Mat & Sat-03

MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.
-03)-MAT & SAT-2
MAT SECTION – I
Straight Objective Type
This Section contains 100 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 100. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. In certain code, DEAF is written as 3587, and FILE is written as 7465. How is IDEAL written in
that code?
(A) 43568 (B) 43586
(C) 63548 (D) 48536
2. If E = 5 and HOTEL = 12, how will you code LAMB?

(A) 7 (B) 10 (C) 26 (D) 28
3. If, in a code, MIND becomes KGLB and ARGUE becomes YPESC, then what will DIAGRAM be
in that code?
(A) BGYEPYK (B) BGYPYEK (C) GLPEYKB (D) LKBGYPK
Directions (Questions 4 – 6) : Read the following information to answer these questions.

In a certain code language, ‘481’ means ‘sky is blue’ , ‘246’ means ‘sea is deep ‘ and ‘698’ means ‘sea
looks blue’.
4. What number is the code for ‘deep’?

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6
5. What number is the code for ‘blue’?

(A) 1 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9
6. Which word is coded as ‘4’?

(A) Sea (B) Sky (C) is (D) deep
7. If ‘x’ stands for ‘addition’ ‘<’ for ‘subtraction’ , ‘+’ for division, ‘>’ for multiplication, ‘ – ‘ for ‘equal
to’, ' ' for ‘greater than’ and '  ' for ‘less than’ then state which of the following is true?
(A) 3  4  2  9  3  3 (B) 5  3  7  8  4  1
(C) 5  2  2  10  4  8 (D) 3  2  4  16  2  4
Space for rough work
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MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.-03)-MAT & SAT-3
8. The given equation becomes correct due to the interchange of two signs. Find the alternative
which specifies that interchange
5  6  3  12  2  17
(A)  and  (B)  and  (C)  and  (D)  and –
9. If ‘bangle’ is called ‘cassette’ , ‘cassette’ is called ‘table’ , ‘table’ is called ‘game’ , and ‘game’ is
called ‘cupboard’ , then which is played in the tape recorder?
(A) Bangle (B) Cassette (C) Table (D) Cupboard
10. If ‘water’ is called ‘food’ , ‘food’ is called ‘tree’ , ‘tree’ is called ‘sky’, ‘sky’ is called ‘wall’ , on which
of the following does a fruit grow?
(A) Water (B) Food (C) Tree (D) Sky
11. I am facing south. I turn right and walk 20 m. Then I turn right and walk 10 m. Then I turn left and
walk 10 m and then turning right walk 20 m. Then I turn right again and walk 60 m. In which
direction am I from the starting point?
(A) North (B) North West (C) East (D) North East
12. A man is performing yoga with his head down and legs up. His face is towards the west. In which
direction will his left hand be?
(A) North (B) South (C) East (D) West
13. A man is facing north-west. He turns 90 in the clockwise direction and then 135 in the
anticlockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South
Directions (Questions 14 – 16) : In each of these letter series, some of the letters are missing which are
given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.
14. _ bcc _ ac_ aabb _ ab_ cc

(A) aabca (B) abaca (C) bacab (D) bcaca
15. m n o n o p q o p q r s_ _ _ _ _ _
(A) m n o p q r (B) o q r s t u
(C) p q r s t u (D) q r s t u v
16. a _ c a _ b c_ b c c _ b c a
(A) bbaa (B) bbab (C) aabb (D) baba
Directions (Questions 17 – 25) : In each of these questions, there is some relationship between the two
terms (figures, objects, letter clusters or numbers) on the left of the signs  ::  . The same relationship
exists between the two terms on the right of the sign  ::  of which one is missing. Find the missing term
from the four alternatives.
17.
:: ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
18.
:: ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
19. 14 : 9 : : 26 : ?
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 15 (D) 31
20. 6 : 18 : : 4 : ?
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 16
21. 16 : 56 : : 32 : ?
(A) 96 (B) 112 (C) 118 (D) 128
22. Oasis : Sand : : Island : ?

(A) River (B) Sea (C) Water (D) Waves
23. Jungle : Zoo : : Sea : ?

(A) Aquarium (B) Harbour (C) Water (D) Fishery
24. CLOSE : DNRWJ : : OPEN : ?

(A) PRHR (B) PRJQ (C) RPJB (D) RZWR
25. B : 16 : : D : ?
(A) 120 (B) 150 (C) 200 (D) 256
Directions (Questions 26 – 33) : In these questions, four items (figures, objects, letter clusters,
numbers) are given. Three of them are alike in a certain way. Find the one which is different from the
others.
26. (A) Wheat (B) Paddy (C) Jowar (D) Mustard
27. (A) Honest (B) Intelligent (C) Traitor (D) Wise
28. (A) 35 (B) 49 (C) 140 (D) 350
29. (A) 246 (B) 356 (C) 527 (D) 639
30. (A) BDI (B) HKA (C) LMO (D) PQS
31. (A) DG2 (B) PY8 (C) JR6 (D) RV3
32.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Questions 34 – 41) : In each of these questions a series is given. Find out the missing term
of the series
34. 5, 2, 7, 9, 16, 25, ?

(A) 41 (B) 45 (C) 48 (D) 52
35. 3, 15, ?, 63, 99, 143

(A) 27 (B) 35 (C) 45 (D) 56
36. 3, 7, 23, 95, ?

(A) 62 (B) 128 (C) 479 (D) 575
37. PMT, OOS, NQR, MSQ, ?

(A) LUP (B) LVP (C) LVR (D) LWP
38. a, d, c, f, ?, h, g, ?, i
(A) e, j (B) e, k (C) f, j (D) j, e
39. A D V E N T U R E, D V E N T U R E, D V E N T U R, ? , V E N T U
(A) DVENT (B) VENTURE (C) VENTUR (D) DVENTU
40.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
41.
?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Questions 42 – 45): Each of these questions consists of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. Read both the statements and give answer.
(A) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question; while the data in
statement
II alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(B) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question; while the data in
statement
I alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the
question
(D) If the data in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
42. What is the code for ‘sky’ in the code language?

I. In the code language, ‘sky is clear’ is written as ‘de ra fa’.
II. In the same code language, ‘make it clear’ is written as ‘de ga jo’.
43. How is J related to P?

I. M is brother of P and T is sister of P.
II. P’s mother is married to J’s husband who has one son and two daughters.
44. Among A, B, C, D, E and F, who is the heaviest?

I. A and D are heavier than B, E and F but none of them is the heaviest
II. A is heavier than D but lighter than C.
45. How many visitors saw the exhibition yesterday?

I. Each entry pass holder can take up to three persons with him/ her.
II. In all 243 passes were sold yesterday.
Directions (Questions 46 – 49): In each of these questions there are two statements followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to
be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the two given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements. Give answer:
(A) if only conclusion I follows
(B) If only conclusion II follows
(C) if neither I nor II follows
(D) If both I and II follow.
46. Statements: 1. Some players are singers.

2. All singers are tall.
Conclusions: I. Some players are tall
II. All players are tall.
47. Statements : 1. Some hats are caps

2. Some caps are mats.
Conclusions : I. Some caps are hats
II. Some mats are caps.
48. Statements : 1. Some vegetables are fruits

2. No fruit is black.
Conclusions : I. Some fruits are vegetables
II. No vegetable is back.
49. Statements : 1. Some fools are intelligent.

2. Some intelligent are great.
Conclusions : I. Some fools are great
II. All great are intelligent.
50. At what time between 5 PM to 5:30 PM are the hands of a clock at an angle of 30 ?
9 9 1
(A) 5 : 21 pm (B) 5 : 25 pm (C) 5 : 24 pm (D) 5 : 29 pm
11 11 11
51. How many times do the two hands of a clock coincide in a day?
(A) 11 (B) 12 (C) 22 (D) 44
52. Which year after 1957 has the same calendar as 1957?
(A) 1961 (B) 1962 (C) 1963 (D) 1964
53. Which day of the week did India get her independence?
(A) Wednesday (B) Friday (C) Saturday (D) Thursday
Directions (Questions 54 – 59): Insert the missing character.
54.
406 ?
5
3
81
16
(A) 1 (B) 731 (C) 1625 (D) 2031
55. 12 18 30 16 32 40 36 18 27
6 8 ?
(A) 6 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 18
56.
5 4 3 8 9 4
20 9 24 11 ? 13
(A) 26 (B) 32 (C) 36 (D) 117
57. 24 144 384

6 36 ?
2 12 32
1 6 16
(A) 80 (B) 85 (C) 91 (D) 96
58. 26 18 10
11 9 7
5 4 1
10 5 ?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
59. B G N
D J R
G N ?
(A) U (B) V (C) W (D) X
60. In a group of 15 people, 7 read French, 8 read English while 3 of them read none of these two.
How many read both of these two?
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
61. Today is Varun’s birthday. One year from today he will be twice as old as he was 12 years ago.
How old is Varun today?
(A) 20 years (B) 22 years (C) 25 years (D) 27 years
62. A student got twice as many sums wrong as he got right. If he attempted 48 sums in all, how
many did he solve correctly?
(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 18 (D) 24
63. Find the mirror-image of:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Questions 64 – 65): Refer to the following diagram
64. How many triangle are there in the figure?

(A) 28 (B) 29 (C) 30 (D) 32
65. How many lines are there in the figure?

(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 24
Directions (Questions 66 -67): These questions are based on the following illustrations.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
66. The symbol at the bottom of (iv) is:

(B (C
(D)
(A) ) )
67. The symbol opposite the face having the symbol is:
(B (C
(D)
(A) ) )
Directions (Questions 68 – 70): A cube is coloured red on all faces. It is cut into 64 smaller cubes of
equal size.
68. How many cubes have no face coloured?

(A) 24 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 0
69. How many cubes have only one face coloured?

(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 24
70. How many cubes have three faces coloured?

(A) 24 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) 4
71. How many dots lie opposite the face having three dots, when the given figure
is folded to form a cube?
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6
Directions (Questions 72 – 76) : These questions are based on the following information:
There are five persons P,Q, R, S and T. One is football player, one is chess player and one is a hockey
player. P and S are unmarried ladies and do not participate in any game. None of the ladies play chess or
football. There is a married couple in which T is the husband. Q is the brother of R and is neither a chess
players nor a hockey player.
72. Who is the football player?

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
73. Who is the hockey player?

(A) Q (B) R (C) S (D) T
74. Who is the chess player?

(A) Q (B) R (C) S (D) T
75. Who is the wife of T?

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
76. The three ladies are:

(A) P, Q, R (B) Q, R, S (C) P, Q, S (D) P, R, S
Directions (Questions 77 – 81): Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow.
I. A, B, C, D, E and F are six members of a family
II. One couple has parents and their children in the family
III. A is the son of C and E is the daughter of A.
IV. D is the daughter of F who is the mother of E.
77. Who are the male members of the family?

(A) A and C (B) C and F
(C) A, B and D (D) cannot be determined
78. Which of the following pairs are the parents of the children?
(A) BC (B) CF (C) BF (D) AF
79. Which of the following pairs are the parents of the couple?
(A) AB (B) BC (C) AF (D) FC
80. How many female members are there in the family?

(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Four (D) Cannot be determined
81. What relationship do D and E bear to each other?

(A) Sister and Brother (B) Mother and Son
(C) Grand mother and grand daughter (D) Sister
Directions (Questions 82 – 84) : These questions are based on the

diagram below:- 2
4 3
1
5
8
6 7
5
9 2
82. Which number is inside all the three figures?

(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8
83. What is the sum of the numbers which belong to two figures only?
(A) 10 (B) 14 (C) 18 (D) None of these
84. Multiply the number which belongs to the square only with the sum of the numbers which belong
to the trapezium only. What is the result?
(A) 45 (B) 60 (C) 75 (D) 85
Directions (Questions 85 -87): Choose the Venn Diagram which best illustrates the relationship between
the three classes in each of these questions
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85. Sun, Planets, Earth
86. Rhombus, Quadrilaterals, Polygons
87. Dogs, Cats, pets
88. Which figure can be formed from the pieces given in figure X?
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
89. How will the key figure look after rotation?
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
90. Spot the embedded figure:-
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Questions 91 – 92): Find the figure which satisfies the same condition of placement of the
dot as in fig(X):
91.
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
92.
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Questions 93 – 94) : Find the water image.
93.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
94. Vertical inversion.
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
95. In a row of boys, Rajan is tenth from the right and Suraj is tenth from the left. When Rajan and
Suraj interchange positions, Suraj will be twenty –seventh from the left. What will be Rajan’s
positions from the right?
(A) Twenty sixth (B) Twenty seventh
(C) Twenty eight (D) Twenty Ninth
96. Praveen ranks 15th from the top of a class of 60 boys, What is his position from the bottom?
(A) 45 (B) 46 (C) 47 (D) 48
Directions (Questions 97 – 98): These questions are based on the letters of the word:
“DISOBEDIENCE”
97. How many sets of two letters are as much apart form each other as they are in the alphabetical
order?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
98. If a meaningful word can be formed with the 2 nd, 6th, 10th, 11th and 12th letters of the word, which
would be the fourth letter of that word?
(A) I (B) E (C) N (D) C
Directions (Questions 99 – 100): Complete the pattern
99.
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
100.
(X)
(A) (B) (C) (D)
SAT SECTION – II
Straight Objective Type
This Section contains 100 multiple choice questions numbered 1 to 100. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A proton, a deuteron and an a-particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular
trajectories in a constant magnetic field. If rp , rd and r denote respectively the radii of the
trajectories of these particles then :
(A) r  rp  rd (B) r  rd  rp (C) r  rd  rp (D) rp  rd  r
2. An irregular shaped conducting loop is placed in a x x x x x x

magnetic field as shown in the figure (a). If the same loop
is made to attain a circular shape while placed in the
same magnetic field as shown in the figure (b) then x x x x x x
(A) an emf will be induced in the loop
(B) No emf will be induced in the loop
(C) Direction of current in loop will be clockwise (a) (b)
x x x x x x
(D) No induced current will be there in the loop
3. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
resistance of
(A) Each of them increases.
(B) Each of them decreases.
(C) Copper increases and germanium decreases.
(D) Copper decreases and germanium increases.
4. A 100 W bulb B1 and two 60W bulbs B2 and B3 are connected to a B1 B2

