RealTest.CMQ-OE_150.

qa

Number: CMQ-OE
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 12.04

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CMQ-OE
Certified Manager of Quality/Organizational Excellence Exam

Good explanation provided and the references added most of the questions.

Pretty much all the questions we study that may have multiple answers, no answer is in doubt, I got on the test.

Any questions/info you can recall are on the VCEs. So the preparation of exam is very easy.

This VCE covers all syllabus. After preparing it anyone pass the exam in high grades.

Hope this helps. Best of luck for your exam and please post your exam experience for others. Thanks!

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Exam A

QUESTION 1
Two human resource functions that typically are shared with other organizational components are:

A. Unemployment and relocation administration.

B. Union contract negotiation and OSHA compliance assessment.
C. Staffing and training.
D. Compensation and benefits administration.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Reasons for building an economic case for quality may include:

A. The case expresses quality in the language of management.

II. The approach justifies quality initiatives in dollars and cents.
III. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires it.
IV. Quality is typically treated as a cost rather than as an investment.
B. The economic case for quality allows for comparison of it with other major investments or projects.
C. III only
D. I, II, IV, and V
E. IV and V only
F. I and II only

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
The budgets of most internal staff and operations functions do not include figures for:

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A. Cash received.
II. Capital expenditures.
III. Short-term liabilities.
IV. Payroll expenses.
B. IV only
C. III only
D. I, II, and III
E. I and III

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Based only on the following data, which answer is correct?

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A. ROI is $3:1 RONA is $10:1

B. ROI is 33% RONA is $9:1
C. ROI is 30% RONA is $10:1
D. ROI is $3:1 RONA is $9:1

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 5
Assessing and identifying exposure to risks should:

A. Be done prior to investing in a major capital expenditure.

II. Be a continual process.
III. Be undertaken as part of the feasibility analysis prior to purchasing another business.
IV. Include financial, physical, safety, security, health, product liability, and proprietary information risk exposures.
B. I, III, IV only
C. I, III only
D. I, II, III, and IV
E. I only

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
answer is valid.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following are methods for mitigating risks?

A. Eliminate the condition that may cause a loss to occur II. Establish contingency plans
III. Obtain insurance to cover some of the potential risk IV. Self-insure
B. I, II, III, and IV
C. I only
D. II, III, and IV only
E. I and II only

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 7
Knowledge management involves all but which of the following?

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A. Recording and storing all the tacit knowledge of all the employees.
B. Documenting "lessons learned" from product development projects.
C. Determining what knowledge to record and store, and by whom and how it will be accessed and used.
D. Building and reinforcing an organization culture that supports and promotes reusing knowledge rather than reinventing knowledge.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 8
Bottom-to-top communication techniques include all the following except:

A. Employee suggestion boxes.

B. Quality circles.
C. Performance reviews.
D. Employee satisfaction surveys.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is not generally a characteristic of communication in hierarchical organizations?

A. Communication is constrained by chain of command.

B. Messages are distorted many times by different frames of reference.
C. Competitive opportunities might be missed because of time delays.
D. Different functional departments communicate at a different pace.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 10
All but one of the following represents good communicating skill. Which one does not?

A. Body language and voice convey the same message.

B. Use open-ended and closed questions at appropriate times.
C. Since the brain works much faster than speaking, use the time while another person is speaking to plan your next comment or question.
D. Use a paraphrasing technique to clarify your understanding of what was said.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 11
As part of your preparation for a business trip to another country it would be wise to do all but one of the following.

Which one would that be?

A. Arrange for an interpreter to be available when you meet with your business contact, unless you are fluent in the language and knowledgeable of the culture and
business customs of the country.
B. Plan an elaborate visual presentation that you will make shortly after arrival, and follow that by quickly striving to reach an agreement or make the sale.
C. Resolve to keep your political views and personal beliefs to yourself even though you have strong feelings about the political climate and beliefs prevalent in the
country you will visit.
D. Obtain and study information about the country before leaving for your trip.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 12

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Which of the following factors would be most critical to consider early when contemplating a conversion of a "brick and mortar" retail business to an e-business?

A. What changes to the customer database are likely and what the ramifications of those changes are II. What image our new faceless organization will provide to
the buying public III. Should IT be outsourced?
IV. What internal impacts will the change from a personal service orientation to a transaction- processing orientation have on the workforce we employ and the
technology approach we select?
B. III only
C. I, II, and IV
D. I and IV only
E. III and IV only

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 13
To gain a competitive edge, a commercial flower grower seeks a technology solution that will improve productivity, quality, customer satisfaction, and profits. Which
of the following actions would provide the best results within one year?

A. Contract with a call center to handle customer complaints.

B. Set up an informational Web site to display flowers available.
C. Implement a GIS mapping system to more effectively allocate growing space based on growth requirements of the flowers, soil conditions, sunlight, and
irrigation channels.
D. Provide field workers with portable devices for recording flower growth, quality factors, and yield --for downloading nightly to a program to compute productivity,
quality status, and potential yield by type of crop and when it will be available for shipment.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 14
In selecting among different projects, the time value of money is considered for which of the following reasons?

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A. To perform a costbenefit analysis
II. To prioritize investments
III. To predict cash flow
IV. To reduce operating costs
B. I, II, and III only
C. I, II, III, and IV
D. III and IV only
E. I and II only

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 15
An external risk factor that might need to be considered when conducting project planning is:

A. Lack of resources.
B. Regulatory requirements.
C. Organizational rules.
D. Technological capabilities.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
answer is corrected.

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is the biggest problem in costbenefit analysis?

A. It is easier to accurately estimate benefits than costs.

B. It is easier to accurately estimate costs than benefits.
C. It is an elaborate tool requiring extensive computer support.
D. It is too difficult to compute the time value of money.

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Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 17
Which of the following elements would be expected to be included in a good project plan?

