STUDY OF LIFE

Unit A — Introduction

1. The fact that no two members of the same species 6. Which levels of biological organization includes all
are absolutely identical is an example of the others listed?

A. diversity A. Biome.
B. homeostasis. B. Ecosystem.
C. change through time. C. Population.
D. structural adaptations. D. Community.

2. Which of the following is the BEST example of the 7. What is a group of tissues with a unifying function
biological principle of structural adaptations? called?

A. Pigs have litters. A. Cell.

B. Snakes eat frogs. B. Organ.
C. There are many breeds of dogs. C. Organism.
D. Cacti needles are modified branches. D. Organ system.

3. The fact that some flowers close up at night and 8. Biology is the study of
open up during the day is an example of
A. life.
A. continuity. B. plants.
B. interactions. C. animals.
C. homeostasis. D. organisms.
D. structural adaptations.
9. Which of the following levels of study in biology is
4. A litter of puppies being born to a dog is an MORE GENERAL than “community”?
example of
A. Species.
A. continuity. B. Ecosystem.
B. interactions. C. Population.
C. changes through time. D. Organ system.
D. structural adaptations.
10. Which of the following sequences correctly
5. The relationship between a carnivore (wolf) and a specifies the study of insects?
herbivore (rabbit) is an example of

A. unity. A. Biology – botany – entomology.

B. interactions. B. Zoology – biology – insectology.
C. changes through time. C. Biology – zoology – entomology.
D. structural adaptations. D. Biology – zoology – microbiology.

Unit B — Diversity and Classification

1. Linnaeus based his classification of plants on 6. The use of two-word names like this is called
A. taxonomy.
A. usefulness to man. B. dichotomy.
B. evolutionary changes. C. dinomial taxomony.
C. environmental factors. D. binomial nomenclature.
D. structural characteristics.
7. Biologists who classify organisms are called
The next five questions refer to the following name for
a vine maple tree:Acer circinatum A. organists.
B. taxonomists.
2. The name as it is written is C. taxidermists.
D. taxorganists.
A. correct.
B. incorrect because it should be underlined. 8. All taxa larger than "species" are
C. incorrect because both words should be
capitalized. A. arbitrary.
D. incorrect because neither word should be B. written in italics.
capitalized. C. biologically useless.
D. artificial, defined by man.
3. The biological name for a vine maple tree is
9. Horses and zebras are not considered to be
A. Acer. members of the same species because they
B. circinatum.

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C. Acer circinatum. A. do not interbreed.
D. none of the above. B. eat different foods.
C. are of different sizes.
4. The genus name for a vine maple tree is D. have different markings.

A. Acer. 10. Members of the same species

B. circinatum.
C. Acer circinatum. A. are in the same genus.
D. none of the above. B. live in the same location.
C. interact sexually with each other.
5. The species name for a vine maple tree is D. are all the same color and shape.

A. Acer.
B. circinatum.
C. Acer circinatum.
D. none of the above.

11. The most important factor in deciding whether or 16. Which sequence of taxa is in proper order?
not two populations of birds living on two different
islands belong to the same species is their A. Species, genus, family, class, order, phylum,
kingdom.
A. physical similarity. B. Genus, class, order, kingdom, phylum, species,
B. embryological similarity. family.
C. environmental requirement. C. Class, genus, family, species, order, phylum,
D. mutual reproductive capability. kingdom.
D. Species, genus, family, order, class, phylum,
12. The taxon most clearly defined by natural kingdom.
biological barriers is the
17. Unlike a plant, a plant-like protist
A. class.
B. genus. A. is unicellular.
C. phylum. B. has a nucleus.
D. species. C. uses mitochondria.
D. contains chloroplasts.
13. Which kingdom includes bacteria?
18. A unicellular organism with membrane-bound
A. Fungi. organelles is generally considered to be a
B. Monera.
C. Plantae. A. plant-like protist.
D. Protista. B. animal-like protist.
C. fungus-like protist.
14. The third smallest taxon is the D. protist of some kind.

A. order. 19. How many kingdoms of organisms will be studied

B. class. in Biology 11?
C. family. A. Three.
D. phylum. B. Four.
C. Five.
D. Six.
15. The taxon that includes the others listed is the

20. Organisms are classified into kingdoms primarily

A. class.
by their
B. order.
C. genus.
D. phylum. A. habitat.
B. structures.
C. size and coloration.
D. reproductive behavior.

Unit C — Adaptation and Evolution

1. Meiosis results in the production of 6. The evolution of a species could be MOST

ACCURATELY documented by the
A. two diploid daughter cells.
B. four diploid daughter cells. A. observation of a set of mutations.
C. two haploid daughter cells. B. change in the size of a physical feature.
D. four haploid daughter cells. C. change in the frequency of alleles in the gene pool.
D. occurrence of genotype that doesn’t change,
2. Which pair of bases does NOT represent a

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complementary base pair? though the corresponding phenotype may.

A. thymine — adenine. 7. Which of the following is TRUE of homologous

B. adenine — guanine. structures?
C. guanine — cytosine.
D. cytosine — guanine. A. They have the same types of tissues and the same
functions.
3. The process of replication ensures that daughter B. They have different types of tissues and may have
cells will have exact copies of different functions.
C. They have different types of tissues but may have
A. chromosomes without any mutations. the same functions.
B. all the genetic information for the organism. D. They have the same types of tissues, but may
C. suitable segments of DNA required for cell have different functions.
survival.
D. the genetic information to be used by 8. Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to form a
those particular cells. fossil?

4. When during the cell cycle does replication occur? A. Skin.

B. Teeth.
A. Just before prophase. C. Shells.
B. S period of interphase. D. Bones.
C. G1 period of interphase.
D. G2 period of interphase. 9. The fact that embryos of different animals appear
similar during various stages of their development
5. The theory of natural selection was developed by suggests that they are

A. Darwin. A. evolving.
B. Mendel. B. mutating.
C. Lamarck. C. genetically related.
D. Linnaeus. D. analogous to one another.

10. Industrial melanism is an example of

A. artificial selection.
B. disruptive selection.
C. stabilizing selection.
D. accidental selection.

11. Which is NOT an example of artificial selection? 16. Evolution due to genetic drift is MOST LIKELY to
occur in a
A. Bird watching.
B. Breeding race horses. A. large population due to selective pressures.
C. Raising purebred dogs. B. small population due to selective pressures.
D. Protecting endangered species. C. large population without the influence of selective
pressures.
12. The phenomenon of the accumulation of toxins in D. small population without the influence of selective
the tissues of organisms is known as pressures.

