MOTI www. entranceexams.io ALL INDIA Postgraduate Medical Entrance Examination 2010 Subject wise Questions with All Options & Answers ANAESTHESIA. 1. A patient with bilirubin value of 8 mg/dl and serum creatinine of 1,9 mg/dl is planned for surgery. What is the muscle relaxant of choice in this patient? A. Vecuronium B. Pancuronium ©. Atracurium D. Rocuronium Ans: C. 2.425 year old overweight female was given fentanyl-pancuronium anesthesia for surgery. After surgery and extubation she was observed to have limited) movement of the upper body and chest wall in the recovery room. She was, conscious and alert but voluntary respiratory effort was limited. Her blood, pressure and heart rate were normal, The likely diagnosis is: A. Incomplete reversal of pancuronium: B. Pulmonary embolism. C. Fentanyl induced chest wall rigidity D. Respiratory depression Ans A. 3. All of the following statements about neuromuscular blockage produced by suceinylcholine are true, except A. No fade on tain of four stimulation B. Fade on tetanic stimulation C. No post tetanic facilitation D. Train of four ratio > 0.4 ‘Ans: B. 4, A27 year old female was brought to ‘emergency department for acute abdominal pain following which she was shifted to the operation theatre for he Inforestion provided bere: end fers ‘laparotomy. A speedy intubation was performed but after the intubation, breath sounds were observed to be decreased on the left side and a high end trial CO2 was recoriled. The likely diagnosis is: A. Endotracheal tube blockage B. Bronchospasm. C. Esophageal intubation D. Endobronchial intubation Ans: D. ANATOMY 5S, Hypogastric Sheath is.a condensation of A. Scagpa’s fascia B. Colle’s fascia C. Pelvic fascia D. Inferior layer of Urogenital diaphragm Ans: C. Pelvic fascia '6, Which of the positions best deseribes the location of celiac plexus A. Anterolateral to aorta B. Posterolateral to aorta C, Anterolateral to sympathetic chain D. Anteromedical to sympathetic chain. ‘Ans: A. Anterolateral to aorta 7. (a) Gluteus medius is supplied by A. Superior Gluteal Nerve B. Inferior Gluteal Nerve ©. Nerve to Obturator Intemnus D. Nerve to Quadratus Femoris Ans: A. Superior Gluteal Nerve ¢b) Gluteus medius is supplied by A. Superior Gluted Artery B. Inferior Gluteal Artery €. Obturator Artery D. Mio-inguinal Artery Ans: A. Superior Gluted Artery '8. (a) Which of the following tendons passes below the sustenticulum tali A. Tibialis Anterior ence: Tk maxcvery the OrietnMOTI www. entranceexams.io B. Tibilias Posterior C. Flexor Digtorum Longus D. Flexor Hallucis longus ‘Ans: D. Flexor Hallucis longus {b) Which of the following tendons has attachments on sustenticulum Tali A. Tibialis Anterior B. Tibialis Posterior C. Flexor digitorum longus D. Flexor Hallucis longus ‘Ans: B. Tibialis Posterior 9, Which of the following passes through the foramen magnum A. Vertebral artery B. Sympathetic chain C. Xith cranial nerve D. Internal carotid artery ‘Ans: A. Vertebral artery 10, All of the following movements eecur abduction of shoulder except A. Elevation of humerus B. Axial rotation of clavicle C. Medial rotation of scapula D. Acromioclavicular joint movement, ‘Aas: C. Medial rotation of seapula 11. All of the following are composite muscles, except: A. Flexor carpi ulnaris B. Flexor digitorum profundus C. Pectineus D, Biceps femoris ‘Ans: A. Flexor carpi ulnaris 12, Urogenital Diaphragm is made up of the following, except: A. Deep transverse perineus B. Perinial membrane C. Colle’s fascia D, Sphincter Urethrae ‘Ans: C. Colle’s fascia he Information provided berets only fer-ceference: Ik maxcvary the Origin 13. In post-ductal coarctation of aorta collaterals may be formed by all of the following, except: A. Vertebral artery 