Oracle 1z0-062
Oracle 1z0-062
Oracle 1z0-062
A.
Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.
B.
Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of
space in the undo tablespace.
C.
You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D.
An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the
undo before that time has elapsed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net connection. You
want to ensure the following:
1. The user account must be locked after five unsuccessful login attempts.
4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes session idle time before being logged off
automatically.
A.
by granting a secure application role to the user
B.
by implementing Database Resource Manager
C.
by using Oracle Label Security options
D.
by assigning a profile to the user
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such
that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ
database. SCOTT’s password is TIGER. The service mane “HQ” is used to connect to the remote
HQ database.
A.
CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING 'HQ';
B.
CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CURRENT_USER USING ‘HQ’;
C.
CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING 'HQ';
D.
CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING 'HQ';
QUESTION NO: 4
What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics
completes?
A.
The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.
B.
The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.
C.
The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.
D.
The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the
maintenance window opens.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14211/stats.htm#g49431
QUESTION NO: 5
You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the
following specifications:
A.
a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation
B.
a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled
C.
a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic
Memory Management (AMM) enabled
D.
a default database configuration
Answer: C
Reference: http://www.oracledistilled.com/oracle-database/administration/creating-a-database-
using-database-configuration-assistant/
QUESTION NO: 6
Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database? (Choose
two.)
A.
An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.
B.
An extent can span multiple segments.
C.
Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.
D.
It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.
E.
A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.
QUESTION NO: 7
Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical database
structures? (Choose two.)
A.
A segment cannot span data files.
B.
A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C.
An extent cannot span data files.
D.
The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/logical.htm#CNCPT1095
QUESTION NO: 8
A.
It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).
B.
It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C.
It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
Answer: D
Reference:
QUESTION NO: 9
The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user
connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server
processes.
A.
connecting by using an external naming method
B.
connecting by using the easy connect method
C.
creating a service in the database by using the DBMS_SERVICE.CREATE_SERVICE procedure
and using this service for creating a local naming service
D.
connecting by using the local naming method with the SERVER = DEDICATED parameter set in
the tnsnames.ora file for the net service
E.
connecting by using a directory naming method
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
A.
partitioning the table
B.
creating an invisible index
C.
updating the table by using an UPDATE statement
D.
creating a public synonym
E.
creating a view
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
You can, for example select, join, or sort external table data. You can also create views and
synonyms for external tables. However, no DML operations (UPDATE, INSERT, or DELETE) are
possible, and no indexes can be created, on external tables.
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/tables013.htm#ADMIN01507
QUESTION NO: 11
Which three statements are true about a job chain? (Choose three.)
A.
It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B.
It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C.
It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D.
It cannot have more than one dependency.
E.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Answer: A,B,E
Reference:
QUESTION NO: 12
The HR user receives the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automatic Segment Space Management
(ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it.
Which two methods would you use to resolve this error? (Choose two.)
A.
Altering the data file associated with the USERS tablespace to extend automatically
B.
Adding a data file to the USERS tablespace
C.
Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D.
Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the
HR user to the new tablespace
E.
Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a
nonzero value
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
A.
the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B.
operating system (OS) statistics
C.
cardinality estimates
D.
object statistics in the data dictionary
E.
fixed baselines
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan
is displayed.
A.
An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHER_GROUPS fails with an error.
C.
The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited
for the CPU due to resource management.
D.
The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited
for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E.
A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but
the session will be queued.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
A.
The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.
B.
All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by
DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C.
The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D.
The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
Examine the structure of the SALES table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with
You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high water
mark.
A.
Row movement is enabled.
B.
Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.
C.
No queries are running on this table.
D.
Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.
E.
No pending transaction exists on the table.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
Which task would you recommend before using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to
upgrade a single-instance Oracle 11g R2 database to Oracle Database 12c?
A.
shutting down the database instance that is being upgraded
C.
running the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool
D.
copying the listener.ora file to the new ORACLE_HOME
Answer: C
Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e23633/upgrade.htm#UPGRD12395
QUESTION NO: 18
Your database is open and the listener LISTENER is up. You issue the command:
LSNRCTL> RELOAD
What is the effect of RELOAD on sessions that were originally established by LISTENER?
A.
Only sessions based on static listener registrations are disconnected.
B.
Existing connections are not disconnected; however, they cannot perform any operations until the
listener completes the re-registration of the database instance and service handlers.
C.
The sessions are not affected and continue to function normally.
D.
All the sessions are terminated and active transactions are rolled back.
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
Which statement is true regarding the startup of a database instance?
A.
The instance does not start up normally and requires manual media recovery after a shutdown
using the ABORT option.
B.
Uncommitted transactions are rolled back during the startup of the database instance after a
shutdown using the immediate option.
C.
There is no difference in the underlying mechanics of the startup whether the database is shut
down by using the IMMEDIATE option or the ABORT option.
D.
Media recovery is required when the database is shut down by using either the IMMEDIATE
option or the ABORT option.
E.
Instance recovery is not required if the database instance was shut down by using SHUTDOWN
IMMEDIATE.
Answer: E
Reference:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/A87860_01/doc/server.817/a76956/start.htm
QUESTION NO: 20
A.
Only SGA components are sized automatically.
B.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
Memory is dynamically re-allocated between the SGA and PGA as needed.
C.
The size of the PGA cannot grow automatically beyond 500 MB.
D.
The value of the MEMORY_TARGET parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
A.
Blocks belonging to an extent can be spread across multiple data files.
B.
Data blocks in an extent are logically contiguous but can be non-contiguous on disk.
C.
The blocks of a newly allocated extent, although free, may have been used before.
D.
Data blocks in an extent are automatically reclaimed for use by other objects in a tablespace when
all the rows in a table are deleted.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22
A.
The create user command fails if any role with the name SIDNEY exists in the database.
B.
The user Sidney can connect to the database instance but cannot perform sort operations
because no space quota is specified for the temp tablespace.
C.
The user Sidney is created but cannot connect to the database instance because no profile is
assigned to the user.
D.
The user Sidney can connect to the database instance but requires relevant privileges to create
objects in the users tablespace.
E.
The user Sidney is created and authenticated by the operating system.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
A.
The threshold alerts were cleared and transferred to DBA_ALERT_HISTORY.
B.
An Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot was taken before the execution of the second
query.
C.
An Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADOM) report was generated before the execution of
the second query.
D.
The database instance was restarted before the execution of the second query.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
A.
A role cannot be assigned external authentication.
B.
A role can be granted to other roles.
C.
A role can contain both system and object privileges.
D.
The predefined resource role includes the unlimited_tablespace privilege.
E.
All roles are owned by the sys user.
F.
The predefined connect role is always automatically granted to all new users at the time of their
creation.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Identify three valid options for adding a pluggable database (PDB) to an existing multitenant
container database (CDB).
A.
Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a PDB using the files from the
SEED.
B.
Use the CREATE DATABASE . . . ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to provision a
PDB by copying file from the SEED.
C.
Use the DBMS_PDB package to clone an existing PDB.
D.
Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 12c non-CDB database into an existing CDB.
E.
Use the DBMS_PDB package to plug an Oracle 11 g Release 2 (11.2.0.3.0) non-CDB database
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
into an existing CDB.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a pluggable database (PDB).
Use the create_pdb_from_seed clause to create a PDB by using the seed in the multitenant
container database (CDB) as a template. The files associated with the seed are copied to a new
location and the copied files are then associated with the new PDB.
Use the create_pdb_clone clause to create a PDB by copying an existing PDB (the source PDB)
and then plugging the copy into the CDB. The files associated with the source PDB are copied to a
new location and the copied files are associated with the new PDB. This operation is called
cloning a PDB.
The source PDB can be plugged in or unplugged. If plugged in, then the source PDB can be in the
same CDB or in a remote CDB. If the source PDB is in a remote CDB, then a database link is
used to connect to the remote CDB and copy the files.
Use the create_pdb_from_xml clause to plug an unplugged PDB or a non-CDB into a CDB, using
an XML metadata file.
QUESTION NO: 26
Your database supports a DSS workload that involves the execution of complex queries:
Currently, the library cache contains the ideal workload for analysis. You want to analyze some of
the queries for an application that are cached in the library cache.
What must you do to receive recommendations about the efficient use of indexes and materialized
views to improve query performance?
A.
Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the
SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) on the workload captured in the STS.
C.
Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Performance
Analyzer (SPA) on the workload captured in the STS.
D.
Create an STS that contains the queries cached in the library cache and run the SQL Access
Advisor on the workload captured in the STS.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* SQL Access Advisor is primarily responsible for making schema modification recommendations,
such as adding or dropping indexes and materialized views. SQL Tuning Advisor makes other
types of recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles and restructuring SQL statements.
* The query optimizer can also help you tune SQL statements. By using SQL Tuning Advisor and
SQL Access Advisor, you can invoke the query optimizer in advisory mode to examine a SQL
statement or set of statements and determine how to improve their efficiency. SQL Tuning Advisor
and SQL Access Advisor can make various recommendations, such as creating SQL profiles,
restructuring SQL statements, creating additional indexes or materialized views, and refreshing
optimizer statistics.
Note:
* The library cache is a shared pool memory structure that stores executable SQL and PL/SQL
code. This cache contains the shared SQL and PL/SQL areas and control structures such as locks
and library cache handles.
QUESTION NO: 27
The following parameter are set for your Oracle 12c database instance:
OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=FALSE
OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=TRUE
You want to manage the SQL plan evolution task manually. Examine the following steps:
A.
2, 4, 5
B.
2, 1, 4, 3, 5
C.
1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D.
1, 2, 4, 5
Answer: B
Explanation:
This function creates an advisor task to prepare the plan evolution of one or more plans for a
specified SQL statement. The input parameters can be a SQL handle, plan name or a list of plan
names, time limit, task name, and description.
SET_EVOLVE_TASK_PARAMETER
This function updates the value of an evolve task parameter. In this release, the only valid
parameter is TIME_LIMIT.
This function executes an evolution task. The input parameters can be the task name, execution
name, and execution description. If not specified, the advisor generates the name, which is
returned by the function.
3: IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK
This function implements all recommendations for an evolve task. Essentially, this function is
equivalent to using ACCEPT_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE for all recommended plans. Input
parameters include task name, plan name, owner name, and execution name.
This function displays the results of an evolve task as a CLOB. Input parameters include the task
name and section of the report to include.
QUESTION NO: 28
In a recent Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report for your database, you notice a high
number of buffer busy waits. The database consists of locally managed tablespaces with free list
managed segments.
On further investigation, you find that buffer busy waits is caused by contention on data blocks.
Which option would you consider first to decrease the wait event immediately?
A.
Decreasing PCTUSED
B.
Decreasing PCTFREE
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
C.
Increasing the number of DBWN process
D.
Using Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM)
E.
Increasing db_buffer_cache based on the V$DB_CACHE_ADVICE recommendation
Answer: D
Explanation:
* Automatic segment space management (ASSM) is a simpler and more efficient way of managing
space within a segment. It completely eliminates any need to specify and tune the
pctused,freelists, and freelist groups storage parameters for schema objects created in the
tablespace. If any of these attributes are specified, they are ignored.
Note:
* Buffer busy waits are most commonly associated with segment header contention onside the
data buffer pool (db_cache_size, etc.).
* The most common remedies for high buffer busy waits include database writer (DBWR)
contention tuning, adding freelists (or ASSM), and adding missing indexes.
QUESTION NO: 29
Which three statements are true about the effect of this command? (Choose three.)
A.
Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered.
B.
Statistics collection is not done for the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered.
D.
Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when schema stats are gathered are stored as
pending statistics.
E.
Statistics gathered on the CUSTOMERS table when database stats are gathered are stored as
pending statistics.
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
* SET_TABLE_PREFS Procedure
This procedure is used to set the statistics preferences of the specified table in the specified
schema.
* Example:
Assume many modifications have been made to the employees table since the last time statistics
were gathered. To ensure that the cost-based optimizer is still picking the best plan, statistics
should be gathered once again; however, the user is concerned that new statistics will cause the
optimizer to choose bad plans when the current ones are acceptable. The user can do the
following:
By setting the employees tables publish preference to FALSE, any statistics gather from now on
will not be automatically published. The newly gathered statistics will be marked as pending.
QUESTION NO: 30
Examine the following impdp command to import a database over the network from a pre-12c
Oracle database (source):
A.
The import operation must be performed on the target database by a user with the
DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role, and the database link must connect to a user with the
DATAPUMP_EXP_FULL_DATABASE role on the source database.
B.
All user-defined tablespaces must be in read-only mode on the source database.
C.
The export dump file must be created before starting the import on the target database.
D.
The source and target database must be running on the same operating system (OS) with the
same endianness.
E.
The impdp operation must be performed by the same user that performed the expdp operation.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
In this case we have run the impdp without performing any conversion if endian format is different
then we have to first perform conversion.
QUESTION NO: 31
Which two are true concerning a multitenant container database with three pluggable database?
(Choose two.)
A.
All administration tasks must be done to a specific pluggable database.
B.
The pluggable databases increase patching time.
C.
The pluggable databases reduce administration effort.
D.
The pluggable databases are patched together.
E.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
Pluggable databases are only used for database consolidation.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
Examine the current value for the following parameters in your database instance:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M
SGA_TARGET = 700M
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 124M
LOG_BUFFER = 200M
A.
It fails because the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
B.
It succeeds only if memory is available from the autotuned components if SGA.
C.
It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within
SGA_TARGET.
D.
It fails because an increase in DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE cannot be accommodated within
SGA_MAX_SIZE.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* The SGA_TARGET parameter can be dynamically increased up to the value specified for the
* Example:
For example, suppose you have an environment with the following configuration:
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 1024M
SGA_TARGET = 512M
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M
In this example, the value of SGA_TARGET can be resized up to 1024M and can also be reduced
until one or more of the automatically sized components reaches its minimum size. The exact
value depends on environmental factors such as the number of CPUs on the system. However,
the value of DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE remains fixed at all times at 128M
* DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE
SGA_TARGET = 512M
DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE = 128M
In this example, increasing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16 M to 144M means that the 16M is taken
away from the automatically sized components. Likewise, reducing DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE by 16M
to 112M means that the 16M is given to the automatically sized components.
QUESTION NO: 33
Which three statements are true concerning unplugging a pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose
three.)
A.
The PDB must be open in read only mode.
B.
The PDB must be dosed.
C.
The unplugged PDB becomes a non-CDB.
D.
The unplugged PDB can be plugged into the same multitenant container database (CDB)
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
E.
The unplugged PDB can be plugged into another CDB.
F.
The PDB data files are automatically removed from disk.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
D: An unplugged PDB contains data dictionary tables, and some of the columns in these encode
information in an endianness-sensitive way. There is no supported way to handle the conversion
of such columns automatically. This means, quite simply, that an unplugged PDB cannot be
moved across an endianness difference.
E (not F): To exploit the new unplug/plug paradigm for patching the Oracle version most
effectively, the source and destination CDBs should share a filesystem so that the PDB’s datafiles
can remain in place.
References:
QUESTION NO: 34
Category_id number(30),
Which three statements are true about using an invisible column in the PRODUCTS table?
(Choose three.)
A.
The %ROWTYPE attribute declarations in PL/SQL to access a row will not display the invisible
column in the output.
B.
The DESCRIBE commands in SQL *Plus will not display the invisible column in the output.
D.
The invisible column cannot be made visible and can only be marked as unused.
E.
A primary key constraint can be added on the invisible column.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
AB: You can make individual table columns invisible. Any generic access of a table does not show
the invisible columns in the table. For example, the following operations do not display invisible
columns in the output:
Incorrect:
You can make a column invisible during table creation or when you add a column to a table, and
you can later alter the table to make the same column visible.
References:
QUESTION NO: 35
You wish to enable an audit policy for all database users, except SYS, SYSTEM, and SCOTT.
A.
All users except SYS
B.
All users except SCOTT
C.
All users except sys and SCOTT
D.
All users except sys, system, and SCOTT
Answer: B
Explanation:
If you run multiple AUDIT statements on the same unified audit policy but specify different
EXCEPT users, then Oracle Database uses the last exception user list, not any of the users from
the preceding lists. This means the effect of the earlier AUDIT POLICY ... EXCEPT statements are
overridden by the latest AUDIT POLICY ... EXCEPT statement.
Note:
* You can use the keyword ALL to audit all actions. The following example shows how to audit all
actions on the HR.EMPLOYEES table, except actions by user pmulligan.
QUESTION NO: 36
On your Oracle 12c database, you invoked SQL *Loader to load data into the EMPLOYEES table
in the HR schema by issuing the following command:
A.
It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to HR is already defined in
the database.
B.
It fails because no SQL *Loader data file location is specified.
C.
It fails if the HR user does not have the CREATE ANY DIRECTORY privilege.
D.
It fails because no SQL *Loader control file location is specified.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Note:
* SQL*Loader is invoked when you specify the sqlldr command and, optionally, parameters that
establish session characteristics.
QUESTION NO: 37
After implementing full Oracle Data Redaction, you change the default value for the NUMBER data
type as follows:
After changing the value, you notice that FULL redaction continues to redact numeric data with
zero.
What must you do to activate the new default value for numeric full redaction?
A.
Re-enable redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
B.
Re-create redaction policies that use FULL data redaction.
C.
Re-connect the sessions that access objects with redaction policies defined on them.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
D.
Flush the shared pool.
E.
Restart the database instance.
Answer: E
Explanation:
You can alter the default displayed values for full Data Redaction polices. By default, 0 is the
redacted value when Oracle Database performs full redaction (DBMS_REDACT.FULL) on a
column of the NUMBER data type. If you want to change it to another value (for example, 7), then
you can run the DBMS_REDACT.UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES procedure to modify
this value. The modification applies to all of the Data Redaction policies in the current database
instance. After you modify a value, you must restart the database for it to take effect.
Note:
* The DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables
you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or an
application.
* UPDATE_FULL_REDACTION_VALUES Procedure
This procedure modifies the default displayed values for a Data Redaction policy for full redaction.
* After you create the Data Redaction policy, it is automatically enabled and ready to redact data.
* Oracle Data Redaction enables you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by
low-privileged users or applications. You can redact column data by using one of the following
methods:
/ Full redaction.
/ Partial redaction.
/ Regular expressions.
/ Random redaction.
/ No redaction.
References:
QUESTION NO: 38
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
You must track all transactions that modify certain tables in the sales schema for at least three
years.
Automatic undo management is enabled for the database with a retention of one day.
A.
Enable supplemental logging for the database.
B.
Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
C.
Create a Flashback Data Archive in the tablespace where the tables are stored.
D.
Create a Flashback Data Archive in any suitable tablespace.
E.
Enable Flashback Data Archiving for the tables that require tracking.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
E: By default, flashback archiving is disabled for any table. You can enable flashback archiving for
a table if you have the FLASHBACK ARCHIVE object privilege on the Flashback Data Archive that
you want to use for that table.
/ Create a Flashback Data Archive with the CREATE FLASHBACK ARCHIVE statement,
specifying the following:
(Optional) Maximum amount of space that the Flashback Data Archive can use in the first
tablespace
/ Create a Flashback Data Archive named fla2 that uses tablespace tbs2, whose data will be
retained for two years:
You are the DBA supporting an Oracle 11g Release 2 database and wish to move a table
containing several DATE, CHAR, VARCHAR2, and NUMBER data types, and the table’s indexes,
to another tablespace.
The table does not have a primary key and is used by an OLTP application.
Which technique will move the table and indexes while maintaining the highest level of availability
to the application?
A.
Oracle Data Pump.
B.
An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD to move the indexes.
C.
An ALTER TABLE MOVE to move the table and ALTER INDEX REBUILD ONLINE to move the
indexes.
D.
Online Table Redefinition.
E.
Edition-Based Table Redefinition.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* By key—Select a primary key or pseudo-primary key to use for the redefinition. Pseudo-primary
keys are unique keys with all component columns having NOT NULL constraints. For this method,
the versions of the tables before and after redefinition should have the same primary key columns.
This is the preferred and default method of redefinition.
* By rowid—Use this method if no key is available. In this method, a hidden column named
M_ROW$$ is added to the post-redefined version of the table. It is recommended that this column
be dropped or marked as unused after the redefinition is complete. If COMPATIBLE is set to
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
10.2.0 or higher, the final phase of redefinition automatically sets this column unused. You can
then use the ALTER TABLE ... DROP UNUSED COLUMNS statement to drop it.
Note:
* When you rebuild an index, you use an existing index as the data source. Creating an index in
this manner enables you to change storage characteristics or move to a new tablespace.
Rebuilding an index based on an existing data source removes intra-block fragmentation.
Compared to dropping the index and using the CREATE INDEX statement, re-creating an existing
index offers better performance.
Incorrect:
QUESTION NO: 40
When you try to start the database instance with these parameter settings, you receive the
following error message:
A.
The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter is set to zero.
B.
The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to BASIC.
C.
Both the SGA_TARGET and MEMORY_TARGET parameters are set.
D.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Example:
QUESTION NO: 41
What are two benefits of installing Grid Infrastructure software for a stand-alone server before
installing and creating an Oracle database?
A.
Effectively implements role separation
B.
Enables you to take advantage of Oracle Managed Files.
C.
Automatically registers the database with Oracle Restart.
D.
Helps you to easily upgrade the database from a prior release.
E.
Enables the Installation of Grid Infrastructure files on block or raw devices.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
C: To use Oracle ASM or Oracle Restart, you must first install Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a
standalone server before you install and create the database. Otherwise, you must manually
register the database with Oracle Restart.
With the release of Oracle Database 11g release 2 (11.2) and Oracle RAC 11g release 2 (11.2),
If you intend to upgrade an existing Oracle RAC database, or an Oracle RAC database with
Oracle ASM instances, then you can use an existing raw or block device partition, and perform a
rolling upgrade of your existing installation. Performing a new installation using block or raw
devices is not allowed.
QUESTION NO: 42
A.
Multitenant architecture can be deployed only in a Real Application Clusters (RAC) configuration.
B.
Multiple pluggable databases (PDBs) share certain multitenant container database (CDB)
resources.
C.
Multiple CDBs share certain PDB resources.
D.
Multiple non-RAC CDB instances can mount the same PDB as long as they are on the same
server.
E.
Patches are always applied at the CDB level.
F.
A PDB can have a private undo tablespace.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
B: Using 12c Resource manager you will be able control CPU, Exadata I/O, sessions and parallel
servers. A new 12c CDB Resource Manager Plan will use so-called “Shares” (resource
allocations) to specify how CPU is distributed between PDBs. A CDB Resource Manager Plan
also can use “utilization limits” to limit the CPU usage for a PDB. With a default directive, you do
not need to modify the resource plan for each PDB plug and unplug.
The investment of time and effort to patch one multitenant container database results in patching
Incorrect:
Not A:
* The Oracle RAC documentation describes special considerations for a CDB in an Oracle RAC
environment.
* Oracle Multitenant is a new option for Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition that helps
customers reduce IT costs by simplifying consolidation, provisioning, upgrades, and more.
It is supported by a new architecture that allows a container database to hold many pluggable
databases. And it fully complements other options, including Oracle Real Application Clusters and
Oracle Active Data Guard. An existing database can be simply adopted, with no change, as a
pluggable database; and no changes are needed in the other tiers of the application.
Not D: You can unplug a PDB from one CDB and plug it into a different CDB without altering your
schemas or applications. A PDB can be plugged into only one CDB at a time.
not F:
* UNDO tablespace can NOT be local and stays on the CDB level.
* Redo and undo go hand in hand, and so the CDB as a whole has a single undo tablespace per
RAC instance.
QUESTION NO: 43
A.
Parallel compilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
B.
Sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code
C.
Parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
D.
Sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL code
E.
Parallel recompilation of Java code
F.
Sequential recompilation of Java code
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
The utlrp.sql and utlprp.sql scripts are provided by Oracle to recompile all invalid objects in the
database. They are typically run after major database changes such as upgrades or patches. They
are located in the $ORACLE_HOME/rdbms/admin directory and provide a wrapper on the
UTL_RECOMP package. The utlrp.sql script simply calls the utlprp.sql script with a command line
parameter of "0". The utlprp.sql accepts a single integer parameter that indicates the level of
parallelism as follows.
Both scripts must be run as the SYS user, or another user with SYSDBA, to work correctly.
QUESTION NO: 44
Which two statements are true concerning dropping a pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose two.)
A.
The PDB must be open in read-only mode.
B.
The PDB must be in mount state.
C.
The PDB must be unplugged.
D.
The PDB data files are always removed from disk.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
References:
http://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ADMIN/cdb_plug.htm#ADMIN13658
QUESTION NO: 45
You notice a high number of waits for the db file scattered read and db file sequential read events
in the recent Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report. After further investigation,
you find that queries are performing too many full table scans and indexes are not being used
even though the filter columns are indexed.
A.
Missing or stale histogram statistics
B.
Undersized shared pool
C.
High clustering factor for the indexes
D.
High value for the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT parameter
E.
Oversized buffer cache
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
Which three features work together, to allow a SQL statement to have different cursors for the
same statement based on different selectivity ranges? (Choose three.)
A.
Bind Variable Peeking
B.
SQL Plan Baselines
C.
Adaptive Cursor Sharing
D.
Bind variable used in a SQL statement
E.
Literals in a SQL statement
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know
which change caused this performance difference.
A.
Compare Period ADDM report
B.
AWR Compare Period report
C.
Active Session History (ASH) report
D.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
Taking a new snapshot and comparing it with a preserved snapshot
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
You want to capture column group usage and gather extended statistics for better cardinality
estimates for the CUSTOMERS table in the SH schema.
A.
3, 2, 1, 4
B.
2, 3, 4, 1
C.
4, 1, 3, 2
D.
3, 2, 4, 1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Oracle must observe a representative workload, in order to determine the appropriate column
groups. Using the new procedure DBMS_STATS.SEED_COL_USAGE, you tell Oracle how long it
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
should observe the workload.
Step 2: (3) You don't need to execute all of the queries in your work during this window. You can
simply run explain plan for some of your longer running queries to ensure column group
information is recorded for these queries.
At this point you can get Oracle to automatically create the column groups for each of the tables
based on the usage information captured during the monitoring window. You simply have to call
the DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS function for each table. This function requires
just two arguments, the schema name and the table name. From then on, statistics will be
maintained for each column group whenever statistics are gathered on the table.
Note:
* The Oracle SQL optimizer has always been ignorant of the implied relationships between data
columns within the same table. While the optimizer has traditionally analyzed the distribution of
values within a column, he does not collect value-based relationships between columns.
* Creating extended statisticsHere are the steps to create extended statistics for related table
columns withdbms_stats.created_extended_stats:
1 - The first step is to create column histograms for the related columns.2 – Next, we run
dbms_stats.create_extended_stats to relate the columns together.
Unlike a traditional procedure that is invoked via an execute (“exec”) statement, Oracle extended
statistics are created via a select statement.
QUESTION NO: 49
Which three statements are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose three.)
A.
All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B.
The AWR data is stored in memory and in the database.
C.
The snapshots collected by AWR are used by the self-tuning components in the database
D.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
AWR computes time model statistics based on time usage for activities, which are displayed in the
v$SYS time model and V$SESS_TIME_MODEL views.
E.
AWR contains system wide tracing and logging information.
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
You upgraded your database from pre-12c to a multitenant container database (CDB) containing
pluggable databases (PDBs).
Which two tasks must you perform to add users with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege
to the password file? (Choose two.)
A.
Assign the appropriate operating system groups to SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, SYSKM.
B.
Grant SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges to the intended users.
C.
Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege and the FORCE
argument set to No.
D.
Re-create the password file with SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privilege, and FORCE
arguments set to Yes.
E.
Re-create the password file in the Oracle Database 12c format.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
* orapwd
* v$PWFILE_users
/ 12c: V$PWFILE_USERS lists all users in the password file, and indicates whether the user has
been granted the SYSDBA, SYSOPER, SYSASM, SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM privileges.
/ 10c: sts users who have been granted SYSDBA and SYSOPER privileges as derived from the
password file.
ColumnDatatypeDescription
Incorrect:
QUESTION NO: 51
An application accesses a small lookup table frequently. You notice that the required data blocks
are getting aged out of the default buffer cache.
How would you guarantee that the blocks for the table never age out?
A.
Configure the KEEP buffer pool and alter the table with the corresponding storage clause.
B.
Increase the database buffer cache size.
C.
D.
Configure Automata Shared Memory Management.
E.
Configure Automatic Memory Management.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Schema objects are referenced with varying usage patterns; therefore, their cache behavior may
be quite different. Multiple buffer pools enable you to address these differences. You can use a
KEEP buffer pool to maintain objects in the buffer cache and a RECYCLE buffer pool to prevent
objects from consuming unnecessary space in the cache. When an object is allocated to a cache,
all blocks from that object are placed in that cache. Oracle maintains a DEFAULT buffer pool for
objects that have not been assigned to one of the buffer pools.
QUESTION NO: 52
You conned using SQL Plus to the root container of a multitenant container database (CDB) with
SYSDBA privilege.
The CDB has several pluggable databases (PDBs) open in the read/write mode.
A.
The shutdown proceeds immediately. The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the
PDBs are either committed or rolled hack.
B.
The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in the CDB are either committed or rolled
back.
C.
The shutdown proceeds as soon as all transactions in both the CDB and PDBs are either
committed or rolled back.
D.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Shuts down a currently running Oracle Database instance, optionally closing and dismounting a
database. If the current database is a pluggable database, only the pluggable database is closed.
The consolidated instance continues to run.
Shutdown commands that wait for current calls to complete or users to disconnect such as
SHUTDOWN NORMAL and SHUTDOWN TRANSACTIONAL have a time limit that the
SHUTDOWN command will wait. If all events blocking the shutdown have not occurred within the
time limit, the shutdown command cancels with the following message:
To shutdown a CDB or non CDB, you must be connected to the CDB or non CDB instance that
you want to close, and then enter
SHUTDOWN
Database closed.
Database dismounted.
To shutdown a PDB, you must log into the PDB to issue the SHUTDOWN command.
SHUTDOWN
Note:
When the current container is a pluggable database (PDB), the SHUTDOWN command can only
be used if:
The current user has SYSDBA, SYSOPER, SYSBACKUP, or SYSDG system privilege.
The current user exercises the privilege using AS SYSDBA, AS SYSOPER, AS SYSBACKUP, or
AS SYSDG at connect time.
QUESTION NO: 53
You are planning the creation of a new multitenant container database (CDB) and want to store
the ROOT and SEED container data files in separate directories.
Which three techniques can you use to achieve this? (Choose three.)
A.
Use Oracle Managed Files (OMF).
B.
Specify the SEED FILE_NAME_CONVERT clause.
C.
Specify the PDB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT initialization parameter.
D.
Specify the DB_FILE_NAMECONVERT initialization parameter.
E.
Specify all files in the CREATE DATABASE statement without using Oracle managed Files (OMF).
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
You must specify the names and locations of the seed's files in one of the following ways:
QUESTION NO: 54
You are about to plug a multi-terabyte non-CDB into an existing multitenant container database
(CDB).
Which technique should you use to minimize down time while plugging this non-CDB into the
CDB?
A.
Transportable database
B.
Transportable tablespace
C.
Data Pump full export/import
D.
The DBMS_PDB package
E.
RMAN
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Overview, example:
* You can easily plug an Oracle Database 12c non-CDB into a CDB. Just create a PDB manifest
file for the non-CDB, and then use the manifest file to create a cloned PDB in the CDB.
* Note that to plug in a non-CDB database into a CDB, the non-CDB database needs to be of
version 12c as well. So existing 11g databases will need to be upgraded to 12c before they can be
part of a 12c CDB.
QUESTION NO: 55
Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) application. The application is
undergoing some major schema changes, such as addition of new indexes and materialized
views. You want to check the impact of these changes on workload performance.
A.
Database replay
B.
SQL Tuning Advisor
C.
SQL Access Advisor
D.
SQL Performance Analyzer
E.
Automatic Workload Repository compare reports
Answer: D
You can use the SQL Performance Analyzer to analyze the SQL performance impact of any type
of system change. Examples of common system changes include:
• Database upgrades
References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28318/intro.htm#CNCPT961
QUESTION NO: 56
An administrator account is granted the CREATE SESSION and SET CONTAINER system
privileges.
A multitenant container database (CDB) instant has the following parameter set:
THREADED_EXECUTION = FALSE
Which four statements are true about this administrator establishing connections to root in a CDB
that has been opened in read only mode? (Choose four.)
A.
You can connect as a common user by using the connect statement.
B.
You can connect as a local user by using the connect statement.
C.
You can connect by using easy connect.
D.
You can connect by using OS authentication.
E.
F.
You can connect as a local user by using the SET CONTAINER statement.
Answer: A,C,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
You issue the following command to import tables into the hr schema:
A.
All database operations performed by the impdp command are logged.
B.
Only CREATE INDEX and CREATE TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
C.
Only CREATE TABLE and ALTER TABLE statements generated by the import are logged.
D.
None of the operations against the master table used by Oracle Data Pump to coordinate its
activities are logged.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Oracle Data Pump disable redo logging when loading data into tables and when creating indexes.
The new TRANSFORM option introduced in data pumps import provides the flexibility to turn off
the redo generation for the objects during the course of import. The Master Table is used to track
the detailed progress information of a Data Pump job.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
The Master Table is created in the schema of the current user running the Pump Dump export or
import, and it keeps tracks of lots of detailed information.
QUESTION NO: 58
You notice a performance change in your production Oracle database and you want to know
which change has made this performance difference.
You generate the Compare Period Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report to
further investigation.
Which three findings would you get from the report? (Choose three.)
A.
It detects any configuration change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
B.
It identifies any workload change that caused a performance difference in both time periods.
C.
It detects the top wait events causing performance degradation.
D.
It shows the resource usage for CPU, memory, and I/O in both time periods.
E.
It shows the difference in the size of memory pools in both time periods.
F.
It gives information about statistics collection in both time periods.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Effects: regressed SQL, reach resource limits (CPU, I/O, memory, interconnect)
* Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally
in the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point where it becomes
noticeable to the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report
enables you to compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR
Compare Periods report shows the difference (ABE) between two periods (or two AWR reports
with a total of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify
detailed performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
QUESTION NO: 59
You generated the execution plan for the following query in the plan table and noticed that the
nested loop join was done. After actual execution of the query, you notice that the hash join was
done in the execution plan:
Identify the reason why the optimizer chose different execution plans.
A.
The optimizer used a dynamic plan for the query.
B.
The optimizer chose different plans because automatic dynamic sampling was enabled.
C.
The optimizer used re-optimization cardinality feedback for the query.
D.
The optimizer chose different plan because extended statistics were created for the columns used.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 60
Which three statements are true about adaptive SQL plan management? (Choose three.)
A.
It automatically performs verification or evolves non-accepted plans, in COMPREHENSIVE mode
when they perform better than existing accepted plans.
B.
The optimizer always uses the fixed plan, if the fixed plan exists in the plan baseline.
C.
It adds new, bettor plans automatically as fixed plans to the baseline.
D.
The non-accepted plans are automatically accepted and become usable by the optimizer if they
perform better than the existing accepted plans.
E.
The non-accepted plans in a SQL plan baseline are automatically evolved, in COMPREHENSIVE
mode, during the nightly maintenance window and a persistent verification report is generated.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
With adaptive SQL plan management, DBAs no longer have to manually run the verification or
evolve process for non-accepted plans. When automatic SQL tuning is in COMPREHENSIVE
mode, it runs a verification or evolve process for all SQL statements that have non-accepted plans
during the nightly maintenance window. If the non-accepted plan performs better than the existing
accepted plan (or plans) in the SQL plan baseline, then the plan is automatically accepted and
becomes usable by the optimizer. After the verification is complete, a persistent report is
generated detailing how the non-accepted plan performs compared to the accepted plan
performance. Because the evolve process is now an AUTOTASK, DBAs can also schedule their
own evolve job at end time.
Note:
* The optimizer is able to adapt plans on the fly by predetermining multiple subplans for portions of
the plan.
* Adaptive plans, introduced in Oracle Database 12c, enable the optimizer to defer the final plan
decision for a statement until execution time. The optimizer instruments its chosen plan (the
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
default plan) with statistics collectors so that it can detect at runtime, if its cardinality estimates
differ greatly from the actual number of rows seen by the operations in the plan. If there is a
significant difference, then the plan or a portion of it will be automatically adapted to avoid
suboptimal performance on the first execution of a SQL statement.
QUESTION NO: 61
You create a new pluggable database, HR_PDB, from the seed database. Which three
tablespaces are created by default in HR_PDB? (Choose three.)
A.
SYSTEM
B.
SYSAUX
C.
EXAMPLE
D.
UNDO
E.
TEMP
F.
USERS
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
* A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces.It can also contains other user
created tablespaces in it.
* Oracle Database creates both the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces as part of every
database.
* tablespace_datafile_clauses
Use these clauses to specify attributes for all data files comprising the SYSTEM and SYSAUX
tablespaces in the seed PDB.
Incorrect:
Not D: a PDB can not have an undo tablespace. Instead, it uses the undo tablespace belonging to
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
the CDB.
Note:
* Example:
CONN pdb_admin@pdb1
TABLESPACE_NAME
------------------------------
SYSTEM
SYSAUX
TEMP
USERS
SQL>
QUESTION NO: 62
Which two statements are true about variable extent size support for large ASM files? (Choose
two.)
A.
The metadata used to track extents in SGA is reduced.
B.
Rebalance operations are completed faster than with a fixed extent size
C.
An ASM Instance automatically allocates an appropriate extent size.
D.
Resync operations are completed faster when a disk comes online after being taken offline.
E.
Performance improves in a stretch cluster configuration by reading from a local copy of an extent.
Answer: A,C
A: Variable size extents enable support for larger ASM datafiles, reduce SGA memory
requirements for very large databases (A), and improve performance for file create and open
operations.
C: You don't have to worry about the sizes; the ASM instance automatically allocates the
appropriate extent size.
Note:
* The contents of ASM files are stored in a disk group as a set, or collection, of data extents that
are stored on individual disks within disk groups. Each extent resides on an individual disk.
Extents consist of one or more allocation units (AU). To accommodate increasingly larger files,
ASM uses variable size extents.
* The size of the extent map that defines a file can be smaller by a factor of 8 and 64 depending
on the file size. The initial extent size is equal to the allocation unit size and it increases by a factor
of 8 and 64 at predefined thresholds. This feature is automatic for newly created and resized
datafiles when the disk group compatibility attributes are set to Oracle Release 11 or higher.
QUESTION NO: 63
You executed a DROP USER CASCADE on an Oracle 11g release 1 database and immediately
realized that you forgot to copy the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP schema.
The RECYCLE_BIN enabled before the DROP USER was executed and the OCP user has been
granted the FLASHBACK ANY TABLE system privilege.
What is the quickest way to recover the contents of the OCA.EXAM_RESULTS table to the OCP
schema?
A.
Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO
OCP.EXAM_RESULTS; connected as SYSTEM.
B.
Recover the table using traditional Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
C.
Recover the table using Automated Tablespace Point In Time Recovery.
D.
Recovery the table using Database Point In Time Recovery.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
E.
Execute FLASHBACK TABLE OCA.EXAM_RESULTS TO BEFORE DROP RENAME TO
EXAM_RESULTS; connected as the OCP user.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Recovery Manager (RMAN) TSPITR enables quick recovery of one or more tablespaces in a
database to an earlier time without affecting the rest of the tablespaces and objects in the
database.
In this mode, RMAN manages the entire TSPITR process including the auxiliary instance. You
specify the tablespaces of the recovery set, an auxiliary destination, the target time, and you allow
RMAN to manage all other aspects of TSPITR.
The default mode is recommended unless you specifically need more control over the location of
recovery set files after TSPITR, auxiliary set files during TSPITR, channel settings and parameters
or some other aspect of your auxiliary instance.
QUESTION NO: 64
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), the HR user
executes the following commands to create and grant privileges on a procedure:
BEGIN
END;
How can you prevent users having the EXECUTE privilege on the CREATE_TEST procedure from
inserting values into tables on which they do not have any privileges?
B.
Grant the EXECUTE privilege to users with GRANT OPTION on the CREATE_TEST procedure.
C.
Create the CREATE_TEST procedure with invoker’s rights.
D.
Create the CREATE_TEST procedure as part of a package and grant users the EXECUTE
privilege the package.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If a program unit does not need to be executed with the escalated privileges of the definer, you
should specify that the program unit executes with the privileges of the caller, also known as the
invoker. Invoker's rights can mitigate the risk of SQL injection.
Incorrect:
Not A: By default, stored procedures and SQL methods execute with the privileges of their owner,
not their current user. Such definer-rights subprograms are bound to the schema in which they
reside.
not B: Using the GRANT option, a user can grant an Object privilege to another user or to
PUBLIC.
QUESTION NO: 65
You created a new database using the "create database" statement without specifying the
"ENABLE PLUGGABLE" clause.
What are two effects of not using the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE database" clause?
A.
The database is created as a non-CDB and can never contain a PDB.
B.
The database is treated as a PDB and must be plugged into an existing multitenant container
database (CDB).
C.
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The database is created as a non-CDB and can never be plugged into a CDB.
D.
The database is created as a non-CDB but can be plugged into an existing CDB.
E.
The database is created as a non-CDB but will become a CDB whenever the first PDB is plugged
in.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
A (not B,not E): The CREATE DATABASE ... ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement
creates a new CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then the
newly created database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.
Incorrect:
Not E: For the duration of its existence, a database is either a CDB or a non-CDB. You cannot
transform a non-CDB into a CDB or vice versa. You must define a database as a CDB at creation,
and then create PDBs within this CDB.
QUESTION NO: 66
What is the effect of specifying the "ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE" clause in a "CREATE
A.
It will create a multitenant container database (CDB) with only the root opened.
B.
It will create a CDB with root opened and seed read only.
C.
It will create a CDB with root and seed opened and one PDB mounted.
D.
It will create a CDB that must be plugged into an existing CDB.
E.
It will create a CDB with root opened and seed mounted.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* The CREATE DATABASE ... ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SQL statement creates a new
CDB. If you do not specify the ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE clause, then the newly created
database is a non-CDB and can never contain PDBs.
Along with the root (CDB$ROOT), Oracle Database automatically creates a seed PDB
(PDB$SEED). The following graphic shows a newly created CDB:
* Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and
then populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is created when the CDB is
created. (Here, we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to
as the seed PDB and has the name PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB;
it is non-negotiably always open in read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it
is just an optimization device. The create PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the
clone PDB operation.
QUESTION NO: 67
You have installed two 64G flash devices to support the Database Smart Flash Cache feature on
your database server that is running on Oracle Linux.
A.
Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G.
B.
Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 64G, 64G
C.
Set DB_FLASH_CACHE_ZISE = 128G.
D.
DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE is automatically configured by the instance at startup.
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Smart Flash Cache concept is not new in Oracle 12C - DB Smart Flash Cache in Oracle 11g.
In this release Oracle has made changes related to both initialization parameters used by DB
Smart Flash cache. Now you can define many files|devices and its sizes for “Database Smart
Flash Cache” area. In previous releases only one file|device could be defined.
So above settings defines 3 devices which will be in use by “DB Smart Flash Cache”
New view V$FLASHFILESTAT – it’s used to determine the cumulative latency and read counts of
each file|device and compute the average latency
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
QUESTION NO: 68
MEMORY_MAX_TARGET=0
MEMORY_TARGET=0
SGA_TARGET=0
PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET=500m
Which three initialization parameters are not controlled by Automatic Shared Memory
Management (ASMM)? (Choose three.)
A.
LOG_BUFFER
B.
SORT_AREA_SIZE
C.
JAVA_POOL_SIZE
D.
STREAMS_POOL_SIZE
E.
DB_16K_CACHE_SZIE
F.
DB_KEEP_CACHE_SIZE
Answer: A,E,F
Explanation:
LOG_BUFFER
DB_RECYCLE_CACHE_SIZE
DB_nK_CACHE_SIZE
Note:
* In addition to setting SGA_TARGET to a nonzero value, you must set to zero all initialization
parameters listed in the table below to enable full automatic tuning of the automatically sized SGA
components.
QUESTION NO: 69
Which three statements are true regarding the SQL* Loader operation performed using the control
file? (Choose three.)
A.
An EMP table is created if a table does not exist. Otherwise, if the EMP table is appended with the
loaded data.
B.
The SQL* Loader data file myfile1.dat has the column names for the EMP table.
C.
The SQL* Loader operation fails because no record terminators are specified.
D.
Field names should be the first line in the both the SQL* Loader data files.
E.
The SQL* Loader operation assumes that the file must be a stream record format file with the
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
A: The APPEND keyword tells SQL*Loader to preserve any preexisting data in the table. Other
options allow you to delete preexisting data, or to fail with an error if the table is not empty to begin
with.
B (not D):
Note:
* SQL*Loader-00210: first data file is empty, cannot process the FIELD NAMES record
Cause: The data file listed in the next message was empty. Therefore, the FIELD NAMES FIRST
FILE directive could not be processed.
Action: Check the listed data file and fix it. Then retry the operation
E:
Example:
Note:
* SQL*Loader is a bulk loader utility used for moving data from external files into the Oracle
database.
QUESTION NO: 70
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), you granted
the CREATE TABLE privilege to the common user C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs.
A.
It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root
only.
B.
It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not used.
C.
It excludes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root
and all PDBs.
D.
It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not used.
E.
It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in all
PDBs.
Answer: A
Explanation:
REVOKE ..FROM
/ Specify CONTAINER = CURRENT to revoke a locally granted system privilege, object privilege,
or role from a common user or common role. The privilege or role is revoked from the user or role
only in the root. This clause does not revoke privileges granted with CONTAINER = ALL.
/ Specify CONTAINER = ALL to revoke a commonly granted system privilege, object privilege on a
common object, or role from a common user or common role. The privilege or role is revoked from
the user or role across the entire CDB. This clause can revoke only a privilege or role granted with
CONTAINER = ALL from the specified common user or common role. This clause does not revoke
privileges granted locally with CONTAINER = CURRENT. However, any locally granted privileges
that depend on the commonly granted privilege being revoked are also revoked.
References:
Which two statements are true concerning the Resource Manager plans for individual pluggable
databases (PDB plans) in a multitenant container database (CDB)? (Choose two.)
A.
If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then all sessions for that PDB are treated to
an equal degree of the resource share of that PDB.
B.
In a PDB plan, subplans may be used with up to eight consumer groups.
C.
If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer
groups across all PDBs in the CDB.
D.
If no PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then the PDB share in the CDB plan is
dynamically calculated.
E.
If a PDB plan is enabled for a pluggable database, then resources are allocated to consumer
groups based on the shares provided to the PDB in the CDB plan and the shares provided to the
consumer groups in the PDB plan.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
A: Setting a PDB resource plan is optional. If not specified, all sessions within the PDB are treated
equally.
In a non-CDB database, workloads within a database are managed with resource plans.
In a PDB, workloads are also managed with resource plans, also called PDB resource plans.
/ Non-CDB Database
Up to 32 consumer groups
Subplans
/ PDB Database
(not B) No subplans
QUESTION NO: 72
A.
Corrupted blocks, if any, are repaired.
B.
Checks are performed for physical corruptions.
C.
Checks are performed for logical corruptions.
D.
Checks are performed to confirm whether all database files exist in correct locations
E.
Backup sets containing both data files and archive logs are created.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
B (not C): You can validate that all database files and archived redo logs can be backed up by
running a command as follows:
This form of the command would check for physical corruption. To check for logical corruption,
D: You can use the VALIDATE keyword of the BACKUP command to do the following:
Confirm that all database files exist and are in the correct locations.
Note:
You can use the VALIDATE option of the BACKUP command to verify that database files exist
and are in the correct locations (D), and have no physical or logical corruptions that would prevent
RMAN from creating backups of them. When performing a BACKUP...VALIDATE, RMAN reads
the files to be backed up in their entirety, as it would during a real backup. It does not, however,
actually produce any backup sets or image copies (Not A, not E).
QUESTION NO: 73
Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture? (Choose three.)
A.
Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
B.
A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
C.
PDBs can share the sysaux tablespace.
D.
Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
E.
Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
F.
PDBs share a common system tablespace.
G.
Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.
Answer: B,D,G
Explanation:
B:
* A PDB would have its SYSTEM, SYSAUX, TEMP tablespaces. It can also contain other user
created tablespaces in it.
D:
* There is a single redo log and a single control file for an entire CDB
* A log switch is the point at which the database stops writing to one redo log file and begins
writing to another. Normally, a log switch occurs when the current redo log file is completely filled
and writing must continue to the next redo log file.
G: instance recovery
The automatic application of redo log records to uncommitted data blocks when a database
instance is restarted after a failure.
Incorrect:
Not A:
* There is one set of background processes shared by the root and all PDBs.
* High consolidation density. The many pluggable databases in a single container database share
its memory and background processes, letting you operate many more pluggable databases on a
particular platform than you can single databases that use the old architecture.
Not C: There is a separate SYSAUX tablespace for the root and for each PDB.
Not F: There is a separate SYSTEM tablespace for the root and for each PDB.
QUESTION NO: 74
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.
Which two actions would reduce the job's elapsed time? (Choose two.)
A.
Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
B.
Increasing the job's relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C.
D.
Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and
duration
E.
Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F.
Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
B: Job priorities are used only to prioritize among jobs in the same class.
Within the same job class, you can assign priority values of 1-5 to individual jobs so that if two jobs
in the class are scheduled to start at the same time, the one with the higher priority takes
precedence. This ensures that you do not have a less important job preventing the timely
completion of a more important one.
Job classes provide the link between the Database Resource Manager and the Scheduler,
because each job class can specify a resource consumer group as an attribute. Member jobs then
belong to the specified consumer group and are assigned resources according to settings in the
current resource plan.
QUESTION NO: 75
You plan to migrate your database from a File system to Automata Storage Management (ASM)
on same platform.
Which two methods or commands would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A.
RMAN CONVERT command
B.
Data Pump Export and import
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
C.
Conventional Export and Import
D.
The BACKUP AS COPY DATABASE . . . command of RMAN
E.
DBMS_FILE_TRANSFER with transportable tablespace
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
A:
There is often a need to move the files from the file system to the ASM storage and vice versa.
This may come in handy when one of the file systems is corrupted by some means and then the
file may need to be moved to the other file system.
* To take advantage of Automatic Storage Management with an existing database you must
migrate that database into ASM. This migration is performed using Recovery Manager (RMAN)
even if you are not using RMAN for your primary backup and recovery strategy.
* Example:
References:
QUESTION NO: 76
You run a script that completes successfully using SQL*Plus that performs these actions:
Which two statements are true about the outcome after running the script? (Choose two.)
A.
The seed will be in mount state.
B.
The seed will be opened read-only.
C.
The seed will be opened read/write.
D.
The other PDBs will be in mount state.
E.
The other PDBs will be opened read-only.
F.
The PDBs will be opened read/write.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
D: Pluggable databases can be started and stopped using SQL*Plus commands or the ALTER
PLUGGABLE DATABASE command.
QUESTION NO: 77
User SCOTT has been granted the CREATE SESSION privilege and the MGR role.
Which two statements are true when a session logged in as SCOTT queries the SAL column in
the view and the table? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
Data is redacted for EMP.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
C.
Data is never redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column.
D.
Data is redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column only if the SCOTT session has the MGR role set.
E.
Data is redacted for the EMP_V.SAL column only if the SCOTT session does not have the MGR
role set.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Note:
* DBMS_REDACT.NONE applies no redaction on the column data. Use this function for
development testing purposes. LOB columns are not supported.
* The DBMS_REDACT package provides an interface to Oracle Data Redaction, which enables
you to mask (redact) data that is returned from queries issued by low-privileged users or an
application.
* If you create a view chain (that is, a view based on another view), then the Data Redaction policy
also applies throughout this view chain. The policies remain in effect all of the way up through this
view chain, but if another policy is created for one of these views, then for the columns affected in
the subsequent views, this new policy takes precedence.
QUESTION NO: 78
Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running. You stopped the wrong listener
LISTENER by issuing the following command:
What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?
B.
They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C.
They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D.
They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The listener is used when the connection is established. The immediate impact of stopping the
listener will be that no new session can be established from a remote host. Existing sessions are
not compromised.
QUESTION NO: 79
Which three statements are true about using flashback database in a multitenant container
database (CDB)? (Choose three.)
A.
The root container can be flashed back without flashing back the pluggable databases (PDBs).
B.
To enable flashback database, the CDB must be mounted.
C.
Individual PDBs can be flashed back without flashing back the entire CDB.
D.
The DB_FLASHBACK RETENTION_TARGET parameter must be set to enable flashback of the
CDB.
E.
A CDB can be flashed back specifying the desired target point in time or an SCN, but not a restore
point.
Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION NO: 80
A.
Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) is enabled for the PRICE column in the PRODUCTS table for
SELECT statements only when a row with PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
B.
FGA is enabled for the PRODUCTS.PRICE column and an audit record is written whenever a row
with PRICE > 10000 is accessed.
C.
FGA is enabled for all DML operations by JIM on the PRODUCTS.PRICE column.
D.
FGA is enabled for the PRICE column of the PRODUCTS table and the SQL statements is
captured in the FGA audit trial.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
DBMS_FGA.add_policy
* ADD_POLICY Procedure
This procedure creates an audit policy using the supplied predicate as the audit condition.
Incorrect:
Not C: object_schema
The schema of the object to be audited. (If NULL, the current log-on user schema is assumed.)
SQL > AUDIT SELECT TABLE, INSERT TABLE, DELETE TABLE BY JOHN By SESSION
WHENEVER SUCCESSFUL;
Which statement is true about the audit record that generated when auditing after instance
restarts?
A.
One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE
command on a table, and contains the SQL text for the SQL Statements.
B.
One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE
command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
C.
One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT,
INSERT, or DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
D.
One audit record is created for the whole session if JOHN successfully executes a select
command, and contains the SQL text and bind variables used.
E.
One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT,
INSERT, or DELETE command on a table, and contains the execution plan, SQL text, and bind
variables used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Note:
* BY SESSION
In earlier releases, BY SESSION caused the database to write a single record for all SQL
statements or operations of the same type executed on the same schema objects in the same
session. Beginning with this release (11g) of Oracle Database, both BY SESSION and BY
ACCESS cause Oracle Database to write one audit record for each audited statement and
operation.
* BY ACCESS
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
Specify BY ACCESS if you want Oracle Database to write one record for each audited statement
and operation.
Note:
If you specify either a SQL statement shortcut or a system privilege that audits a data definition
language (DDL) statement, then the database always audits by access. In all other cases, the
database honors the BY SESSION or BY ACCESS specification.
* For each audited operation, Oracle Database produces an audit record containing this
information:
QUESTION NO: 82
You support Oracle Database 12c Oracle Database 11g, and Oracle Database log on the same
server.
Which three statements are true about the ASM disk group compatibility attributes that are set for
a disk group? (Choose three.)
A.
The ASM compatibility attribute controls the format of the disk group metadata.
B.
RDBMS compatibility together with the database version determines whether a database Instance
can mount the ASM disk group.
C.
The RDBMS compatibility setting allows only databases set to the same version as the
compatibility value, to mount the ASM disk group.
D.
The ASM compatibility attribute determines some of the ASM features that may be used by the
Oracle disk group.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
E.
The ADVM compatibility attribute determines the ACFS features that may be used by the Oracle
10 g database.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
AD: The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute determines the minimum software
version for an Oracle ASM instance that can use the disk group. This setting also affects the
format of the data structures for the Oracle ASM metadata on the disk.
B: The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute determines the minimum
COMPATIBLE database initialization parameter setting for any database instance that is allowed
to use the disk group. Before advancing the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute, ensure that the
values for the COMPATIBLE initialization parameter for all of the databases that access the disk
group are set to at least the value of the new setting for COMPATIBLE.RDBMS.
For example, if the COMPATIBLE initialization parameters of the databases are set to either 11.1
or 11.2, then COMPATIBLE.RDBMS can be set to any value between 10.1 and 11.1 inclusively.
Not E:
/The value for the disk group COMPATIBLE.ADVM attribute determines whether the disk group
can contain Oracle ASM volumes. The value must be set to 11.2 or higher. Before setting this
attribute, the COMPATIBLE.ASM value must be 11.2 or higher. Also, the Oracle ADVM volume
drivers must be loaded in the supported environment.
/ You can create an Oracle ASM Dynamic Volume Manager (Oracle ADVM) volume in a disk
group. The volume device associated with the dynamic volume can then be used to host an
Oracle ACFS file system.
Note:
To enable the Database Smart Flash Cache, you configure the following parameters:
DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE=64G
A.
It results in an error because these parameter settings are invalid.
B.
One 64G flash cache file will be used.
C.
Two 64G flash cache files will be used.
D.
Two 32G flash cache files will be used.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 84
Which two statements are true about the password file? (Choose two.)
A.
It will permit the use of uppercase passwords for database users who have been granted the
SYSOPER role.
B.
It contains username and passwords of database users who are members of the OSOPER
operating system group.
D.
It will permit the use of lowercase passwords for database users who have granted the SYSDBA
role.
E.
It will not permit the use of mixed case passwords for the database users who have been granted
the SYSDBA role.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
* You can create a password file using the password file creation utility, ORAPWD.
When you grant SYSDBA or SYSOPER privileges to a user, that user's name and privilege
information are added to the password file. If the server does not have an EXCLUSIVE password
file (that is, if the initialization parameter REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE is NONE or
SHARED, or the password file is missing), Oracle Database issues an error if you attempt to grant
these privileges.
A user's name remains in the password file only as long as that user has at least one of these two
privileges. If you revoke both of these privileges, Oracle Database removes the user from the
password file.
* IGNORECASE
If this argument is set to y, passwords are case-insensitive. That is, case is ignored when
comparing the password that the user supplies during login with the password in the password file.
QUESTION NO: 85
A.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN ALL ISSUED from the root
B.
ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN ALL ISSUED from a PDB
C.
ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from the seed
D.
ALTER DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from the root
E.
ALTER DATABASE OPEN issued from that PDB
F.
ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB OPEN issued from another PDB
G.
ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN issued from that PDB
Answer: A,E,G
Explanation:
E: You can perform all ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE tasks by connecting to a PDB and
running the corresponding ALTER DATABASE statement. This functionality is provided to
maintain backward compatibility for applications that have been migrated to a CDB environment.
AG: When you issue an ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE OPEN statement, READ WRITE is the
default unless a PDB being opened belongs to a CDB that is used as a physical standby
database, in which case READ ONLY is the default.
Specify ALL EXCEPT to modify all of the PDBs, except for the PDBs listed.
QUESTION NO: 86
You administer an online transaction processing (OLTP) system whose database is stored in
Automatic Storage Management (ASM) and whose disk group use normal redundancy.
One of the ASM disks goes offline, and is then dropped because it was not brought online before
When the disk is replaced and added back to the disk group, the ensuing rebalance operation is
too slow.
Which two recommendations should you make to speed up the rebalance operation if this type of
failure happens again? (Choose two.)
A.
Increase the value of the ASM_POWER_LIMIT parameter.
B.
Set the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute to a lower value.
C.
Specify the statement that adds the disk back to the disk group.
D.
Increase the number of ASMB processes.
E.
Increase the number of DBWR_IO_SLAVES in the ASM instance.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
D:
* Normally a separate process is fired up to do that rebalance. This will take a certain amount of
time. If you want it to happen faster, fire up more processes. You tell ASM it can add more
processes by increasing the rebalance power.
* ASMB
Communicates with the ASM instance, managing storage and providing statistics
Incorrect:
Not E: If you implement database writer I/O slaves by setting the DBWR_IO_SLAVES parameter,
you configure a single (master) DBWR process that has slave processes that are subservient to it.
In addition, I/O slaves can be used to "simulate" asynchronous I/O on platforms that do not
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
support asynchronous I/O or implement it inefficiently. Database I/O slaves provide non-blocking,
asynchronous requests to simulate asynchronous I/O.
QUESTION NO: 87
You are administering a database and you receive a requirement to apply the following
restrictions:
2. A user should not be able to create more than four simultaneous sessions.
A.
by granting a secure application role to the users
B.
by creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT
parameter to FALSE
C.
By creating and assigning a profile to the users and setting the
SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameter to 4
D.
By Implementing Fine-Grained Auditing (FGA) and setting the
REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORD_FILE parameter to NONE.
E.
By implementing the database resource Manager plan and setting the
SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS parameters to 4.
Answer: A
Explanation:
You can design your applications to automatically grant a role to the user who is trying to log in,
provided the user meets criteria that you specify. To do so, you create a secure application role,
which is a role that is associated with a PL/SQL procedure (or PL/SQL package that contains
multiple procedures). The procedure validates the user: if the user fails the validation, then the
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
user cannot log in. If the user passes the validation, then the procedure grants the user a role so
that he or she can use the application. The user has this role only as long as he or she is logged in
to the application. When the user logs out, the role is revoked.
Incorrect:
Not B: REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT specifies whether remote clients will be authenticated with the
value of the OS_AUTHENT_PREFIX parameter.
Values:
shared
One or more databases can use the password file. The password file can contain SYS as well as
non-SYS users.
exclusive
The password file can be used by only one database. The password file can contain SYS as well
as non-SYS users.
none
Oracle ignores any password file. Therefore, privileged users must be authenticated by the
operating system.
Note:
QUESTION NO: 88
A senior DBA asked you to execute the following command to improve performance:
You checked the data in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table and found that it is a large table containing
one million rows.
A.
The keep pool is not configured.
B.
Automatic Workarea Management is not configured.
C.
Automatic Shared Memory Management is not enabled.
D.
The data blocks in the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rarely accessed.
E.
All the queries on the SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are rewritten to a materialized view.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most of the rows in SUBSCRIBE_LOG table are accessed once a week.
QUESTION NO: 89
Which three tasks can be automatically performed by the Automatic Data Optimization feature of
Information lifecycle Management (ILM)? (Choose three.)
A.
Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in a user tablespace
B.
Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in a user tablespace
C.
Tracking insert time by row for table rows
D.
Tracking the most recent write time for a table block
E.
Tracking the most recent read time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace
F.
Tracking the most recent write time for a table segment in the SYSAUX tablespace
Incorrect:
Not E, Not F When Heat Map is enabled, all accesses are tracked by the in-memory activity
tracking module. Objects in the SYSTEM and SYSAUX tablespaces are not tracked.
* To implement your ILM strategy, you can use Heat Map in Oracle Database to track data access
and modification.
Heat Map provides data access tracking at the segment-level and data modification tracking at the
segment and row level.
* To implement your ILM strategy, you can use Heat Map in Oracle Database to track data access
and modification. You can also use Automatic Data Optimization (ADO) to automate the
compression and movement of data between different tiers of storage within the database.
QUESTION NO: 90
Which two partitioned table maintenance operations support asynchronous Global Index
Maintenance in Oracle database 12c? (Choose two.)
A.
ALTER TABLE SPLIT PARTITION
B.
ALTER TABLE MERGE PARTITION
C.
ALTER TABLE TRUNCATE PARTITION
D.
ALTER TABLE ADD PARTITION
E.
ALTER TABLE DROP PARTITION
F.
ALTER TABLE MOVE PARTITION
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 91
Which two memory areas that are part of PGA are stored in SGA instead, for shared server
connection? (Choose two.)
A.
User session data
B.
Stack space
C.
Private SQL area
D.
Location of the runtime area for DML and DDL Statements
E.
Location of a part of the runtime area for SELECT statements
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A: PGA itself is subdivided. The UGA (User Global Area) contains session state information,
including stuff like package-level variables, cursor state, etc. Note that, with shared server, the
UGA is in the SGA. It has to be, because shared server means that the session state needs to be
accessible to all server processes, as any one of them could be assigned a particular session.
However, with dedicated server (which likely what you're using), the UGA is allocated in the PGA.
C: The Location of a private SQL area depends on the type of connection established for a
session. If a session is connected through a dedicated server, private SQL areas are located in
the server process’ PGA. However, if a session is connected through a shared server, part of the
private SQL area is kept in the SGA.
Note:
A PGA is a memory region that contains data and control information for a server process. It is
nonshared memory created by Oracle Database when a server process is started. Access to the
PGA is exclusive to the server process. There is one PGA for each server process. Background
processes also allocate their own PGAs. The total memory used by all individual PGAs is known
as the total instance PGA memory, and the collection of individual PGAs is referred to as the total
instance PGA, or just instance PGA. You use database initialization parameters to set the size of
the instance PGA, not individual PGAs.
QUESTION NO: 92
Which two statements are true about Oracle Managed Files (OMF)? (Choose two.)
A.
OMF cannot be used in a database that already has data files created with user-specified
directions.
B.
The file system directions that are specified by OMF parameters are created automatically.
C.
OMF can be used with ASM disk groups, as well as with raw devices, for better file management.
D.
OMF automatically creates unique file names for table spaces and control files.
E.
OMF may affect the location of the redo log files and archived log files.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
D: The database internally uses standard file system interfaces to create and delete files as
needed for the following database structures:
Tablespaces
Archived logs
Flashback logs
RMAN backups
Note:
http://www.oracle-base.com/articles/9i/oracle-managed-files.php
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B10500_01/server.920/a96521/omf.htm
QUESTION NO: 93
Which four actions are possible during an Online Data file Move operation? (Choose four.)
A.
Creating and dropping tables in the data file being moved
B.
Performing file shrink of the data file being moved
C.
Querying tables in the data file being moved
D.
Performing Block Media Recovery for a data block in the data file being moved
E.
Flashing back the database
F.
Executing DML statements on objects stored in the data file being moved
Answer: A,C,E,F
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Explanation:
- You can now move On line Datafile without hove to stop Monoged Recovery and manually copy
and rename Files. This can even be used to move Datafiles from or to ASM.
- New in Oracle Database 12c: FROM METAUNK. Physical Standby Database is in Active Data
Guard Mode (opened READ ONLY and Managed Recovery is running):
It is now possible to online move a Datafile while Managed Recovery is running, ie. the Physical
Standby Database is in Active Data Guard Mode. You can use this Command to move the Datafile
- A flashback operation does not relocate a moved data file to its previous location. If you move a
data file online from one location to another and later flash back the database to a point in time
before the move, then the Data file remains in the new location, but the contents of the Data file
ore changed to the contents at the time specified in the flashback. Oracle0 Database
Administrator's Guide 12c Release 1 (12.1)
QUESTION NO: 94
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains a pluggable database, HR_PDB. The default
permanent tablespace in HR_PDB is USERDATA. The container database (CDB) is open and you
connect RMAN.
A.
Place the root container in ARHCHIVELOG mode.
B.
Take the user data tablespace offline.
C.
Place the root container in the nomount stage.
D.
Ensure that HR_PDB is open.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 95
Identify three scenarios in which you would recommend the use of SQL Performance Analyzer to
analyze impact on the performance of SQL statements.
A.
Change in the Oracle Database version
B.
Change in your network infrastructure
C.
Change in the hardware configuration of the database server
D.
Migration of database storage from non-ASM to ASM storage
E.
Database and operating system upgrade
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
Oracle 11g/12c makes further use of SQL tuning sets with the SQL Performance Analyzer, which
compares the performance of the statements in a tuning set before and after a database change.
The database change can be as major or minor as you like, such as:
Which two statements are true about the RMAN validate database command? (Choose two.)
A.
It checks the database for intrablock corruptions.
B.
It can detect corrupt pfiles.
C.
It can detect corrupt spfiles.
D.
It checks the database for interblock corruptions.
E.
It can detect corrupt block change tracking files.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Block corruptions can be divided Into Interblock corruption and intrablock corruption. In intrablock
corruption. th« corruption occurs within the block itself and can be either physical or logical
corruption. In interblock corruption, the corruption occurs between blocks and can only be logical
corruption.
(key word) * The VALIDATE command checks for intrablock corruptions only. Only DBVERIFY
and the ANALYZE statement detect Interblock corruption.
Blocks Failing »»» The number of blocks that fail the corruption check. These
You install a non-RAC Oracle Database. During Installation, the Oracle Universal Installer (OUI)
prompts you to enter the path of the Inventory directory and also to specify an operating system
group name.
A.
The ORACLE_BASE base parameter is not set.
B.
The installation is being performed by the root user.
C.
The operating system group that is specified should have the root user as its member.
D.
The operating system group that is specified must have permission to write to the inventory
directory.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Note:
If you are installing a product on a UNIX system, the Installer will also prompt you to provide the
name of the group which should own the base directory.
You must choose a UNIX group name which will have permissions to update, install, and deinstall
Oracle software. Members of this group must have write permissions to the base directory chosen.
Only users who belong to this group are able to install or deinstall software on this machine.
QUESTION NO: 98
You are required to migrate your 11.2.0.3 database as a pluggable database (PDB) to a
multitenant container database (CDB).
4. Perform a full transportable export on the source database with the VERSION parameter set to
12 using the expdp utility.
5. Copy the associated data files and export the dump file to the desired location in the target
database.
6. Invoke the Data Pump import utility on the new PDB database as a user with the
DATAPUMP_IMP_FULL_DATABASE role and specify the full transportable import options.
7. Synchronize the PDB on the target container database by using the DBMS_PDS.SYNC_ODB
function.
A.
2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
B.
1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
C.
1, 4, 3, 5, 6, 7
D.
2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
E.
1, 5, 6, 4, 3, 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
2. From the Oracle Database 11g Release 2 {11.2.0.3) environment, export the metadata and any
data residing in administrative tablespaces from the source database using the FULL=Y and
TRANSPORTABLE=ALWAYS parameters. Note that the VER$ION=12 parameter is required only
when exporting from an Oracle Database llg Release 2 database:
3. Copy the tablespace data files from the source system to the destination system. Note that the
log file from the export operation will list the data files required to be moved.
4. Create a COB on the destination system, including a PDB into which you will import the source
5. In the Oracle Database 12c environment, connect to the pre-created PDB and import the dump
file. The act of importing the dump file will plug the tablespace data files into the destination PDB
QUESTION NO: 99
In your multitenant container database (CDB) with two pluggable database (PDBs). You want to
create a new PDB by using SQL Developer.
A.
The CDB must be open.
B.
The CDB must be in the mount stage.
C.
The CDB must be in the nomount stage.
D.
Alt existing PDBs must be closed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Creating a PDB
Rather than constructing the data dictionary tables that define an empty PDB from scratch, and
then populating its Obj$ and Dependency$ tables, the empty PDB is created when the CDB is
created. (Here, we use empty to mean containing no customer-created artifacts.) It is referred to
as the seed PDB and has the name PDB$Seed. Every CDB non-negotiably contains a seed PDB;
it is non-negotiably always open in read-only mode. This has no conceptual significance; rather, it
is just an optimization device. The create PDB operation is implemented as a special case of the
clone PDB operation. The size of the seed PDB is only about 1 gigabyte and it takes only a few
seconds on a typical machine to copy it.
Which two statements are true about the Oracle Direct Network File system (DNFS)? (Choose
two.)
A.
It utilizes the OS file system cache.
B.
A traditional NFS mount is not required when using Direct NFS.
C.
Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating kernel NFS driver.
D.
Direct NFS is available only in UNIX platforms.
E.
Direct NFS can load-balance I/O traffic across multiple network adapters.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
E: Performance is improved by load balancing across multiple network interfaces (if available).
Note:
* To enable Direct NFS Client, you must replace the standard Oracle Disk Manager (ODM) library
with one that supports Direct NFS Client.
Incorrect:
Not A: Direct NFS Client is capable of performing concurrent direct I/O, which bypasses any
operating system level caches and eliminates any operating system write-ordering locks
Not B:
* To use Direct NFS Client, the NFS file systems must first be mounted and available over regular
NFS mounts.
* Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster
and more scalable access to NFS storage located on NAS storage devices (accessible over
TCP/IP).
Not D: Direct NFS is provided as part of the database kernel, and is thus available on all
supported database platforms - even those that don't support NFS natively, like Windows.
Note:
* Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an optimized NFS (Network File System) client that provides faster
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
and more scalable access to NFS storage located on NAS storage devices (accessible over
TCP/IP). Direct NFS is built directly into the database kernel - just like ASM which is mainly used
when using DAS or SAN storage.
* Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS) is an internal I/O layer that provides faster access to large NFS files
than traditional NFS clients.
Which three statements are true about the process of automatic optimization by using cardinality
feedback? (Choose three.)
A.
The optimizer automatically changes a plan during subsequent execution of a SQL statement if
there is a huge difference in optimizer estimates and execution statistics.
B.
The optimizer can re optimize a query only once using cardinality feedback.
C.
The optimizer enables monitoring for cardinality feedback after the first execution of a query.
D.
The optimizer does not monitor cardinality feedback if dynamic sampling and multicolumn
statistics are enabled.
E.
After the optimizer identifies a query as a re-optimization candidate, statistics collected by the
collectors are submitted to the optimizer.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
C: During the first execution of a SQL statement, an execution plan is generated as usual.
D: if multi-column statistics are not present for the relevant combination of columns, the optimizer
can fall back on cardinality feedback.
(not B)* Cardinality feedback. This feature, enabled by default in 11.2, is intended to improve plans
for repeated executions.
optimizer_features_enable
* dynamic sampling or multi-column statistics allow the optimizer to more accurately estimate
selectivity of conjunctive predicates.
Note:
Range of values. 0 to 10
* Cardinality feedback was introduced in Oracle Database 11gR2. The purpose of this feature is to
automatically improve plans for queries that are executed repeatedly, for which the optimizer does
not estimate cardinalities in the plan properly. The optimizer may misestimate cardinalities for a
variety of reasons, such as missing or inaccurate statistics, or complex predicates. Whatever the
reason for the misestimate, cardinality feedback may be able to help.
Which three statements are true when the listener handles connection requests to an Oracle 12c
database instance with multithreaded architecture enabled In UNIX? (Choose three.)
A.
Thread creation must be routed through a dispatcher process
B.
The local listener may spawn a now process and have that new process create a thread
C.
Each Oracle process runs an SCMN thread.
D.
Each multithreaded Oracle process has an SCMN thread.
E.
The local listener may pass the request to an existing process which in turn will create a thread.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Which three operations can be performed as multipartition operations in Oracle? (Choose three.)
A.
Merge partitions of a list partitioned table
B.
Drop partitions of a list partitioned table
C.
Coalesce partitions of a hash-partitioned global index.
D.
Move partitions of a range-partitioned table
E.
Rename partitions of a range partitioned table
F.
Merge partitions of a reference partitioned index
Answer: A,B,F
Explanation:
Multipartition maintenance enables adding, dropping, truncate, merge, split operations on multiple
partitions.
The new “ALTER TABLE … MERGE PARTITIONS ” help merge multiple partitions or
subpartitions with a single statement. When merging multiple partitions, local and global index
operations and semantics for inheritance of unspecified physical attributes are the same for
merging two partitions.
The new “ALTER TABLE … DROP PARTITIONS ” help drop multiple partitions or subpartitions
with a single statement.
Example:
SQL>
Restrictions :
- If the table has a single partition, you will get the error: ORA-14083: cannot drop the only partition
of a partitioned.
You are connected using SQL* Plus to a multitenant container database (CDB) with SYSDBA
privileges and execute the following sequence statements:
What is the result of the last SET CONTAINER statement and why is it so?
A.
It succeeds because the PDB_ADMIN user has the required privileges.
B.
It fails because common users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
C.
It fails because local users are unable to use the SET CONTAINER statement.
D.
If fails because the SET CONTAINER statement cannot be used with PDB$SEED as the target
pluggable database (PDB).
Answer: C
Explanation:
Examine the details of the Top 5 Timed Events in the following Automatic Workloads Repository
(AWR) report:
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What are three possible causes for the latch-related wait events?
A.
The size of the shared pool is too small.
B.
Cursors are not being shared.
C.
A large number COMMITS are being performed.
D.
There are frequent logons and logoffs.
E.
The buffers are being read into the buffer cache, but some other session is changing the buffers.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
For which database users and for which executions is the audit policy now active? Select two.
A.
SYS, SYSTEM
B.
SCOTT
C.
Only for successful executions
D.
Only for failed executions
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
A redaction policy was added to the SAL column of the SCOTT.EMP table:
For which three situations will data not be redacted? (Choose three.)
A.
SYS sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
B.
SYSTEM sessions, regardless of the roles that are set in the session
C.
SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is set in the session
D.
SCOTT sessions, only if the MGR role is granted to SCOTT
E.
SCOTT sessions, because he is the owner of the table
F.
SYSTEM session, only if the MGR role is set in the session
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
What is the result of executing a TRUNCATE TABLE command on a table that has Flashback
Archiving enabled?
A.
It fails with the ORA-665610 Invalid DDL statement on history-tracked message
B.
The rows in the table are truncated without being archived.
C.
The rows in the table are archived, and then truncated.
D.
The rows in both the table and the archive are truncated.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which three activities are supported by the Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose three.)
A.
Advising on block checksum failures
B.
Advising on inaccessible control files
C.
Advising on inaccessible block change tracking files
D.
Advising on empty password files
E.
Advising on invalid block header field values
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
/ (B) Components such as datafiles and control files that are not accessible because they do not
exist, do not have the correct access permissions, have been taken offline, and so on
/ (A, E) Physical corruptions such as block checksum failures and invalid block header field values
/ I/O failures such as hardware errors, operating system driver failures, and exceeding operating
system resource limits (for example, the number of open files)
* The Data Recovery Advisor automatically diagnoses corruption or loss of persistent data on disk,
determines the appropriate repair options, and executes repairs at the user's request. This
reduces the complexity of recovery process, thereby reducing the Mean Time To Recover
(MTTR).
You create a table with the PERIOD FOR clause to enable the use of the Temporal Validity
feature of Oracle Database 12c.
Which three statements are true concerning the use of the Valid Time Temporal feature for the
EMPLOYEES table? (Choose three.)
A.
The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.
B.
The same statement may filter on both transaction time and valid temporal time by using the AS
OF TIMESTAMP and PERIOD FOR clauses.
C.
The valid time columns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.
D.
The valid time columns are visible by default when the table is described.
E.
Setting the session valid time using DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME
sets the visibility for data manipulation language (DML), data definition language (DDL), and
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
queries performed by the session.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
Which three statements are true regarding the use of the Database Migration Assistant for
Unicode (DMU)? (Choose three.)
A.
A DBA can check specific tables with the DMU
B.
The database to be migrated must be opened read-only.
C.
The release of the database to be converted can be any release since 9.2.0.8.
D.
The DMU can report columns that are too long in the converted characterset.
E.
The DMU can report columns that are not represented in the converted characterset.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
A: In certain situations, you may want to exclude selected columns or tables from scanning or
conversion steps of the migration process.
The cell data will not fit into a column after conversion.
E: Need conversion
The cell data needs to be converted, because its binary representation in the target character set
is different than the representation in the current character set, but neither length limit issues nor
invalid representation issues have been found
* Oracle Database Migration Assistant for Unicode (DMU) is a unique next-generation migration
tool providing an end-to-end solution for migrating your databases from legacy encodings to
Unicode.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
Incorrect:
Not C: The release of Oracle Database must be 10.2.0.4, 10.2.0.5, 11.1.0.7, 11.2.0.1, or later.
Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a stand-alone server is installed on your production host before
installing the Oracle Database server. The database and listener are configured by using Oracle
Restart.
A.
When you start an instance on a high with SQL *Plus dependent listeners and ASM disk groups
are automatically started.
B.
When a database instance is started by using the SRVCTL utility and listener startup fails, the
instance is still started.
C.
When a database is created by using SQL* Plus, it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart
configuration.
D.
When you create a database service by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter,
it is automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Oracle Restart ensures that Oracle components are started in the proper order, in accordance with
component dependencies. For example, if database files are stored in Oracle ASM disk groups,
then before starting the database instance, Oracle Restart ensures that the Oracle ASM instance
Oracle Restart also manages the weak dependency between database instances and the Oracle
Net listener (the listener): When a database instance is started, Oracle Restart attempts to start
the listener. If the listener startup fails, then the database is still started. If the listener later fails,
Oracle Restart does not shut down and restart any database instances.
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17636/restart.htm#ADMIN12710
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains some pluggable databases (PDBs), you
execute the following command in the root container:
A.
Schema objects owned by the C# # A_ADMIN common user can be shared across all PDBs.
B.
The C # # A_ADMIN user will be able to use the TEMP_TS temporary tablespace only in root.
C.
The command will, create a common user whose description is contained in the root and each
PDB.
D.
The schema for the common user C # # A_ADMIN can be different in each container.
E.
The command will create a user in the root container only because the container clause is not
used.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
To enable block change tracking after the incremental level 0 backup, you issued this command:
SQL > ALTER DATABASE ENABLE BLOCK CHANGE TRACKING USING FILE
‘ /mydir/rman_change_track.f’;
A.
Backup change tracking will sometimes reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental
backups.
B.
The change tracking file must always be backed up when you perform a full database backup.
C.
Block change tracking will always reduce I/O performed during cumulative incremental backups.
D.
More than one database block may be read by an incremental backup for a change made to a
single block.
E.
The incremental level 1 backup that immediately follows the enabling of block change tracking will
not read the change tracking file to discover changed blocks.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
You find this query being used in your Oracle 12c database:
A.
A filter is added to the table query dynamically using ROWNUM to limit the rows to 20 percent of
the total rows
B.
All the rows are returned to the client or middle tier but only the first 20 percent are returned to the
screen or the application.
C.
A view is created during execution and a filter on the view limits the rows to 20 percent of the total
rows.
D.
A TOP-N query is created to limit the rows to 20 percent of the total rows
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which three resources might be prioritized between competing pluggable databases when
creating a multitenant container database plan (CDB plan) using Oracle Database Resource
Manager? (Choose three.)
A.
Maximum Undo per consumer group
B.
Maximum Idle time
C.
Parallel server limit
D.
CPU
E.
Exadata I/O
F.
Local file system I/O
You then closed the encryption wallet because you were advised that this is secure.
Later in the day, you attempt to create the EMPLOYEES table in the SECURESPACE tablespace
with the SALT option on the EMPLOYEE column.
A.
It creates the table successfully but does not encrypt any inserted data in the EMPNAME column
because the wallet must be opened to encrypt columns with SALT.
B.
It generates an error when creating the table because the wallet is closed.
C.
It creates the table successfully, and encrypts any inserted data in the EMPNAME column
because the wallet needs to be open only for tablespace creation.
D.
It generates error when creating the table, because the salt option cannot be used with encrypted
tablespaces.
Answer: B
Explanation:
On your Oracle Database, you issue the following commands to create indexes:
A.
Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index created.
B.
Both the indexes are updated when a row is inserted, updated, or deleted in the ORDERS table.
C.
Both the indexes are created: however, only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 is used by the optimizer for
queries on the ORDERS table.
D.
The ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is not used by the optimizer even when the
OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES parameters is set to true.
E.
Both the indexes are created and used by the optimizer for queries on the ORDERS table.
F.
Both the indexes are created: however, only ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX2 is used by the optimizer for
queries on the ORDERS table.
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
B: The invisible index ORD_CUSTOMERS_IX1 and the bitmap index are both updated by DML
operations on the Orders table.
* VISIBLE | INVISIBLE Use this clause to specify whether the index is visible or invisible to the
optimizer. An invisible index is maintained by DML operations, but it is not be used by the
optimizer during queries unless you explicitly set the parameter
OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES to TRUE at the session or system level.
Which two statements are true when row archival management is enabled? (Choose two.)
A.
The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column visibility is controlled by the ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY
session parameter.
B.
The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated manually or by a program that could reference
activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
C.
The ROW ARCHIVAL VISIBILITY session parameter defaults to active rows only.
D.
The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if referenced in the select list of a query.
E.
The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated automatically by the Oracle Server based on
activity tracking columns, to Indicate that a row is no longer considered active.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
A warehouse fact table in your Oracle 12c Database is range-partitioned by month and accessed
frequently with queries that span multiple partitions
This commonly occurs when the range of dates begins at the end of a month or ends close to the
start of a month.
You want an execution plan to be generated that uses indexed access when only a few rows are
accessed from a segment, while still allowing full scans for segments where many rows are
returned.
Which three methods could transparently help to achieve this result? (Choose three.)
A.
Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled to the
table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
B.
Using a partial local Index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for
the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
C.
Using a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the partitions of the warehouse fact
table, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
D.
Converting the partitioned table to a partitioned view that does a UNION ALL query on the monthly
tables, which retains the existing local partitioned column.
E.
Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabling for
the table partitions that return most of their rows to the queries.
F.
Using a partial global index on the warehouse fact table month column with indexing disabled for
the table partitions that return a few rows to the queries.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
Note:
* Oracle 12c now provides the ability to index a subset of partitions and to exclude the others.
Local and global indexes can now be created on a subset of the partitions of a table. Partial Global
indexes provide more flexibility in index creation for partitioned tables. For example, index
segments can be omitted for the most recent partitions to ensure maximum data ingest rates
without impacting the overall data model and access for the partitioned object.
Partial Global Indexes save space and improve performance during loads and queries. This
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
feature supports global indexes that include or index a certain subset of table partitions or
subpartitions, and exclude the others. This operation is supported using a default table indexing
property. When a table is created or altered, a default indexing property can be specified for the
table or its partitions.
You use the segment advisor to help determine objects for which space may be reclaimed.
Which three statements are true about the advisor given by the segment advisor? (Choose three.)
A.
It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in dictionary managed tablespace.
B.
It may advise the use of segment shrink for tables in dictionary managed tablespaces it the no
chained rows.
C.
It may advise the use of online table redefinition for tables in locally managed tablespaces
D.
It will detect and advise about chained rows.
E.
It may advise the use of segment shrink for free list managed tables.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
You have altered a non-unique index to be invisible to determine if queries execute within an
acceptable response time without using this index.
Which two are possible if table updates are performed which affect the invisible index columns?
(Choose two.)
B.
The index is not updated by the DML statements on the indexed table.
C.
The index automatically becomes visible in order to have it updated by DML on the table.
D.
The index becomes unusable but the table is updated by the DML.
E.
The index is updated by the DML on the table.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
Note:
* Oracle 11g allows indexes to be marked as invisible. Invisible indexes are maintained like any
other index, but they are ignored by the optimizer unless the
OPTIMIZER_USE_INVISIBLE_INDEXES parameter is set to TRUE at the instance or session
level. Indexes can be created as invisible by using the INVISIBLE keyword, and their visibility can
be toggled using the ALTER INDEX command.
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing same pluggable databases (PDBs), you
execute the following commands in the root container:
A.
The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
B.
The C # # ROLE1 role is created only in the root database because the container clause is not
used.
D.
Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user in the root database and all PDBs.
E.
The statement for granting a role to a user fails because the CONTAINER clause is not used.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
* You can include the CONTAINER clause in several SQL statements, such as the CREATE
USER, ALTER USER, CREATE ROLE, GRANT, REVOKE, and ALTER SYSTEM statements.
/ CONTAINER = ALL
/ CONTAINER = CURRENT
The persistent configuration settings for RMAN have default for all parameters.
A.
BACKUP TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;
B.
BACKUP AS COPY TABLESPACE SYSTEM SECTION SIZE 100M;
C.
BACKUP ARCHIVELOG ALL SECTION SIZE 25M;
D.
BACKUP TABLESPACE "TEMP" SECTION SIZE 10M;
E.
BACKUP TABLESPACE "UNDO" INCLUDE CURRENT CONTROLFILE SECTION SIZE 100M;
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
F.
BACKUP SPFILE SECTION SIZE 1M;
G.
BACKUP INCREMENTAL LEVEL 0 TABLESPACE SYSAUX SECTION SIZE 100M;
Answer: A,B,E,G
Explanation:
Flashback is enabled for your multitenant container database (CDB), which contains two
pluggable database (PDBs). A local user was accidently dropped from one of the PDBs.
You want to flash back the PDB to the time before the local user was dropped. You connect to the
CDB and execute the following commands:
Which command or commands should you execute next to allow updates to the flashback back
schema?
A.
Only 1
B.
Only 2
C.
D.
3 and 1
E.
1 and 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
Database operations will be monitored only when they consume a significant amount of resource.
B.
Database operations for all sessions will be monitored.
C.
Database operations will be monitored only if the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to
TYPICAL and CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS is set DIAGNISTIC + TUNING.
D.
Only DML and DDL statements will be monitored for the session.
E.
All subsequent statements in the session will be treated as one database operation and will be
monitored.
Answer: C,E
Note:
* The DBMS_SQL_MONITOR package provides information about Real-time SQL Monitoring and
Real-time Database Operation Monitoring.
/ (E) FORCE_TRACKING - forces the composite database operation to be tracked when the
operation starts. You can also use the string variable 'Y'.
/ (not A) NO_FORCE_TRACKING - the operation will be tracked only when it has consumed at
least 5 seconds of CPU or I/O time. You can also use the string variable 'N'.
Which three statements are true about the working of system privileges in a multitenant control
database (CDB) that has pluggable databases (PDBs)? (Choose three.)
A.
System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
B.
Local users cannot use local system privileges on the schema of a common user.
C.
The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
D.
Common users connected to a PDB can exercise privileges across other PDBs.
E.
System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common
user before the common user can grant privileges to other users.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
C: A user can only perform common operations on a common role, for example, granting
privileges commonly to the role, when the following criteria are met:
The user has the SET CONTAINER privilege granted commonly, which means that the privilege
applies in all containers.
The user has privilege controlling the ability to perform the specified operation, and this privilege
has been granted commonly
Incorrect:
Note:
* Every privilege and role granted to Oracle-supplied users and roles is granted commonly except
for system privileges granted to PUBLIC, which are granted locally.
You are about to plug a multi-terabyte non-CDB into an existing multitenant container database
(CDB) as a pluggable database (PDB).
A.
Transportable database
B.
Transportable tablespace
C.
Data Pump full export / import
D.
The DBMS_PDB package
E.
RMAN
Answer: C
Explanation:
Your database has the SRV1 service configured for an application that runs on middle-tier
application server. The application has multiple modules. You enable tracing at the service level
by executing the following command:
The possible outcome and actions to aggregate the trace files are as follows:
2. A trace file is created for each session that is running the SRV1 service.
3. An aggregated trace file is created for all the sessions that are running the SRV1 service.
Identify the correct outcome and the step to aggregate by using tkprof utility?
B.
2 and 4
C.
2 and 5
D.
3 and 4
E.
3 and 5
Answer: B
Explanation:
Tracing information is present in multiple trace files and you must use the trcsess tool to collect it
into a single file.
Incorrect:
module_name
Note:
* The procedure enables a trace for a given combination of Service, MODULE and ACTION name.
The specification is strictly hierarchical: Service Name or Service Name/MODULE, or Service
Name, MODULE, and ACTION name must be specified. Omitting a qualifier behaves like a wild-
card, so that not specifying an ACTION means all ACTIONs. Using the ALL_ACTIONS constant
achieves the same purpose.
* SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE Procedure
This procedure will enable SQL tracing for a given combination of Service Name, MODULE and
ACTION globally unless an instance_name is specified.
* DBMS_MONITOR.SERV_MOD_ACT_TRACE_ENABLE(
service_name IN VARCHAR2,
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains pluggable databases (PDBs), you are
connected to the HR_PDB. You execute the following command:
A.
It executes successfully and creates an UNDO tablespace in HR_PDB.
B.
It falls and reports an error because there can be only one undo tablespace in a CDB.
C.
It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not specified in the
command.
D.
It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not specified in the
command.
E.
It executes successfully but neither tablespace nor the data file is created.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Interesting behavior in 12.1.0.1 DB of creating an undo tablespace in a PDB. With the new
Multitenant architecture the undo tablespace resides at the CDB level and PDBs all share the
same UNDO tablespace.
When the current container is a PDB, an attempt to create an undo tablespace fails without
returning an error.
Which three statements are true about SQL plan directives? (Choose three.)
A.
They are tied to a specific statement or SQL ID.
B.
They instruct the maintenance job to collect missing statistics or perform dynamic sampling to
generate a more optimal plan.
C.
They are used to gather only missing statistics.
D.
They are created for a query expression where statistics are missing or the cardinality estimates
by the optimizer are incorrect.
E.
They instruct the optimizer to create only column group statistics.
F.
Improve plan accuracy by persisting both compilation and execution statistics in the SYSAUX
tablespace.
Answer: B,D,F
Explanation:
Which two statements are true about this flashback scenario? (Choose two.)
B.
The database must be MOUNTED for the flashback to succeed.
C.
The database must use block change tracking for the flashback to succeed.
D.
The database must be opened in restricted mode for the flashback to succeed.
E.
The database must be opened with the RESETLOGS option after the flashback is complete.
F.
The database must be opened in read-only mode to check if the database has been flashed back
to the correct SCN.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Which three are true about the MRKT tablespace? (Choose three.)
A.
The MRKT tablespace is created as a small file tablespace, because the file size is less than the
minimum required for big file files.
B.
The MRKT tablespace may be dropped if it has no contents.
C.
Users who were using the old default tablespace will have their default tablespaces changed to
the MRKT tablespace.
D.
No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
In your database, you want to ensure that idle sessions that are blocking active are automatically
terminated after a specified period of time.
A.
Setting a metric threshold
B.
Implementing Database Resource Manager
C.
Enabling resumable timeout for user sessions
D.
Decreasing the value of the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the default profile
Answer: B
Explanation:
You Execute the Following command to create a password file in the database server:
Which two statements are true about the password file? (Choose two.)
B.
It contains the usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled.
C.
Is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administration.
D.
It records the usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to the OSDBA or
OSOPER operating system groups.
E.
It supports the SYSBACKUP, SYSDG, and SYSKM system privileges.
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
A.
Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.
B.
Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-01722: invalid number.
C.
Creating a table returns ORA-00955: name us already in used by an existing object.
D.
Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.OK_TECHP) violated.
E.
Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578: ORACLE data
block corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
The alert log is a chronological log of messages and errors, and includes the following items:
* Administrative operations, such as CREATE, ALTER, and DROP statements and STARTUP,
SHUTDOWN, and ARCHIVELOG statements
* Messages and errors relating to the functions of shared server and dispatcher processes
* The values of all initialization parameters that had nondefault values at the time the database
and instance start
Note:
* The alert log file (also referred to as the ALERT.LOG) is a chronological log of messages and
errors written out by an Oracle Database. Typical messages found in this file is: database startup,
shutdown, log switches, space errors, etc. This file should constantly be monitored to detect
unexpected messages and corruptions.
Which two statements are true about Oracle Data Pump export and import operations? (Choose
two.)
A.
You can detach from a data pump export job and reattach later.
B.
Data pump uses parallel execution server processes to implement parallel import.
C.
Data pump import requires the import file to be in a directory owned by the oracle owner.
D.
The master table is the last object to be exported by the data pump.
E.
You can detach from a data pump import job and reattach later.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
B: Data Pump can employ multiple worker processes, running in parallel, to increase job
performance.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
D: For export jobs, the master table records the location of database objects within a dump file set.
/ Export builds and maintains the master table for the duration of the job. At the end of an export
job, the content of the master table is written to a file in the dump file set.
/ For import jobs, the master table is loaded from the dump file set and is used to control the
sequence of operations for locating objects that need to be imported into the target database.
Which three statements are true about the users (other than sys) in the output? (Choose three.)
A.
The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN only.
B.
The C # # C_ADMIN user can perform the data guard operation with Data Guard Broker.
C.
The C # # A_ADMIN user can perform wallet operations.
D.
The C # # D_ADMIN user can perform backup and recovery operations for Automatic Storage
Management (ASM).
E.
The C # # B_ADMIN user can perform all backup and recovery operations using RMAN or SQL*
Plus.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
B: SYSDG administrative privilege has ability to perform Data Guard operations (including startup
and shutdown) using Data Guard Broker or dgmgrl.
D: SYSASM
The new (introduced in 11g) SYSASM role to manage the ASM instance, variable extent sizes to
reduce shared pool usage, and the ability of an instance to read from a specific disk of a diskgroup
E (Not A): SYSDBA is like a role in the sense that it is granted, but SYSDBA is a special built-in
Incorrect:
Not C: SYSKM. SYSKM administrative privilege has ability to perform transparent data encryption
wallet operations.
Note:
Use the V$PWFILE_USERS view to see the users who have been granted administrative
privileges.
In your Database, the TBS PERCENT USED parameter is set to 60 and the TBS PERCENT
FREE parameter is set to 20.
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using information Lifecycle
Management (ILM) to automate data movement? (Choose two.)
A.
The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a
different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
B.
Setting the target tablespace to read-only
C.
The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on
a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
D.
Setting the target tablespace offline
E.
The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a
different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
The value for TBS_PERCENT_USED specifies the percentage of the tablespace quota when a
tablespace is considered full. The value for TBS_PERCENT_FREE specifies the targeted free
Which three statements are true about Flashback Database? (Choose three.)
A.
Flashback logs are written sequentially, and are archived.
B.
Flashback Database uses a restored control file to recover a database.
C.
The Oracle database automatically creates, deletes, and resides flashback logs in the Fast
Recovery Area.
D.
Flashback Database can recover a database to the state that it was in before a reset logs
operation.
E.
Flashback Database can recover a data file that was dropped during the span of time of the
flashback.
F.
Flashback logs are used to restore to the blocks before images, and then the redo data may be
used to roll forward to the desired flashback time.
Answer: C,D,F
Explanation:
Which statement is true about Enterprise Manager (EM) express in Oracle Database 12c?
A.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
By default, EM express is available for a database after database creation.
B.
You can use EM express to manage multiple databases running on the same server.
C.
You can perform basic administrative tasks for pluggable databases by using the EM express
interface.
D.
You cannot start up or shut down a database Instance by using EM express.
E.
You can create and configure pluggable databases by using EM express.
Answer: D
Explanation:
References:
http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/manageability/emx-intro-1965965.html
A.
Only the data definition language (DDL) commands that resulted in errors are logged in the alert
log file.
B.
All DDL commands are logged in the alert log file.
C.
All DDL commands are logged in a different log file that contains DDL statements and their
execution dates.
D.
Only DDL commands that resulted in the creation of new segments are logged.
Answer: E
Explanation:
In which two scenarios do you use SQL* Loader to load data? (Choose two.)
A.
Transform the data while it is being loaded into the database.
B.
Use transparent parallel processing without having to split the external data first.
C.
Load data into multiple tables during the same load statement.
D.
Generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
You are connected to a pluggable database (PDB) as a common user with DBA privileges.
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL = ALL SID = ‘*’ SCOPE = SPFILE;
B.
The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL whenever any PDB is reopened.
C.
The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever the multitenant container database
(CDB) is restarted.
D.
Nothing happens; because there is no SPFILE for each PDB, the statement is ignored.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which two are prerequisites for performing a flashback transaction? (Choose two.)
A.
Flashback Database must be enabled.
B.
Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
C.
EXECUTE privilege on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user flashing
back transaction.
D.
Supplemental logging must be enabled.
E.
Recycle bin must be enabled for the database.
F.
Block change tracking must be enabled tor the database.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
References: http://searchoracle.techtarget.com/tip/How-to-perform-Oracle-Flashback-Transaction-
Queries
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https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/appdev.112/e41502/adfns_flashback.htm#ADFNS610
A database is stored in an Automatic Storage Management (ASM) disk group, disk group,
DGROUP1 with SQL:
There is enough free space in the disk group for mirroring to be done.
What happens if the CONTROLLER1 failure group becomes unavailable due to error of for
maintenance?
A.
Transactions and queries accessing database objects contained in any tablespace stored in
DGROUP1 will fall.
B.
Mirroring of allocation units will be done to ASM disks in the CONTROLLER2 failure group until
the CONTROLLER1 for failure group is brought back online.
C.
The data in the CONTROLLER1 failure group is copied to the controller2 failure group and
rebalancing is initiated.
D.
ASM does not mirror any data until the controller failure group is brought back online, and newly
allocated primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the controller2 failure group, without mirroring.
E.
Transactions accessing database objects contained in any tablespace stored in DGROUP1 will fail
but queries will succeed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
Both the indexes are created; however, only the ORD_COSTOMER index is visible.
B.
The optimizer evaluates index access from both the Indexes before deciding on which index to
use for query execution plan.
C.
Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX1 index is created.
D.
Only the ORD_CUSTOMER_IX2 index is created.
E.
Both the indexes are updated when a new row is inserted, updated, or deleted In the orders table.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
11G has a new feature called Invisible Indexes. An invisible index is invisible to the optimizer as
default. Using this feature, we can test a new index without effecting the execution plans of the
existing sql statements or we can test the effect of dropping an index without dropping it.
Your multitenant container database has three pluggable databases (PDBs): PDB1, PDB2, and
PDB3.
Which two RMAN commands may be; used to back up only the PDB1 pluggable database?
(Choose two.)
A.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the root container
B.
BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE PDB1 while connected to the PDB1 container
C.
BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the PDB1 container
D.
BACKUP DATABASE while connected to the boot container
E.
BACKUP PLUGGABLE database PDB1 while connected to PDB2
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
To perform operations on a single PDB, you can connect as target either to the root or directly to
the PDB.
* (A) If you connect to the root, you must use the PLUGGABLE DATABASE syntax in your RMAN
commands. For example, to back up a PDB, you use the BACKUP PLUGGABLE DATABASE
command.
* (C)If instead you connect directly to a PDB, you can use the same commands that you would
use when connecting to a non-CDB. For example, to back up a PDB, you would use the BACKUP
DATABASE command.
A.
Decreased use of storage to store audit trail rows in the database.
B.
It improves overall auditing performance.
C.
It guarantees zero-loss auditing.
D.
The audit trail cannot be easily modified because it is read-only.
E.
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It automatically audits Recovery Manager (RMAN) events.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
A: Starting with 12c, Oracle has unified all of the auditing types into one single unit called Unified
auditing. You don’t have to turn on or off all of the different auidting types individually and as a
matter of fact auditing is enabled by default right out of the box. The AUD$ and FGA$ tables have
been replaced with one single audit trail table. All of the audit data is now stored in Secure Files
table thus improving the overall management aspects of audit data itself.
B: Further the audit data can also be buffered solving most of the common performance related
problems seen on busy environments.
E: Unified Auditing is able to collect audit data for Fine Grained Audit, RMAN, Data Pump, Label
Security, Database Vault and Real Application Security operations.
Note:
/ (B) Overall auditing performance is greatly improved. The default mode that unified audit works is
Queued Write mode. In this mode, the audit records are batched in SGA queue and is persisted in
a periodic way. Because the audit records are written to SGA queue, there is a significant
performance improvement.
/ The unified auditing functionality is always enabled and does not depend on the initialization
parameters that were used in previous releases
/ (A) The audit records, including records from the SYS audit trail, for all the audited components
of your Oracle Database installation are placed in one location and in one format, rather than your
having to look in different places to find audit trails in varying formats. This consolidated view
enables auditors to co-relate audit information from different components. For example, if an error
occurred during an INSERT statement, standard auditing can indicate the error number and the
SQL that was executed. Oracle Database Vault-specific information can indicate whether this error
happened because of a command rule violation or realm violation. Note that there will be two audit
records with a distinct AUDIT_TYPE. With this unification in place, SYS audit records appear with
AUDIT_TYPE set to Standard Audit.
/ The management and security of the audit trail is also improved by having it in single audit trail.
/ You can create named audit policies that enable you to audit the supported components listed at
the beginning of this section, as well as SYS administrative users. Furthermore, you can build
conditions and exclusions into your policies.
* Oracle Database 12c Unified Auditing enables selective and effective auditing inside the Oracle
database using policies and conditions. The new policy based syntax simplifies management of
auditing within the database and provides the ability to accelerate auditing based on conditions.
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* The new architecture unifies the existing audit trails into a single audit trail, enabling simplified
management and increasing the security of audit data generated by the database.
You upgraded from a previous Oracle database version to Oracle Database version to Oracle
Database 12c. Your database supports a mixed workload. During the day, lots of insert, update,
and delete operations are performed. At night, Extract, Transform, Load (ETL) and batch reporting
jobs are run. The ETL jobs perform certain database operations using two or more concurrent
sessions.
After the upgrade, you notice that the performance of ETL jobs has degraded. To ascertain the
cause of performance degradation, you want to collect basic statistics such as the level of
parallelism, total database time, and the number of I/O requests for the ETL jobs.
A.
Examine the Active Session History (ASH) reports for the time period of the ETL or batch reporting
runs.
B.
Enable SQL tracing for the queries in the ETL and batch reporting queries and gather diagnostic
data from the trace file.
C.
Enable real-time SQL monitoring for ETL jobs and gather diagnostic data from the
V$SQL_MONITOR view.
D.
Enable real-time database operation monitoring using the
DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.BEGIN_OPERATION function, and then use the
DBMS_SQL_MONITOR.REPORT_SQL_MONITOR function to view the required information.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Real-Time Database Operations Monitoring enables you to monitor long running database tasks
such as batch jobs, scheduler jobs, and Extraction, Transformation, and Loading (ETL) jobs as a
composite business operation. This feature tracks the progress of SQL and PL/SQL queries
associated with the business operation being monitored. As a DBA or developer, you can define
Your multitenant container (CDB) contains two pluggable databases (PDB), HR_PDB and
ACCOUNTS_PDB, both of which use the CDB tablespace. The temp file is called temp01.tmp.
A user issues a query on a table on one of the PDBs and receives the following error:
ERROR at line 1:
A.
Add a new temp file to the temporary tablespace and drop the temp file that that produced the
error.
B.
Shut down the database instance, restore the temp01.tmp file from the backup, and then restart
the database.
C.
Take the temporary tablespace offline, recover the missing temp file by applying redo logs, and
then bring the temporary tablespace online.
D.
Shutdown the database instance, restore and recover the temp file from the backup, and then
open the database with RESETLOGS.
E.
Shut down the database instance and then restart the CDB and PDBs.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
* Because temp files cannot be backed up and because no redo is ever generated for them,
RMAN never restores or recovers temp files. RMAN does track the names of temp files, but only
so that it can automatically re-create them when needed.
Examine the following commands for redefining a table with Virtual Private Database (VPD)
policies:
Which two statements are true about redefining the table? (Choose two.)
A.
All the triggers for the table are disabled without changing any of the column names or column
types in the table.
B.
The primary key constraint on the EMPLOYEES table is disabled during redefinition.
C.
VPD policies are copied from the original table to the new table during online redefinition.
D.
You must copy the VPD policies manually from the original table to the new table during online
redefinition.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
* DBMS_RLS.ADD_POLICY
/ The DBMS_RLS package contains the fine-grained access control administrative interface, which
is used to implement Virtual Private Database (VPD).DBMS_RLS is available with the Enterprise
Edition only.
Note:
* DBMS_REDEFINITION.START_REDEF_TABLE
To achieve online redefinition, incrementally maintainable local materialized views are used.
These logs keep track of the changes to the master tables and are used by the materialized views
during refresh synchronization.
* START_REDEF_TABLE Procedure
Prior to calling this procedure, you must manually create an empty interim table (in the same
schema as the table to be redefined) with the desired attributes of the post-redefinition table, and
then call this procedure to initiate the redefinition.
Which two statements are true about the use of the procedures listed in the
v$sysaux_occupants.move_procedure column? (Choose two.)
A.
The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data to the SYSAUX
tablespace from its current tablespace.
B.
The procedure may be used for some components to relocate component data from the SYSAUX
tablespace to another tablespace.
C.
All the components may be moved into SYSAUX tablespace.
D.
All the components may be moved from the SYSAUX tablespace.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A.
It acts as the listening endpoint for the Oracle database instance for all local and non-local user
connections.
B.
A single listener can service only one database instance and multiple remote client connections.
C.
Service registration with the listener is performed by the process monitor (PMON) process of each
database instance.
D.
The listener.ora configuration file must be configured with one or more listening protocol
addresses to allow remote users to connect to a database instance.
E.
The listener.ora configuration file must be located in the ORACLE_HOME/network/admin directly.
Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/CNCPT/process.htm
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You use
RMAN to back up the database and the MD_BACKUP command to back up the ASM metadata
regularly. You lost an ASM disk group DG1 due to hardware failure.
In which three ways can you re-create the lost disk group and restore the data? (Choose three.)
A.
Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore metadata for an existing disk group by passing the
existing disk group name as an input parameter and use RMAN to restore the data.
B.
Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up
disk group and data on the disk group.
C.
Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore the disk group with the changed disk group
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specification, failure group specification, name, and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the
data.
D.
Use the MKDG command to restore the disk group with the same configuration as the backed-up
disk group name and same set of disks and failure group configuration, and use RMAN to restore
the data.
E.
Use the MD_RESTORE command to restore both the metadata and data for the failed disk group.
F.
Use the MKDG command to add a new disk group DG1 with the same or different specifications
for failure group and other attributes and use RMAN to restore the data.
Answer: A,C,F
Explanation:
AC (not E):
The md_restore command allows you to restore a disk group from the metadata created by the
md_backup command.
Your multitenant container database, CDB1, is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and has two
pluggable databases, HR_PDB and ACCOUNTS_PDB. An RMAN backup exists for the database.
You issue the command to open ACCOUNTS_PDB and find that the USERDATA.DBF data file for
the default permanent tablespace USERDATA belonging to ACCOUNTS_PDB is corrupted.
What should you do before executing the commands to restore and recover the data file in
ACCOUNTS_PDB?
A.
Place CDB1 in the mount stage and then the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
B.
Place CDB1 in the mount stage and issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb
CLOSE IMMEDIATE command.
C.
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Issue the ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE accounts_pdb RESTRICTED command.
D.
Take the USERDATA tablespace offline in ACCOUNTS_PDB.
Answer: D
Explanation:
* You can take an online tablespace offline so that it is temporarily unavailable for general use.
The rest of the database remains open and available for users to access data. Conversely, you
can bring an offline tablespace online to make the schema objects within the tablespace available
to database users. The database must be open to alter the availability of a tablespace.
Which Oracle Database component is audited by default if the unified Auditing option is enabled?
A.
Oracle Data Pump
B.
Oracle Recovery Manager (RMAN)
C.
Oracle Label Security
D.
Oracle Database Vault
E.
Oracle Real Application Security
Answer: B
Explanation:
Your multitenant container (CDB) containing three pluggable databases (PDBs) is running in
ARCHIVELOG mode. You find that the SYSAUX tablespace is corrupted in the root container.
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The steps to recover the tablespace are as follows:
Which option identifies the correct sequence to recover the SYSAUX tablespace?
A.
6, 5, 4, 7
B.
10, 1, 2, 5, 8
C.
10, 1, 2, 5, 4, 9, 8
D.
10, 1, 5, 8, 10
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Example:
While evaluating the 12c beta3 I was not able to do the recover while testing “all pdb files lost”.
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Cannot close the pdb as the system datafile was missing…
Oracle support says: You should be able to close the pdb and restore/recover the system
tablespace of PDB.
* Inconsistent backups are usually created by taking online database backups. You can also make
an inconsistent backup by backing up data files while a database is closed, either:
/ Immediately after the crash of an Oracle instance (or, in an Oracle RAC configuration, all
instances)
Inconsistent backups are only useful if the database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and all archived
redo logs created since the backup are available.
* Open the database with the RESETLOGS option after finishing recovery:
Which three are direct benefits of the multiprocess, multithreaded architecture of Oracle Database
12c when it is enabled? (Choose three.)
A.
Reduced logical I/O
B.
Reduced virtual memory utilization
C.
Improved parallel Execution performance
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D.
Improved Serial Execution performance
E.
Reduced physical I/O
F.
Reduced CPU utilization
Answer: B,C,F
Explanation:
Multiprocess Oracle Database (also called multiuser Oracle Database) uses several processes to
run different parts of the Oracle Database code and additional Oracle processes for the
users—either one process for each connected user or one or more processes shared by multiple
users. Most databases are multiuser because a primary advantage of a database is managing
data needed by multiple users simultaneously.
Each process in a database instance performs a specific job. By dividing the work of the database
and applications into several processes, multiple users and applications can connect to an
instance simultaneously while the system gives good performance.
* In previous releases, Oracle processes did not run as threads on UNIX and Linux systems.
Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the multithreaded Oracle Database model enables Oracle
processes to execute as operating system threads in separate address spaces.
In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator,
the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your Oracle 12c
database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of
transactions access it at night and during weekends.
Which three statements are true about this requirement? (Choose three.)
A.
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The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
B.
Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C.
The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D.
The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E.
Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
A: You can create and rebuild indexes online. Therefore, you can update base tables at the same
time you are building or rebuilding indexes on that table. You can perform DML operations while
the index build is taking place, but DDL operations are not allowed. Parallel execution is not
supported when creating or rebuilding an index online.
Because index-organized tables are primarily stored in a B-tree index, you can encounter
fragmentation as a consequence of incremental updates. However, you can use the ALTER
TABLE...MOVE statement to rebuild the index and reduce this fragmentation.
C: If a table can be compressed in the new tablespace, also it can be compressed in the same
tablespace.
Incorrect:
Not B, not E: Local and Global indexes can be automatically rebuild with UPDATE INDEXES when
you move the table.
Which two statements are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)?
(Choose two.)
A.
The ADDM requires at least four AWR snapshots for analysis
B.
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The ADDM runs after each AWR snapshot is collected automatically by MMON
C.
The results of the ADDM analysis are stored in the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)
D.
The ADDM analysis provides only diagnostics information but does not provide recommendations
E.
The ADDM calls other advisors if required, but does not provide recommendations about the
advisors
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
In your production database, data manipulation language (DML) operations are executed on the
SALES table.
You have noticed some dubious values in the SALES table during the last few days. You are able
to track users, actions taken, and the time of the action for this particular period but the changes in
data are not tracked. You decide to keep track of both the old data and new data in the table long
with the user information.
A.
Apply fine-grained auditing.
B.
Implement value-based auditing.
C.
Impose standard database auditing to audit object privileges.
D.
Impose standard database auditing to audit SQL statements.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The user SCOTT owns the CUST table that is placed in the SALES tablespace. The user SCOTT
opens a session and executes commands as follows:
1 row created.
1 row created.
Which statement is true regarding the effect of this command on the transaction in Scott's
session?
A.
The command fails as a transaction is still pending.
B.
The transaction in Scott's session is rolled back and the tablespace becomes readonly.
C.
The command waits and the user SCOTT can execute data manipulation language (DML)
statements only as part of the current transaction.
D.
The command hangs until all transactions on the objects in the tablespace commit or rollback, and
then the tablespace is placed in readonly mode.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A.
It must be made up of a database name and a domain name.
B.
It must be made up of the value in ORACLE_SID and HOSTNAME.
C.
It must be made up of the value that you plan to assign for INSTANCE_NAME and HOSTNAME.
D.
It must be made up of the value that you plan to assign for ORACLE_SID and SERVICE_NAMES.
Answer: A
Explanation:
4. Management Options: Use this page to set up your database so that it can be managed with
Oracle Enterprise Manager. Select the default: "Configure the Database with Enterprise Manager."
Optionally, this page allows you to configure alert notifications and daily disk backup area settings.
Note: Yon must configure the listener before you can configure Enterprise Manager (as shown
earlier).
Which two statements are true about standard database auditing? (Choose two.)
A.
DDL statements can be audited.
B.
Statements that refer to standalone procedure can be audited.
D.
Only one audit record is ever created for a session per audited statement even though it is
executed more than once.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
You executed the following command to create a password file in the database server:
A.
It records usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role
B.
It contains usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled
C.
It is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administrator
D.
It records usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to OSDBA or OSOPER
operating groups
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about space usage alerts? (Choose three.)
B.
The sum of active extents and allocated user quotas is considered to compute space usage for an
undo tablespace.
C.
Database alerts can provide warnings about low space availability at both tablespace and
segment levels.
D.
Alerts are not issued for locally managed tablespaces that are offline or in read-only mode.
E.
A newly created locally managed tablespace is automatically assigned the default threshold
values defined for a database.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schema001.htm#ADMIN10120
Which three statements are true about Oracle Data Pump? (Choose three.)
A.
IMPDP can be used to change target data file names, schemas, and tablespaces during import.
B.
The DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL package can be used independently of Data Pump clients to
perform export and import operations.
C.
EXPDP and IMPDP are the client components of Oracle Data Pump.
D.
Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA
privilege.
E.
IMPDP always use the conventional path insert method to import data.
Which three types of files are backed up by using this command? (Choose three.)
A.
online redo log files
B.
control file
C.
SPFILE
D.
archived redo log files
E.
data file(s)
F.
PFILE
Answer: B,C,E
You have the following entry in the tnsnames.ors of your hq.us.example.com host machine:
Sqlplus HR/HR@ORCL
Which statement is true about the connection to the ORCL database instance?
A.
The connection succeeds, provided the NAMES.DEFAULT_DOMAIN parameter is set to
us.example.com in the sqlnet.ora file on the client side.
B.
The connection fails because the net service name does not have the suffix us.example.com.
C.
The connection succeeds, provided the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter is set to ORCL.
D.
The connection succeeds, provided the ORCL.us.example.com database service is registered
with a listener, the listener is up, and the database is open.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about Oracle Restart? (Choose three.)
A.
It can be configured to automatically attempt to restart various components after a hardware or
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software failure.
B.
While starting any components, it automatically attempts to start all dependencies first and in
proper order.
C.
It can be configured to automatically restart a database in case of normal shutdown of the
database instance.
D.
It can be used to only start Oracle components.
E.
It runs periodic check operations to monitor the health of Oracle components.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
You want to schedule a job to rebuild a table’s indexes after a bulk insert, which must be
scheduled as soon as a file containing data arrives on the system.
A.
Create a file watcher and an event-based job for bulk insert and then create another job to rebuild
indexes on the table.
B.
Create a file watcher for the bulk inserts and then create a job to rebuild indexes.
C.
Create a job array and add a job for bulk insert and a job to rebuild indexes to the job array.
D.
Create an event-based job for the file arrival event, then create a job for bulk insert, and then
create a job to rebuild indexes.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which two statements are true about segment space management for segments in this
tablespace? (Choose two.)
A.
Space utilization inside segments is mapped by bitmaps.
B.
Segments are automatically shrunk and compressed when rows are deleted.
C.
The PCTFREE storage parameter has no effect on segments created in this tablespace.
D.
The PCTUSED storage parameter has no effect on segments created in this tablespace.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Which two statements are true about the (PMON) background process in Oracle Database 12c?
(Choose two.)
A.
It records checkpoint information in the control file.
B.
It frees unused temporary segments.
C.
It kills sessions that exceed idle time.
D.
It registers database services with all local and remote listeners known to the database instance.
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E.
It frees resources held by abnormally terminated processes.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/122/CNCPT/process-architecture.htm#CNCPT9840
A.
It fails because an incremental level 1 backup always searches for an image copy as level 0
backup.
B.
It fails because an incremental level 0 backup does not exist.
C.
It takes a backup of blocks that have been formatted since the last full database backup.
D.
It takes an incremental level 0 backup of the database.
E.
It first takes an incremental level 0 backup and then an incremental level 1 backup.
Answer: E
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/backup.102/b14192/bkup004.htm (4.4.1.2)
A.
It signals CKPT to write the checkpoint position to the data file headers.
B.
It writes the checkpoint position to the data file headers.
C.
It advances the checkpoint position in the checkpoint queue.
D.
