy dy dx dy dy dx
dx dx
dx dx
2
d y 1
From the given is 2
1 0
dx dy 3
dx
2
d y dy
2
0 or 1 y = ax + b : a 0
dx dx
54. 00000.00
f x dx f 0 dx ; x < 0
x x
f(x) < (x + 1)f(0)
Clearly for x –1, f(x) 0
Contradicting the hypothesis that f(x) > 0 x
No such function exist
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 2
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
1. Section-A (01 – 08, 19 – 26, 37 – 44) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for all correct answer.
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the four option(s) is (are) chosen.
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen.
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct options.
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered).
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Section-A (09 – 12, 27 – 30, 45 – 48) contains 6 List-Match sets with 12 questions (each set has 2
questions). Each question has 4 statements in LIST-I & 5 or 6 statements in LIST-II. The codes for
Lists have choices (A), (B), (C), (D) out of which only one is correct.
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
2. Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1 A force F(x, y, z) = Fx ˆi Fy ˆj Fz kˆ is conservative if, and only if, the following relations are
satisfied:
Fx Fy
(A)
y x
Fy Fz
(B)
z y
Fz Fx
(C)
x z
(D) Work done by the force on any closed path is zero.
2. The two endpoints of an 8 m long weightless thread are fixed at the same height at a distance of
4 m. An object of mass 10 kg is hung onto the thread and can move without friction. A horizontal
force of magnitude F is exerted on the object to keep it at rest on the thread exactly below one of
the endpoints of the thread? If F is removed, the object has an initial acceleration ‘a’ and
eventually acquires a maximum speed v max.
(A) F = 50N
(B) a = 4m/s2
(C) v max 20 2 3 3 m/s
(D) The radius of curvature of path traced by the particle after removal of F will first decrease
and then increase.
3. Three balls of mass m1, m2 and m3 can slide without friction along a horizontal rod. (There are
holes in the balls.) At a certain moment the middle ball is given an initial speed of v0 = 5 m/s
towards the right. If all collisions are totally elastic pick the correct statement/s .
v0
m1 m2 m3
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
6. A train is travelling at a speed of v 0. Then it decelerates uniformly during a time of t to finally stop.
In one of the wagons there is a small object on the floor. The wagon long enough, so that the
object does not collide with any of the walls of the wagon. is the distance covered by the object
on the floor (with respect to train) , is the coefficient of friction between the floor of the wagon
and the object.
v
(A) If 0 g, 0
t
v0 v2 gt 2
(B) If g, 0
t 4 g 4
v0
(C) If g, 0
t
v0 v2 v t
(D) If g, 0 0
t 2g 2
7. A particle is projected from a given point with a given velocity v = 10 m/s and after hitting a
smooth vertical wall returns to the point from which it started. The distance of the initial point from
the wall can be: (Take g = 10m/s2) :
(A) 3m
(B) 4m
(C) 4.5 m
(D) 6m
8. A long thin uniform rod lies flat on the table as shown. One end of the
rod is slowly pulled up by a force that remains perpendicular to the rod
at all times. The rod is to be brought to the vertical position without any
slipping of the bottom end? The coefficient of static friction between rod
and ground can be:
(A) 0.2
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.5
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
List-I List-II
(I) Tension in the sting connected to block A in (P) 6
Newton .
(II) Tension in the 5m cord in Newton. (Q) 8
(III) The value of is /k radians , what can be (R) 2
the possible value/s of k.
(IV) Acceleration of block A(in m/s2). (S) 0
(T) 4
(U) 12
9. If mass m is such that the ring just begins to slip. The correct match will be,
Options
(A) I P, II Q, III R, IV S
(B) I Q, II P, III T, IV S
(C) I T, II Q, III R, IV S
(D) I U, II Q, III R, IV S
10. The value of m was initially chosen so that the ring just began to slide. Now , the ring is welded to
the rod and mass of block A is increased to 5m , holding the 1kg mass . Immediately after the
system is realeased then the correct match will be,
Options
(A) I P, II Q, III R, IV T
(B) I Q, II P, III T, IV U
(C) I T, II U, III R, IV Q
(D) I U, II Q, III R, IV P
Answer the following by appropriately matching the list based on the information given in the
paragraph.
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
List-I List-II
R
(I) For a ring, F = 2mg, h (P) 1
2
3R 1
(II) For a disc, F = mg, h (Q)
4 3
5mg R 7
(III) For a hollow sphere, F , h (R)
8 3 9
mg 3R 8
(IV) For a solid sphere, F , h (S)
2 5 21
1
(T)
4
1
(U)
7
11. If acceleration of the ring is ‘a0’ then the acceleration of the different shapes of the body in a0 units
will be
Options
(A) I P, II R, III Q, IV S
(B) I Q, II P, III S, IV U
(C) I P, II T, III R, IV S
(D) I T, II Q, III R, IV U
12. If frictional force acting on the ring is ‘f 0’ then the frictional force acting on the different shapes of
the body in ‘f 0’ units will be
Options
(A) I P, II Q, III R, IV S
(B) I Q, II P, III S, IV U
(C) I P, II Q, III T, IV U
(D) I T, II Q, III R, IV U
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
13. A mass of m = 1kg moves initially with a velocity of v0 10 15 m/s. A constant power P = 1000
Watt is applied so as to increase its velocity. Find the time (in sec) that elapses before the
acceleration is reduced to half of its original value.
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
17. Rope is coiled round a drum of radius a = 1.5 m. Two wheels each of radius b = 2 m are fitted to
the ends of the drum, and the wheels and drum form a rigid body having a common axis. The
system stands on the rough horizontal surface and a free end of the rope, after passing under the
drum, is inclined at an angle of 60o to the horizontal. If a force P = 10 N be applied to the rope,
find the magnitude of acceleration (in m/s2) of centre of drum. Where mass of the system is 0.25
kg and its radius of gyration about the axis is k = 2 m.
P
0
60
a
Front view b
Side view
18. At what speed (in m/s) must a pebble be thrown from a height of h = 3.6m, and at an angle of 30o,
measured from the horizontal, if it is to hit the ground at an angle of 45o. (Air drag can be
neglected.) (Take g = 10 m/s2)
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
23.
N2 O4
2NO2
In above equilibrium mixture of N2O4 and NO2 at 425 K, contains N2O4 at 4 atm and NO2 at 8 atm.
Now volume of vessel becomes double at the same temperature.
(A) New pressure of N2O4 is 1.53 atm
(B) New pressure NO2 is 4.945 atm
(C) Mole percentage of N2O4 is 23.63%
(D) New pressure of NO2 is 7.26 atm
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
(B) The CCP and HCP structure of a given element would have same co-ordination number
and same packing fraction.
(C) On decreasing the pressure, coordination number of CsCl decreases to that of NaCl.
+2
(D) In fluorite structure of CaF2, Ca ion occupy tetrahedral void and F ion at CCP point.
This section contains TWO (02) List-Match Sets. Each List-Match set has TWO(02) Multiple Choice
Questions. Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and
(IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U). FOUR options are given in each Multiple
Choice Question based On List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition
asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
27. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
Options
(A) (IV), (S)
(B) (III), (Q)
(C) (II), (R)
(D) (I), (T)
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
28. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
Options
(A) (II), (S)
(B) (I), (S)
(C) (IV), (Q)
(D) (III), (P)
29. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
Options
(A) (I), (Q)
(B) (II), (P)
(C) (I), (U)
(D) (IV), (S)
30. Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II?
Options
(A) (IV), (Q)
(B) (I), (T)
(C) (III), (S)
(D) (III), (P)
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
33. RH2 (ion exchange resin) can replace Ca+2 in water. If 1 litre of water is passed in ion exchange
resin and pH of solution found to be 5.
+2
Find hardness of water in ppm scale in term of Ca .
34. One millimole of CO2 is absorbed in 200 ml of 0.1 M NaOH. If the resulting solution is titrated with
HCl using phenolphthalein as indicator, find millimole of HCl required when indicator changes it’s
colour.
M
36. 49 gram of a sample of oleum containing 20% free SO3 was neutralized by NaOH . The
10
volume of NaOH in litre require for neutralization is
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 08 questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1 1
1 x2 2
37. Let f be a continuous function on [0, 1] such that f t dt 2
x [0, 1], then f t dt is
x 0
always greater than or equal to
1
(A)
3
1
(B)
4
4
(C)
19
3
(D)
10
1 nk k
f x dx n
1/k
38. The number of function(s) f: [0, 1] R such that k {1, 2, 3, ....., n – 1},
0
where n is an odd integer greater than 1, is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) 7
39. Let f: R R be a thrice differentiable function such that f(x), f(x), f(x) and f(x) are positive
x R. Moreover, f(x) < f(x) x R, then
(A) f(x) < 2f(x) x R
1
3 3
(B) f x f x x R
2
5
(C) f x f x x R
2
(D) f(x) < 3f(x) x R
40. If y(x) be the solution of the differential equation y·y = 2x(y)2 given y(0) = –4, y(0) = 1, then
(A) y(1) = e4
8/3
(B) y(2) = e
(C) y(x) (0, ) – {e2}
(D) y(x) (0, ) – {e3}
1
(A)
4
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
1
(B)
2
3
(C)
10
(D) 1
ex ex 2
42. If ecx x R, then c can be
2
1
(A)
2
1
(B)
2
1
(C)
e
(D) 1
a
44. Let f: [0, 1] R be a continuous function, differentiable on (0, 1) such that f x dx 0 for some
0
a (0, 1), then
a
1 a
(A) f x dx max f x
2 0 x 1
0
1
1 a
(B) f x dx max f x
2 0 x 1
0
1
1 a
(C) f x dx max f x for some function f(x)
2 0 x 1
0
(D) none of the other options is correct
This section contains TWO (02) List-Match Sets. Each List-Match set has TWO(02) Multiple Choice
Questions. Each List-Match set has two lists: List-I and List-II. List-I has Four entries (I), (II), (III) and
(IV) and List-II has Six entries (P), (Q), (R), (S), (T) and (U). FOUR options are given in each Multiple
Choice Question based On List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition
asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
x 4n 1
MM-I. Let f1 x lim x 1 4n ;
n x 1
2x 1
f2 x x cos2 ; (where {.} denotes fractional part function x);
2
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13 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20
x 2 x 3 ; x is irrational
f3 x ;
0 ; x is rational
0 ; x is irrational
f4 x 1 m
n ; x is rational number of the form x n in lowest terms with m, n 0
LIST–I LIST–II
(I) f 1(x) is discontinuous at (P) –1
(II) f 2(x) is discontinuous at (Q) 0
(III) f 3(x) is discontinuous at (R) 1
(IV) f 4(x) is discontinuous at (S) 2
(T) 2
(U) 3
MM-II. List-I represents equations and List-II represents number of positive real roots of the
corresponding equations
LIST–I LIST–II
(I) (x3 – x + 1)3 – x3 + x = 0 (P) 0
(II) x6 – x4 + 2x3 – x2 + 1 = 0 (Q) 1
3
1 1 1
(III) x5 0 (R) 2
x 1 x 2 x 3
(IV) x4 – 2x = 0 (S) 3
(T) 4
(U) 5
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/20 14
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
49. Let f(x) be a differentiable function with a continuous derivative x R. If f(1) = 2 and f(2) = 5
and f(x) takes only rational values, then f(3) + f(0) is equal to
50. If f(x) is a function with a continuous third derivative on [0, 2] such that
f(0) = f(0) = f(0) = f(2) = f(2) = 0 and f(2) = 2, then minimum number of value(s) of c [0, 2]
such that f(c) 6 is
51. Let f: (0, ) R be a twice differentiable function such that |f(x) + 2xf(x) + (x2 + 1)f(x)| 2
x R and lim xf x f x 5 , then lim f x is equal to
x x
1
52. Let f: R R be a continuous function x R such that f x f x 2 and f(0) = 0, then
4
1
f is equal to
4
53. Let f(x) be a three times differentiable function (defined on R) such that f(x) has at least five
distinct real zeroes, then number of distinct real zeroes of f(x) + 6f(x) + 12f(x) + 8f(x) is/are
k
n 1
k n2
54. lim 2 is equal to
k 1 n
n
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2020
PAPER – 2
SECTION – A
1. A, B, C, D
Sol. By definition
2. A, C
Sol. To find F draw the F.B.D. of the mass. Then apply work energy theorem to get maximum speed.
3. B, C, D
Sol. The number of collisions will be dependent on the masses of the three objects. If m1 = 4m,
m2 = m and m3 = 3m then m1 finally moves to left with 1 m/s, m2 with speed 1.5 m/s and m3 to
right side with speed 2.5 m/s.
4. A, D
Sol. Write the co-ordinates of the collar and differentiate w.r.t. time to get velocity of collar.
5. A, B, C
Sol. Let the line joining the centres of sphere and grindstone be inclined at to the vertical, and let R,
F be the normal reaction and friction. The sphere remains at rest if:
R = Mg cos and F=Mg sin
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 2
6. A, D
v0
Sol. If a g , then the distance covered by the object relative to train
t
1 (a g)2 t 2
(a g)t 2
2 2g
v0t 1 (v gt)2
= gt 2 0
2 2 2g
v 20 v t
0
2g 2
v 20 v t
If the wagon long enough, distance moved by the small body relative to train is = 0
2g 2
7. A, B, C
Sol. Let be the inclination of the direction of projection to the horizontal, and x the distance from the
wall to the point of projection, so that the time to the wall = x/vcos. After the impact the horizontal
velocity is evcos, so that the particle will be vertically over the starting point again in time
x/evcos from the impact .(e is the coefficient of restitution)
The vertical velocity is unaltered by the impact, so that the particle will be on the same vertical
level as the point of projection in time 2Vsin/g .
The particle will therefore return to the point of projection if
2v sin x x
g v cos ev cos
e v 2 sin2
x
1 e g
v2e
Now the greatest value of sin 2 is unity, so that the greatest value of x is , where e is
g e 1
the coefficient of restitution. Since 0 e 1 x 5
8. C, D
Sol. Since the rod is raised slowly (quasi-statically), the entire F cos
F
system remains in equilibrium at any moment of time. Thus,
the torque about the point of rotation of the rod is zero about F sin
any axis, and the net external forces are 0.
mg cos mgcos
F 0F N
2 2
N = mg – F cos , fs = F sin mg
fs
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3 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
The F sin force causes the rod’s bottom end to slip in one direction. The friction force counters
this force to stop the slipping, fs sN
sN F sin . Hence,
F sin sin cos
s
mg Fcos 2 cos 2
Maximum of µs can be found by setting its derivative with respect to theta equal to zero:
d 2 cos 2cos 1 2cos 1 cos
2 2 2 2
1 2
2
0 This gives sin and min
d 2 cos
2
3 4
9. A
Sol. T2 T2 cos 2 N
T1 cos 1
A
For 1 kg block For m
T1 sin 1 = T2 sin 2 3T1 = 4T2 T2 = 10 m = 6
T2 cos 2 + T1 cos 1 = 10 6
m kg = 0.6 kg
T2 = 6 N, T1 = 8 N 10
10. D
11. A
12. C
Sol. (for Q.11-12) F
ICM h a
If h > h0 where h0
mR
fS
F + f S = ma …(i)
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 4
Fh fSR = ICM
Fh I a
fs cm2 …(ii)
R R
From (i) and (ii)
h I
F 1 ma 1 CM2
R mR
h
F 1
R
a
ICM
m 1 2
mR
f S = ma F
If h < h0 F
F f S = ma …(i) h a
Fh + f SR = ICM
Fh I a fS
fs cm2 …(ii)
R R
From (i) and (ii)
h I
F 1 ma 1 CM2
R mR
h
F 1
R
a
ICM
m 1 2
mR
f S = F ma
For a ring,
F = 2mg, h = R/2
3g mg
a0 , f0 fS F ma
2 2
3g mg
a0 , f0
2 2
For a disc,
F = mg, h = 3R/4
3
mg 1
4 7g 2 7g
a
3 4 3 6
m
2
7mg mg
f S = ma F = mg
6 6
7a0 f0
a , fS
9 3
For a hollow sphere,
5mg R
F= ,h
8 3
5mg 4
a 8 3 g a = a /3
0
5 2
m
3
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5 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
5mg mg mg f0
f S = F ma =
8 2 8 4
f S = f 0/4
For a solid sphere
F = mg/2, h = 3R/5
mg 8
4g 8
a 2 5 a0
7 7 21
m
5
f S = ma F
4mg mg mg
fS
7 2 14
8a0 f0
a , fS
21 7
SECTION – C
13. 00002.25
dv
Sol. m v P = constant
dt
When acceleration reduces to half value its speed becomes doubled i.e. v = 2v 0
1
Pt m v 2 v 20
2
1
Pt m 4v 02 v 02
2
3mv 20 3 1 100 15
t = 2.25 sec.
2P 2 1000
14. 00001.20
2 2 2
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 6
1 1 1 1
Now K
2
2 2
m v12 v 22 k2 m 2 2 m 2 2
2
= 2 + 1.6 = 3.6 Joule
16. 00005.00
Sol. When the wedge has moved through a distance y, let the point of contact of cylinder have moved
down the plane through x (with respect to wedge). Let F be the friction between the cylinder and
the plane.
Since there is no horizontal force on (wedge + cylinder system)
d2 y d2 y d2 x
M 2 m 2 cos 2 0 …(1)
dt dt dt
d2 y d2 x ma d2 x ma2 d2
Also, m 2 cos 2 F mgsin and Fa , so that
dt dt 2 dt 2 2 dt 2
d2 y d2 x
2 cos 3 2 2gsin …(2)
dt 2 dt
Equation (1) and (2) implies acceleration of the centre of the cylinder down the face, and relative
2gsin M m
to the wedge, is = 5 m/s2.
3M m 2m sin2
17. 00005.00
Sol. Assume that the drum rolls away from the force P, so that P
the friction F is away from P. Then : 600
d2 d2 d2 x a
Mk 2 2 Pa Fb and Mb 2 M 2 F P cos 60
dt dt dt b
2
M k 2 b2 ddt P a b2
2
fS Side view
d2
0.25 8 10(1.5 1)
dt 2
d2 2
2
2.5 rad/s
dt
d2
And the required acceleration = b 2
= 2 2.5 = 5 m/s2
dt
18. 00012.00
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7 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
19. A, B, D
20. A, B, C
21. A, B, D
22. A, B, C
Sol. Mg Ne 3s 2
3+0+0=3
23. A, B, C
N2O4
2NO2
Sol.
4 8
88
KP 16 atm
4
On doubling the volume
N2O 4
2NO2
4 8
x 2x
2 2
2
16
4 2x
2 x
x = 0.4725
24. A, B, C
25. B, C, D
(C) R 2 SiCl2
(D) In pyrosilicate one oxygen atom is shared.
26. B, D
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 8
1
200 1 100 1 2
3
1 1 1
pH 7 1.2 log = 7. 45
2 2 2
27. A
28. B
29. C
30. B
SECTION – C
31. 00001.50
32. 00006.50
33. 00000.20
Sol. pH = 5
[H+] = 10-5
RH2 Ca 2 RCa 2H
1
105 10 5
2
1
Wt. of Ca+2 in one litre 105 40 2 10 4 gram = 0.2 mg
2
Hence, hardness will be 0.2 ppm.
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9 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
34. 00019.00
35. 00000.20
Sol.
A B C
Dd
d
50 41.67
0.2
41.67
A B C
1 0 0
1 1 1
Hence number of mole of
1 0.2 0.2
36. 00010.45
1 4
49 1000 49 1000
5 5 1
Sol. V
40 49 10
V 10450 ml 10.45 litre
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 10
SECTION – A
37. A, B, C, D
1 1 1 1
2
Sol. 0 f x x dx f 2 x dx 2 xf x dx x 2 dx
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
So, f
2 x dx 2 xf x dx x 2 dx 2 xf x dx 1
0 0 0 0
3
1
1 1
1 x2
f t dt dx dx
0x 0
2
1
1
tf t dt 3
0
1
So, f
2 x dt 1
0
3
38. A
1 1
n k 1
Sol. Putting x k t gives f t tk 1 dt
n
k {1, 2, 3, ....., n – 1}
0
1 1 n 1
n 1 k n 1k k
So, f t t dt n1Ck 1 f t t dt
0 0 k 0
1 n
k 1 n k k 1
=
n 1
Ck 1 1 f t t dt
0k 1
n 1
k 1 n k
= 1 n 1Ck 1 f t tk 1dt
k 1 0
n
1 1
= 1 k 1 n1 Ck 1
n 1
1 1 0
k 1 n n
But (f(t) – t)n – 1 0 as n – 1 is an even positive integer
f(t) = t t [0, 1]
39. A, B, C, D
2
Sol. f(x) f(x) f(x) f(x) < f(x) f(x) + (f(x)) x R
1 2 1 2
f x f x f x x R lim f x f x f x 0
2 x 2
1 2 1 1 1
f x f x f x f x f x f x f x f x f x f x f x
2 2 2 2
1 3 2 1 2 3 2
f x f x f x x R f x f x f x f x x R
2 4 2 4
1
1 1 3 3
f 3 x f 3 x x R f x f x x R
6 4 2
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11 AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20
40. A, B, C
2
y y y 2x 1 y 2 y
Sol. 2
2
; d 2x 1 dx
y y y
4x
y e 2x 1
41. A, B, C, D
1 1
1 f 1 f 0
Sol. x 2 f x dx 2
f x dx
0 0
1 1
1 1 1
Since, x 2 f x dx max f x x
0 x 1 2
dx max f x
4 0 x 1
0 0
42. A, B, D
x2
e x e x
x 2n
x 2n 2 1
Sol. n e 2 ecx x R c
2 n0 2n n0 2 n 2
1
For c , inequality does not hold for x = 1
e
43. A, B
44. A, C
a
Sol. f x dx 0
0
1
Put x = at, we get f at dt 0
0
Let M max f x
0 x 1
Using LMVT on [a, ax], |f(x) – f(ax)| (1 – a)xM
1 1 1
1
Now, f x dx f x f ax dx 1 a M xdx
2
1 a M
0 0 0
a
Equality holds if f x M x
2
45. D
46. B
Sol. (45.-46.)
f 1(x) is discontinuous at x = –1 only
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AITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/20 12
f 2(x) is continuous x R
f 3(x) is continuous at x = 0, 3 only
f 4(x) is continuous at each irrational number
47. A
48. A
Sol. (47.-48.)
(I) (x3 – x + 1)3 – x3 + x = 0
3
f(f(x)) = 0, where f(x) = x – x + 1
which has only one negative solution
6 4 3 2
(II) f(x) = x – x + 2x – x + 1
2 2 2 3
= (x – 1) (x + 1) + 2x > 0 x > 0
3
1 1 1
(III) x 5 has three positive
x 1 x 2 x 3
solutions
(IV) 2x = x4, has two positive solutions x=1 x=2 x=3
SECTION – C
49. 00011.00
50. 00001.00
f 0 2 f 3
Sol. f x f 0 f 0 x x x where 0 x and
2! 3!
f 2 2 f
f x f 2 f 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 3 where x 2
2! 3!
f 3 f 3
x x 2 2
6 6
Put x = 1 ; f f 12
So, at least one of f and f is 6
51. 00000.00
x2
f x e 2 f x 2xf x x 2 1 f x
Sol. lim f x lim
x x2 x x 2 1
e2
So, lim f x 0
x
52. 00000.00
1
Sol. Put g x x 2
4
1 1 1
x , , then x g x
2 2 2
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1 1
Let x 0 , and xn 1 g xn n 0. The sequence xn is increasing and bounded above
2 2
1
so its limit exists and this limit is (by solving g(l) = l)
2
1 1 1
By continuity, the constant sequence f xn tends to f f is constant over 2 , 2
2
53. 00002.00
54. 00000.50
k k
1 n 1
k n2 k n2
2 n2 n
k
k n2
1 n
k 1
Sol. lim n 1 k N lim k 1 n 1 lim 2 lim n2
n k n k n
k 1 n
n
k 1 2
n2 n2
k 1
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER –1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section-B & Section-C.
Section–A (01 – 10, 21 – 30, 41 – 50) contains 30 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks
for wrong answer.
Section–B (11 – 12, 31 – 32, 51 – 52) contains 6 Match the following Type questions. Each
question having 4 statements in Column I & 5 statements in Column II with any given statement
in Column I having correct matching with 1 or more statement (s) given in Column II. Each
statement carries +2 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section–C (13 – 20, 33 – 40, 53 – 60) contains 24 Numerical based questions with answers as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
1. Two spherical planets P and Q have the same uniform density , masses MP and MQ and
surface areas A and 4A respectively. A spherical planet R also has uniform density and its
mass is (MP + MQ). The escape velocities from the planets P, Q and R are v P, vQ and vR
respectively. Then
(A) vQ > vR > v P
(B) vR > vQ > v P
vR
(C) 3
vP
vP 1
(D)
vQ 2
2. Two identical blocks are floating once in water (case-I) and once in mercury container (case –II).
They are floating very near to each other. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) In case –I, both blocks get attracted to each other.
(B) In case –I, both blocks get repelled from each other.
(C) In case –II, both blocks get attracted to each other.
(D) In case –II, both blocks get repelled from each other.
3. The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm and there are 100 divisions on it’s circular scale. The
instrument reads 2 circular divisions when nothing is put in between its jaws. In measuring the
diameter of a wire, there are 8 divisions on the main scale and 83rd division coincides with the
reference line. Then choose the correct option(s).
(A) Screw gauge is having zero error of 0.01 mm.
(B) Screw gauge is having zero error of 0.49 mm.
(C) Diameter of the wire is 4.405 mm.
(D) Diameter of the wire is 4.425 mm.
4. Heavy stable nucleus have more neutrons than protons. This is because of the fact that
(A) neutrons are heavier than protons.
(B) electrostatic force between protons are repulsive.
(C) neutrons decay into protons through beta decay.
(D) nuclear forces between neutrons are weaker than that between protons.
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6. Sound of wavelength passes through a Quincke’s tube, which is adjusted to give a maximum
I
intensity I0. Through what distance should the sliding tube be moved to give an intensity 0 .
2
7
(A)
8
3
(B)
4
(C) /4
(D) /8
8. Three identical biconvex lenses of focal length f are aligned with two neighbouring lenses
separated by a distance f as shown in the figure. A small object is located at a distance f/2 in front
of the leftmost lens. Choose the correct option(s).
f/2 f f
(A) The final image formed is real and inverted.
(B) The final image formed is virtual and erect.
(C) The final image is of same size as that of object.
(D) The final image formed is virtual and inverted.
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10. Four classes of students measures the height of a building. Each class uses a different method
and each measures the height many different times. The data for each class are plotted below.
Which class made the most PRECISE measurement?
No. of trials
Known height
30
20
(A) 10
0 10 20 30 40 50
Height (m)
No. of trials
Known height
30
20
(B) 10
0 10 20 30 40 50
Height (m)
No. of trials
Known height
30
20
(C) 10
0 10 20 30 40 50
Height (m)
No. of trials
Known height
30
20
(D) 10
0 10 20 30 40 50
Height (m)
SECTION - B
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have
to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II
are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
MORE statement(s) in Column II.
11. Column –I contains four different YDSE systems and Column –II contains intensity measured at
some points on the screen. Do the correct match(es) in Column-I and Column –II. (CP1 = 0.3 mm
and CP2 = 1.2 mm)
Column I Column II
y
P2
P1
C
d = 1 mm
(A) d D=1m (p) IC = 4I0
Intensity at each slit = I0
D
= 4000 Å in air
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
y
P2
d = 1 mm
P1
C
D=1m
(B) d Intensity at each slit = I0 and (q) IP1 2I0
w = 4/3 no absorption of light by
D
water (w = 4/3)
= 4000 Å in air
y
Glass
P2 d = 1 mm
film D=1m
P1
C Film thickness t = 0.8 m
(C) d refractive index of film = 3/2 (r) IP1 4I0
Intensity at each slit = I0 and
D
no absorption of light by
glass
= 4000 Å in air
y
P2
P1
C
d = 1 mm
104 rad = d IP1 0
(D) D=1m (s)
Intensity at each slit = I0
D
= 4000 Å in air
12. Column-I contains some systems having a solid body and fluid. Column-II contains some physical
quantities for the systems in column-I. Match column- II with column-I.
Column I Column II
A solid sphere of radius
Atmospheric pressure = P0 R is tied inside a non-
viscous liquid and the
R
x system is in equilibrium Fx (force on surface x
y (sphere just touching applied by liquid)
(A) (p) 1
the top surface of the
= P0 R2 R3 g
liquid). x-upper half 3
Density of liquid = spherical surface y-
Density of solid = () lower half spherical
surface.
Atmospheric pressure = P0
A solid disc of radius R,
2R/3 thickness R/3 is tied Fy (Force on surface y
inside a non-viscous applied by liquid)
(B) R liquid and the system is (q)
x y 5
R/3 in equilibrium x-rim of = P0 R2 R3 g
the disc y-one of the 3
Density of liquid =
Density of solid = () flat faces of disc.
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SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
R
13. At a depth h1 from the surface of a planet (radius R = 3000 km), acceleration due to gravity is
2
g1. It’s value changes by g1, when one moves down further by 1 km. At a height h2 above the
surface of the earth acceleration due to gravity is g2. It’s value changes by g2 when moves up
further by 1 km. If g1 = g2 and h2 = d 102 km. Find d. (Assume the planet to be a uniform
sphere of radius R) (Take 21/ 3 1.3 )
14. A massless metal plate is placed on a horizontal tabletop lubricated with oil. The sheet is a
square of side length = 1.0 m and the oil layer has thickness h = 1.0 mm. Initially one edge of
the sheet coincides with one edge of the table. The sheet is pulled outwards without rotation with
2
a constant force F = 15 N. If coefficient of viscosity of the oil is = 0.2 N-s/m , how long (in
second) will it take to pull half of the sheet out of the table?
15. Figure shows a cubical block of side 10 cm and relative density 1.5
suspended by a wire of cross sectional area 106 m2. The breaking stress
of the wire is 7 106 N/m2. The block is placed in a beaker of base area
200 cm2 and initially at t = 0, the top surface of water and block coincide. 2 cm3/s
There is a pump at the bottom corner which ejects 2 cm 3 of water per
second. If the wire breaks at t = 10k seconds, find k. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
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16. If is found that the spectral line of a certain star periodically becomes a doublet indicating that the
radiation comes actually from two stars revolving about their centre of mass. Assuming the
masses of the stars to be equal, find the distance between them if the maximum splitting of the
spectral lines is equal to 1.2 104 and it occurs every = 30 days. Give your answer in
terms of d 107 km (approximately) and write d.
17. Find the second longest resonance wavelength (in m) in a string of length = 6 m for which a
9
point at x = m is an anti-node, where x is distance measured along the length of the string from
4
a fixed end. (string is fixed at both ends)
18. An ideal fluid flows through a pipe of circular cross section of radius r at speed v 0 = 4m/s. Now a
viscous liquid is made to flow through the same pipe at the same volume flow rate (measured in
m3/s). Find the maximum speed of the viscous liquid particle in the pipe in m/s.
20. A particle of mass m = 9 gm is trapped between two perfectly rigid parallel walls. The particle
bounces back and forth between the walls without losing any energy. From a wave point of view,
the particle trapped between the walls is like a standing wave in stretched string between the
walls. Distance between the two walls is L = 1 m. Calculate the energy difference between third
energy state and the ground state (lowest energy state) of the particle. Answer the energy
difference in C 1065 Joule. (Take Planck’s constant h = 6 1034 J-sec)
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
21. Which of the following gives precipitate with (NH4)2S in aqueous medium?
3+
(A) Fe
3+
(B) Al
(C) Cr3+
(D) Co2+
22. Which of the following statement is correct? (Neglect vibrational degree of freedom)
5
(A) Molar internal energy due to motion is RT of diatomic gas molecules.
2
(B) Molar internal energy due to motion is 3RT of bent triatomic gas molecule.
5
(C) Molar internal energy due to motion is RT of triatomic linear gas molecules.
2
3
(D) Molar internal energy due to motion is RT of monoatomic gas molecules.
2
24. 1.350 gm sample of Co NH3 5 SO24Br (molar mass = 320) is dissolved to prepare 200 ml
solution. Osmotic pressure of this solution is found to be 1.039 atm at 27oC. Which statement/s
is/are correct for this solution? [The above complex does not form yellow ppt. with AgNO3]
(A) Each molecule gives two ions in solution.
(B) The complex Co(NH3)5SO4Br is completely soluble under given condition.
(C) Molarity of complex ion [Co(NH3)5Br]2+ is 0.021 M in the solution.
(D) The van’t Hoff factor of the complex is = 2.
25. Which of the following is/are correct for spontaneous isothermal chemical reaction?
(A) H 0, because T 0
(B) S 0
(C) U 0 , because T 0
(D) G 0
26. The order of hybridization of the central atom in the following species:
2
PtCl4 , AuCl4 , Ni CO 4 , Au CN2
Along with increasing order of oxidation state are
3 3 2
(A) sp , sp, sp , dsp
3 3 3
(B) sp , sp, sp , sp
(C) sp3, sp, dsp2, dsp2
(D) sp3, sp, dsp2, sp3
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27. There are three bottles having halides in a lab. One of them containing a yellow compound
another has red compound and the last one has touch sensitive explosive. Which of the following
combination is possible?
(A) AgI, HgI2, SnCl4
(B) PbBr2, HgI2, NI3
(C) AgBr, SbCl3, SnCl2
(D) FeCl3, CrCl3, NF3
SECTION - B
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have
to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II
are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
MORE statement(s) in Column II.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
33. m of 10-3 M of a weak acid is 0.0142 10 x ohm1cm2 / mol . om 450 ohm1cm2 / mol at
25oC, Ka of acid is 10-6. The value of ‘x’ is
34. The rate of diffusion of hydrogen gas is 5 5 times of that of a hydrocarbon at identical
temperature and pressure if the molecular formula of hydrocarbon is CnH2n – 2 . The value of (n/2)
is
35. In Fluorite type structure of X 2 & Y compound if we remove anions from one body diagonal
and cations from all the corners then unit cell formula becomes Xn Ym : n m z, z is:
36. EMF of the following half-cell Pt | H2(g) | H+ (aq) is 0.177 if the pH2 1 atm then calculate the pH
of solution?
38. Calculate the volume (in ml) of 0.1 M AgNO3 required for complete precipitation of chloride ions
present in 20 ml of 0.03 M solution of [Cr(H2O)5Cl2]Cl, as AgCl is:
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SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
for its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
41. A matrix of order 3 3 is given as A = [aij], where aij {–1, 1} i, j then possible values of |A| is
(where |A| is determinant of matrix A)
(A) 2
(B) –2
(C) 0
(D) –4
30
42. If value of 3P = C5 – 30C6 + 30C7 – ..... – 30C28 + 29, and value of
Q
CR = 100C6 + 4 100C7 + 6 100C8 + 4 100C9 + 100C10, then
(A) number of positive divisors of P are 16
(B) Q + R can be divisible either by 9 or 19
(C) if abcd = P, a, b, c, d I+, then possible number of order pairs of (a, b, c, d) are 44
(D) P is an even integer
43. The number of integral solution of the equation + + + = 18, with the condition that 1 5,
–2 4, 0 5, 3 9, is k, then
(A) Total number of prime factors of k are 7
(B) Exponent of 5 in k! is 13
k
(C) Number of non negative integer solutions of the equation x + y + z = is 15
12
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
(D) Number of ordered pair of (a, b, c) such that abc = k4 is 225 (a, b, c I)
44. If A(1, 2, 3), B(1, 1, 1), C(1, 1, 2) and D(3, –1, 2) are vertices of a tetrahedron, then
x y z
(A) if 1 is a variable plane which is equidistant from all the four vertices A, B, C,
a b c
D, then maximum number of possible triplet of (a, b, c) are 7
(B) the volume of tetrahedron is 2 unit3
(C) length of altitude from point D to the plane ABC is 2 unit
1
(D) if the acute angle between edges AB and CD is , then cos =
10
45. Let A(0, 6, 8) and B(6, 12, 0) be two given points and P(, 0, 0) be a point on x-axis such that
PA + PB is minimum, then
90
(A) if point Q is on the y-axis such that QA + QB is minimum then area of POQ is unit2,
7
where O is origin
240 3
(B) the volume of tetrahedron OPAB (where O is origin) is unit
11
(C) perpendicular distance from the point A to the plane containing the points P, Q, B is 8 unit
480
(D) the volume of tetrahedron OPAB (where O is origin) is unit3
11
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46. If z1 = 4 + 3i, z2 = 1 – i and z3 = 7 + ki, k R such that z1, z2, z3 are vertices of an isosceles
triangle for different values of k, then
(A) if k1, k2, ..... kn are distinct possible values of k, then value of [|k1|] + [|k2|] + ..... + [|kn|] is
11 (where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
(B) one of the possible values of area of ABC is 12 unit2
(C) if k1, k2, ....., kn are distinct possible values of k, then value of [|k1|] + [|k2|] + ..... + [|kn|] is 3
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
(D) if k1, k2, ..... kn are distinct possible value of k, then value [|k1 + k2 + k3 + ..... + kn|] is 3
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
47. If P is a non null matrix of order 3 3 with real number as entries, such P3 = O, where O is null
matrix of order 3 3, then (where I is the identity matrix of order 3 3)
(A) det of (4P2 – 2P + I) is a non-zero number
(B) I – 2P is an invertible matrix
2
(C) if matrix P has all integer entries, then det(I – 4P ) = 0
2
(D) if matrix P has all integer entries, then absolute value of det (I – 4P ) = 1
2 2 2
48. Let a , b and c are three unit vectors such that a b b c c a 3 , then
3 5
(A) abc
2 2
(B) ab bc
(C) a 2b 3c 20
(D) a , b , c form a system of orthogonal vectors
49. Let z1, z2, z3 be complex numbers representing vertices A, B, C of a triangle. It is known that
|z1| = |z2| = |z3| = 1, and there exists 0, such that z1 + z2 cos + z3 sin = 0, then
2
(A) ABC can be an isosceles triangle, with greatest side length of 2 unit
1
(B) the maximum value of area of ABC is unit2
2 2 1
(C) triangle ABC can be a right angled triangle
(D) triangle ABC can not be an equilateral triangle
50. On the side AB and AD of a scalene triangle ABD draw externally squares ABEF and ADGH with
centres O and Q respectively if M is mid-point of side BD, then
(A) OM : QM is equal to 1 : 2
(B) OM : QM is equal to 1 : 1
(C) (OM)2 + (QM)2 > (OQ)2
(D) (OM)2 + (QM)2 = (OQ)2
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SECTION - B
Matrix – Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have
to be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II
are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR
MORE statement(s) in Column II.
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
53. Let ab be (where ‘a’ is a prime number) the number of function f: A B, where A = {1, 2, 3, .....,
2019} and B = {2019, 2020, 2021, 2022}, such that f(1) + f(2) + ..... + f(2019) is odd number, then
last digit of number b is _____
54. Let A and B be points (2, 0, 0) and (0, 4, 0) respectively. If E is mid-point of AB and F is mirror
x 1 y 2 z
image of origin with respect to edge AB and let D the point on the line at 6 unit
0 0 1
distance from the edge AB, then volume of tetrahedron DFAB is _____
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55. If A(z1), B(z2), C(z3) and D(z4) are four points in the Argand plane such that z1, z2, z3, z4 are roots
of equation z4 – 5z3 + 18z2 – 17z + 13 = 0, and |z1| |z3|. Let P is a point of intersection of line
z i 3 z 3 i 2 3 0 with the real axis, then value of [(PA)(PC)] is equal to _____
(where [.] denotes the greatest integer function)
1 p q
2017
56. Let be a complex cube root of unity and A 1 r where p, q, r are either or
2018 2020 2019
2
, then number of such distinct non singular matrix/matrices A is _____
57. Let p ˆi ˆj kˆ , q a ˆi bjˆ ckˆ , where a, b, c {–3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2} if the number of possible
R
vectors q such that p q 0 is R, then is _____
5
58. If a, b, c are mutually perpendicular unit vectors and d is a unit vector which makes equal angle
with a, b and c , then the sum of squares of the possible values of a b c d is _____
59. Number of isosceles triangles formed by joining the vertices of a 2019 sided regular polygon is M,
then the digit at tens place of M is _____
3
x y z
60. Let x, y, z be positive real numbers such that xyz and 3x + 4y + 5z = 12, then the
3 3 3
3 4 5
value of x + y + z is equal to _____
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER –1
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
1. B, D
2GM 8
Sol. v esc GR2
R 3
Given that, 4(4RP2 ) (4 R2Q ) RQ = 2RP
Mass of R is MR = MP + MQ
RR3 RP3 R3Q
So, RR = 91/ 3 RP
So, RR > RQ > RP vR > vQ > v P
v v 1
Also, R 91/3 and P
vP vQ 2
2. A, C
Sol.
P0 1
P0
2
P1 < P0 P2 > P0
Case-I Case-II
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
3. C
0.5
Sol. Least count = 0.005 mm
100
Zero error = 0 + 0.005 2 = 0.01 mm
So, true diameter = 0.5 8 + 0.005 83 0.01 = 4.405 mm
4. B
Sol. Repulsive force between protons forbids heavy nucleus.
5. A, B, D
Sol. x at O = d(path difference is maximum at O)
5 7
So, for d and , O will be a minimum and for d = , O will be a maximum.
2 2
There would be total 5 minima for d = 4.8 .
6. A, D
I0 I
Sol. 4 0 cos 2
2 4 2
2
and (2x)
7. B, D
Sol. If two nuclei in the range 51 < A < 100 will fuse then they will produce an element with mass
number above 100 and less than 200 which has more Ebn thus energy is released hence option
(B) is correct.
Similarly a nucleus in the range 200 < A < 260 when broken into two equal fragments then the Ebn
of these fragments will be more than that of the nucleus hence option (D) is correct.
8. A, C
Sol.
Image
Object
f/2 f f f/2
9. B
Sol. The second law is consequence of conservation of angular momentum, which is still true.
10. A
Sol. Accuracy describes how close to the correct or true value a measurement is, while precision in a
measurement of how closely grouped or how well a result can be reproduced of the plots given (A)
demonstrates the closest grouping at data points.
SECTION – B
11. (A) (p, q); (B) (p, r); (C) (p, q); (D) (s, t)
2 (103 )(3 10 4 ) 3
Sol. (A) P1
4 10 7 1 2
3
P2 (4) 6
2
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
12. (A) (p, q, r, s); (B) (q, t); (C) (r, s); (D) (q)
1 3
Sol. (A) From free body diagram of the liquid above the sphere, Fx P0 R2 R g
3
4
Force of buoyancy on the sphere = R3 g
3
5 3
So, Fy P0 R2 R g
3
1 3
(B) Force of buoyancy on the disc Fx R g
3
5 3
Fy P0 R2 R g
3
(C) From the free body diagram of the liquid in the container Fx and Fy are different with option (p)
and (q)
R 4
(D) Fx P0 g 4 R2 4P0R2 gR 3
3 3
5R 2 5
Fy P0 g R P0 R 2 gR3
3 3
2
Force on the part open to atmosphere = P03R
1 4R
So, FB gR3 4R2 g N (N = normal reaction)
3 3
16
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
SECTION – C
13. 9
h g
Sol. g1 g 1 1 g1 h1
R R
R2 2gR 2
and g2 g g2 h2
(R h2 )2 (R h2 )3
given that, g1 = g2
So, h2 = R 21/3 1 900 km
14. 5
Sol. In this case,
v
F ( x)
h
Fh dx
v
( x) dt x F
3 3
So, t 5 sec
8Fh
15. 2
Sol. Tension in the wire at t = 0 is, T0 = (0.1)3(103)(1.5 1) (10) = 5N
Wire breaks at tension, T = 7 106 106 = 7N
So volume of ejected water = 200 cm 3
So time taken = 100 sec.
16. 3
Sol. One star is approaching, while the other is receding.
cv cv 2v
So,
c c c
2R
So, =
c
c c
2R 3 107 km
17. 1
Sol. Possible frequencies which will satisfy condition of both ends rigid
m T
f1 , where is length of the string
2
3
and all possible frequencies which will satisfy condition of string of length with one end rigid
8
and one end free
2n 1 T
f2
3
4
8
So, f 1 = f 2 3m 8n = 4
So, = /6 = 1 m
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
18. 8
Sol. Volume flow rate of ideal fluid = v 0R2
R
r2
Volume flow rate of the viscous fluid = v 1
0 0 R2 2rdr
R 2 R2 v 0 R2
v 0 2 v 0 R2
2 4 2
v 0 2v 0 8 m/s
19. 2
T
Sol. Speed of wave in the lighter string = (50)(1) = 50 cm/s =
T
Speed of wave in the heavier string 25 cm/s
4
So wavelength in heavier string = 0.5 cm
2
(9.5 cm) (9.5)(2)
(1 cm)
A point that will oscillate in phase with S must be ahead in phase by (0.5)(2) with respect to Q. If
x is the distance of this point from Q then,
2
x (0.5)(2)
0.5 cm
x = 0.25 cm
9.5 0.25
So time required is 0.2 sec
50 25
20. 4
2L
Sol. The permitted wavelength are =
n
h h
So, de-Broglie wavelength d
p 2mk n
2L h
n 2mk n
n2 h2
kn (n = 1, 2, 3, ……….)
8mL2
h2 h2
E3 E1 = (32 12) 2
2
4 10 65 J
8mL mL
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
21. A, B, C, D
Sol. Fe3 NH4 2 S
FeS S
Al3 NH4 2 S H2O
Al OH3 H2S
Cr 3 NH4 2 S H2O
Cr OH3 H2S
Co 2 NH4 2 S
CoS
22. A, B, C, D
Sol. In linear molecule 3 translation + 2 Rotation = 5 motion
1 5
Energy contribution 5 KT KT by one molecule
2 2
5 5
NavKT RT by one mole.
2 2
In bent triatomic 3 translation + 3 Rotation = 6 motion
1
Energy contribution 6 KT = 3 KT by one molecule
2
By one mole = 3 KT × Nav = 3RT
In monoatomic 3 translation motion
3
Energy contribution RT by one molecule.
2
23. B, C, D
Sol. Facts.
24. A, B, C, D
Sol. W = 1.350 gm
Molar mass = 320
1.35
Moles =
320
1.350 1000
calc. CRT 0.0821 300
320 200
= 0.5195 atm
obs. 1.039
obs. 1.039
i 2
calc. 0.5195
i 1
1
n1
n=2
2
Co NH3 5 Br SO 4 Co NH3 5 Br
SO42
Initial 0.021
at equ. 0.021 0.021
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
25. D
26. C
Sol. Oxidation number Hybridization
3
[Ni(CO)4] 0 sp
Au CN2 +1 sp
2
PtCl4 +2 dsp2
AuCl4 +3 dsp
2
27. B
Sol. PbBr2, AgI, AgBr and FeCl3 solution is yellow.
HgI2 Red
NI3 Touch sensitive explosive
28. A, B, C, D
Sol. All are preparation methods of Cl2.
29. A, B, C, D
Sol. Facts.
30. A, B, C, D
Sol. Facts.
SECTION – B
31. A → t; B → r; C → p; D → q
2
Sol. Ka
C 2 C m / m
o
1 1 m / mo
2 o2 2
C / m C m m
o o
o
m
o
m m m m
m
32. A → t; B → s; C → p; D → r
Sol. Co 2 KNO 2 CH3COOH K 3 Co NO 2 6
Yellow ppt.
2
Ni DMG
Re d ppt.
Cu2 K 4 Fe CN6
Cu2 Fe CN6
Brown ppt.
3 H2 O
Al NH4 2 S
Al OH3
White ppt.
SECTION – C
33. 3
Sol.
HA
H A
c 2
Ka
1
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
1 1
106
K a c 2 , 0.0316
103
m
om
m 0.0316 450 14.22
34. 9
rH2 MCnH2n 2
Sol. 5 5
rCnH2n 2 2
MCnH2n 2 250
12n 2n 2 250
n 18 and n / 2 9
35. 9
Sol. X3 Y6 n m 9
36. 3
Sol. H2 2H 2e
2
o 0.059 H
EE log
2 PH2
2
0.059 H
0.177 0 log
2 1
0.177
log H 3
0.059
37. 5
Sol. G nFE
1930000
E 5.0 V
4 96500
V=5
38. 6
Sol. Cr H2O 4 Cl2 Cl AgNO3 AgCl
20 0.03 0.1 V
20 0.03
V 6 ml
0.1
39. 6
Sol. All are correct.
40. 3
Sol. Only HgS, PbS and Cu2S gives self reduction.
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9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
41. C, D
1 1 1 1 1 1
Sol. Fix first row as [1, 1, 1], and possibility are 1 1 1 , 1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
42. A, B, C
Sol. 29
C4 29
C5 29
C5 29
C6 ..... 29
C27 29
C28 29
C4 29
29
3P = C4 P = 3 7 13 29
Q
CR 104 C94 Q = 104, R = 94 or 10
43. B, C
Sol. The equation can be written as t1 + t2 + t3 + t4 = 16, 0 t1 4, 0 t2 6, 0 t3 5 and 0 t4 6
Let P1 is property that t1 5, t2 is property is t2 7, p3 is property t3 6 and p4 is property that
t4 7 and Ai is denote the subset of S satisfying condition pi when S is total number of solutions
= 19C16 = 969
So, A 1 A 2 A 3 A 4 S A i A i A j A i A j A k ..... k = 55
So, number of ordered pair satisfying condition abc = k4, a, b, c I 4 225 = 900
44. A, C, D
Sol. There are maximum 7 distinct planes which are at equidistance from all the vertices
The volume of tetrahedron is 1/3 unit3
45. A, C, D
30 66 B(6, 12, 0)
Sol. , Q 0, , 0
11 7
PA + PB is minimum, then 12
MP AM 5 M(0, 0, 0)
So, x-axis
PN BN 6 P N(6, 0, 0)
30
So, P , 0, 0 10
11
66
Similarly Q is 0, , 0 A(0, 6, 8)
7
46. B, C, D
19
Sol. The possible value of k are –1, and k = 7 is not possible, because all points will be collinear
8
47. A, B, D
Sol. (2P + I)(4P2 – 2P + I) = 8P3 + I3 = I
Similarly, (I – 2P)(I + 2P + 4P2) = I, if P has integer entries, then |I – 2P| and |I + 2P| will be equal
to either 1 or –1
48. A, C
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
2 2 2 2 1
Sol. a b b c c a 3 a c b 0 , a c b ac
2
So, a b c 2 b 2 , a 2b 3c 3a 5c 19
49. B, D
Sol. 1 = |z1|2 = |z2 cos + z3 sin |2
z 2 z 23
1 1 2 cos sin z22 z23 0 z3 = iz2
z 2 z3
Now take cases for z1 as z1 = –z2(cos i sin ) z1 z2 ei
can not equal to zero or so option A and C are not possible
2
50. B, D
Sol. Let z1, z2, z3 be complex number represents A, B, and D point
z1 z0 z3 z Q
i (z0)O A Q(zQ)
z 2 z 0 z1 z Q
z1 z2 z1 z2 i z1 z3 z3 z1 i
z0 ; zQ
2 2
B M D
z2 z3
zM
2
z0 zm z1 z3 z1 z2 i
i QM OM and OM = QM
zQ zm z1 z2 z3 z1 i
SECTION – B
51. (A) (p, q), (B) (q, s), (C) (q), (D) (r, s)
1
Sol. (A) 15 C2r 15 C2r 1
2
16
r r 5 (r N)
3
(B) Let side of triangle is (x, x, y), y < 2x
For x = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 number of possible value of y is 1, 3, 5, 7, 9 respectively
For x > 5, y has 9 possibilities so total number of the ordered pair of (x, x, y) is
1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 5 9 = 61
So, total possibility are 52 3 + 9 = 165
1 5
(C) |az2| = |–bz – c| |b| |z| + |c| |z|2 – |z| – 1 0, z
2
2 2 5 1
and |c| |a| |z| + |b| |z| |z| + |z| – 1 0, z
2
(D) z > x > y, z > y > x and z > y = x
So total number of cases = 8 C3 8 C3 8 C2 140
52. (A) (p, r), (B) (p, s), (C) (p, r, s), (D) (p, q, r, s, t)
a b
Sol. (A) Let the form of divisor is 2 5
So, 88 a, b 99, 12 cases for each a and b
12 12 9
So, p E
100 100 625
(B) On each face there are 4 such triangles are possible, so total triangles are 4 6 = 24
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11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-1)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
8!
1 1 1..... 1 3 8
7!
7 times
6!
1 1 1 1 3 3 15
4! 2!
4!
1 3 3 3 4
3!
So total number of cases will be = 28
(D) No such equilateral triangle is possible, so N = 0
SECTION – C
53. 7
Sol. Choices for f(1), f(2), ....., f(2018), are 4, but f(2019) have two possibility
So, ab = 2 42018
54. 8
1 1
Sol. Volume of DFAB = height base area = 6 4 8
3 3
Given line is perpendicular to edge AB and passing through point E
55. 3
Sol. z4 – 5z3 + 18z2 – 17z + 13 = (z – z1)(z – z2)(z – z3)(z – z4)
10 = (1 – z1)(1 – z2)(1 – z3)(1 – z4)
10 = (PA)2(PC)2 (PA)(PC) = 10
56. 2
Sol. det(A) = (r – 1)(p – 1), total number of matrices are 8,
the number of matrices has |A| = 0, are 6
57. 5
6 5 4 3
Sol. Coefficient of x in (x + x + ..... + 1)
6 6 3 –3
Coefficient x in (x – 1) (x – 1)
28 – 3 = 25, R = 25
58. 8
1
Sol.
d abc 3
a b c d 1 a b c 3 1
59. 2
2019
Sol. M 2019
C1 1008C1
3
2035825
60. 3
Sol. Only equality holds in A.M. G.M. so x = y = z = 1
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER –2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section–A (01 – 08, 21 – 28, 41 – 48) contains 24 multiple choice questions which have one or
more correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 marks for wrong
answer.
Section–A (09 – 12, 29 – 32, 49 – 52) contains 12 paragraphs with each having 2 questions with
one or more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2
marks for wrong answer.
Section–C (13 – 20, 33 – 40, 53 – 60) contains 24 Numerical based questions with answers as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
2. In the Bohr’s hydrogen atom model, R, V and E represent the radius of the orbit, speed of the
electron and total energy of the electron respectively. Which of the following quantities are
proportional to the quantum number n?
(A) VR
(B) RE
(C) VE1
(D) RE1
3. A ray of light is incident normally on one face 30 60 90 prism
60 P
of refractive index p = 5/3 immersed in water of refractive index
m = 4/3 as shown in the figure.
5 p 1
(A) The exit angle 2 of the ray is sin1 30
8 Q
m 2
5
(B) The exit angle 2 of the ray is sin1
4 3
(C) Total internal reflection at point P ceases if the refractive index of water is increased to
5
n by dissolving some substance.
2 3
(D) Total internal reflection at point P ceases if the refractive index of water is increased to
5
n by dissolving some substance.
6
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
30
litre/minute
Leak rate
20
(A) 10
0 2 4 6 8 10
t(hours)
30
litre/minute
Leak rate
20
(B) 10
0 2 4 6 8 10
t(hours)
30
litre/minute
Leak rate
20
(C) 10
0 2 4 6 8 10
t(hours)
30
litre/minute
Leak rate
20
(D) 10
0 2 4 6 8 10
t(hours)
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
6. A very large number of small particles forms a spherical cloud. Initially they are at rest, have
uniform mass density per unit volume 0 and occupy a region of radius r0. The cloud collapses
due to gravitation, the particles do not interact with each other in any other way. How much time
passes until the cloud collapse fully?
3
(A)
8G0
(B)
32G0
3
(C)
32G0
(D)
8G0
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Each question has
four options (A), (B), (C) and (D). One or more than one of these four option(s) is(are) correct
Height of chimney
of cross section A and height h as shown in the figure.
The solid matter is burnt in the furnace which is at Chimney of cross-sectional
temperature TS. due to burning smoke (gas) generation area A
h
rate (volume per unit time) is Q. a density of air
It can be assume that Ta temperature of air
the velocity of the smoke (gas) in the furnace is
negligibly small.
S density of smoke Air vent
the density of the smoke (gas) does not differ TS temperature of smoke
from that air at the same temperature and
pressure.
the gases can be treated as ideal while in
furnace.
A furnace with chimney
the pressure of the air changes with height
according to the hydrostatic law. The change of
the density of the air with height is negligible.
the flow of gases in the chimney follows
Bernoulli’s equation.
the change of the density of the gas (smoke) is
negligible throughout the chimney.
9. What is the minimum height of the chimney needed in order that chimney functions efficiently, so
that it can release all of the produced smoke(gas) into the atmosphere? Express your answer in
terms of Q, A, g, Ta, a , s and T, where T = TS Ta
s Ta Q2
(A)
gA 2 T(a s )
Ta Q2
(B)
2gA 2 T
Q2 s
(C)
2(a s )A 2 g
Q2 (Ta T)
(D)
2gA 2 T
10. Assume that two chimneys are built to serve exactly the same purpose. Their cross sections are
identical, but are designed to work in different parts of the world, one in cold regions designed to
work at an average atmospheric temperature of 23C and the other in warm regions, designed
to work at an average atmospheric temperature of 27C. The temperature of the furnace is 327C.
It was calculated that the height of the chimney designed to work in cold regions is 100 m. How
high is the other chimney?
(A) 71.4m
(B) 280 m
(C) 140 m
(D) 100 m
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
11. Find the laser power P required to balance the weight of the glass hemisphere.
2mgR2 c
(A)
(n 1)2 2
4mgR2 c
(B)
(n 1)2 2
2mgR2 c
(C)
(n2 1) 2
mgR 2c
(D)
(n2 1) 2
12. If the frequency of the laser beam is f, then the number of photons striking the hemisphere per
unit time is
2mgR2 c
(A)
(n 1)2 2hf
4mgR2 c
(B)
(n 1)2 2hf
2mgR2 c
(C)
(n2 1) 2hf
mgR2 c
(D)
(n2 1) 2hf
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
14. A compound microscope is used to enlarge an object kept at a distance of 3 cm from its
objective. The objective consists of several convex lenses is contact and has a focal length of 2
cm. If a lens of focal length 10 cm is removed from the objective, the eyepiece has to be moved
by x cm to refocus the image. The value of x is
15. Consider a nuclear reaction A + B C. A nucleus A moving with kinetic energy of 5 MeV collides
with a nucleus B moving with kinetic energy of 3 MeV and forms a nucleus C in excited state.
Find the kinetic energy of nucleus C (in MeV) just after its formation if it is formed in a state with
excitation energy 10.65 MeV. Take masses of nuclei of A, B and C as 25.0, 10.0 and 34.995 amu,
1 amu 930 MeV/c2
16. A small sphere of radius R = 10 cm is arranged to pulsate so that its radius varies in simple
harmonic motion between a range 10.0cm 0.1cm with frequency f = 100 Hz. This produces
3 5
sound waves in the surrounding air of density =1.6 kg/m and bulk modulus B = 10 Pascal.
225
Find the total acoustic power radiated by the sphere (in watt). (take 3 )
8
2
17. Fresh water flows horizontally from pipe section 1 of cross sectional Ps(P2 P1) (KN/m )
area A1 into pipe section 2 of cross-sectional area A2. Figure gives
a plot of the pressure difference (P2 P1) versus the inverse area
squared A12 that would be expected for a volume flow rate of a
certain value if the waver flow were laminar under all
circumstances. The scale on the vertical axis is set by PS = 100 16 32 A 2 (m4 )
1
KN/m2. For the condition of the figure, what is the volume flow rate
in m3/s? (take 6 2.4 )
18. A plano-convex lens is placed on a plane glass surface. A thin film of air is formed between the
curved surface of the lens and the plane glass plate. The thickness of the air film is zero at the
point of contact and increases as one moves away from the point of contact. In the arrangement
light containing two wavelengths 4000 Å and 4002 Å is allowed to fall normally on the flat face of
the lens. Calculate the minimum distance (in cm) from the point of contact at which the rings will
disappear. Assume that the radius of curvature of the curved surface is 400 cm. (assume
identical intensities for both wavelengths)
19. An optical fiber consists of a cylindrical core of radius R, made of transparent material with
refraction index varying gradually from the value n = n1 on the axis to n = n2 (with 1 < n2 < n1) at a
distance R from the axis, according to the formula
n n x n1 1 2 x2
x x
n0 = 1
n2 n0 = 1 n2
R n1 R n1
O z i O z
Where x is the distance from the core axis and is a constant. The core is surrounded by a
cladding made of a material with constant refraction index n2. Outside the fibre is air of refractive
index n0. Let Oz be the axis of the fiber, with O – the centre of the fiber end. Given n0 = 1, n1 = 1.5
and n2 = 1.46, R = 25 m. A monochromatic light ray enters the fiber at point O under an incident
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
angle i = 30, the incident plane being the plane xOz. At each point on the trajectory of the light
in the fiber, the refractive index n and the angle between the light ray and the Oz axis satisfy the
relationship ncos C . Find C.
20. Two thin lenses with lens powers D1 and D2 diopter are located at distance L = 25 cm from each
other and their optical axes coincide. This system creates an erect real image of the object,
located at the optical axis closer to lens D1 with the net magnification M1 = 1. If the position of the
two tenses are exchanged, the system again produces an erect real image with the net
magnification M2 = 4. What is the difference between lens powers D = D1 – D2 (in diopter)?
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9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
23. Molarity of solution, prepared by mixing CaO in 200 ml water. The CaO is obtained by heating
100 gm of limestone which was 80% pure?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
H
(A) Fe MnO 4 Fe2 Mn2 H2 O
H
(B) Fe2 MnO 4 Fe3 Mn2 H2 O
H
(C) Fe MnO 4 Fe3 Mn2 H2 O
(D) Fe2 Sn4 Fe3 Sn2
27. When one mole of triatomic (bent) ideal gas at 300 K undergoes reversible adiabatic change
under a constant external pressure of 1 atm from 1 lit volume to 27 litre. What would be the final
2
temperature (in Kelvin)? [ = 1 + : where f is degree of freedom].
f
(A) 100
(B) 80.27
(C) 11.11
(D) 33.33
28. 1 mole of an ideal gas at 300 K expands isothermally and reversibly ten times of its initial volume.
Energy used in non useful work is
(A) 5.744 kJ/mol
(B) 0.0191 kJ/mol
(C) 2.303 nRT log V2/V1
(D) 2.303 nR log V2/V1
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Each question has
four options (A), (B), (C) and (D). One or more than one of these four option(s) is(are) correct
Mn NO3 2 A s B g
Brown
Conc. H2 SO4 A D aq. E g H2O
E
D NaOH F Brown
White ppt.
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11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Resonance energy of A molecule is equal to the difference between potential energy of most stable
resonating structure and the hybrid (actual) structure. More the magnitude of resonance energy, more will
be the stability of the molecule.
(A) 35
(B) 36
(C) 70
(D) 72
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
34. Coordination number of cation present in a void when r / r lies in between 0.155 to 0.225.
35. A 6 ampere current is passed through a solution of CuSO4 for 59 minutes. The amount of
Cu (in grams) deposited at cathode is:
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
39. At 90oC vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 500 mm Hg and that of pure liquid B is 900 mm Hg. If
o
a mixture of solution of A and B boils at 90 C and 1 atm pressure mole fraction of A is XA:
XA × 20 = n, value of n is
40. Mixture of Fe2O3 and Al is used in solid fuel rocket. What is the fuel value (magnitude only) per ml
of mix (in Kcal/ml).
Given: HAl2 O3 399.0 Kcal / mol, HFe2 O3 199.0 Kcal / mol
Density of Fe2O3 and Al are 5 gm/ml and 3 gm/ml respectively.
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13 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
(One OR More Than One Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
1
41. Let Un be the set of the nth roots of unity. If A , then which of following is/are
Un
correct?
(A) A = 0, if n = 4k, k N
(B) A = –4, if n = 4k + 2, k N
(C) A = 2 if n = 4k + 1, k N
(D) A = 2, if n = 4k + 3, k N
1 , i j 1
42. Let Rn bij be a determinant such that bij 3 , i j 0 , then n N
nn
0 , otherwise
(A) R2019 + R2017 = 3R2018
(B) R2019 + R2017 = 9R2018
(C) The value of R4 is 54
(D) R5 is multiple of 9
43. If P and Q are two 3 3 non-identity matrices with real entries such that PPT = I, QQT = I (PT, QT
are transpose of matrices P and Q respectively) and det(PQ) < 0, then which of the following
is/are always correct (where det stands for determinant of a matrix)
(A) det(P + Q) < 0
(B) det(P + Q) = 0
(C) atleast one of the det(P – I) or det(Q – I) will be zero
(D) det(P–1 + Q–1) = det(P + Q)
z 1 z 1 2
44. Given in the Argand plane two curves C1 : arg and C2 : arg where
z 1 3 z 1 3
z = x + iy, x, y R, then
4 2
(A) sum of areas enclosed by the real axis and C1, and the real axis and C2 is equal to
3
(B) the number of complex numbers satisfying curve C1 and C2 simultaneously, is zero
1
(C) if moves on curve C2, then ||< 1, where || is modulus of
3
(D) if moves on curve C1, then || can be 1 unit, where || is modulus of
45. There are 6 red balls and 8 green balls in a bag, five balls are drawn out at random and placed in
a red box and the remaining 9 balls are put in a green box. If the number of red balls in the green
box is Rg and the number of green balls in the red box is Gr, then which of the following is/are
INCORRECT?
788
(A) probability that Rg + Gr is a prime number is
1001
213
(B) probability that Rg + Gr is a prime number is
1001
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
708
(C) probability that Rg + Gr is an even number is
1001
213
(D) probability that Rg + Gr is an odd number is
1001
47. An urn contains white balls ( 3) and r red balls. If 3 balls were to the drawn without
replacement, the probability that they would all be white is P. Introducing an extra white ball in the
4P
urn changed this probability to , then
3
(A) the maximum value of r can be 108
(B) the maximum value of r can be 88
(C) can be 6
(D) can be 9
48. Object A and B start moving simultaneously in the coordinate plane via a sequence of steps.
each of length one with the same speed, object A starts at (0, 0) and each of its step is either
right or up, both equally likely object B starts at (3, 5) and each of its steps is either left or down
both equally likely, then which of the following is/are true
5
(A) the probability that object A and B meets is
32
25
(B) the probability that object A and B will not meet is
32
7
(C) the probability that A and B meet at point (a, b), such that a < b is
64
3
(D) the probability that A and meet at point (a, b) where a = b is
32
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs each describing theory, experiment, data etc. Each question has
four options (A), (B), (C) and (D). One or more than one of these four option(s) is(are) correct
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
x 0 0
Let A 0 y 0 ; x, y, z I with the condition that det(adj(adj A)) = 212 38 54, S1 is set of all the
0 0 z
matrices A, S2 is set of all such matrices A where trace of A is divisible by 2, and x, y, z N and S3 is set
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15 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
of all such matrices A, where (trace A3) – 3 det A = 0, and x, y, z N. Let the number of elements in set
S1, S2 and S3 be 2, and respectively.
49. Then is divisible by
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 7
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Consider a tetrahedron Die that has four integers 1, 2, 3 and 4 written on its faces. Roll the Die 2000
times and for each i, 1 i 4 let f(i) represent the number of times i is written on the bottom face.
Let A denote total sum of the numbers on the bottom face for these 2000 rolls, it A4 = 6144 f(1) f(2) f(3)
f(4), then
f 1 f 2
51. The value of is equal to
f 4
f 2
(A)
f 4
f 2
(B)
f 3
f 1
(C)
f 2
(D) none of these
52. Let g(x) is a polynomial equation such that, g(x) = 0, has all real roots, where
4 3 2
let g(x) = x + (f(1) – d)x + (f(2) – c)x + (f(3) – b)x + (f(4) – a), a, b, c, d R |g(–i)| = 1, where
i 1 , then which of the following is/are INCORRECT?
(A) g(5) > 4
(B) g(5) = 2000
(C) c+d<a+b
(D) g(4) > f(4)
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 8 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
4 1 a a3
53. Let A and A100 1 , then value of a1 + a4 is equal to _____
9 2 a 2 a4
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
7 2 x 2 12
54. Let f x 6 x 2 12 3 , then the number of real roots of f(x) = 0 is equal to _____
2
x 12 2 7
2 2 2 3 3 3 1 a 1 b 1 c
55. For real a, b, c; a + b + c = 2, a + b + c = 6 and a + b + c = 8, then is
5
equal to _____
2 2 20
1 1 1
56. If Rn 1 1 1 1 , where n 1, then
n n
R is equal to _____
n 1 n
57. The radius of circumscribing sphere of a regular tetrahedron the coordinates of whose vertices
are A(0, 0, 0), B(3, 0, 0), C(0, 3, 0), D(0, 0, 3) is R, then [R], is equal to _____ (where [.] denotes
the greatest integer function)
x 1 y 2 z 2
58. A variable line passing through the point of intersection of the lines
7 1 5
and x + 3 = y – 4 = –z. If S(x, y, z) = 0 is the locus of mirror image of the point (8, 3, –7) in the
variable line and S(x, y, z) = 0 is locus of foot of the perpendicular from (8, 3, –7) to the variable
line, then the ratio of volumes of S to S is equal to _____
a1 a2 a3
59. Let P a4 a5 a6 , where ai {0, 1, 2} i {1, 2, 3, ....., 9}. If possible values of det(P) are
a7 a8 a9
P1, P2, P3, ....., Pn, then P1 + P2 + P3 + ..... + Pn is equal to _____
60. Let R be the number of non-empty subsets of the set {1, 2, 3, ....., 9) satisfying the property that
no two consecutive numbers are elements of a set, then number of prime divisors of R
is/are_____
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2019
PAPER –2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
1. B, C
Sol. ma 200x 100(L x)
300 1
a x
3 3
So, = 10 rad/s
10 1
For amplitude, 10 A 2
3 9
2
A m
3
T T T 2
So, t AB , where T sec
12 4 3 10
1 4 200
and Eosc (3)(100) J
2 9 3
2. A, C
n2 Z Z2
Sol. From Bohr’s theory, R , V and E 2
z n n
3. A, C
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
4. A, C
Sol. Cut off wavelength depends upon the accelerating potential difference so it will remain same and
characteristic lines are dependent upon the energy gap between the energy levels of the
elements. So these may change.
5. A
Sol. Difference in the outer and inner water levels always remains the same. Then the pressure
difference across the hole remains same.
6. C
3
42 r0
Sol. From Kepler’s law, T 2
4 2
G r03
3
7. B
Sol. consider the case for M 0 and M
8. B
Sol. (1) sin = n() sin
dn() d
So, 0 = sin n( )cos
d d
sin 1 dn( )
d d
cos n( ) d
tan dn( )
n( ) d
9. B, C
10. C
Sol. (for Q. 9-10)
Applying Bernoulli’s theorem between top and bottom of chimney
1
P s gh s v 2 P0 , where v = Q/A
2
1 Q2
So, P P0 s gh s 2 P0 a gh
2 A
2
sQ
So, h
2(a s )A 2 g
a Ts Ta Q2
For ideal gas, , So h =
s Ta 2gA 2 T
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3 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
11. B
12. B
Sol. (for Q. 11 to 12)
B
For small , n =
So, = (n 1)
Initial photon momentum per unit time = P/c
Final photon momentum per unit time A
P 2rdr 2P 2
2 cos 2 1 rdr
c c 2
2P (n 1)r 2 r C
= 1 rdr , Because
c 2 0 2R2 R n 1
P (n 1)2
1
c 4R2
mg4R2 c
So, P
(n 1)2 2
P
No. of photons/time =
hf
SECTION – C
13. 1
Sol. sin 45 = sin r r = 30 A
From BQR and CSR
BQ BR
45 45
SC RC Q S
P i T
RC h 45 i i i 45
h 3 C
BR B M R
i = 45+ r = 75
QM
So, tan15 , so MR = 12 cm
MR
So, BR = 15 cm and RC = 5 cm
So, h = 1cm
14. 9
1 1 1
Sol. In Ist case: v 1 = 6 cm
v1 3 2
When one lens is removed, the new focal length of the objective is
1 1 1 1 1
f = 2.5 cm
f f f1 2 10
The new position of image is
1 1 1
v 2 3 2.5
v2 = 15 cm
So, shifting = 15 6 = 9 cm
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
15. 2
Sol. m A c 2 K A mB c 2 K B mCc 2 K C excitation energy
So, K C 2 MeV
16. 9
B
2 2 2
Sol. Intensity at the surface of sphere = 2 f (R)
B
So, total power = 2 2 f 2 ( R)2 4 R 2
= 8 3 Bf 2R2 ( R)2 9 Watt.
17. 6
1 1 A2 V2
Sol. P2 P 1 =
2
V12 V22 2 2 2 V22
2 A1
1 2 1
V22 A 22 A1 V22
2 2
From the graph,
1 2 2 300 103 1
V2 A 2 N/m2 and V22 300 103 N/m2
2 16 2
1
So, A 2 m2 and V2 600 m/s
4
So, volume rate Q = A2V2 = 6 m3/s
18. 4
rm2
Sol. For newton’s ring, t
2R R
For fringe system to disappear completely
1
2t m 1 m 2
2 t
2t 2t 1 rm
So,
1 2 2
2 1 1
So, 2t
12 2
rm2 2 107 1
So, 2 14
2R 16 10 2
rm = 4 102 m
19. 2
Sol. Refraction at the air and core (at x = 0) interface gives
(1) sin i = n1 sin r
Now for refraction at various parallel interfaces at different x.
n1 cos r = n1 sin = n cos
2
sin2
So, n cos = n1 1
n12
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5 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
9 1
n12 sin2 i = 2
4 4
20. 3
Sol. Both the lenses must be converging
If x is the distance of object from the first lens
f
So, m1 1 where f 1 is focal length of first lens
f1 x
f2
and m2 where f 2 is focal length of the second lens and L is separation between
xf1
f2 L
f1 x
the lenses.
xf1
f2 L
1 f x x f1 L x f1 f2 L
So, 1 = 1
M1 m1m2 f1 f2 f2 f1f2
When the lenses are interchanged, in the above expression only the second term changes
1 L x f1 f2 L
So, 1
M2 f1 f1f2
1 1 1 1
L L D1 D2
M1 M2 f1 f2
1 1
So, 1 – = (D1 – D2)
4 4
D1 – D2 = 3 diopter
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
21. A, B, C, D
Sol. Facts.
22. A, B, C, D
Sol. Facts.
23. B
Sol. CaCO3 CaO CO2
100 gm sample contains 80 gm CaCO3
80
Moles of CaCO3 0.8
100
Moles of CaO formed = 0.8 mole
0.8
Molarity 1000 4.0
200
24. A, B, D
25. A, B, C, D
26. A, B, C
Sol. For feasibility of reaction Eo ve & Go ve
[Fe Fe2 2e ]5
[MnO 4 5e 8H Mn2 4H2O] 2
5Fe 2MnO4 8H 2Mn2 5Fe2 8H2 O
G1o 2 F 0.44
Go2 5 F 1.51
Go3 10 FEo 5G1o 2Go2
Eo 0.44 1.51 1.95
Fe 2 Fe3 e
MnO 4 5e 8H Mn2 8H2O
5Fe2 MnO4 8H Mn2 8H2O Fe3
Eo 0.771 1.51 = 0.739
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7 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
27. A
Sol. T1V11 T2 V2 1
8/6
2/6
T1 1 T1 300
T2 2/ 6
100
27 3 3
28. A, C
Sol. G H TS
V2
TS 2.303nRT log
V1
10
2.303 1 8.314 300log
1
= 5744.14 J mol-1 K-1
29. B
30. A, B, C, D
Sol. (for Q. 29 to 30)
Mn NO3 2 MnO2 2NO2
MnO2 Conc. H2 SO4
MnSO 4 O2 H2 O
O
MnSO 4 NaOH Mn OH2
2
MnO OH 2
White Brown
H
PbO2 MnSO 4 HMnO 4 Pb2
Purple
H
Mn2 NaBiO3 HMnO 4 Bi3
H
Mn2 IO 4 HMnO 4 IO3
Starch
NO2 KI
Paper Blue spot
31. B
Non resonating
Benzene
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
32. A, B
Sol.
5H2 H 5 28.6 143 kcal / mole
SECTION – C
33. 5
Sol. O O O
Cr O
O
O
O O
34. 3
r
Sol. 0.155 0.225, trigonal planar.
r
35. 7
63.5
Sol. W zit 6 59 60
2 96500
= 7 gm
36. 5
28
Sol. N 5
5.6
37. 8
101.8 100
Sol. %SO3 80 8
18
38. 5
5
Sol. x
3
5
y 5 5
3
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9 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
39. 7
Sol. 760 poA X A pBo XB
760 500X A 900 1 X A
XA = 0. 35
n 0.35 20 7
40. 4
3
Sol. 2Al O2 Al2 O3 H 399.0 kcal
2
3
2Fe O2 Fe2O3 H 199.0 kcal
2
By using these. We get
2Al Fe2 O3 Al2O3 2Fe H 200 kcal
54 160
Vol. of fusion mixture = vol. of Al + vol. of Fe2O3 50 ml
3 5
200
Fuel value 4 kcal / ml
50
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
SECTION – A
41. A, B, C, D
Sol. Let f x xn 1 x
Un
1 2 1
i i i 1 i 1
n n
Un
A =
Un Un 1n1
Un
42. A, D
3 1 0 0 ... 1 1 00...
3 1 0...
1 3 10 0... 0 3
1
Sol. Rn 0 1 Rn 3 0 1
0
. 0 . 0
. n 1n1
. . nn
. . n1n 1
Rn = 3Rn – 1 – Rn – 2
Rn + Rn – 2 = 3Rn – 1
43. B, C, D
T T
Sol. P T P Q Q T P Q |P + Q| = 0, P T P I P I
Either |P| |P – I| = –|P – I| or |Q||Q – I| = –|Q – I|, because |P| |Q| < 0
P P1 Q1 Q P Q P1 Q 1 P Q 0
44. B, C
Sol. Shown in the figure
Im
C2 R e, C 1 , || 1
–1 1 –1 1
45. B, C, D
5 balls 9 balls
Rg green 8 Rg green
Sol.
5 Rg red Rg 1 red
Re d box Green box
So, Gr = Rg + 1
Rg + Gr = 2Rg + 1 (cannot be even number)
1 2Rg + 1 11
6
C5 8 C4 6 C1 213
For Rg + Gr non-prime Rg = 0 or 4 so the probability = 14
C5 1001
46. A, B, C, D
Sol. The each number a1a2 ..... a5 will correspond to a term in expansion
a 1
1
a12 ..... a17 a12 a22 ..... a72 a13 ..... a73 ..... a15 a52 ..... a75
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11 AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19
5
So find sum of coefficient of x , x , x
3k 2k 4k
in expansion of x1 ..... x 7 , for the A, B, C
5
respectively (where k N), if k = 33 then number possible case will be 5 + C2 = 15
47. B, D
1
C3 4 C3
Sol. P r
, P r 1
C3 3 C3
2 2
Equality value of P, r
11
108
r 10
11
rmax = 88, can not 6 as r will not be integer
48. B, C, D
Sol. There are 8 steps between (0, 0) and (3, 5) so A and B can be meet at (0, 4), (1, 3), (2, 2) and
(3, 1) point
Let ai and bi denote the number of paths to Pi from (0, 0) to (3, 5) respectively, because A has to
take r steps to right and B has to take r + 1 steps down the number of ways A and B can meet at
Pi is
ai · bi = 4Ci · 4Ci + 1, because A and B can each take 24 path in 4 ways, so probability they will meet
1 3
is 8 aibi
2 i0
49. A, C
50. C, D
Sol. xyz = (23 32 5), number of possible triplet of (x, y, z) are = 5C2 4C2 3C2 = 180
so 2 = 8 180 = 1440, if x + y + z = even so possible cases are odd + odd + even,
even + even + even
For odd + odd + even, total number of cases = 54
For even + even + even, total number of cases = 18, so = 72
Trace of A3 = x3 + y3 + z3, x3 + y3 + z3 = 3xyz Either x = y = z or x + y + z = 0 , so = 0
51. A, C
Sol. f(1) + f(2) + f(3) + f(4) = 2000, By A.M. G.M., A4 6144 f(1) f(2) f(3) f(4)
Only equality holds true so f(1) = 2f(2) = 3f(3) = 4f(4)
so f(1) = 960, f(2) = 480, f(3) = 320, f(4) = 240
52. B, C, D
Sol. Let g(x) = (x – )(x – )(x – )(x – ), , , , are the roots of polynomial g(x) = 0
1 1 2 1 2 1 y 2 1 2 = = = = 0
4
So, g(x) = x and f(1) = d, f(2) = c, f(3) = b, f(4) = a
SECTION – C
53. 2
3 1 0 0
Sol. A = B + I, B , B2
9 3 0 0
54. 4
Sol. f(x) = 0, has five distinct and real roots
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AITS-PT-III (Paper-2)-PCM(Sol.)-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
55. 0
Sol. a 2 , ab 1 , abc = –2
So, a, b, c are roots and equation x3 – 2x2 – x + 2
(a, b, c) = (1, –1, 2)
56. 7
1 1
n2 n 1 n2 n 1 , find R1, R2, ....., R20 it will be a telescopic sum
2 2
Sol.
Rn 4
57. 2
58. 8
x 1 y 2 z 2
Sol. Point Q(8, 3, –7) lies on the line , let P is point of intersection of the given
7 1 5
lines P(–6, 1, 3)
S is sphere with radius PQ and S is sphere with diameter PQ
59. 0
Sol. If possible value the value of det P is k, then –k al also possible for each positive k
60. 2
Sol. Let an is total of such subset for a n number of element set . So in that subset let either 1, is
appeared or not, if 1 appeared then total number of subset will be an – 2, if 1 is not appeared total
number of subset is an – 1,
so an = an – 1 + an – 2 provide a1 = 1, a2 = 2 find a9 = 55
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2018-19
PAPER –1
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01– 07, 19 – 25, 37 - 43) contains 21 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 mark
for wrong answer
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.
Section-A (08 – 13, 26 – 31, 44 - 49) contains 18 questions. Each of 2 Tables with 3 Columns and
4 Rows has three questions. Column 1 will be with 4 rows designated (I), (II), (III) and (IV).
Column 2 will be with 4 rows designated (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Column 3 will be with 4 rows
designated (P), (Q), (R) and (S).
Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark
for wrong answer.
Section-C (14 – 18, 32 – 36, 50 - 54) contains 15 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
Z
1.
The electric field in the space is given by E E0 xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ .
Consider a right circular cylindrical surface whose radius is ‘a’
and height ‘h’, as shown in the figure.
Now choose the correct option(s).
Y
X O
Ans. A, B, C
Sol. Let, S1, S2 and S3 be the surface areas of the lower circular base, upper circular top and lateral
surface of the cylinder respectively.
1 E.dS 0 …(1)
S1
2 E.dS a2hE0 …(2)
S2
3 E.dS E0 r .dS …(3)
S3 S3
xiˆ yjˆ x2 y 2
r .dS xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ .
a dS
a
dS
Putting this value in equation (3), we have
3 aE0 dS aE0 2ah 2a 2hE0
S3
Second Method
E 3E 0 30E0
0 0
Qen Total charge enclosed within the cylinder = a2h
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3 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
3 a2h0E0
Q
Total flux = en 3a2hE0
0
2. Consider two current carrying loops in x-y plane, carrying current I1 and I2 respectively as shown
in the figure.
y
D
A C x
B I2
I1
Loop-2
Loop-1
Now consider two arbitrary elementary current elements AB & CD of lengths d 1 and d 2 on the
loop-1 and loop-2 respectively. Let dF12 be the force which the current carrying element I2 d 2
exerts on the current carrying element I1d 1 & F12 represent the net force on 1st loop by the 2nd
loop, developed due to interaction between current carrying loops. Similarly dF21 be the force
which the current carrying element I1 d 1 exerts on the current carrying element I2 d 2 & F21
represent the net force on 2nd loop by the 1st loop, developed due to interaction between current
carrying loops. Choose the correct option(s)
(A) dF12 dF21 0
(B) dF12 dF21 0
(C) F12 F21 0
(D) F12 F21 0
Ans. B, C
Sol. dB12 Magnetic field at any point on the elementary element AB due to current carrying element
I2d 2 .
0 I2 d r12
dB12
4 r12 3
dF12 I1d 1 dB12
0 I1d 1 I2 d 2 r12
3
4 r12
The force dF12 will be in the plane of loop and perpendicular to the current carrying element I1d i
(say along p̂12 ).
Similarly dF21
0 I2 d 2 I1d 1 r21 [Say along p̂21 ]
3
4 r21
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 4
3. Consider an isolated sphere of radius ‘b’, made of a material with permittivity 0 and electrical
conductivity , whose volume charge density varies with time t and is given as
e t / if 0 r a
0
0 if a r
Where 0 and 0 < a < b. The spherical layer between radii ‘a’ and ‘b’ is neutral. Then choose
the correct option(s).
a3 0
(A) The surface charge density at outer surface of sphere is at t n2.
8b2
(B) The total current in the region 0 < r < a increases with the radius.
(C) The electric field in the region b < r < is independent of time.
(D) The total current in the region a < r < b is independent of radius.
Ans. B, C, D
4 3 t /
a 0 e Q0 e t / if 0ra
Sol. Q t 3
0 if a r b
4 3
Here Q0 a 0
3
According Gauss’ Law, we can write
Q0 r e t /
3
if 0 r a
40 a
t /
Q e
E 0 2 if a r b
40 r
Q
0
2
if b r
40 r
Using conservation of charge we can write surface charge density at the outer surface of sphere
as,
Q Q t Q0
0
4 b 2
4b2
1 e t /
1
If t n2 1 e n2 ,
2
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5 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
3
4 3 1 1 a 0
So, a 0
3 4b2 2 6b2
J = current density = E
I = current = Jr2
Hence in the region 0 r a, the volume is source of conduction current while the region a < r <
b has no source of conduction current.
4. The variation of potential along x-axis is shown in the figure. The potential does not vary along
the y-axis or z-axis. Ignore the behaviour at the end points of interval. Now choose the correct
option(s) for given interval –3m < x < 3m.
Vx(in volt)
b
15
e
10
5 c d
X(metre)
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3
–5
a –10
(B) An electron is released at point (– 1m, 0), it will move along positive x-axis.
(C) A proton is released at point (1.5 m, 0), it will move along positive x-axis.
(D) An electron is released at point (– 2.5 m, 0), it will move along positive x-axis.
Ans. A, D
Sol. Ex
10/3
x
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3
–25
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
–5Q
X
O P(3a, 0)
(0, –4a)B
+3Q
(A) Work was done on the external agent who assembled these charges in moving them
from infinity to the point.
(B) The electric field at point P is Ep E X ˆi E y ˆj, then Ex is negative and Ey is positive.
(C) The electric field at point P is Ep E x ˆi E y ˆj, then both Ex and Ey are negative.
975Q
(D) A positive charge has to be put at point P to make the potential energy of system
8
of all four point charges to be zero.
Ans. A, C
L R
V
(A) I
R
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7 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
V
(B) I
2R
L
(C) R
2C
L
(D) R
C
Ans. B, D
V
Rt
V RCt
Sol. I1 1 e
, and
L
I2 e
R R
According to question at t = RCn2, we have
Rt Rt t
V V RCt
I1 I2 1 e
L
e 1 e L
e RC
…………..( 1)
R R
t
1
Given t = RCn2 e RC e n2 , Putting this value in equation (1), we have
2
L
R
C
Rt Rt
1 1 Rt R
1 e L e L n2 RCn2 n2
2 2 L L
(A) The rod will perform periodic motion, but not SHM
4
(D) The amplitude of oscillation of rod is metre.
Ans. B, C, D
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 8
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each having 3
columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer 8, 9 and 10 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns
of the following table.
V0
A
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9 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Column –1 shows the processes. Column –2 shows the work done in that process and Column
–3 shows the energy supplied in that process.
Column – 1 Column – 2 Column – 3
Ans. A
Ans. C
Ans. C
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
R
C CV
1 x
3R R
R
2 2
The work done by the gas during the process BC is
nRT 2R 900
WBC 900R
1 x 1 3
5R
Q AB nCpT 2 1200 300 4500R
2
QBC nCT 2 R 300 1200 1800R
V
QCA WCA nRT0 ln 0 2R300 3n2 1800R 0.7 1260R
8V0
Wcycle Qcycle Q AB QBC QCA 4500R 1800R 1260R = 1440 R
Wcycle 1440R
Efficiency, 100 100 32%
Qsup plied 4500R
Answer 11, 12 and 13 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
R2 i2
Vb R1
C qi
ib i1 K
11. In which of the following cases, will the current i1 = 5/3 A, initially?
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11 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Ans. B
12. In which of the following cases will the net charge flowing through the capacitor be equal to 300
C?
Ans. C
13. In which case will the current through R decay exponentially to zero with a time constant of 0.2
ms?
Ans. B
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
Ans. 4
Sol. Since rate of heat flow remains same in both the cases, so
2R R
dx dx
R k2 x R nk 4k n = 4
4
nk 2 x 2
Ans. 3
8 2 2 6 8V 6V
Sol. I = I1 + I2 + I3 + I4 = 8V 10 V 4V
10 8 4 2 O
32 10 20 120 78
Amp
40 40 10 I1 8 I2 4 I3 2 I4 A
I
O O O
O
16. To disperse all the mass of the Earth to infinity against its own gravitational field would require
2.4 1032J of energy. Mass of the earth is 6 1024 kg and radius of earth is 6400 km. Since earth
is mostly iron, therefore, its specific heat capacity is about 500J kg1 K1. Assuming that the earth
was formed by very cold objects falling from a great distance away, if its maximum possible
temperature soon after its formation is 104 K. Find the value of
Ans. 8
Ans. 4
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13 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Sol. C1 120 a C1
4 0 b a
C2 8 0 a
ba
A B
C eq C1 C2 200 a
C2
18. A current I = 20 ampere flows through a wire shaped in the form of an infinite parabola of latus
rectum 4a (a = 1 mm). If the magnetic field at the focus of the parabola is 10 tesla, where
and are the positive integer, less than 9. Find the value of .
Ans. 6
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(More Than One Correct Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
(A) Major part of energy needed for the heterolysis of C – X bond in SN1 reaction mechanism
-
is obtained by the solvation of X by polar protic solvent.
(B) Greater solvation of attacking nucleophile and poor solvation of transition state promotes
the reaction by SN2 mechanism.
(C) Increase in the number of phenyl ring at C of C – X causes a shift in mechanism from SN1
to SN2.
(D) Allyl and benzyl halides shows both SN1 and SN2 reaction.
Ans. B, C
(A) NH2 – NH2 does not give Lassaigne’s test for detection of nitrogen.
O O
|| ||
(D) NH2 C NH C NH2 gives Biuret test.
Ans. A, B, D
Sol. HgCl2 HCOOH Hg CO2 2HCl
Grey deposit
21. CH3
Na O
Liq.NH A
Zn Product
3
3
Which of the following product can be obtained as major product(s) in above reaction?
(A) O O
H C CH2 C H
(B) O O
H3C C CH2 C H
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15 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(C) CHO
H3C HC
CHO
(D) O O
H3C C CH2 C CH3
Ans. A, B
22. The major product A and B in the following reaction sequence are:
O
i NaBH
Dimer ii TsOH
4
A B
(A) O
(B) O
(C) O
(D)
C
Ans. B, D
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
Sol. O
O
4 2 cycloaddition
O O
NaBH4
OH
H OH
C H
TsOH
CH3
O O
+
O
O
23. Which of the followings will give cyclic product upon heating?
(A) COOH
H3C CH2 CH2 CH2 HC
OH
(B) OH
H3C CH CH2 CH2 CH2 COOH
(C) OH
H3C CH2 CH CH2 CH2 COOH
(D) OH
Ans. A, B, C
O
B, C form lactone
H3C O O H 5C 2 O O
(A) In carboxylate, nucleophile prefer to attack on acyl carbon while in sulfonates nucleophile
prefer to attack on alkyl carbon.
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17 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Ans. A, B, C
Sol. O O
Nu
R C OR R C Nu R O
O O
Nu
R S OR
R S O R Nu
O O
Sulfonoic acid is stronger acid than carboxylic acid.
(A) Sucrose has a pyranose and a furanose ring hold together by glycosidic linkage.
(B) Maltose has one glycosidic linkage and free hemiaccetal form
(D)
Go for reaction, D Glucose
D Glucose, is positive .
Ans. A, B
D Glucose
D Glucose
Sol.
36% 64%
64% 16
K eq 1.77
36% 9
Go 2.303RT logk eq ve
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each having 3
columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer Q. 26, Q. 27 and Q. 28 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 18
Ans. B
Ans. A
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19 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Ans. B
Answer Q. 29, Q. 30 and Q. 31 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
HCHO
COOH
Formaldehyde
Ans. A
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 20
Ans. B
Ans. C
SECTION – C
Single Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
32.
KOH
EtOH
Br
A B C
1.99 gram of A on above reaction produces 1.062 gram mixture of B and C ratio of 2 : 1. if
percentage of B formed will be x % then find the value of x/10.
Ans. 6
118 1.99
Sol. The theoretical yield will be 1.18 gram
199
1.062
Hence percentage yield will be 100% 90%
1.18
2
Hence, B formed will be 90% 60%
3
x = 6.
33.
NH2
NaNO2
HCl, A
B
COOH
What is the double bond equivalent of B.
Ans. 6
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21 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Sol.
NH2
COOH
34. How many of given below compounds will form red colour with HNO2 and followed by addition of
NaOH?
(CH3)2CHNO2, CH3CH2-NO2, (CH3)3NO2,
H
C NO 2
NO 2 ,
,
H3C HC NO 2
Ans. 1
Sol. HNO2
CH3 CH2 NO 2 NaOH
CH3 C NO 2 CH3 C NO2
+
N OH N ONa
Nitrolic acid Red colour
35. Find the number of nucleophile whose nucleophilicity is greater than pyridine in SN2 reaction
RS , ArS ,I ,CN ,OH ,F ,NO3
Ans. 5
i TsOH
ii A B
O
How many oxygen atoms are there in B.
Ans. 2
Sol. O
Ph P CHCOOEt C
Ph CHO
3
Ph LiAlH4
OEt Ph OH
A
O
i TsOH
ii A Ph O
O
B
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 22
SECTION – A
tanb
37. If obtuse angle bisectors of the lines tan2 bx + 4y + 7 = 0 and x y2 0; b , is
4 2 2
tanb
x y 2
tan2 bx 4y 7 4
, then b can lie in the interval
tan4 b 16 2
tan b
1
16
(A) 4 , 12
(B) 4, 0
(C) 12 , 18
(D) 12 , 4
Ans. A, B, C
(A) 31
(B) [ + ] = 18
(C) 2
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23 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
2
(D) 11
Ans. A, B, C, D
4x
39. If f x sin1 , then
4 x2
(A) f
8 2 2 tan1 2 1
2
(B) f 12 3 3
3 1 3
(C) f 2 tan
8 2 8 2
(D) f 2 tan1
2
Ans. A, B, C, D
1 x
2 tan ; x 2
2
4x x
Sol. sin1 2
2 tan1 ; 2 x 2
4 x 2
x
2 tan1 ; x2
2
Ans. A, B, C
Sol. 12 2 2 2 2 2 2 5 2
Line is y = x + 2 and P(, + 2) is any point on this line and A (2, 5) and B(–1, 2)
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41. Let ABC be a triangle and D be the mid-point of side BC. Suppose DAB = BCA and DAC =
15º, then
Ans. A, C
AD BD CD AD
Sol. ,
sinB sin sin 15º sin
Finally, we get ADC is obtuse
42. A hexagon inscribed in a circle has three consecutive sides of length 3 and three consecutive
sides of length 5, and then the radius of the circle is
7
(A)
3
5
(B)
2
(C) 2 3
(D) 4
Ans. A
20 20
43. If S tan1 , then S is equal to
1 1
(A) 100
(B) 300
(C) 400
(D) 225
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25 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Ans. A
20 20
Sol. S tan1 = 20 190 100
1 1 4 2
(Matching Type)
(Matching type - Single Correct Option)
This section contains SIX questions of matching type. The section contains TWO tables (each having 3
columns and 4 rows). Based on each table, there are THREE questions. Each question has FOUR
options (A), (B), (C), and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
Answer Q. 44, Q. 45 and Q. 46 by appropriately matching the information given in the three
columns of the following table.
Column-1: contains the curve; Column-2: number of irrational points on the curve; Column-3: number of
integral points on the curve (irrational points means both coordinates are irrational and integral points
means both coordinates are integer)
Ans. A
Ans. C
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Ans. D
x2
Sol. (II) For
35
y2 1 , 35 cos , sin
35 k 35
Let tan k 35 , 2
1 35k 1 35k
2
1 35k 2 1
Let k , k 2 k 2
35 35
1
k k k k infinite possible ways
35
(III) For x2 – y2 = (200)2, (x – y)(x + y) = 24 54
Let (x > 0, y > 0) assign one 2 to each (x + y) and (x – y)
35 1
Now, number of ways = 7
2
So, total integral points = 30
(IV) Number of integral points on x4 – y4 = 2401 is 2
Answer Q.47, Q.48 and Q.49 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns
of the following table.
Column-1: contains conics; Column-2: number of common tangents; Column-3: number of common
normals
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27 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Ans. A
Ans. C
Ans. B
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 28
SECTION – C
(One Integer Value Correct Type)
This section contains 5 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to 9
(both inclusive).
3x 2
50. If a chord AB of the curve y is a normal to the curve at a point A, subtending an angle
x2
sin PAB
at the point P(2, 3). Then the value of is equal to _____
sin PAB
Ans. 3
51. Assuming that no three circles passing through same points and every two circles intersects in
two distinct points. If the number of regions that points are created by 7 mutually non over-lapping
circles in a plane is 11k, then k is _____
Ans. 4
Ans. 6
Sol. c (1, 1); The axes are the bisectors of the angle between the asymptotes
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29 AITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
x 12 y 12 2 7
So,
x 1 y 1 6
2 2
2x – 3xy – 2y – x + 7y – 3 = 0
x2 y2
53. From the point (1, 1) normals are drawn to the ellipse 1 , then locus of conormal points
9 4
2 2
is 1xy + 2x + 3y + 4x + 5y + 6 = 0, then 1 + 2 + 3 – 4 – 5 – 6 is equal to _____
Ans. 0
54. Three circles C1, C2 and C3 with radii 2, r, 8 respectively are given. They are placed such that C2
lies to the right of C1 and touches it externally, C3 lies to the right of C2 and touches it externally.
Further, there exist two straight lines each of which is a direct common tangent simultaneously to
all three circles, then r is _____
Ans. 4
Sol. r 28
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2018-19
PAPER – 2
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section-C & Section-D.
Section-A (01 – 03, 24 – 26, 47 – 49) contains 9 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-A (04 – 08, 27 – 31, 50 – 54) contains 15 multiple choice questions which have one or
more than one correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –2 mark
for wrong answer.
Partial Marks +1 for each correct option provided no incorrect options is selected.
Section-A (09 – 10, 32 – 33, 55 – 56) contains 3 paragraphs. Based upon paragraph, 2 multiple
choice questions have to be answered. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3
marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
Section-C (11 – 20, 34 – 43, 57 – 66) contains 30 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-D (21 – 23, 44 – 46, 67 – 69) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
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Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D)
out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A conducting disc of conductivity has radius a and thickness . A uniform magnetic field B is
applied in a direction perpendicular to the plane of the disc. If the magnetic field changes with
time at the rate of dB/dt, then the power dissipated in the disc due to the induced current.
2
a4 dB
(A)
8 dt
2
a4 dB
(B)
12 dt
2
a4 dB
(C)
4 dt
2
a4 dB
(D)
6 dt
Ans. A
Sol. Consider two circles of radii r and r + dr concentric with the disc
(0 < r < a) (figure). The induced e.m.f. in the circular path of
radius r is a
d dB O r
dt
r 2B r 2
dt
. dr B
The resistance of the circular path between radii r and r + dr is
1 2r
R ,
dr B
The length of the path being 2r and the cross sectional area of
current flow being dr. The power dissipated inside this path is
2
2 dB 3
dP r dr.
R 2 dt
The total dissipated power P is
2 a 2
dB 3 a 4 dB
P r dr .
2 dt 0
8 dt
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3 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
Ans. B
E
Sol. Initial current in R3, ii
R1 R3
E R2 R2E
Final current if =
R 2R 3 R2 R3 R1(R2 R3 ) R2R3
R1
R 2 R3
E
If =
R1R 3
R1 R3
R2
As if < ii, so current in the resistor R3 will decrease.
3. A straight segment OP of length L of a circuit carrying current I ampere is placed along x-axis.
Two infinitely long straight wires A and B each extending from z = to + are fixed at y =
meter to y = + meter respectively. Wires A and B, each carry current I ampere along positive z-
axis. Given that O is origin of the coordinate system. The magnitude of force on segment OP is
0 2 L2
(A) I n 1 2
0 2 L2
(B) I n 1 2
2
0 2 2
(C) I n 1 2
L
0 2 2
(D) I n 1 2
2 L
Ans. B
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5.10
Ans. B, C
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5 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
V
~
(A) Voltage across resistor, inductor and capacitor are 50 V, 86.6 V and 186.6 V respectively.
(B) Voltage across resistor, inductor and capacitor are 50 V, 86.6, 206.6V respectively.
5
(C) Circuit is capacitive and power factor is .
13
5
(D) Circuit is inducting and power factor is .
13
Ans. B, C
Sol. Let voltage across resistor, inductor and capacitor be VR , VL and VC . Also since V2 V1 so
VC VL .
2
VR2 VL2 V12 1002 and VC VL 120 and VR2 VC VL 130 2
Solving VR 50V, VL 86.6 V, VC 206.6 V
VR 50 5
Power factor = cos
VZ 130 13
V
(A) Maximum charge on the sphere A is 80 aL .
R
V
(B) Maximum charge on the sphere B is 40 aL .
R
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 6
Ans. A, C, D
V 3C I L 6C
Sol. I0 , 3C 4 0 a 3 C 40 a
R
dI –q q –q q
0
dt
q q dI
L 0
3C 6C dt
d2 q q d2 q q
L 2
0 2
0
dt 2C dt 2LC
1
q q0 sin t, I q0 cos t,
2LC
I0
At t 0, I I0 q0 I0 2LC
V
q0 80 aL
R
2
T 2 80 aL
T
23 0 aL
4
(A) The minimum distance during subsequent motion between the balls of mass m is
6q2
3q 16m 0 v 2
2
(B) The minimum distance during subsequent motion between the balls of mass m is
3q2
3q2 16m 0 v 2
(C) The maximum difference in electrostatic potential energy of the system during
2mv 2
subsequent motion is
3
(D) The maximum difference in electrostatic potential energy of the system during
4mv 2
subsequent motion is
3
Ans. A, C
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7 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
4mv 2v
Sol. v CM
6m 3
In centre of mass frame
Gain in P.E. = Loss in KE
q2 1 1 2 4mv 2
2mv
40 D 2 3
6q2
D
3q2 16m0 v 2
8. The figure shows the variation of electrostatic potential V in volt with the distance of position of
point along x-axis from origin due to continuous volume charge distribution. In the region x = – 1m
to x = + 1m, the graph is parabolic (V = 15 – 5x2) and rest portion of graph is straight line. Choose
–12 –1 –2 2
the correct option(s) (0 permittivity of free space = 8.85 × 10 N m C ). The direction of E
along positive x-axis is considered as positive.
V (in volt)
2
15 V = 15 – 5x
B
A 10
5
(in metre)
–3 –2 –1 0 +1 +2 +3 X
(A) This graph of potential may be due to a thick sheet of infinite dimension (– 1m x 1, –
< y < and – < z < ) with constant volume charge density 1.77 × 10–10 C/m3.
(B) This graph of potential may be due to a thick sheet of infinite dimension (– 1m x 1, –
< y < and – < z < ) with constant volume charge density 0.885 × 10–10 C/m3.
X
O
X
O
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Ans. A, C
Sol. dV Edx xdx
20
V x
2
dv 20 xdx V V0
40
x , so
V0 0
V0 15 volt
5 200 20 8.85 10 12 1.77 10 10 C / m3
40
E y xS
E 2S
0
10 x
E
20
x X
O x = 1m
x
–10
Just melted
Wax-Box
Figure-I
2.5V
Figure-II
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9 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
One arm of the bridge containing the coil of resistance 50 is now
50 Wax-Box
immersed in a wax-box. The wax is just melted as shown in the figure-
III. It is now observed that the current through the galvanometer is 0.1
A.
G
–3 50
Given, temperature coefficient of resistance is 10 per °C.
Resistances other than inside wax-box are assumed to be constant Ig 0
50
and are exactly 50 while the resistance of wax box is very close to 50
50.
2.5V
Figure-III
9. The variation in the resistance inside the wax-box from its initial value of 50 is
(A) 1 104
(B) 2 104
(C) 4 10 4
(D) 8 104
Ans. D
(A) 0.004C
(B) 0.008C
(C) 0.016C
(D) 0.036C
Ans. C
Sol. 9-10.
When the four arms have equal resistances, the off-
balance galvanometer current for a small change R in the 50 Wax-Box
resistance of the third arm is
V R
IG B 2 .
8R G
50
Here IG 107 A, R 50, and VB 2.5V. Hence
8 107 25 102 50
R 8 10 4 . 50
2.5
2.5V
If the corresponding change in temperature is T, we have
RT R3 ,
–3
Where = temperature coefficient of resistance = 10 /°C.
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 10
8 104
Therefore, T 1.6 10 2 0.016C .
50 103
SECTION – C
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit Integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
Ans. 5
12. A long thin copper wire of the radius 2mm, carries a time-varying current I = t ampere (uniformly
distributed), then the induced electric field on its surface is equal to k X10–7 Vm–1. Find the value
of k. Take the induced field along the axis of the wire to be zero.
Ans. 1
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11 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
0
Es 107 Vm1 .
4
Clearly, Es is independent of the radius of the wire.
0 0
13. A conducting ring of radius R & mass 300 g, carrying current I 30 30
ampere as shown in the figure. A bar magnet with its north
pole up is placed along the symmetric axis below the
conducting ring at a distance of 2m from the centre of ring. At
0
the location of ring, the magnetic field makes an angle 30 2m
1
with vertical and its magnitude is Tesla. If ring remains at
3π N
rest in its position, find the product of current I in the ring and
radius R of ring in ampere-meter. g 10 m / s 2
Ans. 9
Sol.
Fmag mg B sin 30 I 2 R mg
mg 0.3 10 3 2
IR 9 A-m
2 B sin 30 2
14. A neutral metal sphere is placed at a large distance from a point charge. The magnitude of
Coulomb electrostatic interaction force between the charge and sphere is F0 . If the distance
between them is doubled, the new magnitude of Coulomb electrostatic interaction force between
n
the charge and sphere is 2 F0 . Find the value of n. (Assuming that the radius of sphere is very
small as compared to the distance between them)
Ans. 5
Sol. Due to induction, the sphere behaves as dipole whose dipole moment is directly proportional to
inducing field generated by point charge. So
a
p 2 , a is a constant and r is the distance between them.
r
bqp baq baq baq 5
p q
F0 3 5 F 5
5 5
2 F0
r r 2r 2 r r
15. On a sunny day, the temperature and pressure of atmosphere varying with height z from sea
level as
z z
T T0 1 , and P P0 1
z0 z0
Where T0 and z0, are 25°C and 25 km. The temperature A
pressure and density of air at sea level is T0 = 25°C, P0 =
1 atm and 1.2 kg/m3 respectively. Assume that air follows
T z
ideal gas law in the given condition, i.e., cons tan t.
P
Find the value of . Sea level
5 2 2
1 atm = 10 N/m and g = 10 m/s (g is uniform)
Ans. 3
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 12
Sol. dp gdz A
dp gT P
0 0
dz P0 T dz
PA
P z
dP g dz
0
P0
P P0 0 z
1
z0
z
P 0 gz0 z (P+dp)A
n n 1
P0 P 0 z 0
(Adz)g Sea level
Z
P P0 1 , where
Z0
gz 1.2 10 25 10 3
0 0 3
p0 105
C2 C4
C5
Ans. 3
Q Q 0 Q 8Q
Sol. 0 3Q 5Q0 5Q 0 Q0
C 3C 5
5
Q0 – Q
+Q0 3C +Q 3C
–Q0 5 –Q 5
–Q0 + Q
Just before closing the switch Just after closing the switch
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13 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
17. A point charge Q = 500 mC and mass B N
–6 I
m = 10 kg is moving in a uniform magnetic T
field B 1 tesla kˆ with speed v = 106 m/s and M
Ans. 4
mv T mvI
Sol. R1 R 2 T
qB BI Q
10 6 106 2
T 4 newton
500 103
V A
3V 6 mA
Ans. 5
Sol. x y 6 x 3.5 mA X R B 3R Y
x 1 y y 2.5mA A C
KVL:
V I=x–y
3.5R 500 2.5 3R 0
3R
4R = 500R = 125 A C
0.5 Y D X
R v 3 500 R
10
V A C
A
E C
3V
19. Particle A with charge 2q and mass mA, and particle B with charge 4q and mass m B are
accelerated with potential difference of V & 4 V respectively. Both particles are deflected by a
uniform magnetic field into semicircular paths. The radius of trajectories of particle A and B are R
and 2R respectively. The direction of magnetic field is perpendicular to the velocity. Find value of
mB
.
mA
Ans. 2
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 14
1
Sol. qV mv 2 mv 2qm V
2
mv 2qmV m V
R R
Bq Bq q
m A V mB 4V 1
R , & 2R
2q 4q 2
m A 1 1 m A 1 1 mA 1
. .
mB 2 2 mB 2 4 mB 2
Ans. 5
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
21. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. E1, E2 are sources of emf R1 = 3 E1 = 10 V
and R1, R2 are fixed resistances. E1 = 10V, E2 = 20V while R1 =
3, R2 = 2. The inductance L = 5 mH.
Take n 2 0.7, n3 1.1, n10 2.3.
The switch S is closed for a long time. The energy stored (in joule)
in the inductor is R2=2 L = 5 mH
S
E2=20V
Ans. 00000.25
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15 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Sol. After the switch S, has been closed for a long time, the current R1 E1
through the inductor L can be found using Kirchoff’s Law:
2
1 E
E2/R2 = I2. The stored energy is: L 2 . R2 L
2 R2
After the switch S is opened, the current through the inductor
L is given by:
i I1 1 eR t /L I2 e R t /L
where R R1 R 2 , E2 S
I1 E1 / R1 R2 ,
I2 E2 / R2 .
Ans. 00066.88
Sol. Let the two solenoids be S1 and S2, as shown in figure. The magnetic field at the centre-point p of
the gap due to the solenoid S1 is
NI NI
B1 0 [cos 1 cos 2 ] 0 cos 1 cos 2 ,
2L 2L
Where the angles 1 and 2 are as shown in figure. The field B1 is along the z-axis. By symmetry,
the field at p due to the solenoid S2 has the same magnitude and direction as B1. Thus the net
magnetic field at P is
NI
B 2B1 0 cos 1 cos 2 .
L
N/L = 40 cm1 4 103 m1, 0 4 107 Henry / m, and I 2A.
Therefore, B 4 107 4 103 2 0.907 .242 = 66.88 Gauss.
Ans. 00004.80
B 2 B22 B 2
Sol. e1
2
, e2
2
VN VM e2 e1
2
2 12 2BR 2 cos 4.8 volt
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 16
O
1 2R sin 2 2Rcos
2 2
M N M 1 O 2 N
1 2
M O
N
Second Method v N 2
1
v VN VM Rcos 2R
2
M
e Bv B 2R Rcos
2BR 2 cos
v M 1
3
2 0.1 10 4 4.8 Volt
5
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17 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which Only One is correct.
24. In the following reaction sequence the correct structure for the major products X & Y are
NO2
K 2CO 3 Sn HCl
X
Y
O
(A) O
X Y
NO2
Me N Et
H
(B) O
X Y OH
NO2 Me N Et
H
(C) HO Et HO Et
X Y
NO2 NH2
(D) HO Et HO Et
Y Y
NO2 NO2
Ans. B
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Sol. O
NO2
OH C 2H 5
O
NO2
Sn HCl
O
C
OH OH C2 H5
Me Et Me Et NH2
N N
H H
O
||
25. Compound A, C5H10O5 gives a tetraacetate with CH3 C O and oxidation of A with Br2 – H2O
2
gives an acid, C5H10O6. Reduction of A with red P and HI gives iso-pentane, there are two
possible structures for compound A which can be distinguished by using
(A) HIO4
(B) Red P + HI
Ans. C
Sol. H OH
CH2OH CHO
O OH
HO HO
OH
OH HO
(i) (ii)
(i) will form osazone derivatives whereas (ii) will not.
MeMgCl, CuCl
Cl
(A) O
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19 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(B)
O Me
(C)
O
CH3
(D) O
CH3
Ans. D
Sol. O O O
Cl
MeMgCl, CuCl
CH3 CH3
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which MORE THAN ONE is/are correct.
OH OH
OH
i CHCl
3 ,NaOH
ii H O
A
2 2
27.
CH3 CH3
(C) A is a aldehyde
(D) A on reaction with conc. H2SO4 produces a neutral gas which is a very good reducing
agent.
Ans. A, B, D
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Sol. OH O OH O
OH O
C CH O
H O CH
O H
OOH
CH3 CH3
CH3
CHCl3 / OH
OH
OH
OH
OH
HCOOH
CH3
CH3
Hence A will be HCOOH.
HCOOH + conc. H2SO4 CO
CO is a neutral gas as well as very good reducing agent.
28. An organic compound contains C, H, S, N and Cl, for detection of chlorine, the sodium extract of
compound is first heated with a few drop of conc. HNO3, and than AgNO3 is added to get a white
ppt. of AgCl, why was HNO3 added before the addition of AgNO3.
(C) To convert CN – and S-2 to volatile HCN and H2S, else they will interfere with the test
forming AgCN and Ag2S.
Ans. C
29. Br
MgEther NaNH
A
NH B
2
3
Cl
CH3
Ans. A, B, C, D
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21 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Sol. Br MgBr
Mg
Cl Cl
CH3 CH3 CH3
NaNH2
CH3 NH3
CH3
NH2 CH3 CH3
NH2
Dimer
Sn HCl
30. CH3 CH2 NO 2 X K Organic compound , then which of the following is/are
true for K?
Ans. A, C, D
SnHCl
Sol. CH3 CH2 NO2 CH3 CH2 NH2 K
1o amine form solid oxamide
2o amine form liquid oxamide
Liberman Nitroso test is given by 2o amine
2
Cu2 4C2H5NH2 Cu C 2H5NH2 4
Blue
31. In which case charge in transition state is more dispersed than starting material?
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 22
(A)
I NO 2
(B) Me
I
NO2
(C)
Me
I
NO2
(D)
NO 2
I
Ans. C
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23 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
(A) Cl
N
Me
O 2N
NO 2 Cl
I
NO2
(C)
N
H3C CH3
NO2
(D) NO 2
N Cl
H3C CH2
Ans. B
Hg2 , H /H O
2
NOBF
4
2
A B
NO 2
C
NO 2
ICl
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 24
H3C CH3
N Cl
Cl2 / AlCl3
CH3 2 NH
I I I
F
NO2 NO2 NO2
E D
This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to
9 (both inclusive).
34. 2.79 gm of nitrogenous compound on reaction with CS2 and HgCl2 forms a black ppt. of 0.09 mol.
If same amount of nitrogenous compound is reacted with HNO2. How many litres of gas at STP
would be formed.
Ans. 2
Ans. 3
Sol. O O O O
O
3
CH3 2 S
H3C C C H
Tollen's reagent
H3C C C OH C
B NaBH4
trans lactide cis lactide H3C CH C OH
d
OH O
D
36. Cl
H3C CH 2 CH 2 Cl2 , h
CH3
Monochlorination
Sol. x=6
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25 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
y=4
x y = 5
2
37. CH3
NaOEt i Sn HCl
COOEt 2 X
ii
Y
NO2
Find the number of -bond in the Y?
Ans. 5
Sol. O
C OEt
CH3 CH2
EtO
C OEt
NO2 NO2 O
O
O CH2 C
OH
Sn HCl
COOEt
NH COOEt COOEt
NH2 NO2
H2O
COOEt
N
Y H
Ans. 3
39. O
Br
NaOMe
A
i aq. NaOH
ii NaOHCaO
B
Ans. 1
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 26
Sol. O O COOMe
Br
NaOMe
NaOMe
NaOH
COOH
NaOH/CaO
40. 1.2 gram of acetophenone on reaction with 76.2 gram of I2 in presence of NaOH give solid
iodoform with 75% yield. Find the weight of iodoform formed in gram.
Ans. 3
O O
|| ||
Sol. Ph C CH3 3I2 4NaOH
CHI3 Ph C ONa
O
||
1 mole of Ph C CH3 will give 1 mole of CHI3
120 gram will give 394 g CHI3
1.2 gram will give 3.94 g CHI3
75
Hence, with 75% yield 3.94 2.955 gram
100
3 gram.
41. In the following sequence of reaction the degree of unsaturation in the (B) is
CO2 Et
CO2 Et Tautomerise
HCl,
A
B An aromatic compound
H3C O
Ans. 4
Sol. CH3
CH3
CO2Et CH3
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42. How many will liberates CO2 gas on reaction with NaHCO3?
O O C
, CN – CH2 – CN
Ans. 1
Sol. SO 3H
43. NH2
Ans. 6
Sol. CH3
H3C CH3
+
NH2 N O
COOH
Ag O Hot KMnO4 Ba OH
CH Br
3
2
(H2C) 4
Excess 2
COOH
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
44. 2.25 g of a nitrogenous compound having molecular formula (C2H7N) is reacted with 11.95 g of
CHCl3 in presence of alc. KOH to form a bad smelling gas. One of the remaining reactant after
some times becomes poisonous due to aerial oxidation. This poisonous gas is now removed by
C2H5OH to form a precipitate. Find the weight of precipitate (in gram).
Ans. 00005.90
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 28
alc KOH
Sol. C2H5NH2 CHCl3 C2H5NC
1 1 0
20 10 1
0 1 20
20
O , h
CHCl3
2
COCl2
COCl2 2C2H5 OH C2H5 2 CO3
1
Hence precipitate = 118 5.9 gram
20
45. O O
CH3
i H3O
ii B C
O O
O CH3
O
A
1.1 mole of (A) was reacted according to above reaction. ‘C’ is the gas produced which turns lime
water milky. The amount of C formed in gram will be? (Given At. Wt. of C, O, H are 12, 16, 1 gm
respectively).
Ans. 00096.80
Sol. O
CH3
O i H
46. A C4H6 3
CH S
B
ii C
3 2 Aromatic compound
6.75 gram
A is a cyclic isomer having molecular formula C4H6. How many gram of C would be formed if 6.75
g of A was taken?
Ans. 00008.50
Sol. O O
O3 H
H C CH2 CH2 C H
CH3 2 S
A O
B C
6.75 1
Moles of A mole
54 8
1
Hence, mole of C would be formed
8
1
Wt. of C = 68 8.5 gm
8
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29 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
SECTION – A
This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D),
out of which only one is correct
47. The length of medians of a triangle are 3, 4 and 5 cm. The area (in square cm) of the triangle is
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 32
Ans. A
4 1
Sol. A 34 8
3 2
48. The number of right-angled ABC (A = 90º) with integers side length whose inradius is 3 are
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 8
Ans. A
A
Sol. s a tan r (A = 90º)
2
(s – a) = r, 2s – 2a = 2r, b + c – a = 2r, a = (b + c – 2r)
2
(b – 6)(c – 6) = 2 3
49. P is a point inside an equilateral triangle ABC such that PA = 9, PB = 12 and PC = 15, then side
length of the ABC is
(B) 225 33
(C) 49 5 2
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 30
Ans. A
152 92 AC
2 A(B)
Sol. cos 60º ..... (1)
2.15.9 12 B
9 90º P
9 3
Also, cos
15 5 15 60º
P 60º 15
So, a 225 108 5
60º
15
B C
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for
its answer, out of which only one or more than one is/are correct
(A) (sin x)sin x > (cos x)cos x x 0,
4
(B) (cos x)sin x < (sin x)cos x x 0,
12
3
(C) x cot x < x 0,
3
(D) sin x cos2x sin x cos2x x 0,
4
Ans. A, B, C
Sol. (A) Use Jensen’s inequality for sin x < cos x < sin x + cos x with weights
1 = tan x and 2 = 1 – tan x ( 0 < x < /4), 1 and 2 are positive)
So, log(cos x) = log(tan x sin x + (1 – tan x)(sin x + cos x))
> tan x log(sin x) + (1 – tan x)log(sin x + cos x)
sin x + cos x > 1 and tan x < 1. So, log(cos x) > tan x log(sin x)
cos x sin x
(B) For x 0, ; cos x > sin x. So, ln ln
12 cos x sin x
(C) Shown in the figure
m(OP) > m(OQ)
P
Q
x
3 2
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1 7
(A) sin20º
3 20
x2 x4
(B) cos x 1 x 0,
2 16 2
x3 2x 5
(C) tan x x x 0,
3 15 2
Ans. A, C
52. Let x – 2y – 5 = 0 be the directrix of a parabola and x – y – 7 = 0 be the tangent drawn to the
parabola at the point P(4, –3), then which of the following are INCORRECT?
16
(A) length of latus rectum =
5
8
(B) harmonic mean of length of segments of the focal chord =
5
(C) intersection point of the directrix and the given tangent is (9, 2)
(D) circle drawn on assuming P(4, –3) and Q as diameter, always passes through focus of
the parabola (where Q is the intersection point of tangent and directrix)
Ans. A, B
53. Let ABCD be a quadrilateral inscribed in a circle. Suppose AB 2 2 and AB subtends 135º
at the centre of the circle, the maximum possible area of ABCD is
53 3
(A)
4 2
8 7
(B)
3
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 32
19 3
(C)
2
Ans. A
54. If the vertices of an equilateral lies on the curve 8x3 + y3 + 6xy = 1, then
6
(A) side length of the triangle is
15
3
(B) side length of the triangle is
2
3 3
(C) area of the triangle is
5
3 3
(D) area of the triangle is
16
Ans. A, C
6
Sol. (2x + y – 1)(4x2 + y2 + 1 – 2xy + y + 2x) = 0 and side length of the =
15
3 3
So, area =
5
Read the following write up carefully and answer the following questions:
Diameter of ellipse is a line passing through the centre of the ellipse. Consider the set of parabola(s)
having common chord of minimum length with the diameter of the ellipse x 2 + y2 + xy = 8 and the line
mx – y + 4 = 0 as directrix
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33 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
55. The set of value(s) of m for which only one parabola is possible is
(A) 2, 2
(B) 5, 3
(C) {–2, 2}
Ans. A
56. The range of value(s) of m for which two parabola(s) are possible is
(A) , 2 2,
(B) (–, –2) (2, )
(C) , 3 3,
(D) none of these
Ans. A
Sol. (55.-56.)
For the ellipse x2 + y2 + xy = 8, c (0, 0)
8 8 r2
For one parabola : ( C1C2 = r1 + r2)
2 3
m 1
For two parabola(s) : C1C2 < r1 + r2 4 4
c2 ,
r1 6 6
4 4
c1 ,
6 6
SECTION – C
This section contains 10 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in one integer from 0 to
9 (both inclusive).
57. Consider the ellipse 4x2 + y2 – 8x + 4y + 4 = 0. Pair of tangents PT1 and PT2 are drawn to the
ellipse from P(–8, –2). Let S1' be the image of S1 about PT1 and S'2 be the image of S2 about
PT2, then if PS1S 2' and PS1' S 2 , then is equal to _____
Ans. 1
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 34
58. If tangents drawn to the parabola at A(1, 2) and B(5, 8) intersect at (–1, 8), then slope of directrix
a
is where gcd(a, b) = 1, then a + b is _____
b
Ans. 7
3
Sol. Q = mid-point of AB = (3, 5), let P (–1, 8), m(PQ) =
4
4
Slope of directrix =
3
59. Given a point (3, 2), then the minimum perimeter of a triangle with one vertex at (3, 2) one on the
x-axis and one on the line y = x (you may assume that a triangle with minimum perimeter exists)
is , then sum of digits of is _____
Ans. 8
Sol. For minimum perimeters (2, 3), (d, d) (c, 0), (3, –2) are collinear
Hence, mini perimeter = 26
60. If focus of the parabola which touches x = 0, y = 0, x – y + 1 = 0 and –2x – y – 8 = 0 is (, ), then
is _____
Ans. 3
Sol. Focus is intersection point of circles x(x + 1) + y(y – 1) = 0 and (x)(x + 4) + (y)(y + 8) = 0
6 2
,
5 5
12
61. If 3 2 , 4 2 and 2 be the altitudes of a triangle, then r 2 (r is inradius of the triangle) is
5
equal to _____
Ans. 2
62. Let ABC be a triangle (with A = /3) and a circle C1 be drawn lying in side the triangle, touching
its in-circle externally and also touching the two sides AB and AC, then ratio of the radii of the
circles C1 and C is k, then 3k is equal to _____
Ans. 1
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35 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
2 II1 r r1 A r r1 r r1
1 sin r N
2
K
A r1 r1 1 I
tan2 2
. So, tan 30º
4 r r 3 B C
63. Let BD be the internal angle bisectors of angle B in triangle ABC with D on side AC. The
circumcircle of triangle BDC meets AB at E, while the circumcircle of triangle ABD meets BC at F.
if AE = 3, then CF is equal to
Ans. 3
64. In an isosceles right angled triangle ABC, CA = CB = 1, and P is an arbitrary point on the
perimeter of ABC, then if maximum value of PA·PB·PC is , then 6 2 is _____
Ans. 3
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AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19 36
(II): P AB C
AP x 0, 2
So, let f(x) = (PA)2(PB)2)PC)2
2
2 x 1 x
= x2 2
x 2
1
Let t x 2 x : t 0,
2 A P B
2
So, f(x) = g(t) = t (1 – t)
1 1
f x gt g
2 8
1
PA PB PC . Clearly P is the mid-point of AB
2 2
3
1 4x 2 4
65. Number of solution of the equation cos1 2
x x sin x cos x is
2
1 4x
Ans. 2
(0, –1)
1 2
66. Two circles C1, C2 of radii and touch each other externally and they both touch a unit circle
3 7
C internally. A circle C3 of radius R is inscribed to touch the circles C1, C2 externally and the circle
C internally, then 19R is equal to _____
Ans. 2
1 2
2
Sol. R 3 7
1 2 19
1
3 7
SECTION – D
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. xxxxx.xx).
67. If the exhaustive set of x (0, 2) for which n the inequality sin x + sin 2x + sin 3x + ..... +
3 3 1 2
sin(nx) is valid 1 x 2 , k I, then is _____
2 2
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37 AITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/19
Ans. 00002.00
2 2
Sol. Clearly, 0 < x < not valid, for x 2
3 3
x 2x 1 x x
cos cos x cos 1 cot
sin x 2 2
2
4 3
x x 2 2
2 sin 2 sin
2 2
68. The least numbers A such that for any two squares of combined area 1 and a rectangle, of area A
exists such that the two squares can be packed in the rectangle (without interior overlap). You
may assume that the sides of the squares are parallel to the sides of the rectangle, is _____
Ans. 00001.20
2 2
Sol. If x and y are the sides of two squares then x + y = 1
Let without loss of generality x y
So, shorter side of the rectangle should be at least x
Longer side at least and (x + y)
So, A x(x + y)
Put x = cos , y = sin , 0,
4
1 2 1 2
A cos 2 equality holds if
2 2 4 2 8
69. The least possible area of a convex set in plane that intersects both branches of the hyperbola
xy = 1 and both branches of the hyperbola xy = –1 is _____
Ans. 00004.00
1
1 w,
z, w
z
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