'B. Suprascapular artery C. Subscapular artery D. Posterior intercostals artery Ans: none: 14, Left sided superior vena cava drains into: A. Right Atrium B. Left atrium ©. Coronary sinus D. Pericardial space PHYSIOLOGY 15. All of the following statements about bronchial circulation are ime, except: “A. Contribute 2% of systemic circulation B. Coniribute to gaseous exchange C. Cause venous admixing of blood D. Provide nutritive function to lung ‘Ans: B. 16. An important non-respiratory funetion ‘of lungs is: A. Anion balance B. Sodium balance C. Potassium balance D. Caleium balance Ans: B. 17. Maximum water reabsorption in the gastrointestinal tract oceurs in: A. Stomach B. Jejunum © Heum D. Colon Ans: B. 18. The primary action of Nitric oxide ¢NO) in the gastrointestinal tract is: A. Vasodilatation nuNOTE: www. entranceexams.io B. Vasoconstriction C. Gastrointestinal smooth muscle relaxation D, Gastrointestinal slow smooth muscle contraction Ans: C, 19, Hot water bottle relieves pain of abdominal spasm by: ‘A, Stimulation of adrenergic fibers B. Stimulation of cholinergic fibers C. Inhibition of cold receptors D. Inhibition of heat receptors Ans: A. 20, Vitamin K deficiency coagulation factors include: A Tand IIL B.IX and X C. Mand V D. VIII and Xi Ans: B. IX and X 21. During heavy exereise the cardi ‘output (CO) increase upto five fold while pulmonary arterial pressure rises very litle, This physiological ability of pulmonary circulation is best explais we A. Inerease in the number of open capillaries B. Sympathetically mediated greater distensibility of pulmonary vessels C, Large amount of smooth musele in pulmonary arteries D, Smaller surface area of pulmonary circulation Ans: A. 22. Venous return to heart during quiet standing is facilitated by all of the following factors, exept: A. Calf muscle contraction during standing B, Valves in perforators C. Sleeves of deep fascia he Inforestiou provided berets only fer ceference: D. Gravitational increase in arterial pressure ‘Ans: D. 23. During cardiac imaging the phase of ‘minimum motion of heart is: A. Late systole B. Mid systole C. Late diastole D. Mid diastole Ans: D. 24, Insulin secretion is inhibited by: A. Secretin B. Epinephrine C. Growth hormone D. Gastrin Ans: B. 25. Which of the following is not seen in humans: “A. Estrous cycle B. Menstrual cycle 1C. Endometrial cycle D. Ovarian eyele ‘Ans: A. 26. Lesions of the lateral cerebellum cause all of the following, except: A. Tncoardination B. Intention tremor C. Resting tremor D. Ataxia Ans: C. 27, Basal Metabo! closely on: A. Lean body mass 'B. Body mass index C. Obesity D. Body surface area Ans: A. lie Rate depends most 28, Decreased Basal Metabolic Rate is seen in A. Obesity Tt -may:wary the Orkain:MOTI www. entranceexams.io B. Hyperthyr C. Feeding D. Exercise Ans: A, lism 29. Low CSF protein may be seen in all of the following conditions, except: A. Recurrent lumbar puncture B. Hypothyroidism C. Pseudotumor cerebri D. Infants Ans: B. BIOCHEMISTY 30. Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in: A, Niemann — pick disease B. Farber’s disease C. Tay Sach’s disease D. Krabbe’s disease Ans: A. 31. Which of the following lipoproteins, doesnot move towards charged end in electrophorsis? A. VLDL B.LDL C.HDL D. Chylomicrons Ans: D, 32. Insulin like frctans are used as prebiotics as they are non digestible, Resistance to digestion in the upper GI Iraet results from: A. Absence of Digestive enzyme in the upper GIT B. Beta configuration of anomeric C2 C. Low pH of the stomach D. Presence of alpha-osidie linkages ‘Ans: B. 33, Method of chromatography in which molecules that are negatively charged are he Inforestion provided bere: elie fee cpeterumens Le:mes:-ver the eles. selectively released from stationary phase into the positively charged molecules in mobile phase is termed. A. Affinity chromatography B. lon — Exchange chromatography C., Adsorbiion chromatography D. Size — exclusion chromatography Ans: B. 34, Which of the following techniques is used for detection of variation in DNA sequence and Gene expression? A. Northern Blot B. Southern Blot C. Western Blot D. Microarray Ans: D. 35, Which of the following tests is not used for detection of specitic aneuploidy? A. FISH 'B. RT-PCR C. QF-PCR D. Microarray Aas: D. 36. Prenatal Diagnosis of hemophilia is ‘best done by: A-PCR B. Linkage analysis ©. Cytometry: D. Microarray ‘Ans: A. 37. Rothera’s test used for detection of A. Proteins 38. Which of the following liver enzymes is predominantly mitochondrial? A. SGOT (AST) B.SGPT (ALT) GGTMOTI www. entranceexams.io D. 5° Nucleotidase Ans: A, PHARMACOLOGY 39. (a) Mechanism of action of ‘Theophylline in Bronchial Asthma include all of the following except: A. Phosphodiesterase inhibition B. Adenosine receptor antagonism C. Increased Histone deacteylation D, Beta-2 receptor stimulation ‘Ans: D. {b) Mechanism of action of Theophylline in bronchial asthma in: ‘A. Phosphodiesterase Inhibition! B. Mast cell stabilization C. Leukotriene Antagonism D. Beta-2 agonist Ans: A. 40, Narrow therapeutic index is seen witht A. Desipamine B. Lithium C. Penicillin D. Diazepam Ans: B 41. Which of the following is a ‘Protein pump inhibitor’? ‘A. Ranitidine B. Misoprostol C. Omeprazole D. Laxatidine Ans: C, 42. Methyldopa is primarily used in: A. Parkinsonism B, Pregnancy Induced hypertension C. Hirsuitism D. Refractory hypertension ‘Ans: B. 43. Fetal Hydantoin Syndrome is cause by he Inforestion provided bere: elie fee cpeterumens Le:mes:-ver the eles. A. Pheaytoin B. Alcohol C. Tetracycline D. Sodium valproate Ans: A. 44, Which of the following drugs should not be used with Rivastigmine in patients ‘with Alzheimer’s except: A-SSRI B. Tricyelic Antidepressant ©. RIMA, D. Atypical Antipressants Ans: B. 45. Ethosuxamide is the drug of choice for A. Generalized Tonic clonic seizures B. Complex partial seizures C. Absence seizures D. Myoclonic seizures 46. Which of the following about Opioid ‘receptor antagonists is false? A. Naloxone can be used to for treatment ‘of opivid induced constipation B. Naltrexone may be used for treatment ‘of alcohol dependence C. Nalmefine has a longer half life than ‘Naloxone D. Naloxone is more potent than Naltrexone Ans: D. 47. L-Dopa is combined with Carbidopa in the treatment of parkinsonism to: A. Decrease the efficacy of levodopa B, Inhibit peripheral decarboxylation of levodopa C. Increase the dose of levodopa required D. inhibit conversion of levodopa to dopamine in the CNS Ans: B. 48. All of the following statements about Phenytoin are true, except:NOTE: www. entranceexams.io A. Follows saturation kinetics B. Is teratogenic C. Is highly protein bound D, Stimulates insulin secretion Ans: D, 49. Which of the following teratogenic effects in incorrectly matched A. Phenytoin — Cleft lip / palate B. Zidovudine — Skull Defects C. Valproate — Neural tube effects D. Warfarin — Nasal bone dysplast Ans: B. ‘50. All of the following agents are used for prophylaxis of migraine, except ‘A. Propanalol B. Valproate C. Topiramate D. Ethosuxamide Ans: D. 51. MAO inhibitors should not be used with A. Pethidine B. Pentazocine C. Buprenorphine D. Morphine Ans: A> B, $2. Serotonin syndrome may be precipitated by all of the following medications, except: A. Chlorpromazine B. Pentazocine C. Buspirone D. Meperidine Ans: A. 53. A young male presents with meningococcal meningitis and allergy to penicillin. Which is the most suitable drug: A. Chloramphenicol B. Meropenem C. Ciprofloxacin he Information provided berets only fer-ceference: Ik maxcvary the Origin D. Teicoplanin As: A. 54, All of the following drugs may cause Hirsuitism, except A. Danazol B. Phenytoin €. Norethisterone D. Flutamide Ans: D. 55, Most common congenital anomaly associated with lithium A. Cardiac Malformations 'B. Neral tube defects €. Renal anomaly 1D. Fetal Hydantoi syndrome Ans: AL 56. Which of the following should be monitored in patient receiving linezolid B. Liver function C. Auditory function ‘D. Platelet count Ans: D. 57. All of the following statements about thalidomide are true, except: A. Ithas heen re introduced for its activity in ENL. B. Developed as antiemetic in pregnancy ‘but withdrawn because of phacomelia C. Used for new and relapsed cases of ‘multiple myeloma 'D. Most common side effects are diarrhea and euphoria Ans: D. 58, Pancreatitis occurs with: A. Abaca\ B. Zidovudine C. Lamivudine D. Didanosine Ans: D.MOTI www. entranceexams.io 59. Which of the following agent recommended for treatment of Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors (GIST)? A. Sonafenib B. Imatinib C. Gefitinib D. Erlotinib Ans: B. 60. Amphoterecin B toxicity can be B. Decreasing the dose C. Using Liposomal Delivery systems D, Combining with flucytosine Ans: C>D. 61. Which of the following newer dmugs has activity on both HER Land HER 2 new Receptors? A. Erlotinib B. Gefitinib C. Canertiniby D. Lapatinib Ans: D. 62. Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are used in the treatment of A. Gastrointestinal strimal tumors (GIST) B, Acute myeloid leukemia C. Naurofibromatosis D. Small cell carcinoma lung Ans: A. 63. Which of the following statements about Mycophenolate Mofetil is not true? A. Most common adverse effect is Nephrotoxicity B. Used in Transplant rejection C. It is a prodrug and converted to. Mycophenolic acid 1D. Is not used with Azathioprine ‘AIS: A. he Information provided berets only fer-ceference: Ik maxcvary the Origin 64. Which of the following drugs is recommended for the treatment of ‘Heparin induced thrombocytopenia? A. Abciximab B. Lepirudin C, Warfarin, D. Alteplase Ans: B. 65. All of the following statements about Trientine are true, except A. More potent than penicillamine and ‘orally absorbed B. Alternative to penicillamine in non tolerant C. Not given with iron within two hours ‘of ingestion D. May cause iron deficiency anemi Ans: A. 66, Allopurinol is used in the treatment of ‘A. Osteoarthritis B. Gout (C. Rheumatoid Arthritis D. Ankylosing spondylitis “Ans: B. ‘67. In equivalent concentrations, steroids are more potent in which form: A. Gel B. Cream C. Ointment D. Lotion Ans: C. PATHOLOGY 68. Caspases are involved in A.cell division B. necrosis C. apoptosis D. Inflammation Ans: C.NOTE: www. entranceexams.io 69, (a) Actions of Bradykinin include all of the following, except A. Vasodilatation B. Bronchodilatation C. Increased vascular permeability D. Pain Ans: B. {b) What is the most important role of Bradykinin in acute inflammation? ‘A. Increase in vascular permeability B. Vasodilatation C. Mediation of pain D. Bronchoconstriction Ams: A. 70. Heterozygous sickle cell anemia gives, protection against: A.G6PD B. Malaria C. Thalassemia D. Dengue fever Ans: B. 71. Burkitt's Lymphoma is associated with: ALL(814) B.t(E14) ©. (15:17) D.t(14:18) Ans: A. 72. Translocation t (2:8)(p12:q24) is associated with: A. Chronic Myeloid leukemia (CML) B. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (LML) C.Teell- ALL D. Burkitt’s Lymphoma Ans: D, 73. (a) The characteristic feature of ‘apoptosis on light microscopy is A cellular swelling B. nuclear compaction C. intact cell membrane D. Cytoplasmic eosinaphlia he Inforestiou provided berets only fer ceference: Ans: B. (b) All of the following are features of apoptosis, except A. Cellular swelling. B. nuclear compaction intact cell membrane D. Cytoplasmic eosinophlia Ans: A. 74. (a) PNH is associated with deficiency oft A. DAF B.MIRL C. GPI Anchored protein 1D. All of the above Ans: D. (b) PNH is associated with deficiency of: A. DAF (Decay accelerating factor} B. MIRL (Membrane inhibitor of reactive ysis) C. GPI Anchored Protein (Glycosyl phosphatidyl inosital anchored proteins) D. LFA (Lymphocyte function associated 75, Plasmacytoid lymphomas may be associated with: AlgG BIgM CIA D.IgE Ans: B. 76. Which of the following have most friable vegetation? A. Infective endocarditis, 'B. Libman Sack’s endocarditis ©. Rheumatic heart disease D.SLE Ans: A. 77. Characteristic pathological finding in carcinoid heart disease is: Tt -may:wary the Orkain:NOTE: www. entranceexams.io A. Fibrous endocardial thickening of right ventricle, tricuspid valve & pulmonary valve B. Endometrial thickening of tricuspid valve with severe tricuspid stenosis C. Collagen rich, elastic deposits in endocardium of right ventricle and pulmonary valve D. Calcification of tricuspid and pulmonary valve Ans: A. 78. A female presents with history of progressive breathlessness, Histology shows heterogenous patchy fibrosis with several fibroblastic foci. The most likely diagnosis is: ; ‘A. Cryptogenic organizing preutSHl B. Non specific interstitial pneumonia C. Usual interstitial pneumonia D. Desquamative interstitial pneumonia ‘Ans: C 79. Chromophobe variant of renal celly carcinoma is associated with A. VHL gene mutations B, Trisomy of 7 and 17 (+7, #17) C.3p deletions (3p-) D. Monosomy of I and ¥ (-1,-Y) ‘Ans: D. 80. All of the following condition are associated with granulomatous pathology, excep: A. Wegner’s granulomatosis (WG) B. Takayasu Anteritis (TA) C. Polyarteritis Nodosa (Classic PAN) D. Giant cell arteritis (GCA) Ans: C. 81. Electron microscopy is diagnostic in: ‘A, Goodpasture’s syndrome B. Alport’s syndrome C. Wegener's syndrome D. Chung strauss syndrome Ans: B. he Inforestion provided bere: ‘te ony fer-nefereane: ‘82. Which of the following is the most characteristic ultrastructural feature of paraganglioma on electron microscopy? ‘A. Shrunken mitochondria B. Large Golgi apparatus C. Frequent mitoses D. Dense core neuroendocrine granules Ans: D. 83. Which of the following is a marker of Jangerhans cell histiocytosis? A.CD la B.CD1O .cD30 D. CDS6 As: A. 84, Hypercoagulation in nephritic syndrome is caused by A. Loss of Antithrombin IIT 'B. Decreased fibrinogen C. Decreased metabolism of vitamin K ‘D. Increase in protein C “Ans: A. 85. Which of the following markers is specific for Gastro intestinal stromal tumors (GIST)? A.CDIT BCD 34 CD23 D.S— 1000 Ans: A. +86, Down's syndrome is most commonly ‘caused by: A. Maternal nondisjunction B. Paternal Nondisjunction C. Translocation D. Mosaicism Ans: A. 87. Cystic fibrosis is inherited as an autosomal recessive condition. A normal couple has one daughter affected with the 9 Tt -may:wary the Orkain:MOTI www. entranceexams.io disease, They are now planning to have another child, What is the cause of her sibling being affected by the disease? Ao B.4 cM D.% Ans: C 88. Males are more commonly affected than females in: ‘A. Autosomal Dominant B. Autosomal Recessive C. Xlinked dominant D. X-linked recessive Ans: D, MICROBIOLOGY 89, Peptide binding site on class EMAC molecules for presenting processed. antigen to CDS T cells is formed by: A. Proximal domain to alpha subunits B. Distal domain of alpha subunit . Proximal domains of Alpha and subunit D, Distal domains of alpha and beta subunit ‘Ans: B 90, All of the following statements about staphylococcus aureus are true, except: A. Most common source of infection is ‘ross infection from infected people B. About 30% of general population is healthy nasal carriers C. Epidermolysin and TSS toxin are superantigens D. Methicillin resistance is chromosomally mediated. Ans: A. 91. A child presents with sepsis. Bacteria isolated showed beta hemalysis on blood. agar, resistance to bacitracin, and a he Information provided berets only fer-ceference: Ik maxcvary the Origin positive CAMP test. The most probable ‘organism causing infection is: A.S. pyogenes B.S. agalacitae C. Enterococcus D.S, pneumoniae Ans: B. 92. All of the following statements about EL-Tor Vibrios are true, except: A. Humans are the only reservoir 'B. Can survive in ice eold water for 2-4 weeks C. Killed boiling for 30 seconds D. Enterotoxin can have direct effects on other tissues besides intestinal epith: cells, Anns: D. 93. Isolation of Chlamydia from tissue specimen can be done by ‘A. ELISA (Enzyme linked immune assay) B. Yolk sac inoculation. -C. Direct immunofluorescence antibody test (DFA) ‘D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) Ans: B. 94. Varicella Zoster remains latent in: A. Trigeminal ganglion B.Teells C. Bells D. Macrophages Ans: A. 95. Most common genital lesion in HIV pal A. Chlamydia 'B. Herpes €. Syphilis D. Candida Ans: B. 96. A diabetic patient present with bloody ‘nasal discharge, orbital swelling and pain. ‘Culture of periorbital pus showed 0MOTI www. entranceexams.io branching septate hyphae, Which of the following is the most probable organism involved? A. Mucor B. Candida C. Aspergillus D. Rhizopus Ans: C 97. (a) All of the following statements about Penicillin binding proteins (PBP) are true, exept: A. PBP’s are localized on the outer face of cell wall B. PBP’s are essential for cell wall synthesis C. PBP's act as carboxypeptidases and transpepti D. Alteration in PBP’s is the primary bases of resistance in MRSA. Ams: A. {b) All of the following statements about Penicillin Resistance are true, except: A. Beta lactamase production is the most. common mechanism of resistance B. Alteration in target PBPs is an important resistance mechanism in Gras negative bacteria C. Alteration in permeability / penetration of antibiotic causes resistance only in gram negative bacteria. 1D. Beta lactamase production causes resistance in both gram positive and gram ‘negative bacteria Ans: B 98. Which of the fallowing may cause biliary obstruction? A. Ancylostoma B, Entrobius C. Strongyloides D. Clonorehis ‘Ans: D. he Information provided berets only fer-ceference: Ik maxcvary the Origin 99, A young woman complains of recurrent rhinitis, nasal discharge and bilateral nasal blockage since one year. ‘She also had history of allergy and asthma, On examination, muttiple polyps ‘with mucosal thickening and impacted secretions are seen in nasal cavities. ‘Biopsy was taken and the material on culture showed many hyphae with dichoyomous branching typically at 45 degree. Which of the following is most likely organism responsible? A. Rhizopus B. Aspergilus ©. Mucar 'D. Candida Ans: B. FORENSIC 100. Primary impact injuries are commonly seen on: A. Chest B. Abdomen C. Legs D. Head ‘Ans: C. 101. A woman died within 5 years of marriage under suspicious cireumstances, ‘Her patents complained that her in laws used to frequently demand for dowry. ‘Under which of the fallowing sections can a magistrate authorize autopsy of the case: A. Section 174 CrPe B.S 176 Cree €. Section 304 IPC D. Section 302 IPC Ans: B. 102. A factory worker presents with excessive salivation, blue lines on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia and lose of appetite. The most likely poisoning is:NOTE: www. entranceexams.io 103. Which of the following bullets leaves visible mark, so that a person can see it: A. Tandem bullet B. Tracer bullet C. Dum dum bullet D. Incendiary bullet Ans: B. 104, Lightening flash can cause injury by all of the following, except: A. Direct effect of electric current B. Super Heated air C. Expanded and repelted air, D. Compressed air pushed in front of the current - Ans: D. 105. Aconite poisoning causes all except! ‘A. Hypersalivation B. Tingling and numbness C. Increased BP D. Chest pain Ans: C 106, Which of the following drug is used for Narcoanalysis? A. Atropine B. Phenobarbitone C. Scopolamine D. Pethidine Ans: C. 107. Which of the following is associated ‘with emotional valence and is most likely to be influenced by motivation” A. Attitude B. Belief he Inforestiou provided berets only fer ceference: ©. Practice D. Knowledge Ans: C. 108. ASHA is posted at: A. Village level B. Primary Health centre €. Community health centre D. Subsentre Ans: A. 109. Movement across socioeconomic levels is termed as A. Social Equality B. Social upliftment €. Social Mobility D. Soeial insurance Anns: C. 110. “JSY" stands for: A. Janani Surksha yojana 'B. Jeevan swastha yojana C. Jan sewa yojna ‘D. Jan suraksha yojna Ans: A. 111. Provision of primary Health care was #done by: A. Bhore committee B. Alma — Ata declaration C. Shrivastava committee D. National Health palicy Ans: B. 112, Which of the following best reflects the highest level of community patticipation? ‘A. Planning of intervention by community B_ Intervention based on assessment of community needs C. Provision of resources by community dd. Community supports and cooperates ‘with workers Ans: A. 2 Tt -may:wary the Orkain:NOTE: www. entranceexams.io 113, Which of the following regarding ‘matemal mortality rate (MMR) is ot true? A. Numerator ineludes total number of females deaths within 42 days of delivery B, Denominator includes still births and abortions C. it is expressed as a rate and not ratio D. It is expressed per 100 Ans: B, 114, Perinatal mortality rate includes: A. Still borns and death within 7 days of birth B. Neonatal deaths within 30 days of birth CC, Abortions and death within 7 days of birth D. Deaths between 7 and 28 days6f birth, ‘Ans: A. 115, Which of the following és noran essential component of primary.hi care? ‘ ‘A. Provision of essential drugs B. Cost effectiveness C. Immunization against major infestious diseases D. Health education Ans: B. 116, Which of the following is the current trend in health care? A. Qualitative enqui B. Community Participation C. Equitable distribution D. Primary health care Ans: B. 117. IMNCI differs from IMCT in all of the following, except: A. Malaria and anemia are included B. 0-7 days neonates are included C. Emphasis on management of sick neonates over sick alder children D. Treatment is aimed at more than one disease at atime he Inforestiou provided berets only fer ceference: Ans: D. 118, Mass chemoprophylaxis is endemic area is recommended for all of the following, except: A. Yaws B. Leprosy ©. Trachoma D. Filaria Ans: B. 119. Rural and urban difference in prevalence is seen in all of the following, except: A. Lung cancer B. Tuberculosis ©. Mental illness D. Chronic Bronchitis Ans: B. 120, All of the following factors ‘contribute to Resurgence of malaria, except: A. Diug resistance in host 'B. drug resistance in parasite ‘€. Drug resistance in vectors D. Antigenic variations in parasite “Ans: A. 121. A case of acute flaccid paralysis must be observed for how may days for residual weakness: A. 30 days 'B. 42 days C. 60 days D. 90 days Ans: C. 122. India aims to eliminate which of the following diseases by 2015: A. Malaria B. Tuberculosis ©. Kala Azar D. Filariasis Ans: D. B Tt -may:wary the Orkain: