CLAT 2018 PG Paper

Section / Questions Attempted Not Correct Wrong

Attempted Answer Answer

Constitutional Law (Constitutional Law) (401-450) 46 4 33 13

Jurisprudence (Jurisprudence) (451-500) 43 7 29 14

Other Law Subjects (Other Law Subjects such as 45 5 31 14

Contract, Torts, Criminal Law, International Law, IPR
etc.) (501-550)

Q. No. : 401 - Which of the following judgments was not over-ruled by the judgment
in K. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) 10 SCC 1?
Options:

1) M. P. Sharma v. Satish Chandra (1954) SCR 1077

2) Kharak Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1964) 1 SCR 332
3) ADM Jabalpur v. ShivakantShukla (1976) 2 SCC 521
4) Govindv. State of M. P. (1975) 2 SCC 148
Correct Answer: 4) Govindv. State of M. P. (1975) 2 SCC 148
Candidate Answer: 4) Govindv. State of M. P. (1975) 2 SCC 148

Q. No. : 402 - Rights over resources within the territorial waters, continental shelf and
exclusive economic zone, vest in the Union of India, under which provision of the
Constitution of India?
Options:

1) Article 297
2) Article 51
3) Article 253
4) Article 260
Correct Answer: 1) Article 297
Candidate Answer: 1) Article 297
Q. No. : 403 - Which of the following is not a special procedure or feature in respect of
a Money Bill?
Options:

1) It shall not be introduced in the Council of States.

2) The House of the People may not accept any recommendations of the Council of
States and shall return the Money Bill to the Council of States requesting that the
Council of States reconsider its recommendations.
3) A Bill only imposing pecuniary penalties shall not be deemed to be a Money Bill.
4) The House of the People may not accept any recommendations of the Council of
States and the Money Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both Houses.
Correct Answer: 2) The House of the People may not accept any recommendations of
the Council of States and shall return the Money Bill to the Council of States
requesting that the Council of States reconsider its recommendations.
Candidate Answer: 2) The House of the People may not accept any recommendations
of the Council of States and shall return the Money Bill to the Council of States
requesting that the Council of States reconsider its recommendations.

Q. No. : 404 - Which of the following shall not be eligible for further office under the
Government of India or Government of any State?
Options:

1) Speaker of the House of the People

2) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
3) Attorney General for India
4) Member of a Public Service Commission
Correct Answer: 2) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
Candidate Answer: 2) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

Q. No. : 405 - Part IX of the Constitution of India providing for constitution of

Panchayats was introduced to give effect to which provision of the Constitution?
Options:

1) Article 40
2) Article 21A
3) Article 23
4) Article 48
Correct Answer: 1) Article 40
Candidate Answer: 1) Article 40

Q. No. : 406 - Which Constitution (Amendment) Act brought about modifications to

Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy as well as Fundamental
Duties?
Options:

1) The Constitution (Eightieth Amendment) Act, 1999

2) The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002
3) The Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015
4) The Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act, 2005
Correct Answer: 2) The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002
Candidate Answer: 2) The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002

Q. No. : 407 - On which of the following matter in List II to Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution of India is the Legislative Assembly for the National Capital Territory of
Delhi empowered to make laws?
Options:

1) Banking
2) Police
3) Rights in land
4) Officers and servants of the High Court
Correct Answer: 4) Officers and servants of the High Court
Candidate Answer: 1) Banking

Q. No. : 408 - In which of the following judgments was it held that the jurisdiction
conferred upon the High Courts under Article 226 and upon the Supreme Court under
Article 32 of the Constitution is part of the inviolable basic structure of the
Constitution of India?
Options:

1) Common Cause v. Union of India (1999) 6 SCC 667

2) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997) 3 SCC 261
3) In re Special Courts Bill (1979) 1 SCC 380
4) S. R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) 3 SCC 1
Correct Answer: 2) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997) 3 SCC 261
Candidate Answer: 2) L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997) 3 SCC 261

Q. No. : 409 - The National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, 2014 was declared
as unconstitutional and void in:
Options:

1) Youth Bar Association of India v. Union of India (2016) 9 SCC 473

2) Common Cause v. Union of India (2015) 6 SCC 332
3) Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, AIR 2015 SC 1571
4) Supreme Court Advocate-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2016) 5 SCC 1
Correct Answer: 4) Supreme Court Advocate-on-Record Association v. Union of
India (2016) 5 SCC 1
Candidate Answer: 4) Supreme Court Advocate-on-Record Association v. Union of
India (2016) 5 SCC 1

Q. No. : 410 - Which of the following is the correct position in law regarding
administration of narco-analysis techniques, in the light of the judgment in Selvi
v. State of Karnataka (2010) 7 SCC 263?

(i) Compulsory administration constitutes cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment in

the context of Article 21.
(ii) Compulsory administration violates the right against self-incrimination under
Article 20(3).
(iii) Compulsory administration may, however, be justifiable in compelling public
interest in combatting terrorist activities.
(iv) Information subsequently discovered with the help of voluntarily administered
narco-analysis results may be admitted in evidence.

Select the correct answer from the following:

Options:

1) (ii) and (iv) only

2) (i) and (ii) only
3) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
4) (iii) and (iv) only
Correct Answer: 3) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
Candidate Answer: 3) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

Q. No. : 411 - The Constitution (One Hundred and First) Amendment Act, 2016 was
required to be ratified by the Legislature of not less than one half of the State
Legislatures because it sought to make changes in:

(i) Chapter I of Part XI of the Constitution dealing with legislative relations between
the Union and the States.
(ii) Lists I and II of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution.
(iii) The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution.
(iv) Part XIII of the Constitution dealing with trade, commerce and intercourse within
India.

Select the correct answer from the following:

Options:

1) All the four reasons

2) It was not required to be ratified by the State Legislatures before being presented to
the President for assent.
3) (ii) only
4) (i) and (ii) only
Correct Answer: 4) (i) and (ii) only
Candidate Answer: 4) (i) and (ii) only

Q. No. : 412 - Which of the following is not a material test for determining whether a
person is holding an ‘office of profit’?
Options:

1) The Government has power to appoint a person to the office as well as revoke his
appointment at its discretion.
2) The Government pays the remuneration to the holder of the office and is responsible
for its expenses.
3) The Government has control over the authority having the power to appoint,
dismiss, or control the working of the officer
4) The office is discharging an important Governmental function.
Correct Answer: 3) The Government has control over the authority having the power
to appoint, dismiss, or control the working of the officer
Candidate Answer: 4) The office is discharging an important Governmental function.

Q. No. : 413 - A majority of not less than two-third of the membership of the House
concerned is not necessary for removal of which of the following authority?
Options:

1) A Judge of the High Court

2) The President of India
3) The Chief Election Commissioner
4) The Speaker of the House of the People
Correct Answer: 4) The Speaker of the House of the People
Candidate Answer: 4) The Speaker of the House of the People

Q. No. : 414 - Which of the following Commission(s) has/have a constitutional status, as

of April, 2017?

(i) National Commission for Scheduled Castes

(ii) National Commission for Backward Classes
(iii) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(iv) National Human Rights Commission
Options:

1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

2) (i) and (iii) only
3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
4) (i) only
Correct Answer: 2) (i) and (iii) only
Candidate Answer: 2) (i) and (iii) only

Q. No. : 415 - Which of the following reason(s) was/were considered necessary for the
Constitution (Seventy-Seventh) Amendment Act, 1995 inserting Article 16(4A)?

(i) Inadequacy of representation of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in
services in the States.
(ii) Reservation in promotion was held constitutionally impermissible in Indra
Sawhney v. Union of India, AIR 1993 SC 477.
(iii) To prevent qualitative exclusion of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes
in services in the States.
(iv) To achieve inter-locking in horizontal and vertical reservation among the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in services in the States.

Select the correct answer from the following:

Options:

1) (i) only
2) (i) and (ii) only
3) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
4) (i) an(ii), (iii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: 2) (i) and (ii) only
Candidate Answer: 2) (i) and (ii) only

Q. No. : 416 - Which of the following provision(s) applicable to the Supreme Court
is/are also applicable to the High Courts? (i) Article 124(4).
(ii) Article 124(5).
(iii) Article 129
(iv) Article 144

Select the correct answer from the following:

Options:

1) (i) and (ii) only

2) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
3) (iii) and (iv) only
4) (iii) only
Correct Answer: 1) (i) and (ii) only
Candidate Answer: 1) (i) and (ii) only

Q. No. : 417 - Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct, regarding the duties
and rights of the Attorney-General for India in performance of his duties?

(i) The Attorney-General for India shall give advice to the Government of India upon
legal matters.
(ii) The Attorney-General for India shall have a right to audience in all Courts in India.
(iii) The Attorney-General for India shall have the right to speak in the proceedings of
either House.
(iv) The Attorney-General for India shall not be liable to any proceedings in any court
in respect of anything said by him in Parliament or any committee thereof.
Options:

1) (i) and (ii) only

2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
3) All of these statements are correct
4) (i) only
Correct Answer: 3) All of these statements are correct
Candidate Answer: 3) All of these statements are correct

Q. No. : 418 - Which of the following Fundamental Rights is enforceable against

private individuals?

(i) Article 17
(ii) Article 23
(iii) Article 24
(iv) Article 21
Choose the correct answer from the following:
Options:

1) Fundamental Rights are not enforceable against private individuals

2) All are enforceable against private individuals
3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
4) (ii) and (iii) only
Correct Answer: 3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Candidate Answer: 1) Fundamental Rights are not enforceable against private
individuals

Q. No. : 419 - Which of the following procedure was adopted to give effect to the land
boundary agreement between India and Bangladesh in 2015?
Options:

1) A law made by Parliament under Article 3 of the Constitution of India.

2) The Constitution (100th Amendment) Act.
3) The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act.
4) By an executive action.
Correct Answer: 2) The Constitution (100th Amendment) Act.
Candidate Answer: 2) The Constitution (100th Amendment) Act.

Q. No. : 420 - Which of the following statements is incorrect in view of the judgment
in Pramati Educational and Cultural Trust v. Union of India (2014) 8 SCC 1?
Options:

1) Article 15(5) does not violate the freedom of private unaided educational institutions
under Article 19(1)(g) of the Constitution.
2) 15(5) and 21A do not alter the basic structure of the Constitution and are
constitutionally valid.
3) A law made under Article 15(5) of the Constitution shall not be open to challenge
under Article 14, if it treats private aided and unaided educational institutions alike.
4) Article 15(5), insofar as it is applicable to minority educational institutions referred
to in Article 30(1) of the Constitution, is ultra vires the Constitution.
Correct Answer: 3) A law made under Article 15(5) of the Constitution shall not be
open to challenge under Article 14, if it treats private aided and unaided educational
institutions alike.
Candidate Answer: 3) A law made under Article 15(5) of the Constitution shall not be
open to challenge under Article 14, if it treats private aided and unaided educational
institutions alike.

Q. No. : 421 - From where did the Drafting Committee borrow the expression “except
according to procedure established by law” for Article 21 of the Indian Constitution?
Options:

1) Irish Constitution
2) Swedish Constitution
3) Australian Constitution
4) Japanese Constitution
Correct Answer: 4) Japanese Constitution
Candidate Answer: 4) Japanese Constitution

Q. No. : 422 - In which of the following decisions the Supreme Court framed guidelines
for safeguarding the interest of the death row convicts?
Options:

1) Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India (2014) 3 SCC 1

2) Epuru Sudhakar v. Govt. of A.P. (2006) 8 SCC 161
3) People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. State of Maharashtra (2014) 10 SCC 635
4) Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration (1978) 4 SCC 494
Correct Answer: 1) Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India (2014) 3 SCC 1
Candidate Answer: 1) Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India (2014) 3 SCC 1

Q. No. : 423 - Which of the following does not follow from the law declared in
the National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014) 5 SCC 438, in respect of
rights of the members of the transgender community?
Options:

1) Recognition to gender identity as male, female or as third gender.

2) Steps to treat the third gender as a socially and economically backward class.
3) Extending special provisions relating to certain classes as contained in Article 330 of
the Constitution.
4) Extending reservation in cases of admission in educational institutions and public
appointments
Correct Answer: 3) Extending special provisions relating to certain classes as
contained in Article 330 of the Constitution.
Candidate Answer: 3) Extending special provisions relating to certain classes as
contained in Article 330 of the Constitution.

Q. No. : 424 - Which of the following were relevant considerations for prohibition on
sale of liquor along national and state highways in State of Tamil Nadu v. K. Balu (2017)
2 SCC 281?

(i) There is no fundamental right under Article 19(1)(g) to trade in liquor.

(ii) Under Article 47, the State is under a duty to raise the level of nutrition, standard of
living and improve public health.
(iii) An exception to permit the sale of liquor along a stretch of the highway which
passes through the limits of city is arbitrary and violative of Article 14.
(iv) Right to life under Article 21 signifies a right to live with human dignity, free of
noxious substances and intoxicants.

Choose the correct answer from the following:

Options:

1) All the four statements are correct

2) (i) and (iii) only
3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
4) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
Correct Answer: 3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
Candidate Answer: 4) (i), (ii) and (iv) only

Q. No. : 425 - Which of the following reasons led to the setting aside of the practice of
‘talaq-e-biddat’, triple talaq in Shayara Bano v. Union of India (2017) 9 SCC 1?

(i) Section 2 of the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 was a pre-
constitutional legislation within the meaning of Article 13(1) and violative of Article 14
of the Constitution of India on the ground of arbitrariness.
(ii) Section 2 of the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 was a pre-
constitutional legislation within the meaning of Article 13(1) and violative of Article 15
of the Constitution of India, being discriminatory.
(iii) Muslim Personal Law (Shariat) Application Act, 1937 is not a law regulating triple
talaq but the practice of triple talaq was against the basic tenets of the Holy Quran and
no practice against the tenets of Quran was permissible.
(iv) ‘Talaq-e-biddat’ is integral to the religious denomination but the Supreme Court
may injunct this practice as a means for severing matrimonial relationship.
Options:

1) (i) and (ii) only

2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
3) (i) and (iv) only
4) (i) and (iii) only
Correct Answer: 4) (i) and (iii) only
Candidate Answer: 2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

Q. No. : 426 - Which is the correct position in law on an Ordinance promulgated under
Article 123 of the Constitution of India, following the judgment in Krishna
Kumar v. State of Bihar (2017) 3 SCC

(i) Power conferred upon the President under Article 123 is legislative in character and
the satisfaction of the President is immune from judicial review.
(ii) An Ordinance promulgated under Article 123 must be laid before the Parliament,
which is a mandatory constitutional obligation cast upon the government.
(iii) An Ordinance promulgated in exercise of powers under Article 213 cannot create
enduring rights in favour of individuals
(iv) Re-promulgation of an Ordinance is a fraud on the Constitution.

Choose the correct answer from the following:

Options:

1) All the four statements are correct.

2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
3) (ii) and (iv) only
4) (i) only
Correct Answer: 2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
Candidate Answer: 3) (ii) and (iv) only

Q. No. : 427 - Article 29 of the Constitution protects the rights of:

Options:

1) Minorities based on religion or language

2) Citizens with distinct script or culture
3) Religious denominations
4) Socially and educationally backward class of citizens
Correct Answer: 2) Citizens with distinct script or culture
Candidate Answer: 1) Minorities based on religion or language

Q. No. : 428 - In which case, the Supreme Court struck down that part of the
Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 by which Article 31C was
amended?
Options:

1) Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala, (1973) 4 SCC 225.

2) L.C. GolakNath v. State of Punjab, AIR 1967 SC 1643.
3) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789.
4) S.P. Sampath Kumar v. Union of India, 1987 SCR (3) 233.
Correct Answer: 3) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789.
Candidate Answer: 3) Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India, AIR 1980 SC 1789.

Q. No. : 429 - In which among the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the
petitioners have no fundamental right within the meaning of Art 25 or 26 to perform
‘Tandava dance’ in public streets and public places.
Options:

1) Commr.HRE v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt, AIR 1954 SC
282
2) Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1963 SC 1638
3) N. Adithayan v. Travancore Devasom Board, (2002) 8 SCC 106
4) Commr. of Police v. Acharya Jagadishwarananda Avadhuta, (2004) 12 SCC 770
Correct Answer: 4) Commr. of Police v. Acharya Jagadishwarananda
Avadhuta, (2004) 12 SCC 770
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 430 - Which among the following is not a feature of federalism?

Options:

1) Supremacy of the Constitution.

2) Distribution of Powers.
3) Supremacy of the Judiciary.
4) Separation of powers.
Correct Answer: 4) Separation of powers.
Candidate Answer: 3) Supremacy of the Judiciary.
Q. No. : 431 - The idea of single citizenship in India was taken from the
Options:

1) British Constitution
2) US Constitution
3) Australian Constitution
4) Weimar Constitution
Correct Answer: 1) British Constitution
Candidate Answer: 1) British Constitution

Q. No. : 432 - With which amendment was clause 4 to Article 13, Constitution of India,
inserted?
Options:

1) The Constitution (Twenty-second Amendment) Act, 1969.

2) The Constitution (Twenty-third Amendment) Act, 1969.
3) The Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971.
4) The Constitution (Twenty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1971.
Correct Answer: 3) The Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971.
Candidate Answer: 3) The Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971.

Q. No. : 433 - Which Constitution Amendment Act brought into force the goods and
services tax?
Options:

1) 98th
2) 99th
3) 100th
4) 101st
Correct Answer: 4) 101st
Candidate Answer: 4) 101st

Q. No. : 434 - Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Options:

1) The Jammu and Kashmir Code of Criminal Procedure has no provision for transfer
of a case from a Court in Jammu and Kashmir to any Court outside that State and,
therefore, no criminal case can be transferred from the State of Jammu and Kashmir
to any other Court outside that State.
2) Article 370 of the Constitution of India confers merely a “Temporary” status on the
State of Jammu and Kashmir.
3) Article 371-D and Presidential Orders issued thereunder override any other
provision of the Constitution of India.
4) The citizens of India have a fundamental right to reside and settle in any part of
India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Correct Answer: 1) The Jammu and Kashmir Code of Criminal Procedure has no
provision for transfer of a case from a Court in Jammu and Kashmir to any Court
outside that State and, therefore, no criminal case can be transferred from the State of
Jammu and Kashmir to any other Court outside that State.
Candidate Answer: 3) Article 371-D and Presidential Orders issued thereunder
override any other provision of the Constitution of India.

Q. No. : 435 - Which of the following questions is not relevant in determining the
existence of a constitutional convention?
Options:

1) What are precedents?

2) Did the actors in the precedent believe that they were bound by a rule?
3) Are they justified in terms of morality?
4) Is there any reason for the rule?
Correct Answer: 3) Are they justified in terms of morality?
Candidate Answer: 2) Did the actors in the precedent believe that they were bound
by a rule?

Q. No. : 436 - In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court issued detailed
directions for the protection of Good Samaritans?
Options:

1) Savelife Foundation v. Union of India, AIR 2016 SC 1617.

2) Sabu Mathew George v. Union of India (2017) 2 SCC 514.
3) Voluntary Health Association of Punjab v. Union of India, AIR 2016 SC 5122.
4) Devika Biswas v. Union of India, AIR 2016 SC 4405.
Correct Answer: 1) Savelife Foundation v. Union of India, AIR 2016 SC 1617.
Candidate Answer: 2) Sabu Mathew George v. Union of India (2017) 2 SCC 514.

Q. No. : 437 - In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court refused to give any
relief to the petitioner(s) under Article 32?
Options:

1) Swaraj Abhiyan v. Union of India, AIR 2016 SC 2929.

2) Bachpan Bachao Andolan v. Union of India, 2016 (12) SCALE 751.
3) Supreme Court Women Lawyers Association v. Union of India, AIR 2016 SC 358.
4) Suresh Chand Gautam v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 2016 SC 1321.
Correct Answer: 4) Suresh Chand Gautam v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 2016 SC
1321.
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 438 - Right to life includes right to reputation was recognised in:
Options:

1) Archbishop Raphael Cheenath S.V.D. v. State of Orissa, AIR 2016 SC 3639

2) Shyam Narayan Chouksey v. Union of India (2017) 1 SCC 421
3) Dr. Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, AIR 2016 SC 2728
4) Karma Dorji v. Union of India, AIR 2017 SC 113
Correct Answer: 3) Dr. Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, AIR 2016 SC 2728
Candidate Answer: 3) Dr. Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, AIR 2016 SC 2728
Q. No. : 439 - Preventive Detention under article 22 of the Constitution can be
enforced:
Options:

1) Only during the time of communal violence

2) Only when a proclamation of national emergency is made
3) Only when a proclamation of internal emergency is made
4) At any time during peace or war
Correct Answer: 4) At any time during peace or war
Candidate Answer: 4) At any time during peace or war

Q. No. : 440 - Article 233A was introduced into the Constitution of India to validate the
appointments of, and judgments, etc. delivered by certain District Judges. In which
among the following cases were those appointments invalidated in a writ of Quo-
warranto?
Options:

1) Chandra Mohan v. State of U.P, AIR 1966 SC 1987

2) Chandramouleshwar Prasad v. Patna High Court, AIR 1970 SC370
3) G.D Karkare v. T.L Shevde, AIR 1952 Nag 330
4) Anand Bihari Mishra v. Ram Sahay, AIR 1952 MB 31
Correct Answer: 1) Chandra Mohan v. State of U.P, AIR 1966 SC 1987
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 441 - Which one of the following statements is correct?

Options:

1) The Court has no jurisdiction to see whether the procedure established by law in
Parliament is reasonable or not.
2) The procedure which is arbitrary or oppressive is not a valid procedure.
3) The requirement of compliance with the principles of natural justice is not implicit
in Art. 21 of the Constitution.
4) The Doctrine of 'Due Process' is not implied in Art. 21.
Correct Answer: 2) The procedure which is arbitrary or oppressive is not a valid
procedure.
Candidate Answer: 2) The procedure which is arbitrary or oppressive is not a valid
procedure.

Q. No. : 442 - In which case was it held that the authority which “embarks upon a post-
decisional hearing will naturally proceed with a closed mind and there is hardly any
chance of getting a proper consideration of the representation at such a post-decisional
opportunity”?
Options:

1) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) 1 SCC 248

2) Liberty Oil Mills v. Union of India, AIR 1984 SC 1271
3) Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 1480
4) H.L. Trehan v. Union of India, AIR 1989 SC 568
Correct Answer: 4) H.L. Trehan v. Union of India, AIR 1989 SC 568
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 443 - Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

Options:

1) Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to goods and services tax
where the supply of goods, or of services, or both takes place in the course of inter-
State trade or commerce.
2) The tax collected by the Union under Clause (1) of Article 246A shall not be
distributed between the Union and the States.
3) The Goods and Services Tax Council has power to establish a mechanism to
adjudicate any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.
4) Article 279-A is an entrenched provision under Article 368 of the Constitution of
India.
Correct Answer: 2) The tax collected by the Union under Clause (1) of Article 246A
shall not be distributed between the Union and the States.
Candidate Answer: 2) The tax collected by the Union under Clause (1) of Article
246A shall not be distributed between the Union and the States.

Q. No. : 444 - In which of the following cases the reservation for Jats was struck down?
Options:

1) Ram Singh v. Union of India, 2015 (3) SCALE 570

2) U.P. Power Corpn. Ltd. v. Rajesh Kumar, AIR 2012 SC 2728
3) Prem Kumar Singh v. State of U.P., 2011 (3) ALJ 343
4) Dr. Gulshan Prakash v. State of Haryana (2009) 14 SCALE 290
Correct Answer: 1) Ram Singh v. Union of India, 2015 (3) SCALE 570
Candidate Answer: 1) Ram Singh v. Union of India, 2015 (3) SCALE 570

Q. No. : 445 - Is a writ petition for mandamus maintainable in any of the following
cases?
Options:

1) Against a citizen for performance of his fundamental duties.

2) Against a private University established by an Act of State Legislature.
3) Against a private trust running coaching classes.
4) Against a lawyer restraining him from filing public interest litigations.
Correct Answer: 2) Against a private University established by an Act of State
Legislature.
Candidate Answer: 2) Against a private University established by an Act of State
Legislature.

Q. No. : 446 - For prevention of corruption, provisions have been made under which of
the legislations?

(i) The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988

(ii) The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013
(iii) The Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003

Choose the correct answer from the following:

Options:

1) (i) only.
2) (i) and (iii) only.
3) (iii) only.
4) (i), (ii) and (iii).
Correct Answer: 4) (i), (ii) and (iii).
Candidate Answer: 4) (i), (ii) and (iii).

Q. No. : 447 - The Supreme Court may review the award given by the Inter-State
Water Dispute Tribunal by invoking
Options:

1) Article 142
2) Article 131
3) Article 262
4) Article 136
Correct Answer: 4) Article 136
Candidate Answer: 1) Article 142

Q. No. : 448 - For approval or extension of emergency under Article 352 it is required
that there should be
Options:

1) Resolution by both Houses of Parliament by a majority of total membership of that

House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting.
2) Resolution by both Houses of Parliament by a simple majority of members present
and voting.
3) Resolution by both Houses of Parliament by a majority of total membership of that
House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting and
ratification by not less than one-half of the States.
4) Resolution by both Houses of Parliament by a majority of total membership of that
House and by a majority of not less than three-fourth of members present and voting.
Correct Answer: 1) Resolution by both Houses of Parliament by a majority of total
membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members
present and voting.
Candidate Answer: 1) Resolution by both Houses of Parliament by a majority of total
membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members
present and voting.

Q. No. : 449 - Double Jeopardy means:

Options:

1) No person shall be prosecuted and compelled to be a witness in the same case

simultaneously.
2) No person shall be sued for a civil wrong and prosecuted for an offence
simultaneously
3) No person shall be prosecuted for two offences simultaneously
4) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
Correct Answer: 4) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence
more than once.
Candidate Answer: 4) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same
offence more than once.

Q. No. : 450 - Which one of the following statements is correct?

Options:

1) A retired Judge of the Supreme Court cannot plead or act in any Court or before
any authority within the territory of India without the permission of the President of
India.
2) A retired Judge can appear and plead before the Supreme Court if so required by
the Chief Justice of India.
3) A retired Judge can be required by the President of India to sit and act as a judge of
the Supreme Court with the consent of the Judge concerned.
4) A retired Judge can appear and plead before a Court Marshal on behalf of the
Government of India.
Correct Answer: 2) A retired Judge can appear and plead before the Supreme Court
if so required by the Chief Justice of India.
Candidate Answer: 3) A retired Judge can be required by the President of India to sit
and act as a judge of the Supreme Court with the consent of the Judge concerned.

Q. No. : 451 - Eight Principles of Internal Morality of Law were propounded by

Options:

1) Hart
2) Hobbes
3) Kelsen
4) Lon L Fuller
Correct Answer: 4) Lon L Fuller
Candidate Answer: 4) Lon L Fuller

Q. No. : 452 - Who stated: “The life of law has not been logic; it has been experience”
Options:

1) Oliver Holmes
2) Dworkin
3) Hart
4) Roscoe Pound
Correct Answer: 1) Oliver Holmes
Candidate Answer: 1) Oliver Holmes

Q. No. : 453 - Roberto Mangabeira Unger was the main propounder of

Options:

1) Feminist Theory
2) Legal Textualism
3) Legal Realism
4) Critical Legal Studies
Correct Answer: 4) Critical Legal Studies
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 454 - The Preamble to the UN Charter uses the expression

Options:

1) We the People
2) We the Nations
3) We the Peoples
4) We the Founding Nations
Correct Answer: 3) We the Peoples
Candidate Answer: 2) We the Nations

Q. No. : 455 - Jus Cogens means:

Options:

1) Peremptory norm of International Law

2) Judgments of the ICJ
3) Just Resolution of Disputes
4) Justice for all
Correct Answer: 1) Peremptory norm of International Law
Candidate Answer: 1) Peremptory norm of International Law

Q. No. : 456 - The first Jurist to use the word Sociology was
Options:

1) Austin
2) Roscoe Pound
3) Duguit
4) Auguste Comte
Correct Answer: 4) Auguste Comte
Candidate Answer: 4) Auguste Comte

Q. No. : 457 - The concept of Dialectical Materialism is a concept commonly associated

with which of the following Schools of Thought?
Options:

1) Marxism
2) Liberal Theory
3) Post Modernism
4) Utilitarianism
Correct Answer: 2) Liberal Theory
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 458 - Who authored, “The Indian School of Synthetic Jurisprudence: An Idea
Relating to Its Purposes”?
Options:

1) Kautilya
2) Manu
3) M. J. Sethna
4) UpendraBaxi
Correct Answer: 3) M. J. Sethna
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 459 - Bridges v. Hawkesworth is a popular case on

Options:

1) Ownership
2) Possession
3) Transfer of ownership
4) Atonement
Correct Answer: 2) Possession
Candidate Answer: 1) Ownership

Q. No. : 460 - Hedonistic calculus as a measure of pain and pleasure was hypothesized
by
Options:

1) Austin
2) Bentham
3) Salmond
4) Holland
Correct Answer: 2) Bentham
Candidate Answer: 2) Bentham

Q. No. : 461 - Jurisprudence should be ideally divided into censorial and expository
jurisprudence. This view was given by
Options:

1) Auguste Comte
2) Bentham
3) Emile Durkheim
4) Holland
Correct Answer: 2) Bentham
Candidate Answer: 2) Bentham

Q. No. : 462 - Law is a combination of Primary and Secondary rules. This principle was
propounded by
Options:

1) Kelsen
2) Ronald Dworkin
3) Hart
4) Fuller
Correct Answer: 3) Hart
Candidate Answer: 3) Hart

Q. No. : 463 - As per the Anthropological approach towards the study of

Jurisprudence, the Twelve Tables of Rome may be considered an example of
Options:

1) Religious law
2) Divine law
3) Published law
4) Personal command
Correct Answer: 3) Published law
Candidate Answer: 2) Divine law

Q. No. : 464 - Who made the statement, "Law is uncertain and certainty of law is a
legal myth"?
Options:

1) Fuller
2) Jerome Frank
3) Llewellyn
4) Holmes
Correct Answer: 2) Jerome Frank
Candidate Answer: 1) Fuller

Q. No. : 465 - As per Kelsen, if a norm remains permanently inefficacious, then it is

deprived of its validity. This is known as
Options:

1) Nomodynamics
2) Condition per quam
3) Desuetudo
4) Effective Repeal
Correct Answer: 3) Desuetudo
Candidate Answer: 2) Condition per quam

Q. No. : 466 - The theory “justice as fairness” was propounded by

Options:

1) Robert Nozick
2) Ronald Dworkin
3) F. Engels
4) John Rawls
Correct Answer: 4) John Rawls
Candidate Answer: 4) John Rawls

Q. No. : 467 - The term ‘transcendental idealism’ is applied to the epistemology of

Options:

1) Hegel
2) Stammler
3) Immanuel Kant
4) Karl Marx
Correct Answer: 3) Immanuel Kant
Candidate Answer: 2) Stammler

Q. No. : 468 - The famous essay Vom Bneruf was written by Savigny as a reaction to
Options:

1) Thibaut’s proposal for a Code on the lines of the Napoleonic Code

2) The King’s proposal for introducing British common law in Germany
3) The Parliament’s proposal to introduce Roman law in Germany
4) The revival of Justinian’s Code
Correct Answer: 1) Thibaut’s proposal for a Code on the lines of the Napoleonic
Code
Candidate Answer: 3) The Parliament’s proposal to introduce Roman law in
Germany

Q. No. : 469 - Who among the following is called as “Darwinian before Darwin”,
because of his contribution to apply the evolutionary principle to the development of
the legal system?
Options:

1) Gluckman
2) Malinowski
3) Savigny
4) Puchta
Correct Answer: 3) Savigny
Candidate Answer: 3) Savigny

Q. No. : 470 - In his endeavour to discover a pattern of legal development, Maine was
led to distinguish between societies as
Options:

1) Static and progressive societies

2) Dependent and independent societies
3) Subjective and objective societies
4) Customary and statutory societies.
Correct Answer: 1) Static and progressive societies
Candidate Answer: 1) Static and progressive societies

Q. No. : 471 - Pound’s theory of Social Engineering mainly talks about

Options:

1) General consciousness being the primary source of law

2) Legislative power
3) Balancing of competing interests in society
4) Difference between law creation and law application
Correct Answer: 3) Balancing of competing interests in society
Candidate Answer: 3) Balancing of competing interests in society

Q. No. : 472 - Which theory of punishment implies “An eye for an eye, a tooth for a
tooth” approach?
Options:

1) Expiatory
2) Preventive
3) Deterrent
4) Retributive
Correct Answer: 4) Retributive
Candidate Answer: 4) Retributive

Q. No. : 473 - As per the rule of English law, a custom to be recognized as law, must be
proved to be in existence since times immemorial. However, for customs that are old
and whose time of origin cannot be ascertained, which year has been fixed as the date
before which it must have started?
Options:

1) 1169 AD
2) 1189 AD
3) 1369 AD
4) 1389 AD
Correct Answer: 2) 1189 AD
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 474 - Which of the following is an accessory right?

Options:

1) Easementary rights
2) Ownership rights
3) Right to reputation
4) Right to personal security
Correct Answer: 1) Easementary rights
Candidate Answer: 1) Easementary rights

Q. No. : 475 - Ownership of goodwill of a business is

Options:

1) Corporeal ownership
2) Incorporeal ownership
3) Business ownership
4) Beneficial ownership
Correct Answer: 2) Incorporeal ownership
Candidate Answer: 1) Corporeal ownership

Q. No. : 476 - The law applying to controversies involving non-citizens of Rome was
known as
Options:

1) Jus civilie
2) Jus gentium
3) Nicomachean ethics
4) Corpus civilie
Correct Answer: 2) Jus gentium
Candidate Answer: 2) Jus gentium

Q. No. : 477 - Which one of the following philosophers conceived justice as ‘some sort
of equality’ and divided the concept of justice as ‘corrective justice’ and ‘distributive
justice’?
Options:

1) Aristotle
2) Rawls
3) Robert Nozick
4) Ronald Dworkin
Correct Answer: 1) Aristotle
Candidate Answer: 4) Ronald Dworkin

Q. No. : 478 - “Sociology of law must begin with the ascertainment of the living law, the
concrete which can be observed and not the abstract”. Who said so?
Options:

1) Duguit
2) Ihering
3) Ehrlich
4) Durkheim
Correct Answer: 3) Ehrlich
Candidate Answer: 3) Ehrlich

Q. No. : 479 - Who said that, “The law of nature or natural law is the general will of the
people who come together to form an association called State”?
Options:

1) Hobbes
2) Locke
3) Rousseau
4) Kant
Correct Answer: 3) Rousseau
Candidate Answer: 3) Rousseau

Q. No. : 480 - Which one of the following conceived ‘integrative jurisprudence’ as

combined jurisprudence of positivist, naturalist and sociological descriptions and an
understanding of the value components of legal ordering?
Options:

1) Jerome Hall
2) John Finnis
3) Clarence Morris
4) Leon Duguit
Correct Answer: 1) Jerome Hall
Candidate Answer: 1) Jerome Hall

Q. No. : 481 - De Jure Belli ac Pacis is the celebrated work of-

Options:

1) Hugo Grotius
2) Niccolo Machiavelli
3) Samuel Pufendorf
4) Jean Jacques Burlamaqui
Correct Answer: 1) Hugo Grotius
Candidate Answer: 1) Hugo Grotius

Q. No. : 482 - Which one of the following drafted the hypothetical Case of the
Speluncean Explorers?
Options:

1) Lon L Fuller
2) Rudolph Stammler
3) John Rawls
4) Clarence Morris
Correct Answer: 1) Lon L Fuller
Candidate Answer: 1) Lon L Fuller

Q. No. : 483 - Which of the following is not absolute duty according to John Austin?
Options:

1) Duties towards lower animals

2) Duties towards community
3) Self-regarding duties
4) Duties towards sovereign
Correct Answer: 1) Duties towards lower animals
Candidate Answer: 2) Duties towards community

Q. No. : 484 - Who said, "A precedent, therefore, is a judicial decision which contains
in itself a principle. The underlying principle which thus forms its authoritative
element is often termed the ratio decidendi.”?
Options:

1) Salmond
2) Keeton
3) Rupert Cross
4) Osborn
Correct Answer: 1) Salmond
Candidate Answer: 1) Salmond

Q. No. : 485 - Which of the following statements does not suit the Hohfeldian analysis
of right?
Options:

1) Power in ‘X’ means presence of liability upon ‘Y’

2) Immunity in ‘X’ means absence of liability in ‘X’
3) Right in ‘X’ means presence of ‘No-right’ in ‘Y’
4) Liberty in ‘X’ means absence of duty in ‘X’
Correct Answer: 3) Right in ‘X’ means presence of ‘No-right’ in ‘Y’
Candidate Answer: 3) Right in ‘X’ means presence of ‘No-right’ in ‘Y’

Q. No. : 486 - Which of the following is not a circumstance of strengthening the

authority of a precedent?
Options:

1) Approval of the decision in later cases and by the profession at large

2) Closely divided opinion of the Court
3) Evidence in the report that the issue was fully argued by counsel and the Court took
time to deliberate
4) The decision has stood the test of time
Correct Answer: 2) Closely divided opinion of the Court
Candidate Answer: 3) Evidence in the report that the issue was fully argued by
counsel and the Court took time to deliberate

Q. No. : 487 - A rule which says, “the literal sense of words should be adhered to, unless
this would lead to absurdity, in which case the literal meaning may be modified”, can
be called
Options:

1) Mischief rule
2) Literal rule
3) Golden rule
4) Compromise approach
Correct Answer: 3) Golden rule
Candidate Answer: 3) Golden rule

Q. No. : 488 - Who defined ownership as ‘a right – indefinite in point of user –

unrestricted in point of disposition – and unlimited in point of duration’?
Options:

1) Salmond
2) Austin
3) Marx
4) Glaniville Williams
Correct Answer: 2) Austin
Candidate Answer: 2) Austin

Q. No. : 489 - Which of the following is not correct in the context of valid usage?
Options:

1) Usage must be so well established as notorious.

2) In case of conflict between usage and law, law prevails.
3) In case of conflict between express provision of a contract and usage, contract
prevails.
4) Usage shall be a reasonable one.
Correct Answer: 3) In case of conflict between express provision of a contract and
usage, contract prevails.
Candidate Answer: 1) Usage must be so well established as notorious.

Q. No. : 490 - “A dictate of right reason, which points out that an act, according as it is
or is not in conformity with rational nature, has in it a quality of moral baseness or
moral necessity.” Who made this observation?
Options:

1) Cicero
2) Aristotle
3) Plato
4) Grotius
Correct Answer: 4) Grotius
Candidate Answer: 4) Grotius

Q. No. : 491 - “Private property is robbery, and a state based on private property is a
state of robbers who are fighting for a share of the spoils.” Who made this observation?
Options:

1) Lenin
2) Marx
3) Renner
4) Pashukanis
Correct Answer: 1) Lenin
Candidate Answer: 1) Lenin
Q. No. : 492 - In response to a petition, the Supreme Court transferred a case on
constitutionality of a Central Act to the High Court of Bombay. The Bombay High
Court upheld it. In a constitutional challenge of the same Act, pending before the High
Court of Madras what the latter High Court cannot do with regard to Bombay High
Court judgment is
Options:

1) Abstaining from applying it

2) Applying it
3) Overruling it
4) Distinguishing it
Correct Answer: 3) Overruling it
Candidate Answer: 3) Overruling it

Q. No. : 493 - Which of the following characteristics of trust is considered as a

problematic factor in a legal system?
Options:

1) Group property can be applied for the desired purpose.

2) Pooling up of economic power to neutralise competition
3) Enables endowments and gifts by vesting rights in trustees.
4) Helps in settling family property in favour of the vulnerable.
Correct Answer: 2) Pooling up of economic power to neutralise competition
Candidate Answer: 3) Enables endowments and gifts by vesting rights in trustees.

Q. No. : 494 - Which of the following is a right in re aliena?

Options:

1) Literary copyright
2) Moveable property
3) Servitude
4) Land
Correct Answer: 3) Servitude
Candidate Answer: 3) Servitude

Q. No. : 495 - Which of the following is not correct about the will theory of contract?
Options:

1) It believes in the dictum of status to contract.

2) It puts emphasis on expectations reasonably aroused by conduct rather than state of
mind.
3) It relies on person’s mind which can be proved only from his own evidence or by
inferences from his conduct.
4) It leads to such a subjective view of mistake that the security of transactions is
thereby imperilled.
Correct Answer: 2) It puts emphasis on expectations reasonably aroused by conduct
rather than state of mind.
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]
Q. No. : 496 - “The suppression of vice is as much the law’s business as the suppression
of subversive activities.” Who made this observation?
Options:

1) H L A Hart
2) J S Mill
3) Lord Devlin
4) James Stephens
Correct Answer: 3) Lord Devlin
Candidate Answer: 3) Lord Devlin

Q. No. : 497 - Which of the following is not correct about the Critical Legal School?
Options:

1) It strongly believes in the inescapable power of the intellectual climate’s search for
value neutrality.
2) It shows the way in which the legal system works at many different levels to shape
popular consciousness towards accepting the legitimacy of the status quo.
3) It rejects formalism
4) Its central thrust of attack is on legal liberalism.
Correct Answer: 1) It strongly believes in the inescapable power of the intellectual
climate’s search for value neutrality.
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 498 - Which of the following propositions do not suit the approaches of
American Realism?
Options:

1) It is a combination of the analytical positivist and sociological approaches.

2) It lays emphasis on empirical study of the behaviour of judges.
3) It distrusts the sufficiency of legal rules and concepts as descriptive of what Courts
do.
4) It combines the ‘is’ and ‘ought’ aspects in the study of law and how it works.
Correct Answer: 4) It combines the ‘is’ and ‘ought’ aspects in the study of law and
how it works.
Candidate Answer: 4) It combines the ‘is’ and ‘ought’ aspects in the study of law and
how it works.

Q. No. : 499 - Who stated that, “Law is the sum of the conditions of social life in the
widest sense of the term, as secured by the power of the State through the means of
external compulsion.”
Options:

1) Roscoe Pound
2) Jeremy Bentham
3) Ehrlich
4) Ihering
Correct Answer: 4) Ihering
Candidate Answer: 2) Jeremy Bentham

Q. No. : 500 - Which of the following is not emphasised by Katherine Bartlette as a part
of feminist legal research?
Options:

1) Asking the woman question

2) Consciousness–raising
3) Difference theory
4) Positionality
Correct Answer: 3) Difference theory
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 501 - In which case was it observed that “The dividing line between an
administrative power and a quasi-judicial power is quite thin and is being gradually
obliterated”?
Options:

1) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) 1 SCC 248.

2) State of Orissa v. Dr. (Miss) Binapani Dei, AIR 1967 SC 1269.
3) A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India, AIR 1970 SC 170.
4) Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India, AIR 1981 SC 818.
Correct Answer: 3) A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India, AIR 1970 SC 170.
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 502 - In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the
Wednesbury rule was applicable in administrative actions?
Options:

1) Indian Railway Construction Co. Ltd. v. Ajay Kumar, (2003) 4 SCC 579
2) Shrilekha Vidyarthi v. State of U.P., AIR 1991 SC 537
3) State of Punjab v. V.K. Khanna, AIR 2001 SC 343
4) A.N. Parasuraman v. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 1990 SC 40
Correct Answer: 1) Indian Railway Construction Co. Ltd. v. Ajay Kumar, (2003) 4 SCC
579
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 503 - Which one of the following statements with regard to the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013 is not correct?
Options:

1) It makes certain amendments to the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

2) It contains detailed provisions for the appointment of Lokayuktas in States.
3) It confers supervisory jurisdiction on Delhi Special Police Establishment.
4) It extends to the whole of India.
Correct Answer: 2) It contains detailed provisions for the appointment of Lokayuktas
in States.
Candidate Answer: 4) It extends to the whole of India.

Q. No. : 504 - Which one of the following has powers similar to those of a Court having
power to issue a writ of certiorari under the express statutory provisions?
Options:

1) Administrative tribunals established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985.

2) Industrial Tribunals established under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
3) Income Tax Appellate Tribunal established under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
4) State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission established under the Consumer
Protection Act, 1986
Correct Answer: 4) State Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission established
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986
Candidate Answer: 3) Income Tax Appellate Tribunal established under the Income
Tax Act, 1961.

Q. No. : 505 - Which one of the following statements with regard to a Commission of
Inquiry is incorrect?
Options:

1) A Commission of Inquiry can be headed only by a sitting or retired judge.

2) A Commission of Inquiry cannot compel a person to disclose any secret process of
manufacture of any goods unless the subject matter of inquiry relates to that process.
3) The report of the Commission of Inquiry is not binding on the Government.
4) The Central Government is not always restrained from appointing a Commission of
Inquiry when on the same subject a Commission appointed by a State Government is
already working.
Correct Answer: 1) A Commission of Inquiry can be headed only by a sitting or
retired judge.
Candidate Answer: 1) A Commission of Inquiry can be headed only by a sitting or
retired judge.

Q. No. : 506 - Which one of the following statements with regard to the Right to
Information Act, 2005 is not correct?
Options:

1) No reasons are required to be given for seeking information.

2) Private Universities are bound to give information.
3) No fee is to be paid if information is supplied after five weeks from the date of
application.
4) Intelligence Bureau is not bound to give any information.
Correct Answer: 4) Intelligence Bureau is not bound to give any information.
Candidate Answer: 3) No fee is to be paid if information is supplied after five weeks
from the date of application.

Q. No. : 507 - Which among the following was the first case before the Supreme Court
of India where the constitutionality of death penalty was challenged?
Options:
1) Rajendra Prasad v. State of U. P.
2) Jagmohan Singh v. State of U. P.
3) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
4) Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab
Correct Answer: 2) Jagmohan Singh v. State of U. P.
Candidate Answer: 2) Jagmohan Singh v. State of U. P.

Q. No. : 508 - Which among the following is/are not true with respect to the decision of
the Supreme Court of India in Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum .v. Union of India (AIR
1996 SC 2715)?

i. This was a PIL against the pollution caused by discharge of untreated effluent from
tanneries and other industries.
ii. The Court refused to recognise that a balance must be struck between the economy
and the environment.
iii. The Court accepted the traditional concept that development and ecology are
opposed to each other.
iv. The Court reviewed the development of the concept of sustainable development in
the international sphere.
v. The Supreme Court held that the precautionary principle and the polluter pays
principle are part of International environmental law and not of municipal law.
Options:

1) Only i, iii and v

2) Only ii, iii and v
3) Only iii, iv and v
4) Only iv and v
Correct Answer: 2) Only ii, iii and v
Candidate Answer: 4) Only iv and v

Q. No. : 509 - Identify the correct statement with respect to the Law of Partnership?
Options:

1) Though registration of the Partnership is not mandatory, registration of the

Partnership deed is essential.
2) The Limited Liability Partnership is part of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932.
3) The existence of a partnership can only be determined by the partnership deed.
4) Unless there is a contract to the contrary, death of a partner will automatically lead
to the dissolution of the partnership.
Correct Answer: 4) Unless there is a contract to the contrary, death of a partner will
automatically lead to the dissolution of the partnership.
Candidate Answer: 1) Though registration of the Partnership is not mandatory,
registration of the Partnership deed is essential.

Q. No. : 510 - In which among the following cases did the Supreme Court observe: “We
cannot allow our judicial thinking to be constricted by reference to the law as it
prevails in England or for that matter, in any other foreign country. We no longer need
the crutches of a foreign legal order.”
Options:

1) Sri Ram Food Fertilizers Case(AIR 1987 SC 965)

2) M.C Mehta v. Union of India (AIR 1987 SC 1086)
3) Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India(AIR 1990 SC 273)
4) M.P. Electricity Board v. Shail Kumar (AIR 2002 SC 551)
Correct Answer: 2) M.C Mehta v. Union of India (AIR 1987 SC 1086)
Candidate Answer: 2) M.C Mehta v. Union of India (AIR 1987 SC 1086)

Q. No. : 511 - Which among the following authorities is vested with the power to
investigate on matters of professional misconduct committed by a Chartered
Accountant or a Chartered Accountant’s Firm under Section 132 of the Companies
Act, 2013?
Options:

1) National Advisory Committee on Accounting Standards

2) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
3) The Serious Fraud Investigation Office
4) National Financial Reporting Authority
Correct Answer: 4) National Financial Reporting Authority
Candidate Answer: 4) National Financial Reporting Authority

Q. No. : 512 - Which among the following is not true with respect to negotiable
instruments?
Options:

1) There must be an unconditional order or promise for payment.

2) A cheque cannot be considered as a bill of exchange.
3) If the time of payment is linked to the death of a person, it is nevertheless a
negotiable instrument.
4) It is freely transferable and delivery of the instrument is essential.
Correct Answer: 2) A cheque cannot be considered as a bill of exchange.
Candidate Answer: 3) If the time of payment is linked to the death of a person, it is
nevertheless a negotiable instrument.

Q. No. : 513 - In which case did the Supreme Court place the Bangalore Water Supply
and Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa before the Chief Justice of India for reconsideration
by a larger bench?
Options:

1) State of U.P v. Jai Bir Singh, 2005 (5) SCC 1.

2) Coir Board v. Indira Devi,[2000] 1 SCC 224.
3) Aeltemesh Rein v. Union of India, [1988] 4 SCC 54].
4) A.K. Roy v. Union of India, [1982] 1 SCC 271.
Correct Answer: 1) State of U.P v. Jai Bir Singh, 2005 (5) SCC 1.
Candidate Answer: 2) Coir Board v. Indira Devi,[2000] 1 SCC 224.
Q. No. : 514 - The legal phrase ‘ pari passu’ means.
Options:

1) On equal footing.
2) Like angels do.
3) Repay without delay.
4) Return promptly.
Correct Answer: 1) On equal footing.
Candidate Answer: 1) On equal footing.

Q. No. : 515 - When a person dies intestate

Options:

1) He dies in his home in his estate.

2) He dies without leaving any property.
3) He dies without leaving a will.
4) He dies by committing suicide.
Correct Answer: 1) He dies in his home in his estate.
Candidate Answer: 3) He dies without leaving a will.

Q. No. : 516 - A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through

Options:

1) Registration.
2) Naturalisation.
3) Birth
4) Descent.
Correct Answer: 2) Naturalisation.
Candidate Answer: 2) Naturalisation.

Q. No. : 517 - Which of the following writs can be used against a person believed to be
holding a public office, he is not entitled to hold?
Options:

1) Writ of mandamus.
2) Writ of certiorari.
3) Writ of prohibition.
4) Writ of quo warranto.
Correct Answer: 4) Writ of quo warranto.
Candidate Answer: 4) Writ of quo warranto.

Q. No. : 518 - The principles of natural justice are applicable

Options:

1) only to judicial and quasi judicial proceedings and not to administrative

proceedings.
2) only to judicial, quasi judicial and administrative proceedings but not to the law
making procedure.
3) only to judicial proceedings.
4) to all judicial, quasi judicial, administrative and law making procedures.
Correct Answer: 2) only to judicial, quasi judicial and administrative proceedings but
not to the law making procedure.
Candidate Answer: 2) only to judicial, quasi judicial and administrative proceedings
but not to the law making procedure.

Q. No. : 519 - What is the minimum number of judges required to constitute a

Constitution Bench in the Supreme Court of India?
Options:

1) Five
2) Three
3) Seven
4) Nine
Correct Answer: 1) Five
Candidate Answer: 1) Five

Q. No. : 520 - According to the Hindu Marriage Act, a marriage is

Options:

1) An agreement.
2) A contract.
3) A sacrament.
4) A pious obligation.
Correct Answer: 3) A sacrament.
Candidate Answer: 3) A sacrament.

Q. No. : 521 - Which one of the legal propositions is correct?

Options:

1) It is necessary for a contract to be valid that the consideration should be adequate.

2) Inadequacy of consideration does not affect the validity of the agreement.
3) Inadequacy of consideration renders the contract void ab initio.
4) An agreement made on account of natural love and affection, without consideration
is void.
Correct Answer: 2) Inadequacy of consideration does not affect the validity of the
agreement.
Candidate Answer: 2) Inadequacy of consideration does not affect the validity of the
agreement.

Q. No. : 522 - A supplied to B, a minor, provisions such as wheat flour, rice and other
food stuffs.
Options:

1) Since a minor's contract is void, A cannot recover the price of the provisions from
B.
2) A can recover the price from B as there is an agreement between A and B.
3) A is not entitled to recover the money as he voluntarily supplied the provisions
knowing that B was a minor.
4) Since the provisions supplied constituted necessaries, A can recover the money.
Correct Answer: 4) Since the provisions supplied constituted necessaries, A can
recover the money.
Candidate Answer: 4) Since the provisions supplied constituted necessaries, A can
recover the money.

Q. No. : 523 - A, from Kerala, writes a letter to B who lives in Delhi requesting the
supply of certain goods at a certain price. While accepting the offer by writing a letter
on his printed letterhead B writes at the top of the letterhead, "Subject to the
jurisdiction of Delhi Courts." Later a dispute arises and A files an action in Kerala.
Options:

1) A cannot file legal proceedings in Kerala since B has clearly indicated that the
jurisdiction is restricted to Delhi courts.
2) The agreement is void as it tends to defeat the legal process.
3) Since B has written the words at the top of his letterhead, they do not become part of
the contract and hence A is free to file the action in any court which has jurisdiction.
4) Since the letterhead is part of the agreement of acceptance, the agreement is
enforceable.
Correct Answer: 3) Since B has written the words at the top of his letterhead, they do
not become part of the contract and hence A is free to file the action in any court which
has jurisdiction.
Candidate Answer: 4) Since the letterhead is part of the agreement of acceptance, the
agreement is enforceable.

Q. No. : 524 - A, a cultivator of green tea, agrees with B that he would not grow tea for
a period of five years in consideration of which B agrees to pay him Rs. 25,000/-
Options:

1) The agreement is valid.

2) The agreement is valid as the consideration is adequate.
3) The agreement is void as it is in restraint of trade.
4) The agreement is voidable at the option of A.
Correct Answer: 3) The agreement is void as it is in restraint of trade.
Candidate Answer: 3) The agreement is void as it is in restraint of trade.

Q. No. : 525 - A entrusted his car to B for plying it as a taxi. B employed C as a cleaner.
B gave the taxi to C for taking a driving test and to obtain a driving licence. C while
giving the driving test seriously injured D. D filed a case against A, the owner of the
vehicle.
Options:

1) A is not liable as he had neither permitted nor authorised C to drive the car.
2) A is liable because B was acting as his agent in giving the vehicle to C for taking it
for driving test.
3) A is liable because the accident happened during the course of employment.
4) A is liable because C was giving the driving test for the licence of A
Correct Answer: 1) A is not liable as he had neither permitted nor authorised C to
drive the car.
Candidate Answer: 1) A is not liable as he had neither permitted nor authorised C to
drive the car.

Q. No. : 526 - A transport company issued a circular to all its drivers that they should
not compete or obstruct other buses plying in the route. Driver A, in contravention of
the express prohibition, obstructed another bus and while doing so met with an
accident in which B was injured.
Options:

1) The company is not liable as it had expressly prohibited the drivers from competing
and obstructing other buses.
2) The company is liable as the accident happened in the course of employment.
3) The company is not liable because the driver had disobeyed the company's
instructions and thereby acted outside the course of employment.
4) The company is not liable because the driver had not acted for the benefit of the
employer, the company.
Correct Answer: 2) The company is liable as the accident happened in the course of
employment.
Candidate Answer: 2) The company is liable as the accident happened in the course
of employment.

Q. No. : 527 - A was riding his bicycle on a rainy day on a road which had no street
lights. He came in contact with a live wire lying on the road which was inundated with
water and got electrocuted. A's wife brought an action against the Electricity Board for
negligence.
Options:

1) The Board is not liable as the accident happened because of the negligence of the
cyclist.
2) The Board is not liable as the accident happened because of the negligence of a third
party, as the Board argued that a third party tried to siphon off the electricity illegally,
and negligently left the wire on the road.
3) The Board is not liable because of the rain and storm, and as such, it was an Act of
God.
4) The Board is liable, as supplying electricity is an inherently dangerous act, and as
such, the Board is absolutely liable.
Correct Answer: 4) The Board is liable, as supplying electricity is an inherently
dangerous act, and as such, the Board is absolutely liable.
Candidate Answer: 4) The Board is liable, as supplying electricity is an inherently
dangerous act, and as such, the Board is absolutely liable.

Q. No. : 528 - The Supreme Court in Indian Medical Association v. V P Shanta, (1995) 6
SCC 651, has held that:
Options:
1) a hospital rendering free service to some patients and paid services to others is not
covered under the definition of service under the Consumer Protection Act, as
gratuitous services is excluded from the definition of service under the Act.
2) a hospital which renders service to the patients is covered under the Consumer
Protection Act whether they are rendering a contract of service or contract for service.
3) a hospital which is run by the government is not covered under the Consumer
Protection Act and the patient who suffers due to the negligence of a doctor working in
the hospital will have to file the case in a civil court under the law of tort.
4) a hospital which renders free service to some patients and paid service to some
others is covered under the definition of service, as the patients who receive free service
are the beneficiaries of the service hired by the patients who pay for the service.
Correct Answer: 4) a hospital which renders free service to some patients and paid
service to some others is covered under the definition of service, as the patients who
receive free service are the beneficiaries of the service hired by the patients who pay for
the service.
Candidate Answer: 4) a hospital which renders free service to some patients and paid
service to some others is covered under the definition of service, as the patients who
receive free service are the beneficiaries of the service hired by the patients who pay for
the service.

Q. No. : 529 - Delegated Legislation is:

Options:

1) the law made by the Parliament or the State Legislature under delegated authority
from the Constitution.
2) the rule, regulations byelaws, etc., made by subordinate authorities under delegated
authority from the Parliament or State Legislature.
3) the Ordinance promulgated by the President or the Governor under delegated
authority from the Constitution.
4) the law declared by the judiciary while deciding cases brought before it.
Correct Answer: 2) the rule, regulations byelaws, etc., made by subordinate
authorities under delegated authority from the Parliament or State Legislature.
Candidate Answer: 2) the rule, regulations byelaws, etc., made by subordinate
authorities under delegated authority from the Parliament or State Legislature.

Q. No. : 530 - The doctrine of 'Acting under Dictation' is applied in the case of
Options:

1) Abuse of discretion
2) Failure to exercise discretion
3) Unreasonable exercise of discretion
4) Arbitrary exercise of discretion
Correct Answer: 2) Failure to exercise discretion
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 531 - Judicial Review deals with:

Options:
1) the supervision and monitoring of the activities of the officials of various government
departments.
2) the review by the judiciary of its own decisions.
3) the review by the judiciary of the administrative and legislative acts.
4) the review by the judiciary of the case laws with a view to apply in the case at hand.
Correct Answer: 3) the review by the judiciary of the administrative and legislative
acts.
Candidate Answer: 3) the review by the judiciary of the administrative and legislative
acts.

Q. No. : 532 - Directions: The question below consists of two statements, one labelled as
‘Assertion’ (A) and another as ‘Reason’ (R). Examine these two statements carefully
and select the answers to these items from the codes given below.

Assertion (A): It is the legal and constitutional duty of the State to provide legal aid to
poor.
Reason (R): No one should be denied justice by reason of his poverty. Codes:
Options:

1) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.

2) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false.
4) A is false but R is true.
Correct Answer: 1) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
Candidate Answer: 1) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct
explanation of A.

Q. No. : 533 - A, a singer, enters into a contract with B, the manager of a theatre, to
sing at his theatre two nights every week during the following two months, and B
agrees to pay Rupees 100/- for each night's performance. On the sixth night A wilfully
absents herself from the theatre.
Options:

1) B is at liberty to put an end to the contract.

2) B has to give notice to end the contract.
3) B cannot breach the contract.
4) It is A’s freedom to take leave, so B has to retain A
Correct Answer: 1) B is at liberty to put an end to the contract.
Candidate Answer: 1) B is at liberty to put an end to the contract.

Q. No. : 534 - Under which provision of the Companies Act, 2013, will members be
liable for a reduction of the statutory minimum number of members, in the Company?
Options:

1) Sec. 3A
2) Sec. 7
3) Sec. 3
4) Sec. 4
Correct Answer: 1) Sec. 3A
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 535 - Mohit lends Rs. One Lakh to Som where Narain was the surety. The
contract in this transaction provided that the liability of Narain is limited to Rs.
50,000/-. The contract is:
Options:

1) Void
2) Irregular
3) Voidable
4) Valid
Correct Answer: 4) Valid
Candidate Answer: 4) Valid

Q. No. : 536 - The right of an accused to be defended by a legal practitioner of his/her

choice commences when:
Options:

1) the charge sheet is issued

2) the accused pleads not guilty
3) the accused is remanded
4) the accused is arrested
Correct Answer: 4) the accused is arrested
Candidate Answer: 4) the accused is arrested

Q. No. : 537 - The transfer of ' spes successionis' under the Transfer of Property Act is
Options:

1) void ab initio
2) voidable
3) perfectly valid
4) valid only if approved by the court .
Correct Answer: 1) void ab initio
Candidate Answer: 1) void ab initio

Q. No. : 538 - A mortgage by deposit of title deeds for which a loan of Rs 3 crores is
raised
Options:

1) can be effected only with the help of a written deed

2) only with the help of a written and attested deed
3) can be effected only with the help of a written, attested and registered document.
4) can be effected without an attested or registered document.
Correct Answer: 4) can be effected without an attested or registered document.
Candidate Answer: 2) only with the help of a written and attested deed
Q. No. : 539 - The rule of Daniels v Davison (1809) 16 Ves 249, has been given a
statutory shape in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, under, which of the following
titles?
Options:

1) Registration as constructive notice

2) Actual possession as constructive notice
3) Doctrine of animo attestendi
4) Doctrine of election
Correct Answer: 1) Registration as constructive notice
Candidate Answer: 2) Actual possession as constructive notice

Q. No. : 540 - Under which of the following laws is the remedy of restitution of conjugal
rights not available?
Options:

1) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

2) Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872
3) Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936
4) Special Marriage Act, 1954
Correct Answer: 2) Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1872
Candidate Answer: 1) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

Q. No. : 541 - H and W, both professing Muslim faith marry under the Special
Marriage Act, 1954. In course of time they are blessed with two sons and two
daughters. The eldest child, S1 was very successful and made a lot of money while the
rest of the family members were in dire financial circumstances. He maintained a
separate habitation, refused to share his money and executed a Will of his total
property in favour of a trust before his death at the age of 44 excluding completely his
younger siblings and old parents. The Will would be
Options:

1) valid only to the extent of 1/3rd of his total property.

2) void as 2/3rd of his property must go by intestate succession.
3) valid as he can make a Will of his total property.
4) valid as he died a bachelor .
Correct Answer: 3) valid as he can make a Will of his total property.
Candidate Answer: 1) valid only to the extent of 1/3rd of his total property.

Q. No. : 542 - A 35 years old Hindu bachelor (single man) adopts a 14 years old girl
under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956. Such adoption under the law
is:
Options:

1) valid
2) void
3) voidable
4) irregular
Correct Answer: 1) valid
Candidate Answer: 2) void

Q. No. : 543 - An “International Application” under the Patent Co-operation Treaty:

Options:

1) is examined by a patent examiner at a designated office.

2) is searched against by a single search conducted at a designated office.
3) results in a single patent covering all the States for which protection is sought.
4) is forwarded to the patent offices of all the States for which protection is sought for
search and examination.
Correct Answer: 4) is forwarded to the patent offices of all the States for which
protection is sought for search and examination.
Candidate Answer: [ NOT ANSWERED ]

Q. No. : 544 - The first of the major laws for the protection of environment, to be
promulgated in India was the:
Options:

1) Water Act.
2) Air Act.
3) Environmental Act.
4) Noise Pollution Rule.
Correct Answer: 1) Water Act.
Candidate Answer: 1) Water Act.

Q. No. : 545 - What does the term ISSN displayed on Journals stand for?
Options:

1) International Sequence of Standard Numbers

2) International Standard Serial Number
3) Index of Standard Serial Numbers
4) Indexed Standard and Sequential Numbers
Correct Answer: 2) International Standard Serial Number
Candidate Answer: 2) International Standard Serial Number

Q. No. : 546 - The fundamental principle of non-refoulement in International Law is

applied in relation to:
Options:

1) Terrorists
2) Drug traffickers
3) Smugglers
4) Refugees
Correct Answer: 4) Refugees
Candidate Answer: 4) Refugees
Q. No. : 547 - The last trial by jury held in a criminal case in India was that of
Options:

1) Rustom v. State of Gujarat

2) Ascentia Dawes v. Crown
3) Lily v. State of Bombay
4) K.M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra
Correct Answer: 4) K.M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra
Candidate Answer: 4) K.M. Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra

Q. No. : 548 - The Right to Education Act 2009 (RTE) provides for free and
compulsory education to:
Options:

1) All illiterate children of India

2) All citizens of India
3) Children aged between 6 and 14 years
4) All children up to the age of 10 years
Correct Answer: 3) Children aged between 6 and 14 years
Candidate Answer: 3) Children aged between 6 and 14 years

Q. No. : 549 - An International treaty becomes binding on India, when:

Options:

1) The Prime minister of India signs the treaty

2) The President of India signs the treaty
3) The Parliament of India makes special legislation for accepting the treaty
4) When the Indian delegation signs the treaty
Correct Answer: 3) The Parliament of India makes special legislation for accepting
the treaty
Candidate Answer: 3) The Parliament of India makes special legislation for accepting
the treaty

Q. No. : 550 - The Supreme Court of India recognised ‘transgenders’ as ‘third gender
with all rights’ in the case of:
Options:

1) Bar Council of India v. A.K. Balaji, AIR 2018 SC 1382

2) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India, AIR 2014 SC 1863
3) Suresh Kumar Koushal v. NAZ Foundation, AIR 2014 SC 563
4) State of Punjab v. Jagjit Singh, AIR 2016 SC 5176
Correct Answer: 2) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India, AIR 2014 SC
1863
Candidate Answer: 2) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India, AIR 2014
SC 1863