Attachment Test 25 Lyst6748 PDF

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4. Consider the following statements about

1. What is the over-arching theme of
the newly proposed "Investment
Economic Survey 2019-20?
Clearance Cell":
A. Unemployment
1. It aims to provide 'end-to-end' solution
B. Wealth Creation to the young entrepreneurs.
C. Industrial Reforms 2. It will work through a portal and give

pre-investment advisory, information
D. Start-up Innovation related to land banks and facilitate
clearance.
the IND-SAT Examination: Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
1. It will be held for Asian and African A. 1 only

students for scholarships to 'Study in B. 2 only
India'.
C. Both 1 and 2
2. The first edition of it will be conducted
by the National Testing Agency (NTA) D. Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

5. Consider the following pairs of the places
A. 1 only and their respective states:
B. 2 only Places State
C. Both 1 and 2 1. Hastinapur Uttar Pradesh
D. Neither 1 nor 2 2. Rakhigarhi Punjab
3. Dholavira Gujarat
the "Jaivik Kheti Portal": Which of the above pairs is/are incorrectly
matched?
1. It is a unique initiative of the Ministry
of Environment, Forest and Climate A. 1 and 2 only
Change (MoEF) along with the B. 2 only
Ministry of Science Technology and
Climate Change. C. 1 and 3 only
2. Jaivik kheti portal is an E-commerce as D. 1, 2, and 3

well as a knowledge platform.
6. In which of the following context, the
term "Cage Culture" is often seen in the
A. 1 only news?
B. 2 only A. Blue revolution
C. Both 1 and 2 B. Green revolution
D. Neither 1 nor 2 C. White revolution
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D. Orange revolution 3. It also covers the unorganised or
unregistered or informal sector
7. With reference to the revenue receipts in enterprises.
the Union Budget 2020-21, consider the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
following statements: (ch1 v2)
1. The maximum revenue is generated A. 1 and 3
through borrowings & other liabilities.
B. 2 only
2. Tax collected through Corporate tax is
higher as compare to Goods and C. 1 and 2
Services tax D. All of the above
10. Which of the following is/are the
A. 1 only
consequences that follow if there is an
B. 2 only increase in the fixed investment in the
economy? (ch1 v2)
C. Both 1 and 2
1. Growth in GDP
D. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Decline in consumption
8. Consider the following statements about 3. Improvement in investment outlook
the " Coalition for Disaster Resilient
Infrastructure": 4. Increase in the Interest rates
1. It involves the United Nations (UN) Select the correct answer using the codes given
agencies, multilateral development below.
banks, the private sector, and academic A. 1 and 2 only
institutions.
B. 2 and 4 only
2. It has headquarters at Beijing.
C. 1 and 3 only
3. It doesn’t involve any financial help.
D. All of the above
A. 1 and 3 11. Consider the following statements with
respect to India State of Forest Report
B. 1 only
(ISFR).
C. 1 and 2
1. It is a biennial report published by the
D. None Forest Survey of India (FSI).
2. Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the
9. Consider the following statements about largest forest cover in the country
the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI): followed by Arunachal Pradesh.
1. It is conducted by the National Sample 3. In terms of forest cover as percentage
Survey Organisation (NSSO). of total geographical area, Mizoram
2. It provides disaggregated industry- tops the list followed by Arunachal
specific details of production, Pradesh.
investment, employment and costs. Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct? (ch6 v2)
A. 1 and 2 2. Some of the funding is also provided
for the ex- situ management of the crop
B. 1 and 3
residue.
C. 3 only
D. All of the above
A. 1 only
12. Shannon Weiner Index is seen in the news B. 2 only

sometimes. In which of the following C. Both 1 and 2
context is it used? (ch6 v2)
D. Neither 1 nor 2
A. Biodiversity
B. Forest density 15. Consider the following statement about
SDG India Index. ( Ch 6 V2)
C. Climate adaptability
1. UNDP (India) office has released the
D. Sustainability
composite SDG index for states in India
2019.
13. In the context of the distribution forest
area across the world, consider the 2. Index is released on all 17 Goals of
following statements: SDG target 2030 where Kerala at the
top.
1. India accounts for 4 per cent of the total
global forest area in 2015. 3. As per 2019 Index Chandigarh and
Tamil Nadu falls under Aspirant
2. Percentage-wise, USA accounts for Category.
more global forest area than the Brazil.
Choose correct answer:
(ch6 v2) A. 1 and 3
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3
B. 2 only C. 1 and 2
C. Both 1 and 2 D. None
D. Neither 1 nor 2
the " The Perform, Achieve and Trade
14. Consider the following statements about (PAT) scheme": (Ch 6 V2)
the 'Promotion of Agricultural
Mechanization for In-Situ Management of 1. It is a flagship programme of Bureau of
Crop Residue in the States of Punjab, Energy Efficiency under the National
Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and NCT of Mission
Delhi' scheme: (Ch 6 V2) for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
(NMEEE).
1. It is a Central Sponsored Scheme under
which the agricultural machines and 2. It is a regulatory instrument to reduce
equipment are given to the farmers on specific energy consumption in energy-
subsidy for in-situ crop residue intensive industries.
management. 3. It is envisaged that by 2020, about 25
(Mtoe) of energy savings will be
achieved through the implementation 3. Deeksharambh - To mentor
of this scheme. institutions seeking National
Assessment and
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Accreditation Council’s accreditation.
A. 1 and 3
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
B. 3 only matched? (CH 10 V2)
C. 2 and 3 A. 1 only
D. None B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only
17. In which of the following context, the”
Chile Madrid Time for Action", is often D. 1, 2, and 3
seen in the news? (Ch 6 V2)
A. Conference of the Parties (COP 25) to
the "National Educational Alliance for
the UNFCCC
Technology (NEAT)" portal: (ch10 v2)
B. US-China trade tension
1. The objective is to use Artificial
C. European Green Deal Intelligence to make learning more
personalised and
D. None of the above customised as per the requirements of
the learner.
18. With which of the following aim the
"Pradhan Mantri Innovative 2. Public entities would be responsible for
Learning Program (DHRUV)" was developing solutions and manage the
launched? (ch10 v2) registration of learners through the
NEAT portal.
A. To identify and encourage talented
students to enrich their skills and Which of the above statements is/are correct?
knowledge. A. 1 only
B. To introduce ICT technology in school B. 2 only
curricula.
C. Both 1 and 2
C. To introduce courses on emerging
technologies (AI) in school academics D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. None of the above 21. Consider the following statements about

the "Jal Shakti Abhiyan": (ch10 V2)
19. Consider the following pairs of the
initiatives taken by the government in the 1. It has been launched in all districts of
education sector and their respective India.
purposes. 2. It involves water conservation and
Initiative Purpose rainwater harvesting, renovation of
traditional and
1. SWAYAM 2.0 - To offer online other water bodies, reuse of water and
degrees recharging of structures, watershed
2. PARAMARSHA - A guide to the development, and intensive
student induction programme afforestation.
3. The nodal Ministry for this project is 3. For this the funding would come from
Ministry of Environment, Forest and the centre and states both.
Climate Change (MoEF).
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (ch8 V2)
A. 1 and 3 only A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only D. All of the above
22. Consider the following statements about 24. Economic Cost of foodgrains to FCI
the " "Integrated Management of Public consists of
Distribution System (IM-PDS)": (ch7 V2)
1. Pooled cost of grains
1. The main objective of the scheme is to
2. Procurement incidentals
introduce nation-wide portability of
ration card 3. Cost of distribution
holders under NFSA through 'One
4. Rent for storage
Nation One Ration Card' System.
2. This system would largely benefit
(ch7 v2)
numerous migratory beneficiaries who
frequently A. 1 and 2 only
change their place.
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. The facility of inter-State portability is
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
enabled in all the States.
D. All of the above
4. This Scheme is being run by Ministry
Of Consumer Affairs.
25. The overall industrial activity is seen
Which of the above statements is/are correct? reduced in this year. Which of the
A. 1, 2 and 3 only following is/are the possible factors for
this slump in industrial output?
B. 3 and 4 only
1. Slower credit flow to MSMEs
C. 1 and 2 only
2. Reduced lending by NBFCs
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Tapering of domestic demand
23. Consider the following statements about 4. Volatility in international crude oil
the "National Infrastructure Pipeline":
5. Trade uncertainties
1. It is envisaged to facilitate spending $
Select the correct answer using the codes given
1.4 trillion on infrastructure in the next
below. (ch8 v2)
ten years.
A. 1 and 2 only
2. It includes mainly economic and social
infrastructure projects. B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 farmers to enhance value realization of
the products.
26. With reference to the "Ease of Doing 2. It will cover national air-routes only.
Business Report 2020", consider the
following statements: 3. It has a special focus on north-east and
tribal districts.
1. India's ranking has been increased to
63 among 190 countries from 77 in the Which of the statements given above are
previous correct?
year. A. 1 and 3 only
2. India has improved its rank in 8 out of B. 2 and 3 only
10 indicators.
C. 1, 2 and 3
3. This report is published by World
Economic Forum annually. D. 3 only

29. Consider the following statements with
(ch8 v2)
reference to the telecom sector in India:
A. 1 only
1. The wireless telephony constitutes less
B. 2 and 3 only than 90 percent of all subscriptions.
C. All of the above 2. The teledensity in rural areas in India
currently stands at more than 70
D. None
percent.
27. The service sector in India accounts for: 3. The teledensity in urban areas is 100
percent .
1. More than 50 percent of total size of the
economy. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (ch8 v2)
2. Around two-thirds of total FDI inflows
into India. A. 1 and 2 only
3. More than 50 percent of total exports. B. 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given C. All of the above
below. D. None
A. 1 only
30. Consider the following statements
B. 2 and 3 only
regarding Public Sector Banks (PSBs) in
C. 1 and 2 only India:
D. 1, 2 and 3 only 1. PSBs account for less than half of the
loans by the Indian banking sector.
28. Consider the following statements 2. Credit growth among PSBs has
regarding Krishi UDAAN scheme consistently declined in the last five
recently unveiled in the Budget 2020: years.
1. It primarily aims to transport all 3. There are presently 15 public sector
agricultural and products and assist banks in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct? (ch7 v1) below. (ch3 v2)
A. 1 and 2 only A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 4 only
D. None D. 1 only
31. With reference to the Authorized 34. Consider the following statements
Economic Operator (AEO) program, regarding the insurance sector in India:
consider the following statements:
1. While the private sector has a major
1. It seeks to enhance international market share of life insurance, the
supply chain security and facilitate the public sector has the majority of the
movement of legitimate goods. non- life insurance sector.
2. It is an initiative of the World custom 2. The penetration of life and non- life
Organization. insurance sector has steadily increased
in the last decade.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (ch1 v1) Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (ch4 v2)
A. 1 only
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
32. Which of the following countries is the
largest producer of steel (crude) in the 35. With reference to the Start-up ecosystem
world? (ch5 v1) in India, consider the following
statements:
A. US
1. Percentage-wise, Maharashtra has the
B. China
maximum share of registered start-ups
C. India
2. As per the industry-wide distribution
D. Japan of recognized start-ups , Health
Services accounted for the maximum
33. With which of the following trading number of start-ups .
partners, India currently maintains trade 3. “Startup India, Stand-up India”
surplus? initiative was announced on August 15,
1. USA 2016.
2. Iraq Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(ch8 v2)
3. United Arab Emirates
A. 1 only
4. China
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. None
39. With reference to the Migration Report
2019, consider the following statements:
36. Which of the following organisations
publishes the "Energy Transition Index"? 1. China is the top remittance recipient
country in 2018.
A. World Bank
2. India is the leading country of origin of
B. World Economic Forum
international migrants in 2019 with a
C. International Energy Agency diaspora strength of 17.5 million.
D. International Monetary Fund 3. This report is published

by International Organization for
37. With reference to the power generation in Migration.
India, consider the following statements: Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. The maximum power is generated by (ch3 v2)
thermal power plants in India. A. 1 and 3 only
2. Percentage-wise, more power is B. 2 only
generated by nuclear plants than by
hydropower plants. C. 2 and 3 only
3. Renewable energy resources include D. All of the above

both small as well as large hydro
power plants. 40. Which of the following countries is/are
the members of the Asia Pacific Trade
Agreement (APTA)?
(ch8 v2)
1. Bangladesh
A. 1 only
2. China
B. 1 and 2 only
3. India
C. 2 and 3 only
4. North Korea
D. All of the above
5. Sri Lanka
38. Consider the following statements about 6. US
the National Pension Scheme (NPS):
1. All citizens can voluntarily enrol into below. (ch3 v2)
the scheme.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. Andhra Pradesh has a maximum
number of subscribers. B. 1, 2, 3, 5 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(ch4 v2) D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
A. 1 only
41. As per the latest Economic Survey,
B. 2 only
entrepreneurial activity in the
C. Both 1 and 2
Manufacturing sector is highest in the 2. Coal meets more than half of India's
regions of energy requirements.
1. Gujarat 3. Largest coal reserve in the world is
with Russia.
2. Maharashtra
3. Puducherry (ch3 v1)
4. Rajasthan A. 1 and 3 only
5. Punjab B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
below.
D. 1 and 2 only
A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 only 44. In the context of the economy, the term
C. 1 only "Dutch Disease" is seen in the news
sometimes. Consider the following
D. 1, 3, 4, and 5 statements about it:
1. It describes an economic phenomenon
42. Which of the following is/are the where the rapid development of one
characteristics of the "Pro- sector of the economy (particularly
Crony" Economy? natural resources) precipitates a decline
1. Some incumbent firms may receive in other sectors.
preferential treatment. 2. It is also often characterized by a
2. Resource allocation in the economy substantial appreciation of the
may be efficient. domestic currency.
3. Citizens' welfare measured are Which of the above statements is/are correct?
maximized. A. 1 only
4. Governments sometimes may use B. 2 only
quotas or tariffs to limit imports.
C. Both 1 and 2
below. D. Neither 1 nor 2
A. 1 and 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only the " Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay
Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA)":
C. 2 and 3 only
(ch11 v1)
D. 1, 2 and 3
1. It is aimed towards ensuring
remunerative prices to farmers for their
43. With reference to the importance of coal produce.
in the Indian economy, consider the
following statements: 2. Under Price Support Scheme(PSS),
physical procurement of pulses,
1. India has the fourth largest coal oilseeds and Copra is done by state
reserves in the world.
Nodal Agencies with the proactive role A. 1 and 3 only
of central government.
B. 2 only
3. PM-AASHA, covers only two sub-
C. 2 and 3 only
scheme i.e. Price Support Scheme
(PSS), Price Defciency Payment Scheme D. All of the above
(PDPS).
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 48. Which of the following committees were
related to the banking sector?
A. 2 and 3 only
1. Narasimhan Committee
B. 1 and 3
2. Rang Rajan Committee
C. 1 and 2 only
3. Kelkar Committee
D. 1 only
below. (ch7 v1)
46. With reference to the food price inflation
in India, consider the following A. 1 only
statements:
B. 1 and 2 only
1. The absolute prices of a vegetarian
C. 2 and 3 only
Thali have decreased significantly since
2015-16 though the price has increased D. 1, 2, and 3
in 2019.
2. In 2019-20, the most affordable 49. Which of the following could be the
vegetarian, as well as non-vegetarian possible factors for India being favoured
thali, was in Tamil Nadu. by multinational firms as a lucrative
destination for final assembly of
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? industrial products vis-a-vis China?
(ch11 v1)
1. US-China trade war
A. 1 only
2. Labour shortage in India
B. 2 only
3. Wage increase in China
C. Both 1 and 2
4. High export duties from India
D. Neither 1 nor 2
below. (ch5 v1)
47. With reference to India's banking sector,
consider the following statements: A. 1 and 3 only
1. India has two banks in the global top B. 2, 3 and 4 only
100.
C. 2 and 3 only
2. The Public Sector Banks (PSBs) account
for 70 per cent of the market share in D. 1, 3 and 4 only
banking.
50. Which of the following is/are the member
3. The credit growth among PSBs has countries of the MERCOSUR trade bloc?
increased significantly since 2013.
1. Uruguay
2. Paraguay B. 2 only
3. Argentina C. Both 1 and 2
4. China D. Neither 1 nor 2
5. USA
53. With reference to the "Index of Economic
Select the correct answer using the codes given Freedom", consider the following
below. (ch4 v1) statements:
A. 1, 4 and 5 only 1. It is published by the International
B. 1, 2, and 3 only Monetary Fund (IMF).
C. 4 and 5 only 2. India has ranked at 129th among 186

countries in 2019.
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
3. It is published biennially.
51. Consider the following statements about Which of the above statements is/are correct?
the "Shadow Banking":
A. 1 and 2 only
1. Shadow banks do not have explicit
B. 2 only
access to central bank liquidity.
C. 1 and 3 only
2. They operate outside the traditional
commercial banking sector. D. All of the above
3. Cooperative banking system is an
example of Shadow Banking system. 54. Which of the following item/s come
under the purview of the Essential
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? Commodities Act, 1955:
A. 1 and 2 only 1. Petroleum products
B. 2 and 3 only 2. Onion
C. 3 only 3. Drugs
D. None 4. Jute
5. Seeds of food crops
52. Consider the following statements:
6. Alcohol
1. Housing Finance Corporations (HFCs)
hold much longer duration assets as Select the correct answer using the codes given
compared to Retail-NBFCs, which hold below.
medium-term assets.
A. 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
2. Asset side shocks cause a significant
B. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
deterioration in the asset-liability
mismatch of the HFCs, but they induce C. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only
less of an adverse impact on the asset-
liability mismatch of Retail NBFCs. D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 55. Drug Price Control Order (DPCO)" is
A. 1 only often is seen in the news. Consider the
following statements about it:
1. It specifies the list of drugs that come 3. Markets can help to bring competition
under the price ceiling and the formula in economy.
for calculating the ceiling price.
2. National Pharmaceutical Pricing below. (ch4 v1)
Authority (NPPA) is responsible for
A. 1 and 3 only
fixing and revising the prices of
pharmaceutical products as well as the B. 3 only
enforcement of the DPCO.
C. 1 and 2 only
3. It comes under the control of Ministry
D. All of the above
of Consumer Affairs.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? 58. Which of the following is/are the impact
A. 1 and 3 of the blanket debt waivers?
B. 1 and 2 1. Disruption of credit culture
C. 3 only 2. Reduction of the formal credit flow
D. None 3. Full debt waiver is good as compare to

partial debt waiver for farmers.
56. With reference to the "Corruption Select the correct answer using the codes given
Perception Index", consider the following below.
statements:
A. 1 and 2 only
1. It is released by the "Transparency
B. 2 and 3 only
International".
C. 1 and 3 only
2. Since 2013, India has improved
significantly on this index. D. All of the above
3. It measures Corruption in both public
as well as private sector. 59. Which of the distortions in the
agricultural market that are caused due to
Which of the above statements is/are correct? the imposition of the Essential
(ch1 v1) Commodity Act, 1955?
A. 1 and 2 only 4. It weakens the development of
B. 1 and 3 only agricultural value chain.
C. 2 and 3 only 5. It reduces the producers' profit.
D. All of the above 6. It inhibits the development of vibrant

commodity derivative markets.
57. Which of the following is/are the 7. It reduces the incentive to invest in
strengths of the markets? storage.
1. Markets cannot prevent the abuse of Select the incorrect answer using the codes
monopoly power. given below.
2. Markets cannot distribute public A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
goods.
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1 and 4 only 1. It pertains to all major and
minor minerals, including coal-based
D. None
and other fuel-based minerals.
60. Which of the following is/are the 2. It introduces the concept of

characteristics of the "Wilful Defaulter": Exclusive Mining Zones which come
with inprinciple statutory clearances
1. It is a firm that has defaulted in for grant of mining lease.
meeting its repayment obligations even
though it can honour these obligations. 3. It provides for the right of first refusal
to the Prospecting Licence holders at
2. It uses the funds for purposes other the time of auction.
than what is sanctioned by the lender.
Select the correct answer using the code given
3. The person don’t attend the below.
proceedings before the authorities.
A. 1 only
below. B. 1 and 2 only
A. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2 only
63. With reference to the "Rashtriya
D. All of the above Gokul Mission", consider the following
statements:
61. Consider the following statements about 1. It seeks to improve indigenous
Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs): livestock breeds through crossbreeding
1. They raise funds from a large number with foreign breeds.
of investors and directly invest in real 2. It provides subsidized credit to
estate properties. promote the setting up of modern
2. SEBI has regulatory jurisdiction over dairy farms.
REITs. Which of the statements given above
3. Mutual Funds are allowed to invest in is/are correct?
REITs while Banks are not. A. 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are B. 2 only
correct?
C. Both 1 and 2
A. 1 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only 64. Regarding the 'Financial Support to
MSMEs in ZED Certification Scheme',
D. 1 and 3 only consider the following statements:
62. Which of the following is/are incorrect 1. It certifies MSMEs based on the
with reference to the National Mineral quality of manufacturing and energy
Policy 2019? efficiency.
2. It applies only to the Which of the statements given above
manufacturing units. is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above A. 3 only
is/are incorrect?
B. 2 only
A. 1 only
C. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2 67. With reference to the recently launched
PM (AASHA) , which of the following
statements is/are correct?
65. Which of the following are functions
of the Department for Promotion of 1. It provides minimum income support
Industry and Internal trade (DPIIT)? to small and marginal farmers.
1. Monitoring the disinvestment in 2. It allows private participation in
central PSU’s. the procurement of various crops at
MSP.
2. Formulation of FDI policy and
its regulation. 3. Price Support Scheme (PSS and Price
Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS) are
3. Formulation of policies relating
the only components under this
to various Intellectual Property
scheme.
Rights (IPRs).
below.
below.
A. 1 and 2 only
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
D. 1, 2 and 3
68. ASPIRE scheme often seen in news

is related to:
regarding Pradhan Mantri Krishi
Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY): A. Providing skill training and
enhancing the employability of
1. It follows a centralized approach
unemployed youth of Jammu and
where project planning is done at the
Kashmir.
central level.
B. Financially incentivizing families
2. It covers selected states and
for better upbringing and education of
union territories.
the girl child.
3. The primary objective of the scheme
C. Providing free coaching to students
is to achieve convergence of
with disabilities to enable them to
investments in irrigation at the field
appear in various competitive exams.
level.
D. Accelerating entrepreneurship Receivables Discounting System (TReDS)
and promote start up for innovation in Scheme?
rural and agriculture-based industry.
1. It seeks to address the financing needs
of MSMEs as well as the delayed
69. With reference to the Integrated payments issue.
Child Development Services (ICDS)
scheme, consider the following 2. It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.
statements: 3. Companies whose turnover exceeds Rs
1. It aims to improve the nutritional 200 crores will have to be registered on
and health status of children in the age- the TReDS platform.
group of 6-14 years. Which of the statements given above
2. Pregnant and lactating mothers form is/are incorrect?
a target group of the scheme. A. 1 only
3. District health centers are used B. 2 and 3 only
for providing all services under the
Scheme. C. 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above D. None

are incorrect?
A. 1, 2 and 3
regard to Ultra Mega Power Projects
B. 1 and 2 only (UMPPs) in India:
C. 1 and 3 only 1. All the envisaged and launched
UMPPs are coal-based power plants
D. 2 and 3 only
2. The use of super-critical technology
70. Which of the following statements is provides for higher fuel efficiency and
not correct about Pradhan Mantri Shram lower greenhouse gas emissions
Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana (PM-SYM)? 3. Central Electricity Authority is the
A. The scheme is for unorganized nodal implementing agency for
sector workers only. UMPPs.
B. Subscribers to the scheme are assured 4. The first UMPP was launched in Sasan
of a monthly pension of Rs. 6000 by Tata Power
per month after they reach 60 years Which of the statements given above
age. is/are correct?
C. Equal contribution is made by A. 1, 2 and 4 only
the subscriber and the Central
Government. B. 1 and 2 only
D. The contributions from workers C. 2, 3 and 4 only

per month will change depending on D. 1, 2 and 3 only
the applicant's age.
73. With reference to the newly created

'National Startup Advisory Council',
regarding the recently launched Trade consider the following statements:
1. It will suggest measures to promote 2. Majority of India’s power is produced
innovation in all sectors of the from the renewable energy sources.
economy across the country.
3. Transmission and Distribution (T&D)
2. It will be chaired by the Cabinet Losses in India are negligible when
Secretary of Government of India. compared to power production.
3. it will consist only the official members Which of the statement given above
from the Government of India. is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above A. 1 and 2 only
is/are correct?
B. 1 and 3 only
A. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
D. None
C. 1 and 2 only
D. All of the above 76. Which of the following is/are correct
with reference to the Hydrocarbon
Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP)?
1. It provides for a system of
1. Minimum Support Price is declared
issuing separate licenses for each kind
after harvesting and the Food
of hydrocarbons such as oil, gas, coal
Corporation of India is the nodal
bed methane.
agency for implementation.
2. It replaces the earlier system
2. Fair and Remunerative price for
of production sharing contract (PSC)
sugarcane is declared by the respective
by the revenue sharing model.
state governments.
3. It provides for open acreage under
3. Fair and Remunerative price is the
which a company can select the
minimum price at which rate
exploration blocks on its own, without
sugarcane is sold by sugar mills in the
waiting for the formal bid round from
market.
the Government.
4. A new graded system of royalty rates
incorrect?
has been introduced, in which royalty
A. 1 and 2 only rates increase from shallow water to
deepwater and ultra-deepwater.
B. 2 and 3 only
Select the incorrect answer using the
C. All of the above code given below.
D. None A. 1 and 4 only
75. Consider the following statements B. 1, 3 and 4 only

regarding power consumption in India: C. 3 and 4 only
1. Consumption of electricity in the D. All of the above
agricultural sector is the highest
compared to other sectors.
with reference to silk production in India:
1. India is the only country producing 2. It connects the law enforcement
all known varieties of commercial silks. agencies of different States, districts
and police stations for dealing with
2. Munga silk accounts for the
cybercrimes.
maximum share of the total silk
production. 3. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Law,
Government of India.
3. There are mainly three varieties of Silk
produced in India. Select the incorrect answer using the
code given below.
Which of the statements given above
is/are incorrect? A. 2 and 3 only
A. 2 and 3 only B. 3 only
B. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1 and 3 only
with respect to the Disinvestment of
Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)
1. India's allows 100% FDI in India:
through automatic route in the steel
1. Department of Investment and
and mining sectors.
Public Asset Management (DIPAM)
2. District Mineral Foundations under the Ministry of Finance oversees
(DMFs) are constitutional bodies that the process of Disinvestment.
work for benefit of the persons living
2. NITI Aayog identifies and
in and areas affected by mining-related
recommends CPSEs for minor stake
operations.
disinvestment.
3. DMFs are established by the central
3. Capital receipts from Disinvestment
Government by notification under the
become the part of consolidated fund
Mines and Minerals (Development and
of India.
Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015.
Which of the statement given above
correct?
is/are correct?
A. 1 only
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
81. Consider the following about National

79. Which of the following is/are correct
Water Mission
regarding the National Cyber Crime
Reporting Portal? 1. It is one of the eight missions under
National Action Plan on Climate
1. It enables citizens to report cybercrimes
Change.
online through the portal.
2. Water database under the mission is 84. National Adaptation Fund for Climate
developed by Central Water Change is managed by
Commission including both surface
A. NABARD
and ground water.
B. Ministry of Environment and Forests
3. State Specific Action Plans for water
sector are also needed to be made. C. RBI
Select from the codes below D. NITI Aayog
A. 1 and 2 only
85. India’s seed vault is located in
B. 2 and 3 only
A. The union territory of Ladakh
C. 1 and 3 only
B. Punjab
D. All of them
C. Sikkim
82. Consider the following about the D. Arunachal Pradesh
National Career Service Project
1. It is an upgraded version of National 86. As per census 2011 a person will be
Employment Service. considered as literate if
2. It seeks to integrate all employment 1. A person aged seven and above, who
excahnges to an online portal. can both read and write with
understanding
Select from the codes below
2. A person, who can only read but
A. 1 only cannot write.
B. 2 only 3. A child aged five and above, who can
C. Both both read and write with
understanding
D. None
Select the correct answer using the codes
83. Global Environment Facility A. 1 and 2 only
1. It provides for finance to tackle a host B. 1 only
of environmental problems excluding
C. 3 only
land degradation.
D. 2 and 3 only
2. The funding can be accessed to
implement Minamata Convention on
Mercury. 87. Integrated Guided Missile Development
Plan envisages development of which of
Select from the codes below the following missiles
A. 1 only 1. Agni
B. 2 only 2. Akash
C. Both 3. Trishul
D. None 4. Prithvi
5. Nag
Select the correct code given below 2. Transformation Index – World Bank
A. 1 and 2 3. Project Half-Earth - UNEP
B. 3 and 4 4. REPLACE Programme - WHO
C. 5 only Select the correct code:
D. All of them A. 1 and 4
B. 2 and 3
88. "Forty plus Nine (40+9)"
Recommendations is concerned with C. 1 and 2
which of the D. 4 only
following institutions/organisations?
A. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank 91. Which of the following experiments
(AIIB) /detectors are related to study of
‘Neutrino’?
B. Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
1. XENON
C. Organisation for the Prohibition of
Chemical Weapons (OPCW) 2. IceCube
D. Organization of the Petroleum 3. MINOS
Exporting Countries (OPEC)
4. KATRIN
89. Which of the following statements is the Select the correct code:
most appropriate with respect to ‘Feed-in
A. 1 and 3
tariff’?
B. 2, 3 and 4
A. It allows consumers who generate
some or all of their own electricity to C. 1, 2 and 4
use that electricity anytime, instead of
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
when it is generated.
B. It is a trade barrier erected for the 92. Consider the following statements with
purpose of reducing pollution and respect to ‘Central Adoption Resource
improving the environment Authority (CARA)’
C. It is a tax levied on activities which are 1. It is a statutory body of Ministry of
considered to be harmful to the Women & Child Development
environment and is intended
to promote environmentally friendly 2. It was set up under the POCSO Act
activities via economic incentives 3. It has barred partners in live-in
D. It is an economic policy created to relationships from adopting a child
promote active investment in and Select the correct statements
production of renewable energy
sources A. 1 Only
B. 1 and 2
90. Which of the following are correctly
matched? C. 1 and 3
1. National Disaster Risk Index - UNISDR D. None of the above
93. ‘Helsinki Accords’ is associated with 5. Rupnagar: Punjab
A. Generalised System of Preferences Which of the above pairs are correctly
(GSP) matched?
B. Antarctic Treaty System A. 1, 2 & 3 only
C. Non-Proliferation Treaty B. 3, 4 & 5 only

D. None of the above C. 2, 4 & 5 only
D. 1, 3 & 5 only
regarding foot loose industries.
1. Foot loose industries can be located in
1. The average elevation of Western
a wide variety of places.
Ghats is greater than that of Eastern
2. These industries are generally non- Ghats.
polluting industries.
2. Between Western Ghats and the
3. They largely depend on component Arabian Sea lies a broader coastal area,
parts which can be obtained anywhere. while between Eastern Ghats and the
Bay of Bengal there is a narrow coastal
area.
A. 1, 2 Which of the above statements is / are correct?
B. 2, 3 A. Only 1
C. 1, 3 B. Only 2
D. 1, 2, 3 C. Both 1 and 2
95. 'Broad-based Trade and D. None of the Above

Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is
sometimes seen in the news in the context 98. Which state has the highest literacy
of negotiations held between India and rate among the following states as per
2011 Census?
A. European Union
A. Manipur
B. Gulf Cooperation Council
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Organization for Economic
Cooperation and Development C. Uttarakhand
D. Shanghai Cooperation Organization D. Karnataka
96. Consider the following pairs of 99. Consider the following statements about
thermal power plants and their locations: the National Flag of India:
1. Suri: Jharkhand 1. The design of the National Flag was

adopted by the Constituent Assembly
2. Thimble: Rajasthan of India on June 22, 1947.
3. Neyveli: Andhra Pradesh
4. Kayamkulam: Kerala
2. The National Flag shall be rectangular
in shape with the ratio of length to the
height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which of the above statements is / are
incorrect?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the Above

about Stockholm Convention:
1. It is a global treaty to protect human
health and the environment from
Persistent Organic Pollutants.
2. It covers 12 chemicals.
3. India has not yet ratified the
Convention.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
A. 1 and 3 Only
B. 2 Only
C. 1 and 2 Only
D. 1 Only
 Ind-SAT will be an exam for Asian and
1. What is the over-arching theme of African countries to help make India a
Economic Survey 2019-20? higher education destination. It will be
useful for awarding scholarships to the
A. Unemployment meritorious students from the
B. Wealth Creation neighbouring countries.
C. Industrial Reforms  The first edition of the Ind-SAT will be

conducted in May 2020 by the National
D. Start-up Innovation Testing Agency (NTA) across 13
Answer: B countries. These countries include
India, Nepal, Ethiopia, Bangladesh,
Explanation: The theme of Economic Survey, Bhutan, Uganda, Tanzania, Rwanda,
2019-20 is "Wealth Creation" for India's Sri Lanka, Kenya, Zambia, India and
aspiration of becoming a $5 trillion economy Mauritius.
by 2025.

2. Consider the following statements about the "Jaivik Kheti Portal":
the IND-SAT Examination:
1. It is a unique initiative of the Ministry
1. It will be held for Asian and African of Environment, Forest and Climate
students for scholarships to 'Study in Change (MoEF) along with the
India'. Ministry of Science Technology and
Climate Change.
2. The first edition of it will be conducted
by the National Testing Agency (NTA) 2. Jaivik kheti portal is an E-commerce as
A. 1 only
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation:
 In the Union Budget for the financial
year (FY) 2020-21, Finance Minister Jaivik kheti portal is a unique initiative
(FM) Nirmala Sitharaman on of the Ministry of Agriculture (MoA),
announced the introduction of 'Ind- Department of Agriculture (DAC)
SAT' examination to attract students along with MSTC to promote organic
from foreign countries and make India farming globally. It is a one-stop
a global destination for higher solution for facilitating organic farmers
education. to sell their organic produce and
promoting organic farming and its
benefits.
 Jaivik kheti portal is an E-commerce as
5. Consider the following pairs of the places
Knowledge repository section of the
and their respective states:
portal includes case studies, videos,
and best farming practices, success Places State
stories and other material related to
organic farming to facilitate and 1. Hastinapur Uttar Pradesh
promote organic farming. 2. Rakhigarhi Punjab
 The e-commerce section of the portal 3. Dholavira Gujarat
provides the whole bouquet of organic
products ranging from grains, pulses, Which of the above pairs is/are incorrectly
fruits and vegetables. matched?
A. 1 and 2 only
4. Consider the following statements about B. 2 only

the newly proposed "Investment C. 1 and 3 only
Clearance Cell":
D. 1, 2, and 3
1. It aims to provide 'end-to-end' solution
to the young entrepreneurs. Answer: B
2. It will work through a portal and give Explanation:

pre-investment advisory, information  Hastinapur is a city in Meerut district
related to land banks and facilitate in the Indian state of Uttar
clearance. Pradesh. Hastinapur, described in
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? Hindu texts such as the Mahabharata
and the Puranas as the capital of the
A. 1 only Kuru Kingdom, is also mentioned in
B. 2 only ancient Jain texts.
C. Both 1 and 2  Rakhigarhi is a village in Hisar District

in the state of Haryana in India,
D. Neither 1 nor 2 situated 150 kilometres to the
northwest of Delhi. It is the site of a
Answer: D
pre-Indus Valley Civilisation
Explanation: settlement going back to about 6500
BCE.
 In a bid to support further investments
in the Indian startup ecosystem, union  Dholavira is an archaeological site at
finance minister Nirmala Sitharaman Khadirbet in Bhachau Taluka of Kutch
proposed to set up an Investment District, in the state of Gujarat in
Clearance Cell while presenting Union western India. The site contains ruins
Budget 2020. of an ancient Indus Valley
Civilization/Harappan city.
 The cell will provide "end-to-end"
facilitation and support, including pre-  In the Union Budget 2020-21, the
investment advisory, information Government of India has proposed to
related to land banks and facilitate set up on-site museums at the 5
clearances at the centre and state level. archaeological sites, namely-
This will work through a portal. Rakhigarhi (Haryana), Hastinapur
(UP), Shivsagar (Assam), Dholavira D. Neither 1 nor 2
(Gujarat) and Adichannalur (Tamil
Answer: A
Nadu).
Explanation:
6. In which of the following context, the  According to the Union Budget 2020-
term "Cage Culture" is often seen in the 21, the maximum revenue receipts i.e.
around 20% have come from the
news?
borrowings and other liabilities.
A. Blue revolution
 The contribution of Goods and Services
B. Green revolution Tax and Corporate tax towards
revenue is equal. i.e. 18%.
C. White revolution
D. Orange revolution
Answer: A
the " Coalition for Disaster Resilient
Explanation: Infrastructure":
 Cage culture is an aquaculture 1. It involves the United Nations (UN)
production system where fish are held agencies, multilateral development
in floating net pens. Cage culture of banks, the private sector, and academic
fish utilizes existing water resources institutions.
but encloses the fish in a cage or basket
2. It has headquarters at Beijing.
which allows water to pass freely.
between the fish and the pond 3. It doesn’t involve any financial help.
permitting water exchange and waste.
It is a common technique for
freshwater fish production. A. 1 and 3
 In the Union Budget 2020-21, it is B. 1 only
mentioned that the cage culture will be
promoted. C. 1 and 2
D. None
7. With reference to the revenue receipts in Answer: B

the Union Budget 2020-21, consider the Explanation:
following statements:
 The Coalition for Disaster Resilient
1. The maximum revenue is generated Infrastructure (CDRI) is an
through borrowings & other liabilities. international coalition of countries,
2. Tax collected through Corporate tax is United Nations (UN) agencies,
higher as compare to Goods and multilateral development banks, the
Services tax private sector, and academic
institutions, that aims to promote
Which of the above statements is/are correct? disaster-resilient infrastructure.
A. 1 only  Its objective is to promote research and
knowledge sharing in the fields of
B. 2 only
infrastructure risk management,
C. Both 1 and 2
standards, financing, and recovery  ASI is the main survey conducted by
mechanisms. the Central Statistics Office (CSO)
Industrial Statistics (IS) wing. It
 It was launched by the Indian Prime
ensures timely dissemination of
Minister Narendra Modi at the 2019
statistical information to asses and
UN Climate Action Summit in
evaluates the dynamics in composition,
September 2019.
growth and structure of organized
manufacturing sector.

the Annual Survey of Industries (ASI):
1. It is conducted by the National Sample consequences that follow if there is an
Survey Organisation (NSSO). increase in the fixed investment in the
economy? (ch1 v2)
2. It provides disaggregated industry-
specific details of production, 1. Growth in GDP
investment, employment and costs.
2. Decline in consumption
3. It also covers the unorganised or
3. Improvement in investment outlook
enterprises. 4. Increase in the Interest rates
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given
(ch1 v2) below.
A. 1 and 3 A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above D. All of the above
Answer: B Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation:
 Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) is  The Economic Survey, 2018-19
the principal source of industrial describes the virtuous cycle of growth
statistics in India providing wherein an increase in the rate of fixed
information on important investment accelerates the growth of
characteristics of the registered GDP that in turn induces a higher
manufacturing sector. growth in consumption.
 ASI is considered as the most  Higher growth of consumption
comprehensive and reliable source of improves the investment outlook. This
organised manufacturing sector data virtuous cycle of higher fixed
providing disaggregated industry- investment-higher GDP growth-higher
specific details of production, consumption growth generates
investment, employment and costs. It economic development in the country.
does not cover unorganised or
enterprises.
11. Consider the following statements with Meghalaya (76.33%), Manipur (75.46%)
respect to India State of Forest Report and Nagaland (75.31%).
(ISFR).
1. It is a biennial report published by the
12. Shannon Weiner Index is seen in the news
Forest Survey of India (FSI).
sometimes. In which of the following
2. Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the context is it used? (ch6 v2)
largest forest cover in the country
A. Biodiversity
followed by Arunachal Pradesh.
B. Forest density
3. In terms of forest cover as percentage
of total geographical area, Mizoram C. Climate adaptability
tops the list followed by Arunachal
Pradesh. D. Sustainability
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are Answer: A

correct? (ch6 v2) Explanation:
A. 1 and 2  A "Shanon Weiner Diversity Index" is a
B. 1 and 3 quantitative measure that reflects how
many different types (such as species)
C. 3 only there are in a dataset (a community)
D. All of the above and that can simultaneously take into
account the phylogenetic relations
Answer: A among the individuals distributed
among those types, such as richness,
Explanation: The Union Minister for
divergence or evenness.
Environment, Forest and Climate Change has
released the biennial “India State of Forest  The Shannon diversity index value
Report (ISFR)”. (ch 6 V 2) ranges between 0 and 1.
 The report is published by the Forest  The lower values indicate more
Survey of India (FSI) which has been diversity while higher values indicate
mandated to assess the forest and tree less diversity. India State of the Forest
resources of the country including Report 2019 assessed Shannon-Weiner
wall-to-wall forest cover mapping in a Index for 16 biodiverse areas.
biennial cycle.
 Starting 1987, 16 assessments have
been completed so far. ISFR 2019 is the 13. In the context of the distribution forest
16th report in the series. area across the world, consider the
 Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the
largest forest cover in the country 1. India accounts for 4 per cent of the total
followed by Arunachal Pradesh, global forest area in 2015.
Chhattisgarh, Odisha and 2. Percentage-wise, USA accounts for
Maharashtra. more global forest area than the Brazil.
 In terms of forest cover as percentage Which of the above statements is/are correct?
of total geographical area, the top five (ch6 v2)
States are Mizoram (85.41%),
Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%), A. 1 only
B. 2 only  In 2018, a new Central Sector Scheme
on 'Promotion of Agricultural
C. Both 1 and 2
Mechanization for In-Situ Management
D. Neither 1 nor 2 of Crop Residue in the States of Punjab,
Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and NCT of
Answer: D Delhi' has been launched with the total
Explanation: outgo from the Central funds of Rs.
1151.80 crore.
 India accounts for 2 per cent of the total
global forest area in 2015 as per the  Under this Scheme, the agricultural
Global Forest Resource Assessment machines and equipment for in-situ
(FRA) by FAO. crop residue management such as
Super Straw Management System for
 Brazil and the USA account for 12% Combine Harvesters, Happy Seeders,
and 8 % of the Global Forest area Hydraulically Reversible MB Plough,
respectively. Paddy Straw Chopper, Mulcher,
Rotary Slasher, Zero Till Seed Drill and
Rotavators are provided with 50 per
14. Consider the following statements about cent subsidy to the individual farmers
the 'Promotion of Agricultural and 80 per cent subsidy for the
Mechanization for In-Situ Management of establishment of Custom Hiring
Crop Residue in the States of Punjab, Centres.
Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and NCT of
Delhi' scheme: (Ch 6 V2)
1. It is a Central Sponsored Scheme under 15. Consider the following statement about
which the agricultural machines and SDG India Index. ( Ch 6 V2)
equipment are given to the farmers on 1. UNDP (India) office has released the
subsidy for in-situ crop residue composite SDG index for states in India
management. 2019.
2. Some of the funding is also provided 2. Index is released on all 17 Goals of
for the ex- situ management of the crop SDG target 2030 where Kerala at the
residue. top.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 3. As per 2019 Index Chandigarh and
A. 1 only Tamil Nadu falls under Aspirant
Category.
B. 2 only
Choose correct answer:
C. Both 1 and 2
A. 1 and 3
D. Neither 1 nor 2
B. 2 and 3
Answer: D
C. 1 and 2
Explanation:
D. None
 Paddy Stubble burning is mainly
practised in Indo-Gangetic plains of the Answer: D
States of Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Explanation:
Pradesh to clear the fields for Rabi
Crop sowing.
 The States/UTs are ranked based on D. None
their aggregate performance across the
Answer: B
16 SDGs.
Explanation:
 The SDG score varies from 0 to 100. A
score of 100 implies that the States/UTs  Perform Achieve and Trade
have achieved the targets set for 2030; a (PAT) scheme is a flagship programme
score of 0 implies that the particular of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency
State/UT is at the bottom of the table. under the National Mission for
Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE).
 States with scores equal to/greater
NMEEE is one of the eight national
than 65 are considered as Front-
missions under the National Action
Runners (in Green); as Performers (in
Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)
Yellow) in the range of 50-64 and as
launched by the Government of India
Aspirants (in Red) if the score is less
in the year 2008.
than 50.
 PAT is a regulatory instrument to
 As per the SDG Index, Kerala,
reduce specific energy consumption in
Himachal Pradesh, Tamil Nadu,
energy-intensive industries, with an
Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
associated market-based mechanism to
Karnataka, Goa, Sikkim, Chandigarh
enhance the cost effectiveness through
and Puducherry are the front runners
certification of excess energy saving
(Map 1). It is noteworthy that none of
which can be traded.
the States/ UTs fall in the Aspirant
category in 2019.  The energy-intensive industries
including the thermal power plants are
the major players in this entire scheme
16. Consider the following statements about of PAT. It refers to the calculation of
the " The Perform, Achieve and Trade Specific Energy Consumption (SEC) in
(PAT) scheme": (Ch 6 V2) the baseline year and projected SEC in
the target year covering different forms
1. It is a flagship programme of Bureau of of net energy going into the boundary
Energy Efficiency under the National
of the designated consumers' plant and
Mission
the products leaving it over a particular
for Enhanced Energy Efficiency
cycle. It is envisaged that by 2020,
(NMEEE).
about 20 Mtoe of energy savings will
2. It is a regulatory instrument to reduce be achieved through the
specific energy consumption in energy- implementation of this scheme.
intensive industries.
3. It is envisaged that by 2020, about 25
17. In which of the following context, the”
(Mtoe) of energy savings will be
Chile Madrid Time for Action", is often
achieved through the implementation
seen in the news? (Ch 6 V2)
of this scheme.
A. Conference of the Parties (COP 25) to
the UNFCCC
A. 1 and 3
B. US-China trade tension
B. 3 only
C. European Green Deal
C. 2 and 3
D. None of the above
Answer: A Learning Program (DHRUV)" was
launched? (ch10 v2)
Explanation:
A. To identify and encourage talented
 The 25th session of the Conference of
students to enrich their skills and
the Parties (COP 25) to the UNFCCC
knowledge.
was held at Madrid, Spain under the
Chilean Presidency. B. To introduce ICT technology in school
curricula.
 India reiterated its commitment to
implement the Paris Agreement in its C. To introduce courses on emerging
letter and spirit and to act collectively technologies (AI) in school academics
to address climate change including
D. None of the above
consideration of principles of equity
and common but differentiated Answer: A
responsibilities and respective
capabilities. Explanation:
 The new Programme DHRUV 'will act
 The COP 25 decision, titled Chile
as a platform to explore the talent of
Madrid Time for Action, emphasizes
outshining and meritorious students,
the continued challenges that
and help them achieve excellence in
developing countries face in accessing
their specific areas of interest may it
financial, technology and capacity-
be science, performing arts, creative
building support, and recognizes the
writing, etc.
urgent need to enhance the provision
of support to developing country  The Pradhan Mantri Innovative
Parties for strengthening their national Learning Programme has been started
adaptation and mitigation efforts. to identify and encourage talented
children to enrich their skills and
 The decision also recalls the knowledge.
commitment made by developed
country Parties to a goal of mobilizing  In centres of excellence across the
jointly US$ 100 billion per year by 2020 country, gifted children will be
to address the needs of developing mentored and nurtured by renowned
countries. experts in different areas, so that they
can reach their full potential. It is
 On the issue of global ambition for
expected that many of the students
combating climate change, the decision
selected will reach the highest levels in
adopted provides for a balanced and
their chosen fields and bring laurels to
integrated view of ambition that
their community, State and Nation.
includes not only efforts for climate
change mitigation, but also for
adaptation and means of
19. Consider the following pairs of the
implementation support from
initiatives taken by the government in the
developed country parties to
education sector and their respective
developing country parties.
purposes.
Initiative Purpose
18. With which of the following aim the
1. SWAYAM 2.0 - To offer online
"Pradhan Mantri Innovative
degrees
2. PARAMARSHA - A guide to the B. 2 only
student induction programme
C. Both 1 and 2
3. Deeksharambh - To mentor
D. Neither 1 nor 2
institutions seeking National
Assessment and Answer: A
Accreditation Council’s accreditation.
Explanation:
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
matched? (CH 10 V2)  National Educational Alliance for
Technology (NEAT) announced a PPP
A. 1 only Scheme for using technology for better
learning outcomes in Higher
B. 2 and 3 only
Education.
C. 1 and 3 only
 The objective is to use Artificial
D. 1, 2, and 3 Intelligence to make learning more
personalised and customised as per the
Answer: A
requirements of the learner. This
Explanation: requires the development
of technologies in Adaptive Learning
 SWAYAM 2.0 was launched to offer to address the diversity of learners.
online degree programmes with
enhanced features and facilities by top-  EdTech companies would be
ranking universities. 'Deeksharambh' a responsible for developing solutions
guide to the student induction and manage the registration of
programme and 'PARAMARSH' learners through the NEAT portal.
scheme is to mentor institutions
seeking National Assessment and
Accreditation Council 21. Consider the following statements about
accreditation are some of the other the "Jal Shakti Abhiyan": (ch10 V2)
major schemes of the Department of
1. It has been launched in all districts of
Higher Education launched in 2019.
India.
2. It involves water conservation and
20. Consider the following statements about rainwater harvesting, renovation of
the "National Educational Alliance for traditional and
Technology (NEAT)" portal: (ch10 v2) other water bodies, reuse of water and
recharging of structures, watershed
1. The objective is to use Artificial
development, and intensive
Intelligence to make learning more
afforestation.
personalised and
customised as per the requirements of 3. The nodal Ministry for this project is
the learner. Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change (MoEF).
2. Public entities would be responsible for
developing solutions and manage the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
registration of learners through the
A. 1 and 3 only
NEAT portal.
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
A. 1 only
D. 2 and 3 only Answer: C
Answer: B Explanation:
Explanation:  The Department of Food & Public
Distribution in collaboration with all
 Jal Shakti Abhiyan was launched to
States/UTs is implementing a Scheme
accelerate progress on water
namely "Integrated Management of
conservation activities in the most
Public Distribution System (IM-PDS)"
water-stressed blocks and districts of
during 2018-19 and 2019-20.
India.
 The main objective of the scheme is to
 An important part of the 'Jal Shakti introduce nation-wide portability of
Abhiyan' is that it will focus on five ration card holders under NFSA
aspects – water conservation and through 'One Nation One Ration Card'
rainwater harvesting, renovation of System, to lift their entitled food grains
traditional and other water bodies, from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) in the
reuse of water and recharging of country without the need to obtain a
structures, watershed development, new ration card.
and intensive afforestation. This
scheme will work under Ministry of  This system would largely benefit
Jal Shakti. numerous migratory beneficiaries who
frequently change their place of
dwelling in search of
22. Consider the following statements about work/employment or for other reasons
the " "Integrated Management of Public across the country and eventually get
Distribution System (IM-PDS)": (ch7 V2) deprived of their quota of subsidised
food grains under NFSA due to
1. The main objective of the scheme is to migration from their native place.
introduce nation-wide portability of
ration card
holders under NFSA through 'One
Nation One Ration Card' System.
the "National Infrastructure Pipeline":
2. This system would largely benefit
1. It is envisaged to facilitate spending $
numerous migratory beneficiaries who
1.4 trillion on infrastructure in the next
frequently
ten years.
change their place.
2. It includes mainly economic and social
3. The facility of inter-State portability is
infrastructure projects.
enabled in all the States.
3. For this the funding would come from
4. This Scheme is being run by Ministry
the centre and states both.
Of Consumer Affairs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (ch8 V2)
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 3 and 4 only B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All of the above
Answer: B  The Economic Cost of food grains
consists of three components, namely,
Explanation:
pooled cost of grains, procurement
 National Infrastructure Pipeline is the incidentals and the cost of distribution.
investment plan unveiled by the
 The pooled cost of food grains is the
Central Government for enhancing
weighted MSP of the stock of food
infrastructure in identified sectors for a
grains available with FCI at the time of
period of five years from 2020-25.
calculating the economic cost.
 The funding of the National
 The economic cost for both wheat and
Infrastructure Pipeline will be jointly
rice witnessed significant increase
made by the Centre, states and the
during the last few years due to
private sector in the proportion of
increase in MSPs and proportionate
39:39:22 (39 % each by the centre and
increase in the incidentals.
states and 22% by the private sector).
 For the next five years (2020-25), $1.4
trillion (Rs 102 lakh crores) will be 25. The overall industrial activity is seen
invested in various social and reduced in this year. Which of the
economic infrastructure projects. It will following is/are the possible factors for
enable a forward outlook on this slump in industrial output?
infrastructure projects which will
create jobs, improve ease of living, and 1. Slower credit flow to MSMEs
provide equitable access to 2. Reduced lending by NBFCs
infrastructure for all, thereby making
growth more inclusive. 3. Tapering of domestic demand
4. Volatility in international crude oil
24. Economic Cost of foodgrains to FCI 5. Trade uncertainties

consists of Select the correct answer using the codes given
1. Pooled cost of grains below. (ch8 v2)
2. Procurement incidentals A. 1 and 2 only
3. Cost of distribution B. 2, 3, and 4 only
4. Rent for storage C. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

(ch7 v2) Answer: D
A. 1 and 2 only Explanation:
B. 1, 2 and 3 only  Overall, IIP growth has moderated to
C. 1, 3 and 4 only 3.8 per cent in 2018-19 compared to 4.4
per cent in 2017-18. During the current
D. All of the above year 2019-20 (April-November), it grew
Answer: B at 0.6 per cent as compared to 5.0 per
cent in the corresponding period of the
Explanation: previous year.
 The moderation in growth is mainly This is a jump of 14 ranks over its
arising from subdued manufacturing previous rank of 77.
activities due to slower credit flow to
 The ranking is based on 10 indicators
medium and small industries, reduced
which span the lifecycle of a business.
lending by NBFCs owing to liquidity
India has improved its rank in 7 out of
crunch, tapering of domestic demand
10 indicators and has moved closer to
for key sectors such as automotive
international best practices.
sector,
pharmaceuticals, and machinery and
equipment, volatility in international
crude oil prices, prevailing trade- 27. The service sector in India accounts for:
related uncertainties, etc. 1. More than 50 percent of total size of the
 Overall, IIP growth has moderated to economy.
3.8 per cent in 2018-19 compared to 4.4 2. Around two-thirds of total FDI inflows
per cent in 2017-18. into India.
3. More than 50 percent of total exports.
26. With reference to the "Ease of Doing Select the correct answer using the code given
Business Report 2020", consider the below.
A. 1 only
1. India's ranking has been increased to
63 among 190 countries from 77 in the B. 2 and 3 only
previous C. 1 and 2 only
year.
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. India has improved its rank in 8 out of
10 indicators. Answer: C
3. This report is published by World Explanation:

Economic Forum annually.  The services sector‘s significance in the
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Indian economy has continued to
(ch8 v2) increase, with the sector now
accounting for around 55 per cent of
A. 1 only total size of the economy and GVA
B. 2 and 3 only growth, two-thirds of total FDI inflows
into India and about 38 per cent of total
C. All of the above exports.
D. None  The share of services sector now
exceeds 50 per cent of Gross State
Answer: A
Value Added in 15 out of the 33· states
Explanation: and UTs, with this share more than 80
per cent in Delhi and Chandigarh.
 The improvement in the business
environment as a result of reforms is
reflected in India's considerably
improved ranking to 63rd position
among the 190 countries in the World regarding Krishi UDAAN scheme
Bank's Doing Business 2020 Report. recently unveiled in the Budget 2020:
1. It primarily aims to transport all operators are extended to selected
agricultural and products and assist airlines to encourage operations from
farmers to enhance value realization of unserved and underserved airports
the products. and keep airfares affordable. As at least
half of the seats in UDAAN flights are
2. It will cover national air-routes only.
offered at subsidised fares, and the
3. It has a special focus on north-east and participating carriers are provided with
tribal districts. a certain amount of viability gap
funding (VGF) -- an amount shared
Which of the statements given above are
between the Centre and the state
correct?
concerned.
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 reference to the telecom sector in India:
D. 3 only 1. The wireless telephony constitutes less
than 90 percent of all subscriptions.
Answer: D
2. The teledensity in rural areas in India
Explanation:
currently stands at more than 70
 The government in the recent Budget percent.
has announced that it will launch 3. The teledensity in urban areas is 100
special railway and flight routes for percent .
easy transportation of perishable farm
produce such as milk, meat, fish etc. Which of the statements given above is/are
under Krishi UDAAN and Kisan Rail correct? (ch8 v2)
scheme.
A. 1 and 2 only
 The Krishi UDAAN scheme launched B. 2 and 3 only
by the Ministry of Civil Aviation will
give farmers better access to both C. All of the above
domestic and international markets. It
D. None
has a special focus for farmers
belonging to the northeast and tribal Answer: D
areas. This scheme aims to effectively
Explanation:
connect them to domestic and global
markets, thus helping them realise the  Total telephone connections in India
true value of the produce. It will also grew by 18.8 per cent from 9,961 lakh
help boost their income and increase in 2014-2015 to 11,834 lakh in 2018-19.
their competitiveness in the market. As on 30 September 2019, the total
subscription stood at 11,943 lakh of
 Regular farmers in the plains are also
which 5,147 lakh connections were in
expected to benefit from the scheme. It
the rural areas and 6,796 lakh in the
is part of the UDAAN Scheme
urban areas. Landline telephone
launched in 2016 to improve regional
connections were at 206 lakh while the
connectivity.
number of wireless telephone
 Under the scheme financial incentives connections stood at 11,736 lakh at the
in terms of concessions from the end of September 2019.
Centre, state governments and airport
 The wireless telephony now constitutes 30. Consider the following statements
98.27 per cent of all subscriptions regarding Public Sector Banks (PSBs) in
whereas share of landline· telephones India:
now stands at only 1.73 per cent. Hence
1. PSBs account for less than half of the
statement 1 is correct.
loans by the Indian banking sector.
 The overall tele-density in India stands
2. Credit growth among PSBs has
at 90.45 per cent, the rural tele-density
consistently declined in the last five
being 57.35 per cent and urban
years.
teledensity being 160.71 per cent at the
end of September 2019. Hence 3. There are presently 15 public sector
statement 2 is not correct. banks in India.
 The private sector dominates with a Which of the statements given above is/are
share of 88.81 per cent (10,606 lakh correct? (ch7 v1)
connections) at the end of September,
A. 1 and 2 only
2019 while the share of public sector
was 11.19 per cent (1,336 lakh B. 2 and 3 only
connections) Internet and broadband
penetration in India has kept a rapid C. 1 and 3 only
pace. D. None
 The number of internet subscribers· Answer: D
(both broadband and narrowband put
together) stood at 6,653 lakh at the end Explanation:
of June 2019 as compared to 2,516 lakh  Public Sector Banks (PSBs) are a major
in 2014. type of bank in India, where a majority
 The number of mobile internet stake (i.e. more than 50%) is held by a
subscribers was 6,436 lakh at the end of government.
June 2019 while the number of wireline  Rest of the shares may be held by retail
internet subscribers was 217 lakh. investors, private institutions, mutual
 Total broadband connections increased funds etc. There are a total of 18 Public
by about ten times, from 610 lakh in Sector Banks alongside 1 state-owned
2014 to 5,946 lakh in June 2019. This Payments Bank in India (India Post·
has accelerated the growth in internet Payments Bank) 10 www.visionias.in
traffic, with data usage touching the ©Vision IAS PSBs account for 70
highest ever level of 462 lakh terabytes percent of the market share in Indian
in the year 2018. banking. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
 India is now the global leader in  Being a public sector bank, the onus of
monthly data consumption, with supporting the Indian economy and
average consumption per subscriber fostering its economic· development
per month increasing 157 times from 62 falls on them. It is reflected in a higher
MB in 2014 to 9.8 GB in June 2019. percentage of bad loans.
 The cost of data has also reduced  PSB contributes about 87% of total bad
substantially, enabling affordable loans.
internet access for millions of citizens.
31. With reference to the Authorized 32. Which of the following countries is the
Economic Operator (AEO) program, largest producer of steel (crude) in the
consider the following statements: world? (ch5 v1)
1. It seeks to enhance international A. US
supply chain security and facilitate the
B. China
movement of legitimate goods.
C. India
2. It is an initiative of the World custom
Organization. D. Japan
Which of the statements given above is/are Answer: B
correct? (ch1 v1)
Explanation: India has replaced Japan as the
A. 1 only world‘s second-largest steel producing
country. In 2019, India stood at the second
B. 2 only
position in the production of crude steel, next
C. Both 1 and 2 only to China. It is· also the third-largest
consumer of the finished steel after China and
D. Neither 1 nor 2
USA. However, its per capital consumption
Answer: C was only 74.1 kg during 2018-19
Explanation:
 Authorized Economic Operator (AEO) 33. With which of the following trading
is a voluntary program under the aegis partners, India currently maintains trade
of the World Customs Organization surplus?
(WCO) SAFE Framework of Standards
1. USA
to secure and facilitate Global Trade.
2. Iraq
 The programme aims to enhance
international supply chain security and 3. United Arab Emirates
facilitate movement of legitimate·
goods. 4. China
 AEO encompasses various players in
below. (ch3 v2)
the International supply chain. Under
this programme, an entity engaged in A. 1 and 3 only
international trade is approved by
Customs as compliant with supply B. 1 and 2 only
chain security standards and granted C. 2 and 4 only
AEO status & certain benefits. It
enables custom authorities to enhance D. 1 only
and streamline cargo security through Answer: A
close cooperation with the principle
stakeholders of the international Explanation: Fig. Given below
supply chain viz. importers, exporters,
logistics providers, custodians or
terminal operators, custom brokers and
warehouse operators.
 The measure of insurance penetration
and density reflects the level of
development of the insurance sector in
a country.
 The market share of private sector
players has increased over the years. In
the non-life insurance sector: o private
companies had a major market share of
54.68 % in FY 19 (as of Jan ‗19).
 In the life insurance sector,· o private
companies had a market share of 33.74
% in FY 19 (as of Jan ‗19), while the rest
majority is shared by the Public sector
Penetration in Life and non-life
Insurance can be observed as:·

regarding the insurance sector in India:
1. While the private sector has a major
market share of life insurance, the
public sector has the majority of the
non- life insurance sector.
2. The penetration of life and non- life
insurance sector has steadily increased
in the last decade.
correct? (ch4 v2)
A. 1 only
35. With reference to the Start-up ecosystem
B. 2 only in India, consider the following
statements:
C. Both 1 and 2
1. Percentage-wise, Maharashtra has the
D. Neither 1 nor 2
maximum share of registered start-ups
Answer:D .
Explanation: 2. As per the industry-wide distribution

of recognized start-ups , Health
 Insurance penetration is measured as Services accounted for the maximum
the percentage of insurance premium number of start-ups .
to GDP, insurance density is calculated
as the ratio of premium to population 3. “Startup India, Stand-up India”
(measured in US$ for convenience of initiative was announced on August 15,
international comparison). 2016.
(ch8 v2)
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
36. Which of the following organisations
C. 1 and 2 publishes the "Energy Transition Index"?
D. None A. World Bank
Answer: A B. World Economic Forum
Explanation: Maharashtra, Karnataka and C. International Energy Agency
Delhi are the top three performers in terms of
State-wise distribution of recognized startups D. International Monetary Fund
in India (Figure 7). As per industry-wise Answer: B
distribution of recognized startups, IT
Services accounted for 13.9 per cent followed Explanation: The global "Energy Transition
by Healthcare and Life Sciences (8.3 per cent) Index" is published by the World Economic
and education. Forum(WEF). It ranks countries on how well
they can balance energy security and access to
environmental sustainability and
affordability. It has ranked 115 economies
covering 40 indicators.
37. With reference to the power generation in

India, consider the following statements:
1. The maximum power is generated by
thermal power plants in India.
2. Percentage-wise, more power is
generated by nuclear plants than by
hydropower plants.
3. Renewable energy resources include
both small as well as large hydro
power plants.
(ch8 v2)
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: The thermal power accounts for
about 63 per cent of total installed capacity.
The renewable energy sources and Government on December 22, 2003,
hydroelectric sources account for about 22.8% and it was made mandatory for Central
and 12. 4 % respectively. Only small hydro Government employees (except armed
power projects come under Renewable energy forces) who join service w.e.f. January
sources. 1, 2004.
 The Scheme was extended to the State
Governments and as of now 28 State
Governments have notified NPS for
their employees.
 The Scheme was extended to all
citizens of the country voluntarily from
May 2009. Till September 30, 2019, a
total of around 3.06 crore subscribers
(including Atal Pension Yojana) have
been enrolled under NPS.
 Within the government, Uttar Pradesh
has a maximum number of subscribers
followed by Madhya Pradesh,
Rajasthan, and Maharashtra.
39. With reference to the Migration Report

2019, consider the following statements:
1. China is the top remittance recipient
38. Consider the following statements about country in 2018.
the National Pension Scheme (NPS): 2. India is the leading country of origin of
1. All citizens can voluntarily enrol into international migrants in 2019 with a
the scheme. diaspora
strength of 17.5 million.
2. Andhra Pradesh has a maximum
number of subscribers. 3. This report is published
by International Organization for
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Migration.
(ch4 v2)
A. 1 only (ch3 v2)
B. 2 only A. 1 and 3 only
C. Both 1 and 2 B. 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2 C. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A D. All of the above
Explanation: Answer: B
 The New Pension Scheme, now Explanation: The Migration Report 2019
renamed as National Pension System released by the United Nations has placed
(NPS) was introduced by the India as the leading country of origin of
international migrants in 2019 with a diaspora 4. Rajasthan
strength of 17.5 million. Further, as per the
5. Punjab
October 2019 report of World Bank, India
remained the top remittance recipient country Select the correct answer using the codes given
in 2018, followed by China, Mexico, the below.
Philippines and Egypt.
A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 only
40. Which of the following countries is/are
C. 1 only
the members of the Asia Pacific Trade
Agreement (APTA)? D. 1, 3, 4, and 5
1. Bangladesh Answer: D
2. China Explanation:
3. India  The entrepreneurial activity in the
Manufacturing sector is highest in the
4. North Korea
regions of Gujarat,
5. Sri Lanka Meghalaya, Puducherry, Punjab and
Rajasthan. Within Gujarat, the most
6. US
entrepreneurially active districts in the
Select the correct answer using the codes given Manufacturing sector are
below. (ch3 v2) Surendranagar, Rajkot, Bhavnagar and
Surat.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
 Establishments in these regions are
B. 1, 2, 3, 5 only
focused on textiles, chemicals, metals,
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only plastics, and pharmaceuticals
manufacturing.
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
 The nature of establishments in each of
Answer: B these regions attests to agglomeration
Explanation: The Asia-Pacific Trade economies documented by prior
Agreement (APTA), was signed in 1975. It is research in the Indian manufacturing
the oldest preferential trade agreement sector.
between countries in the Asia-Pacific region.
Seven Participating States- Bangladesh, China,
India, Lao PDR, Mongolia, Republic of Korea, 42. Which of the following is/are the
and Sri Lanka are the parties to the APTA. characteristics of the "Pro-
Crony" Economy?
1. Some incumbent firms may receive
41. As per the latest Economic Survey, preferential treatment.
entrepreneurial activity in the
Manufacturing sector is highest in the 2. Resource allocation in the economy
regions of may be efficient.
1. Gujarat 3. Citizens' welfare measured are

maximized.
2. Maharashtra
4. Governments sometimes may use
3. Puducherry quotas or tariffs to limit imports.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 43. With reference to the importance of coal
below. in the Indian economy, consider the
A. 1 and 4 only
1. India has the fourth largest coal
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
reserves in the world.
C. 2 and 3 only
2. Coal meets more than half of India's
D. 1, 2 and 3 energy requirements.
Answer: A 3. Largest coal reserve in the world is
with Russia.
Explanation:
 Under 'Cronyism', the government rigs (ch3 v1)
the market for the benefit of
government officials' cronies. This A. 1 and 3 only
takes various forms. Governments
B. 2 only
sometimes grant monopolies to one
firm or limit the number of firms that C. 2 and 3 only
can compete.
D. 1 and 2 only
 Governments sometimes use quotas or
Answer: B
tariffs to limit imports to protect the
wealth and jobs of domestic producers Explanation: India has the fifth largest coal
who compete with those imports. reserves in the world behind USA, Russia,
China, and Australia. Coal is the most
 Governments sometimes subsidize
important indigenous source of energy for
favoured producers or may use
India; it meets more than half of India’s
antitrust laws to prevent companies
energy requirements.
from cutting prices so that other, less-
efficient companies can prosper.
 Characteristics of Pro-Crony policy 44. In the context of the economy, the term
are as follows- "Dutch Disease" is seen in the news
 Some incumbent firms may receive
sometimes. Consider the following
preferential treatment. statements about it:
 Resource allocation in the economy

1. It describes an economic phenomenon
may not be efficient. where the rapid development of one
sector of the economy (particularly
 Citizens' welfare may not be natural resources) precipitates a decline
maximized in other sectors.
 Pro-crony policies, in contrast to pro- 2. It is also often characterized by a
business ones, erode wealth in the substantial appreciation of the
economy as cronyism fosters domestic currency.
inefficiencies by inhibiting the process
of creative destruction.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2 45. Consider the following statements about
the " Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay
Answer: C
Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA)":
Explanation: Dutch disease is a concept that (ch11 v1)
describes an economic phenomenon
1. It is aimed towards ensuring
where the rapid development of one sector
remunerative prices to farmers for their
of the economy (particularly natural
produce.
resources) precipitates a decline in other
sectors. It is also often characterized by 2. Under Price Support Scheme (PSS),
substantial appreciation of the domestic physical procurement of pulses,
currency. Dutch disease is a paradoxical oilseeds and Copra is done by state
situation where good news for one sector of Nodal Agencies with the proactive role
the economy, such as the discovery of of central government.
natural resources, results in a negative impact
on the country‘s overall economy. Hence 3. PM-AASHA, covers only two sub-
option (b) is the correct answer. scheme i.e. Price Support Scheme
(PSS), Price Defciency Payment Scheme
 The term Dutch disease was coined by (PDPS).
The Economist magazine in 1977 when
the publication analyzed a crisis that Which of the above statements is/are correct?
occurred in The Netherlands after the A. 2 and 3 only
discovery of vast natural gas deposits
in the North Sea in 1959. The B. 1 and 3
newfound wealth and massive exports C. 1 and 2 only
of oil caused the value of the Dutch
guilder to rise sharply, making Dutch D. 1 only
exports of all non-oil products less Answer: D
competitive on the world market.
Explanation:
 Dutch disease exhibits the following
two chief economic effects:  The " Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay
Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA,
 It decreases the price launched in 2018, covers three sub-
competitiveness of exports of the scheme i.e. Price Support Scheme
affected country's manufactured goods. (PSS), Price Deficiency Payment
 It increases imports. Scheme (PDPS) and Pilot of Private
Procurement & Stockist Scheme
 Both phenomena result from a higher (PDPS). Under PSS, physical
local currency. procurement of pulses, oilseeds and
 In the long run, these factors can Copra is done by Central Nodal
contribute to unemployment, as Agencies with the proactive role of
manufacturing jobs move to lower- State governments.
cost countries. Meanwhile, non  PDPS covers all oilseeds for which
resource-based industries suffer due to MSP is notified. Under this, direct
the increased wealth generated payment of the difference between the
by resource-based industries. MSP and the selling/modal price is
made to pre-registered farmers selling
his produce in the notified market yard
through a transparent auction process.
It is aimed towards ensuring  Using the annual earnings of an
remunerative prices to farmers for their average industrial worker, it is found
produce, the government has taken an that affordability of vegetarian Thalis
unprecedented step. improved 29 per cent from 2006-07 to
2019-20 while that for nonvegetarian
 The recent scheme is expected to
Thalis improved by 18 per cent. In
complement the increase in MSP which
2019-20 (April-October, 2019), the most
will be translated to farmer's income by
affordable Thali was in Jharkhand; two
way of robust procurement mechanism
vegetarian Thalis for a household of
in coordination with the states.
five in Jharkhand required about 25 per
cent of a worker's daily wage. Non-
vegetarian Thali was also most
46. With reference to the food price inflation affordable in Jharkhand.
in India, consider the following
statements:
1. The absolute prices of a vegetarian 47. With reference to India's banking sector,
Thali have decreased significantly since consider the following statements:
2015-16 though the price has increased
1. India has two banks in the global top
in 2019.
100.
2. In 2019-20, the most affordable
2. The Public Sector Banks (PSBs) account
vegetarian, as well as non-vegetarian
for 70 per cent of the market share in
thali, was in Tamil Nadu.
banking.
3. The credit growth among PSBs has
(ch11 v1)
increased significantly since 2013.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
A. 1 and 3 only
C. Both 1 and 2
B. 2 only
D. Neither 1 nor 2
C. 2 and 3 only
Answer: A
D. All of the above
Explanation:
Answer: A
 Both across India and the four regions
Explanation: In 2019, India completed the 50th
– North, South, East and West – it is
anniversary of bank nationalization. Since
found that the absolute prices of a
1969, India has grown significantly to become
vegetarian Thali have decreased
the 5th largest economy in the world. Yet,
significantly since 2015-16 though the
India's banking sector is disproportionately
price has increased in 2019.
under-developed given the size of its
 As a result, an average household of economy. For instance, India has only one
five individuals that eat two vegetarian bank in the global top 100. As PSBs account
Thalis a day gained around `10887 on for 70 per cent of the market share in Indian
average per year while a non- banking, the onus of
vegetarian household gained `11787, supporting the Indian economy and fostering
on average, per year. its economic development falls on them.
 In 1998 the government-appointed yet
another committee under the
chairmanship of Mr Narsimham. It is
better known as the Banking Sector
Committee. It was told to review the
banking reform progress and design a
programme for further strengthening
the financial system of India.
 The committee focused on various
areas such as capital adequacy, bank
mergers, bank legislation, etc.
 The Raghuram Rajan Committee on
Financial Sector Reforms was a
committee constituted by the
Government of India in 2007 for
proposing the next generation of
financial sector reforms in India.
48. Which of the following committees were
 Kelkar committee to evaluate PPP in
related to the banking sector?
India was a committee set up to study
1. Narasimhan Committee and evaluate the extant public-private
partnership (PPP) model in India. The
2. Rang Rajan Committee
committee was set up by India's central
3. Kelkar Committee government and headed by Vijay
Kelkar.
below. (ch7 v1)
A. 1 only 49. Which of the following could be the
possible factors for India being favoured
B. 1 and 2 only
by multinational firms as a lucrative
C. 2 and 3 only destination for final assembly of
industrial products vis-a-vis China?
D. 1, 2, and 3
1. US-China trade war
Answer: B
2. Labour shortage in India
Explanation:
3. Wage increase in China
 The Government of India appointed a
nine-member committee headed by M. 4. High export duties from India
Narasimham, the former Governor of
RBI on August 14, 1991. below. (ch5 v1)
 The committee was appointed to A. 1 and 3 only
review the working of the commercial
banks and other financial institutions B. 2, 3 and 4 only
of the country and to suggest measures
C. 2 and 3 only
to remodel these institutions for raising
their efficiency. D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: A
Explanation: 1994. Its full members are Argentina,
Brazil, Paraguay and Uruguay.
 The US-China trade war is causing
major adjustments in Global Value  Venezuela was a full member but has
Chains (GVCs) and firms are now been suspended since 1 December
looking for alternative locations for 2016. Associate countries are Bolivia,
their operations. Even before the trade Chile, Colombia, Ecuador, Guyana,
war began, China's image as a low-cost Peru and Suriname. Observer countries
location for final assembly of industrial are New Zealand and Mexico. India
products was rapidly changing due to has signed a free trade agreement with
labour shortages and increases in MERCOSUR in 2009.
wages.
 These developments present India an
unprecedented opportunity to chart a
the "Shadow Banking":
similar export trajectory as that
pursued by China and create 1. Shadow banks do not have explicit
unparalleled job opportunities for its access to central bank liquidity.
youth. As no other country can match
China in the abundance of its labour, 2. They operate outside the traditional
India must grab the space getting commercial banking sector.
vacated in labour-intensive sectors. 3. Cooperative banking system is an
example of Shadow Banking system.
50. Which of the following is/are the member
countries of the MERCOSUR trade bloc? A. 1 and 2 only
1. Uruguay B. 2 and 3 only
2. Paraguay C. 3 only
3. Argentina D. None
4. China Answer: C
5. USA Explanation:
Select the correct answer using the codes given  Shadow banking comprises a set of
below. (ch4 v1) activities, markets, contracts and
A. 1, 4 and 5 only institutions that operate partially (or
fully) outside the traditional
B. 1, 2, and 3 only commercial banking sector and are
either lightly regulated or not
C. 4 and 5 only
regulated at all.
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
A shadow banking system can be

Answer: B composed of a single entity that
intermediates between end-suppliers
Explanation:
and end-users of funds, or it could
 Mercosur, officially Southern Common involve multiple entities forming a
Market, is a South American trade bloc chain". Shadow banks do not have
established by the Treaty of Asunción explicit access to central bank
in 1991 and Protocol of Ouro Preto in liquidity.
 The shadow banking system is highly on the asset-liability mismatch of
levered with risky and illiquid assets Retail-NBFCs.
while its liabilities disposed to "bank
runs".
53. With reference to the "Index of Economic
Freedom", consider the following
52. Consider the following statements: statements:
1. Housing Finance Corporations (HFCs) 1. It is published by the International
hold much longer duration assets as Monetary Fund (IMF).
compared to Retail-NBFCs, which hold
2. India has ranked at 129th among 186
medium-term assets.
countries in 2019.
2. Asset side shocks cause a significant
3. It is published biennially.
deterioration in the asset-liability
mismatch of the HFCs, but they induce Which of the above statements is/are correct?
less of an adverse impact on the asset-
A. 1 and 2 only
liability mismatch of Retail NBFCs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? B. 2 only
A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only D. All of the above
C. Both 1 and 2 Answer: B
D. Neither 1 nor 2 Explanation: The Index of Economic Freedom

is an annual index and ranking created in
Answer: C 1995 by The Heritage Foundation and The
Wall Street Journal to measure the degree of
Explanation:
economic freedom in the world's nations. In
 The drivers of Rollover Risk differ the Index of Economic Freedom, India was
between HFCs and Retail-NBFCs are categorized as 'mostly unfree' with a score of
demonstrated first due to the following 55.2 in 2019 ranking the Indian economy
reasons. First, HFCs hold much longer 129th among 186 countries, i.e., in the bottom
duration assets (housing loans, 30 per cent of countries.
developer loans etc.,) as compared to
Retail-NBFCs, which hold medium-
term assets (auto, consumer durables, 54. Which of the following item/s come
gold loans, etc.,). under the purview of the Essential
Commodities Act, 1955:
 HFCs face a greater gap between the
average maturity of their assets and 1. Petroleum products
liabilities, as compared to Retail-
NBFCs, which typically provide loans 2. Onion
of shorter duration in the form of 3. Drugs
working capital loans to MSME,
automobile financing loans or gold 4. Jute
loans. Thus, asset side shocks cause a 5. Seeds of food crops
significant deterioration in the asset-
liability mismatch of the HFCs, but 6. Alcohol
they induce less of an adverse impact
below.
55. Drug Price Control Order (DPCO)" is
A. 1, 2, 4 and 6 only often is seen in the news. Consider the
following statements about it:
B. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
1. It specifies the list of drugs that come
C. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only
under the price ceiling and the formula
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 only for calculating the ceiling price.
Answer: D 2. National Pharmaceutical Pricing
Explanation:
fixing and revising the prices of
 Essential Commodities Act (ECA), 1955 pharmaceutical products as well as the
was enacted to control the production, enforcement of the DPCO.
supply and distribution of, and trade
3. It comes under the control of Ministry
and commerce in, certain goods
of Consumer Affairs.
considered as essential commodities.
 The Act itself does not lay out Rules
and Regulations but allows the States A. 1 and 3
to issue Control Orders related to
B. 1 and 2
dealer licensing, regulate stock limits,
restrict the movement of goods and C. 3 only
requirements of compulsory purchases
D. None
under the system of the levy.
Answer: C
 The major commodity groups
included in the Act are- Explanation:
 Petroleum and its products,  The Drugs Prices Control Order
including petrol, diesel, kerosene, (DPCO) is an order issued under Sec. 3
Naphtha, solvents etc of the Essential Commodities Act
(ECA), 1955 that seeks to regulate the
 Foodstuff, including edible oil and
prices of pharmaceutical drugs.
seeds, vanaspati, pulses, sugarcane
and its products like Khansari and  The DPCO, among other things,
sugar, rice paddy specifies the list of drugs that come
under the price ceiling and the formula
 Raw Jute and jute textiles
for calculating the ceiling price.
 Drugs- prices of essential drugs are
 The National List of Essential
still controlled by the DPCO
Medicines (NLEM) lists the
 Fertilisers- the Fertiliser Control pharmaceutical drugs that fall under
Order prescribes restrictions on price control.
transfer and stock of fertilizers apart
 National Pharmaceutical Pricing
from prices
 Onion and Potato fixing and revising the prices of
pharmaceutical products as well as the
 Seeds of food crops, fruits and
enforcement of the DPCO and this
vegetables, cattle fodder, Jute seeds
body works under Ministry of
and Cotton seeds
Chemicals and Fertilizers.
3. Markets can help to bring competition
in economy.
56. With reference to the "Corruption
Perception Index", consider the following Select the correct answer using the codes given
statements: below. (ch4 v1)
1. It is released by the "Transparency A. 1 and 3 only

International".
B. 3 only
2. Since 2013, India has improved
C. 1 and 2 only
significantly on this index.
D. All of the above
3. It measures Corruption in both public
as well as private sector. Answer: B
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Explanation: Markets cannot Provide public
(ch1 v1) goods, prevent abuse of monopoly power,
internalize externalities, overcome
A. 1 and 2 only
information asymmetry, distribute wealth
B. 1 and 3 only equitably and ensure ethical practices.
Markets can keep prices in check, use
C. 2 and 3 only
resources efficiently, encourage innovation,
D. All of the above increase consumer choice, create wealth and
maximize aggregate welfare.
Answer: A
Explanation:
58. Which of the following is/are the impact
 The Corruption Perceptions Index of the blanket debt waivers?
(CPI) is an index published annually by
Transparency International since 1995 1. Disruption of credit culture
which ranks countries "by their
2. Reduction of the formal credit flow
perceived levels of public sector
corruption, as determined by expert 3. Full debt waiver is good as compare to
assessments and opinion surveys. partial debt waiver for farmers.
 " The corruption perception index, Select the correct answer using the codes given
which Transparency International below.
tracks across countries, shows India at
A. 1 and 2 only
its lowest point in recent years in 2011.
Since 2013, India has improved B. 2 and 3 only
significantly on this index.
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: A
strengths of the markets?
Explanation:
1. Markets cannot prevent the abuse of
monopoly power.  Analysis of debt waivers given by
States/Centre shows that full waiver
2. Markets cannot distribute public
beneficiaries consume less, save less,
goods.
invest less and are less productive after
the waiver when compared to the agriculture is a seasonal activity, it is
partial beneficiaries. essential to store produce for the off-
season to ensure smoothened
 The share of formal credit decreases for
availability of a product at stable prices
full beneficiaries when compared to
throughout the year. Therefore,
partial beneficiaries, thereby defeating
producers face an inherent tradeoff
the very purpose of the debt waiver
between building an inventory in the
provided to farmers.
harvest season and drawing down
 It is clear from the studies that an inventory in the lean season.
unconditional and blanket debt waiver
 ECA interferes with this mechanism by
is a bad idea. It does not achieve any
disincentivising investments in
meaningful real outcomes for the
warehousing and storage facilities due
intended beneficiaries while the costs
to frequent and unpredictable
to the exchequer are significant.
imposition of stock limits. As stock
 Most importantly, debt waivers disrupt holding limits apply to the entire
the credit culture and end up reducing agriculture supply chain, including
the formal credit flow to the very same wholesalers, food processing industries
farmers it intends to help. and retail food chains, the Act does not
distinguish between firms that
genuinely need to hold stocks owing to
59. Which of the distortions in the the nature of their operations, and
agricultural market that are caused due to firms that might speculatively hoard
the imposition of the Essential stocks. Further, this reduces the
Commodity Act, 1955? effectiveness of free trade and the flow
of commodities from surplus areas to
1. It weakens the development of markets with higher demand.
agricultural value chain.
 ECA also affects the commodity
2. It reduces the producers' profit. derivative markets as traders may not
3. It inhibits the development of vibrant be able to deliver on the exchange
commodity derivative markets. platform the promised quantity, owing
to stock limits.
4. It reduces the incentive to invest in
storage.  The Act distorts markets by increasing
uncertainty and discouraging the entry
Select the incorrect answer using the codes given of large private sector players into
below. agricultural-marketing. These market
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only distortions further aggravate the price
volatility in agricultural commodities-
B. 2, 3 and 4 only the opposite of what it is intended for.
C. 1 and 4 only
D. None 60. Which of the following is/are the
Answer: D characteristics of the "Wilful Defaulter":
Explanation: 1. It is a firm that has defaulted in

meeting its repayment obligations even
 The ECA, however, affects the efficient though it can honour these obligations.
development of agricultural markets
by creating market distortions. As
2. It uses the funds for purposes other 3. Mutual Funds are allowed to invest in
than what is sanctioned by the lender. REITs while Banks are not.
3. The person don’t attend the Which of the statements given above is/are
proceedings before the authorities. correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given A. 1 only
below.
B. 1 and 2 only
A. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
Answer: B
D. All of the above
Explanation:
Answer: D
 Recently, Blackstone Group along with
Explanation: Embassy Office Parks has filed India’s
first and Asia’s largest prospectus for
 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT).
defines wilful defaulter as a firm that
has defaulted in meeting its repayment  A REIT works very much like a mutual
obligations even though it can honour fund. It pools funds from investors
these obligations. and invests them in rent-generating
properties. REITs are investment
 A firm could also be branded a wilful
vehicles that own, operate and manage
defaulter if it uses the funds for
a portfolio of income-generating
purposes other than what is sanctioned
properties for regular returns. These
by the lender, siphons the money out
are usually commercial
to related parties or removes the assets
properties (offices, shopping centers,
used to secure the loan.
hotels etc.) that generate rental income.
 Wilful default occurs when firms take
 REITs are regulated by the securities
loans, divert the proceeds out of the
market regulator in India- Securities
firm for the personal benefit of owners,
and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In
default on loans and declare
September 2014, SEBI notified the SEBI
bankruptcy, thereby expropriating a
(Real Estate Investment trusts)
range of stakeholders – lenders,
Regulations, 2014 for providing a
minority shareholders, employees,
framework for registration and
regulators and state coffers.
regulation of REITs in India.
 Markets regulator Securities and
61. Consider the following statements about Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has
Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs): been easing rules to make REITs more
attractive to investors. In January 2017,
1. They raise funds from a large number the markets regulator
of investors and directly invest in real permitted mutual funds to invest in
estate properties. REITs.
2. SEBI has regulatory jurisdiction over  The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) further
REITs. allowed banks to invest in
such investment trusts following a
request from the markets regulator. initiative and to boost India’s economic
Another such trust for investment growth.
is InvITs (infrastructure investment
 It introduces the concept of Exclusive
trusts). InvITs are trusts that manage
Mining Zones which will come with in-
income-generating infrastructure
principle statutory
assets, typically offering investors
clearances for grant of mining lease.
regular yield and a liquid method of
investing in infrastructure projects.  The policy intends to incentivise
exploration to attract private
investments as well as state-of-the-art
62. Which of the following is/are incorrect technology, within the ambit of auction
with reference to the National Mineral regime, through Right of First Refusal
Policy 2019? at the time of auction or seamless
transition from Reconnaissance permit
1. It pertains to all major and
to Prospecting Licence to Mining
minor minerals, including coal-based
Leases or auctioning of composite
and other fuel-based minerals.
Reconnaissance permit cum
2. It introduces the concept of Prospecting License cum Mining Lease
Exclusive Mining Zones which come in virgin areas on revenue sharing
with inprinciple statutory clearances basis or any other appropriate
for grant of mining lease. incentive as per international practice.
3. It provides for the right of first refusal  Some of its other proposals include:
to the Prospecting Licence holders at
 Proposes to identify critically fragile
the time of auction.
ecosystems and declare such areas as
Select the correct answer using the code given “no-go areas”/ “inviolate areas”.
below.
 Encourages merger and acquisition of
A. 1 only mining entities, and transfer of mining
leases that have been granted in a
B. 1 and 2 only
transparent manner to ensure seamless
C. 2 and 3 only supply of ores and scaling up of
business.
D. 1, 2 and 3
 Focuses on a long term export-import
Answer: A policy for the mineral sector to
Explanation: provide stability for investing in large
scale commercial mining activity.
 In March 2019, the Indian government
has come up with a new National  Proposes harmonising royalty and all
Mineral Policy (NMP) that replaced the other levies and taxes with mining
earlier 2008 Policy. The latest mineral jurisdiction across the world.
policy, which pertains to non-coal and  Emphasises on ensuring welfare of
non-fuel minerals, says that a major mining-affected people / communities
outcome expected from the policy and ensuring rehabilitation and
proposals is to “increase the resettlement, by suitable
production of major minerals by 200 implementation of all relevant Acts /
per cent in 7 years”. The target is tied Rules.
to the Government’s Make in India
 Introduces the concept of Inter-  Establishment of Village level
Generational Equity in mineral Integrated Indigenous Cattle Centres
resource exploitation. viz “Gokul Gram”: i) in the breeding
tracts and ii) near metropolitan cities
for housing the urban cattle.
63. With reference to the "Rashtriya
 “Gopalan Sangh”: to establishment
Gokul Mission", consider the following
Breeder‟s Societies
statements:
 Award to Farmers (“Gopal Ratna”) and
1. It seeks to improve indigenous
Breeders‟ Societies (“Kamadhenu”)
livestock breeds through crossbreeding
with foreign breeds.  Dairy Entrepreneurship Development
Scheme
2. It provides subsidized credit to
promote the setting up of modern  This is a credit-linked subsidy scheme
dairy farms. of government to promote the setting
up of modern dairy
farms.
is/are correct?
 The applicant/entrepreneur has to
A. 1 only
make arrangements for a minimum
B. 2 only 10% of the total money needed for
setting up a modern dairy farm. For
C. Both 1 and 2
rest, the government provides 25%
D. Neither 1 nor 2 capital subsidy (33.33% for SC/ST) and
the remaining amount is provided as a
Answer: B loan (minimum 40%) by the
Explanation: Commercial Banks, Cooperative Banks,
Regional Rural Banks and Urban
 Rashtriya Gokul Mission‟ (RGM) Banks.
 It is a part of Centrally Sponsored  The nodal implementation agency for
Scheme “National Programme for this scheme is NABARD.
Bovine Breeding and
Dairy Development”.
 It is aimed at conservation and 64. Regarding the 'Financial Support to
development of indigenous bovine MSMEs in ZED Certification Scheme',
breeds. consider the following statements:
 It seeks to undertake breed 1. It certifies MSMEs based on the

improvement programme for quality of manufacturing and energy
indigenous breeds so as to improve efficiency.
the genetic makeup and increase the 2. It applies only to the
stock. It does not seek cross breeding manufacturing units.
with foreign breeds.
 It is implemented through the “State is/are incorrect?
Implementing Agency (SIA viz
Livestock Development Boards) A. 1 only
 Rashtriya Gokul Mission has the B. 2 only

following components:
C. Both 1 and 2 1. Monitoring the disinvestment in
central PSU’s.
D. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Formulation of FDI policy and
Answer: D
its regulation.
Explanation: Financial Support to MSMEs in
3. Formulation of policies relating
ZED Certification Scheme:
to various Intellectual Property
 It seeks to inculcate Zero Defect & Zero Rights (IPRs).
Effect practices in manufacturing
processes, ensure continuous
below.
improvement and supporting the Make
in India initiative. The scheme is an A. 1 only
extensive drive of the Government of
B. 2 and 3 only
India to enhance the global
competitiveness of MSMEs by C. 1 and 3 only
providing them financial support in
D. 1, 2 and 3
assessment, rating & handholding of its
manufacturing processes on Answer: B
quality and environment aspects.
Explanation:The Department of Industrial
 It seeks to promote the adaptation of Policy and Promotion (DIPP) has been
Quality tools/systems and Energy renamed as the Department for Promotion of
Efficient manufacturing. Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) with a
mandate to deal with matters related to start-
 It is under the purview of Ministry of
ups, facilitating ease of doing business
Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises,
among others
Govt. of India
 DIPP (under the Ministry of
 The ZED Scheme will be implemented
Commerce and Industry) was
nationwide through Implementing
established in 1995 and reconstituted in
Agencies such as QCI, NPC, Industry
the year 2000 with the merger of the
Chambers like CII, FICCI &
Department of Industrial
ASSOCHAM, MSME-Development
Development.
Institutes, MSME Technology Centres,
Industry Associations, BEE, etc.  Functions of this body include:
 ZED Certification is not mandatory by  Formulation of industrial policy and
the Government; it is a voluntary strategies
scheme which will provide the MSMEs
 Monitoring of industrial growth
a road map to global competitiveness.
 Formulation of FDI policy and its
 The ZED Certification Scheme covers
regulation
only, the MSME sectors belonging to
the manufacturing sector.  Formulation of policies relating to
various Intellectual Property Rights
(IPRs)
65. Which of the following are functions
 Coordinates with UN Industrial
of the Department for Promotion of
Development Organization
Industry and Internal trade (DPIIT)?
 Administers Laws: The Explosives
Act, 1884; The Salt Cess Act, 1953; The
Patent Act, 1970; The Boilers Act, 1923 can take up projects based on the
etc. District/State Irrigation Plan.
 All the States and Union Territories
including North Eastern States are
covered under the programme.
regarding Pradhan Mantri Krishi
Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY):  The National Steering Committee
(NSC) of PMKSY under the
1. It follows a centralized approach
chairmanship of Hon’ble Prime
where project planning is done at the
Minister, will provide policy direction
central level.
to programme framework and a
2. It covers selected states and National Executive Committee (NEC)
union territories. under the chairmanship of Vice
Chairman of NITI Aayog will oversee
3. The primary objective of the scheme the programme implementation
is to achieve convergence of at national level.
investments in irrigation at the field
level.  PMKSY has been formulated
amalgamating ongoing schemes viz.
Accelerated Irrigation
is/are correct?
Benefit Programme (AIBP) of Ministry
A. 3 only of Water Resources, River
Development & Ganga
B. 2 only Rejuvenation; Integrated Watershed
C. 1 and 3 only Management Programme (IWMP) of
Department of Land Resources; and On
D. 1, 2 and 3 Farm Water Management (OFWM)
Answer: A component of National Mission on
Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)
Explanation: About PRADHAN MANTRI of Department of Agriculture and
KRISHI SINCHAYEE YOJANA Cooperation.
 To achieve convergence of investments
in irrigation at the field level,
67. With reference to the recently launched
 To enhance the recharge of aquifers PM (AASHA) , which of the following
and introduce sustainable water statements is/are correct?
conservation practices.
1. It provides minimum income support
 To explore the feasibility of reusing to small and marginal farmers.
treated municipal wastewater for
periurban agriculture 2. It allows private participation in
the procurement of various crops at
 PMKSY is to be implemented in an MSP.
area development approach, adopting
decentralized state-level planning and 3. Price Support Scheme (PSS and Price
project execution, allowing the states to Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS) are
draw their irrigation development the only components under this
plans based on district/blocks plans scheme.
with a horizon of 5 to 7 years. States Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
A. 1 and 2 only  Pilot of Private Procurement &
Stockist Scheme (PPPS)- In the case of
B. 2 and 3 only
oilseeds, States will have the
C. 2 only option to roll out PPSSs in select
districts. A private player can procure
D. All of the above crops at MSP when market prices drop
Answer: C below MSP. The private player will
then be compensated through a service
Explanation: PM - AASHA (Pradhan charge that will be up to a maximum of
Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan) 15 per cent of the MSP of the crop.
 The Scheme is aimed at ensuring  Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman
remunerative prices to the farmers for Nidhi is another initiative by the
their produce. The AASHA scheme government of India in which all small
tries to address the gaps in the MSP and marginal farmers will get up to
system and give better returns to ₹6,000 per year as minimum income
farmers. These three components will support.
complement the existing schemes of
the Department of Food and Public
Distribution. They relate to paddy, 68. ASPIRE scheme often seen in news
wheat, and other cereals and coarse is related to:
grains where procurement is at MSP
now. A. Providing skill training and
enhancing the employability of
 The three components outlined under unemployed youth of Jammu and
the scheme is thus aimed towards Kashmir.
enhancing agricultural productivity,
reducing the cost of cultivation which B. Financially incentivizing families
will enable boosting and securing for better upbringing and education of
farmer’s income in the long run. the girl child.
 Price Support Scheme (PSS) - Here, C. Providing free coaching to students

physical procurement of pulses, with disabilities to enable them to
oilseeds and copra will be done by appear in various competitive exams.
Central Nodal Agencies. Besides
D. Accelerating entrepreneurship
NAFED, Food Cooperation of India
and promote start up for innovation in
will also take up procurement of crops
rural and agriculture-based industry.
under PSS. The expenditure and losses
due to procurement will be borne by Answer: D
the Centre.
Explanation:
 Price Deficiency Payment Scheme
 A Scheme For Promoting Innovation,
(PDPS) Under this, the Centre
Rural Industry & Entrepreneurship
proposes to cover all oilseeds and pay
(ASPIRE) has been launched by the
the farmer directly into his bank
Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium
account the difference between the
Enterprises with an objective to set up
MSP and his actual selling/modal
a network of technology centers,
price. Farmers who sell their crops in
incubation centers to accelerate
recognised mandis within the notified
entrepreneurship and also to promote
period can benefit from it.
start-ups for innovation and
entrepreneurship in the rural and mothers by providing a package of six
agriculture-based industry. services comprising
 In order to promote innovation, rural  Supplementary nutrition;
entrepreneurship and agricultural
 Immunization;
industry, SIDBI launched a Rs 60 crore
ASPIRE fund. Through this SIDBI  Health check-up;
would contribute to various angel/
 Referral services;
venture capital funds for investing in
start-ups/ early-stage enterprises  Pre-school non-formal education; and
focusing on value addition in the rural
economy and job creation.  Nutrition & health education are
provided to the targeted beneficiaries
i.e. all children below 6 years, Pregnant
and Lactating Mothers.
69. With reference to the Integrated
Child Development Services (ICDS)  Three of the six services namely
scheme, consider the following Immunisation, Health Check-up and
statements: Referral Services are delivered through
Public Health Infrastructure under the
1. It aims to improve the nutritional
Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
and health status of children in the age-
The Supplementary Nutrition (SNP) is
group of 6-14 years.
given to the children (6 months – 6
2. Pregnant and lactating mothers form years) and pregnant women &
a target group of the scheme. lactating mothers under the ICDS
Scheme.
3. District health centers are used
for providing all services under the  Convergence is one of the key features
Scheme. of the ICDS Scheme. This convergence
is in-built in the Scheme which
provides a platform in the form of
are incorrect?
Anganwadi Centres (rural areas) for
A. 1, 2 and 3 providing all services under the
Scheme.
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
70. Which of the following statements is
D. 2 and 3 only
not correct about Pradhan Mantri Shram
Answer: C Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana (PM-SYM)?
Explanation: A. The scheme is for unorganized
sector workers only.
 Integrated Child Development Services
[ICDS] Scheme is a centrally sponsored B. Subscribers to the scheme are assured
scheme being implemented by the of a monthly pension of Rs. 6000
State Governments/UT per month after they reach 60 years
Administrations. age.
 The scheme aims at holistic C. Equal contribution is made by
development of children below 6 years the subscriber and the Central
of age, pregnant women and lactating Government.
D. The contributions from workers  Matching contribution by the Central
per month will change depending on Government: PMSYM is a voluntary
the applicant's age. and contributory pension scheme on a
50:50 basis where prescribed age-
Answer: B
specific contribution shall be made
Explanation: PM SHRAM-YOGI by the beneficiary and the matching
MAANDHAN YOJANA: Its Objective: To contribution by the Central
provide a pension to the unorganized sector. Government.
 Intended Beneficiaries:  The contributions from workers per
month will change depending on the
 Unorganized workers whose monthly
applicant's age.
income is Rs 15,000/ per month or less
and belong to the entry age group of
18-40 years are eligible for the scheme.
 They should not be covered under the regarding the recently launched Trade
New Pension Scheme (NPS), Receivables Discounting System (TReDS)
Employees’ State Scheme?
Insurance Corporation (ESIC) scheme
1. It seeks to address the financing needs
or Employees’ Provident Fund
of MSMEs as well as the delayed
Organisation (EPFO).
payments issue.
 Further, he/she should not be an
2. It is an initiative of NITI Aayog.
income taxpayer.
3. Companies whose turnover exceeds Rs
 Salient Features:
200 crores will have to be registered on
 Pension: They shall receive a minimum the TReDS platform.
assured pension of Rs 3000/- per
month after the age of 60 years.
is/are incorrect?
 In case of death during the receipt of a
A. 1 only
pension, his/her spouse shall be
entitled to receive 50% of the pension B. 2 and 3 only
received by the beneficiary as a family
C. 1 and 2 only
pension
D. None
 In case of death before 60 years of age,
his/her spouse will be entitled to join Answer: B
and continue the scheme subsequently
Explanation: TReDS refers to Trade
by payment of regular contribution or
Receivable Discounting System. It is an online
exit the scheme as per provisions of
electronic platform and an institutional
exit and withdrawal. Family pension is
mechanism for financing the trade receivables
applicable only to a spouse.
of MSME Sellers against Corporate Buyers,
 Contribution by the Govt. Departments and PSUs.
Subscriber: He/she is required to
contribute the prescribed contribution  The TReDS platform not only also
amount from the age of joining PM- ensures the regular flow of operational
SYM till the age of 60 years. funds to MSMEs at attractive interest
rates, but also ensures that their
working capital limits are not affected 1. All the envisaged and launched
due to delayed payments. UMPPs are coal-based power plants
 *(Trade receivable is the amount which 2. The use of super-critical technology
the company has billed to its customer provides for higher fuel efficiency and
for selling its goods/service for which lower greenhouse gas emissions
the amount has not been paid yet by
3. Central Electricity Authority is the
the customers)
nodal implementing agency for
 The concept of TReDS to facilitate the UMPPs.
financing of trade receivables of
4. The first UMPP was launched in Sasan
MSMEs was introduced by the Reserve
by Tata Power
Bank of India (RBI) in 2014. RBI issued
a licence to three players: Receivables Which of the statements given above
Exchange of India Ltd (RXIL), is/are correct?
Invoicemart and M1Xchange for
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
operating TReDS exchanges.
B. 1 and 2 only
 It also helps corporate comply with the
MSME Act, under which a buyer has to C. 2, 3 and 4 only
pay the MSME supplier within 45 days.
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
 Companies whose turnover exceeds
₹500 crores will have to be registered Answer: B
on the TReDS platform. Explanation: Ultra Mega Power Projects
(UMPP) are very large-sized projects,
 Following are the Salient Features of
TReDS. approximately 4000 MW each involving an
estimated investment of about 25,000 crores.
 Unified platform for Sellers, Buyers, The projects will substantially reduce power
and Financiers shortages in the country. The Central
Government has accordingly taken the
 Eliminates Paper
initiative for facilitating the development of a
 Easy Access to Funds few Ultra Mega Power Projects of about 4,000
MW capacity each under tariff-based
 Transact Online
competitive bidding route using supercritical
 Competitive Discount Rates technology on build, own and operate basis.
 Seamless Data Flow  All the envisaged UMPPs are coal-
based (both the pitheads and imported
 Standardized Practices
coal base).
 The TReDS platform will support not
 UMPPs are based on supercritical
only invoices raised by MSMEs in the
technology. It provides for higher fuel
manufacturing sector but also for the
efficiency and lower greenhouse gas
service sector as per the MSMED Act.
emissions. A supercritical steam
generator is a type of boiler that
operates at supercritical pressure. It
allows for lesser usage of coal.
regard to Ultra Mega Power Projects
(UMPPs) in India:  Power Finance Corporation is the
nodal agency for all the UMPPs.
Central Electricity Authority (CEA) is  It will also suggest measures to
the Technical partner. facilitate public organizations to
assimilate innovation with a view
 The first UMPP was launched in
to improving public service delivery,
Mundra by Tata Power. Reliance
promote the creation, protection, and
Power commissioned UMPP in
commercialization of
Sasan, Madhya Pradesh.
intellectual property rights, make it
easier to start, operate, grow and exit
businesses. The National Startup
73. With reference to the newly created Advisory Council will be chaired by
'National Startup Advisory Council', Minister for Commerce & Industry.
consider the following statements:
 The Council will consist of the non-
1. It will suggest measures to promote official members, to be nominated by
innovation in all sectors of the Central Government, from various
economy across the country. categories like founders of successful
2. It will be chaired by the Cabinet startups, veterans who have grown and
Secretary of Government of India. scaled companies in India, persons
capable of representing interests of
3. it will consist only the official members investors into startups, and
from the Government of India. representatives of associations of
Which of the statements given above stakeholders of startups and
is/are correct? representatives of industry
associations. The term of the
A. 1 only nonofficial members of the Startup
B. 2 and 3 only Advisory Council will be for a period
of two years.
C. 1 and 2 only
 The nominees of the concerned
D. All of the above Ministries/Departments/Organisation
Answer:A s, not below the rank of Joint Secretary
to the Government of India, will be ex-
Explanation: Recently, the Central officio members of the Council. Joint
Government has notified the structure of the Secretary, Department for Promotion
National Startup Advisory Council to advise of Industry and Internal Trade will be
the Government on measures needed to the Convener of the Council.
build a strong ecosystem for
nurturing innovation and startups in the
country. The Council will suggest measures to 74. Consider the following statements:
foster a culture of innovation amongst citizens
and students, in particular, promote 1. Minimum Support Price is declared
innovation in all sectors of economy across after harvesting and the Food
the country, including semi-urban and rural Corporation of India is the nodal
areas, support creative and innovative ideas agency for implementation.
through incubation and research and
2. Fair and Remunerative price for
development to transform them into valuable
sugarcane is declared by the respective
products, processes or solutions to improve
state governments.
productivity and efficiency.
3. Fair and Remunerative price is the
minimum price at which rate
sugarcane is sold by sugar mills in the Commission for Agricultural Costs and
market. Prices (CACP)
Which of the statements given above is/are  The Commission for Agricultural Costs
incorrect? and Prices (CACP) is an attached office
of the Ministry of Agriculture and
A. 1 and 2 only
Farmers Welfare, Government of India.
B. 2 and 3 only It came into existence in January 1965.
C. All of the above
D. None 75. Consider the following statements
regarding power consumption in India:
Answer: C
1. Consumption of electricity in the
Explanation:
agricultural sector is the highest
 Minimum support price- In our compared to other sectors.
country, MSP for certain agricultural
2. Majority of India’s power is produced
commodities of Kharif and Rabi season
from the renewable energy sources.
is announced by the Cabinet
Committee on Economic Affairs 3. Transmission and Distribution (T&D)
(CCEA), Government of India at the Losses in India are negligible when
beginning of the sowing season based compared to power production.
on the recommendations of the
Which of the statement given above
Commission for Agriculture Cost and
is/are correct?
Prices (CACP).
A. 1 and 2 only
 MSP is declared after harvesting of
crops. B. 1 and 3 only
 Fair and Remunerative Price C. 2 and 3 only
 It is the minimum price at which rate D. None

sugarcane is to be purchased by sugar
Answer: D
mills from farmers. FRP is fixed by
Union government on basis of Explanation: The industrial sector consumes
recommendations of Commission for the highest electricity than any other sector in
Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), India. Consumption of electricity in
an attached office of Union Ministry of agriculture continues to be low due to
Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. dependence on manual labor and lack
of mechanization.
 Factors: Recommended FRP is
achieved by taking into account  There is an under-utilization of
various factors such as cost of production capacity in most of the
production, demand-supply situation, thermal power plants. Capacity
inter-crop price parity, domestic & utilization is measured by Plant Load
international prices, etc. Factor (PLF) which is the ratio of
electricity generated to production
 The State Advised Prices (SAP) are
capacity. It is around 75-77%..
announced by key sugarcane
producing states which are  Transmission and Distribution (T&D)
generally higher than FRP. losses are a percentage of energy loss in
the power grid in the process of
transporting electricity from generating earlier policy regime for the
stations to points of consumption. T&D exploration and production of oil and
losses are not negligible in India. It gas, known as the New Exploration
amounts to nearly 20% in most of the Licensing Policy (NELP), which was in
states. In some states, it is up to 50%. existence for 18 years.
 Features of HELP: Four main aspects
of HELP are
with reference to the Hydrocarbon  Uniform License: It provides for a
Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP)? uniform licensing system to cover all
hydrocarbons such as oil, gas, coal bed
1. It provides for a system of
methane, etc. under a single licensing
issuing separate licenses for each kind
framework, instead of the present
of hydrocarbons such as oil, gas, coal
system of issuing separate licenses for
bed methane.
each kind of hydrocarbons.
2. It replaces the earlier system
 Open Acreages: It gives the option to a
of production sharing contract (PSC)
hydrocarbon company to select the
by the revenue sharing model.
exploration blocks throughout the year
3. It provides for open acreage under without waiting for the formal bid
which a company can select the round from the Government.
exploration blocks on its own, without
 Revenue Sharing Model: Present fiscal
waiting for the formal bid round from
system of production sharing contract
the Government.
(PSC) is replaced by an easy to
4. A new graded system of royalty rates administer “revenue sharing model”.
has been introduced, in which royalty The earlier contracts were based on the
rates increase from shallow water to concept of profit sharing where profits
deepwater and ultra-deepwater. are shared between the Government
and the contractor after recovery
Select the incorrect answer using the of cost. Under the profit sharing
code given below.
methodology, it became necessary for
A. 1 and 4 only the Government to scrutinize
cost details of private participants and
B. 1, 3 and 4 only this led to many delays and disputes.
C. 3 and 4 only Under the new regime,
the Government will not be concerned
D. All of the above with the cost incurred and will receive
Answer: A a share of the gross revenue from the
sale of oil, gas, etc.
Explanation:
 Recognizing the higher risks and costs
 Hydrocarbon Exploration and involved in exploration and production
Licensing Policy (HELP) is a policy from offshore areas a graded system of
adopted by the Government of royalty rates has been introduced, in
India on 10.03.2016 indicating the new which royalty rates decrease from
contractual and fiscal model for the shallow water to deepwater and ultra-
award of hydrocarbon deepwater. This policy also provides
acreages towards exploration and for marketing freedom for crude
production (E&P). HELP replaces the
oil and natural gas produced from  Karnataka is the largest producer of
these blocks. silk in India. The state produces an
average of around 9,800 metric tonnes
of silk every year, which is about one-
77. Consider the following statements third of the total silk production in
with reference to silk production in India: India. It is followed by Andhra Pradesh
with 5,000 MT production.
1. India is the only country producing
all known varieties of commercial silks.
2. Munga silk accounts for the 78. Consider the following statements:
maximum share of the total silk
1. India's allows 100% FDI
production.
through automatic route in the steel
3. There are mainly three varieties of Silk and mining sectors.
produced in India.
2. District Mineral Foundations
Which of the statements given above (DMFs) are constitutional bodies that
is/are incorrect? work for benefit of the persons living
in and areas affected by mining-related
A. 2 and 3 only
operations.
B. 1 only
3. DMFs are established by the central
C. 1, 2 and 3 Government by notification under the
Mines and Minerals (Development and
D. 1 and 3 only Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015.
Answer: A Which of the statement given above
Explanation: There are four types (or five is/are correct?
types if tasar silk is sub-classified) of natural A. 1 only
silk produced in India for commercial
purposes. These are known as: B. 2 and 3 only
 Mulberry silk, C. 1 and 2 only

 Tasar silk - Tropical tasar, Oak tasar D. All of the above
 Muga silk and Answer: A
 Eri silk. Explanation:
 India has the unique distinction of  India is home to 1,531 operating mines
being the only country producing all and produces 95 minerals – 4 fuel-
known commercial silks. India is the related minerals, 10 metallic minerals,
second largest producer of silk in the 23 non-metallic minerals, 3 atomic
world. Four types of silk are grown in minerals and 55 minor minerals. India
India. is the 3rd largest producer of coal.
Coal’s share in India’s primary energy
 Mulberry accounts for 71.50 per cent
consumption is expected to be 48% in
(25,213 MT), Tussar 8.44 per cent (2,977
2040. India is the 2nd largest crude
MT), Eri 19.40 per cent (6,839 MT) and
steel producer in the world,
Muga 0.66 per cent (232 MT) of the generating an output of 106.5 MT
provisional total raw silk production of in 2018.
35,261 MT.
 The country’s FDI Policy allows: citizens to report cyber crimes online
through the portal.
 100% FDI through automatic route in
the steel and mining sectors  All the cyber crimes related complaints
will be accessed by the concerned law
 100% FDI for coal and lignite under enforcement agencies in the States and
automatic route Union Territories for taking action as
 District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) per law.
are statutory bodies in India  This portal was launched on a pilot
established by the State Governments basis on 30th August 2019 and it
by notification under the Mines and enables filing of all cyber crimes with
Minerals (Development and a specific focus on crimes against
Regulation) Amendment Act, 2015. women, children, particularly child
District Mineral Foundation is a trust pornography, child sex abuse
set up as a non-profit body, in those material, online content related to
districts affected by the mining works, rapes/gang rapes, etc.
to work for the interest and benefit of
persons and areas affected by mining-  So far, more than 700 police districts
related operations. It is funded through and more than 3,900 police stations
the contributions of miners. have been connected with this Portal.
After successful completion, this
portal can improve the capacity of law
enforcement agencies to investigate
the cases and will improve success in
regarding the National Cyber Crime
prosecution.
Reporting Portal?
 This portal also focuses on crimes like
1. It enables citizens to report cybercrimes
financial crime and social media
online through the portal.
related crimes like stalking,
2. It connects the law enforcement cyber bullying, etc. This portal will
agencies of different States, districts improve coordination amongst the law
and police stations for dealing with enforcement agencies of
cybercrimes. different States, districts and police
stations for dealing with cyber crimes
3. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Law, in a coordinated and effective manner.
Government of India.
 MHA is committed to provide and
Select the incorrect answer using the
create an ecosystem for dealing with
code given below.
the cyber crimes in a comprehensive &
A. 2 and 3 only coordinated manner.
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only 80. Consider the following statements
with respect to the Disinvestment of
D. 1, 2 and 3 Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs)
Answer: B in India:
Explanation: National Cyber Crime 1. Department of Investment and

Reporting Portal (www.cybercrime.gov.in) is Public Asset Management (DIPAM)
a citizen-centric initiative that will enable under the Ministry of Finance oversees
the process of Disinvestment.
2. NITI Aayog identifies and proposal to Government in cases
recommends CPSEs for minor stake requiring Offer for Sale of Government
disinvestment. equity.
3. Capital receipts from Disinvestment  Strategic Disinvestment: It is to be
become the part of consolidated fund undertaken through a consultation
of India. process among
different Ministries/Departments,
including NITI Aayog. NITI Aayog
correct?
identifies CPSEs for
A. 1 only strategic disinvestment and advises on
the mode of sale, percentage of shares
B. 2 and 3 only
to be sold of the CPSE and method for
C. 1 and 2 only valuation of the CPSE.
D. 1 and 3 only  The Govt. on 17th January, 2013

approved restructuring of the
Answer: A National Investment Fund (NIF) and
Explanation: decided that the disinvestment
proceeds with effect from the fiscal
 Disinvestment means the dilution of year 2013-14 will be credited to the
the stake of the Government in a public existing ‘Public Account’ under the
enterprise. Strategic disinvestment is head NIF and they would remain
transferring the ownership and control there until withdrawn/invested for
of a public sector entity to some other the approved purpose.
entity (mostly to a private sector
entity). Unlike the simple
disinvestment, strategic sale implies 81. Consider the following about National
some sort of privatization. Water Mission
 The Department of Investment and 1. It is one of the eight missions under
Public Asset Management (DIPAM) National Action Plan on Climate
under the Ministry of Finance has been Change.
made the nodal department for the
strategic stake sale in the Public Sector 2. Water database under the mission is
Undertakings (PSUs developed by Central Water
Commission including both surface
 Types of Disinvestments are: and ground water.
 Disinvestment through minority stake 3. State Specific Action Plans for water
sale: While pursuing disinvestment sector are also needed to be made.
through minority stake sale in listed
CPSEs, the Government will retain Select from the codes below
majority shareholding, i.e. at least 51 A. 1 and 2 only
percent of the shareholding and
management control of the Public B. 2 and 3 only
Sector Undertakings. The Department C. 1 and 3 only
of Investment and Public Asset
Management (DIPAM) is to identify D. All of them
CPSEs in consultation with respective Answer:D
administrative Ministries and submit a
Explanation: National Action Plan on Climate career counselling, vocational guidance,
Change (NAPCC) laid down the principles information on skill development courses,
and identified the approach to be adopted to apprenticeship, internships
meet the challenges of impact of climate
 It has a rich repository of career content
change through eight national missions.
of over 3000 occupations.
National Water Mission is one of the missions
under NAPCC.  The NCS project has also been
enhanced to interlink all employment
 India-WRIS (Water Resource
exchanges with the NCS Portal so that
Information System), a portal for
services can be delivered online.
providing information on water
resources was developed by Central  The scheme provides for part funding
Water Commission under National to states for IT upgradation and minor
Water Mission. All the data pertaining refurbishing of employment exchanges
to surface and ground water are and for organising job fairs.
available on this portal.
 National Water Mission has initiated
actions to prepare State Specific Action 83. Global Environment Facility
Plan (SSAP) for water sector covering 1. It provides for finance to tackle a host
irrigation, agriculture, domestic water of environmental problems excluding
supply, industrial water supply and land degradation.
waste water utilization in respect of all
the states/UTs 2. The funding can be accessed to
implement Minamata Convention on
Mercury.
82. Consider the following about the Select from the codes below
National Career Service Project
A. 1 only
1. It is an upgraded version of National
Employment Service. B. 2 only
2. It seeks to integrate all employment C. Both

excahnges to an online portal. D. None
Select from the codes below Answer: B
A. 1 only Explanation: Set up in 1991, GEF is the
B. 2 only designated multilateral funding mechanism of
183 countries to provide incremental finance
C. Both for addressing global environmental benefits
D. None  The GEF mandate is decided as per the
guidance provided by the Conference
Answer: C
of the parties of the multilateral
Explanation: environmental conventions namely
Convention on Biological Diversity
Ministry of Labour is implementing the
(CBD), United Nations Framework
National Career Service (NCS) project as a
Convention on Climate Change
mission mode project for transformation of
(UNFCCC), United Nations
the National Employment Service to provide a
Convention to Combat Desertification
variety of employment related services like
(UNCCD), Stockholm Convention on
PoPs and Minamata Convention on  It is situated at Chang La, Ladakh Built
Mercury. jointly by the Defence Institute of High
Altitude Research (DIHAR) and the
 The GEF grants are available under
National Bureau of Plant Genetic
five focal areas namely, biodiversity,
Resources (NBPGR) in 2010 under the
climate change, land degradation,
aegis of Defence Research and
international waters and chemicals and
Development Organisation (DRDO),
waste.
this permafrost seed bank is the second
largest in the world
84. National Adaptation Fund for Climate  Presently, the only other facility in
Change is managed by India for long-term storage of seeds is
the one set up by Indian Council of
A. NABARD Agricultural Research (ICAR) New
B. Ministry of Environment and Forests Delhi.
C. RBI
D. NITI Aayog 86. As per census 2011 a person will be
considered as literate if
Answer: A
1. A person aged seven and above, who
Explanation: can both read and write with
 National Adaptation Fund for Climate understanding
Change (NAFCC) is a central sector 2. A person, who can only read but
scheme under implementation in the cannot write.
12th Five Year Plan with National Bank
for Agriculture and Rural 3. A child aged five and above, who can
Development (NABARD) as National both read and write with
Implementing Entity (NIE). understanding
 The overall aim of the fund is to Select the correct answer using the codes
support concrete adaptation activities A. 1 and 2 only
which are not covered under on-going
activities through the schemes of state B. 1 only
and central government , that reduce
C. 3 only
the adverse impact of climate change
facing communities, sectors and states. D. 2 and 3 only
Answer:B
85. India’s seed vault is located in Explanation: For the purpose of census 2011, a
person aged seven and above, who can both
A. The union territory of Ladakh
read and write with understanding in any
B. Punjab language, is treated as literate. A person, who
can only read but cannot write, is not literate.
C. Sikkim In the censuses prior to 1991, children below
D. Arunachal Pradesh five years of age were necessarily treated as
illiterates.
Answer:A
Explanation:
87. Integrated Guided Missile Development terrorism, the FATF has agreed these
Plan envisages development of which of Recommendations, which, when
the following missiles combined with the FATF Forty
Recommendations on money
1. Agni
laundering, set out the basic
2. Akash framework to detect, prevent and
suppress the financing of terrorism and
3. Trishul terrorist acts.
4. Prithvi  The 40+9 Recommendations, together
5. Nag with their interpretative notes, provide
the international standards for
Select the correct code given below combating money laundering (ML) and
A. 1 and 2 terrorist financing (TF).
B. 3 and 4  Ratification and implementation of UN

instruments
C. 5 only
 Criminalising the financing of
D. All of them terrorism and associated money
Answer: D laundering
Explanation: Integrated Guided Missile  Freezing and confiscating terrorist

Development Plan was envisioned by former assets
President Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam to help India  Reporting suspicious transactions
attain selfsufficiency in the field of missile related to terrorism
technology. Five missile systems have been
developed under this programme namely  International co-operation
Agni, Akash, Trishul and Prithvi and Nag.  Alternative remittance
 Wire transfers
88. "Forty plus Nine (40+9)"  Non-profit organizations
Recommendations is concerned with
which of the  Cash couriers
following institutions/organisations?
A. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
89. Which of the following statements is the
(AIIB)
most appropriate with respect to ‘Feed-in
B. Financial Action Task Force (FATF) tariff’?
C. Organisation for the Prohibition of A. It allows consumers who generate

Chemical Weapons (OPCW) some or all of their own electricity to
use that electricity anytime, instead of
D. Organization of the Petroleum when it is generated.
Exporting Countries (OPEC)
B. It is a trade barrier erected for the
Answer: B purpose of reducing pollution and
Explanation: improving the environment
 Recognising the vital importance of C. It is a tax levied on activities which are

taking action to combat the financing of considered to be harmful to the
environment and is intended
to promote environmentally friendly Explanation:
activities via economic incentives
 The REPLACE action package provides
D. It is an economic policy created to a strategic approach to eliminating
promote active investment in and industrially-produced trans fat from
production of renewable energy national food supplies, with the goal of
sources global elimination by 2023.
Answer: D  The package comprises an overarching
technical document that provides a
Explanation:
rationale and framework for this
 Feed-in tariffs (FIT) are fixed electricity integrated approach to trans fat
prices that are paid to renewable elimination, along with six modules
energy (RE) producers for each unit of and additional web resources to
energy produced and injected into the facilitate implementation.
electricity grid.
 The six areas of action include:
 The payment of the FIT is guaranteed
 Review dietary sources of industrially-
for a certain period of time that is often
produced trans fat and the landscape
related to the economic lifetime of the
for required policy change.
respective RE project (usually between
15-25 years).  Promote the replacement of
industrially-produced trans fat with
 Another possibility is to calculate a
healthier fats and oils.
fixed maximum amount of full-load
hours of RE electricity production for  Legislate or enact regulatory actions to
which the FIT will be paid. FIT are eliminate industrially-produced trans
usually paid by electricity grid, system fat.
or market operators, often in the
context of Power purchasing  Assess and monitor trans fat content in
agreements (PPA). the food supply and changes in trans
fat consumption in the population.
 Create awareness of the negative
90. Which of the following are correctly health impact of trans fat among
matched? policy-makers, producers, suppliers,
and the public.
1. National Disaster Risk Index - UNISDR
 Enforce compliance with policies and
2. Transformation Index – World Bank
regulations.
3. Project Half-Earth - UNEP
4. REPLACE Programme - WHO
91. Which of the following experiments
Select the correct code: /detectors are related to study of
‘Neutrino’?
A. 1 and 4
1. XENON
B. 2 and 3
2. IceCube
C. 1 and 2
3. MINOS
D. 4 only
4. KATRIN
Answer: D
Select the correct code: undertaking to measure the mass of the
electron antineutrino with sub-eV
A. 1 and 3
precision by examining the spectrum of
B. 2, 3 and 4 electrons emitted from the beta decay
of tritium.
C. 1, 2 and 4
 The Enriched Xenon
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Observatory (EXO) is a particle physics
Answer: B experiment searching for neutrinoless
double beta decay of xenon-136 at
Explanation: WIPP near Carlsbad, New Mexico, U.S.
 Main injector neutrino oscillation Neutrinoless double beta decay (0νββ)
search (MINOS) was a particle detection would prove the Majorana
physics experiment designed to study nature of neutrinos and impact the
the phenomena of neutrino oscillations, neutrino mass values and ordering.
first discovered by a Super-
Kamiokande (Super-K) experiment in
1998. 92. Consider the following statements with
respect to ‘Central Adoption Resource
 Neutrinos produced by Authority (CARA)’
the NuMI ("Neutrinos at Main
Injector") beamline at Fermilab near Ch 1. It is a statutory body of Ministry of
icago are observed at two detectors, Women & Child Development
one very close to where the beam is
2. It was set up under the POCSO Act
produced (the near detector), and
another much larger detector 735 km 3. It has barred partners in live-in
away in northern Minnesota (the far relationships from adopting a child
detector).
Select the correct statements
 The IceCube Neutrino Observatory is
A. 1 Only
the first detector of its kind, designed
to observe the cosmos from deep B. 1 and 2
within the South Pole ice. An
C. 1 and 3
international group of scientists
responsible for the scientific research D. None of the above
makes up the IceCube Collaboration.
Answer: A
 Encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice,
IceCube searches for nearly massless Explanation: Central Adoption Resource
subatomic particles called neutrinos. Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of the
These high-energy astronomical Ministry of Women & Child Development,
messengers provide information to Government of India.
probe the most violent astrophysical  It functions as the nodal body for the
sources: events like exploding stars, adoption of Indian children and is
gamma-ray bursts, and cataclysmic mandated to monitor and regulate in-
phenomena involving black holes and country and inter-country adoptions.
neutron stars.
 CARA is designated as the Central
 KATRIN is a German acronym Authority to deal with inter-country
(Karlsruhe adoptions in accordance with the
Tritium Neutrino Experiment) for an provisions of the Hague Convention on
Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratified B. 2, 3
by the Government of India in 2003.
C. 1, 3
 CARA primarily deals with the
D. 1, 2, 3
adoption of orphan, abandoned and
surrendered children through its Answer: D
associated /recognized adoption
agencies. Explanation:
 Foot loose industries can be located in
 CARA was designated as a Statutory
a wide variety of places. They are not
Body on 15 Jan 2016, under the
provisions of Juvenile Justice (Care and dependent on any specific raw
Protection of Children) Act, 2015 material, weight losing or otherwise.
They largely depend on component
parts which can be obtained anywhere.
They produce in small quantity and
93. ‘Helsinki Accords’ is associated with
also employ a small labour force. These
A. Generalised System of Preferences are generally not polluting industries.
(GSP)
 The important factor in their location is
B. Antarctic Treaty System accessibility by road network.
C. Non-Proliferation Treaty
D. None of the above 95. 'Broad-based Trade and
Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is
Answer: D
sometimes seen in the news in the context
Explanation: of negotiations held between India and
 The Helsinki Accords were primarily A. European Union
an effort to reduce tension between the
B. Gulf Cooperation Council
Soviet and Western blocs by securing
their common acceptance of the post- C. Organization for Economic
World War II status quo in Europe. Cooperation and Development
 The Helsinki Accords are nonbinding D. Shanghai Cooperation Organization
and do not have treaty status.
Answer: A
Explanation: On 28th June 2007, India and the
94. Consider the following statements EU began negotiations on a broad-based
regarding foot loose industries. Bilateral Trade and Investment Agreement
(BTIA) in Brussels, Belgium. The negotiations
1. Foot loose industries can be located in
cover Trade in Goods, Trade in Services,
a wide variety of places.
Investment, Sanitary and Phytosanitary
2. These industries are generally non- Measures, Technical Barriers to Trade, Rules
polluting industries. of Origin, Trade Facilitation and Customs
Cooperation, Competition, Trade Defence
3. They largely depend on component mechanism, Government Procurement,
parts which can be obtained anywhere. Dispute Settlement, IPR & GIs.
A. 1, 2
96. Consider the following pairs of B. Only 2
thermal power plants and their locations:
C. Both 1 and 2
1. Suri: Jharkhand
2. Thimble: Rajasthan
Answer: A
3. Neyveli: Andhra Pradesh
Explanation: Difference between Eastern
4. Kayamkulam: Kerala Ghats and Western Ghats
5. Rupnagar: Punjab  Direction: Western Ghats runs parallel
to the western coast in a north-south
Which of the above pairs are correctly
direction from the Tapi River to
matched?
Kanayakumari. But Eastern Ghats runs
A. 1, 2 & 3 only in a north-east to south-west direction
parallel to the eastern coast from Orissa
B. 3, 4 & 5 only
to the Nilgiri hills.
C. 2, 4 & 5 only
 Width: Western Ghat’s average width
D. 1, 3 & 5 only is 50 to 80 km. But Eastern Ghat’s
width varying from 100 to 200 km.
Answer: C
 Source of rivers: Western Ghats is
Explanation: source of many large rivers which flow
 Bakreswar Thermal Power Plant in the Peninsular India. But no big river
Township is an industrial township originates from the Eastern Ghats.
in Suri I block in Suri Sadar  Rainfall: Western Ghats is almost
subdivision of Birbhum district in perpendicular to the south-west
the Indian state of West Bengal. monsoons coming from the Arabian
 Neyveli power plant is located in Tamil Sea and causes heavy rainfall in the
Nadu state. Thimble power plant is in west coastal plain. But Eastern Ghats is
Rajasthan. Kayamkulam power plant is almost parallel to the monsoons
in Kerala. coming from the Bay of Bengal and
does not cause much rainfall.
 Rupnagar power plant is in Punjab.
 Physical divisions: Western Ghats
continuous and can be crossed through
97. Consider the following statements: passes only. But Eastern Ghats has
been divided into several parts by large
1. The average elevation of Western rivers.
Ghats is greater than that of Eastern
Ghats.  Elevation: Western Ghats average
elevation is 900 to 1,100 meters above
2. Between Western Ghats and the sea-level. But the average elevation of
Arabian Sea lies a broader coastal area, Eastern Ghats is about 600 metres
while between Eastern Ghats and the above sea level.
Bay of Bengal there is a narrow coastal
area.
Which of the above statements is / are correct? 98. Which state has the highest literacy
rate among the following states as per
A. Only 1 2011 Census?
A. Manipur
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Uttarakhand
D. Karnataka
Answer: B
Explanation:

the National Flag of India:
1. The design of the National Flag was
adopted by the Constituent Assembly
of India on June 22, 1947.
2. The National Flag shall be rectangular
in shape with the ratio of length to the
height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which of the above statements is / are
incorrect?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
 THE National Flag shall be a tricolour Explanation: The Stockholm Convention on
panel made up of three rectangular POP- It is a multilateral convention under the
panels or sub-panels of equal width. United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP) which seeks to protect human health
 The colour of the top panel shall be
and environment from the harmful effects of
India saffron (kesari) and that of the
certain chemicals which are classified as
bottom panel India green.
persistent organic pollutants (POPs).
 The middle panel shall be white,
 Initially, 12 POPs have been recognized
bearing at its centre the design of
as causing adverse effects on humans
Ashoka Chakra in navy blue colour
and the ecosystem. They were placed
with 24 equally spaced spokes.
in 3 categories as:
 The Ashoka Chakra shall preferably be
 Pesticides: aldrin, chlordane, DDT,
screen printed or otherwise printed or
dieldrin, endrin, heptachlor,
stenciled or suitably embroidered and
hexachlorobenzene, mirex, toxaphene;
shall be completely visible on both
sides of the Flag in the centre of the  Industrial chemicals:
white panel. hexachlorobenzene, polychlorinated
biphenyls (PCBs); and
 The National Flag shall be rectangular
in shape.  By-products: hexachlorobenzene,
polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins,
 The ratio of the length to the height
polychlorinated dibenzofurans
(width) of the Flag shall be 3:2. The
(PCDD/PCDF), and PCBs.
design of the National Flag was
adopted by the Constitutent Assembly  Nine new POPs have been added to the
of India on July 22, 1947. list of POPs under Stockholm
Convention at the CoP held in 2009.
Annexures A, B, and C were amended
100. Consider the following statements to include the following chemicals as
about Stockholm Convention: POPs.
1. It is a global treaty to protect human  Pesticides: chlordecone, Alpha

health and the environment from Hexachlorocyclohexane, Beta
Persistent Organic Pollutants. Hexachlorocyclohexane, lindane,
Pentachlorobenzene;
2. It covers 12 chemicals.
 Industrial chemicals:
3. India has not yet ratified the Hexabromobiphenyl,
Convention. Hexabromodiphenyl Ether and
Select the correct answer from the codes given Heptabromodiphenyl Ether,
below: Pentachlorobenzene, Perfluorooctane
Sulphonic Acid, its salts and
A. 1 and 3 Only Perfluorooctane Sulphonyl Fluoride,
B. 2 Only Tetrabromodiphenyl Ether and
Pentabromodiphenyl ether; and
C. 1 and 2 Only
 By-products: Alpha
D. 1 Only Hexachlorocyclohexane, Beta
Answer: D hexachlorocyclohexane, and
Pentachlorobenzene.

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4. Consider the following statements about

C. Industrial Reforms 2. It will work through a portal and give

1. It will be held for Asian and African A. 1 only

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

2. Jaivik kheti portal is an E-commerce as D. 1, 2, and 3

12. Shannon Weiner Index is seen in the news B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2 D. None

D. None B. 2 and 3 only

D. None of the above 21. Consider the following statements about

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

3. More than 50 percent of total exports. B. 2 and 3 only

2. Iraq Which of the above statements is/are correct?

D. International Monetary Fund 3. This report is published

3. Renewable energy resources include D. All of the above

Which of the above statements is/are correct? C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

C. 4 and 5 only 2. India has ranked at 129th among 186

B. 1 and 2 1. Disruption of credit culture

C. 3 only 2. Reduction of the formal credit flow

D. None 3. Full debt waiver is good as compare to

C. 2 and 3 only 5. It reduces the producers' profit.

D. All of the above 6. It inhibits the development of vibrant

60. Which of the following is/are the 2. It introduces the concept of

A. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

68. ASPIRE scheme often seen in news

Which of the statements given above D. None

D. The contributions from workers C. 2, 3 and 4 only

73. With reference to the newly created

75. Consider the following statements B. 1, 3 and 4 only

81. Consider the following about National

1. National Disaster Risk Index - UNISDR D. None of the above

C. Non-Proliferation Treaty B. 3, 4 & 5 only

95. 'Broad-based Trade and D. None of the Above

D. Shanghai Cooperation Organization D. Karnataka

1. Suri: Jharkhand 1. The design of the National Flag was

100. Consider the following statements

C. Industrial Reforms  The first edition of the Ind-SAT will be

3. Consider the following statements about

4. Consider the following statements about B. 2 only

2. It will work through a portal and give Explanation:

C. Both 1 and 2  Rakhigarhi is a village in Hisar District

7. With reference to the revenue receipts in Answer: B

9. Consider the following statements about

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are Answer: A

24. Economic Cost of foodgrains to FCI 5. Trade uncertainties

2. Procurement incidentals A. 1 and 2 only

3. Cost of distribution B. 2, 3, and 4 only

4. Rent for storage C. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only

Which of the above statements is/are correct? D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

3. This report is published by World Explanation:

34. Consider the following statements

Explanation: 2. As per the industry-wide distribution

37. With reference to the power generation in

39. With reference to the Migration Report

1. Gujarat 3. Citizens' welfare measured are

 Resource allocation in the economy

A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only D. All of the above