A. Costbenefit analysis
II. Timetable for completion
III. Description of required resources
IV. Statement of project deliverables
B. I and II only
C. II and III only
D. I, III, and IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 18
Which of the following is not an advantage of a formal project report?

A. They generally address a specific issue.

B. They are suitable for long-term retention.
C. They usually include additional background information.
D. They are useful to individuals not closely involved with the project.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 19
The most critical use for project portfolio analysis is to:

A. Compare the net value of a new project relative to continuing previously approved projects
B. Determine the best time to start a new project
C. Assess the feasibility of starting a new project relative to the resources being allocated to existing projects as well as assessing the strategic fit of the new
project
D. Make room for a new project by canceling or postponing an existing project that will not produce as high an ROI as the new project

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 20
Given a four-week project involving 22 tasks, a budget of $22,000, and a part-time team (project manager and two analysts), which project management tool will
most likely be used to display project progress to management?

A. Work breakdown structure

B. Network diagram
C. Budget variance report
D. Gantt/milestone chart

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 21
The mission statement for a quality function would best focus on:

A. Reducing defects.

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B. Assessing the performance of production workers.
C. Companywide and departmental activities that collectively result in product and/or service quality.
D. Leading small teams that break down barriers and reach higher organizational goals.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 22
Which of the following quality tools is most likely to identify a specific quality system effectiveness problem to be addressed?

A. Process map
B. Balanced scorecard
C. Quality management system audit
D. Employee performance appraisal

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 23
The Baldrige Award performance excellence criteria address which types of performance?

A. Procedural compliance
II. Supplier related
III. Customer related
IV. Financial and marketplace
B. I and IV only
C. III and IV only
D. II, III, and IV only
E. III only

Correct Answer: C

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 24
The purpose of the ISO 9001 standard is to:

A. Provide confidence in quality management systems by offering a common basis for assessments.
II. Provide confidence to customers and other stakeholders that the requirements for quality are being, or will be, met.
III. Systematically pursue ever higher levels of overall company and human performance, including quality, productivity, and time performance.
IV. Build loyalties and teamwork while encouraging and supporting initiative and risk taking.
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. III and IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 25
Which of the following is true?

A. Benchmarking should be an ongoing process contributing to continual improvement

B. Six Sigma methodology is only applicable to large problems causing variation in manufactured product
C. A kaizen event is held in celebration of a significant process improvement
D. The concepts of TQM are passé

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
answer is modified.

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QUESTION 26
Which of the following concepts may best exemplify a universal business rationale for improving quality?

A. Crosby's "Do it right the first time"

B. Ishikawa's "Total quality control"
C. Deming's "Chain reaction"
D. Juran's "Trilogy"

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 27
All but one of the following statements is true. Which one is not true?

A. Cost and quality are complementary rather than conflicting objectives.

B. The cost of quality is primarily the investment in obtaining and sustaining good quality.
C. When production output is less than free of all defects, people are being paid to produce poor quality.
D. Nothing less than 100 percent inspection will suffice to ensure that good quality is produced.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 28
The concept of self-control by a production worker includes:

A. Knowing what the organizational goals are, what the job objective is, and the standard for performance.
II. Knowing what the actual performance is.
III. Notifying supervision whenever a nonconformance occurs.
IV. Having the means for changing the performance when it does not conform to the goals, objectives, and standard.
B. III only

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C. I, II, and III only
D. I and II only
E. I, II, and IV only

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 29
A new process improvement team has just flowcharted how a process currently works. The value to the team is to:

A. Document and retain records demonstrating how work activities were performed at a specific moment in time.
B. Gain consensus on how information and materials currently flow through the organization.
C. Validate baseline performance data collected before a change is implemented.
D. Assess the level of compliance against a quality standard.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 30
An acute-care unit of a medium-size hospital wants to develop a standardized approach to root cause analysis to improve diagnostic effectiveness. What tools
should they consider for their "toolbox"?

A. Flowchart
II. Check sheet and Pareto chart
III. Fishbone chart
IV. Five whys
B. Histogram and scatter diagram
VI. Control charts
VII. DMAIC
C. II, III, IV, and VII only
D. VII only

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E. IV and VII only
F. I, II, III, IV, V, VI, and VII

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 31
A work team has identified three software packages that will help them dramatically improve a process and needs to decide which to purchase. Each package has
some of the same and some different features and there are many different criteria that need to be used in making the decision. Which of the following tools is
likely to be most valuable for helping the team decide?

A. Priorities matrix
B. Tree diagram
C. Matrix diagram
D. Activity network diagram

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 32
Brainstorming is a tool used primarily for:

A. Generating new ideas.

B. Analysis of data.
C. Organization of a list of items.
D. Deciding among a list of items.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 33
The best tool for analyzing the relationship, over time, between quantitative data from two variables suspected to influence one another, is a:

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A. Pareto chart
B. Scatter diagram
C. Interrelationship digraph
D. Affinity diagram

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 34
Uses of a matrix-type chart include:

A. Deploying the voice of the customer throughout the organization.

II. As a spreadsheet to allocate resources by type over time.
III. Analyzing a portfolio of projects against a set of criteria to determine relative priority of each project for implementation.
IV. Displaying the estimated time span of tasks within a project over the duration of the project.
B. II, III, and IV only
C. II only
D. I, II, III, and IV
E. II and III only

Correct Answer: C

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 35
In an insurance claims processing unit, which quality tool would be most useful to analyze the amount of variation in the process used to code claims for computer
entry and in determining whether the process is stable prior to embarking on an improvement effort?

A. Control chart
B. Histogram
C. Process map
D. PDPC

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 36
All but one of the following tool sets could be used to help an educational institution identify the cause of excessive student tardiness. Which one could not?

A. Brainstorming and an Ishikawa diagram

B. Five whys and a problem-solving model
C. FMEA and DMAIC
D. Check sheet and affinity diagram

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 37
Which of the following would be the best tool to use to understand the process linkage from supplier to customer:

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A. PDSA
B. DMAIC
C. FMEA
D. SIPOC

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 38
One of the best tools for assessing the impacts of identified risks in the design of a hydroelectric dam and power station is:

A. Failure mode and effects analysis

B. Mean time between failure
C. Cost of poor quality
D. Reliability studies

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 39
A more accurate accounting of the costs to produce a product can be achieved with:

A. Traditional cost accounting methods

B. Activity-based costing
C. Correctly distinguishing between internal and external failure costs
D. Correctly differentiating between prevention and appraisal costs

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 40
Data that is derived from counting is derived from measuring is data.

A. Attribute, variable
B. Numeric, verbal
C. Variable, attribute
D. Quantitative, qualitative

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
corrected.

QUESTION 41
Process analysis is to a flowchart as brainstorming is to a:

A. Checklist
B. Scatter diagram
C. Mind map
D. Pareto chart

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 42
Categorizing the cost of quality into failure costs, appraisal costs, and prevention costs is essential to be able to:

A. Reduce the total cost of quality to as near zero as possible.

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B. Allocate efforts to effectively balance reduction of failures with detection of failures, as well as preventing failures.
C. Substantially increase appraisal costs to detect failures before shipment.
D. Virtually eliminate appraisal costs by adding to prevention efforts.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 43
All except one of the following could be a process goal for a for-profit service organization. Which one?

A. Ensure that the design of a service to customers follows industry safety standards.
B. Ensure that the service delivered produces a profit.
C. Dedication to continual process improvement.
D. Discipline any employee who fails to meet the service standards of the organization.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 44
A common approach to understanding and improving a process is to:

A. Convene a focus group to study the process.

B. Form a cross-functional ad hoc team to map the existing process, then after analysis, map the process as it might appear after improvement.
C. Implement statistical process control.
D. Audit the process to the ISO 9001 standard.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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Explanation:

QUESTION 45
Lean tools are primarily focused on:

A. Eliminating waste.
B. Better workplace management.
C. Increasing customer value.
D. Reducing resources.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 46
Takt time:

A. Is a measure of the time between each operation in a cycle.

B. Sets the pace of production to coincide with customer demand.
C. Is another term for cycle time.
D. Is the total sequential processing time to produce one item in a work cell.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 47
Which of the following statements are essential to understanding the theory of constraints?

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A. The system, similar to a chain, is only as strong as its weakest link.

II. Not much improvement can occur until the weakest link is addressed.
III. Success or failure is dictated by the interaction of the process with the system.
IV. Once the weakest link is fixed, the system requires no further improvement.
B. I, II, and III only
C. I, II, and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
E. I and II only

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 48
Theory of constraints:

A. Follows the steps in the process.

B. Follows the processes in the system.
C. Follows the flow of money.
D. Follows after process reengineering.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 49
Looking at the following data:
40, 20, 10, 20, 50, 90, 80, 30, 20, 40 the mean is , the median is ,

A. 40, 35, 20
B. 40, 20, 40
C. 20, 40, 40
D. 45, 70, 20

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 50
Disposition of a product using go/no-go data is based on what type of sampling plan?

A. Variable
B. Attribute
C. Reduced
D. Tightened

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 51
The best technique for analyzing qualitative data is to:

A. Designate meaningful categories and assign each response to a category, then sum the number of responses in each category as the indication of the
category's importance to the population responding.
B. Assign a value rating to each response, then sum the ratings for all responses, and use the mean as representative of the responses of the total population.
C. Score each response according to personality type.

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D. Search for keywords, significant to the research being done, in each response. Count the number of each keyword used and take the keyword usage totals as
representative of the population studied.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
answer is verified.

QUESTION 52
A way to ensure a near 100 percent response rate for a survey is to conduct the survey with the group targeted for study at a time and place when everyone in the
group is present and everyone is required to complete the survey. There may still be problems possible with this approach that could cause poor decisions to be
made from false data, such as:

A. Some persons may refuse to take the survey or they may intentionally corrupt their answers if they resent the method used.
II. Some persons may find that the pressure of having to complete the survey without lagging behind most of the group may distort or inhibit clear thinking, and
prevent a well-thought-through response.
III. In their haste to get it over with, some respondents, without thought, may just randomly answer the questions.
IV. Even though response documents may not show respondent identification, some respondents may feel they have to furnish the answers they think
management wants to see.
B. IV only
C. II and III only
D. I only
E. I, II, III, and IV

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 53
Long-range trend analysis is typically used in performing which of the following activities?

A. Control charting
B. Management review
C. Internal auditing

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D. Design review

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 54
Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of events, from beginning to end, for reducing special causes of variation?

A. Search for the cause.

II. Develop a long-term remedy.
III. Gather data to identify special causes.
IV. Put an immediate remedy in place to contain any damage.
B. I, III, IV, II
C. IV, III, II, I
D. II, I, III, IV
E. III, IV, I, II

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 55
Which of the following is true about the relationship between Cp and Cpk?

A. Cp = Cpk when the process is centered.

II. Cpk is always less than or equal to Cp.
III. Cp is always less than or equal to Cpk.
IV. There is no direct relationship between Cp and Cpk.
B. I only
C. IV only
D. I and II only
E. III and IV only

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Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 56
Which of the following techniques is most useful for measuring the test retest reliability of a survey?

A. Calculate Cronbach's coefficient alpha.

B. Use differently worded items to measure the same attribute.
C. Have the same respondents complete a survey at two different points in time.
D. Conduct an organized review of the survey to ensure that it includes everything it should.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 57
Management's goal is to continually improve customer service and satisfaction. Their actions include the following. Which of these actions is least likely to help
achieve the goal?

A. Provide for positive reinforcement to employees who are trying to satisfy customers.
B. Encourage and support cooperation and conformance to quality standards amongst internal customers.
C. Establish an employee suggestion box system.
D. Ensure that employees have the training, information, and physical things they need to do their jobs well.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 58
At a distributor of plumbing supplies, which one of the following actions will have the most positive influence on employees to improve products, processes, and
services?

A. Provide rubber mats to relieve the fatigue of counter service personnel.

B. Implement an inventory system that will ensure that all commonly ordered items are in stock when needed.
C. Train all employees in the seven basic quality tools.
D. Establish and support cross-functional process improvement teams to address processes where potential improvement is indicated.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 59
Which of the following lists is most representative of "external customers"of the town's public high school?

A. Students, parents, colleges, potential employers, town school board, and community volunteer agencies
B. Students, parents, teachers, potential employers
C. Students, parents, colleges, potential employers
D. Students, parents, town school board

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 60
Effective actions taken to improve products and service provided by a sports clothing manufacturer to the distributors of their athletic products could include:

A. Conducting a survey of all end users

II. Collecting and analyzing data on what type and quality of the manufacturer 's products appear to be in demand based on shipments in the past twelve
months.
III. Identifying patterns of sales by product, by geographic location, and by size of distributor.
IV. Mutually identifying targets of opportunity beneficial to both manufacturer and distributors, setting improvement objectives, and planning the improvements

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B. I and IV only
C. II and III only
D. I, II, III, and IV
E. II, III, and IV only

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 61
Segmentation of a teaching hospital's patient database would be:

A. Useful in allocating physical resources.

II. Helpful in balancing staffing needs.
III. Advantageous in the process of applying for additional funding to accommodate projected demands on facilities and staff.
IV. Impractical because of the transient nature of the patient base.
B. IV only
C. I and II only
D. III only
E. I, II, and III only

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 62
A clustered-preference customer segment would be characterized by:

A. Consumer preferences that vary a great deal.

B. Consumers having roughly the same preferences.
C. Competing products that would be dissimilar between clusters.
D. Competing products that would be similar between clusters.

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Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 63
Which of the following should be accomplished first when implementing customer relationship management initiatives?

A. Target key customers for relationship management.

B. Appoint a manager to supervise the customer service representative.
C. Assign a relationship manager to each key customer.
D. Develop customer relationship management plans.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 64
Which of the following are proactive sources of customer information?

A. Claims/refunds
II. Technical services provided as part of the total product package III. Monitoring of broad market trends
IV. Observing customers using the product or service
B. II only
C. IV only

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D. I and III only
E. III and IV only

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 65
Which of the following is the most appropriate sequence of events for administering a customer satisfaction survey, from beginning to end?

A. Prepare the survey instrument.

II. Administer the survey.
III. Report the results.
IV. Identify survey objectives.
B. Analyze the data.
VI. Organize the data.
C. I, VI, IV, II, V, III
D. I, II, V, VI, III, IV
E. IV, I, II, VI, V, III
F. VI, I, II, V, IV, III

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 66
Which of the following is the most direct technique for measuring customer value?

A. Focus groups
B. Market test
C. Trade-off analysis
D. In-person interview

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Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 67
Quality function deployment looks at the relationship between all but which of the following components?

A. Customer wants/needs
B. Company product/process characteristics
C. Competitor product performance
D. Customer service training requirements

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 68
A focus group consisting of external customers would be useful to:

A. Collect data that can be used to construct a customer survey.

II. Test the acceptability of a proposed new service.
III. Validate customer satisfaction across the entire customer base.
IV. Identify ways an existing service could be improved.
B. I, II, III, and IV
C. IV only
D. I, II, and IV only
E. II and III only

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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Explanation:

QUESTION 69
Mystery shopping is a term that applies to:

A. Use of random sampling to collect audit information.

B. Management by walking around (MBWA) for the retail industry.
C. Anonymous observation of customer service practices.
D. Verification of accuracy and reliability of sales data.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 70
The first step in a successful customer satisfaction program is to:

A. Hire and train qualified staff and reward them based on performance.
B. Get to know the customers' most pressing needs.
C. Develop a strategic alliance/partnership with key customers.
D. Get management commitment to a focus on customers.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 71
A listening post is a:

A. Physical place in the facility where employees gather to discuss comments heard from customers.
B. Place where customer comments, pro and con, are posted for all employees to see.
C. Practice whereby surveillance personnel periodically listen in to ongoing conversations between employees and customers for the purpose of identifying
employee behavior that can be improved.

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D. Designated individual or group trained to listen carefully to customer comments, and record the comments in a process where the comments can be analyzed
(trended) and actions taken to improve customer satisfaction.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 72
In the development of a consumer appliance product survey which of the following data would likely aid the process?

A. An analysis of customer complaints received

II. Satisfaction data from a customer focus group
III. Number of product defects detected prior to shipments IV. Warranty registration data
B. I only
C. I, II, III, and IV
D. I and II only
E. I, II, and IV only

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 73
To further improve customer loyalty, an investment service organization may effectively use which of the following strategies?

A. A lost-customer analysis
II. Free lessons for customers on how to make wise investments III. A customer panel to determine acceptability of a free quarterly newsletter highlighting the
lives of long-term investors
IV. Direct computer access to market information and investment analysis data for high-value customers
B. I and III only
C. I, II, III, and IV
D. II, III, and IV only
E. I only

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Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 74
The best use of the cost of lost banking customers is to:

A. Compare this cost from one accounting period to another.

B. Compare lost-customer costs with costs to obtain new customers, and if the cost of obtaining new customers is greater, refocus efforts on customer retention.
C. Use these figures to reprimand employees responsible for lost customers.
D. Justify an initiative to contact lost customers and entice them to come back.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
up-to-date.

QUESTION 75
One of the most important customer service principles to apply is:

A. "The customer is always right."

B. When dealing with a problem, thank the customer for bringing theproblem to you and allowing you to help resolve the problem.
C. State your organization's policy regarding handling of such problems.
D. Be sure the customer realizes you are not responsible for the problem.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 76

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For a bookseller that sells entirely through a Web site, managing the diversity of customers would entail which of the following?

A. Adopting lean techniques to reduce cycle time

II. Continually developing new service features to take the place of services that have become "must haves"
III. Responding to the needs of a diverse customer base IV. Understanding and working closely with multiple publishers
B. III only
C. II and III only
D. II, III, and IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 77
Typical factors chosen as criteria for supplier selection would include all but:

A. Quality award winner.

B. Financial stability of supplier.
C. Capability to meet current and future demands.
D. Supplier 's track record for on-time delivery and incoming quality.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 78
A condition under which a supplier appearing on the customer 's "OK to buy from" list would not be issued an order would be:

A. Item needed is not available from any of OK'd suppliers.

II. Supplier 's quality rating has dropped below acceptable standards on last two shipments.
III. OK'd supplier does not have the capacity to fulfill the customer 's demands for the item needed.
IV. One or more factors from the selection criteria will not now be met by the supplier.

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B. I and III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III only
E. I, II, III, and IV

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 79
In medical device manufacturing and in pharmaceutical production, strict traceability is mandated by regulation. What type of actions may draw upon this
requirement?

A. Fulfillment of an unconditional guarantee

II. Replacement of failed product under warranty
III. A product recall that is needed to safeguard product users IV. Analysis of problems leads to process improvement
B. II, III, and IV only
C. III and IV only
D. I, II, and III only
E. I, II, III, and IV

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 80
An action of highest priority is for suppliers to:

A. Implement a system that ensures that customers' needs and the supplier 's terms of sale are mutually understood and agreed to.
B. Emphasize that the purchase order is the legal contract between buyer and seller.
C. Be sure that the customer 's order form meets supplier 's specifications.
D. Automatically reject an order if the customer makes demands the supplier deems unacceptable.

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Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 81
Some of the metrics that could be used to measure performance of a commercial painting contractor are:

A. On-time completion of a painting contract.

II. Quality rating resulting from customer 's third-party on-site inspection.
III. Amount (time and cost) or rework required. IV. Accuracy of billing.
B. I, II, III, and IV
C. I and III only
D. I, II, and III only
E. I, III, and IV only

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 82
Facts pertaining to which of the following would be critical in developing a system of supplier performance measurement for an aircraft engine manufacturer?

A. Amount of technical support provided by the supplier

II. Supplier Cpk
III. Defective product reworked before shipment
IV. MTBF of product after installation
B. II and IV only
C. I, II, III, and IV
D. I and II only
E. I, II, and IV only

Correct Answer: D

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 83
In planning the strategy for improving supplier performance, which of the following should be considered?

A. How the supplier will receive performance feedback

II. How effective is the supplier 's corrective and preventive action system III. Whether the supplier 's quality management system is certified to an industry-
pertinent standard IV. How much of this organization's resources will be needed to assist suppliers in improving performance
B. I, II, III, and IV
C. III and IV only
D. I and IV only
E. II, III, and IV only

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 84
All except one of the following could be a benefit to a supplier in a partnership or alliance with a customer. Which one?

A. Enabled to plan long-term production volume based on customer 's forecast of demand
B. Eliminate legal risks
C. Winwin relationship
D. Sharing of resources

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 85
The role of supply chain management is to:

A. Ensure that the right product/service, in the right quantity, of the right quality, gets to the right customer at the right time.
B. Control the performance of every organization involved in the supply chain.
C. Be totally responsible for the input from upstream suppliers to ensure that downstream customers receive outputs that conform to end users requirements.
D. Reduce inventory.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 86
Which of the following is not a technique or practice involved in supplier logistics management?

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A. Buffer inventory
B. Kanban
C. Modular assembly
D. Ship-to-stock

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 87

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The primary purpose of a supplier certification program is to:

A. Reward excellent suppliers.

B. Reduce the number of supplier audits.
C. Shift costs of supplier management from appraisal to prevention.
D. Transfer responsibility for supplier quality to the purchasing department.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
answer is appropriated.

QUESTION 88
Which of the following is the least effective technique for developing good relationships with suppliers?

A. Establishing long-term contractual agreements.

B. Using audits to gain leverage for change in supplier performance.
C. Providing assistance to suppliers to help them meet performance requirements.
D. Enhancing supplier knowledge of the company's near-term and longterm needs.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 89
The primary goal of procurement management is to:

A. Purchase goods that meet specified requirements.

B. Form a partnership to recognize key suppliers.
C. Foster sole-sourcing to reduce variation.
D. Reduce new-product development cycle time.

Correct Answer: A

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 90
Which of the following is the least desirable goal of the customer supplier relationship?

A. Maximize return on investment.

B. Satisfy shared customers further along the customersupplier chain.
C. Prohibit less capable suppliers from entering the market.
D. Ensure high levels of quality in incoming materials.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 91
When there is a slippage in quality, just-in-time inventory systems affect:

A. Product scrap rates.

B. Production schedules.
C. Incoming inspection efficiency.
D. Materials usage variances.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 92
Designing effective training approaches must take into account:

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A. The organization's work system.
II. Organization needs.
III. Individual employee needs.
IV. Training assessment criteria.
B. I, II, and III only
C. I, II, III, and IV
D. I, III, and IV only

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 93
Which of the following statements are true about the differences between training and education?

A. Training focuses more on doing, whereas education focuses more on thinking.

II. Training is typically provided by employers, whereas education might be funded but not provided.
III. Training teaches students to acquire new knowledge, whereas education teaches new skills.
IV. Training is more job focused, whereas education is more theoretical.
B. I and III only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, and IV only
E. II, III, and IV only

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 94
From the following pairs, select the most critical factors relating to training:

A. Support is derived from the strategic plan and the personal commitment and involvement of top management.
B. Top management commitment and employee acceptance of the need for training.

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C. What training is needed and when.
D. Who will deliver training and to whom.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 95
In time of financial stress, training is often one of the first functions to be discontinued, because:

A. Training is not considered part of the strategic plan.

II. Training is treated as a cost with no quantifiable benefits.
III. Management does not understand the connection between building and sustaining the organization's competencies and achieving profitability.
IV. The correlation between the function of training and the function of product realization has not been established.
B. I and II only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, II, III, and IV
E. II and IV only

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 96
Which of the following is the primary purpose of training?

A. Improved technological capabilities

B. Improved human resource capabilities
C. Improved employee satisfaction
D. Improved operational results

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 97
Training appears to be needed in all but one of the following situations. Which one?

A. A new law requires that training be done

B. A continual stream of terminations and new hires is occurring
C. A cell structure is being created and all employees within each cell must be able to do any task within the cell
D. All employees must learn basic quality principles

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 98
A training needs analysis is:

A. An assessment of an organization's capability to meet customers' needs.

B. The action taken as a direct result of a training design deficiency.
C. A gap analysis.
D. The best measure of an organization's performance effectiveness.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 99
All except one of the following is a technique used in assessing training needs. Which one is not?

A. Critical incident analysis

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B. Focus group
C. Task analysis
D. Performance problem analysis

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 100
Which of the following training delivery methods would be most effective in a situation with large employee populations, multiple sites needing concurrent delivery,
and high turnover rates that require continuous training?

A. Learner-controlled instruction
B. Classroom instruction
C. Case studies
D. Coaching

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 101
Which of the following is true?

A. Training to be delivered via an in-house intranet is likely to be more costly to develop than classroom-type training.
B. Training embedded in a transaction-processing computer program is usually ineffective as well as annoying to operators.
C. A printed training workbook serves only one purpose--documentation of textual content.
D. OJT is how an "old hand" teaches a new hire how things are done--it involves no structure or instructional standards.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 102
All but one of the following relates to how adults learn. Which one?

A. Adults have learned to do what they are told to do, and therefore learn what they are told to learn.
B. Adults need to know why they should learn something and have a need to self-direct their learning.
C. Adults sense that it is time to learn when they experience a need to know or to be able to perform more satisfactorily.
D. Adults are preconditioned before entering a learning situation, which affects their responsiveness to the learning experience--relative to both the process and
the content.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 103
Self-directed learning refers to:

A. Self-paced learning in some combination of print material, computeraided testing and simulations, CD-ROMs, and so on.
B. The choice an individual has as to what he or she wishes to learn.
C. Training always delivered without the presence of an instructor or advisor.
D. Any training not delivered in a classroom setting.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 104
All but one of the following is a job aid type instructional tool. Which one is not?

A. A programmable electronic calculator with programmed formulas

B. Embedded "help" screens in a computer program

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C. Preprinted instructions on a form
D. A signal light indicating that an error has occurred

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 105
Which of the following sequences demonstrates the lowest-to-highest order for evaluating training effectiveness?

A. What changes in behavior resulted? (Behavior)

II. What are the tangible results of the program? (Results) III. What principles, facts, or techniques were learned? (Learning) IV. How well did attendees like the
program? (Reaction)
B. I, II, III, IV
C. III, IV, II, I
D. II, I, III, IV
E. IV, III, I, II

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
modified.

QUESTION 106
In computing ROTI, which of the following would not be considered a training cost?

A. Trainer 's travel and living expenses

B. Employee turnover
C. Computer purchased solely for the training
D. Participants' time away from their jobs

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 107
When total quality management has been successfully implemented, the distinctions between staff and line activities can become blurred as empowered teams
become responsible for both plans and actions when management layers decrease. The role of the quality function may include all of the following Except:

A. Quality accounting
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality management system
D. Supplier Quality

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 108
The priority attributed to quality function is not based on size of the quality department. The quality function is not:

A. A prevention squad
B. Oriented towards defect detection
C. A screen or barrier to protect customer
D. All of these

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 109
Understanding leadership requires a fundamental understanding of organizations and the design factors that must be considered. The design of an organization is
the formal framework for communication and authority, and is determined by:

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A. Formalization, centralization and complexity
B. Formalization, centralization and outsourcing
C. Formalization and centralization
D. Centralization and complexity

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 110
Today, many organizations have reduced the number of managerial positions through restructuring while increasing the spans of control. The optimum span of
control is increasingly determined by issues such as:

A. Amount of employees training and experience

B. Strength of organization's culture
C. Available resources
D. Complexity of hierarchy

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 111
Many executives believe now believe that decisions should be made by those people with the best information to make decisions, regardless of their level in the
organization. More decentralization might be needed under one or more of the following conditions:

A. The environment is complex or uncertain

B. Lower level managers are capable and experienced at making decisions
C. Decisions are relatively minor
D. None of these

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 112
It may work behind the scenes or be highly visible to followers. Through personal motivation and power of persuasion, this leader gathers followers to a common
goal, sometimes inciting the followers to take physical action against a targeted group. It is a:

A. Cause leader
B. Organization leader
C. Opinion leader
D. Public leader

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 113
This individual may be perceived as a leader by his or her subordinates, peers and bosses for exhibiting one or more of these qualities:
1. Knowledge
2. Skills
3. Experience
4. Charisma
5. Action
6. Convincing speech
7. Empathy
8. Ethics
9. Empowerment
10. Collaboration
11. Support

Who is this?

A. Cause leader
B. Organization leader
C. Opinion leader

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D. Public leader

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 114
"Leaders of the future can no longer afford insularity. It is simply not an option in increasingly boundary-less organizations driven by customer power... now they
must destroy those walls and replace them with bridges." Key roles of a leader include being all of the following Except:

A. Facilitator
B. Appraiser
C. Forecaster
D. None of these

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 115
Some of the issues that make leadership difficult to define include:

A. Leadership of an organization may be an appointed role

B. Leadership may be taken on at various times by different people who are working together on a particular project
C. Deming described primary responsibility of a leader as transformation of the organization
D. A, B and C all are correct

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 116
Considering the maturity factor, the task and relationship behaviors comprise four leadership styles. These styles are: High task; low relationship, High task; High
relationship, High relationship; Low task, Low relationship; Low task. Leadership style where decisions are explained and where there is opportunity to clarify and
ask questions is:

A. High task; low relationship

B. High task; High relationship
C. High relationship; Low task
D. Low relationship; Low task

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 117
Considering the maturity factor, the task and relationship behaviors comprise four leadership styles. These styles are: High task; low relationship, High task; High
relationship, High relationship; Low task, Low relationship; Low task. Leadership style where specific instructions and close supervision of performance are
indicated is:

A. High task; low relationship

B. High task; High relationship
C. High relationship; Low task
D. Low relationship; Low task

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 118
Considering the maturity factor, the task and relationship behaviors comprise four leadership styles. These styles are: High task; low relationship, High task; High
relationship, High relationship; Low task, Low relationship; Low task. Leadership style where responsibility for decisions and implementation are turned over to the
employee is:

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A. High task; low relationship
B. High task; High relationship
C. High relationship; Low task
D. Low relationship; Low task

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 119
Considering the maturity factor, the task and relationship behaviors comprise four leadership styles. These styles are: High task; low relationship, High task; High
relationship, High relationship; Low task, Low relationship; Low task. Leadership style where ideas are shared, encouragement is provided, and leader acts as a
coach is:

A. High task; low relationship

B. High task; High relationship
C. High relationship; Low task
D. Low relationship; Low task

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 120
A chairperson may be a leader and/or manager, depending much upon the influence he or she may have on an organization and the decision authority granted.
There are many roles a manager may perform.
As an architect he/she:

A. Organizes, people, ideas and things to achieve the enterprise's objectives

B. Builds an enterprise structure that supports the strategic goals and objectives
C. Embraces the principles, morals, and norms of the society in which organization impacts
D. Imparts knowledge and teaches skills to others

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Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 121
A chairperson may be a leader and/or manager, depending much upon the influence he or she may have on an organization and the decision authority granted.
There are many roles a manager may perform.
As an ethicist he/she:

A. Organizes, people, ideas and things to achieve the enterprise's objectives

B. Builds an enterprise structure that supports the strategic goals and objectives
C. Embraces the principles, morals, and norms of the society in which organization impacts
D. Imparts knowledge and teaches skills to others

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 122
Drucker identifies four tasks of management Excluding:

A. The task of economic performance

B. The task to make work productive and worker achieving
C. The task to managing the social impacts and social responsibilities of the enterprise
D. The task of managing within the dimension of budget

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 123
Is a person from outside the organization who has been hired to advise and help facilitate the change process. He/she has greater degree of freedom and should
be better able to access activities and provide honest feedback.

A. Change agent
B. Mentor
C. Ethicist
D. Business Generator

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 124
A chairperson may be a leader and/or manager, depending much upon the influence he or she may have on an organization and the decision authority granted.
There are many roles a manager may perform.
As a trainer he/she:

A. Organizes, people, ideas and things to achieve the enterprise's objectives

B. Builds an enterprise structure that supports the strategic goals and objectives
C. Embraces the principles, morals, and norms of the society in which organization impacts
D. Imparts knowledge and teaches skills to others

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 125
A chairperson may be a leader and/or manager, depending much upon the influence he or she may have on an organization and the decision authority granted.
There are many roles a manager may perform.
As an organizer he/she:

A. Organizes, people, ideas and things to achieve the enterprise's objectives

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B. Builds an enterprise structure that supports the strategic goals and objectives
C. Embraces the principles, morals, and norms of the society in which organization impacts
D. Imparts knowledge and teaches skills to others

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 126
All organizations have limited resources and opportunities, and must allocate them so as to best accomplish the mission with high efficiency. A possible solution is:

A. To ensure the strategic and operational plans clearly indicate the priorities and strategies for the organization
B. To communicate, communicate, and communicate!
C. To ensure that authority levels are clearly spelled out for typical situations
D. To have employees go outside the organizational walls

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 127
In a typical organization, there are many different strategies and people put their focus where it seems best placed, but this may not agree with what is actually
expected or desired. A possible solution for such a situation is:

A. To ensure the strategic and operational plans clearly indicate the priorities and strategies for the organization
B. To communicate, communicate, and communicate!
C. To ensure that authority levels are clearly spelled out for typical situations
D. To have employees go outside the organizational walls

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 128
Although an organization may have clearly communicated plans and have good cross functional relationships but because of vertical communication alignment of
goals and activities is often slower. A possible solution to this issue is:

A. To ensure the strategic and operational plans clearly indicate the priorities and strategies for the organization
B. To communicate, communicate, and communicate!
C. To ensure that authority levels are clearly spelled out for typical situations
D. To have employees go outside the organizational walls

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 129
In an organization, the members do have generally inward focus. The day-to-day attention of many members of the organization may not get external focus to look
for ideas, support and feedback. The possible solution for such a situation may be:

A. To ensure the strategic and operational plans clearly indicate the priorities and strategies for the organization
B. To communicate, communicate, and communicate!
C. To ensure that authority levels are clearly spelled out for typical situations
D. To have employees go outside the organizational walls

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
answer is updated.

QUESTION 130
Managing change is particularly complex due to the fact that much of what must be changed often consists of intangibles such as beliefs, behavior s and policies.
These types of constraints are more difficult to identify. We can get help from:

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A. GATT chart
B. PERT chart
C. A force-field analysis
D. None of these

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 131
A modification of Lewin's unfreezing-moving-refreezing model may provide support for change. According to this model there are following ways to reduce change
resistance Except:

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A. Understand the emotional impact of change

B. Understand the impact of change to intellectual property
C. Be consistent in responding to resistance
D. Be flexible, be patient and be supportive

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 132
Which of these circumstances might reasonably prompt a reevaluation of an organization's policies and strategic objectives?

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A. The retirement of the CEO
II. A merger with another company
III. Divestiture of a major division
IV. Obsolescence of a major technology
B. I, II, III, and IV
C. II, III, and IV only
D. I, II, and IV only
E. II and III only

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 133
A small chain of five retail stores has just completed its initial strategic planning and wishes to determine the effectiveness of its plans for the first year. They should
track and measure:

A. Results from action plans.

B. Frequency of application of the quality policy.
C. Attainment of the strategic objectives.
D. Organization goals.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation:

QUESTION 134
Three hospitals are located within the same metropolitan are a. One hospital determined that both its cafeteria and its gift shop ranked lower in variety and
convenience than the other two hospitals. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

A. Normalize the data based on any significant differences in the customers being served (for example, economic strata).
B. Subcontract the cafeteria and gift shop to outside sources that can provide greater attention to these nonmedical aspects of the hospital operations.
C. Colocate the cafeteria and the gift shop in order to share resources, reduce costs, simplify access, and allow a greater investment in variety.

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D. Look at customer purchasing patterns and profit margins to maximize investment payback.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 135
Strategic planning may include all but which of the following?

A. A SWOT analysis
B. Hoshin planning and deployment
C. A seven-step problem-solving technique
D. Scenario planning

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 136
During the development of company strategy, input should be sought from:

A. Advertising agencies.
B. Competitors.
C. Stakeholders.
D. Public relations advisers.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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QUESTION 137
To establish the direction an organization's first strategic planning initiative should take, the organization should first create:

A. A mission statement.
B. Organizational objectives.
C. A vision statement.
D. Action plans.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 138
An organization's environmental scanning process has uncovered the following:

What technique/tool was most likely used to categorize and analyze these and other similar data?

A. Priorities matrix
B. Process map
C. Quality function deployment
D. SWOT analysis

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 139
The role of the quality function in supporting strategic plans could include all but which of the following?

A. Institute and enforce a quality policy across all organizational functions.

B. Lead the implementation of an ISO 9001 QMS, as identified in the strategic plan.
C. Advise other functions in the setting of quality objectives that are linked to the organization's strategic plan.
D. Facilitate the deployment of the voice of the customer throughout the organization.

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Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 140
In preparation for strategic planning, organizations should look closely at their industry to determine:

A. The amount of excess capacity.

II. Which competitors might join forces and become a greater threat.
III. How employees perceive competitor advertisements.
IV. What changes in regulatory requirements are likely to occur.
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II, and IV
E. I, II, III, and IV

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 141
Scenario planning is used for:

A. Deciding which continuous improvement project recommendations to implement first.

B. Determining which method of financial analysis to use.
C. Envisioning several alternative strategic viewpoints.
D. Analyzing the results of a SWOT analysis.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 142
The preferred technique/tool used to determine the strategies of organizations serving the same market as your own organization is:

A. Competitive analysis.
B. Benchmarking.
C. Industry trade association data research.
D. Survey of competitor 's customers.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
valid and updated.

QUESTION 143
A stakeholder analysis would:

A. Determine the appropriate dividend amount to be distributed to shareholders.

B. Assess the feasibility of a partnership with a key supplier.
C. Provide the basis to recommend the best strategy for dealing with pressure from a competitor.
D. Delineate the outputs and outcomes needed by customers and regulatory agencies affecting the business.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 144
Future technology advancements can affect:

A. The services the organization provides.

II. The speed of communications and the response time expected.
III. The mass obsolescence of major existing products and processes.

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 IV. The increased human competence required to design processes that effectively utilize the advanced technology available.
B. I, II, and IV only
C. II only
D. I and IV only
E. I, II, III, and IV

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 145
In developing a private college's balanced scorecard, which four of the following information categories would be best to consider?

A. Alumni contributions
II. Current student enrollments
III. Percentage of students graduated
IV. Faculty competence level
B. Academic rating among competitors
VI. Cash flow
VII. New and/or updated programs under development
C. III, IV, V, VI
D. I, II, III, VI
E. I, IV, V, VII
F. II, III, V, VI

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 146
The most critical consideration in the deployment of strategic plans is:

A. Sufficient resources can be made available to carry out the plans.

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B. The strategic goals do not exceed the present organization's capabilities.
C. Middle management agrees with senior management that the strategic objectives are achievable.
D. A process for tracking and measuring achievement of strategic goals is in place.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 147
Of the following core values and concepts, which would be the most critical to apply to a newly mandated state emergency management agency?

A. Visionary leadership
II. Customer-driven excellence
III. Agility
IV. Focus on the future
B. Focus on results and creating value
VI. Management by fact
VII. Managing for innovation
C. I, III, V, VII
D. II, V, VI
E. I, III, IV, V, VI, VII
F. V, VI

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 148
Knowledge and application of which of the following management theories and styles would be most useful to a manager dealing with an employee who is
performing poorly?

A. Maslow's hierarchy of needs

II. Herzberg's two-factor theory

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 III. McGregor 's theory X and theory Y
IV. Kolb's experiential learning model
B. Behavior management--ABC analysis
VI. Hersey-Blanchard's situational leadership model
VII. Senge's systems thinking
C. II, IV, VII
D. I, II, V, VI
E. I, III
F. IV, VII

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 149
Typical tools used as aids in selecting members for a process improvement team are:

A. DiSC and MBTI.

B. MBTI and process mapping.
C. Root cause analysis and fishbone chart.
D. Brainstorming and affinity diagram.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 150
Organizational components that not only support other internal functions but also support external stakeholders are:

A. Information technology and human resources.

B. Finance and customer service.
C. Engineering and R&

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D. D. Marketing and quality.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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