250 V source as shown in the figure. Now W 1, W2 and W3 are the
output powers of the bulbs B1, B2 and B3 respectively. Then:
(A) W1 > W2 = W3
(B) W1 > W2 > W3 B3
(C) W1 < W2 = W3
(D) W1 < W2 < W3
250 V
5. In fig (i) ammeter reads I1 and voltmeter reads V1. Similarly, in fig (ii) ammeter reads I 2 while
voltmeter reads V2, then which of the following statements is correct?
+ – R1
V
+ –
R1 R2 V
R2
– –
A A
+ + –
+ – +
E, r E, r
(A) V1 > V2 and I2 > I1 (B) V1 > V2 and I1 > I2

(C) V1 < V2 and I1 > I2 (D) V1 < V2 and I1 < I2
6. Two spheres having masses 10 g and 25 g were projected horizontally from the same height with
velocities V1 and V2 and they fall to the ground in time intervals t 1 and t2 respectively. If the ratio V 1
: V2 is 1 : 3, the ratio t1 : t2 will be
(A) 10 : 25 (B) 25 : 10 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
7. Two forces each of magnitude P act on a body placed at a

Y P1
point O as shown. The force necessary to keep the body at
rest is of magnitude
(A) P along + X axis
(B) P along – X axis 30°
(C) 2P along + X axis O
(D) P/2 along – X axis X
30°
P2
8. A body is projected vertically upward with a velocity u. It passes through a certain point above the
ground after t1 sec. What is the time after this happening when the body passes the same point
during downward journey?
u 2  u2 
(A)  t1 3
(B)   t1 
g  g 
u   u2 
(C) 2   t1  (D) 3  2  t1 
g  g 
9. Two plane mirrors are inclined at 70°. A ray incident on, one mirror at angle  after reflection falls
on the second mirror and is reflected from there parallel to first mirror, then  is
(A) 50° (B) 45° (C) 30° (D) 55°
10. Under which of the following conditions a concave mirror can form a real image larger than actual
object?
(A) When the object is kept at a distance equal to its radius of curvature.
(B) When object is kept at a distance less than its focal length.
(C) When object is placed between the focus and centre of curvature
(D) When object is kept at a distance greater than its radius of curvature
11. Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and
emerge out of box through the hole C and D respectively as A
shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside
the box? C
(A) A rectangular glass slab
(B) A convex lens B
(C) A concave lens
D
(D) A prism
12. In the figure shown below, each of the 20 cm 40 cm

lenses has a focal length of 10 cm.
Therefore, the image formed by the
combination of lenses is
(A) Virtual, erect and magnified O
(B) Virtual, inverted and diminished
(C) Virtual, erect and diminished
(D) Real, erect and diminished
13. When a ray of light enters a glass slab then

(A) its frequency and velocity changes (B) only frequency changes
(C) frequency and wavelength changes (D) wavelength and velocity changes
14. A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper pointing Proton
from left to right as shown in the field. An electron and a
proton move as shown. The electron and the proton
experience
Uniform
(A) forces both pointing into the plane of paper Magnetic
(B) forces both pointing out of the plane of paper Field
(C) forces pointing into the plane of paper and out of the
plane of paper, respectively
(D) force pointing opposite and along the direction of the
uniform magnetic field respectively Electron
15. The oxidation number of ‘S’ in FeSO 4 is ‘x’ and oxidation number of ‘P’ in Ca 3(PO4)2 is ’y’, then the
value of x2 + 3y -30 is
(A) 21 (B) 18 (C) 20 (D) 19
16. A compound contains atoms of three elements A, B and C with following oxidation numbers
A = +2, B = +5 and C = -2, possible formula of the compound is:
(A) A2(BC3)2 (B) A3(BC4)2 (C) A3(B4C)2 (D) ABC2
17. Which of the following aqueous solutions has highest pH value?

(A) Sodium Chloride (B) Potassium Carbonate
(C) Copper Sulphate (D) Ammonium Chloride
18. The pH of HCl solution is 4. Then the amount of NaOH required to neutralize completely one litre
of HCl is:
(A) 4g (B) 40g (C) 0.04g (D) 0.004g
19. In a compound, C, H, N atoms are present in 9:1:3.5 by weight. Molecular weight of compound is
108, its molecular formula is:
(A) C2H6N2 (B) C3H4N (C) C6H8N2 (D) C9H12N3
20. 12 g of ‘Mg’ will react with an acid to give

(A) one mole of H2 (B) one mole of O2
(C) half mole of H2 (D) half mole of O2
21. The valency shell of an element ‘A’ contains 3 electrons while the valency shell of element ‘B’
contains 6 electrons. If ‘A’ combines with B, the probable formula of the compound formed will be:
(A) AB2 (B) A2B (C) A2B3 (D) A3B2
22. Which of the following does not contain Mg?

(A) Magnetite (B) Magnesite (C) Epsom Salt (D) Carnallite
23. Latent heat of vapourisation of water is 540 cal/g. Then the amount of energy required to convert
2 mole of water into water vapour is:
(A) 1.944 K Cal (B) 194.4 K Cal (C) 19.44 Cal (D) 19.44 K Cal
24. Two immiscible liquids can be separated by

(A) distillation (B) separating funnel
(C) evaporation (D) crystallization
25. Which of the following electromagnetic radiation has less frequency?

(A) X-rays (B) Infrared (C) Ultraviolet (D) Microwaves
26. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

CH3
H3C  CH2  CH  CH  COOH
Cl
(A) 3-Methyl-2-chloropentanoicacid
(B) 2-Chloro-3-methylpentanecarboxylicacid
(C) 2-Chloro-3-methylpentanoicacid
(D) 1-Chloro-2-methylbutanecarboxylicacid
27. Which of the following will not show chain isomerism?

(A) n-Butane (B) n-Pentane (C) n-Propane (D) n-Hexane
28. As the elements of group-17 are considered in order of increasing atomic number, there is an
increase in
(A) electro negativity (B) atomic radius
(C) ionization energy (D) number of electrons in the first shell
29. Ciliated epithelium in vertebrates is present in

(A) Kidney and stomach (B) Buccal cavity and oviduct of frog
(C) Stomach and Urinary tubules (D) Lymph vessels
30. One of the cell organelle is said to function as “trigger of cell division”.
(A) Sphaerosome (B) Lysosome
(C) Lomasome (D) Glyoxysome
31. The Z scheme of photosynthesis was proposed by

(A) Hill and Bendall (B) Emerson
(C) Arnon (D) Rabinowith
32. Which one of the following is widely distributed in a cell

(A) DNA (B) RNA
(C) Chloroplast (D) Chromoplast
33. The main function of lacteals in the human small intestine is absorption of
(A) Glucose (B) Amino acids
(C) Water or vitamins (D) Fatty acids and glycerol
34. Rate of breathing is controlled by

(A) The amount of freely available oxygen (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Muscular function of the body (D) Stress
35. An oval depression called fossa-ovalis is seen on

(A) Inter atrial septum (B) Inter ventricular septum
(C) Right auriculo- ventricular septum (D) Left auriculo-ventricular septum
36. Open circulatory system is present in

(a) Arthropods (b) Annelids
(c) Chordates (d) Amphibians
(A) c only (B) c and b
(C) a and b (D) d only
37. Columns of Bertine in the kidney of mammals are formed as the extension of
(A) Medulla into cortex (B) Cortex into medulla
(C) Medulla into pelvis (D) Pelvis into ureter
38. If a person has lost his memory in an accident, the following part of the brain have got injured
(A) Diencephalon (B) Medulla oblongata
(C) Cerebellum (D) Cerebrum
39. Injury to vagus nerve in humans in not likely to affect

(A) Pancreatic secretion (B) Cardiac movement
(C) Tongue movement (D) Gastrointestinal movement
40. Condensation of chromosomes Occurs in

(A) Prophase I (B) Prophase II (C) Anaphase (D) Metaphase
41.* Product of two positive integers is 1690 and their HCF is 13. How many such pairs are
possible?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None of these
42. Two sides of a plot measures 32m and 24m and the angle between A
25
them is a perfect right angle. The other two sides measure 25m B
and other three angles are not right angles. What is the area
(A) 768 m2 24 25
(B) 534 m2
(C) 696.5 m2 D C
(D) 684 m2 32
43. D is an interior point of triangle ABC and x, y, z and w A

measures of the angles in degrees, as shown in the figure. An x
expression for x in terms of y, z and w is
(A) w – y – z
(B) w – 2y – 2z D
(C) 2w – y – 2z w
y
(D) 180 – w – y – z z
B
C
44.* If a + b = 5 and ab = 2, then a4 + b4 =?

(A) 433 (B) 437 (C) 609 (D) 641
45.* It is given that a, b, and c are any positive real numbers such that abc = 1. What is the value of
a b c
following + + =?
ab + a + 1 bc + b + 1 ca + c + 1
(A) -1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) None of these
1 1 x 1
46.* If  2
1 x x 6
Then the value of x will be
6 4 3 2
(A) or (B) or
13 13 2 3
5 2 9 4
(C) or (D) or
2 3 13 13
47. What is the probability of a number which is a multiple of 3 to be divisible by 4?

1 2 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 4 5
48. In a garden trees are planted in rows. In each row there are as many trees as the number of
rows in the garden. Each tree bears as many fruits as the number of trees in each row. The
sum of the total number fruits on the trees is n. Then
(A) n is a perfect square (B) n is perfect cube
(C) n is always an even number (D) n is always an odd number
49. A and B ran a race of 480 m. In the first heat, A gives B a head start of 48 m and beats him
th
 1 
by   of a minute. In the second heat, A gives B a head start of 144 m and is beaten by
 10 
th
 1 
  of a minute. What is B’s speed in m/s?
 30 
(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 18
50. OPQ is a quadrant of a circle and semicircles are drawn on Q
OP and OQ as diameter. Then area of shaded portion A : B

equals.
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 B
(C) 3 : 2 (D) 1 : 1
A
O P
51. If it is given that x 2 + y2 = (x + y)2, then which among the following statement(s) is/are
correct?
(i) x = 0
(ii) xy = 0
(iii) x2 + y2 = (x – y)2
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (ii) and (iii) (D) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
52. In a sports centre 70 students play cricket, 50 % play hockey, 25 % play both cricket and hockey
and 5 % don’t play any game. How many students are there in the class?
(A) 80 (B) 85 (C) 95 (D) 100
53. The ratio of a regular hexagon with side 1 to the area of an equilateral triangle of side 3 is
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 5 : 6 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 4
54. In the figure TA is a tangent to the circle from T and TBC is a A

T
secant to the circle. If AD is the bisector of ÐBAC,
is a/an
(A) Equilateral triangle B
(B) Isosceles triangle D
(C) Isosceles right angle triangle
(D) Scalene triangle
C
55. In triangle ABC, point E lies on AB and point D lies on AC. Lines BD and CE meet at F. The areas
of triangles BEF, CDF and BCF are 5, 8, and 10, respectively. What is the area of quadrilateral
AEFD?
(A) 20 (B) 21 (C) 22 (D) 25
56. If a merchant offers a discount of 30% on the list price, then she makes a loss of 16%. What
percentage profit or percentage loss will she make if she sells at a discount of 10% of the list
price?
(A) 6% loss (B) 0.8% profit (C) 6.25% loss (D) 8% profit
57. Two candles of the same height are lighted at the same time. The first is consumed in 8 hours
and the second in 6 hours. Assuming that each candle burns at a constant rate, in how many
hours after being lighted, the ratio between the first and second candles becomes 2:1.
(A) 2 hours 24 minutes (B) 1 hour 12 minutes
(C) 4 hours (D) 4 hours 48 minutes
58. A servant is paid Rs. 100 and a turban for a full year’s service. If the servant works for only 9
months and received in return Rs. 65 and the turban, what is the value of turban?
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 40 (D) 50
59. The number of different squares existing in the following square of size
4  4 is
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 40
7x  5
60. What is the proper solution set of  4 if
8x  3
 17 3 3 17
(A) x (B) x
25 8 8 25
 17 3 3 5
(C) x (D) x
25 8 8 7
61. The New Population Bomb refers to

(A) an increase in the population of the aged in the Third World
(B) rapidly growing urban population in the Third World
(C) large scale distress migration in the Third World
(D) Deluge of Soviet emigrants
62. According to Census-2011,the Population of India represents ______ of the World Population
(A) 17.5% (B) 18.5% (C) 19.5% (D) 20.5%
63. Operation Flood related to

(A) Milk (B) Wheat (C) Rice (D) Coffee
64. Which City has emerged as the Electronic Capital of India?

(A) Bangalore (B) Hyderabad (C) Chennai (D) New Delhi
65. Which one of the following minerals is contained in the Monazite Sand?
(A) Oil (B) Uranium (C) Thorium (D) Coal
66. What is Agenda 21?

(A) It is the declaration signed by World Leaders in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on
Environment and Development(UNCED).
(B) UNCED Conference took place at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
(C) It aims at achieving Global Sustainable Development.
(D) all of the above
67. Sharavati Project is localted on

(A) Jog falls in Karnataka (B) Satluj river in Punjab
(C) Jhelum river in Jammu and Kashmir (D) None of the above
68. The Koyana Project is located on

(A) Maharashtra (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Gujarat (D) Punjab
69. What is the full form of MTNL AND BSNL?

(A) Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited and Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited
(B) Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited and Bombay Sanchar Nigam Limited
(C) Mahanagar Tobacco Nigam Limited and Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited
(D) Maharashtra Telephone Nigam Limited and Badarpur Sanchar Nigam Limited
70. Orography is the study of

(A) Mountains (B) Rivers (C) Lakes (D) None of the above
71. Match the important cities with rivers on which they are situated.
LIST-1 LIST-2
1. Delhi (A) Ganga
2. Varanasi (B) Gomati
3. Lucknow (C) Hooghly
4. Kolkata (D) Yamuna
(A) 1-d,2-a,3-b,4-c (B) 1-d,2-b,3-c,4-a (C) 1-d,2-a,3-c,4-b (D) 1-c,2-d,3-a,4-b
72. Which one of the following place receives the highest rainfall in the world?
(A) Silchar (B) Mawsynram (C) Cherrapunji (D) Guwahati
73. Kaziranga National Park is in

(A) Assam (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Karnataka (D) Tamilnadu
74. Which one of the following industries used limestone as a raw material?
(A) Aluminium (B) Cement (C) Sugar (D) Jute
75. When did the French Revolution break out?

(A) 14 July1789 (B) 14 June 1789
(C) 14 July 1917 (D) 14 July1786
76. Reformation was specially spear-headed against

(A) The Pope (B) The Roman Catholic Church
(C) Christianity (D) Supremacy of the Church
77. Rabindranath Tagore returned his Knighhood after

(A) Jallianwala Bagh Massarcre (B) Chauri Chaura Incident
(C) Rowlatt Act (D) None of the above
78. Which of the following considered the Magna Carta of English Education in India
(A) Saddler Commission (B) Hunter Commission
(C) Wood’s Despatch (D) None of the above
79. Who wrote the novel Rangbhoomi?

(A) Prem Chand (B) Ram Chand
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji (D) Krishan Chand
80. When Vernacular Press Act passed?

(A) 1878 (B) 1879 (C) 1880 (D) 1881
81. What is the full form of NIEO?

(A) New International Economic Order (B) Non Industrial Economic Organisation
(C) Non Indian Economic Organisations (D) None of the above
82. Who wrote “Mein Kampf”?

(A) Adolf Hitler (B) Max Muller (C) Herbert Spencer (D) None of these
83. Which act established “Dictatorship in Germany”?

(A) Enabling Act (B) Weimer Act (C) Pitt’s Act (D) None of the above
84. Duma is an Parliament of

(A) Russia (B) U.S.A (C) Switzerland (D) United Kingdom
85. First Cricket Test Match was played between

(A) England and Australia (B) England and South Africa
(C) England and West Indies (D) None of the above
86. Who was known as Fuherer?

(A) Jungvolk (B) Gypsy (C) Hitler (D) Weimer Republic
87. When Bardoli Resolution was passed?

(A) February 12,1922 (B) February 13,1922
(C) February 20,1922 (D) February 22,1922
88. The First Indian Club relating to Cricket was established in

(A) 1792 (B) 1786 (C) 1788 (D) 1789
89. Which of the following are the circumstances under which an elected member of parliament may
be disqualified on the ground of defection ?
1. If he voluntarily given up his membership of a political party
2. If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party
without prior permission of the political party
3. If he speaks against the political party
4. If he joins a political party other than the party on whose ticket he contested and got elected.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 2, 4 (C) 1, 3, 4 (D) 2, 3, 4
90. The Chief Election Commissioner is appointed by the

(A) President of India (B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Prime Minister of India (D) None of these
91. Which one of the following correctly reflects the position of the Upper House of the States
Legislatures as compared to the position of the Upper House of the Parliament ?
(A) While 1/3rd of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire every second year,1/4 th of the members
of the Legislative Council retire every eighteen months
(B) There is no provision for a joint sitting of the Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council in
the States for resolving deadlocks while there is such a provision in the case of the two
Houses of Parliament
(C) While no bill other than a Money Bill can originate in the State Legislative Council, no bill
can originate in the Rajya Sabha
(D) While Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members, the State Legislative Council has none.
There is no such provision.
92. The Indian Constitution adopted some institutional details and procedures from the following
Constitution Laws
(A) The Government of India Act,1935 (B) The Government of India Act 1914
(C) The Government of India Act,1947 (D) Government of India Act,1904
93. Indirect democracy is run by the

(A) Representatives of the people (B) People themselves
(C) Bureaucrats (D) Kings
94. In a federal system

(A) the Union is dissolvable (B) the states can secede from the Union
(C) the Union is indestructible (D) the Union and States are indestructible
95. The mammoth task of measuring GDP is undertaken by a

(A) Central Government Ministry (B) State Government Ministry
(C) Local Government Ministry (D) None of the above
96. When World Trade Organisation set up?

(A) I-01-1995 (B) 1-01-1996 (C) 1-01-1997 (D) 1-01-2001
97. What is the full form of SEZ?

(A) Special Economic Zone (B) South Economic Zone
(C) Social Economic Zone (D) None of the above
98. Presently, Who is the Governor of Reserve Bank of India?

(A) Duvvuri Subbarao (B) K.C. Chakrabarty (C) Anand Sinha (D) H.R.Khan
99. In India, Poverty Line has been fixed at

(A) 2400 Calories per person per day in Rural Areas and 2100 Calories per day per person
in Urban Areas.
(B) 2400 Calories per person per day in Urban Areas and 2100 Calories per day per person
in Rural Areas
(C) 3000 Calories per person per day in Urban Areas and 2100 Calories per day per person
in Rural Areas
(D) None of the above
100. Economic Activities and Non Economic Activities are those activities
(A) Economic Activities yield income whereas Non Economic Activities does not yield income.
(B) Economic Activities does not yield income and Non Economic Activities yield income
(C) Activities undertaken by people out of love, affection sympathy are known as Non
Economic Activity
(D) Only a & c are correct
FIITJEE MOCK TEST

(TEST NO. – 03)
ELEVATE
Crash Course for NTSE Stage-I
(MAT)
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. B
5. C 6. C 7. C 8. A
9. C 10. D 11. D 12. A
13. B 14. C 15. C 16. A
17. B 18. C 19. C 20. C
21. B 22. C 23. A 24. A
25. D 26. D 27. C 28. B
29. B 30. D 31. C 32. D
33. B 34. A 35. B 36. C
37. A 38. A 39. C 40. D
41. B 42. D 43. B 44. A
45. D 46. A 47. D 48. A
49. C 50. A 51. C 52. C
53. B 54. D 55. B 56. C
57. D 58. A 59. C 60. B
61. C 62. B 63. A 64. D
65. B 66. D 67. A 68. C
69. D 70. C 71. D 72. B
73. B 74. D 75. C 76. D
77. D 78. D 79. B 80. C
81. D 82. C 83. C 84. C
85. D 86. A 87. B 88. A
89. B 90. C 91. C 92. B
93. C 94. A 95. B 96. B
97. C 98. D 99. D 100. B
FIITJEE MOCK TEST

(TEST NO. – 03)
ELEVATE
Crash Course for NTSE Stage-I
(SAT)
ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. D
5. A 6. C 7. B 8. C
9. A 10. C 11. A 12. B
13. D 14. A 15. A 16. B
17. B 18. D 19. C 20. C
21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B
25. D 26. C 27. C 28. B
29. B 30. B 31. A 32. B
33. D 34. B 35. A 36. C
37. B 38. D 39. C 40. A
41. B 42. D 43. A 44. A
45. B 46. D 47. C 48. B
49. A 50. D 51. C 52. D
53. A 54. B 55. C 56. D
57. D 58. C 59. C 60. C
61. B 62. A 63. A 64. A
65. C 66. D 67. A 68. A
69. A 70. A 71. A 72. B
73. A 74. B 75. A 76. D
77. A 78. C 79. A 80. A
81. A 82. A 83. A 84. A
85. A 86. C 87. A 88. A
89. D 90. A 91. B 92. A
93. A 94. D 95. A 96. A
97. A 98. A 99. A 100. D

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MOCK TEST-1213-ELEVATE-CC-NTSE-STAGE-I-(TEST NO.

-03)-MAT & SAT-2

2. If E = 5 and HOTEL = 12, how will you code LAMB?

Directions (Questions 4 – 6) : Read the following information to answer these questions.

4. What number is the code for ‘deep’?

5. What number is the code for ‘blue’?

6. Which word is coded as ‘4’?

Space for rough work

14. _ bcc _ ac_ aabb _ ab_ cc

Space for rough work

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for rough work

22. Oasis : Sand : : Island : ?

23. Jungle : Zoo : : Sea : ?

24. CLOSE : DNRWJ : : OPEN : ?

26. (A) Wheat (B) Paddy (C) Jowar (D) Mustard

27. (A) Honest (B) Intelligent (C) Traitor (D) Wise

28. (A) 35 (B) 49 (C) 140 (D) 350

29. (A) 246 (B) 356 (C) 527 (D) 639

30. (A) BDI (B) HKA (C) LMO (D) PQS

Space for rough work

31. (A) DG2 (B) PY8 (C) JR6 (D) RV3

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

34. 5, 2, 7, 9, 16, 25, ?

35. 3, 15, ?, 63, 99, 143

36. 3, 7, 23, 95, ?

37. PMT, OOS, NQR, MSQ, ?

Space for rough work

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for rough work

42. What is the code for ‘sky’ in the code language?

43. How is J related to P?

44. Among A, B, C, D, E and F, who is the heaviest?

45. How many visitors saw the exhibition yesterday?

46. Statements: 1. Some players are singers.

Space for rough work

47. Statements : 1. Some hats are caps

48. Statements : 1. Some vegetables are fruits

49. Statements : 1. Some fools are intelligent.

Directions (Questions 54 – 59): Insert the missing character.

(A) 1 (B) 731 (C) 1625 (D) 2031

Space for rough work

(A) 26 (B) 32 (C) 36 (D) 117

57. 24 144 384

Space for rough work

63. Find the mirror-image of:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for rough work

Directions (Questions 64 – 65): Refer to the following diagram

64. How many triangle are there in the figure?

65. How many lines are there in the figure?

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

66. The symbol at the bottom of (iv) is:

Space for rough work

68. How many cubes have no face coloured?

69. How many cubes have only one face coloured?