Online Test - 2 (Objective) All India Aakash Test Series-2016

All India Aakash Test Series-2016

Online Test – 2
Time : 3 Hrs. MM : 720

TOPICS COVERED
PHYSICS
Laws of Motion; Work, Energy and Power; Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Body

CHEMISTRY
States of matter: Gases and Liquid, Thermodynamics, Equilibrium, Redox Reactions

BIOLOGY
System of Classification, Salient features and classification of plants into major groups-Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes,
Gymnosperms and Angiosperms: Angiosperms-classification up to class, characteristic features and Examples,
Morphology of Flowering Plants: Root, Stem, Leaf, Inflorescence-Racemose and Cymose, Flower, Fruit and Seed,
Families. Animal tissues; Morphology, anatomy and functions of different systems (digestive, circulatory, respiratory,
nervous and reproductive) of an insect (cockroach). (Brief account only), Chemical constituents of living cells:
Biomolecules-structure and function of proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids; Enzymes-types, properties, enzyme
action.

[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. A ball of mass m, moving with a velocity v along 3. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 20 kg are placed
x-axis, strikes another ball of mass 2m kept at rest. on the x-axis. The first mass is moved on the axis
The first ball comes to rest after collision and the by a distance of 2 cm. By what distance should
other breaks into two equal pieces. One of the second mass be moved to keep the position of the
pieces starts moving along y-axis with speed v1. centre of mass unchanged?
The velocity of other piece will be
(1) 2 cm
2
(1) v – v12 (2) v 2
 v12 (2) 0.5 cm
(3) 0.25 cm
v2 v2
(3) (4) 1 (4) 1 cm
v1 v
2. A ball of mass m is dropped onto a floor from a 4. Block B of weight w lying on a table, the coefficient
certain height. The collision is perfectly elastic and of static friction between the block and the table is
the ball rebounds to the same height and again  The maximum weight of block A for which the
falls. The average force exerted by the ball on the system will be stationary
floor during a long time interval
(1) mg B 
(2) 2mg
A
mg
(3) (1) w tan (2) w cos
2
mg w tan
(4) (3) (4) w 1  tan2 
4 

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 All India Aakash Test Series-2016 Online Test - 2 (Objective)
5. Particle A of mass 100 g moves along x-axis with 10. A block of mass m is resting on an inclined plane.
uniform velocity 10 m/s. Particle B of same mass The inclination of the plane to the horizontal is
moves along y-axis with uniform velocity 20 m/s as gradually increased. It is found that when angle of
shown in figure. Find the relative velocity A with inclination is , the block just begins to slide down
respect to centre of mass. the plane. What is the minimum force applied
parallel to the plane that would just make the block
Y
move up the plane?
–1
B 20 ms
X
A 10 ms–1

(1) 5iˆ  10 jˆ (2) 10iˆ  5 jˆ
(1) 2mgsin (2) mgsin

(3) 5iˆ  10 jˆ (4) Zero (3) mgsin mgcos (4) 2 mgcos

11. A block of 2 kg is suspended from the ceiling of an
6. A rocket with a lift off mass 3.5 104 kg is blasted elevator through a massless spring of spring
upwards with an initial acceleration of 10 m/s2. Then constant k = 100 N/m. If the elevator is going up
the initial thrust of the blast is (g = 10 m/s2) with an acceleration of 2 m/s 2 then find the
(1) 1.75 105 N (2) 7 105 N elongation.
(3) 3.5 105 N (4) 14 105 N (1) 24 cm (2) 12 cm
7. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a (3) 36 cm (4) 20 cm
velocity 1200 ms–1. The man holding it can exert a 12. A block slides down a smooth inclined plane of
maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many elevation , fixed in an elevator going up with
bullets can be fired per second at the most? constant velocity v. The base of the incline has a
(1) One (2) Two length L. Find the time taken by the particle to
reach the bottom
(3) Three (4) Four
8. A wedge with mass M rests on frictionless
horizontal surface. A block with mass m is placed m v
on the wedge. There is no friction between the
block and the wedge. A horizontal force F is applied
to the wedge. What magnitude F must have if the 
L
block is to remain at constant height above the
table top?
2L 2L
m (1) (2)
F g sin  g cos 
M
 L 2L
(3) (4)
(1) Mg tan (2) (M – m) g tan g sin  g sin .cos 

(3) (M + m) g tan (4) (M + m) g sin 13. A particle of mass m is suspended from a ceiling
9. A particle is observed from two frames S1 and S2. through a string of length L. The particle moves in
The frame S2 moves with respect to S1 with an a horizontal circle of radius r. The tension in the
acceleration a. Let F1 and F2 be the pseudo forces string is
on the particle when seen from S 1 and S 2
respectively. Which of the following is/are not mgL mgL
(1) 2 2 (2)
possible? L r L2  r 2

(1) F1 = 0, F2 = 0 (2) F1  0, F2  0 mg mgr

(3) (4)
(3) F1  0, F2  0 (4) All of these L2  r 2 L2  r 2

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 Online Test - 2 (Objective) All India Aakash Test Series-2016
14. Two cars having masses m1 and m2 move in circles 20. A ball of mass 0.5 kg moving at a speed of 5 m/s
of radii r1 and r2 respectively. If they complete the collides with another ball of mass 1 kg. After the
circles in equal time, the ratio of their angular collision the balls stick together and remain
speeds 1/2 is motionless. What was the velocity of the 1 kg block
before the collision?
m1 r1
(1) m (2) r (1) 2 m/s (2) 2.5 m/s
2 2
(3) 3 m/s (4) 5 m/s
m1r1 21. Two equal masses are attached to the two ends of
(3) m r (4) 1
2 2 a spring of spring constant k. The masses are
pulled out symmetrically to stretch the spring by a
15. Let  denote the angular displacement of a simple length x over its natural length. The work done by
pendulum oscillating in a vertical plane. If the mass the spring on each mass is
of the bob is m, the tension in the string is mgcos
1 2 1 2
(1) At all the positions (1) kx (2)  kx
2 2
(2) Never at any position
1 2 1 2
(3) At the extreme positions (3)  kx (4) kx
4 4
(4) At the mean position
22. The kinetic energy of a particle continuously
16. An elevator of weight 500 kg is to be lifted up at a increases with time
constant velocity of 0.2 m/s. What would be the
minimum horse power of the motor to be used? (1) The resultant force on the particle must be at
an angle less than 90° with velocity all the time
(1) 3 hp (2) 1 hp
(2) The magnitude of its linear momentum is
(3) 2 hp (4) 1.3 hp increasing continuously
17. Two springs A and B (KA = 2 KB) are stretched by
(3) The resultant force must be parallel to the
applying force of equal magnitude at the four ends.
velocity at all instants
If the energy stored in A is E, that in B is
(4) Both (1) & (2)
E
(1) (2) 2E 23. A particle of mass m moves on a straight line with
2
its velocity varying with the distance travelled
E according to the equation v   x   where and
(3) E (4)  are constants. The total work done by all the
4
forces during a displacement from x = 0 to x = d is
18. A particle slides on the surface of a fixed smooth
sphere starting from the topmost point. Find the 1 1
(1) m 2 d (2) m2 d
angle rotated by the radius through the particle, 2 2
when it leaves contact with the sphere.
1 1
(3) m 22d (4) md
1 2 1 1 2 2
(1) cos (2) cos
3 3 24. The bob of a pendulum at rest is given a sharp hit
1 1 1 ⎛ 2 ⎞ to impart a horizontal velocity 10gl where l is the
(3) tan (4) tan ⎜ ⎟
3 ⎝3⎠ length of the pendulum. The difference in tension in
the string when the bob is at the lowest and highest
19. Force F  (2iˆ  3 jˆ) N is exerted on a particle of mass position is
1 kg. To move it on the line 3 y  2 x  5 by (1) mg
20 cm, the amount of work done is (x and y are in
cm) (2) 3mg

(1) 0.40 J (2) 0.60 J (3) 5mg

(3) 1 J (4) Zero (4) 6mg

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All India Aakash Test Series-2016 Online Test - 2 (Objective)
25. The natural length of the spring is l and spring 29. A ball hits the floor and rebounds after an inelastic
constant k. One end of the spring is fixed at the collision. In this case
ground and the other is fitted with smooth ring of
mass m as shown in figure. Initially the spring (1) The momentum of ball just after the collision is
makes an angle of 37° with the vertical when the the same as that just before the collision
system is released from rest. Find the speed of the (2) The mechanical energy of ball remains the
ring when the spring becomes vertical. same in the collision
(3) The total momentum of the ball and the earth
l 37° is conserved
(4) The total energy of the ball and the earth is
conserved
k l 2k
(1) l (2)
m 4 m 30. A ball falls on the ground from a height of 2 m and
rebounds up to a height of 1.5 m. Find the
l k l m coefficient of restitution.
(3) (4)
4 m 4 k
1
26. A motor drives a body along a straight line with a (1) 1 (2)
2
constant force. The power P developed by the
motor must vary with time t according to 1 3
(3) (4)
P P 3 2
31. In carbon monoxide molecule, the carbon and
oxygen atoms are separated by a distance
(1) (2) 1.2 10–10 m. The distance of centre of mass from
the carbon atom is
t t
P P (1) 0.48  10–10 m (2) 0.51 10–10 m
(3) 0.69 10–10 m (4) 0.56 10–10 m
(3) (4) 32. A force of 100 N is applied to the spoke of a wheel
at a distance 0.5 m from the axle. If the spoke and
t t
the applied force make an angle of 45° and 75°
27. A body is lifted by a man to a height of 1 m in from the horizontal, calculate the torque about the
30 s. Another man lifts same mass to the same axle of the wheel.
height in 60 s. The work done by them in the ratio
F
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1
A
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
45° 75° OA
28. A ball of mass m makes head-on elastic collision O spoke
with a ball of mass nm which is initially at rest. The
fractional transfer of energy by the first ball is

n (1) 24.5 N-m (2) 25 N-m

(1) 2
(n  1) (3) 50 N-m (4) 10 N-m
4n 33. A uniform thin bar of mass 3 kg and length 0.9 m
(2)
(n  1)2 is bent to make an equilateral triangle. Calculate the
moment of inertia about an axis passing through the
1 centre of mass and perpendicular to the plane of
(3)
n the triangle.
(1) 1 kg m2 (2) 0.09 kg m2
4n
(4)
n2  1 (3) 0.045 kg m2 (4) 0.025 kg m2

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34. A particle of mass 100 g is projected at time t = 0 38. A mass m placed on a frictionless horizontal table
from a point with a speed 20 m/s at an angle of 30° and attached to a string passing through a small
to the horizontal. Find the angular momentum of the hole in the surface. Initially, the mass moves in a
particle about the point of projection at time t = 1 s circle of radius r0 with a speed v0 and the free end
of the string is held by a person. The person pulls
(1) 7.5 kg m2s–1 the string slowly to decrease the radius of the circle
r0
(2) 5.2 kg m2s–1 to . Calculate the change in the kinetic energy of
2
(3) 8 kg m2s–1 the mass.

(4) 8.5 kg m2s–1

35. The angular velocity of a body rotating with an

acceleration of 2 rev/s2 as it completes the 5th
revolution after the start is 3 1
(1) mv 02 (2) mv 02
2 2
(1) 10 rev/s
1
(2) 20 rev/h (3) mv 02 (4) mv 02
4
39. A sphere of mass M and radius r slips on a rough
(3) 5 2 rev/s
horizontal plane. At some instant it has translational
velocity v0 and rotational velocity about the centre
(4) 2 5 rev/s v0
. The translational velocity of sphere after the
2r
36. A 10 m long ladder rests against a smooth vertical sphere starts pure rolling is
wall reaching a height of 8 m. An 80 kg man stands
2 1
half way up the ladder. Assuming the weight of the (1) v0 (2) v0
ladder to be negligible as compared to the man, find 5 5
the tangential force exerted by the ground on the 6 6
ladder. (3) v0 (4) v0
5 7

(1) 800 N 40. A force F  iˆ  3 jˆ  xkˆ is acting at a point

(2) 300 N r  2iˆ  6 ˆj  16kˆ . The value of x for which angular
momentum about origin is conserved is
(3) 400 N
(1) 8 (2) 2
(4) 500 N
(3) 3 (4) 4
37. Consider a wheel of a bicycle rolling on a level road 41. A circular plate of diameter ‘a’ is kept in contact with
at a linear speed v0 a square plate of side ‘a’ as shown in figure. The
density of the material and the thickness are same
for both. The centre of mass of composite system
D C will be (Take  = 3)

B v0
a
2
A
a a
(1) The speed of the particle A is zero
(1) Inside the circular plate
(2) The speed of B, C and D are equal to v0
(2) Inside the square plate
(3) The acceleration of A is zero (3) At the point of contact
(4) Both (1) & (3) (4) Outside the system

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All India Aakash Test Series-2016 Online Test - 2 (Objective)
42. A solid spherical ball rolls down without slipping on 44. The minimum horizontal force applied to the centre
incline. What fraction of total energy is associated of wheel of radius R and weight w to pull it over a
with rotation? R
step of height .
2
2 5
(1) (2)
7 7

2 F
1
(3) (4) R R
5 2
2
43. A particle of mass M moves with a constant velocity.
The locus of all points with respect to whom the w
angular momentum of the particle has same value (1) w (2)
2
is
w
(1) A straight line parallel to direction of motion of (3) w 3 (4)
the particle 3

(2) A straight line perpendicular to direction of 45. A rigid spherical body is spinning around an axis
motion of the particle without any external torque. Due to change in
temperature the volume increases by 1 % . Its
(3) A circle with axis parallel to direction of motion angular speed will
of the particle
(1) Decrease by 0.33% (2) Decrease by 0.67%
(4) A plane containing the particle and
perpendicular to its direction of motion (3) Decrease by 1% (4) Increase by 1%

[ CHEMISTRY ]

46. If pressure of a gas is increased by 20%, the 48. Correct statement among the following is/are
percentage decrease in volume at constant
temperature will be (a) Blowing air in elastic balloon follows Boyle’s
law.
(1) 20
(b) Temperature remain constants during the
(2) 16.6 expansion of ideal gas from high P to low P.
(3) 33.3 (c) Boyle’s temperature is more than critical
(4) 40 temperature for CO2.

47. Which of the following graph is correct? (1) (a) & (b) (2) (b) & (c)
(3) (a) & (c) (4) (c) only
T1 49. Which of the following is Amonton’s law?
V (1) P  T (at const. V) (2) P  V (at const. T)
P
(1) T1 (2) 1
1 (3) P  (at const. T) (4) V  T (at const. P)
V V
P
50. Average KE per molecule at 298 K of CO2(g) is
x J. Total KE of 1 mol CO 2 (g) will be (N 0 =
Avogadro’s constant)
T1
PV (1) x J (2) 2x J
(3) (4) All of these
⎛ x ⎞
(3) x N0 J (4) ⎜ N ⎟ J
P ⎝ 0⎠

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Online Test - 2 (Objective) All India Aakash Test Series-2016
51. Incorrect relation among the following is/are 60. In which of the following maximum heat is released
assuming same molarity and volume
(1) rms  1.22 MP (2) avg  0.921 rms
(1) HCl mixed with NaOH

8R (2) H2SO4 mixed with NaOH

(3) avg  (4) Both (1) & (2)
MT (3) HF mixed with NaOH

52. 127 ml of certain gas diffuse in the same time as (4) CH3COOH mixed with NaOH
100 ml of chlorine under the similar condition. Gas 61. Which of the following is an intensive property?
can be
(1) Surface tension (2) Internal energy
(1) CO2 (2) N2O
(3) Entropy (4) Heat capacity
(3) CO (4) Both (1) & (2)
62. If the value of  f H for CH2 = CH2 and CH3 – CH3
53. The partial pressure of CH4 in a mixture containing
are –300 and –500 kJ/mol, then enthalpy of
equal weight of H2, He, CH4 and O2. Total pressure hydrogenation of CH2 = CH2 will be
of the mixture is 20 atm
(1) –100 kJ/mol (2) –200 kJ/mol
(1) 1.48 atm (2) 2.48 atm
(3) 100 kJ/mol (4) 200 kJ/mol
(3) 10 atm (4) 0.084 atm
63. Given
54. Which of the following gas will have highest Boyle’s
temperature? A B  CD H  100 kJ
(1) H2 (2) He CD H  200 kJ
2D  E  2B H  300 kJ
(3) CH4 (4) NH3
55. The rate of effusion of a gas is directly proportional The value of H for A + E  B will be
to (T = temperature) at constant pressure will be (1) 600 kJ (2) 300 kJ
(3) Zero (4) –600 kJ
(1) T (2) T
64. Entropy change for isothermal process is given by
3
(3) (4) T 2
T2 V2 T2
(1) S  nRT ln V (2) S  nCp In T
56. Which of the following is correct? 1 1

(1) Ti > TC > TB (2) TC > Ti > TB T2 V2

(3) S  nC V In T (4)  S  nR ln V
(3) Ti > TB > TC (4) TC > TB > Ti 1 1

57. Which of the following is most viscous at room, 65. If K > 1.0, what will be the value of G°?
temperature?
(1) 1.0 (2) Zero
(1) Ethanol (2) Ethylene gloycol (3) Negative (4) Positive
(3) Glycerol (4) Ethanoic acid 66. Which will have minimum bond energy?
58. In which of the following process q = –w? (1) I – I (2) O – O
(1) Adiabatic (2) Isothermal (3) N – N (4) N – H

(3) Isochoric (4) Isobaric 67. The reaction occurs spontaneously if

59. The work done during expansion of a gas having (1) TS > H H = +ve, S = –ve
1 atm pressure from 5 L to 10 L in vacuum will be (2) TS = H H = S = +ve
(1) –8.31 J (2) –505.2 J (3) TS < H H = S = +ve
(3) Zero (4) –5 J (4) TS > H H = S = +ve

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All India Aakash Test Series-2016 Online Test - 2 (Objective)
68. At which point the equilibrium is established for 74. Which of the following can act as buffer solution?
following reaction?
(1) CH3COONa  NaOH
A  B  2C
(2) CH3COONa  NaCl
b d
C
(3) CH3COONa + CH3COOH
a B
Conc (4) NH4OH + NaCl
A
75. What will be the degree of dissociation of a 0.01 M
Time
weak acid HX? [Ka = 10–3]
(1) a (2) b (1) 0.31 (2) 0.27
(3) d (4) a and d both
(3) 0.1 (4) 0.17
69. pH at which Ni(OH)2 begins to precipitate from a
76. The pH of a solution formed by mixing 500 ml,
solution containing 10–3 M Ni2+ ions
1 M CH 3COONa and 200 ml, 1 M HCl will be
[Ksp of Ni(OH)2 = 10–13] (pKa (CH3 COOH) = 4.74) (log(1.5) = 0.176)
(1) pH = 3 (2) pH =10 (1) 4.9 (2) 4.6
(3) pH = 9 (4) pH = 6 (3) 4.2 (4) 5.3
70. In a chemical equilibrium N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3 (g), 77. In which of the following AgCl is least soluble?
the reaction will move forward when some amount
of (1) 1 M HCl (2) 1 M AgNO3

(1) Cl2 is added (3) 1 M CaCl2 (4) 1 M AlCl3

(2) NH3 is added 78. The relation between the solubility ‘S’ of a sparingly
soluble salt A2B3 and its Ksp will be
(3) CuSO4(aq) is added
(4) He is added at constant volume (1) S  Ksp (2) S  3 K sp

71. For a reaction A(s)  3B(g)  2C(g) , the total

(3) S  5 K sp (4) S  4 K sp
pressure at equilibrium is 6.25 atm. The value of
Kp will be
79. Which of the following sulphide is least soluble in
(1) 32.95 (2) 329.5 water?
(3) 25 (4) 250 (1) FeS (Ksp = 10–18) (2) HgS (Ksp = 10–53)

1 3 (3) MnS (Ksp = 10–13) (4) NiS (Ksp = 10–5)

72. The value of Kp for NH3 (g)  N2 (g)  H2 (g) is
2 2 80. Which of the following is a weak acid?
4 atm at 27°C. The value of Kp at 27°C if 3 moles
of N2 are added in the reaction (1) HCl (2) HBr

(1) 4 atm (2) 12 atm (3) HF (4) HI

(3) 16 atm (4) 8 atm 81. The ratio of oxidation state of terminal S-atoms in
73. Which of the following is amphiprotic?
(1) Na2CO3 is
(2) NaHCO3
(3) Na2HPO3 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
(4) NaH2PO2 (3) 3 : 2 (4) 1 : 1

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Online Test - 2 (Objective) All India Aakash Test Series-2016
82. Which of the following does not contain peroxide 87. Best reducing agent out of the following in aqueous
linkage? medium is
(1) H2O2 (2) O2F2
(1) Li (2) Na
(3) BaO2 (4) CrO5
(3) K (4) Cs
83. Number of moles of required to react
completely with 1 mol of ferrous oxalate in acidic 88. The number of oxygen atom having oxidation
medium will be number –2 in K3CrO8 is

5 3 (1) 2 (2) Zero

(1) (2)
3 5
(3) 4 (4) 3
1 1
(3) (4)
3 5 89. Equivalent mass of Cl2 when it disproportionate in
84. Oxidation state of underlined atom in CrO5 is basic medium as:

(1) +1 only (2) –1 only [M = mol. mass of Cl2]

(3) –1 and –2 (4) +1 and +2
85. Which of the following act as oxidising agent in M 3M
(1) (2)
Zn–Cu electrochemical cell? 3 5
(1) Zn2+(aq) (2) Cu2+(aq)
(3) Zn (4) Cu 5M M
(3) (4)
3 5
86. Which of the following cell will not work?
(1) Zn/Zn2+(aq) || Cu2+(aq)/Cu 90. Which of the following can act as both oxidising and
(2) Ag/Ag+(aq) || Cu2+(aq)/Cu reducing agent?

(3) Na/Na+(aq) || Al3+(aq)/Al (1) SO2 (2) H2S

(4) Al/Al3+(aq) || Zn2+(aq)/Zn (3) HNO3 (4) SO3

[ BIOLOGY]
91. Sporophyte of mosses and prothallus of ferns 93. In Polysiphonia, Porphyra and Spirogyra syngamy
resemble in is brought about by
(a) Having diploid set of chromosomes (1) Non-flagellate heterogametes in water
(b) Presence of sex-organs
(2) Non-motile isogametes inside the female sex
(c) Absence of vascular bundles organ
(d) Presence of multicellular and branched rhizoids
(3) Non-flagellate gametes inside the sex organ
(e) Lacking chloroplasts in cells
(4) Isogametes inside the oogonium
(1) (c), (d) & (e) (2) (c) & (d)
(3) (a), (b) & (e) (4) Only (c) 94. Plants lacking archegonia and embryogeny but
producing large amount of non-sulphated
92. Sex organs are made up of fertile as well as sterile hydrocolloids are
cells in
(1) Porphyra, Dictyota
(1) Chara, Chlamydomonas, Pogonatum
(2) Ficus, Sargassum
(2) Pteris, Polytrichum, Sphagnum
(3) Spirogyra, Ulothrix, Funaria (3) Ectocarpus, Volvox

(4) Volvox, Gracilaria, Ulothrix (4) Laminaria, Fucus

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All India Aakash Test Series-2016 Online Test - 2 (Objective)
95. How many of the following features/structures are 101. Find correct option w.r.t. a single ovule is attached
concerned with Selaginella and Cycas respectively? to the basal placenta of ovary.
(i) Monoecious plant, (ii) Rhizophore (1) Marigold, Zea
(iii) Stele, (iv) Cones (v) Heterospory
(2) Garden pea, Helianthus
(vi) Free living sporophyte (vii) Pyrenoids
(3) Dianthus, Triticum
(1) Six, One (2) Four, Two
(4) Argemone, Petunia
(3) Five, Four (4) Six, Four
102. In life cycle of a moss, the sporophytic structures
96. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t. are
pteridophytes?
(1) Oosphere, Zygote, Secondary protonema
(1) Use as soil-binders
(2) Spore mother cells, Oospore, Sperm
(2) First terrestrial plants to possess vascular
tissues (3) Seta, Capsule, Embryo
(3) Sperms require some chemotropic agents to (4) Gemmae, Antheridia, Egg
reach the mouth of archegonium
103. The cells proximal to the meristematic region in root
(4) Presence of heteromorphic alternation of undergo ________ and are responsible for
generation ________.
97. Syncarpous, bilocular ovary with axile position of (1) Differentiation, growth in length
placenta is commonly present in the members of
(2) Maturation, growth in girth
(1) Liliaceae (2) Solanaceae
(3) Elongation, growth in length
(3) Fabaceae (4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Rapid division, production of new cells
98. Riccia differs from Sphagnum in the absence of
104. Following diagram represents morphology of a
(a) An elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal vascular cryptogam with four labelled structures A,
(b) Elaters in capsule B, C, & D. Select the correct statement.
(c) Haplodiplontic life cycle
(d) Complete parasitic sporophyte on gametophyte (C)
Mark the correct option:
(A)
(1) (a) & (b) (2) (a), (b) & (d)
(3) Only (a) (4) (c) & (d) (B)
99. In which of the following plants stamens are united
(D)
by means of filaments?
(1) Pea, China rose (2) Salvia, Sunflower
(3) Mustard, Lily (4) Ocimum, Datura (1) (A) – Internode – short, haploid
100. Shape of chloroplast can be discoid, plate-like, (2) (D) – Rhizome – gives rise to tap roots
reticulate, cup shaped, spiral or ribbon shaped in
species of an algal group possessing (3) (B) – Branch – presence of sori
(a) Apical flagellation in zoospores (4) (C) – Cone – site of sporic meiosis
(b) C-phycoerythrin & chlorophyll –a, b 105. Gametophyte is monoecious, inconspicuous, thalloid,
photosynthetic and favouring cross-fertilisation in
(c) Pyrenoids in cytoplasm
(d) Starch as reserve food (1) Azolla, Selaginella

Mark correct option: (2) Sphagnum, Wolfia

(1) (a), (c) & (d) (2) (a) & (d) only (3) Adiantum, Dryopteris
(3) (b) & (c) (4) (c) & (d) only (4) Salvinia, Marsilea

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 Online Test - 2 (Objective) All India Aakash Test Series-2016

106. Mark incorrect one w.r.t. liliaceae 111. Find out the chromosome number in different parts
of a liverwort if there are 20 chromosomes in
(1) Inflorescence – solitary / cymose, often androcyte mother cells
umbellate clusters
(1) Antherozoids : 10, Archegoniophore : 10,
(2) Seeds – endospermous NCC : 10
(3) Flower – actinomorphic (2) VCC : 20, Archegonium : 20, Sperm : 10

(4) Habit – annual herbs with bulbs, corms and (3) Venter : 20, Oospore : 40, Antheridiophore : 20
rhizomes (4) Gemmae : 10, Zygote : 20, Spore mother cells : 20
107. During pollination the pollen grains are carried in air 112. Which of the following part of embryo sac degenerate
currents and reach the micropyle of ovules in after fertilisation in flowering plants?

(1) Cycadales, Coniferales (1) Three celled egg apparatus

(2) Triploid antipodal cells
(2) Sapindales, Polymoniales
(3) Central cells and synergids
(3) Ginkgoales, Poales, Gnetales
(4) Haploid synergids and three antipodal cells
(4) Coniferales, Gnetales, Polymonials
113. Gametophytic phase is represented by single to few
108. Seeded plants without fruits celled short-lived structure which is dependent on
the photosynthetic sporophyte in
(1) Include medium-sized trees or herbs
(1) Vascular amphibians
(2) Are the smallest group in plantae
(2) Seed bearing plants
(3) Possess stigma, style and ovules
(3) Non-vascular amphibians
(4) Have lateral veins in foliage leaves
(4) Thallophytes
109. Match the Column I with Column II.
114. Mark the wrongly matched pair.
Column I Column II (1) True ferns - Macrophylls
a. Groundnut (i) Fodder (2) Equisetum - Siphonostele
b. Sesbania (ii) Fibre (3) Sphagnum - Cotton moss

c. Soyabean (iii) Edible oil (4) Lycopodium - Heterospory

d. Sunhemp (iv) Pulses 115. Thick cuticle, sunken stomata and needle-like
simple leaves help to reduce water loss in
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(1) Ginkgo
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) Cycas
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (3) Pinus
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) More than one option is correct
110. In Pinus and Cycas plants 116. Read the following statements :

(1) Seeds contain triploid endosperm which (a) Number and codes are assigned to all the
represent the female gametophyte observable characters.

(2) Multicellular female gametophyte is retained (b) Hundreds of characters can be considered at
within megasporangium the same time.
Both of the statements are concerned with
(3) Male and female cones borne on the same and
different trees respectively (1) Phenetics (2) Karyotaxonomy
(4) More than one option is correct (3) Chemotaxonomy (4) -taxonomy

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All India Aakash Test Series-2016 Online Test - 2 (Objective)

117. Choose incorrect option w.r.t. analogous structures 123. How many plants in the list given below have
vexillary aestivation?
(1) Thorn and spine
(2) Phylloclade and cladode Soyabean, Lupin, Pea, Tomato,
(3) Cladode and phyllode Tobacco, Tulip, Chilli, Mustard

(4) Phylloclade and phyllode

(1) Six (2) Seven
118. Consider the statements A to C and select the
correct option : (3) Four (4) Three

(A) Non-albuminous seed is present in pea. 124. Match the following (column I with column II)

(B) Scutellum is a shield-shaped cotyledon in Column I Column II

maize. a. Epiphyllous (i) Sunflower
(C) Perisperm represents remains of endosperm in
b. Epipetalous (ii) Lily
seed.
c. Gynandrous (iii) Calotropis
(1) (A) & (B) (2) (B) & (C)
(3) (A) & (C) (4) (A), (B) & (C) (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

119. Find the correct option w.r.t. aleurone layer. (3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) (4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

(1) Wall of endosperm and embryo in wheat 125. Consider the following statements for plant life
cycles and alternation of generations
(2) Starchy layer in rice
(3) Proteinaceous layer in maize (a) Last cell of gametophytic generation

(4) Dead layer of endosperm in barley (b) Only cell of sporophytic generation
120. Strawberry is formed from Find out the correct option :
(1) Monocarpellary superior gynoecium (1) Porella-(a)-gametes, Sphagnum-(b)-Oospore
(2) Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium (2) Funaria-(a)-spore, Spirogyra-(b)-Zygospore
(3) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium
(3) Pogonatum-(a)-Spore mother cell,
(4) Monocarpellary inferior gynoecium Chlamydomonas-(b)-Zygote
121. Which of the following correctly represents the (4) Polytrichum-(a)-Sex cells, Ulothrix-(b)-Zygote
condition of corolla in mustard?
126. Floral formula is an expression summarizing the
(1) C4 (2) C2 + 2 information given in a floral diagram. How many of
(3) C(5) (4) C1+2+(2) the below symbols are used in constructing a floral
formula?
122. Mark the correct option w.r.t. given diagram

G, , P, Br, %, K, C, A, T, 

(1) Eight (2) Nine

(3) Six (4) Four
127. Which of the given below statements is correct for
the leaf of Neem?

(1) Superior ovary in Brinjal (1) Secondary axis has leaflets

(2) Inferior ovary in Guava (2) Incision of lamina does not reach midrib
(3) Inferior stamen in China rose (3) Possess bud in the axil of petiole
(4) Half inferior ovary in Rose (4) Has a simple lamina

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Online Test - 2 (Objective) All India Aakash Test Series-2016
128. Mark the mismatched pair 136. The cardiac muscle fibres are able to contract as
(1) Volvox – Green algae – Oogamous one unit due to presence of
(1) Intercalated discs
(2) Gracilaria – Red algae – Phycobilins
(2) Oblique junctions
(3) Chlorella – Algae - SCP
(3) Syncytial condition
(4) Trichophilous – Epizoic algae – On molluscan
shells (4) Faint striations
129. _________ has minute pores on the exposed root 137. The most abundant protein in the animal world is
tips through which they take oxygen. (1) RuBisCO
(1) Sugarcane (2) Rhizophora (2) Collagen
(3) Banyan tree (4) Monstera (3) Keratin
130. Runner with short and thick single internode is (4) Haemoglobin
present in
138. Linolenic acid is
(1) Strawberry (2) Grasses (1) Monounsaturated fatty acid
(3) Eichhornia (4) Chrysanthemum (2) Polyunsaturated fatty acid
131. Endocarp is hard and stony in (3) Essential fatty acid
(a) Coconut (b) Mango (4) Both (2) & (3)
(c) Almond (d) Gram 139. Which of the following is the correctly matched pair
Identify the correct set of combination w.r.t. location of muscles and their types?

(1) (a) & (d) (2) (b) & (c) Column I Column II

(3) (a), (b) & (c) (4) (c) & (d) (1) Quadriceps – Voluntary unstriated
muscle of leg muscle
132. The fleshy flask shaped receptacle forms a hollow
pear shaped cavity with a narrow apical opening (2) Abdominal wall – Smooth muscle fibres
guarded by hairy structures in (3) Urinary bladder – Multi unit smooth
(1) Capitulum (2) Cyathium muscle
(3) Hypanthodium (4) Verticillaster (4) Iris – Involuntary spindle

133. Tendrils in pea represent shaped muscle fibres

(1) Modified buds (2) Specialised leaflets 140. The most abundant element in the human body is

(3) Modified stipules (4) Specialised petiole (1) Silicon (2) Carbon
134. Non-archegoniates embryophytes are
(3) Oxygen (4) Nitrogen
(1) Vascular cryptogams
141. The fructosan polysaccharide used to test the
(2) Amphibians of plant kingdom filtration function of kidneys is
(3) Phanerogams with ovary
(1) Inulin (2) Amylopectin
(4) Spermatophytes without ovary
(3) Insulin (4) Hyaluronic acid
135. Artificial system given by Linnaeus was mainly
based on 142. Various protein amino acids are different from each
(1) Internal structure of androecium other on the basis of their ‘R’ groups. The ‘R’ group
containing a heterocyclic ring is present in
(2) Aestivation of sepals or petals
(1) Serine (2) Tyrosine
(3) Androecium character
(4) Structure of vegetative organs (3) Tryptophan (4) Histidine

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 All India Aakash Test Series-2016 Online Test - 2 (Objective)

143. How many of the following characteristics is/are 149. Collection of cytons in the nervous tissue appears
present in single unit visceral muscles? grey in colour due to presence of
(a) Fusiform cells (1) Myelin sheath
(b) Gap junctions between fusiform cells (2) Synaptic vesicles
(c) Syncytial fibres (3) Nissl’s granules
(d) Absence of actin and myosin proteins (4) Supportive neuroglial cells
(e) Involuntary nature 150. Simple epithelium is specialized for secretions,
(1) One (2) Two absorptions and diffusion. Which of the following
locations in the body is not an example of this type
(3) Three (4) Four
of epithelium?
144. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t.
(1) Tubular parts of nephrons
bones?
(1) Bone cells are enclosed in fluid filled spaces (2) Follicular cells in thyroid gland
called lacunae (3) Germinal epithelium of gonads
(2) Bone marrow in bones is the haemopoietic site (4) Larger ducts of salivary glands and pancreas
of the body
151. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t cockroach.
(3) Ground material of bones is solid and pliable
(1) Compound eye makes apposition vision, an
(4) Epiphysis of long bones contains the red bone adaptation for nocturnal mode of life
marrow
(2) Fat bodies are analogous to kidneys of
145. Total number of alary muscles which help in vertebrates as they synthesize the nitrogenous
circulation in cockroach are waste
(1) Twelve pairs (2) Thirteen pairs (3) Blood is colourless as it lacks respiratory
(3) Twelve (4) Thirteen pigments
146. Tegmina of the cockroach is (4) Nitrogenous wastes are released in the blood in
(1) Functional membranous metathoracic wings the form of monovalent urate salts

(2) The longest podomere of legs 152. Uninucleate muscle fibres with cylindrical shape are
present in
(3) Thick and narrow mesothoracic wing covers
(1) Smooth muscles and cardiac muscles
(4) Sensory projections hanging out of the mouth
(2) Striated muscles and cardiac muscles
147. Which of the following is correctly matched w.r.t
cockroach? (3) Cardiac muscles only
(1) Utriculi majores – Functional tubules of (4) Smooth muscles only
mushroom gland 153. Uridine monophosphate is
(2) Ootheca – Secreted by phallic (1) A uracil nucleoside
gland
(2) A uracil nucleotide
(3) Outer covering – Secreted by collaterial
(3) A monomer of deoxyribonucleic acid
of spermatophore glands
(4) Both (2) & (3)
(4) Spermatheca – Site of storage and
154. Find the odd one out w.r.t. cilia in the type of simple
maturation of sperms epithelium.
in male cockroaches (1) Wall of fallopian tubes
148. The cell junction which fixes an epithelial cell to its
(2) Wall of trachea
basal lamina is
(3) Wall of bronchioles
(1) Gap junction (2) Tight junction
(3) Adhering junction (4) Hemidesmosome (4) Wall of vas deferens and epididymis

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Online Test - 2 (Objective) All India Aakash Test Series-2016
155. The cartilage with transparent, glass like ground 161. Consider the following statements about a particular
material and the matrix which looks apparently cell in nervous tissue.
fibreless is present in all the given examples, (a) Mesodermal in origin
except
(b) Non excitable in nature
(1) Tip of the nose
(c) Phagocytic, engulfs foreign pathogens
(2) Nasal septum (d) Type of supportive neuroglial cell
(3) Tracheal rings These properties are applicable to

(4) Articular surfaces of bones (1) Astrocyte (2) Oligodendrocyte

(3) Neurolemmocyte (4) Microglial cell
156. Which of the following parts of cockroach are similar
w.r.t their origin or structure? 162. Which of the following can be considered as correct
difference/s between white and brown adipose
(1) Labium and maxillae tissues?
(2) Mandible and maxillae (a) Higher amounts of cytoplasm in brown
adipocytes
(3) Hypopharynx and maxillae
(b) Higher amounts of mitochondria in brown
(4) Labrum and labium adipocytes
(c) Absence of cytochrome and lesser blood supply
157. Select the odd one out from the given options.
in brown adipose tissue
(1) Adenylic acid (d) Larger heat generation capacity in white
(2) Guanosine monophosphate adipose tissue
(1) (a) & (b) only (2) (a), (b) & (c)
(3) Cytidylic acid
(3) (a), (b) & (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(4) Cytidine 163. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t bones.
158. The types of neurons present in cochlea part of (1) 70% mass of bone is made of inorganic matter
internal ear of humans are (2) Dissolving a bone in KOH causes
(1) Unipolar neurons demineralization
(3) A dried bone lacks the bone marrow tissue
(2) Bipolar neurons
(4) Bones treated with dil. HCl contain only organic
(3) Multipolar neurons matter which contributes 30% of bone mass
(4) Pseudounipolar neurons 164. Endochondrial bones are formed by replacement of
an existing cartilage by bone. Which of the following
159. All of the following are secretions of multicellular is not an example of such bone?
exocrine glands, except (1) Clavicles (2) Ribs
(1) Tears (3) Femur (4) Vertebrae
(2) Saliva 165. The gland in which the secretory cell releases its
secretion by lysis of its terminal end which comes
(3) Milk out along with secretions is
(4) Mucus (1) Holocrine sweat gland
(2) Merocrine salivary gland
160. Which of the following is not observed in an
electrical synapse but is possible in a chemical (3) Apocrine mammary gland
synapse? (4) Apocrine sebaceous gland
(1) Synaptic delay 166. Transitional epithelium is stretchable due to
absence of the basement membrane. It is present
(2) Synaptic fatigue in all locations, except
(3) Unidirectional impulse transmission (1) Renal pelvis (2) Ureters

(4) All of these (3) Urinary bladder (4) Urethra

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All India Aakash Test Series-2016 Online Test - 2 (Objective)
167. Consider the following statements. 170. In the following diagram, a right shift in the curve so
that Km increases but the Vmax remains same will
(a) Cells are held together firmly by tight junctions.
indicate
(b) Intercellular matrix is negligible.
(c) Richly vascularized Vmax
(d) High power of regeneration (c)
Vmax

reaction (V)
Velocity of
(e) Epithelial tissue may have the presence of 2
nerve supply
(f) Covered by dense reticular connective tissue
How many of the above is/are applicable to
epithelial tissues?
(1) One (2) Two (1) Competitive inhibition
(3) Three (4) Four
(2) Non competitive inhibition
168. In the given diagram, the type of bonds which bind
the nitrogen bases to each other are (3) Feedback inhibition

(4) Allosteric modulation

5' 3' OCH2 O 171. Which of the following secondary metabolites is an

O Thymine ....... Adenine O CH2
essential oil?

(1) Monoterpene
O O
O=P–OH HO–P=O
(2) Curcumin
O O
Guanine.......
.......Cytosine
CH2 O O CH2 (3) Lemon grass oil

(4) Concanavalin
5' 3' O O
172. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. the functions
performed by various proteins and their examples.
(1) Covalent phosphodiester bonds
Functions Proteins
(2) Ionic bonds
(3) Hydrogen bonds (1) Intercellular – Collagen

(4) Glycosidic bonds ground substance

169. How many of the following factors can affect the (2) Fights infectious – Antibody
rate of an enzyme catalyzed reactions?
agents
(a) Temperature
(3) Hormone – GLUT-4
(b) pH
(c) Change in substrate concentration (4) Enzyme – Enterokinase

(d) Inhibitor resembling the substrate in structure 173. The maximum percentage of the dry weight of a
cell is contributed by its
(e) Alteration in tertiary structure of the protein
(1) Ions
(1) (a) & (b) only
(2) (a), (b) & (c) only (2) Lipids

(3) (a), (b) & (e) only (3) Carbohydrates

(4) (a), (b), (c), (d) & (e) (4) Proteins

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 Online Test - 2 (Objective) All India Aakash Test Series-2016

174. NH2 HO–CH2 O Adenine 177. The sperms of cockroach are stored in the seminal
N vesicles and glued together in the form of bundles
N
called spermatophores.

N N The coverings of a spermatophore from outer to

H (A) (B)
OH OH inner side are secreted by , and
(A)
(B) (C) respectively.
O
O Adenine Choose the correct option which fills the blanks (A),
HO P OCH 2
(B) and (C).
OH
(1) Phallic gland, ejaculatory duct, utriculi breviores
(2) Phallic gland, ejaculatory duct, utriculi majores
OH OH (3) Phallic gland, collaterial gland, ejaculatory duct
(C)
(4) Utriculi majores, ejaculatory duct, phallic gland
Identify A, B and C w.r.t. the above diagram and
select the correct option accordingly. 178. Consider the following statements.
(1) A - Nitrogenous base (a) Excess of nutrients which are not used
B - Nucleoside immediately are stored in this tissue.
C - Nucleotide (b) It is a type of loose connective tissue located
(2) A - Nucleotide mainly beneath the skin.
B - Nucleic acid The above statements are applicable to
C - Nitrogenous base (1) Areolar connective tissue
(3) A - Nitrogenous base
(2) Adipose connective tissue
B - Nucleic acid
(3) Loose reticular tissue
C - Dinucleotide
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) A - Pyrimidine base
179. The cell junction which performs cementing action
B - Nucleoside
to keep the neighbouring cells together in an
C - Nucleotide epithelial tissue is
175. Outer layer of circular muscles and thick inner
(1) Tight junction
cuticle forming six chitinous teeth are characteristics
of ____________ of digestive system of cockroach. (2) Adhering junction
(1) Crop (2) Gizzard
(3) Gap junction
(3) Midgut (4) Gastric caecae
(4) Hemidesmosome
176. Brain of the cockroach is represented by its
(1) Suboesophageal ganglia 180. The total number of segmental ganglia in the ventral
nerve cord of cockroach is
(2) Circum-oesophageal connectives
(3) Supra oesophageal ganglia (1) Six (2) Three
(4) Cranial nerves (3) Nine (4) Nine pairs

  

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Online Test - 2 [Objective (Answers & Hints)] All India Aakash Test Series-2016

ONLINE T EST – 2

ANSWERS
1. (2) 37. (1) 73. (2) 109. (1) 145. (1)
2. (1) 38. (1) 74. (3) 110. (2) 146 (3)
3. (4) 39. (4) 75. (2) 111. (3) 147. (1)
4. (1) 40. (1) 76. (1) 112. (4) 148. (4)
5. (1) 41. (3) 77. (4) 113. (2) 149. (3)
6. (2) 42. (1) 78. (3) 114. (4) 150. (4)
7. (3) 43. (1) 79. (2) 115. (3) 151. (2)
8. (3) 44. (3) 80. (3) 116. (1) 152. (3)
9. (1) 45. (2) 81. (4) 117. (2) 153. (2)
10. (1) 46. (2) 82. (2) 118. (1) 154. (4)
11. (1) 47. (4) 83. (2) 119. (3) 155. (1)
12. (4) 48. (2) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (1)
13. (1) 49. (1) 85. (2) 121. (1) 157. (4)
14. (4) 50. (3) 86. (2) 122. (4) 158. (2)
15. (3) 51. (3) 87. (1) 123. (4) 159. (4)
16. (4) 52. (4) 88. (2) 124. (1) 160. (4)
17. (2) 53. (1) 89. (2) 125. (4) 161. (4)
18. (1) 54. (4) 90. (1) 126. (2) 162. (1)
19. (4) 55. (1) 91. (4) 127. (3) 163. (2)
20. (2) 56. (3) 92. (2) 128. (4) 164. (1)
21. (3) 57. (3) 93. (3) 129. (2) 165. (3)
22. (4) 58. (2) 94. (4) 130. (3) 166. (4)
23. (1) 59. (3) 95. (4) 131. (3) 167. (4)
24. (4) 60. (3) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (3)
25. (3) 61. (1) 97. (2) 133. (2) 169. (4)
26. (2) 62. (2) 98. (3) 134. (3) 170. (1)
27. (2) 63. (1) 99. (1) 135. (3) 171. (3)
28. (2) 64. (4) 100. (2) 136. (1) 172. (3)
29. (3) 65. (3) 101. (1) 137. (2) 173. (4)
30. (4) 66. (1) 102. (3) 138. (4) 174. (1)
31. (3) 67. (4) 103. (3) 139. (4) 175. (2)
32. (2) 68. (2) 104. (4) 140. (3) 176. (3)
33. (3) 69. (3) 105. (3) 141. (1) 177. (2)
34. (4) 70. (3) 106. (4) 142. (4) 178. (2)
35. (4) 71. (2) 107. (1) 143. (3) 179. (2)
36. (2) 72. (1) 108. (2) 144. (3) 180. (3)

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 All India Aakash Test Series-2016 Online Test - 2 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS ]
1. Answer (2) 10. Answer (1)
From conservation of linear momentum F = f + mg sin
  = tan
mviˆ  mv1 ˆj  mv2
F = mg sin + mg sin = 2 mg sin
2. Answer (1)
11. Answer (1)
3. Answer (4)
m (g + a) = kx
m1r1  m2 r2 12. Answer (4)
10 (2)  20 ( r2 )
2s L
4. Answer (1) t s
g sin  cos 
T
13. Answer (1)
w 

 T cos   mg
T
w1
L2  r 2
Applying Lami’s theorem cos  
r L
mg
w w1
 14. Answer (4)
sin(90  ) sin(180  )
15. Answer (3)
5. Answer (1) 16. Answer (4)
  
VAC  VA  VC Fv
P
  746
 mVA  mVB
 VA 
mm 17. Answer (2)
 
mVA  mVB
 1 1
2m E Kx 2 , Kx  constant, E 
  2 K
VA  VB

2 18. Answer (1)
6. Answer (2) 19. Answer (4)
 
dv F r  0
Thrust = M + mg
dt 20. Answer (2)
7. Answer (3) momentum of 1 kg = 2.5 kg – m/s
F = mvn 21. Answer (3)
8. Answer (3) 22. Answer (4)
a = g tan 23. Answer (1)
F = (m + M) a w  k
9. Answer (1) 24. Answer (4)

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Online Test - 2 [Objective (Answers & Hints)] All India Aakash Test Series-2016
25. Answer (3) 36. Answer (2)
Conservation of mechanical energy
N2
1 ⎛l ⎞
2
1 10
k ⎜ ⎟  0  mv 2 8 m
2 ⎝4⎠ 2 N1
6m
26. Answer (2)
f O
27. Answer (2) 80g
28. Answer (2)
N1  80 g  800 N
k 4m1m2 f  N2
 , (m2  nm1 )
k (m1  m2 )2
Torque about ‘O’
29. Answer (3)
(80 g) 3 = N2 8
30. Answer (4)
N2 = 300 N
e2 H = h
31. Answer (3) 37. Answer (1)

C r1 r2 O 38. Answer (1)

(12 amu) (16 amu)
r0
m1r1 = m2r2 mv0r0 = mv
2
32. Answer (2)
v = 2v0
  rf sin
  30 1
  (.5) (100) sin 30° k  m(4v 02  v 02 )
2
33. Answer (3) 39. Answer (4)

Angular-momentum conservation about P

L
L ⎛2 ⎞ 2 ⎛v ⎞
2 3 mv 0 r  ⎜ mr 2 ⎟ w  mvr  mr 2 ⎜ ⎟
⎝5 ⎠ 5 ⎝r ⎠
⎛ v0 ⎞
⎜w  ⎟
⎝ 2r ⎠
From Parallel axis theorem
40. Answer (1)
⎡ ML2 2
⎛ L ⎞ ⎤ 
0
= 3 ⎢  M ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
⎢⎣ 12 ⎝ 2 3 ⎠ ⎥⎦  
r F  0
M = 1 kg 41. Answer (3)
L = 0.3 m
Mass of circular plate  mass of square plate
34. Answer (4)
42. Answer (1)
t = 1, particle at maximum. height
L = 0.1 (20 cos 30) Hmax E
ER  R2 5
35. Answer (4) R2 
1 K 2 2
w  2 K2

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All India Aakash Test Series-2016 Online Test - 2 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]
43. Answer (1) ⎛ 3R ⎞
⎛R⎞
F⎜ ⎟ W ⎜ ⎟⎟
⎝2⎠ ⎜
44. Answer (3) ⎝ 2 ⎠

F w 3

45. Answer (2)

I   constant
O
2
F mR 2   constant
R 5
R 1
2 O  2
3R
R R
2
2 %  2 R% ; v  R 3
w 2
  v %; v %  3R%
3
F about O  W about O  0.67%

[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. Answer (2) 53. Answer (1)
P1V1 = P2V2 1
PV1 = 1.2 PV2 PCH4  16  20  1.48 atm
1 1 1 1
  
V2 1 2 4 16 32
 54. Answer (4)
V1 1.2
H-bonding
V2 5
 55. Answer (1)
V1 6
Fact

1 56. Answer (3)

 Decrease   100  16.6
6 Ti > TB > TC
47. Answer (4) 57. Answer (3)
All are correct H-bonding
48. Answer (2) 58. Answer (2)
Fact For isothermal process, AU = 0
49. Answer (1) 59. Answer (3)
Amonton’s law and Gaylussac’s law are same Work done in vacuum is zero because Pext = 0
50. Answer (3) 60. Answer (3)
[Total KE = N0 × Average KE] HF have maximum heat of neutralisation
51. Answer (3) 61. Answer (1)
Fact
8RT
avg  62. Answer (2)
M
CH2 = CH2 + H2 CH3 – CH3
52. Answer (4)
Hr o  ∑ Hf (P)  ∑ Hf (R)
rx 127 / t 71
  Mx  44
rCl2 100 / t Mx  500  ( 300)  200 kJ

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Online Test - 2 [Objective (Answers & Hints)] All India Aakash Test Series-2016
63. Answer (1) 76. Answer (1)
Adding all the equations CH3COONa + HCl  CH3COOH + NaCl
Initial 500 200 0 0
64. Answer (4) Millimoles 300 0 200 200
Fact
Now, pH  pK a  log
Salt 
65. Answer (3) [Acid]
3
G° = –2.303 RT log K  4.74  log
2
66. Answer (1)  4.917
Fact 77. Answer (4)
Common ion effect
67. Answer (4)
78. Answer (3)
G = H – TS Ksp = (2S)2 (3S)3
68. Answer (2) = 108S5
At ‘b’ the concentration becomes constant 79. Answer (2)
HgS has least value of Ksp
69. Answer (3)
80. Answer (3)
[Ni2+] [OH–]2 = 10–13 HF is a weak acid
[OH–]2 = 10–10 81. Answer (4)
O O
pOH = 5  pH = 9
+5 0 0 +5
70. Answer (3) O S S S S O

CuSO4 + 4NH3  [Cu(NH3)4]2+ SO24 O O

82. Answer (2)
71. Answer (2) Oxygen has +1 oxidation state
A(s) 3B(g) + 2C(g) 83. Answer (2)
1 0 0 OOC
1–x 3P 2P 3MnO4   5Fe  5Fe3   5CO2  3Mn
2
OOC
5P = 6.25, P = 1.25 84. Answer (3)
Kp = (3 1.25)3 (2 1.25)2 O(–2)
O O(–1)
= 329.5
Cr
72. Answer (1)
O O
73. Answer (2) 85. Answer (2)
NaHCO3 can gain or loose H+ Cu2+(aq) oxidise Zn
86. Answer (2)
74. Answer (3)
–ve value of E°cell
CH3COONa + HCl  CH3COOH + NaCl 87. Answer (1)
75. Answer (2) Lowest value of E°red
88. Answer (2)
C 2 10 2  2 2
Ka  ⇒ 103  ⇒ 101  89. Answer (2)
1  1  1 
M
ECl2 
5/3
⇒ 1    10 2 ⇒ 10 2    1  0
90. Answer (1)
After solving, = 0.27 Fact

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All India Aakash Test Series-2016 Online Test - 2 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Answer (4) 108. Answer (2)
Prothallus – non-vascular, unicellular rhizoids, green Gymnosperms
92. Answer (2) 109. Answer (1)
Bryophytes, pteridophytes possess jacketed sex Fabaceae
organs 110. Answer (2)
93. Answer (3) Endosperm is haploid in gymnosperms. In Cycas
Red algae – Oogamy female cones are absent.

Spirogyra – Isogametes, internal fertilisation 111. Answer (3)

94. Answer (4) n = 20

Oospore (2n) = 40, venter (n) = 20, antheridophore
Brown algae
(n) = 20
95. Answer (4)
112. Answer (4)
Selaginella – (i) to (vi)
Synergids (n) and antipodal cells (n)
Cycas – (iii), (iv), (v), (vi)
113. Answer (2)
96. Answer (3)
Gymnosperms and angiosperms represent diplontic
Sperms require water to reach the mouth of life cycle.
archegonium
114. Answer (4)
97. Answer (2)
Homosporous
Liliaceae – trilocular ovary
115. Answer (3)
98. Answer (3)
Conifers
In Riccia and Sphagnum, elaters are absent.
116. Answer (1)
99. Answer (1)
Numerical taxonomy
Adelphous stamens are present in Malvaceae and
117. Answer (2)
Fabaceae.
Phylloclade – modified stem
100. Answer (2)
Cladode – modified stem branch
Chlorophyceae
118. Answer (1)
101. Answer (1)
Perisperm is remains of nucellus in seeds.
Basal placentation
102. Answer (3) 119. Answer (3)

Oosphere / egg Maize, Barley

103. Answer (3) 120. Answer (3)

Zone of elongation Aggregate fruit
104. Answer (4) 121. Answer (1)
Equisetum
+ K 2 2 C4 A 2 4 G(2)
105. Answer (3)
Monoecious prothallus of ferns is protandrous. 122. Answer (4)
106. Answer (4) Rose – Perigynous flowers
Perennial herbs Guava – Epigynous flowers
107. Answer (1) 123. Answer (4)
Direct pollination in gymnosperms. Soyabean, Lupin, Pea

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Online Test - 2 [Objective (Answers & Hints)] All India Aakash Test Series-2016

124. Answer (1) 142. Answer (4)

Epiphyllous or epitepalous stamens are found in Histidine, proline and hydroxyproline are heterocyclic
Liliaceae. amino acids.
125. Answer (4) 143. Answer (3)
(a) Gamete Single unit smooth muscles are fusiform, have gap
(b) Zygote in algae junctions and are involuntary in nature.
126. Answer (2) 144. Answer (3)
Not ‘T’ symbol Ground material of bones, is solid and non pliable.
127. Answer (3) 145. Answer (1)
Imparipinnate unipinnate leaf Twelve pairs of alary muscles are present, attached
128. Answer (4) to dorsal body wall and dorsal diaphragm.

On sloth bear 146 Answer (3)

129. Answer (2) Mesothoracic wings act as tegmina / wing covers.

Respiratory roots Metathoracic wings are actual flying wings.
130. Answer (3) 147. Answer (1)
Offset Ootheca is secreted by collaterial glands. Outer
covering of spermatophore is produced by phallic
131. Answer (3)
gland.
Drupe
148. Answer (4)
132. Answer (3)
149. Answer (3)
Hypanthodium is found in Ficus (Fig).
Nissl’s granules provide grey colour to cytons while
133. Answer (2) myelin sheath provides white colour to bundles/tracts
Modified leaflets/leaf of axons.
134. Answer (3) 150. Answer (4)
Angiosperms Larger ducts of salivary glands and pancreas have
135. Answer (3) compound cuboidal epithelium.

Structure of androecium / number of stamens. 151. Answer (2)

136. Answer (1) Fat bodies (corpora adiposa) are analogous to liver.
Malpighian tubules are analogous to kidneys.
Intercalated discs allow impulse transmission from
one fibre to next with minimum resistance. 152. Answer (3)
137. Answer (2) Striated muscle fibres are multinucleate with
cylindrical shape.
RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in the living
world. 153. Answer (2)
138. Answer (4) Phosphorylated nucleosides are nucleotides.
Polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) are essential 154. Answer (4)
fatty acids. Vas deferens and epididymis have stereociliated
139. Answer (4) epithelium while all others are kinociliated.
Skeletal muscles are voluntary and striated. 155. Answer (1)
Abdominal wall has striated muscles. The cartilage in question is hyaline cartilage which
Urinary bladder wall has single unit smooth muscles. is not present in the tip of the nose (elastic).
140. Answer (3) 156. Answer (1)
141. Answer (1) Both labium and maxillae are segmented.

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All India Aakash Test Series-2016 Online Test - 2 [Objective (Answers & Hints)]

157. Answer (4) 168. Answer (3)

Cytidine is a nucleoside while others are nucleotides. Nitrogenous bases are attached to each other by
158. Answer (2) hydrogen bonds.

Cochlea, retina and olfactory epithelium have bipolar 169. Answer (4)
neurons. 170. Answer (1)
159. Answer (4) Competitive inhibitors cause increase in Km value but
Mucus is produced by goblet cells, which are Vmax remains same.
unicellular exocrine glands. Non competitive inhibitors decrease the Vmax with Km
160. Answer (4) remaining the same.
Synaptic delay, synaptic fatigue and unidirectional 171. Answer (3)
impulse transmission are characteristics of chemical 172. Answer (3)
synapses.
GLUT-4 is a glucose transporting protein.
161. Answer (4)
173. Answer (4)
Microglial cells are mesodermal phagocytic cells.
Proteins make 10–15% of total cell mass, maximum
162. Answer (1)
after water which is 70–90% of cell mass.
Presence of cytochrome and higher blood supply
174. Answer (1)
along with greater heat generation capacity are
features of brown adipose tissue. 175. Answer (2)
163. Answer (2) 176. Answer (3)
KOH solution does not affect the bones. A pair of large supra-oesophageal ganglia represent
Dimineralisation occurs in dil. HCl. the brain of the cockroach.
164. Answer (1) 177. Answer (2)
Clavicle is an example of dermal or investing bone. 178. Answer (2)
165. Answer (3) Adipose connective tissue stores the excess
166. Answer (4) nutrients and is located beneath the skin along with
areolar tissue.
Urethra wall has pseudostratified non ciliated
epithelium. 179. Answer (2)
167. Answer (4) 180. Answer (3)
Epithelial tissue is avascular and not covered by The nerve cord of cockroach has nine ganglia, three
dense reticular connective tissue. in its thorax and six in the abdomen.

  

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