It writes the checkpoint position to the control file.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
References: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_incremental_checkpoint.htm
You want to prevent a group of users in your database from performing long-running transactions
that consume huge amounts of space in the undo tablespace. If the quota for these users is
exceeded during execution of a data manipulation language (DML) statement, the operation
should abort and return an error. However, queries should still be allowed, even if users have
exceeded the undo space limitation.
A.
Specify the maximum amount of quota a user can be allocated in the undo tablespace.
B.
Decrease the number of Interested Transaction List (ITL) slots for the segments on which these
users perform transactions.
C.
Implement a profile for these users.
Answer: D
Explanation:
7. Update the SPFILE with the new location of the control file by using the ALTER SYSTEM
command.
A.
1, 3, 2, 6, 7, 4, 5
B.
1, 3, 7, 2, 6, 4, 5
C.
1, 3, 2, 4, 5
D.
E.
1, 6, 2, 4, 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
What can be automatically implemented after the SQL Tuning Advisor is run as part of the
Automated Maintenance Task?
A.
statistics recommendations
B.
SQL profile recommendations
C.
SQL statement restructure recommendations
D.
creation of materialized views to improve query performance
Answer: B
Explanation:
You have just completed a manual upgrade of an Oracle 11g Database to Oracle Database 12c.
The Post-Upgrade Status Tool reports an INVALID status for some of the components after the
upgrade.
What must you do first in this situation to attempt to fix this problem?
B.
Run utluiobj.sql to filter out objects that were invalidated by the upgrade process.
C.
Run preupgrd.sql and then execute the generated “fix-up” scripts to resolve status issues.
D.
Run utlrp.sql to recompile stored PL/SQL and Java code and check the DBA_REGISTRY view.
Answer: D
Explanation:
What should you do to ensure that a job stores minimal job metadata and runtime data on disk,
and uses only existing PL/SQL programs?
A.
Create an event-based job.
B.
Create a lightweight job.
C.
Specify the job as a member of a job class.
D.
Use a job array.
Answer: B
Explanation:
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schedover004.htm#BGBJGHBH
You want to configure job role separation. You create the following operating system users and
groups:
- The group asmadmin as the administration privileges group for Oracle ASM
Which two additional tasks should you perform with regard to the OS-level owners and groups?
(Choose two.)
A.
creating a separate central inventory group for the Oracle Database 12c installation
B.
assigning oinstall as the primary group for the oracle user
C.
assigning asmadmin and asmoper as primary groups for the oracle user
D.
creating OS groups associated with the OSBACKUPDBA, OSDGDBA, and OSKMDBA system
privileges
E.
assigning asmdba as the secondary group for the oracle user
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Your database has three undo tablespaces and the default undo tablespace is not autoextensible.
Resumable space allocation is not enabled for any sessions in the database instance.
What is the effect on new transactions when all undo space in the default undo tablespace is in
use by active transactions?
A.
Transactions write their undo in the SYSTEM undo segment.
B.
Transactions fail.
C.
Transactions wait until space becomes available in UNDOTBS1.
D.
Transactions write their undo in a temporary tablespace.
Answer: B
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14231/undo.htm (undo retention)
A.
The table is created without a segment because the storage clause is missing.
B.
A segment is allocated when the first row is inserted in the table.
C.
A segment is allocated when an index is created for any column in the table.
D.
The table is created and extents are immediately allocated as per the default storage defined for
its tablespace.
E.
A segment is allocated for the table if the ALTER TABLE… ALLOCATE EXTENT command is
issued.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about automated maintenance tasks? (Choose three.)
A.
They run at predefined time intervals that are intended to occur during a period of low system load.
B.
An Oracle Scheduler job is created for each maintenance task that is scheduled to run in a
maintenance window.
C.
A maintenance window is automatically extended until all the maintenance tasks defined are
completed.
D.
A repository is maintained in the SYSTEM tablespace to store the history of execution of all tasks.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e25494/tasks.htm#ADMIN12331
You want to reduce fragmentation and reclaim unused space for the SALES table but not its
dependent objects. During this operation, you want to ensure the following:
iii. Data manipulation language (DML) operations on the table succeed at all times throughout the
process.
iv. Unused space is reclaimed both above and below the high water mark.
A.
DEALLOCATE UNUSED
B.
SHRINK SPACE CASCADE
C.
SHRINK SPACE COMPACT
D.
ROW STORE COMPRESS BASIC
Answer: C
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schema003.htm
A.
Undo records for temporary tables are stored in a temporary tablespace.
B.
Undo records for temporary tables are stored in the undo tablespace and logged in the redo.
C.
Undo records for temporary tables are stored in the undo tablespace and logged in the redo only
for those sessions where temporary undo is enabled.
D.
No redo is generated for the undo records belonging to temporary tables.
E.
No redo and undo records are generated for temporary tables.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
You set the following parameters in the parameter file and restart the database instance:
B.
The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are automatically set to zero.
C.
The value of the MEMORY_MAX_TARGET parameter remains zero for the database instance.
D.
The lower limits of the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to
90 MB and 270 MB respectively.
E.
The instance does not start up because Automatic Memory Management (AMM) is enabled but
PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET and SGA_TARGET parameters are set to nonzero values.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about the purpose of checkpoints? (Choose three.)
A.
They ensure that uncommitted transactions are rolled back in case of an instance failure.
B.
They ensure that all the dirty buffers are written to disk during a normal shutdown.
C.
They ensure that instance recovery starts in the event of an instance failure.
D.
They ensure that dirty buffers in the buffer cache are written to disk regularly.
E.
They reduce the time required for recovery in case of an instance failure.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
A.
It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP AS BACKUPSET
command.
B.
It executes successfully and creates a backup set of the database along with archived log files and
then deletes the original archived log files.
C.
It executes successfully and creates an image copy of the database along with archive log files
and then deletes the original archived log files.
D.
It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP AS COPY
command.
Answer: B
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B13789_01/server.101/b10734/rcmbackp.htm
Your production database uses file system storage. You want to move storage to Oracle
Automatic Storage Management (ASM).
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How would you achieve this?
A.
by using a transportable database
B.
by using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA)
C.
by using Data Pump
D.
by using RMAN
Answer: D
Explanation:
References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951.pdf (p.184)
The HR user executes the following query on the EMPLOYEES table but does not issue COMMIT,
ROLLBACK, or any data definition language (DDL) command after that:
Which two operations wait when executed in HR’s second session? (Choose two.)
A.
LOCK TABLE employees IN EXCLUSIVE MODE;
B.
INSERT INTO employees(empno,ename) VALUES (1289, ‘Dick’);
C.
SELECT job FROM employees WHERE job=’CLERK’ FOR UPDATE OF empno;
D.
SELECT empno,ename FROM employees WHERE job=’CLERK’;
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A.
It creates a locally managed tablespace with manual segment space management enabled.
B.
It raises an error because extent management is not specified.
C.
It creates a locally managed tablespace with automatic segment space management enabled.
D.
It creates a dictionary-managed tablespace with manual segment space management enabled.
Answer: C
Explanation:
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/tspaces002.htm#ADMIN11359
A.
The MYTAB table is created in the SYSTEM tablespace but no rows can be inserted into the table
by USER02.
B.
The MYTAB table is created in the SYSTEM tablespace and rows can be inserted into the table by
USER02.
C.
The MYTAB table is created in the USERS tablespace but no rows can be inserted into the table
by USER02.
D.
The CREATE TABLE statement generates an error because the SYSDBA privilege does not
provide any space quota on the SYSTEM tablespace by default.
E.
The MYTAB table is owned by the SYS user.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
You use multiple temporary tables frequently in your database. Which two are benefits of
configuring temporary undo? (Choose two.)
A.
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Performance improves because less redo is written to the redo log.
B.
Temporary undo reduces the amount of undo stored in undo tablespaces.
C.
Performance improves because data manipulation language (DML) operations performed on
temporary tables do not use the buffer cache.
D.
Performance improves because no redo and undo are generated for the temporary tables.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool? (Choose three.)
A.
It generates a script to recompile invalid objects post-upgrade.
B.
The preupgrade_fixups.sql script is created to list and describe issues in the source database.
C.
A log file, preupgrade.log, is created that contains the output of the Pre-Upgrade Information tool.
D.
It checks for required tablespaces and if they are not available, creates them automatically.
E.
The preupgrade_fixups.sql script is executed automatically to fix issues in the source database.
F.
The postupgrade_fixups.sql script is created to address issues that can be fixed after a database
has been upgraded.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/122/UPGRD/using-preupgrade-information-tool-for-
oracle-database.htm#UPGRD-GUID-C0219AF1-AD43-4097-B358-E53E48958647
Which activity is audited by default and recorded in the operating system audit trail irrespective of
whether or not database auditing is enabled?
A.
execution of SQL statements by users connected with the SYSDBA privilege
B.
creation of a fine-grained audit policy
C.
configuration of unified auditing mode
D.
usage of the AUDIT statement
Answer: A
Explanation:
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/network.111/b28531/auditing.htm#DBSEG0622
- does not use a password embedded in the application source code or stored in a table
A.
as a secure application role
B.
with definer’s rights
D.
with external authentication
Answer: A
Explanation:
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/network.111/b28531/authorization.htm#DBSEG97973
You perform RMAN backups for your database and use a recovery catalog for managing the
backups. To free space, you execute this command:
A.
The backup sets marked as expired are deleted.
B.
The information related to the backups is removed from the recovery catalog and the control file.
C.
The physical files related to the backup need to be manually deleted.
D.
The physical files related to the backup are deleted automatically.
E.
The backups deleted are based on the backup retention policy.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
A.
The parameter value is changed and it comes into effect as soon as space becomes available in
the SGA.
B.
It returns an error because the value of this parameter cannot be changed dynamically.
C.
The parameter value is changed and it comes into effect at the next instance startup.
D.
It returns an error because SCOPE should be set to MEMORY.
Answer: B
Explanation:
- Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control is available and an agent is deployed on the database
server.
10. configuring a nondefault block size for nondefault block size tablespaces
Which of these requirements can be met while creating a database by using the Database
Configuration Assistant (DBCA)?
A.
1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9 and 10
B.
1, 2, 4, 5, 6 and 7
C.
1, 2, 3, 8, 9 and 10
D.
1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 9 and 10
E.
1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8
Answer: D
Explanation:
You want execution of large database operations to suspend, and then resume, in the event of
space allocation failures.
B.
Data Manipulation Language (DML) operations are resumable, provided that they are not
embedded in a PL/SQL block.
C.
A resumable statement can be suspended and resumed only once during execution.
D.
A suspended statement will report an error if no corrective action has taken place during a timeout
period.
E.
Suspending a statement automatically results in suspending a transaction and releasing all the
resources held by the transaction.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Which two statements are true about Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)? (Choose
two.)
A.
It calls SQL advisors automatically if required.
B.
It provides recommendations only for poorly performing SQL statements.
C.
Its results are stored in AWR.
D.
It runs automatically after each AWR snapshot is created and requires at least two snapshots for
analysis.
E.
It requires at least one Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshot for analysis.
Answer: C,E
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Explanation:
Which statement is true about using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade your
database from Oracle Database 11g to Oracle Database 12c?
A.
It terminates if the SYSTEM tablespace in the source database is not autoextensible.
B.
It automatically makes necessary changes to Oracle environment variables.
C.
It automatically enables unified auditing in the upgraded database.
D.
It automatically adds new data files if there is not enough disk space to grow.
Answer: D
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17222/upgrade.htm#insertedID5
Identify two prerequisites for configuring Enterprise Manager Database Express (EM Express).
A.
Grant the APEX_PUBLIC_USER role to the SYSMAN user.
B.
Use the DBMS_XDB_CONFIG.SETHTTPPORT procedure to configure a port number for Oracle
HTTP Server.
C.
Install Oracle HTTP Server.
D.
Configure at least one dispatcher for the TCP/IP protocol.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Your production database PROD uses file system storage. You want to migrate storage including
the Fast Recovery Area for the PROD database to Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
by using RMAN. You back up the entire database.
A.
enabling row movement for the database
B.
disabling Oracle Flashback Database if enabled
C.
opening the database in exclusive mode
D.
placing all tablespaces in read-only mode
Answer: B
Explanation:
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e18951/asm_rman.htm#OSTMG89995
Your database supports a Decision Support System (DSS) workload that involves the execution of
complex queries. Currently, the database is running with peak workload. You want to analyze
some of the most resource-intensive statements cached in the library cache.
What must you run to receive recommendations on the efficient use of indexes and materialized
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views to improve query performance?
A.
Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
B.
SQL Tuning Advisor
C.
SQL Access Advisor
D.
SQL Performance Analyzer
E.
Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report
Answer: C
Explanation:
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28314/tdpdw_perform.htm#TDPDW00813
In which situations does the Database Writer process (DBWn) write to data files? (choose two).
A.
when the RMAN recovery process starts
B.
when a user process commits a transaction
C.
when a tablespace is made read-only or taken offline
D.
when PMON cleans up dirty buffers in the database buffer cache
E.
when clean buffers for reading new blocks into the database buffer cache are not found easily
Answer: B,D
Which two statements are true about availability audit features after migration to unified auditing?
(Choose two.)
A.
The ability of users to audit their own schema objects is not available in the post-migrated
database.
B.
Operating system audit trail is available in the post-migrated database.
C.
Network auditing is available in the post-migrated database.
D.
Mandatory auditing of audit administrative actions is available in the post-migrated database.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/DBSEG/audit_changes.htm#DBSEG341
Which three statements are true about Database Resource Manager? (Choose three.)
A.
A resource plan change can be automated by using the Oracle Scheduler.
B.
It can be used to control the consumption of only physical I/Os where excessive physical I/Os can
trigger an automatic session termination but excessive logical I/Os cannot.
C.
It can be used to control the usage of the undo tablespace by consumer groups.
E.
It can be used to enable resumable timeout for user sessions.
F.
It can be used to control the usage of the temp tablespace by consumer groups.
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
Which two statements describe the relationship between a scheduler window, a resource manager
plan, and a job class? (Choose two.)
A.
A scheduler window together with a job class, controls resource allocation for a job using that job
class in that scheduler window.
B.
A job class specifies a scheduler window that will be open when that job class becomes active.
C.
A scheduler window specifies a resource manager plan that will be activated when that scheduler
window becomes active.
D.
A scheduler window specifies a job class that will be activated when that scheduler window
becomes active.
E.
A scheduler window can control resource allocation by itself.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A.
Optimizer statistics are collected automatically.
B.
Only timed operating system (OS) statistics and plan execution statistics are collected.
C.
Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots are not generated automatically.
D.
The Oracle server dynamically generates the necessary object-level statistics on tables as part of
query optimization.
Answer: C
Explanation:
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28320/initparams240.htm#REFRN10214
Your database is configured in ARCHIVELOG mode, and daily full database backups are taken.
RMAN is configured to perform control file autobackups.
A.
The database remains open but transactions are not permitted.
B.
The database instance aborts, and media recovery is required after restoration of the control file to
open the database.
C.
The database instance remains open and the control file can be restored without shutting down
the database.
D.
The database instance aborts and a control file restore operation does not require media recovery.
Answer: C
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Explanation:
Which two are requirements to ensure that you can successfully connect by using this database
link? (Choose two.)
A.
The GLOBAL_NAMES initialization parameter should be set to FALSE in the ORCL database.
B.
The SALES1 net service name should be known to both the local and remote databases.
C.
Local database users who use this database link should have accounts and the required privileges
in the remote database.
D.
The REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT initialization parameter should be set to FALSE in the remote
database.
E.
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Only the user creating the database link must have an account and the required privileges in the
remote database.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
A.
cleaning up the database buffer cache and freeing resources that a client process was using
B.
applying online redo during instance recovery
C.
cleaning up temporary segments that are no longer needed
D.
performing database services registration with the default listener
E.
restarting a server or a dispatcher process that terminated abnormally
F.
recovering failed transactions that were skipped during instance recovery because of file-read or
tablespace offline errors
Answer: B,C,F
Explanation:
The default UNDO tablespace is a fixed size tablespace with the RETENTION NOGUARATNEE
clause and undo retention set to 12 minutes.
The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the following error:
A.
The Oracle server is unable to generate a read-consistent image for a block containing
updates.committed after the query began.
B.
The query is unable to place data blocks in the UNDO tablespace.
C.
The flashback data archive is not enabled for the table on which the query is issued.
D.
There is not enough space in Fast Recovery Area.
E.
The Oracle server is unable to generate a read-consistent image for a block containing
uncommitted updates.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which two categories of segments are analyzed by the Automatic Segment Advisor? (Choose
two.)
A.
segments in tablespaces that have exceeded a critical or warning space threshold
B.
segments that have the highest growth rate in a database
C.
segments that are sparsely populated and have more than 10% of free space below the high
water mark.
E.
segments for tables created using ADVANCED ROW COMPRESSION
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
References: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_segment_advisor_10g.htm
Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) is enabled for your database instance. You
execute the following command:
A.
It succeeds and the minimum size for the DEFAULT buffer pool is set to 100M.
B.
It fails because DB_CACHE_SIZE is a static initialization parameter.
C.
It fails because ASMM is enabled and individual SGA components cannot be sized.
D.
It succeeds and the value is changed in the SPFILE immediately, but the change takes effect only
at the next instance startup.
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. The user account must be locked after five consecutive unsuccessful login attempts.
4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes session idle time before being logged off
automatically.
A.
by alerting the appropriate user attributes with an ALTER USER command
B.
by using appropriate PASSWORD parameters set in the profile assigned to the user
C.
by implementing Database Resource Manager and assign it a profile for the user
D.
by implementing Database Resource Manager and assign it a role for the user
E.
by using appropriate KERNEL parameters set in the profile assigned to the user
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Which two statements are true about SQL *Loader Express Mode in an Oracle 12c database?
(Choose two.)
A.
The DEGREE_OF_PARALLELISM parameter is set to AUTO.
B.
You cannot have multiple SQL *Loader data files.
C.
If no data file is specified, it assumes the data file to be <table-name>.dat in the current directory
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
and uses it.
D.
You can have multiple bad files created when loading in parallel.
E.
You can selectively load rows into a table based on a filter.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/SUTIL/GUID-0F35B551-861B-450D-8BF3-
2312893A67D7.htm#SUTIL3951
You install “Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a standalone server” on a host on which the ORCL1 and
ORCL2 databases both have their instances running.
A.
All databases subsequently created by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) are
automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
B.
The srvctl add database command must be used to add ORCL1 and ORCL2 to the ORACLE
Restart configuration.
C.
C. Both ORCL1 and ORCL2 are automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration.
D.
All database listeners running from the database home are automatically added to the Oracle
Restart configuration.
E.
The crsctl start has command must be used to start software services for Oracle Automatic
Storage Management (ASM) after the “Oracle Grid Infrastructure for a standalone server”
installation is complete.
Answer: A,B
A.
The unified audit trail, by default, resides in a read-only table in the AUDSYS schema in the
SYSAUX tablespace.
B.
Only the CREATE, ALTER, and DROP statements are audited for all users, including SYS.
C.
Unified auditing is enabled only if the AUDIT_TRAIL parameter is set to NONE.
D.
The unified audit trail contains audit records only from unified audit policies and AUDIT settings.
Answer: A
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/DBSEG/audit_admin.htm#DBSEG370
Which two statements are true about Oracle network connections? (Choose two.)
A.
A listener may listen on behalf of only one database instance at a time.
B.
A server process checks a user’s authentication credentials and creates a session if the
credentials are valid.
C.
The listener continuously monitors a connection after the user process connects to a service
handler.
D.
The listener always spawns a new server process to deal with each new connection.
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E.
A connection request from a client is always first received by a listener running on the port that is
used for the connection request for the database server.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Which two options can be configured for an existing database by using the Database
Configuration Assistant (DBCA)? (Choose two.)
A.
Configure Label Security
B.
Database Vault in ORACLE_HOME
C.
Oracle Suggested Backup Strategy
D.
Database Resident Connection Pooling
E.
Nondefault blocksize tablespaces
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
You want to create a database with a block size other than the default 8 kilobytes (KB) by using
the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA).
A.
Automatic Storage Management (ASM) for storage of data files
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
B.
a file system for storage of data files
C.
a Data Warehouse database template
D.
a custom database template
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which two statements are true about using SQL*Loader? (Choose two.)
A.
It can load data from external files by using the direct path only.
B.
It can load data into multiple tables using the same load statement.
C.
It can load data into only one table at a time.
D.
It can generate unique sequential key values in specified columns.
E.
It can load data from external files by using the conventional path only.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
The HR user owns the BONUSES table. HR grants privileges to the user TOM by using the
command:
A.
TOM cannot revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from JIM.
B.
HR can revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from JIM.
C.
JIM can grant the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege to other users, but cannot revoke the
privilege from them.
D.
HR can revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from TOM, which will automatically
revoke the SELECT ON HR.BONUSES privilege from JIM.
Answer: D
Explanation:
B.
It executes successfully and issues a warning to set LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST while opening the
database.
C.
It fails and returns an error about LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST not being set.
D.
It executes successfully and sets $ORACLE_HOME/dbs as the default archive destination.
Answer: A
Explanation:
5. The V$FIXED_TABLE view can be queried to list the names of these views.
A.
2, 5, and 6
B.
1, 2, and 3
C.
1 and 3
D.
2, 3, 4, and 5
What is the benefit of running the catctl.pl script during an upgrade of a pre-12c database to an
Oracle 12c database?
A.
It provides a summary of the upgrade results.
B.
It recompiles all invalid PL/SQL and Java code.
C.
It generates a log file containing the fixes that can be made to the source database.
D.
It provides parallel upgrade options to finish the upgrade process with a reduced down time.
E.
It generates fix-up scripts to be run on the source database before upgrade.
Answer: D
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/UPGRD/upgrade.htm#UPGRD52860
Which statement is true about redo log files during instance recovery?
A.
All current, online, and archived redo logs are required to complete instance recovery.
B.
All redo log entries in the current and active logs are applied to data files to reconstruct changes
made after the most recent checkpoint.
D.
All current, active, and inactive redo logs are required to complete instance recovery.
Answer: C
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/A58617_01/server.804/a58396/ch2.htm
A database uses Automatic Storage Management (ASM) as database storage, which has a
diskgroup, DATA1, which is created as follows:
A.
Mirroring of allocation units occurs within the FAILGRP2 failure group.
B.
Transactions that are using the diskgroup fail.
C.
ASM does not mirror any data and newly allocated primary allocation units (AU) are stored in the
FAILGRP2 failure group.
D.
Data in the FAILGRP1 failure group is moved to the FAILGRP2 failure group and rebalancing is
started.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Your database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You want to take a consistent whole database
backup.
A.
The user-managed backup consists of only formatted data blocks.
B.
The database must be shut down to take a user-managed backup.
C.
The RMAN backup contains only data files.
D.
The RMAN backup can be performed while the database is open.
E.
The database must be in MOUNT state to take RMAN backup.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Your database is configured for ARCHIVELOG mode, and a daily full database backup is taken.
RMAN is configured to perform control file autobackup.
A.
loss of all the copies of the control file
B.
loss of all the inactive online redo log group members
C.
loss of a data file that belongs to the active undo tablespace
D.
loss of data files that belong to the SYSTEM tablespace
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E.
logical corruption of data that is caused by a wrong transaction
F.
abnormal termination of the database instance
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
You plan to install the Oracle Database 12c software. You want to use Oracle Automatic Storage
Management (ASM) for storage and Oracle Restart for managing components. Oracle Grid
Infrastructure for a Standalone Server is already installed on the server.
Which three statements must be true for successful installation of the Oracle Database 12c
software? (Choose three.)
A.
The OSBACKUPDBA, OSDGDBA, and OSKMDBA OS groups must be created.
B.
An operating system OSDBA group must be created for users with the SYSDBA system privilege.
C.
The Oracle Database 12c software owner and the Oracle Grid Infrastructure owner must belong to
the same Oracle Inventory Group.
D.
The Oracle Database 12c installation must have a separate Oracle inventory directory.
E.
An operating system OSOPER group be created for users with the SYSOPER system privilege.
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
A.