A. extinction 17. A rare allele may become common in a small

B. natural selection. population in a relatively short period of time due to
C. disruptive selection.
D. biological magnification. A. genetic drift.
B. adaptive radiation.
13. Variations of a specific gene are known as C. divergent evolution.
D. convergent evolution.
A. alleles.
B. mutations. 18. Individuals without the specializations required to
C. genotypes. survive in a changing environment
D. phenotypes.
A. die.
14. A bimodal distribution of phenotypes in any given B. adapt.
population could naturally appear through C. evolve.
D. mutate.
A. artificial selection.
B. disruptive selection. 19. The idea that fossils are direct evidence of
C. stabilizing selection. previously living organisms is consistent with
D. directional selection.
A. Darwin’s theory of evolution.
15. Which of the following is NOT a necessary B. Lamarck’s theory of evolution.
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component of the process of natural selection? C. Both of these theories of evolution.
D. Neither of these theories of evolution.
A. extinction.
B. selective pressure. 20. The ability of an organism to pass on its genes to
C. phenotypic variation. its offspring is part of the definition of
D. reproductive success.
A. fitness.
B. radiation.
C. evolution.
D. adaptation.

Unit D — Viruses

1. If a person previously had cow pox and was 6. Which of the following scientists conducted
infected with small pox, then the experiments that led to his belief that the cause of
tobacco mosaic disease was either a very small
A. effect would be severe. bacterium or a toxin produced by the bacteria?
B. person would most certainly die.
C. effect would be minimal if any even occurred. A. Miller.
D. person could become sick with any kind of pox, B. Meyer.
including chicken pox. C. Beijerinick.
D. Iwanowski.
2. During the vaccination against small pox, what did
Jenner inject into people? 7. The structure of Bacteriophage T4 is BEST
described as an arrangement of
A. Fluid from a cowpox blister.
B. Blood from an infected cow. A. proteins surrounding a chromosome made of DNA.
C. Pus from an infected person. B. proteins surrounding a chromosome made of RNA.
D. Antibiotics he developed against small pox. C. chromosomes made of DNA surrounding a core of
proteins.
3. Which of the following scientists was the first to see D. chromosomes made of RNA surrounding a core of
the tobacco mosaic virus? proteins.

A. Miller. 8. Viral specificity, the fact that a given type of virus

B. Meyer. can only affect one kind of host cell, is
C. Beijerinick.
D. Iwanowski. A. because of toxins produced by non-host cells.
B. a result of the matching of chemical structures.
4. Which of the following scientists concluded that C. an indication of their relative strength or weakness.
tobacco mosaic disease was caused by organisms D. nature’s way of ensuring a wide distribution of
capable of reproduction? viruses.

A. Miller. 9. A “phage” (short for bacteriophage) is a type of

B. Meyer.
C. Beijerinick. A. bacterial cell.
D. Iwanowski. B. virus that invades bacteria cells.
C. cell that is prone to bacterial infections.
5. Which of the following scientists demonstrated that D. bacteria that is prone to viral infections.
tobacco mosaic disease could be transferred from an
infected plant to a healthy plant in the juice extracted 10. E. coli lives in
from the infected plant?
A. water.
A. Miller. B. bacteria.
B. Meyer. C. blood cells.
C. Beijerinick. D. intestines of mammals.
D. Iwanowski.

11. Which of the following sequences BEST 16. RNA differs from DNA in all of the following
describes the lytic cycle? EXCEPT one. Which one?

A. Infection — replication — self-assembly — lysis. A. RNA contains uracil, where DNA doesn’t contain
B. Replication — infection — self-assembly — lysis. uracil.
C. Lysis — replication — self-assembly — infection. B. RNA is single stranded, where DNA is double
D. Lysis — self-assembly — infection — replication. stranded.
C. RNA contains ribose, where DNA contains
12. A lysogenic cycle differs from a lytic cycle in deoxyribose.
several ways. Which of these is NOT one of them? D. RNA is not normally found in human cells, where
DNA is.

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A. The cycle includes a period of “dormancy.” 17. A pathogen is BEST described as a
B. The host cell doesn’t burst open, it just eventually
dies. A. toxic chemical.
C. The viral chromosome joins the host cell’s genetic B. virus or bacterium.
material. C. carrier of a disease.
D. The genetic material of the virus is produced by D. disease-causing microbe.
the host cell.
18. Certain types of white blood cells release proteins
13. A prophage is BEST described as that clump together foreign cells. What are these
proteins called?
A. active viral genetic material.
B. dormant viral genetic material. A. Antibiotics.
C. active bacterial genetic material. B. Antibodies.
D. dormant bacterial genetic material. C. Pathogens.
D. Interferons.
14. The genetic material of a retrovirus will organize
the synthesis of 19. Interleukins, proteins released by certain white
blood cells, function to
A. DNA from its RNA structure.
B. DNA from its DNA structure. A. absorb pathogens in the blood stream.
C. RNA from its RNA structure. B. activate other white blood cells during an infection.
D. RNA from its DNA structure. C. deactivate the immune system after an infection
has passed.
15. Retroviruses are significant in studies of human D. warn body cells that there are pathogens in the
diseases because they inject blood stream.

A. cancer-causing genes. 20. Which of the following is typical of passive

B. cancer-preventing genes. immunity?
C. genetic material that produces cancer-causing
genes. A. It is relatively short-lived.
D. genetic material that produces cancer-preventing B. A person makes their own antibodies.
genes. C. It comes and goes depending on a person’s
health.
D. It can be induced by injecting a weakened
pathogen.

Unit E — Monerans

1. Which of the following structures would NOT be 6. Which of the following is a correct match?
found in a bacterial cell?
A. Aerobic — plant cells — alcohol.
A. Ribosome. B. Aerobic — animal cells — alcohol.
B. Lysosome. C. Anaerobic — plant cells — lactic acid.
C. Chromosome. D. Anaerobic — animal cells — lactic acid.
D. Cell membrane.
7. A bacterium that makes its food using energy from
2. What is the function of the surface chemicals on chemicals found in its environment is termed a
bacterial cells called pili?
A. photosynthetic autotroph.
A. Sensory. B. chemosynthetic autotroph.
B. Defense. C. photosynthetic heterotroph.
C. Movement. D. chemosynthetic heterotroph.
D. Attachment.
8. During binary fission, bacteria will
3. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of
eubacteria? A. divide by mitosis and double their number.
B. produce gametes that fuse to form a zygote.
A. Anaerobic. C. divide by meiosis and quadruple their number.
B. Common and abundant. D. combine, exchange genetic material, and then
C. Live in harsh environments. divide.
D. Uncommon with simple characteristics.
9. In one hour, given ideal growing conditions, a small
4. What shape is a bacillus bacterium? colony of 10 cells could grow to include

A. Spiral. A. 13 cells.
B. Elongate. B. 40 cells.
C. Spherical. C. 80 cells.
D. Polyhedral. D. Hundreds of cells.

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5. Organisms that generally use oxygen, but can 10. The following steps occur during conjugation.
survive without it are called What is the correct sequence of these steps?

A. obligate aerobes. 1. DNA replication

B. facultative aerobes. 2. genetic recombination
C. obligate anaerobes. 3. genetic transfer between cells
D. facultative anaerobes.
A. 1, 3, 2.
B. 2, 3, 1.
C. 3, 1, 2.
D. 1, 2, 3.

11. Which of the following most accurately applies to 16. An antiseptic is most correctly used to kill bacteria
endospore production? that

A. Sexual; during poor growing conditions. A. are in food.

B. Sexual; during good growing conditions. B. may be found in a cut.
C. Asexual; during poor growing conditions. C. can be found internally.
D. Asexual; during good growing conditions. D. are on non-living surfaces.

12. Agar, a common laboratory food source for 17. Bacterial activity can result in all of the following
bacteria, is prepared from EXCEPT ONE. Which one?

A. fruit. A. Oil metabolism.

B. seaweed. B. Food production.
C. grain crops. C. Protein digestion.
D. animal tissues. D. Oxygen production.

13. Macroscopically, bacteria colonies can be 18. Significant use of biotechnology does NOT
distinguished from each other by all of the following currently include the production of
EXCEPT ONE. Which one?
A. pathogens.
A. Color. B. disinfectants.
B. Sheen. C. protein hormones.
C. Cell shape. D. genetically altered food.
D. Surface texture.
19. Which combination is MOST correct?
14. Bacterial cells are called gram positive if their cell
walls containing A. Parasite — E. coli — intestines.
B. Symbiont — E. coli — stomach.
A. lipids absorb safranine. C. Pathogen — H. pylori — stomach.
B. lipids absorb crystal violet. D. Decomposer — H. pylori — intestines.
C. carbohydrates absorb safranine.
D. carbohydrates absorb crystal violet. 20. Nitrifying bacteria convert

15. Which procedure is LEAST likely to be included in A. N2 into NH3.

a list of sterile techniques? B. N2 into NO3-1.
C. NO3-1 into N2.
A. Using disinfectants. D. NH3 into NO3-1.
B. Avoiding direct contact.
C. Maintaining a biological control.
D. Heating equipment to sterilize it.

Unit F — Protists

1. Most unicellular organisms that have a nucleus 6. What happens to a food vacuole once it is formed?
would be
A. It leaves via the gullet.
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A. eukaryotic and have cilia. B. It fuses with a lysosome.
B. prokaryotic and have ribosomes. C. It becomes a contractile vacuole.
C. prokaryotic and have chlorophyll. D. It becomes attached to the oral groove.
D. eukaryotic and have mitochondria.
7. What phylum does an ameba belong to?
2. Which of the following is mismatched?
A. Phylum Ciliphora.
A. Digestive — protist-like. B. Phylum Sarcodina.
B. Ingestive — animal-like. C. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
C. Absorptive — fungus-like. D. Phylum Zoomastigina.
D. Photosynthetic — plant-like.
8. Which of the following BEST describes the
3. Which is the BEST description of plankton? functions of pseudopodia?

A. Floating plants. A. Ingestion and digestion.

B. Microscopic aquatic organisms. B. Movement and ingestion.
C. Marine photosynthetic organisms without roots. C. Reproduction and ingestion.
D. Floating organisms that are at the mercy of the D. Movement and reproduction.
currents.
9. Conjugation is considered to be
4. What feature of a paramecium is used to classify it
into its phylum? A. sexual because new genetic combinations are
produced.
A. Cilia. B. asexual because no new genetic combinations are
B. Oral groove. produced.
C. Food vacuole. C. sexual because it requires a male and female of
D. Contractile vacuole. the same species.
D. asexual because organisms can conduct
5. Which of the following is the BEST description of conjugation independently.
the movement of a paramecium?
10. Which of the following is a correct description of
A. Gliding. reproduction by ameba?
B. Floating.
C. Spiraling. A. sexually when conditions are poor.
D. Crawling. B. sexually when conditions are good.
C. asexually when conditions are poor.
D. by forming cysts when conditions are good.

11. During the Plasmodium life cycle, where do the 16. Into which phylum are diatoms classified?
sporozoans mature?
A. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
A. Liver cells. B. Phylum Chrysophyta.
B. Red blood cells. C. Phylum Euglenophyta.
C. Human blood stream. D. Phylum Acrasiomycota.
D. Mosquito salivary glands.
17. Which phylum of protists is NOT polymorphic?
12. Which phylum of protists is LEAST likely to have
flagella? A. Phylum Sporozoa.
B. Phylum Pyrrophyta.
A. Phylum Sarcodina. C. Phylum Myxomycota.
B. Phylum Pyrrophyta. D. Phylum Acrasiomycota.
C. Phylum Zoomastigina.
D. Phylum Euglenophyta. 18. What causes acrasiomycotes to develop into
spore-producing structures?
13. When light shines on water containing Euglena,
the Euglena will most likely swim A. Attraction to cAMP, which is released in poor
feeding conditions.
A. towards it using their flagella. B. Attraction to cAMP, which is released in good
B. away from it using their flagella. feeding conditions.
C. towards it by eugleoid movement. C. Repulsion from cAMP, which is released in poor
D. away from it by euglenoid movement. feeding conditions.
D. Repulsion from cAMP, which is released in good
14. Rapid reproduction by photosynthetic protists feeding conditions.
producing “blooms” may also cause significant
19. Which pathogen and disease is mismatched?
A. depletion of both CO2 and O2.
B. production of both CO2 and O2. A. Gonyaulax — red tide.
C. depletion of CO2 and production of O2. B. Entameba — dysentry.
D. depletion of O2 and production of CO2. C. Giardia — beaver fever.
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15. Red tide is poisonous because the D. Trypanosome — malaria.

A. water contains toxins produced by protists. 20. Which vector (carrier) and pathogen are
B. shellfish accumulate toxins produced by the mismatched?
protists.
C. protists are dying at a high rate polluting the ocean A. Mosquito — malaria.
shores. B. Fly — Chagas disease.
D. shellfish are dying at a high rate polluting the C. Fly — sleeping sickness.
ocean shores. D. Mosquito — amebic dystentry.

Unit G — Fungi

1. When a fungal spore germinates and continues to 6. Which phylum does Rhizopus stolonifer belong to?
grow, it grows from a
A. Phylum Oomycetes.
A. tip and forms a strand called a hypha. B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
B. base and forms a strand called a hypha. C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
C. tip and forms a strand called a mycelium. D. Phylum Basidiomycetes.
D. base and forms a strand called a mycelium.
7. Which phylum produces an N + N secondary
2. Which of the following is the BEST description of mycelium?
the role of a substrate in relation to a fungus?
A. Phylum Oomycetes.
A. Defense. B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
B. Camouflage. C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
C. Reproduction. D. Phylum Basidiomycetes.
D. Source of nutrients.
8. Which of the following MOST ACCURATELY
3. Hyphae that exhibit positive chemotaxis will grow describes the production of basidiospores?

A. towards each other for reproductive purposes. A. Singulary.

B. towards each other to share a rich food source. B. In clusters of four.
C. away from each other to ensure distribution of C. In clusters of eight.
spores. D. Hundreds at a time.
D. away from each other to avoid the rapid depletion
of nutrients in one area. 9. Which of the following types of spores is produced
asexually?
4. A hyphal strand that is termed coenocytic usually
A. Ascospores.
A. has nuclei and cross walls. B. Zygospores.
B. lacks nuclei and crosswalls. C. Basidiospores.
C. lacks nuclei, but has cross walls. D. Conidiospores.
D. has nuclei, but lacks cross walls.
10. A specialized hyphal strand that runs horizontal to
5. Which phylum does a puffball belong to? the substrate is called a

A. Phylum Oomycetes. A. stolon.

B. Phylum Ascomycetes. B. rhizoid.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes. C. mycelium.
D. Phylum Basidiomycetes. D. sporangiophore.

11. Fungal rhizoids have the dual purposes of 16. Lichen could NOT be symbiotic relationships
between fungi and
A. anchoring and absorbing nutrients.
B. asexual reproduction and anchoring. A. plants.
C. spreading out the fungus and absorbing nutrients. B. protists.
D. asexual reproduction and spreading out the C. animals.
fungus. D. monerans.

12. Which phylum of fungi has cellulose cell walls? 17. Why are lichens considered a pioneer organism?

A. Phylum Oomycetes. A. They can be found almost everywhere.

B. Phylum Ascomycetes. B. They were one of the first known organisms.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes. C. They conduct life processes in very simple ways.
D. Phylum Basiodiomycetes. D. They are one of the first organisms to grow in
disturbed areas.
13. The hyphae of egg fungi are

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A. N and coenocytic. 18. Which of the following is NOT a type of lichen?
B. 2N and coenocytic.
C. N and acoenocytic. A. Foliose — leafy, often found in trees.
D. 2N and acoenocytic. B. Fruticose — has upright fruiting bodies.
C. Crustose — crust-like, grows flat on surfaces.
14. Ringworm and athlete’s foot are fungal diseases D. Branchiose — branching, forms a network of
caused by members of which phylum? strands.

A. Phylum Oomycetes. 19. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between a

B. Phylum Ascomycetes. fungus and what else?
C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
D. Phylum Deuteromycetes. A. Lichen.
B. Roots of plants.
15. What is the major characteristic that unifies C. Another fungus.
Phylum Deuteromycetes? D. Photosynthetic parts of plants.

A. A lack of known sexual reproductive structures. 20. Which phylum provided the original source of
B. A lack of known asexual reproductive structures. penicillin?
C. Coenocytic hyphae with one nucleus in each cell.
D. Acoenocytic hyphae with one nucleus in each cell. A. Phylum Oomycetes.
B. Phylum Ascomycetes.
C. Phylum Zygomycetes.
D. Phylum Deuteromycetes.

Unit H — Plants That Don't Produce Seeds

1. Which part of an alga is NOT correctly matched 6. Which of the following ideas does NOT support the
with its function? notion that Volvox is a multicellular colony?

A. Float — buoyancy. A. It has simple tissues and organs.

B. Holdfast — anchorage. B. Most of the component cells are all very similar to
C. Stipe — conduct water. each other.
D. Blade — photsynthesis. C. If broken apart, it can reassemble or replace the
missing parts.
2. Pigment molecules other than chlorophyll-a capture D. There is some communication and coordination
light energy and between the component cells.

A. make products other than glucose. 7. The holdfasts of Spirogyra are an advantage and a
B. store it to make glucose at another time. disadvantage because they
C. pass it along to chlorophyll-a for making glucose.
D. make glucose, but less efficiently than chlorophyll-
A. anchor the plant and absorb chemicals from the
a. soil.
B. anchor the plant and make it an easier target for
3. The seaweeds along the shores of the coast of BC herbivores.
are members of C. enable it to absorb chemicals from the soil, which
may to toxic to its growth.
D. enable it to grow taller increasing the possibility of
A. Phyla Chlorophyta and Phaeophyta.
breaking the filamentous structure.
B. Phyla Phaeophyta and Rhodophyta.
C. Phyla Chlorophyta and Rhodophyta.
D. Phyla Phaeophyta, Chlorophyta, and Rhodophyta. 8. Which of the following is TRUE about alternation of
generations?
4. Green algae is considered to be the most related to
land plants because it A. sporophytes produce spores that grow into
gametophytes, which produce gametes.
B. sporophytes produce gametes that grow into
A. has vascular tissue, which other algae lack.
B. is equipped with guard cells and stomata to control gametophytes, which produce spores.
C. sporophytes produce spores that grow into other
gas exchange.
C. is predominantly a sporophyte, where other algae sporophytes, which produce gametes.
D. gametophytes produce gametes that grow into
are gametophytes.
D. stores glucose as starch, rather than oils or other other gametophytes, which produce spores.
complex carbohydrates.
9. Ulva is biologically significant because
5. Which of the following is LEAST useful when
distinguishing A. it is eaten as dulce.
betweenChlamydomonas and Euglena? B. it can grow on land and in the water.
C. it is harvested for its agar-producing abilities.
D. it displays the same kind of life cycle as moss.
A. Flagella.
B. Eyespots.
C. Pyrenoid body. 10. Which of the following is LEAST problematic for
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D. Contractile proteins. moss growing on land?

A. Drying out in the sun.

B. Getting soaked in the rain.
C. Obtaining water through its roots.
D. Obtaining enough light for photosynthesis.

11. To which phylum does moss belong? 16. Which of the following most correctly identifies the
roles of vascular tissues?
A. Phylum Bryophyta.
B. Phylum Phaeophyta. A. Xylem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals up to
C. Phylum Chlorophyta. the leaves, where phloem transports the products of
D. Phylum Tracheophyta. photosynthesis down a stem.
B. Phloem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals up
12. Which of the following most correctly identifies the to the leaves, where xylem transports the products of
role of guard cells? photosynthesis down a stem.
C. Xylem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals up to
the leaves, where phloem transports the products of
A. Open to let CO2 in and O2 and H2O out.
photosynthesis away from the leaves.
B. Open to let O2 in and CO2 and H2O out.
D. Phloem conducts H2O and dissolved minerals up
C. Open to let CO2 and H2O in and O2 out.
to the leaves, where xylem transports the products of
D. Open to let O2 and H2O in and CO2 out.
photosynthesis away from the leaves.
13. Select the TRUE statement from among the
17. A fiddlehead is an immature
following statements about moss.

A. sporophyte frond.
A. The sporophyte is photosynthetic, but the
B. gametophyte frond.
gametophyte is not.
C. sporophyte prothallium.
B. The gametophyte is photosynthetic, but the
D. gametophyts prothallium.
sporophyte is not.
C. Both the gametophyte and the sporophyte are
photosynthetic. 18. Sori are a specialization found on
D. Neither the sporophyte not the gametophyte is
photosynthetic. A. fronds for the production of spores.
B. fronds for the production of gametes.
14. At what stage in the moss life cycle does meiosis C. gametophytes for the production of spores.
occur? D. gametophytes for the production of spores.

A. In the spore capsule. 19. Which is the most logical sequence of plants
B. In spores before they germinate. during succession on land?
C. In the gametophytes for the production of
gametes. A. Moss — grass — shrubs — trees.
D. In the top of a female gametophyte, resulting in the B. Ferns — grass — shrubs — trees.
growth of the sporophyte. C. Algae — moss — grass — shrubs.
D. Lichen — trees — logs — decomposers.
15. Which of the following is present in ferns but not
present in moss? 20. Of which phylum is agar a derivative?

A. Vascular tissue. A. Phylum Bryophyta.

B. Guard cells and stomata. B. Phylum Phaeophyta.
C. Specialized structures to produce spores. C. Phylum Rhodophyta.
D. Specialized structures to produce gametes. D. Phylum Chlorophyta.

Unit I — Plants That Produce Seeds

1. Which of these is the MOST ACCURATE 6. In which growing conditions would you find
difference between gymnosperms and angiosperms? xerophytes, hydrophytes, and halophytes
(respectively)?
A. Angiosperms can have broad, flat leaves;
gymnosperms never do. A. Mineral-rich, aquatic, dry.
B. Gymnosperms produce cones for reproduction; B. Aquatic, dry, mineral-rich.
angiosperms don’t. C. Dry, aquatic, mineral-rich.
C. Angiosperms produce flowers for reproduction; D. Dry, mineral-rich, aquatic.
gymnosperms don’t.
D. Gymnosperms have leaves that are reduced in 7. A boring tool is used to drill a hole into a tree.
size, forming needles; angiosperms don’t. Which sequence of tissues would it encounter?

2. Which of the following plants produces a seed with A. Phloem — xylem — vascular cambium.
only one cotyledon? B. Phloem — vascular cambium — xylem.
C. Xylem — vascular cambium — phloem.
10
A. Pea. D. Xylem — phloem — vascular cambium.
B. Corn.
C. Peanut. 8. What accounts for the movement of water into a
D. Sunflower. root hair and on to the xylem?

3. Which of the following is the BEST description of a A. The pressure exerted on the roots by the
tissue? surrounding soil.
B. Diffusion due to the difference in concentration of
A. Part of an organ. minerals.
B. A set of cells that function together. C. Osmosis due to the osmotic pressure created by
C. A cluster of cells all in the same place. the surrounding ground.
D. A set of identical cells that have a unified function. D. The active transport of minerals into the root
tissues creating osmotic pressure.
4. The tissue type in a plant that is capable of cell
division is called 9. Which of the following is the BEST description of
the structure and function of the Casparian strip?
A. parenchyma.
B. collenchyma. A. A set of cells that allows water into the xylem from
C. meristematic. the root hairs.
D. sclerenchyma. B. A waxy layer around the xylem that prevents water
from leaving once it is there.
5. Where on a plant would one look to find an apex? C. A protein-rich layer that enzymatically controls
water movement in a vascular bundle.
D. A specialized tissue that conducts water in the
A. In a flower.
xylem of roots to the xylem above the ground.
B. Along the stem.
C. Under the leaves.
D. At the tip of a branch. 10. Under which conditions would the chance of
transpiration be the greatest?

A. Hot and dry.

B. Cold and dry.
C. Hot and humid.
D. Cold and humid.

11. The dark lines forming the annular rings of a tree 16. Which of the following statements about flower
are made out of dense parts is CORRECT?

A. xylem cells that formed in poor growing conditions. A. Sepals are photosynthetic.
B. xylem cells that formed in good growing B. The female parts surround the central male part.
conditions. C. Pistils are male parts, while stamens are female
C. phloem cells that formed in poor growing parts.
conditions. D. The style is the source of energy and fragrance for
D. phloem cells that formed in good growing the flower.
conditions.
17. What features would you expect to find
12. The cones of a gymnosperm that are involved in associated with both a maple and an oak leaf?
reproduction during a spring season are a
A. Parallel vein pattern and a petiole.
A. one-year male cone and a one-year female cone. B. Parallel vein pattern, but no petiole.
B. one-year male cone and a three-year female cone. C. Branching vein pattern and a petiole.
C. three-year male cone and a one-year female cone. D. Branching vein pattern, but no petiole.
D. three-year male cone and a three-year female
cone. 18. What causes leaves to change color and fall from
trees?
13. Which of the following is the BEST description of
pollen? A. Increased photosynthesis coupled with a build-up
of cells in the petiole.
A. Multicellular male reproductive structure. B. Decreased photosynthesis coupled with a build-up
B. Multicellular female reproductive structure. of cells in the petiole.
C. Multinucleated male reproductive structure. C. Increased photosynthesis coupled with a
D. Multinucleated female reproductive structure. deterioration of the cells in the petiole.
D. Decreased photosynthesis coupled with a
14. Select the FALSE statement regarding the deterioration of the cells in the petiole.
fertilization process in angiosperms.
19. What is the function of a cotyledon?
A. A pollen nucleus fertilizes the ovum to produce the
embryo. A. Store water absorbed by root hairs to use later,
B. A pollen nucleus causes the ovule to develop and when water is less available.
produce fruit. B. Facilitate gas exchange for both photosynthesis

11
C. A pollen nucleus fertilizes a polar body to produce and respiration until stomata develop.
the endosperm. C. Promote the growth of roots in a downward
D. A pollen nucleus causes the growth and direction and the growth of shoots upwards.
elongation of the pollen tube. D. Provide nutrients to a plant embryo until it can
conduct enough photosynthesis to make its own.
15. What are the location and function of endosperm?
20. Which of the following describes a
A. In a flower to attract pollen. monocotyledon?
B. In fruit to protect the embryo.
C. In a seed to feed the embryo. A. Six petals per flower with parallel veins in leaves.
D. Part of pollen required for fertilization. B. Six petals per flower with branching veins in
leaves.
C. Twelve petals per flower with parallel veins in
leaves.
D. Twelve petals per flower with branching veins in
leaves.

Unit J — Simple Invertebrates

1. Which of the following combinations of organisms 6. Sessile aquatic animals are more likely to be

12
contains only radially symmetrical animals?

A. Jellyfish, sponges, and roundworms. A. radially symmetrical, have separate sexes and
B. Roundworms, hydra, and sea anemones. reproduce by mating.
C. Sponges, jellyfish, and Portuguese men-o-war. B. radially symmetrical, hermaphroditic and
D. Portuguese men-o-war, roundworms, and flukes. reproduce by broadcasting.
C. bilaterally symmetrical, have separate sexes and
2. Cephalization MOST ACCURATELY refers to the reproduce by mating.
development of D. bilaterally symmetrical, hermaphroditic and
reproduce by broadcasting.
A. a brain.
B. a head. 7. Which of the following correctly describes the water
C. a scolex. flow through a sponge?
D. an anterior end.
A. In and out through the osculum.
3. Which pattern of digestive system allows for the B. In and out through the porocytes.
greatest organ development? C. In through porocytes and out the osculum.
D. In through the osculum and out through the
A. Sac-like pattern. porocytes.
B. Tube-like system.
C. Gastrovascular cavity. 8. Which of the following is the most complete list of
D. Intracellular digestion by lysosome activity. functions that occur by diffusion in a jellyfish?

4. Which of the following combinations of organisms A. Excretion and circulation.

contains only sessile animals? B. Respiration and excretion.
C. Respiration and circulation.
A. Flukes and tapeworms. D. Respiration, excretion, circulation.
B. Sponges, hydras, and sea anemones.
C. Jellyfishes, planaria worms, and tapeworms. 9. Which of the following is true about stinging cells
D. Flukes, tapeworms, and planaria worms. and collar cells?

5. Animals are diploid (2N) and produce gametes that A. They are homologous structures associated with
are haploid (N). This statement is the digestive system.
B. Stinging cells are specializations of the ectoderm;
A. never true. collar cells are specializations of endoderm.
B. usually true. C. Collar cells are specializations of the ectoderm;
C. always true. stinging cells are specializations of endoderm.
D. occasionally true. D. Collar cells are members of colonies of cells;
stinging cells are specializations of the ectoderm.

10. What are the functions of a gastrovascular cavity?

A. Digestion and excretion only.

B. Excretion and circulation only.
C. Digestion and circulation only.
D. Digestion, excretion and, circulation.

11. Which of the following animals has a nerve net? 16. A parasitic worm that has a dormant stage in a
mammal can usually be found in a
A. Sponge.
B. Jellyfish. A. cyst.
C. Planaria. B. snail.
D. Tapeworm. C. scolex.
D. proglottid.
12. Which of the following animals is a member of
Class Scyphozoa? 17. A human with a tapeworm most likely got it by
consuming
A. Hydra.
B. Jellyfish. A. raw snails.
C. Planaria. B. unsanitary water.
D. Sea anemone. C. poorly cooked meat.
D. unwashed leafy vegetables.
13. Which of the following correctly describes the
tissue layers in the animals indicated? 18. If a pin were poked into a nematode from the
outside into the intestine, what would it pass through?
A. Jellyfish — 2 layers; tapeworm —3 layers; round
worm — 3 layers. A. Ectoderm, mesoderm, pseudocoelom, then
B. Jellyfish — 2 layers; tapeworm — 3 layers; round endoderm.
worm — 4 layers. B. Ectoderm, pseudocoelom, mesoderm, then
C. Jellyfish — 2 layers; tapeworm — 2 layers; round endoderm.

13
worm — 3 layers. C. Ectoderm, mesoderm, pseudocoelom, mesoderm,
D. Jellyfish — 3 layers; tapeworm — 3 layers; round then endoderm.
worm — 4 layers. D. Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm, pseudocoelom,
mesoderm, then endoderm.
14. What system do flame cells and nephridiopores
belong to? 19. Which of the following best describes the
movement of a nematode?
A. Excretory system of planaria.
B. Circulatory system of planaria. A. Crawling.
C. Excretory system of roundworms. B. Swimming.
D. Circulatory system of roundworms. C. Ciliated gliding.
D. Whipping back and forth.
15. What is the advantage to a parasitic worm of
having multiple hosts during its life cycle? 20. The development of a coelom is coupled with the
earliest specialization of a/an
A. Finding a mate.
B. Distributing their young. A. nervous system.
C. Infecting a wider range of animals. B. excretory system.
D. Sampling a wider range of nutrient sources. C. circulatory system.
D. respiratory system.

it K — Higher Invertebrates

1. The reproductive structures of an earthworm are 6. Which of the following pairs in mismatched?
located
A. Gastropod — mantle cavity.
A. under the clitellum. B. Bivalvia — water vascular system.
B. mid-way along the length of the worm. C. Oligochaete — segments.
C. closer to the anterior end of the worm. D. Hirudinea — suckers.
D. closer to the posterior end of the worm.
7. Which pair most correctly matches structures with
2. The setae of the earthworm function BEST for their functions?

A. traction. A. Crop — storage; gizzard — grinding.

B. feeling. B. Crop — grinding; gizzard — storage.
C. excretion. C. Crop — chemical digestion; gizzard — physical
D. subdividing the coelom. digestion.
D. Crop — physical digestion; gizzard — chemical
3. In order to elongate, an earthworm would have to digestion.

A. contract its circular muscles, while relaxing its 8. Earthworms are MOST correctly described as
longitudinal muscles.
B. relax its circular muscles, while contracting its A. free-living.
longitudinal muscles. B. parasitic.
C. contract both its circular and longitudinal muscles. C. carnivores.
D. relax both its circular and longitudinal muscles. D. herbivores.

4. Of the following, which is the BEST description of 9. The annelid feature that “relates” best to mollusks
detritus? is the

A. Fungus. A. degree of specialization of the nervous system.

B. Fertilizer. B. lack of development of an excretory system.
C. Soil debris. C. development of ciliated larvae.
D. Undigested wastes. D. extent to which their bodies are segmented.

5. The aortic arches of an earthworm are located 10. The correct sequence of the parts of an
around the earthworm’s digestive system is

A. pharynx. A. pharynx, crop, gizzard, intestine, anus.

B. intestine. B. pharynx, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus.
C. esophagus. C. esophagus, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus.
D. ventral nerve cord. D. esophagus, crop, gizzard, stomach, intestine.

11. The lifestyle of a polychaete is best described as 16. A sinus of a clam is MOST correctly described as
a chamber where
A. predator.
B. prey. A. air collects for respiration.
C. producer. B. blood collects to bathe tissues.

14
D. parasite. C. muscles for movement are located.
D. reproductive gametes are stored.
12. Which of the following systems is likely the MOST
developed in a leech? 17. Which of the following are vestigial structures?

A. Excretory. A. Gills of clams.

B. Reproductive. B. Mantles of slugs.
C. Digestive. C. Eyes of octopi.
D. Circulatory. D. Radulas of snails.

13. The chemical secreted by a leech is medically 18. Which organism is mismatched with a
significant because it prevents characteristic “lifestyle”?

A. bacterial infection. A. Clam — filter feeder.

B. blood clotting. B. Squid — predator.
C. tissue rejection. C. Slug — carnivore.
D. skin deterioration. D. Snail — free-living.

14. Which of the following sets of features most 19. Which part of the water vascular system of a sea
accurately defines Phylum Mollusca? star is connected directly to a tube foot?

A. Marine, soft-bodied, mantle. A. Madreporite.

B. Soft-bodied, mantle, closed circulatory system. B. Lateral canal.
C. Foot, mantle, soft-bodied. C. Ring canal.
D. Marine or terrestrial, foot, open circulatory system. D. Radial canal.

15. Which of the following is LEAST likely a function 20. Which system of echinoderms is LEAST
of the siphon of a clam? specialized?

A. Feeding. A. Digestive system.

B. Excreting. B. Locomotory.
C. Circulating. C. Respiratory.
D. Reproducing. D. Reproductive.

Unit L — Arthropods

1. Which of the following is the key identifying feature 6. Which of the following lists a grasshopper’s
of the arthropods? mouthparts in an anterior to posterior sequence?

A. Body segmentation. A. Labium mandibles maxillae labrum.

B. Metamorphosis. B. Labium maxillae mandibles labrum.
C. Exoskeletons. C. Labrum maxillae mandibles labium.
D. Jointed appendages. D. Labrum mandibles maxillae labium.

2. The circulatory system of a typical arthropod is 7. To which body system do ocelli belong?
best described as
A. Excretory.
A. open with a ventral pumping vessel. B. Respiratory.
B. open with a dorsal pumping vessel. C. Reproductive.
C. closed with a ventral pumping vessel. D. Nervous.
D. closed with a dorsal pumping vessel.
8. Which of the following BEST describes the life
3. Centipedes are members of class cycle of a moth?

A. Chilopoda. A. Egg nymph adult.

B. Diplopoda. B. Egg larva nymph adult.
C. Insecta. C. Egg larva pupa adult.
D. Uniramia. D. Egg pupa adult.

4. Millipedes are known for their 9. Of the following, the BEST description of the role of
Malpighian tubules is to conduct metabolic wastes
A. single pair of legs per segment and herbivorous from
lifestyle.
B. single pair of legs per segment and carnivorous A. tissues to the intestines.
lifestyle. B. tissues to the kidneys.
C. double pair of legs per segment and herbivorous C. kidneys to the excretory openings.
lifestyle. D. kidneys to the spiracles.
D. double pair of legs per segment and carnivorous

15
lifestyle. 10. Which of the following will not enable one to
distinguish gender?
5. The major locomotory structures of an insect are
attached to its A. Presence of an ovipositor on a grasshopper.
B. Storage sacs on the ends of the pedipalps of a
A. head. spider.
B. thorax. C. The length of swimerettes on a crayfish.
C. cephalothorax. D. The thickness of the carapace of a crab.
D. abdomen.

11. Which class of arthropods has branching 16. Spiders obtain oxygen through their
appendages?
A. gills.
A. Trilobite. B. cuticles.
B. Uniramia. C. book lungs.
C. Arachnida. D. tracheal tubes.
D. Crustacea.
17. The “fangs” of a spider are more technically
12. A grasshopper’s tracheal tubes are attached to its known as

A. lungs. A. chelicera.
B. spiracles. B. pedipalps.
C. gills. C. chelipeds.
D. book lungs. D. carapaces.

13. Which system does a green gland of a crayfish 18. Insects that transmit diseases are
belong to? A. pathogens.
B. parasites.
A. Excretory. C. vectors.
B. Digestive. D. virulent.
C. Reproductive.
D. Circulatory. 19. Which of the following has a nymph stage in its
life cycle?
14. How many stages are there in complete
metamorphosis? A. Grasshopper.
B. Moth.
A. Two. C. Mosquito.
B. Three. D. Fly.
C. Four.
D. Five. 20. People who enjoy eating lobster are usually
eating the muscles of its
15. What is the function of uropods and a telson?
A. cephalothorax and chelipeds.
A. Excretion. B. carapace and abdomen.
B. Reproduction. C. telsons and uropods.
C. Locomotion. D. cheliped and abdomen.
D. Digestion.

Unit M — Chordates

1. Which of the following correctly expresses the 6. Which of the following animals has a heart with
relative placement of a vertebrate’s nerve cord and clearly only one ventricle?
major blood vessels?
A. Salamanders.
A. Both are dorsal. B. Alligators.
B. Both are ventral. C. Chickens.
C. The nerve cord is ventral and the blood vessels D. Horses.
are dorsal.
D. The nerve cord is dorsal and the blood vessels are 7. Which of the following BEST describes the skeletal
ventral. system of the classes of fish?

2. Which of the following is NOT a correct match? A. Agnatha — absent; Chondrichthyes — boney;
Osteichthyes — cartilaginous.
A. Scaly legs — frog. B. Agnatha — cartilaginous; Chondrichthyes —
B. Crop and gizzard — chicken. cartilaginous; Osteichthyes — boney.
C. Boneless — shark. C. Agnatha — absent; Chondrichthyes — boney;
D. Free-living — lamprey. Osteichthyes — cartilaginous.
D. Agnatha — boney; Chondrichthyes —

16
3. Which of these features would NOT be found in a cartilaginous; Osteichthyes — boney.
trout?
8. A cloaca is a common opening for all of the
A. Operculum. following systems EXCEPT
B. Swim bladder.
C. Spiral valve. A. digestive.
D. Cloaca. B. reproductive.
C. excretory.
4. The limbs of a salamander cannot support much D. circulatory.
weight because they
9. Fat deposits in vertebrates have two main
A. are more like fins than legs. functions. Besides being a long term food supply,
B. are not attached by bone to the spine. they
C. stick out sideways from the body.
D. are weak and largely non-functional. A. create the appearance of larger size.
B. help maintain body temperature.
5. Limbs are attached to the vertebral column as C. provide an internal water proofing.
follows: D. remove impurities from the blood.

A. pelvic are on the left; pectoral are on the right. 10. Which system is NOT present in vertebrates?
B. pelvic are on the right; pectoral are on the left.
C. pelvic are anterior; pectoral are posterior. A. Respiratory.
D. pelvic are posterior; pectoral are anterior. B. Water vascular.
C. Excretory.
D. Endocrine.

11. An endothermic animal gets its body temperature 16. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
from the digestive organs through which material pass in a
rat?
A. the environment.
B. other endothermic animals. A. Mouth, trachea, stomach, small intestine, anus.
C. ectothermic animals. B. Mouth, esophagus, crop, gizzard, intestine.
D. its own metabolic activity. C. Mouth, stomach, rectum, large intestine, anus.
D. Mouth, stomach, small intestine, caecum, large
12. The most efficient respiratory systems are found intestine.
among the
17. How do marsupials differ from other mammals?
A. fish.
B. birds. A. They are the only mammals that have a placenta.
C. reptiles. B. They do not have internal fertilization.
D. mammals. C. Their young are born at a much earlier stage of
development.
13. Which group of chordates typically reproduces D. They do not have mammary glands with nipples.
using internal fertilization?
18. Which of the following membranes most directly
A. Turtles, frogs, birds. surrounds a developing embryo?
B. Bats, salamanders, whales.
C. Snakes, kangaroos, platypuses. A. Allantoic sac.
D. Sharks, alligators, anteaters. B. Amniotic sac.
C. Chorionic sac.
14. The lungs of a mammal are located in its D. Yolk sac.

A. alimentary canal. 19. Birds and reptiles share all of the following
B. abdominal cavity. EXCEPT
C. cranial cavity.
D. thoracic cavity. A. Amniotic egg.
B. Scales.
15. What is the main difference between the uterus of C. Lightweight bones.
a human and the uterus of a rat? D. Beaks and claws.

A. Shape. 20. A structure present in a rat yet absent in a frog is

B. Function. a
C. Location in the body.
D. Attachment to internal other organs. A. lung.
B. diaphragm.
C. kidney.
D. spleen.

Unit N — Ecology
17
1. Which of the following is an abiotic feature of an 6. A population of 1000 members is changing at the
environment? following rates: N = 10%, M = 14%, I = 18%, E =
22%. After one year, the population would be
A. Fish.
B. Birds. A. 920.
C. Trees. B. 992.
D. Rivers. C. 1008.
D. 1080.
2. An organism’s (species’) niche is best described as
the set of interactions between the organism and the 7. Bacteria grown on agar in a Petri dish is an
example of
A. positive features of its environment.
B. abiotic parts of its environment. A. carrying capacity.
C. abiotic and biotic parts of its environment. B. closed population.
D. positive and negative features of its environment. C. open population.
D. cyclical changes in population size.
3. Which of the following interactions occurs within a
single species? 8. When the density of a growing population
surpasses the carrying capacity of its environment,
A. Parasitism. the organisms will
B. Symbiosis.
C. Competition. A. stop reproducing until the population size
D. Predation. degreases significantly.
B. reduce the number of offspring per female in the
4. Which of the following is descriptive of lichen? population.
C. begin to die faster than new ones are produced.
D. go extinct.
A. Parasitism.
B. Symbiosis.
C. Competition. 9. Cyclical changes in population density exist in an
D. Predation. environment that is

5. Which of the following would increase the size of a A. relatively stable over a long period of time.
population? B. changing rapidly.
C. undergoing succession.
D. undergoing severe selective pressures.
A. Increased mortality.
B. Increased emigration.
C. Decreased immigration. 10. In an energy pyramid, the producers are at the
D. Increased natality.
A. top and there is more energy at each successive
level.
B. top and there is less energy at each successive
level.
C. bottom and there is more energy at each
successive level.
D. bottom and there is less energy at each
successive level.

11. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be true 16. During photosynthesis, the products are
about herbivores and carnivores in the same
ecosystem? A. carbon dioxide and water, while the reactants are
oxygen and sugar.
A. Both are part of the biota of the area. B. oxygen and carbon dioxide, while the reactants are
B. The carnivores could prey on the herbivores. sugar and water.
C. They are both are the same trophic level. C. water and oxygen, while the reactants are sugar
D. The density of both populations undergoes regular and carbon dioxide.
fluctuations. D. sugar and oxygen, while the reactants are carbon
dioxide and water.
12. Which of the following is the BEST description of
carrying capacity? 17. During cellular respiration, the products are

A. The maximum number of individuals a closed A. carbon dioxide and water, while the reactants are
environment will support. oxygen and sugar.
B. The maximum number of individuals a open B. oxygen and carbon dioxide, while the reactants are
environment will support. sugar and water.
C. The minimum number of individuals a closed C. water and oxygen, while the reactants are sugar
environment will support. and carbon dioxide.
D. The minimum number of individuals a open D. sugar and oxygen, while the reactants are carbon
environment will support. dioxide and water.

13. Which sequence is the most likely to occur during 18. Organisms use sugar to make an energy-rich

18
succession in a cedar forest? molecule called

A. Grasses deciduous trees cedar trees. A. TAP.

B. Cedar trees seedlings cedar trees. B. ATP.
C. Moss grasses deciduous growth. C. PAT.
D. Lichen shrubs and grasses trees. D. PTA.

14. A pioneer species is 19. Every population requires

A. an ancient type of organism. A. a lack of predation.

B. one which has evolved quickly. B. continuous resources.
C. one which has avoided evolution. C. continuous succession.
D. one of the first types to grow in a new area. D. inverted energy pyramids.

15. Which kingdom does NOT contain photosynthetic 20. Extinction of one species in a stable ecosystem
organisms? could do all of the following EXCEPT

A. Plant. A. go unnoticed.
B. Fungus. B. cause the collapse of the ecosystem.
C. Protist. C. increase the interactions between the remaining
D. Monera (Eubacteria). species.
D. decrease the interactions between the remaining
species.

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 Unit Test Answers — Biology 11

Unit #1 #2 #3 #4 #5 #6 #7 #8 #9 #10 #11 #12 #13 #14 #15 #16 #17 #18 #19 #20
A A D C A B A B A B C                    
B D A C A B D B D A A D D B C D D A D C C
C D B B B A D D A C D A D A B A D A A C A
D C A A B C C A B B D A B B A C D D B B A
E B D B B D D B A C A C B C D C B C A C D
F D A D A C B B B A A A A A C B B B A D D
G A D A D D C D B B D A A B A A C D D B D
H C C D D A A B A D C A A B A A C A A A B
I C B B C D C B D B A A B C B C A C D D A
J C A B B C B C D B C B B A A B A D A D C
K C A A C C B A A C A A B B C C B B C B C
L D B A C B A D C A D D B A C C C A C C D
M A A C C D A B D B B D B C D A D D B C B
N D C C B D A B C A D C B A D B D A B B A

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