You cannot specify how partitioned tables should be handled during an import operation.
B.
Only data can be compressed during an export operation.
C.
Existing dump files can be overwritten during an export operation.
D.
Tables cannot be renamed during an import operation.
E.
Metadata that is exported and imported can be filtered based on objects and object types.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28300/expimp.htm#UPGRD12560
OS_AUTHENT_PREFIX = OPS$
A.
B.
The authentication details for GUEST_USER are stored in the database password file.
C.
A local GUEST_USER OS account should exist before GUEST_USER can log on to the
database.
D.
GUEST_USER can log on to the database without specifying a username and password.
E.
GUEST_USER is forced to change the password at the first login.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
You want to upgrade an Oracle Database running Oracle Database 11g to Oracle Database 12c.
Which three tasks should be performed before a manual upgrade? (Choose three.)
A.
running preupgrad.sql in Oracle Database 11g to generate fix-up scripts and a log file
B.
running utlu121s.sql from the new Oracle home to display information about the required
initialization parameters
C.
copying the initialization parameter file to the new Oracle home
D.
copying the password file to the new Oracle home
E.
copying net configuration files to the new Oracle home
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
Your database has been running with a peak load for the past hour. You want to preserve the
performance statistics collected during this period for comparison when you analyze the
performance of the database later.
A.
Increase the window size of the moving window baseline so that it equals the Automatic Workload
Repository (AWR) snapshot retention period.
B.
Create a baseline on a pair of snapshots that span the peak load period.
C.
Generate Active Session History reports for the peak load period.
D.
Set the snapshot retention period in AWR to 60 to avoid automatic purging of snapshots for the
past hour.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which four operations performed after the Oracle Restart installation are automatically added to
the Oracle Restart configuration? (Choose four.)
A.
listener configured by using NETCA
B.
database service created by using SRVCTL
C.
database created by using a SQL statement
D.
E.
ASM instance created by using ASMCA
F.
database service created by using DBMS_SERVICE.CREATE_SERVICE
G.
database service created by modifying the SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter
Answer: A,B,D,E
Explanation:
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17120/restart002.htm#insertedID3
Your single-instance Oracle 12c database home currently supports conventional auditing and uses
Automatic Storage Management (ASM). You want to enable unified auditing by executing the
command:
Which two steps should you perform before executing this command? (Choose two.)
A.
Ensure that the initialization parameter AUDIT_TRAIL is set to DB.
B.
Drop any existing fine-grained audit (FGA) policies.
C.
Stop the listener.
D.
Shut down the database instance.
E.
Disable auditing by setting the initialization parameter AUDIT_TRAIL to NONE.
Answer: C,E
You create an Oracle 12c database and then import schemas that are required by an application
which has not yet been developed.
You want to get advice on creation of or modifications to indexes, materialized views and
partitioning in these schemas.
A.
SQL Access Advisor with a SQL tuning set
B.
Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report
C.
SQL Tuning Advisor
D.
SQL Access Advisor with a hypothetical workload
E.
SQL Performance Analyzer
Answer: D
Explanation:
The HR user updates the salary of one of the employees in the non-partitioned EMPLOYEES
table, but does not commit the transaction.
B.
null lock on the row being updated
C.
null lock on the EMPLOYEES table
D.
row level lock on the row being updated
E.
shared lock on the EMPLOYEES table
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
You want to install and create databases across multiple new machines that do not have any
Oracle database software installed. You also want the new databases to have the same directory
structure and components as your existing 12c database.
1. Create directory structures similar to the production database on all new machines.
2. Create a response file for Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) with the same configurations as the
production database.
Identify the required steps in the correct sequence to achieve the requirement with minimal human
intervention.
B.
3, 1, 5, and 6
C.
2, 3, 6, and 4
D.
2, 1, 6, and 4
E.
2, 3, 1, and 6
Answer: E
Explanation:
A.
The transaction acquires a table lock only on the DEPARTMENTS table until the transaction is
complete.
B.
The transaction acquires a table lock on the DEPARTMENTS table. This lock enables other
sessions to query but not update the DEPARTMENTS table until the transaction on the
DEPARTMENTS table is complete.
C.
The transaction acquires a table lock on the EMPLOYEES table. This lock enables other sessions
to query but not update the EMPLOYEES table until the transaction on the DEPARTMENTS table
is complete.
D.
Only the rows that are deleted in the DEPARTMENTS and EMPLOYEES tables are locked until
Answer: C
Explanation:
For which three requirements would you use the Database Resource Manager? (Choose three.)
A.
specifying an idle time limit that applies to sessions that are idle and blocking other sessions
B.
limiting the degree of parallelism of operations performed by user sessions in a consumer group
C.
specifying the maximum number of concurrent sessions allowed for a user
D.
limiting the CPU used per database call
E.
specifying the amount of private space a session can allocate in the shared pool of the SGA.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14231/dbrm.htm
SMD is a smallfile locally managed tablespace with manual segment space management.
The SH user receives the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
Which three actions can be taken to enable the user to insert data? (Choose three.)
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
A.
altering the data file associated with the SMD tablespace to grow automatically
B.
adding a data file to the SMD tablespace, provided the tablespace has not reached its maximum
number of files
C.
changing segment space management for the SMD tablespace to automatic
D.
resizing the data file associated with the SMD tablespace to make it larger, provided all data files
have not yet reached their maximum size
E.
increasing the space quota on the SMD tablespace for the SH user, provided the files have not yet
reached their maximum size
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
In your database instance, the UNDO_RETENTION parameter is set to 1000 and undo retention
is not guaranteed for the fixed size undo tablespace.
A.
Undo is retained in the UNDO tablespace for 1000 seconds, and then moved to the SYSTEM
tablespace to provide read consistency.
B.
Inactive undo is retained for at least 1000 seconds if free undo space is available.
C.
Inactive undo is retained for 1000 seconds even if new transactions fall due to lack of space in the
undo tablespace.
D.
Undo becomes expired obsolete after 1000 seconds.
Answer: B
Which files must you copy from the Oracle home of the database that is being upgraded to the
new Oracle home for Oracle Database 12c? (Choose three.)
A.
the tnsnames.ora file
B.
the sqlnet.ora file
C.
the initialization parameter file
D.
the password file
E.
the listener.ora file
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e23633/afterup.htm#UPGRD52747
In your Oracle 12c database, you invoke SQL *Loader Express Mode command to load data:
Which two statements are true about this command? (Choose two.)
A.
It succeeds and creates the EMPLOYEES table in the HR schema if the table does not exist.
B.
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It fails because the SQL *Loader control file location is not specified.
C.
It fails because the SQL *Loader data file location is not specified.
D.
It succeeds with default settings if the EMPLOYEES table belonging to the HR schema is already
defined in the database.
E.
It succeeds even if the HR user does not have the CREATE DIRECTORY privilege.
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about the strategy? (Choose three.)
A.
Level 0 backup on Sunday contains all the blocks that have been formatted.
B.
Level 0 backup on Sunday contains all the blocks that have been changed since the last level 1
backup.
C.
Level 1 backup on Tuesday, Thursday, and Friday contains all the blocks that have been changed
since the last level 1 backup.
D.
Level 1 backup on Monday, Wednesday, and Saturday contains all the blocks that have been
changed since the last level 0 backup.
E.
Level 1 backup on Tuesday, Thursday, and Friday contains all the blocks that have been changed
Answer: A,C,D
Explanation:
A.
when there are multiple undo tablespaces available in a database
B.
when the data file of the undo tablespace is autoextensible
C.
when the undo tablespace is of a fixed size and retention guarantee is not enabled
D.
when Flashback Database is enabled
Answer: C
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14231/undo.htm (undo retention)
Which two statements are true about the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)? (Choose
two.)
A.
It can be used to create a database template from an existing database.
B.
It can be used to add a new tablespace.
C.
It can generate SQL database creation scripts.
E.
It can configure Automatic Storage Management (ASM) diskgroups.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E17559_01/em.111/e16599/appdx_creating_db_templates.htm#CJAC
EDCD
You are managing an Oracle Database 12c database. The database is open, and you plan to
perform Recovery Manager (RMAN) backups.
Which three statements are true about these backups? (Choose three.)
A.
The backups would be consistent.
B.
The backups would be possible only if the database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode.
C.
The backups need to be restored and the database has to be recovered in case of a media failure.
D.
The backups would be inconsistent.
E.
The backups by default consist of all the data blocks within the chosen files or the full database.
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
A.
Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor
B.
Optimizer statistics gathering
C.
SQL Access Advisor
D.
Segment Advisor
E.
Automatic SQL Tuning Advisor
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
A.
Perform a rolling upgrade.
B.
Perform a direct upgrade by running the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA).
C.
Perform a direct upgrade by manually running the catctl.pl and catupgrd.sql scripts before issuing
the STARTUPUPGRADE command.
D.
Install the Oracle Database 12c software, create a new Oracle 12c database, and then use the
Oracle Data Pump to import data from the source Oracle 9i database to the target Oracle 12c
database.
E.
Upgrade your current database to Oracle Database release 10.2.0.5, and then upgrade to Oracle
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
Database 12c.
Answer: A,E
Explanation:
A.
Existing statistics for the CUSTOMERS table become unusable for the query optimizer.
B.
Automatic statistics collection is stopped for the CUSTOMERS table.
C.
Statistics for the CUSTOMERS table are locked and cannot be overwritten.
D.
Statistics subsequently gathered on the CUSTOMERS table are stored as pending statistics.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which four statements are true about the components of the Oracle Scheduler? (Choose four.)
A.
A schedule can be specified to a single job only.
B.
A scheduler job can point to a chain instead of pointing to a single program object.
D.
A program and job can be specified as part of a schedule definition.
E.
A job is specified as part of a program specification.
F.
A program can be used in the definition of multiple jobs.
G.
A program and schedule can be specified as part of a job definition.
Answer: B,C,F,G
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14231/schedover.htm
A.
It prompts the Checkpoint (CKPT) process to write data to the data files and redo information to
the online redo log files.
B.
It ensures that all dirty buffers are written to data files during consistent shutdown.
C.
It reduces the time required for recovery in case of an instance failure.
D.
Frequent thread checkpoints can degrade database performance.
E.
It prompts the Database Writer (DBWn) process to write checkpoint information into data file
headers and the control file.
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Your database instance has Automatic Memory Management enabled and supports shared server
connections.
4. Runtime memory values, such as rows retrieved for a SQL statement using a serial execution
plan
Which option indicates what is allocated from the large pool in this instance?
A.
only 1
B.
1, 2, and 5
C.
1, 2, 3, and 5
D.
1, 2, and 4
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which two components are automatically included in the Oracle Restart configuration? (Choose
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
two.)
A.
A pre-existing Oracle Net Listener
B.
Oracle Notification services
C.
A pre-existing database
D.
A pre-existing Oracle management agent
E.
Oracle CSSD service
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/LADBI/oraclerestart.htm#LADBI999
The performance of your database degrades between 11:00 AM and 3:00 PM. Automatic
Workload
A.
Create a custom ADDM task for the period defined by the snapshots taken between 11:00 AM and
3:00 PM.
B.
Analyze the latest Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) report.
C.
Analyze the hourly ADDM reports generated between 11:00 AM and 3:00 PM.
D.
Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) for the currently cached SQL statements in the shared pool and
run SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA) to generate recommendations.
Automatic Shared Memory Management is enabled for your database instance. You notice that
there are SQL statements performing poorly because of repeated parsing activity.
A.
running the Memory Advisor for the buffer cache
B.
running the Memory Advisor for the library cache
C.
running the Memory Advisor for the SGA
D.
running the Memory Advisor for the PGA
Answer: B
Explanation:
Which two statements are true about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)?
(Choose two.)
A.
It measures database performance by analyzing the wait time and CPU time of all non-idle user
sessions.
B.
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It always compares the latest snapshot with the baseline snapshot for analysis.
C.
It runs after each AWR snapshot is created and it requires at least two snapshots for analysis.
D.
It requires at least four AWR snapshots for analysis.
E.
It calls other advisors if required, but does not provide recommendations about the advisors to be
used.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Which two statements are true about a server parameter file (SPFILE)? (Choose two.)
A.
An SPFILE can be created from a PFILE or from memory.
B.
A PFILE can be used to start up a database instance even if an SPFILE exists.
C.
An SPFILE must reside in the ORACLE_HOME/dbs directory.
D.
An SPFILE can be created only before a database instance is started.
E.
An SPFILE contains only those dynamic parameters that can be changed without having to restart
the database instance.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Loss of which three database files can lead to an incomplete recovery? (Choose three.)
A.
inactive online redo log file group
B.
a data file belonging to the default temporary tablespace
C.
a data file belonging to the SYSAUX tablespace
D.
server parameter le (SPFILE)
E.
active online redo log le group
F.
all the control flies
Answer: A,E,F
Explanation:
Which two statements are true about resumable space allocation? (Choose two.)
A.
A database-level LOGON trigger can be used to automatically configure resumable statement
settings for individual sessions.
B.
SELECT statements that run out of temporary space for sort areas are candidates for resumable
execution.
C.
A resumable statement can be suspended and resumed only once during a session.
D.
Resumable space allocation does not apply when a database instance uses asynchronous
commit.
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E.
Resumable space allocation does not apply when users exceed their assigned space quota in a
tablespace.
F.
Free space in a segment is automatically reclaimed when a resumable statement is suspended
because of an out-of-space condition.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Your database supports an online transaction processing (OLTP) workload in which one of the
applications creates a temporary table for a session and performs transactions on it. This
consumes a lot of undo tablespace and generates lots of redo.
Which two actions would you take to solve this problem? (Choose two.)
A.
Increase the size of the temporary tablespace.
B.
Enable Automatic Memory Management (AMM).
C.
Enable undo retention guarantee.
D.
Enable temporary undo for the database.
E.
Increase the size of the redo log buffer.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Which two conditions must be satisfied to receive file arrival events from a remote system?
(Choose two.)
A.
The remote system must have a running Oracle Database instance and a scheduler agent
installed.
B.
The initialization parameter REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT must be set to TRUE on your database.
C.
The local database must be set up to run remote external jobs.
D.
The remote system's scheduler agent must be registered with your database.
E.
Database links to remote databases must be created.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E18283_01/server.112/e17120/scheduse005.htm
Unified auditing is enabled in your database. The HR_ADMIN and OE_ADMIN roles exist and are
granted system privileges.
SQL>CREATE AUDIT POLICY tab1e_aud PRIVILEGES CREATE ANY TABLE, DROP ANY
TABLE ROLES
hr_admin, oe_admin;
B.
It fails because system privileges cannot be granted with roles in the same audit policy.
C.
It succeeds and starts capturing only successful SQL statements for all users who have either the
specified privileges or roles granted to them.
D.
It fails because the command does not specify when the unified audit policy should be enforced.
Answer: C
Explanation:
You determine that database performance is sub-optimal due to hard parsing statements.
Automatic Shared Memory Management (ASMM) is disabled for your database instance.
Which tool would you use to get advice on how to improve performance?
A.
Memory Advisor for the PGA
B.
SQL Access Advisor
C.
Memory Advisor for the shared pool
D.
SQL Tuning Advisor
Answer: C
Explanation:
References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E25178_01/server.1111/e10897/montune.htm#CHDGFCFJ
A.
to validate the database backup
B.
to synchronize logical backup records with physical files in backup storage
C.
to check the obsolete backups that can be deleted from the file system
D.
to update information about backups that are deleted, corrupted, or inaccessible in a recovery
catalog or control file
E.
to update the recovery catalog or control file if archived log files are deleted with operating system
commands
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
Which statement is true about the Oracle central inventory directory (oraInventory)?
A.
oraInventory must not be shared by all Oracle software installations on a single system.
B.
If ORACLE_BASE is set to /u01/app/oracle for the oracle user during an installation, OUI creates
the Oracle Inventory directory in the /u01/app/oracle/ oraInventory path.
C.
lf an OFA-compliant path is not created and the ORACLE_BASE environment variable is not set
during an Oracle Database installation, the Oracle Inventory directory is placed in the home
directory of the user that is performing the installation.
D.
Oracle software owners must be members of the same central oraInventory group, but they need
not have this group as their primary group.
Which three statements are true about Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose three.)
A.
An AWR snapshot shows the SQL statements that are producing the highest load on the system,
based on criteria such as elapsed time and CPU time.
B.
AWR data is stored in memory and in a database.
C.
All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
D.
The manageability monitor (MMON) process gathers statistics and creates an AWR snapshot that
is used by the self-tuning components in a database.
E.
An AWR snapshot contains system-wide tracing and logging information.
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
You want to import the schema objects of the HR user from the development database DEVDB to
the production database PRODDB by using Oracle Data Pump. A database link
devdb.us.oracle.com is created between PRODDB and DEVDB.
A.
Add network_link = devdb.us.oracle.com.
B.
Add the SYSTEM user to the schemas option.
C.
Change the dumpfile option value to [email protected].
D.
Replace the schemas option with network_1ink = devdb.us.oracle.com.
E.
Replace the dumpfile option with network_1ink = devdb.us.oracle.com.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about server-generated alerts? (Choose three.)
A.
Server-generated alerts notify administrators of problems that cannot be resolved automatically.
B.
Alerts are not issued for locally managed read-only tablespaces.
C.
Response actions cannot be specified for server-generated alerts.
D.
E.
When an alert is cleared, it is moved to the DBA_ALERT_HISTORY view.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
References:
https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/schema001.htm#ADMIN10120
Which two statements are true about Automatic Storage Management (ASM)? (Choose two.)
A.
It mounts databases and diskgroups to make ASM files available to database instances.
B.
It spreads files proportionally across all disks in a diskgroup, aiming to ensure that all the disks in a
diskgroup have the same I/O load.
C.
It automatically places each disk from an external redundancy diskgroup in its own failure group.
D.
It divides files into extents and allows an extent to span disks.
E.
It mirrors data at the allocation unit (AU) level across failure groups within a normal or high
redundancy diskgroup.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
You want to create a test database as a replica of your production database with minimum
intervention from a DBA.
A.
Use DBCA to create a template from the existing database to contain the database structure and
then manually copy the data by using Oracle Data Pump.
B.
Use Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA) to create a template from the existing database to
contain the database structure.
C.
Create the database by using the CREATE DATABASE. . . command and manually import data by
using Data Pump.
D.
Use DBCA to create a template from the existing database to contain the database structure with
data files and then use the same template to create the database in the new location.
Answer: A
Explanation:
You want to load data from a large file into your database without causing an overhead on the
SGA.
A.
external table
B.
Oracle data Pump
C.
SQL*Loader with a direct data path
D.
SQL*Loader with a conventional data path
E.
Enterprise Manager Database Express
You are using RMAN to back up your database. All the data files are in read/write mode.
Which two statements are true about a whole consistent backup of a database running in
ARCHIVELOG mode? (Choose two.)
A.
The backup can be used as an incremental level 0 backup.
B.
The database instance must be shut down to take the backup.
C.
The database must be in MOUNT state to take the backup.
D.
The backup consists of blocks that have been formatted.
E.
The system Change Number (SCN) is the same for all the data files in the backup.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about the upgrade process? (Choose three.)
A.
All system triggers are disabled during the upgrade process.
B.
Only queries on fixed views execute without errors until you run the catctl.pl script.
C.
The COMPATIBLE parameter must be set to at least 12.1.0 before issuing the command.
D.
All job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
E.
Only connections AS SYSDBA are allowed during the upgrade process.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Which statement is true about using the Export/Import method for migrating data when upgrading
to Oracle Database 12c?
A.
It automatically restarts a Data Pump Export or Import job after a failure is connected and the job
continues from the point of failure.
B.
It can be used to migrate a database only if the source and target databases are hosted on the
same endian format.
C.
It can be used to migrate a database only if the source database does not have any tablespace in
read-only mode.
D.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Your database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and you want to automate the backup scheduling for
your database.
Which two tools or utilities would you use to achieve this? (Choose two.)
A.
Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Express (EM Express)
B.
Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control
C.
Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA)
D.
Recovery Manager (RMAN) script invoked by using scheduler
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Which two would you recommend to an application developer for reducing locking conflicts on
tables in an Oracle database? (Choose two.)
A.
Create objects in locally managed tablespaces with Automatic Segment Space Management
(ASSM) enabled.
B.
Avoid coding long-running transactions.
D.
Create objects in locally managed tablespaces with manual segment space management enabled.
E.
Enable undo retention guarantee.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Which three functions can be performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor? (Choose three.)
A.
recommending creation of indexes based on SQL workload
B.
recommending restructuring of SQL statements that have suboptimal plans
C.
checking schema objects for missing and state statistics
D.
recommending optimization of materialized views
E.
generating SQL profiles
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
Users complain that their sessions for certain transactions hang. You investigate and discover that
some users fail to complete their transactions, causing other transactions to wait on row-level
locks.
Which two actions would you take to prevent this problem? (Choose two.)
A.
Increase the maximum number of ITL slots for segments on which a blocking user performs a
transaction.
B.
Decrease the SESSIONS_PER_USER limit in the profiles assigned to blocking users.
C.
Set a limit in the proles of blocking users to control the number of data blocks that can be
accessed in a session.
D.
Use Database Resource Manager to automatically kill the sessions that are idle and are blocking
other sessions.
E.
Decrease the IDLE_TIME resource limit in the profiles assigned to blocking users.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Which statement is true about the loss of a data file belonging to the default undo tablespace?
A.
The database remains open in read-only mode.
B.
The database is put in MOUNT state and requires recovery to be opened.
D.
All the noncommitted transactions are lost.
E.
The database instance aborts.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A DBA grants the CREATE TABLE system privilege with ADMIN OPTION to the user SIDNEY.
A.
SIDNEY can revoke the CREATE TABLE system privilege only from HR, to whom he granted it.
B.
HR can grant the CREATE TABLE system privilege to other users.
C.
Neither SIDNEY nor HR can create new tables if the DBA revokes the CREATE TABLE privilege
from SIDNEY.
D.
HR still retains the CREATE TABLE system privilege if the DBA revokes the CREATE TABLE
privilege from SIDNEY.
Answer: D
Explanation:
References: http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_with_grant_admin_privileges.htm
A.
You should be granted the DBA role.
B.
You should set the OS_ROLES parameter to true.
C.
You should be granted the role with the GRANT OPTION.
D.
You should have the ALTER ANY ROLE system privilege.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Your database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode. You want to enable archiving for the database.
A.
4, 2, 5, 1, 6
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
B.
1, 2, 3, 4, 6
C.
2, 3, 1, 6
D.
2, 5, 1, 6
Answer: C
Explanation:
Identify the access that is initially available to connect to your Database as a Service (DBaaS)
environment.
A.
Enterprise Manager on port 1158
B.
telnet on port 23
C.
Cloud Control on port 7799
D.
SSH on port 22
E.
SSL/TLS on port 443
Answer: D
Explanation:
A.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
Resource limits specified in a profile assigned to a user are always enabled.
B.
A user can exist without any profile.
C.
A profile can be assigned only to one user.
D.
Password management using profiles is always enabled.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about naming methods? (Choose three.)
A.
Local naming supports multiple protocols, but for any one connection, the client and server must
use the same protocol.
B.
In the Easy Connect method, clients can connect to a database server by using the host name of
the database with an optional port and service name.
C.
In the Easy Connect method, the listener port and IP address must be provided for the connection
to be successful.
D.
The local naming method does not support connect-time failover and load-balancing options.
E.
The directory naming method supports connect-time failover and load-balancing options.
Answer: A,B,E
Explanation:
A.
Connecting between a client process and a dispatcher
B.
Executing PL/SQL code
C.
Creating dedicated server connections
D.
Copying online redo log files to offline storage
Answer: D
Explanation:
You want to increase the size of the buffer cache. Free memory is available to increase the size of
the buffer cache.
A.
Change is applied to the current instance, but does not persist after instance restart.
C.
The value is changed for the current instance and in the PFILE.
D.
It fails because the SCOPE clause is missing.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which two statements are true about users and their sessions that are subject to this profile?
(Choose two.)
A.
The CPU_PER_CALL is ignored in the user sessions because of the unlimited value of
CPU_PER_CALL
B.
These users can never reuse a password
C.
The PASSWORD_LIFE_TIME value is ignored because of the unlimited value of
PASSWORD_REUSE_MAX.
D.
In each user session, the limit for LOGICAL_READS_PER_SESSION in the same as defined in
the DEFAULT profile.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
A.
All data definition language (DDL) commands are logged in to the alert log file.
B.
All DDL commands are logged in to a text file in Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) home.
C.
A subset of executed DDL statements is written into an XML file in ADR home.
D.
A subset of executed DDL statements is written to the DDL log in ADR home.
E.
All DDL commands are logged in to a trace file in ADR home.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
A.
Pending transactions are committed and the database is closed.
B.
Dirty buffers in the buffer cache and unwritten redo are not written to the data files and redo log
files respectively.
C.
Uncommitted transactions are rolled back
D.
Instance recovery must be requested by the DBA at the next startup
Which component resides in the System Global Area (SGA) of a database instance only in shared
server connections?
A.
User Global Area
B.
Program Global Area
C.
SQL Query Result Cache
D.
PL/SQL Function Result Cache
Answer: A
Explanation:
Identify three situations in which messages are written to the alert log file. (Choose three.)
A.
Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an error "ORA-01578: ORACLE
data block corrupted (file # 14, block # 50)"
B.
Creating a table returns "ORA-00955: name is already in used by an existing object"
C.
Inserting a value into a table returns "ORA-01722: invalid number"
D.
Updating a record in a table returns "ORA-00060: deadlock detected while waiting for resource"
F.
Running a query on a table returns "ORA-01578: ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 4, block #
131)"
Answer: A,D,F
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about Enterprise Manager Database Express? (Choose three.)
A.
It can be used to perform database backup operations.
B.
It can use the HTTP protocol.
C.
The same port number is used for multiple Database Express configurations on the same host.
D.
It can use the HTTPS protocol.
E.
It is available only when the database is open.
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
A.
When there is an online redo log switch.
B.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
When a user session terminates abnormally.
C.
When a server process terminates abnormally.
D.
When the SHUTDOWN ABORT command is issued.
Answer: A
Explanation:
What action must you take to ensure complete database recovery till the point of failure?
A.
Multiplex the control files
B.
Duplex the RMAN backup sets.
C.
Multiplex the online redo log files.
D.
Configure the database to run in ARCHIVELOG mode.
Answer: D
Explanation:
You want to create a table, DAILY_ORDERS, for an OLTP application, where data should be
compressed during both direct-path INSERT and conventional DML. The table will also be used
for queries.
A.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
ROW STORE COMPRESS
B.
COLUMN STORE COMPRESS FOR QUERY
C.
COLUMN STORE COMPRESS FOR ARCHIVE LOW
D.
ROW STORE COMPRESS ADVANCED
Answer: D
Explanation:
An application repeatedly accesses small lookup tables, causing a lot of physical I/O operations.
A.
Configure the nonstandard buffer cache with a buffer size greater than the size of the default
buffer cache.
B.
Increase the size of the shared pool
C.
Configure the KEEP buffer cache and alter the tables to use the KEEP cache.
D.
Configure the RECYCLE buffer cache and alter the tables to use the RECYCLE cache.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A.
The data file, TEST01.DBF, can be auto extended to a maximum size of 5M.
B.
The tablespace, TEST1, can contain a maximum of one data file.
C.
Allocated and free extents are tracked using bitmaps.
D.
Segment free space is tracked in the data dictionary.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Your database is open in read/write mode and multiple users are connected to the database
instance.
A.
They are not terminated but may only issue queries.
B.
They are not affected.
C.
They are terminated immediately.
D.
They are terminated after completing the transaction.
You want to distribute a set of structured data to your customers who can integrate this data into
their existing databases irrespective of the platform.
A.
using the DBVERIFY utility
B.
using direct-path INSERT SQL statements
C.
using SQL*Loader
D.
using RMAN transportable tablespace operation
Answer: D
Explanation:
You create a locally managed tablespace ORDERS_TBS with automatic segment management.
You then create the table DAILY_ORDS_LST in the ORDERS_TBS tablespace using the
command.
How does the PCTFREE storage parameter influence data storage for this table?
A.
It allows only 80% of space to be occupied in all data blocks of this table.
C.
It minimizes row migration during existing row data updation.
D.
It automatically coalesces free space of a data block when it reaches 20% of available space.
Answer: A
Explanation:
What must you use to read data from a table in your database and write it to an external table?
A.
Use SQL* LOADER conventional path load.
B.
Use SQL* LOADER direct path load.
C.
Use CREATE TABLE. . ORGANIZATION EXTERNAL command with ORACLE_LOADER access
driver.
D.
Use CREATE TABLE. . ORGANIZATION EXTERNAL command with ORACLE_DATAPUMP
access driver.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about user account administration? (Choose three.)
A.
A user's current session is not affected when the user's profile is changed.
C.
A new user account can be created only by SYS or SYSTEM users.
D.
A user's quota can be set for any permanent tablespace but not for the default temporary
tablespace.
E.
A user requires only the CREATE SESSION privilege to change his or her own password.
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
Which two statements are true about initialization parameter files? (Choose two.)
A.
A lost or damaged SPFILE can be re-created by using the parameter values listed in the alert log.
B.
A PFILE must exist for an SPFILE to be created.
C.
The ALTER SYSTEM command cannot be used to change the value of any parameter if a
database instance has started using a PFILE.
D.
Both the SPFILE and PFILE must always reside on a file system accessible from the database
host server.
E.
On startup, by default a database instance always first searches for an SPFILE, and if it does not
find any, searches for a PFILE.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
You configured the Fast Recovery Area (FRA) for your database. The database instance is in
ARCHIVELOG mode. The default location for the archived redo log files is the FRA.
Which two files are removed automatically if space is required in the FRA as per the retention
policy? (Choose two.)
A.
Archived redo log files that have multiple copies in a different archive location
B.
user-managed backups of data files and control files
C.
RMAN backups that are obsolete
D.
flashback logs
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Which three database operations can be performed only at MOUNT state? (Choose three.)
A.
performing Flashback Database
B.
renaming control files
C.
enabling or disabling ARCHIVELOG mode
D.
re-creating control files
E.
performing full database recovery
A.
All backups taken prior to switching to ARCHIVELOG mode can be used to perform complete
recovery.
B.
Online redo log files have to be multiplexed before putting the database in ARCHIVELOG mode.
C.
A Fast Recovery Area (FRA) must be configured for the database.
D.
Full database backups can be performed when the database is opened.
Answer: D
Explanation:
You want to create a locally managed tablespace called NEWTBS to store segments with different
extent sizes.
Which set of tablespace attributes can be specified for a tablespace that satisfies the
requirements?
A.
EXTENT MANAGEMENT LOCAL STORAGE (INITIAL 5M MAXSIZE 10M)
B.
REUSE AUTOEXTEND ON MAXSIZE UNLIMITED
C.
EXTENT MANAGEMENT LOCAL SEGMENT SPACE MANAGEMENT UNIFORM
Answer: D
Explanation:
The schema SALES exists in two databases, ORCL1 and ORCL2, and has the same password,
SALES123.
User SALES has CREATE DATABASE LINK and CREATE SESSION privileges on both
databases.
Conn SALES/SALES123
A.
ORCL2 is created as a public database link to connect a single session to the SALES schema in
the ORCL2 database.
B.
ORCL2 is created as a shared database link to connect multiple sessions to the SALES schema in
the ORCL2 database.
C.
ORCL2 is created as a private database link to connect to only the SALES schema in the ORCL2
database.
D.
ORCL2 database link creation fails.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Which two services may you see on the My Service Dashboard page? (Choose two.)
A.
Network Cloud Service
B.
User Cloud Service
C.
Compute Cloud Service
D.
Database Cloud Service
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
A.
The remote database job must run as a user that is valid on the target remote database.
B.
A private database link must be created from the originating database to the target remote
database.
C.
The target remote database on which the job is scheduled must be Oracle Database 11g Release
2 or later.
D.
The target remote database must be on a different host form the originating scheduler database
host.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The HR schema exists in two databases, BOSTON and DENVER, and has the same password,
HR.
You have the CREATE DATABASE LINK and CREATE SESSION privileges on both the
database.
What must be done to ensure only the HR user in the BOSTON database can access the HR
schema in the DENVER database?
A.
Execute this command as HR user in the BOSTON database and SYS user in the DENVER
database.
B.
Execute this command as SYS user in both the databases.
C.
Execute this command as HR user in the DENVER database.
D.
Execute this command as HR user in the BOSTON database.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which two configurations allow this command to execute successfully? (Choose two.)
B.
The SERVICE_NAMES initialization parameter should contain the name orcl in the database host.
C.
The orcl TNS alias should be defined such that it is resolvable by a client running on the database
host.
D.
The orcl TNS alias should be defined in the tnsnames.ora file on both the client and the database
host.
E.
The TNS_ADMIN environment variable should be set to orcl on the client.
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Which users are created and can be used for database and host management of your DBaaS
database servers?
A.
opc and oracle users
B.
root, oracle and cloud users
C.
root and oracle users
D.
root, opc and oracle users
E.
cloud and oracle users
Answer: A
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about Oracle Data Pump? (Choose three.)
A.
Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed to move data across different
database releases.
B.
DBMS_DATAPUMP PL/SQL packages can be used independent of Data Pump clients.
C.
A directory object must exist and a user performing an EXPDP or IMPDP operation must have
read and write permission on that directory object.
D.
Oracle Data Pump export and import operations can be performed only by users with the SYSDBA
privilege.
E.
Oracle Data Pump export operations invoked from the clients that are connected remotely by
using a connection string, create Data Pump files on the client file system.
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
In your database, archive logging and control file autobackup are enabled.
The data files and redo log files are intact but control files are impacted due to media failure.
In which two recovery scenarios must you use the RESETLOGS option? (Choose two.)
A.
One control file copy is intact so the spfile is changed to refer to only one copy.
B.
One control file copy is intact and damaged control file copies have to be restored to the default
location.
D.
All copies of the control file are damaged and the auto backed up control file is used for recovery.
E.
One control file copy is intact and damaged control file copies have to be restored to a non-default
location.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Examine the command to perform a data pump export operation on a source database:
On the target database, you execute the data pump import command:
A.
The expdp operation exports data that satisfies the condition of the defining query used to create
the EMP_DEPT view.
B.
The impdp operation creates the view and dependent objects.
C.
All rows from the dependent objects, along with the metadata required to create the EMP_DEPT
view, are exported.
D.
Objects dependent on the EMP_DEPT view are exported.
E.
The impdp operation creates EMP_DEPT as table and populates it with the data from the export
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
A.
Ensure free space that is approximately equal to the space used by the table should be available.
B.
Ensure there are no pending transactions on the table.
C.
Enable row movement is enabled.
D.
Disable all indexes on the table.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Your database has archive logging enabled and RMAN backups are taken at regular intervals. A
Which command must you execute before starting the recovery of this tablespace?
A.
ALTER TABLESPACE users OFFLINE
B.
STARTUP FORCE NOMOUNT
C.
STARTUP FORCE
D.
SWITCH DATAFILE ALL
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
The values assigned to the resource limits and password parameters in the default profile can be
altered.
B.
A different DEFAULT profile can be created before each user in a database.
C.
It can be dropped and recreated.
D.
it must be explicitly assigned to the user.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A.
RMAN backups contain only data files.
B.
The database instance must be shut down to take a user-managed consistent backup.
C.
Consistent RMAN backups can be taken while the database is open.
D.
User-managed backups only contain formatted data blocks.
E.
The database must be in MOUNT state to take consistent RMAN backups.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Which statement is true about the Database as a Service (DBaaS) instances and Database
instances in Oracle Public Cloud?
A.
An Oracle database instance can support only one DBaaS instance.
B.
A DBaaS instance can support only one Oracle database instance.
C.
An Oracle database instance can support multiple DBaaS instances.
D.
A DBaaS instance can support multiple Oracle database instances.
E.
A DBaaS instance runs in a pluggable database (PDB), which is contained in a multi-tenant
Answer: D
Explanation:
Which background process does Automatic Shared Memory Management use to coordinate the
sizing of memory components?
A.
PMON
B.
SMON
C.
MMNL
D.
MMAN
E.
MMON
Answer: D
Explanation:
You enabled block change tracking for faster incremental backups in your database. Which
background process writes to the change tracking file?
A.
RBAL
B.
CKPT
C.
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
SMON
D.
PMON
E.
MMON
F.
CTWR
G.
DBWR
Answer: F
Explanation:
You configured the flash recovery area in the database. Which two files would you expect to find in
the flash recovery area? (Choose two.)
A.
backup pieces
B.
copies of all parameter files
C.
trace file generated using BACKUP CONTROLFILE TO TRACE
D.
control file autobackups
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
A.
It cancels all pending disk drops within the disk group
B.
It restores disks that are being dropped as the result of a DROP DISKGROUP operation.
C.
It mounts disks in the disk group for which the drop-disk operation has already been completed
D.
It restores all the dropped disks in the disk group for which the drop-disk operation has already
been completed
E.
It adds previously dropped disks back into the disk group
Answer: A
Explanation:
Tape streaming is not happening while performing RMAN tape backup. On investigation, you find
that it is not because of the incremental backup or the empty file backup and that RMAN is
sending data blocks to tape drive fast enough.
A.
Configure backup optimization
B.
Configure the channel to increase MAXOPENFILES
C.
Configure the channel to increase the capacity with the RATE parameter
D.
Configure the channel to adjust the tape buffer size with the BLKSIZE option
Because of a logical corruption in the EMPLOYES tables, you want to perform Tablespace Point-
in-Time Recovery (TSPITR) to recover the table. Before you started the TSPITR process, you
queried the TS_PITR_CHECK view and you realized that the table has a referential constraint with
DEPARTMENTS that exists in another tablespace, MASTERTBS. Which two actions will permit
the TSPITR to work? (Choose two.)
A.
Taking the MASTERTBS tablespace offline
B.
Dropping the relationship between the tables
C.
Adding the MASTERTBS tablespace to the recovery set
D.
Putting the MASTERTBS tablespace in read-only mode
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/backup.112/e10642/rcmtspit.htm#BRADV99978
If constraints for the tables in tablespace tbs1 are contained in the tablespace tbs2, then you
cannot recover tbs1 without also recovering tbs2.
Considering that all the redo logs are available, what information can you derive from the output of
the preceding query?
B.
The time when the first flashback operation in our database was performed
C.
The approximate time and the lowest system change number (SCN) to which you can flash back
your database
D.
The system change number (SCN) and the time when the Flashback Database was enabled in the
database instance
Answer: C
Explanation:
To enable faster incremental backups, you enabled block change tracking for the database.
Which two statements are true about the block change tracking file? (Choose two.)
A.
Multiple change tracking files can be created for a database.
B.
The change tracking file must be created after the first level 0 backup.
C.
RMAN does not support backup and recovery of the change tracking file.
D.
The database clears the change tracking file and starts tracking changes again, after whole
database restore and recovery operations.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
A.
Backup retention policy
B.
Default backup device type
C.
Default destinations for backups
D.
Multiple backup device types for single backup
E.
Default section size for backups
Answer: A,B,C
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/backup.112/e10642/rcmconfb.htm#BRADV89399
A.
Only one window can be open at any given time
B.
Consumer groups are associated with windows
C.
Windows work with job classes to control resource allocation
D.
The database service name must be provided during windows creation
E.
Windows can automatically start job or change resource allocation among jobs for various time
periods
Which three statements are true about the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool? (Choose three.)
A.
It clears all user recycle bins in a database and releases their storage space.
B.
It writes a list of invalid SYS and SYSTEM object to the registry$sys_inv_objs table.
C.
It evaluates the dependencies of network utility packages.
D.
It identifies any deprecated and unsupported parameters.
E.
It generates fix-up scripts and automatically runs them to resolve issues that are flagged in the
source database.
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Which two tasks must you perform before you begin the upgrade process to Oracle Database
12c? (Choose two.)
A.
Put all readonly tablespaces in read write mode
B.
Recompile all invalid objects
C.
Set the compatible parameter to 12.1.0.1
E.
Empty all user recycle bins
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Which two tools can be used to configure static service information in the listener.ora file?
(Choose two.)
A.
Oracle Net Manager
B.
Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control
C.
Oracle Net Configuration Assistant
D.
Listener Control Utility (LSNRCTL)
E.
Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Express
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Which three file types are stored in the Fast Recovery Area by default in a traditional nonOMF file
system? (Choose three.)
A.
online redo log files
C.
multiplexed copies of the current control file
D.
archived log files
E.
Flashback Data Archive files
F.
Flashback logs
Answer: A,D,F
Explanation:
You install Oracle Grid Infrastructure standalone server and issue the following command:
Which two existing components get automatically added to the Oracle Restart configuration?
(Choose two.)
A.
Oracle CSSD services
B.
the database whose instance is running
C.
Oracle Notification services
D.
Oracle Healthcheck services
E.
Oracle Net Listener
Answer: A,C
Examine this command executed on a client that is remote from the database server.
Which two are required for this command to connect the SQLPLUS client to a database instance?
(Choose two.)
A.
An orcl TNS entry must be defined in the client-side and server-side tnsnames.ora files
B.
An orcl TNS entry must be defined in the client-side tnsnames.ora file
C.
A service name must be defined to the listener that matches the service name in the orcl TNS
entry
D.
An orcl TNS entry must be defined in the server-side tnsnames.ora file
E.
The service name orcl must be defined to the listener
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
RETENTION NOGUARANTEE
UNDO_RETENTION is 12 minutes
Which three factors taken separately or in some combination might be the cause? (Choose three.)
A.
An update was made to the SALES table after the query began
B.
An update to the SALES table was committed after the query began
C.
A committed delete to the SALES table was made more than 12 minutes before the query began
D.
An uncommitted update to the SALES table was made more than 12 minutes before the query
began
E.
A committed update to the SALES table was made more than 12 minutes before the query began
F.
An uncommitted delete to the SALES table was made more than 12 minutes before the query
began
G.
An update was made to the SALES table before the query began
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
One of your databases has archive logging enabled and RMAN backups are taken at regular
intervals.
Which command must you execute before starting the recovery of this tablespace?
A.
STARTUP FORCE
C.
SWITCH DATAFILE ALL;
D.
ALTER TABLESPACE users OFFLINE NORMAL;
E.
ALTER TABLESPACE users OFFLINE TEMPORARY;
Answer: E
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about Oracle checkpoint processing? (Choose three.)
A.
Frequent thread checkpoints can degrade database performance
B.
Database Writer (DBWn) processes write checkpoint information to datafile headers and the
control file
C.
It reduces the recovery time from instance failures
D.
Incremental checkpoints write some dirty buffers to the datafiles and unwritten redo to the online
redo logs.
E.
Thread checkpoints ensure that all dirty buffers are written to data files during a normal shutdown
Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
A.
Create a file watcher
B.
Create a bulk loader watcher
C.
Create a light weight job for bulk insert
D.
Create an event-based job for bulk insert
E.
Create a job chain with a step for bulk insert
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Which four are true about creating and running a remote database scheduler jobs? (Choose four.)
A.
A database destination must exist or be created for the remote database
B.
It must run as a user that is defined on the remote database
C.
Remote database jobs always run as the same user who submits the job on the local database
D.
A credential is optional for a remote database job
E.
A credential must be created to define the remote user
F.
A database destination group must exist or be created for a job to run on multiple remote
databases
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Oracle 1z0-062 Exam
G.
A destination is optional for a remote database job because DB links can be used instead
Answer: A,B,D,F
Explanation:
A.
It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP AS COPY
command
B.
It creates image copies of the archivelogs
C.
It creates a backupset of archive log files
D.
It creates image copies of the database files
E.
It fails because the DELETE INPUT option can be used only with the BACKUP AS BACKUPSET
command
Answer: B,E
Which two statements are true about SQL*Loader Express Mode in an Oracle 12c database?
(Choose two.)
A.
It loads data faster than conventional SQL*Loader
B.
No data file needs to be specified
C.
It can load data in parallel
D.
It loads data more efficiently than conventional SQL*Loader
E.
It requires Enterprise Manager Express to be configured
Answer: A,C
Reference: https://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/enterprise-edition/learnmore/sqlldr-
express-mode-wp-1991038.pdf
Which are two ways for a database service to be recognized by a listener in Oracle Database
12c? (Choose two.)
A.
Dynamic Registration by the LREG process
B.
Dynamic Registration by the SMON process
C.
Static registration in the listener.ora file using the GLOBAL_DBNAME parameter
E.
Static registration in the listener.ora file using the SERVICE_NAME parameter
Answer: A,E
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/NETAG/listenercfg.htm#NETAG298
A.
80% of every data block in daily_ords_list is reserved for row inserts
B.
20% of each data block in the table is reserved for row updates
C.
PCTFREE can help to minimize row chaining during inserts
D.
PCTFREE can help reduce row migration during updates
E.
PCTFREE eliminates row chaining during inserts
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
A.
The expdp operation exports all rows for tables contained in the defining query of the EMP_DEPT
view
B.
The impdp operation creates separate tables for each table contained in the defining query of the
EMP_DEPT view
C.
The expdp operation exports all rows that are displayed when querying the EMP_DEPT view with
no filter
D.
The impdp operation creates EMP_DEPT as a table
E.
The expdp operation exports the table definitions for tables that are queried in the EMP_DEPT
view.
F.
The impdp operation creates EMP_DEPT as a view
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Which two must be installed or configured either manually or by DBCA in order to use Enterprise
Manager Database Express (EM Express)? (Choose two.)
B.
The APEX_PUBLIC_USER role must be granted to SYSMAN
C.
A SYSMAN user with SYSDBA privilege must be created
D.
At least one TCP/IP dispatcher must be configured
E.
The Oracle HTTP Server must be installed
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Which four statements are true about database instance behavior? (Choose four.)
A.
An idle instance is created when a STARTUP NOMOUNT is successful
B.
All dynamic performance views (v$ views) return data when queried from a session connected to
an instance in NOMOUNT state
C.
The consistency of redo logs and data files is checked when mounting the database
D.
Redo log files can be renamed in MOUNT state
E.
An SPFILE can be updated when connected to an idle instance
F.
Datafiles can be renamed in MOUNT state
Answer: C,D,E,F
Explanation:
Which three statements are true PFILEs, SPFILEs or both? (Choose three.)
A.
SPFILEs and PFILEs may both be edited with an O/S editing utility
B.
Some SPFILE parameters can be modified successfully with the SCOPE=MEMORY clause
C.
A SPFILE can be created by an idle instance
D.
A PFILE can be created by an idle instance
E.
All SPFILE parameters can be modified successfully with the SCOPE=BOTH clause
F.
All SPFILE parameters can be modified successfully with the SCOPE=MEMORY clause
Answer: B,D,E
Explanation:
A.
All data definition language (DDL) statements are written to the control file
B.
Some DDL statements are written to an XML file in the ADR home
C.
D.
Some data definition language (DDL) statements are written to the control file
E.
Some DDL statements are written to a text file in the ADR home
F.
The Alert Log still contains some DDL statements
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
A.
1, 2, 3, 4, 6
B.
2, 5, 1, 6
C.
D.
2, 3, 1, 6
Answer: B
Reference: http://dba-oracle.com/bk_disable_archive_log_mode.htm
A database is open READ WRITE and the instance has multiple sessions some of which have
active transactions.
Which three are true about the active transactions? (Choose three.)
A.
They may issue COMMIT or ROLLBACK statements
B.
They are suspended and unable to issue any statements
C.
They may continue to issue DML statements
D.
They are rolled back automatically
E.
They may continue to issue queries
F.
They are terminated immediately
Answer: B,D,F
Explanation:
Which three statements are true about a job chain? (Choose three.)
A.
The DBA role is required to create a job chain.
B.
It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C.
It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D.
It cannot have more than one dependency.
E.
It can be executed using event-based schedules.
F.
It can be executed using time-based schedules.
Answer: B,E,F
Explanation: